Which of the Following Complications is Thought to Be the Most Common Cause of Appendicitis

1. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis? a. A fecalith b. Bowel kinking c. Internal bowel occlusion d. Abdominal bowel swelling 2. Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated with appendicitis? a. Aching b. Fleeting c. Intermittent d. Steady 3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis? a. Assessing for pain b. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids c. Providing discharge teaching d. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis 4. Which of the following definitions best describes gastritis? a. Erosion of the gastric mucosa b. Inflammation of a diverticulum c. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa d. Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus 5. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis? a. Milk b. Bicarbonate of soda, or baking soda c. Enteric coated aspirin d. Nonsteriodal anti-imflammatory drugs 6. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis? a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine b. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents d. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it. 7. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis? a. Low-fiber diet b. High-fiber diet c. High-protein diet d. Low-carbohydrate diet 8. Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development of diverticulosis into diverticulitis? a. Treating constipation with chronic laxative use, leading to dependence on laxatives b. Chronic constipation causing an obstruction, reducing forward flow of intestinal contents c. Herniation of the intestinal mucosa, rupturing the wall of the intestine d. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial invasion. 9. Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis? a. No symptoms exist b. Change in bowel habits c. Anorexia with low-grade fever d. Episodic, dull, or steady midabdominal pain

10. Which of the following tests should be administered to a client suspected of having diverticulosis? a. Abdominal ultrasound b. Barium enema c. Barium swallow d. Gastroscopy 11. Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments? a. Reduced fluid intake b. Increased fiber in diet c. Administration of antibiotics d. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure 12. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease? a. The entire length of the large colon b. Only the sigmoid area c. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa d. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel 13. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohn’s disease? a. Ascending colon b. Descending colon c. Sigmoid colon d. Terminal ileum 14. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Crohn’s disease? a. Constipation b. Diet c. Hereditary d. Lack of exercise 15. Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis? a. Acidic diet b. Altered immunity c. Chronic constipation d. Emotional stress 16. Fistulas are most common with which of the following bowel disorders? a. Crohn’s disease b. Diverticulitis c. Diverticulosis d. Ulcerative colitis 17. Which of the following areas is the most common site of fistula s in client’s with Crohn’s disease? a. Anorectal b. Ileum c. Rectovaginal d. Transverse colon 18. Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit? a. Gallstones b. Hydronephrosis

c. Nephrolithiasis d. Toxic megacolon 19. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn’s disease exhibit? a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Colon cancer c. Malabsorption d. Lactase deficiency 20. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn’s disease? a. Bloody diarrhea b. Narrow stools c. N/V d. Steatorrhea 21. Which of the following symptoms is associated with ulcerative colitis? a. Dumping syndrome b. Rectal bleeding c. Soft stools d. Fistulas 22. If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following diagnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis is Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis? a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan b. Abdominal x-ray c. Barium swallow d. Colonoscopy with biopsy 23. Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn’s disease? a. Increasing oral intake of fiber b. Administering laxatives c. Using long-term steroid therapy d. Increasing physical activity 24. In a client with Crohn’s disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result of antibiotic therapy? a. Decrease in bleeding b. Decrease in temperature c. Decrease in body weight d. Decrease in the number of stools 25. Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to treat which of the following complications? a. Gastritis b. Bowel herniation c. Bowel outpouching d. Bowel perforation 26. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease? a. Acetaminophen b. Opiates c. Steroids d. Stool softeners

27. During the first few days of recovery from ostomy surgery for ulcerative colitis, which of the following aspects should be the first priority of client care? a. Body image b. Ostomy care c. Sexual concerns d. Skin care 28. Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the following conditions? a. Appendicitis b. Hemorrhoids c. Hiatal hernia d. Ulcerative colitis 29. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer? a. Low-fiber, high fat b. Low-fat, high-fiber c. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate d. Low carbohydrate, high protein 30. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer? a. Abdominal CT scan b. Abdominal x-ray c. Colonoscopy d. Fecal occult blood test 31. Radiation therapy is used to treat colon cancer before surgery for which of the following reasons? a. Reducing the size of the tumor b. Eliminating the malignant cells c. Curing the cancer d. Helping the bowel heal after surgery 32. Which of the following symptoms is a client with colon cancer most likely to exhibit? a. A change in appetite b. A change in bowel habits c. An increase in body weight d. An increase in body temperature 33. A client has just had surgery for colon cancer. Whic h of the following disorders might the client develop? a. Peritonitis b. Diverticulosis c. Partial bowel obstruction d. Complete bowel obstruction 34. A client with gastric cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. Abdominal cramping b. Constant hunger c. Feeling of fullness d. Weight gain 35. Which of the following diagnostic tests may be performed to determine if a client has gastric cancer? a. Barium enema b. Colonoscopy c. Gastroscopy

d. Serum chemistry levels 36. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer? a. Discharge planning b. Correction of nutritional deficits c. Prevention of DVT d. Instruction regarding radiation treatment 37. Care for the postoperative client after gastric resection should focus on which of the following problems? a. Body image b. Nutritional needs c. Skin care d. Spiritual needs 38. Which of the following complications of gastric resection should the nurse teach the client to watch for? a. Constipation b. Dumping syndrome c. Gastric spasm d. Intestinal spasms 39. A client with rectal cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. Abdominal fullness b. Gastric fullness c. Rectal bleeding d. Right upper quadrant pain 40. A client with which of the following conditions may be likely to develop rectal cancer? a. Adenomatous polyps b. Diverticulitis c. Hemorrhoids d. Peptic ulcer disease 41. Which of the following treatments is used for rectal cancer but not for colon cancer? a. Chemotherapy b. Colonoscopy c. Radiation d. Surgical resection 42. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis? a. Cholelithiasis b. Gastritis c. Perforated ulcer d. Incarcerated hernia 43. Which of the following symptoms would a client in the early stages of peritonitis exhibit? a. Abdominal distention b. Abdominal pain and rigidity c. Hyperactive bowel sounds d. Right upper quadrant pain 44. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis? a. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds

b. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL c. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L d. White blood cell count above 15,000 45. Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical management of a client with peritonitis? a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Electrolyte replacement c. I.V. fluids d. Regular diet 46. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis? a. Fluid and electrolyte balance b. Gastric irrigation c. Pain management d. Psychosocial issues 47. A client with irritable bowel syndrome is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following meal plans should the nurse give the client? a. Low fiber, low-fat b. High fiber, low-fat c. Low fiber, high-fat d. High-fiber, high-fat 48. A client presents to the emergency room, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts him at risk for which of the following? a. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia b. Metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia c. Metabolic alkalosis with hyperkalemia d. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia 49. Five days after undergoing surgery, a client develops a small-bowel obstruction. A Miller-Abbott tube is inserted for bowel decompression. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? a. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements b. Acute pain c. Deficient fluid volume d. Excess fluid volume 50. When teaching an elderly client how to prevent constipation, which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. “Drink 6 glasses of fluid each day.” b. “Avoid grain products and nuts.” c. “Add at least 4 grams of bran to your cereal each morning.” d. “Be sure to get regular exercise.” 51. In a client with diarrhea, which outcome indicates that fluid resuscitation is successful? a. The client passes formed stools at regular intervals b. The client reports a decrease in stool frequency and liquidity c. The client exhibits firm skin turgor d. The client no longer experiences perianal burning. 52. When teaching a community group about measures to prevent colon cancer, which i nstruction should the nurse include? a. “Limit fat intake to 20% to 25% of your total daily calories.”

b. “Include 15 to 20 grams of fiber into y our daily diet.” c. “Get an annual rectal examination after age 35.” d. “Undergo sigmoidoscopy annually after age 50.” 53. A 30-year old client experiences weight loss, abdominal distention, crampy abdominal pain, and intermittent diarrhea after birth of her 2nd child. Diagnostic tests reveal gluten-induced enteropathy. Which foods must she eliminate from her diet permanently? a. Milk and dairy products b. Protein-containing foods c. Cereal grains (except rice and corn) d. Carbohydrates 54. After a right hemicolectomy for treatment of colon cancer, a 57 -year old client is reluctant to turn while on bed rest. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate? a. Asking a coworker to help turn the client b. Explaining to the client why turning is important. c. Allowing the client to turn when he’s ready to do so d. Telling the client that the physician’s order states he must turn every 2 hours 55. A client has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube inserted for tube feedings. Before starting a continuous feeding, the nurse should place the client in which position? a. Semi-Fowlers b. Supine c. Reverse Trendelenburg d. High Fowler’s 56. An enema is prescribed for a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Prepare 750 ml of irrigating solution warmed to 100*F b. Question the physician about the order c. Provide privacy and explain the procedure to the client d. Assist the client to left lateral Sim’s position

57. The client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test? a. Fast for 8 hours before the test b. Eat a regular supper and breakfast c. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled. d. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation 58. The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs of dumping syndrome. Which symptom indicates this occurrence? a. Abdominal cramping and pain b. Bradycardia and indigestion c. Sweating and pallor d. Double vision and chest pain 59. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the client who had an umbilical hernia repair. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan? a. Restricting pain medication b. Maintaining bedrest c. Avoiding coughing

d. Irrigating the drain 60. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician? a. Bloody diarrhea b. Hypotension c. A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL d. Rebound tenderness 61. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with Crohn’s disease. Which of the following stool characteristics would the nurse expect to note documented on the client’s record? a. Chronic constipation b. Diarrhea c. Constipation alternating with diarrhea d. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum 62. The nurse is performing a colostomy irrigation on a client. During the irrigation, a client begins to complain of abdominal cramps. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Notify the physician b. Increase the height of the irrigation c. Stop the irrigation temporarily. d. Medicate with dilaudid and resume the ir rigation 63. The nurse is teaching the client how to perform a colostomy irrigation. To enhance the effectiveness of the irrigation and fecal returns, what measure should the nurse instruct the client to do? a. Increase fluid intake b. Reduce the amount of irrigation solution c. Perform the irrigation in the evening d. Place heat on the abdomen

64. The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders written for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which physician order would the nurse question if noted on the client’s chart? a. NPO status b. Insert a nasogastric tube c. An anticholinergic medication d. Morphine for pain 65. The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the problem is currently active, the nurse would assess the client for which of the following most frequent symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer? a. Pain that is relieved by food intake b. Pain that radiated down the right arm c. N/V d. Weight loss 66. The nurse instructs the ileostomy client to do which of the following as a part of essential care of the stoma? a. Cleanse the peristomal skin meticulously b. Take in high-fiber foods such as nuts c. Massage the area below the stoma d. Limit fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.

67. The client who has undergone creation of a colostomy has a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed body image. The nurse would evaluate that the client is making the most significant progress toward identified goals if the client: a. Watches the nurse empty the colostomy bag b. Looks at the ostomy site c. Reads the ostomy product literature d. Practices cutting the ostomy appliance 68. The nurse is assessing for stoma prolapse in a client with a colostomy. The nurse would observe which of the following if stoma prolapse occurred? a. Sunken and hidden stoma b. Dark- and bluish-colored stoma c. Narrowed and flattened stoma d. Protruding stoma 69. The client with a new colostomy is concerned about the odor from the stool in the ostomy drainage bag. The nurse teaches the client to include which of the following foods in the diet to reduce odor? a. Yogurt b. Broccoli c. Cucumbers d. Eggs 70. The nurse has given instructions to the client with an ileostomy about foods to eat to thicken the stool. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client stated to eat which of the following foods to make the stools less watery? a. Pasta b. Boiled rice c. Bran d. Low-fat cheese 71. The client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate post-op period for which of the following most frequent complications of this type of surgery? a. Intestinal obstruction b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance c. Malabsorption of fat d. Folate deficiency 72. The nurse is doing pre-op teaching with the client who is about to undergo creation of a Kock pouch. The nurse interprets that the client has the best understanding of the nature of the surgery if the client makes which of the following statements? a. “I will need to drain the pouch regularly with a catheter.” b. “I will need to wear a drainage bag for the rest of my life.” c. “The drainage from this type of ostomy will be formed.” d. “I will be able to pass stool from my rectum eventually.” 73. The client with a colostomy has an order for irrigation of the colostomy. The nurse used which solution for irrigation? a. Distilled water b. Tap water c. Sterile water d. Lactated Ringer’s 74. A nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On

assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and the bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Administer dilaudid b. Notify the physician c. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible d. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on a warm setting to the client’s abdomen. 75. The client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse would assess this client for pain that is: a. Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back. b. Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin. c. Burning and aching, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the umbilicus. d. Burning and aching, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the hip. 76. The client with Crohn’s disease has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain. The nurse would teach the client to avoid which of the following in managing this problem? a. Lying supine with the legs straight b. Massaging the abdomen c. Using antispasmodic medication d. Using relaxation techniques 77. A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to begin salicylate medication to reduce inflammation. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication: a. 30 minutes before meals b. On an empty stomach c. After meals d. On arising 78. During the assessment of a client’s mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of a NG tube. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth conditions? a. Stomatitis b. Oral candidiasis c. Parotitis d. Gingivitis 79. The nurse evaluates the client’s stoma during the initial post-op period. Which of the following observations should be reported immediately to the physician? a. The stoma is slightly edematous b. The stoma is dark red to purple c. The stoma oozes a small amount of blood d. The stoma does not expel stool 80. When planning care for a client with ulcerative colitis who is experiencing symptoms, which client care activities can the nurse appropriately delegate to a unlicensed assistant? Select all that apply. a. Assessing the client’s bowel sounds b. Providing skin care following bowel movements c. Evaluating the client’s response to antidiarrheal medications d. Maintaining intake and output records e. Obtaining the client’s weight.

81. Which goal of the client’s care should take priority during the first days of hospitalization for an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis? a. Promoting self-care and independence b. Managing diarrhea c. Maintaining adequate nutrition d. Promoting rest and comfort 82. A client’s ulcerative colitis symptoms have been present for longer than 1 week. The nurse recognizes that the client should be assessed carefully for signs of which of the following complications? a. Heart failure b. DVT c. Hypokalemia d. Hypocalcemia 83. A client who has ulcerative colitis has persistent diarrhea. He is thin and has lost 12 pounds since the exacerbation of his ulcerative colitis. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order which of the following treatment approaches to help the c lient meet his nutritional needs? a. Initiate continuous enteral feedings b. Encourage a high protein, high-calorie diet c. Implement total parenteral nutrition d. Provide six small meals a day. 84. Digoxin preparations and absorbents should not be given simultaneously. As a nurse, you are aware that if these agents are given simultaneously, which of the following will occur? a. Increased absorption of digoxin b. Decreased absorption of digoxin c. Increased absorption of the absorbent d. Decreased absorption of the absorbent 85. When used with hyperacidic disorders of the stomach, antacids are given to elevate the gastric pH to: a. 2.0 b. 4.0 c. 6.0 d. >8.0 86. One of your patients is receiving digitalis orally and is also to receive an antacid at the same time. Your most appropriate action, based on the pharmacokinetics of antacids, is to: a. Delay the digitalis for 1 to 2 hours until the antacid is absorbed b. Give the antacid at least 2 to 4 hours before administering the digitalis c. Administer both medications as ordered and document in nurse’s notes d. Contact the physician regarding the drug interaction and request a change in the time of dosing of the drugs. 87. The nurse would teach patients that antacids are effective in treatment of hyperacidity because they: a. Neutralize gastric acid b. Decrease stomach motility c. Decrease gastric pH d. Decrease duodenal pH 88. The nurse would monitor for which of the following adverse reactions to aluminum-containing antacids such as aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)? a. Diarrhea b. Constipation

c. GI upset d. Fluid retention 89. The nurse would question an order for which type of antacid in patients with chronic renal failure? a. Aluminum-containing antacids b. Calcium-containing antacids c. Magnesium-containing antacids d. All of the above. 90. The nurse would monitor a patient using sodium bicarbonate to treat gastric hyperacidity for signs and symptoms of: a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypercalcemia 91. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient receiving famotidine (Pepcid)? a. Increased risk for infection due to immunosuppression b. Potential risk for bleeding related to thrombocytopenia. c. Alteration in urinary elimination related to retention d. Alteration in tissue perfusion related to hypertension 92. Histamine2-receptor antagonists: a. Compete with histamine for binding sites on the parietal cells b. Irreversibly bind to H+/K+ATPase c. Cause a decrease in stomach pH d. Decrease signs and symptoms of allergies related to histamine release 93. Proton pump inhibitors: a. Gastric ulcer formation b. GERD c. Achlorhydria d. Diverticulosis 94. A patient unable to tolerate oral medications may be prescribed which of the following proton pump inhibitors to be administered intravenously? a. lansoprazole (Prevacid) b. omeprazole (Prilosec) c. pantoprazole (Protonix) d. esomeprazole (Nexium) 95. When administering sucralfate (Carafate) to a patient with a nasogastric tube, it is important to: a. Crush the tablet into a fine powder before mixing with water b. Administer with a bolus tube feeding c. Allow the tablet to dissolve in water before administering d. Administer with an antacid for maximum benefit 96. Sucralfate (Carafate) achieves a therapeutic effect by: a. Neutralizing gastric acid b. Enhancing gastric absorption c. Forming a protective barrier around gastric mucosa d. Inhibiting gastric acid secretion

97. To avoid fecal impaction, psyllium (Metamucil) should be administered with at least how many ounces of fluid? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 98. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol), as an absorbent, has which of the following mechanisms of action? a. Decreased GI motility b. Decreased gastric secretions c. Increased fluid absorption d. Binding to diarrhea-causing bacteria for excretion 99. Side effects of loperamide (Imodium) include all of the following except? a. Diarrhea b. epigastric pain c. Dry mouth d. Anorexia 100.

The mechanism of action of diphenoxylate (Lotomil) is: a. An increase in intestinal excretion of water b. An increase in intestinal motility c. A decrease in peristalsis in the intestinal wall d. A decrease in the reabsorption of water in the bowel

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

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Answer: 1. A fecalith Answer: 4. Steady Answer: 4. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis Answer: 3. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa Answer: 4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Answer: 2. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine Answer: 1. Low-fiber diet Answer: 4. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial invasion. Answer: 1. No symptoms exist Answer: 2. Barium enema Answer: 3. Administration of antibiotics Answer: 4. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel Answer: 4. Terminal ileum Answer: 3. Hereditary Answer: 2. Altered immunity Answer: 1. Crohn’s disease Answer: 1. Anorectal Answer: 4. Toxic megacolon Answer: 3. Malabsorption Answer: 4. Steatorrhea Answer: 2. Rectal bleeding Answer: 4. Colonoscopy with biopsy Answer: 3. Using long-term steroid therapy Answer: 3. Decrease in body weight Answer: 4. Bowel perforation Answer: 3. Steroids Answer: 2. Ostomy care Answer: 4. Ulcerative colitis Answer: 1. Low-fiber, high fat Answer: 4. Fecal occult blood test Answer: 1. Reducing the size of the tumor Answer: 2. A change in bowel habits Answer: 1. Peritonitis Answer: 3. Feeling of fullness Answer: 3. Gastroscopy Answer: 2. Correction of nutritional deficits Answer: 2. Nutritional needs Answer: 2. Dumping syndrome Answer: 3. Rectal bleeding Answer: 1. Adenomatous polyps Answer: 3. Radiation Answer: 3. Perforated ulcer Answer: 2. Abdominal pain and rigidity Answer: 4. White blood cell count above 15,000 Answer: 4. Regular diet Answer: 1. Fluid and electrolyte balance Answer: 2. High-fiber, low-fat Answer: 4. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia Answer: 3. Deficient fluid volume

50. Answer: 4. “Be sure to get regular exercise.” 51. Answer: 3. The client exhibits firm skin turgor 52. Answer: 1. “Limit fat intake to 20% to 25% of your total daily calories.” 53. Answer: 3. Cereal grains (except rice and corn) 54. Answer: 2. Explaining to the client why turning is important. 55. Answer: 1. Semi-Fowlers 56. Answer: 2. Question the physician about the order 57. Answer: 1. Fast for 8 hours before the test 58. Answer: 3. Sweating and pallor 59. Answer: 3. Avoiding coughing 60. Answer: 4. Rebound tenderness 61. Answer: 2. Diarrhea 62. Answer: 3. Stop the irrigation temporarily. 63. Answer: 1. Increase fluid intake 64. Answer: 4. Morphine for pain 65. Answer: 1. Pain that is relieved by food intake 66. Answer: 1. Cleanse the peristomal skin meticulously 67. Answer: 4. Practices cutting the ostomy appliance 68. Answer: 4. Protruding stoma 69. Answer: 1. Yogurt 70. Answer: 3. Bran 71. Answer: 2. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance 72. Answer: 1. “I will need to drain the pouch regularly with a catheter.” 73. Answer: 2. Tap water 74. Answer: 2. Notify the physician 75. Answer: 1. Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back. 76. Answer: 1. Lying supine with the legs straight 77. Answer: 3. After meals 78. Answer: 3. Parotitis 79. Answer: 2. The stoma is dark red to purple 80. Answer: 2, 4, and 5. 81. Answer: 2. Managing diarrhea 82. Answer: 3. Hypokalemia 83. Answer: 3. Implement total parenteral nutrition 84. Answer: 2. Decreased absorption of digoxin 85. Answer: 1. 2.0 86. Answer: 4. Contact the physician regarding the drug interaction and request a change in the time of dosing of the drugs. 87. Answer: 1. Neutralize gastric acid 88. Answer: 2. Constipation 89. Answer: 3. Magnesium-containing antacids 90. Answer: 1. Metabolic alkalosis 91. Answer: 2. Potential risk for bleeding related to thrombocytopenia. 92. Answer: 1. Compete with histamine for binding sites on the parietal cells 93. Answer: 3. Achlorhydria

94. Answer: 3. pantoprazole (Protonix) 95. Answer: 3. Allow the tablet to dissolve in water before administering 96. Answer: 3. Forming a protective barrier around gastric mucosa 97. Answer: 3. 8 98. Answer: 4. Binding to diarrhea-causing bacteria for excretion 99. Answer: 1. Diarrhea 100. Answer: 3. A decrease in peristalsis in the intestinal wall