X ClassSampleTestpaper

TALLENTEX SAMPLE TEST PAPER (FOR CLASS X STUDENTS) Time : 2½ Hrs.

Maximun Marks : 400

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS 1.

The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator.

2.

Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

3.

Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

4.

The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5.

On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 30 pages and all the 130 questions.

6.

In Part-II you need to attempt any one of the Section - C/D (Biology/Mathematics) & fill your response corresponding to Q. No. in ORS Sheet

7.

A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer of the question attempted.

8.

Question Paper Formate : The question paper consists of 2 parts. Part-I : IQ (Mental Ability) & Part-II : Physics, Chemistry, Biology & Mathematics.

9.

Marking Scheme : Part-I : For each question in Part-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this part. Part-II : For each questions of Part-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad | Jaipur

TALLENTEX

Class - X

PART - I I Q (MENTAL ABILITY) This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1.

2.

3.

In a chess tournament each of six players will play with all other players exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament ? (1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 30

(4) 36

In an examination, 42% students failed in Hindi and 52% failed in English. If 17% failed in both the subjects, the percentage of those who passed in both the subjects, is (1) 23%

(2) 27%

(3) 35%

(4) 40%

If GO = 32, SHE = 49, then SOME will be equal to (1) 52

4.

(2) 58

(3) 62

(4) 64

In a certain code language 'CAT' is written as 3120 and 'DOG' is written as 4157. Then which of the following is certainly the decoded form of 25144? (1) BEND

(2) BEADD

(3) YADD or YND

(4) Can't be determined

Directions : (Q.5 and Q.6) Each of the questions below contains three elements. These three elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one of the diagrams at (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to indicate groups of elements in each of the questions fit into which of the diagrams given below. The letter indicating the diagram is the answer.

(1)

(2)

5.

Square, Rectangle, Polygon

6.

Anxiety, Intelligence, Strength

(3)

(4)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 7

Find the missing number ? 1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

27

38

?

(1) 49 (2) 50 (3) 51 (4) 52 8. Find the missing numbers ? CK 16 9 JR OS 24 19 TX KM ? ? PV (1) 14, 21 (2) 21, 14 (3) 56, 84 (4) 84, 56 Directions : (Q.9 and Q.10) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right. Rules: I. If an odd number is followed by a two-digit even number then they are to be added. II. If an odd number is followed by a two-digit odd number then the second number is to be subtracted from the first number. III. If an even number is followed by a number which is a perfect square of a number then the second number is to be divided by the first number. IV. If an even number is followed by a two-digit even number then the first number is to be multiplied by the second number. 9. 13 11 4 17 13 12 If the resultant of the first set of numbers is multiplied by the resultant of the second set of numbers, what will be the outcome? (1) 48 (2) 69 (3) 75 (4) 96 10. 40 30 3600 15 24 17 What will be the sum of the two resultant numbers of the sets of numbers given above? (1) 22 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 42 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

2/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X

11.

From a point, Rajneesh started walking East and walked 35 m. He then turned on his right and walked 20 m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally, he turned his left and walked 20 m and reached his destination. Now, how far is he from the starting point ? (1) 50m (2) 55m (3) 20m (4) 40 m 12. Vijayan started walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turned to the left and walked 15 m. He again turned to his left and walked 15 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction ? (1) 15 m, North (2) 15 m, South (3) 30 m, East (4) None of these 13. It being given that : > denotes +, < denotes –, + denotes ¸ , – denotes =, = denotes 'less than' and × denotes 'greater than ', find which of the following is a correct statement. (1) 3 + 2 > 4 = 9 + 3 < 2 (2) 3 > 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 1 (3) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2 (4) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9 + 3 < 3 14. In each of the following questions, different alphabets stand for various symbols as indicated below : Addition : O Subtracton : M Multiplication : A Division : Q Equal to : X Greater than : Y Less than : Z Out of the four alternatives given in these questions, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct answer. (1) 2 Z 2 A 4 O 1 A 4 M 8 (2) 8 Y 2 A 3 A 4 Q 2 A 4 (3) 10 X 2 O 2 A 4 O 1 M 2 (4) 12 X 4 O 2 Q 1 A 4 A 2 Directions : (Q.15 and Q.16) In each of the following questions, there is a set of four figures labelled A, B, C and D called the Problem Set followed by a set of four other figures labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the answer set contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C and D taken in order. The number of the selected figure is the answer. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 15. A

B

C

D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

A

B

C

D

16.

17.

(1) (2) (3) (4) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror-image of the fig (X). from amongst the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.

(X)

18.

(1) (2) (3) (4) Choose out of these four figures which shows the correct water-image of the

(1) 19.

(2)

(3)

In each of the following questions, find the number of triangles in the the given figure.

(1) 15

(2) 16

(3) 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4/30

(4)

(4) 18

TALLENTEX 20.

Class - X

In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as its part.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4) Directions (Q.21 to Q.25): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. 21. Problem figure

Answer figure

22.

Problem figure

Answer figure

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

5/30

Class - X 23.

TALLENTEX

Problem figure

Answer figure

24.

Problem figure

Answer figure

25.

Problem figure

Answer figure

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

6/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X

Directions (Q.26 to Q.28) : In each of the following questions, count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.

26. (A) 28 triangles, 10 squares (3) 32 triangles, 10 squares

(2) 28 triangles, 8 squares (4) 32 triangles, 8 squares

27.

28.

(1) 44 triangles, 10 squares (2) 14 triangles, 16 squares (3) 27 triangles, 6 squares (4) 36 triangles, 9 squares How many triangles are contained in the given figures?

(1) 18

(2) 12

(3) 16

(4) none of these

Directions (Q.29 & Q.30) : Find the number of triangles in the the given figure. 29.

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

(1) 15

(2) 16

(3) 17

(4) 18

30.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

7/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X

PART - II SECTION-A : PHYSICS This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 31. In the situation shown in fig., the direction of induced current in the rod PQ is .......................... . × : Magnetic field into the page P v

Q

32.

33.

(1) Downward (2) Upward (3) Inward (4) Outward When a light ray is refracted into a medium from vacuum, then ? (1) Its wavelength and frequency both increase (2) Its wavelength increases but frequency remains constant (3) Its wavelength decreases but frequency remains constant (4) Its wavelength and frequency both decrease Aaditya kept the same shirt under different coloured light bulbs and observed the following. Which of the following could be the actual colour of the shirt when viewed under sunlight ?

(1) white (3) either white or black

Red light bulb

Blue light bulb

Green light bulb

looks red

looks blue

looks green

(2) black (4) any of these - red, blue or green SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8/30

TALLENTEX 34.

In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then

+

35.

Class - X

–

(• )

(1) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout (2) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is no effect when the key is removed (3) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in the same direction (4) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the deflections are in opposite directions In the circuit shown below, the 5W resistor develops 10.24 cal/s due to the current flowing through it. The heat developed per second in the 2W resistance is :6W

4W

2W

B A 5W

36.

(1) 9.216 cal (2) 5.321 cal (3) 6.421 cal (4) 8.416 cal A uniform conductor of resistance R is cut into 20 equal pieces. Half of them are joined in series and the remaining half of them are joined in parallel. If the two combinatons are joined in series, the effective resistance of all the pieces is :(1)

R 2

(2)

101R 200

(3)

R 202

(4)

R 200

Directions : Read the following statements and mark your answer as true or false (Q.37 to Q.39) 37. A ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, will pass through the principal focus in case of a convex mirror. (1) True (2) False SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

9/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 38.

The power of a rectangular slab is zero i.e., its focal length is infinite. (1) True (2) False 39. The star appears slightly lower (below) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon. (1) True (2) False Directions : Q.40 is based on matching the columns. The question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which only ONE is correct. Match the column 40.

Column-I Column-II (A) Mechanical to (p) Electrolysis Electrical (B) Heat to Electrical (q) Generator (C) Electrical to Chemical (D) Nuclear to Heat

(r) Thermocouple (s) Thermocouple

(1) (A)-q ; (B)-s ; (C)-p ; (D)-r (2) (A)-s ; (B)-r ; (C)-p ; (D)-q (3) (A)-s ; (B)-p ; (C)-q ; (D)-r (4) (A)-r ; (B)-q ; (C)-p ; (D)-s Comprehension :- This section contains 4 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). Comprehension # 1 (Q.41 & Q.42) :- A plane mirror of

192 m is fixed vertically on ground. A string

of 16m length is connected to the top of mirror and at 8m away from the bottom of mirror on ground. A small insect is moving along string with constant velocity 1ms–1.

Plane mirror 192 m

String 16 m

Ground 8m SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

10/30

TALLENTEX 41.

42.

Class - X

Depth of image of insect from the top of mirror in 4 sec is :(1) 3 5 m

(2) 6 3 m

(3) 2 3 m

(4) 2 3 m

Distance of image of insect from mirror at 4 sec is :(1) 6m

(2) 5m

(3) 4m

(4) 3m

Comprehension # 2 (Q.43 & Q.44) :- When a concave mirror is placed facing the sun, the sun's rays converge to a point 10 cm from the mirror. Now, an erect , 2-cm-long pin is placed 15 cm away on the principal axis of the mirror. If you want to get the image of the pin on a card. 43.

44.

Where would you place the card from the mirror is :(1) 35 cm

(2) 30 cm

(3) 25 cm

(4) 40 cm

What is the height of image? (1) 4 cm

(2) 6 cm

(3) 7 cm

(4) 8 cm

Comprehension # 3 (Q.45 to Q.47) : Each paragraph in the following section describes a problem. Apply your understanding of fundamental concepts and use the information in the paragraph to answer the questions given at the end of the paragraph. A balloon of mass 100 kg with a basket of mass 25 kg attached to it is rising with a uniform velocity 10 m/sec. A person of mass 50 kg is also standing in the basket. He released a packet of mass 2kg when its height is 120 m. The person observes that the packet hit the ground. Assume that the balloon continues to move with the same uniform velocity vertically upward and g = 10 m/s2 answer the following questions :45.

46.

47.

Time taken by the packet when it hits the ground:(1) 4.67 sec

(2) 6sec

(3) 2.57 sec

(4) 9.45 sec

Height of the balloon when the packet hits the ground nearly :(1) 112 m

(2) 120 m

(3) 105 m

(4) 180 m

Velocity of packet when it reach to the maximum height (1) 4 m/sec

(2) zero

(3) 6m/sec

(4) 8m/sec SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

11/30

Class - X

TALLENTEX

Comprehension #4(Q.48 to 50) :- We know that the moon goes around the earth. The motion of the moon around the earth is due to the centripetal force. The centripetal force is provided by the force of attraction of the earth. This force of attraction is called the gravitational force. The mass of the earth is 6× 1024 kg and that of the moon is 7.4 × 1022 kg. The radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 m and that of the moon is 1.74 × 106 m. If the universal gravitational constant is G = 6.7 × 10–11

Nm 2 . Answer the following kg2

questions :

MM Moon RM Mc Re Earth

48.

49.

50.

If the gravitational force on the moon due to earth is F then force on the earth due to moon is :(1) 2F

(2) F/2

(3) F

(4) F/4

If the mass of the object is 10kg on earth. What is its mass on the moon :(1) 1.67 kg

(2) 10 kg

(3) 5 kg

(4) 7 kg

If the weight of the object of mass m on the moon is 6N Then what is the weight of the object of mass 2m on the earth :(1) 36 N

(2) 72 N

(3) 6 N

(4) 18 N SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

12/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 51. Which of the following represents the correct increasing order of unsaturation? (1) Alkanes, alkenes, alkynes (2) Alkanes, alkynes, alkenes (3) Alkenes, alkynes, alkanes (4) Alkynes, alkanes, alkenes 52.

Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F have the following atomic numbers (A = 12, B = 17, C = 18, D = 7, E = 9 and F = 11). Among these elements, the element, which belongs to the 3rd period and has the highest ionisation potential, is __________. (1) A

53.

54.

(2) B

(3) C

(4) F

A chemical compound having a strong smell of chlorine is used to disinfect water it is. (1) NaCl

(2) MgCl2

(3) CaOCl 2

(4) HgCl 2

If 6.02 × 10 20 molecules of N 2 are removed from 0.01 mole of N 2 what amount (in g) of N 2 is left :(1) 0.252 g (2) 0.028 g (3) 0.0252 g (4) None of these

55.

Which one of the following statement is true :(1) Mass of 0.25 mole CH4 and

1 mole O2 are different 8

(2) Number of atoms in 0.25 mole CH4 and

(3) Molecules of 0.25 mole CH4 and

1 mole O2 are same 8

1 moles of O2 are same 8

(4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

13/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 56. 57. 58. 59.

60.

Certain hydrated crystalline salts which lose their water are called efflorescent. (1) True (2) False Washing soda is used to remove yellowness of white clothes in laundries. (1) True (2) False Ethanoic acid and ethanol can be distinguished by litmus test as well as by sodium bicarbonate test. (1) True (2) False Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding Mendeleev's periodic table :(1) Basis of classification is increasing order of atomic mass (2) Gaps were left for undiscovered elements in his table (3) Seperate position was given for diffrent isotopes of the element (4) Noble gases were not known when he formulated his table Which of the following equation represents single displacement reaction :(1) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq)® NaNO3(aq) + AgCl(ppt)¯ (2) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) ® 2MgO(s)

D ® CaO(s) + CO2(g) ­ (3) CaCO3(s) ¾¾ (4) Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)­ Comprehension :- This section contains 4 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). Comprehension # 1 (Q.61 & Q.62) :- Sample of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solutions one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows : Iron (II) Metal sulphate solution A No Reaction

Copper (II) sulphate solution Displacement –

Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate solution solution –

–

No Reaction

–

B

Displacement

C

No Reaction

No Reaction

No Reaction Displacement

D

No Reaction

No Reaction

No Reaction No Reaction

Use the table given above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

14/30

TALLENTEX 61.

62.

Class - X

Which is the must reactive metal :(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in order of decreasing reactivity :(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > C > B > A

(3) B > A > C > D

(4) B > C > A > D

Comprehension # 2 (Q.63 & Q.64) :- Acid rain takes place due to comnination of acidic oxides with water. In atomsphere sulphur dioxide and nitrogen monoxide are oxidised to sulphur trioxide and nitrogen dioxide respectively which react with water to give sulphuric and nitric acid. The resultant solution so called is acid rain. Sulphur dioxide dissolves in water to form diprotic acid in aqueous solution. Answer the following questions : 63.

Which among the following statement is correct:(1) CO2 gas develops more acidity in rain water than SO2 (g) (2) H2 SO3 is less acidic than H2SO4 (3) HNO3 is less acidic than HNO 2 (4) SO2(g) is reduced in the atmosphere during thuderstorm

64.

Which of the following reagents will give white precipitate with the aqueous solution of sulphurous acid :(1) NaCl

(2) KCl

(3) BaCl2

(4) HCl

Comprehension # 3 (Q.65 to Q.67) :- The electrons present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element are called valence electrons. The outer most shell is called the valence shell. The number of electrons gained, lost or shared by the atom of an element so as to complete its octet (or duplet in case of element having only K shell) is called the valency of the element. It also represent the combining capacity of the element. For elements having valence electrons 1, 2 or 3 valency is equal to the number of valence electrons. For elements having valence shell electron 4, 5, 6, or 7 valency is equal to the number of electrons to be added so that the valence shell has 8 electrons or valency = 8—number of valence electrons SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

15/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 65.

66.

67.

Which of the following has zero valency :(1) H (At No. = 1)

(2) Be (At No = 4)

(3) Ne (At No. = 10)

(4) N (At No. = 7

Which of the following compound is correct :(1) NH2

(2) CH3

(3) NH3

(4) CH2

Which among the following exihibit highest and lowest valency respectively :(1) N, H

(2) H, N

(3) C, Ne

(4) F, Ne

Comprehension # 4(Q.68 to Q.70) :- The boiling point of a liquid depend upon the pressure acting on it. It increases if the pressure is increased or decreased if the pressure acting on it is decreased. Water boils at 373 K at sea level where the pressure is 1 atomphere. On mountains the pressure is lower than 1 atmosphere. 68.

69.

In a pressure cooker where the pressure on water in greater than 1 atmosphere. Boiling point of water will be :(1) 373 K

(2) 273 K

(3) greater than 373 K

(4) Less than 373 K

What will be expected boiling point of water in an open container on a mountain :(1) 373 K (2) 273 K (3) Greater than 373 K (4) Less than 373 K

70.

Boiling point of water in a pressure cooker :(1) Remains constant everywhere (2) Always equal to 373 K (3) Alway lower than 373 K (4) Changes according to the location SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X

ATTEMPT ANY ONE OF THE SECTION C OR D SECTION-C : BIOLOGY This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 71.

If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron. Which of the following is to be expected : (1) The urine will be more in volume (2) There will be no urine formation (3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed (4) The urine will be more concentrated

72.

A healthy freshwater fish is placed in saltwater. The expected consequence of this would be that: (1) the fish becomes dehydrated and dies (2) the fish becomes bloated and dies (3) the fish suffers from a fungal or bacterial disease and dies (4) there is no observable effect on the fish provided there was sufficient food

73.

CO is harmful because (1) It forms stable compound with hemoglobin (2) It blocks mitosis (3) It is mutagenic (4) It causes defoliation

74.

75.

Osmoregulation in Paramecium is a function of: (1) cytoproct

(2) cytostome

(3) food vacuole

(4) contractile vacuole

Transpiration in plants requires all of the following EXCEPT : (1) cohesion of water molecules (2) active transport of water molecules in the xylem (3) capillary action of water in the xylem (4) root pressure SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

17/30

TALLENTEX

Class - X 76.

Heart of frog is 3-chambered (2 auricles and 1 ventricle) and mixed type of blood flows in the body, whereas in case of fish the heart is 2-chambered with 1 auricle and 1 ventricle. The type of blood that flows through the heart of fish is : (1) mixed blood (2) auricle has venous blood and ventricle has arterial blood (3) venous blood (4) arterial blood 77. When we consider dihybrid cross between 2 parents having homozygous characters which phenotype has its maximum occurance (1) Round yellow (2) Round green (3) Wrinkled yellow (4) Wrinkled green 78. Acquired characters develops during life time due to effect of (1) Germ cells (2) Environment (3) Over-production (4) Use and disuse of organs 79. The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is (1) Disposal of unburnt corpses into water (2) Discharge of effluents from electroplating industries (3) Washing of clothes (4) Immersion of ashes 80. The hormone secreted by the pituitary to start the ovulation process is (1) FSH (2) Luteinizing hormone (3) Oestrogen (4) Progesterone Directions : Q.81 See the figure of female reproductive system shown below. C

D

B E A

F

A front view of the female reproductive organs.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

18/30

TALLENTEX 81. 82.

C is (1) Uterus (2) Ovary (3) Fallopian tube (4) Cervix Blood type is determined by three alleles, A, B and O. Use the punnett square below to answer the question. Io

IA

83.

Class - X

I

B

IAIB IBIO

I

O

II

A O

I

What is the probability of an offspring with type A blood (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75% The diagram shows cross-sections of three types of blood vessel (not drawn to the same scale).

X

Z

Y

What is the identity of the three vessels?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 84.

85.

artery X Y X Y

capillary Y X Z Z

vein Z Z Y X

Choose the forms in which most, plants absorb nitrogen (1) Proteins

(2) Nitrates and Nitrites

(3) Urea

(4) Both (2) and (3)

Which of the following statement is true about respiration ? (1) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised (2) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e. oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into blood and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air (3) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen (4) Trachea increase surface area for exchange of gases. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

19/30

Class - X 86.

TALLENTEX

Ali performed an experiment in which he put two different cells P and Q in pure water, P swelled up and burst eventually while cell Q became tight and firm but did not burst. Which of the following is the most appropriate inference? (1) Cell sap of cell P is isotonic to the pure water (2) Cell sap of cell Q is isotonic to pure water (3) Cell P has been obtained from a plant (4) Cell Q is a bacterium

87.

Refer the given figure of a cell. Which organelle is more in number ? Also, identify among P, Q, R and S, the organelle which is responsible for transmission of hereditary information.

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum; P (2) Mitochondrion; Q (3) Ribosome; R (4) Golgi body; S 88.

The tissue that has central nucleus, tapered at both ends and control movement that are not under conscious control is ; (1) Striated muscle (2) Unstriated muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Skeletal muscle SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

20/30

TALLENTEX 89.

Class - X

The given figure show different types of structures in an animal tissue. Identify them and select the correct option.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(i)

90.

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) Cilia

Mucus cells

Basement membrane

Connective tissue

(2) Flagella

Globular cells

Smooth muscles

Squamous cells

(3) Microvilli

Basal cells

Basement membrane

Squamous cells

(4) Cilia

Globular cells

Smooth muscles

Connective tissue

The excretory organ in molluscans is the (1) malpighian tubule

(2) organ of bojanus

(3) flame cells

(4) nephridium SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

21/30

Class - X

TALLENTEX

Comprehension :- This section contains 4 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). Comprehension # 1 (Q.91 & Q.92) :- The term birth control was first used by Mr. Margaret Sanger who started a movement is USA to popularise it in 1916 for highlighting the world wide need of birth control, she declared "the first right of every child is to be wanted, to be desired, to be planned with an intensity of love that gives it its title to being". Today there is a pressing need for limiting the family size at a personal level and for the control of the population at national level. there are following two main types of birth control measures the contraception and abortion. Contraception is the prevention of fertilisation without destroying fertility by natural, mechanical or chemical means. Use of condom, occlusive , diaphragm, intrauterine Contraceptive devices (IUCD) like copper-T, use of spermicidal agents, Oral contraceptives are some common method of birth control, Spermicidal chemicals are also used. Another method of birth control is abortion which is defined as expulsion of products of conception whether it be spontaneous or induced before 12 week of gestation. In India, the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP act was passed by the Parliament in 1971 and came into force on April 1, 1972. It liberalized the abortion law as a family welfare measure to ensure better health and avoid risks to the lives of women. 91. Prevention of fertilisation with destroying fertility is known as :(1) Abortion (2) MTP (3) Contraception (4) Abstinence 92. What is spermicidal agent ? (1) A chemical that inactivates spermatids (2) A chemical that kills spermatozoa (3) A chemical that prevents the implantation of foetus (4) A chemical that inactivates the testes Comprehension # 2 (Q.93 & Q.94) :- The union of the cytoplasm and pronuclei of the male and female gametes is known as the fertilization. The fertilization is the most commonly used method for the production of the diploid zygotes is the sexually reproducing organisms of Metazoa & metaphyta, if the fertilization occurs outside the body of the organism, it is known as external fertilization & if it occurs inside the body of the organism then it is termed as internal fertilization. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TALLENTEX 93.

94.

Class - X

Union of female & male gametes is known as :(1) Fertilization

(2) Zygote

(3) Metazoa

(4) Metaphyta

Gametes are produced in (1) All metazoan (2) All organisms (3) All sexually reproducing organisms (4) Only in haploid animals

Comprehension # 3 (Q.95 to Q.97) :- Our body is a well organised system and is made up of the structural and functional units called cell. Cells are made up of different chemicals as carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, minerals and salts. The cell is also having the cell membrane through which it keeps the relation with the external environment. Cell groups having same origin structure and function called as tissue, which further organise into the organs. Most advanced animals have the organ system of organisation. All the body organs work in co-ordination with each other and this coordination is established between the body organs by nervous system and the endocrine system. If this coordination breaks body organs do not work properly in animal which is followed by the appearance of disease. A healthy person is who is mentally physically and socially well adjusted. Various diseases in body are identified by physicians on the basis of their sysmptoms however, some of these are diagnosed by laboratory testing also. Diseases many be categorized in to two groups, the infectious and noninfectious diseases .infectious diseases are caused by the infections of micro organisms which are also known as the pathogens. Non-infectious diseases may be deficiency diseases or due to metabolic disorders. 95.

Most advanced animals have :(1) Cellular level of organisation (2) Tissue level of organisation (3) Organ level of organisation (4) organ system level of organisation SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TALLENTEX

Class - X 96.

Which of the following establishes coordination between the body organs ? (1) Nervous system (2) Endocrine system (3) Neuroendocrine system (4) Chemical coordination

97.

How the diseases are diagnosed by physicians ? (1) By laboratory testing (2) By simple observation of symptoms of diseases (3) By both methods (1) and (2) (4) By chemical test

Comprehension # 4 (Q.98 to Q.100) :- Trophosphere is the lowest region of atmosphere which subjects to differential heating, temperature inversion & convention currents. It extends from the surface of the earth up to a height of 8-10 km at poles, 10-12 km at moderate altitude and 16-20 km at the equator. Many importent climatic events such as cloud formation, lightening, thundering etc. Takes place in trophosphere. Air temperature in this zone gradually decreases with height at the rate of about 6.5ºC per km, toward upper layer of trophosphere the temperature may decreases to –60ºC. 98.

99.

The trophosphere at poles extends up to the height (1) 8-10 km

(2) 10-12 km

(3) 16-20 km

(4) 20-21 km

The air temperature in trophosphere________ with increase in height :(1) Decreases (2) Increases (3) No change (4) Gradually increases

100. Which of the following is the lowest region of atmosphere :(1) Ionosphere

(2) stratosphere

(3) Trophosphere

(4) Exosphere SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TALLENTEX

Class - X

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 101. Tarun got 30% concession on the labelled price of an article and sold it for Rs. 8750 with 25% profit on the price he bought. What was the labelled price? (1) Rs. 10,000 (2) Rs. 12,000 (3) Rs. 16,000 (4) None of these 102. A 100 litre solution of milk and water contains water and milk in the ratio 1 : 4. 10% of the solution is removed and replaced by milk twice, in succession. What would be the quantity of water in the resultant solution ? (1) 16 litres (2) 18 litres (3) 16.8 litres (4) 16.2 litres 103. A doctor wants to divide Rs. 145000 between his son and daughter who are 12 years and 14 years

1 respectively, in such a way that the sum invested at the rate of 12 % per annum compounded annually 2 will give the same amount to each, when they attain 16 years. How should he divide the sum? (1) Rs. 81000 to son and Rs. 64000 to daughter (2) Rs. 64000 to son and Rs. 81000 to daughter (3) Rs. 45000 to son and Rs. 100000 to daughter (4) Rs. 100000 to son and Rs. 45000 to daughter 104. Dia and Urea are two chemical fertilizers. Dia is consists of N, P and K and Urea conists of only N and P. A mixture of Dia and Urea is prepared in which the ratio of N, P and K is 26%, 68% and 6% respectively. The ratio of N, P and K in Dia is 20%, 70% and 10% respectively. What is the ratio of N and P in the Urea? (1) 27% and 63% (2) 33% and 67% (3) 35% and 65% (4) 70% and 30% 105. A boat covers a round trip journey in a river in a certain time. If its speed in still water is doubled and the speed of the stream tripled, it would take the same time for the round trip journey. Find the ratio of the speed of boat in still water to the speed of the stream. (1) 3 2 : 3

(2) 2 2 : 3

(3) 4 2 : 7

(4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TALLENTEX

Class - X

106. If gcd of b and c is g and d|b & d|c, then (1) d = g

(2) g|d

(3) d|g

(4) None of these

107. If x, y Î R and x > y Þ |x| < |y|, then (1) x < 0

(2) x > 0

(3) y > 0

(4) y < 0

108. Let a ¹ 0 and p(x) be a polynomial of degree greater than 2. If p(x) leaves remainders a and – a when divided respectively by x + a and x – a, the remainder when p(x) is divided by x2 – a2 is (1) 2x

(2) – 2x

(3) x

(4) – x

109. Two horses start trotting towards each other, one from A to B and another from B to A. They cross each other after one hour and the first horse reaches B, 5/6 hours before the second horse reaches A. If the distance between A and B is 50 km. What is the speed of the slower horse? (1) 30 km/h (2) 15 km/h (3) 25 km/h (4) 20 km/h 110. If tan q + sec q =

3, 0< q<

p , then q is equal to : 2

(1)

p 3

(2)

p 6

(3)

p 4

(4) None of these

111. If sina + cosa = a, then sin6a + cos6 a is equal to: (1) 1 + (3)

3 (a2 – 1)2 4

3 + 4(a2 – 1)2 4

(2) 1 – (4)

3 (a2 – 1)2 4

3 – 3(a2 – 1)2 4

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TALLENTEX

Class - X

112. In the adjoining figure, XY is parallel to AC. If XY divides the triangle into equal parts, then the value of

AX = AB A X

B

(1)

1 2 2 +1

(3)

2

Y

C

(2)

1 2

(4)

2 -1 2

113. A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from 7 men and 3 women. What is the probability that the committee contains 3 men? (1)

5 36

(2)

7 12

(3)

5 12

(4)

1 3

114. A four digit number is formed by using the digits 1, 2, 5, 6 and 8 without repetition. What is the probability that it will be an even number? (1)

3 5

(2)

2 5

(3)

1 2

(4)

3 10

115. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases of radius R and have equal heights H. Their whole surfaces are in the ratio (1) ( 3 + 1) : 3 : 4

(2) ( 2 + 1) : 7 : 8

(3) ( 2 + 1) : 3 : 4

(4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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TALLENTEX

Class - X

116. In the following X, Y and Z are the points at which the incircle touches the sides of the triangles as shown below. If PX = 4 cm, QZ = 7 cm and YR = 9 cm, then the perimeter of triangle PQR is P Y

X Q

R

Z

(1) 20 cm

(2) 46 cm

(3) 40 cm

(4) 80 cm

117. A cyclist drove 1 km, with the wind in his back, in 3 min and drove the same way back, against the wind in 4 min. If we assume that the cyclist always puts constant force on the pedals, how much time would it take to drive 1 km without wind?

1 (1) 2 min. 3

3 (2) 3 min. 7

3 (3) 2 min. 7

(4) 3

118. The expression

3 –1 2 2 – 3 -1

(1)

2+ 3+ 4+ 6

(2)

6– 4+ 3– 2

(3)

6– 4– 3+ 2

(4)

2- 3- 4- 6

7 min. 12

is equal to

119. If the remainder when the polynomial f(x) is divided by x – 1, x + 1 are 6, 8 respectively then the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 1)(x + 1) is (1) 7 – x

(2) 7 + x

(3) 8 – x

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(4) 8 + x

TALLENTEX

Class - X

120. An examination consists of 100 questions. Two marks are awarded for every correct option. If one mark is deducted for every wrong option and half mark is deducted for every question left, then a person scores 135. Instead, if half mark is deducted for every wrong option and one mark is deducted for every question left, then the person scores 133. Find the number of questions left unattempted by the person (1) 14

(2) 16

(3) 10

(4) 12

Comprehension :- This section contains 4 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). Comprehension # 1 (Q.121 & Q.122) :- If R1 and R2 are remainder when x3 + 2x2 – 5ax – 7 and x3 + ax2 – 12x + 6 are divided by x + 1 and x – 2 respectively 121. If 2R1 + R2 = 6. Then value of 'a' is :(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 2

122. (x – 2) is factor of x3 + ax 2 + b. Then its other quadratic factor is :(1) x2 + 4x + 8

(2) x2 – 4x –4

(3) x2 – 4x + 4

(4) x2 – 2x + 2

Comprehension # 2 (Q.123 & Q.124) :- Three cylinder each of height 16 cm and radius of base 4 cm are placed on a plane so that each cylinder touches the other two. Then123. Area of a region between cylinders :(1) (2 3 - p) cm 2

(2) 8(2 3 - p) cm 2

(3) 8(p - 2 3) cm 2

(4) (p - 2 3) cm 2

124. Volume of region enclosed between cylinders:(1) 64(2 3 - p) cm 3

(2) 16(2 3 - p) cm3

3 (3) 128(2 3 - p) cm

(4) 128( p - 2 3) cm 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Class - X

TALLENTEX

Comprehension # 3 (Q.125 to Q.127) :- If n represent the side of polygon and whose all interior angle are in Arithmetic progression and length of side are a, b, c. 125. If n = 3 and smallest angle is 30° then greatest angle is ? (1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 120°

126. If it is quadrilateral and common difference between angle is 10°. The smallest angle is(1) 75°

(2) 90°

(3) 68°

(4) None of these

127. If n = 3 then area of that polygon is :(If a is greatest side) 3 2 a 4

(1)

(3)

a2 2

(2)

bc 2

(4)

abc 2

Comprehension # 4 (Q.128 to Q.130) :- DABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cm. P is any point in the interior of DABC. 128. If x, y, z are the distances of P from the sides of triangle, then x + y + z = (1) 2 + 3 cm

(2) 5 cm

(3) 3 cm

(4) 4 cm

129. If point P is equidistant from all three sides, then its distance from any vertex is :(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) None

130. Radius of incircle with centre P, such that it is at equal distance from all three sides :(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) None SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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