veloci-Q

The Questionnaire

Velociq-101

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------1. A Process defines basically : Answer : ...Choose...A running Program Who is doing what when and how to reach a specific goal A new procedure to be implemented All of the above 2. ISO, CMM, Six Sigma are Answer : ...Choose...Quality models Tools Programming LanguagesCoding Standards 3. The International Standard for Quality Assurance – ISO 9001 emphasizes on : Answer : a. b. c. d.

...Choose...

Process Quality (rather than product Quality) Product Quality Both (a) and (b) Critical Component quality

4. Maintenance Process Model is best suited for Answer : ...Choose...Problem resolution on existing software products Interface modification due to changes in hardware or software environment Minor functional enhancements or performance improvement of the existing software All of the above 5. In Wipro which model representation of CMMI was adopted Answer: Choose... a. b. c. d.

Rank model Linear model Staged model Process area model

6. Achieving the goal of means your product will be defect free to an extent of: Answer : ...Choose... a. b. c. d.

13.5 defects per million opportunities 3.4 defects per million opportunities 4.4 defects per million opportunities 4.3 defects per million opportunities

7. _______ is a process of examining whether the process conforms to the defined quality system: Answer : ...Choose...(Doubt) a. Audit b. Assessment c. Testing Review 8. All Configuration Audit issues are recorded in -------------- and tracked to closure: Answer : ...Choose... a. Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR) b. Software Configuration Order Form (SCOF) c. Baseline Record d. PMR

9. The process followed in the software development project should be: Answer : ...Choose...Client specified processes Processes as described in velociQ. Tailored ODC specific processes Any One of the above 10. Which of this is a planned mechanism for Defect Prevention? Answer: ...Choose... a. Look Ahead Meetings(doubt please check while answering) b. PDMR and PMR reviews c. Customer feedback d. All of the above 11. Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during the early Life Cycle stages itself? Answer : ...Choose...V-Process Model Maintenance model Rational Unified Process Model 2I Process Model 12. You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know all your responsibilities as defined by veloci-Q for your role. Where would you go? Answer : ...Choose...PDB Treasure House Guidelines Navigator 13. Six Sigma measures defects based on: Answer : ...Choose...the team’s decision Wipro’s Senior management’s perception Customer’s perception number of defects in the project 14. _______ is a monthly mechanism to track metric trends, exceptions of metrics and ensure Process Improvements in the Business Unit Answer : ...Choose...QICs Look Ahead Meetings PIP Board meetings Quality meet 15. Deviations from the stated processes that are identified during the audit are recorded as Answer : ...Choose...Non-Conformances Process Improvement Proposal Process Improvement and Process Development Creation of Work Plans 16. Which of the following can be used to validate the design Answer : ...Choose...Proof Of Concept Voice Of Customer (VOC)LOC Function points 17. The FS document may address Answer : ...Choose...Functional requirements of the system Interface requirements Environmental constraints All of the above 18. Organisation’s Customer Focus should meet the needs and expectations of: Answer : ...Choose...The customers and end users People in the Organisation Suppliers and partners All of the above 19. __________________ is a mechanism of maintaining the mapping between requirements and products resulting from the requirements. Answer : ...Choose...Design document Requirements Traceability Functional design Test cases 20. The set of actions to be taken to minimize the occurrence of Risk is documented as part of Answer : ...Choose...Contingency plan Mitigation Plan Defect Prevention Report Risk Tracker

21. veloci-Q has a ____ -tier architecture Answer : ...Choose...234 Multi-dimensional 22. Which phases of SDLC can be sources for errors? Answer : ...Choose...RS, Design, CUT, IT, ST & ATRS, Design, CUT, IT & STRS, Design, CUT & ITRS, Design & CUT 23. Which of the below statements is incorrect on shared vision Answer : ...Choose...Team members of the project should participate while evolving shared vision Shared vision is evolved from individual goals and objectives Shared vision is documented in the project plan Customer needs are considered while evolving project shared vision 24. Each phase /activity of a life cycle model is represented in veloci-Q by the ____________ Criteria Answer : ...Choose...WBS DMADVETVX SDLC 25. The prevention activities coming out of a LAM is documented in Answer : ...Choose... a. Project Plan b. PDMR c. Defect Prevention Report d. Risk Plan 26. Voice Of Customer (VOC) can be used to Answer : ...Choose...Prioritize customer requirements Select requirements Analyze customer requirements Requirements traceability 27. The data and information of all previously executed projects are in the: Answer : ...Choose...Project data bank PIP DB Treasure house Navigator 28. The CMMI level 5 stage is termed as a : Answer : ...Choose...Repeatable stage Optimizing stage Iterative stage Defined stage 29. Project Performance Analysis (PPA) is an exercise which examines : Answer : ...Choose...Lessons learnt and best practices Individual performance Process Improvement Proposals Conformance of requirements 30. The Six Sigma methodology we use for new product/ process development: Answer : ...Choose...DMAIC DSSS +Veloci-Q TQSS 31. This is the testing procedure according to which modules, sub modules are tested and test case verification is done Answer : ...Choose...Functional testing Module testing Unit testing System testing 32. As per veloci-Q, in a project following V process model – the activity to define acceptance Test Plan is recommended as part of Answer : ...Choose...RS phase Design Phase Acceptance Testing Phase Project Planning phase 33. A “Surveillance audit “is conducted by: Answer : ...Choose...SQA and SEPG Technical manager External certification agency Project Managers coordinated by SEPG

34. A NCR (Non Conformance Report) signifies : Answer : ...Choose...Deviation from a stated process Failure of ISO certification Deviation of coding standard Observation 35. Which of the following certifications mandate the use of Audits as a periodic check on compliance? Answer : ...Choose...ISO 9001:2000 CMM CMMI Six Sigma 36. Taxonomy based checklist is used for Answer : ...Choose...Risk identification Team members Project name None of the above 37. Wipro Technologies is assessed as a CMMI 5____Organization Answer : ...Choose...453It is assessed at CMM only, but no level of CMMi 38. The role of a person who facilitates the six sigma team project to align with the methodology is: Answer : ...Choose...Green Belt Champion Black Belt Yellow Belt 39. Choose the odd one: One of the process models NOT suitable for Development Answer : ...Choose...Iterative model n Waterfall Development model V-Process model Conversion/ Porting Process Model 40. Which of the following is not a management review mechanism, where senior management reviews performance of projects/ organization with respect to Quality? Answer : ...Choose...(Doubt) a. PMR b. QIC(Quality Improvement Council) c. MRM(Management Review meetings) d. PIP(Process Improvement Proposal) board meeting 41. Project level internal assessment at PPA stage should be carried out with Answer : ...Choose...CMMi PA Rating review checklist SCAMPI checklist PPR Project Data & Metrics report 42. The Assessment methodology defined by SEI for the CMMI model is Answer : ...Choose... a. CBAIPI b. SCAMPI c. PVPDCAQ 43. As per veloci-Q organization structure, the QC in a project reports to Answer : ...Choose...PM TM SQA M b and c 44. How many Process Areas are there in CMMI: Answer : ...Choose... A. 24 B. 18 C. 23 D. 28 45. Release note is prepared : Answer : ...Choose...Prior to the release , contains the list of software items To explain the project closure norms After the final test case is executed On acceptance of the release

46. What is the 3rd level in CMMI called? Answer : ...Choose...Managed Defined Optimized Controlled 47. A project can be initiated based on Answer : ...Choose...(doubt) a. TM’s preference to develop his favourite application b. wants his team to understand a technology c. the contract signed by the customer d. team feels the customer should have that application they are developing 48. The philosophy of "say what you do, do what you say" belongs to Answer : ...Choose...the Project Manager BS7799 ISO CMMI 49. The process followed in the software development project should be: Answer: ...Choose...Client specified processes Processes as described in velociQ. Tailored ODC specific processes Any One of the above 50. ______________ in the CM process represents the snapshot of a set of deliverables at a given point in time. Answer : ...Choose...Baselines Configuration Audits Configuration Items CCB 51. The vital few problems identified from the Organization level Defect Prevention activities are tracked to closure by initiating Answer : ...Choose...Specific Task teams PIPs Six Sigma projects. Any of the above 52. Which of the following would help us in deriving the projects specific process from the organization’s standard process? Answer : ...Choose...Process guidelines Project Procedures Tailoring Guidelines Life Cycle models 53. Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during the early Life Cycle stages itself? Answer:

...Choose...

a. V-Process Model b. Maintenance model c. Rational Unified Process Model d. 2I Process Model 54. In the execution of maintenance projects each trigger from the customer is recorded in a: Answer : ...Choose...Change Request MRP MR Change control Register 55. In CMMI the Level 2 stage is described as Answer : ...Choose...Managed Repeatable defined optimized 56. Project monitoring reviews are conducted : Answer : ...Choose... a. On a monthly basis b. Whenever we have a client release c. In the external audit meeting d. By the SQA Team periodically 57. Release review process involves

ANS : (TM,PM,QC/TL) Answer : ...Choose... a. PM, customer and TM PM, QC, TM All team members entire team along with SQAM and customer 58. Prior to start of the project, the PM Answer : ...Choose...good idea - he can guidelines it is a must to plan better on estimation and address differences if any

should estimate get familiar with our estimation execution of the project verify all of the above

59. ___________ methodology involves breaking of the requirements into modules with information on Interface Requirements between the modules. Answer : ...Choose...High Level design Top Down design Coupling Cohesion 60. Which of these is not true regarding an Observation recorded during an audit Answer : ...Choose...This is a deviation from the stated process This does not need closure This is a suggestion for improvement It could be a potential for non-conformance in future 61. The different categories of Lifecycle models are Answer : ...Choose... a. Development, maintenance, service, testing(these are Project types not models) (doubt) etc b. V-process model, 2i, RUP c. iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma d. All of the above 62. Which of the following templates are for ensuring detailed requirement elicitation? Answer : ...Choose...Voice Of Customer (VOC)Testing template QFD DPMO 63. The following is not a section of the project plan template : Answer : ...Choose... a. Resource Plan b. Execution Process Plan c. PDMR (Doubt) d. Project Vision 64. Different Design approaches can be evaluated using Answer : ...Choose...QFD Pugh Matrix FMEA none of the above 65. Who is responsible for approving the estimate? Answer : ...Choose... A. Project Manager B. Technical Manager C. Business Development Manager D. Presales staff 66. The 'Three Times Estimate' technique involves Answer : ...Choose... a. Estimating using three different techniques b. Estimation done by three people independently c. Specifying the "Pessimistic", "Optimistic" and "Most probable" Values for an activity

d. Estimating at three points in time proposal stage, after requirements analysis and after design.(correct but doubt) 67. Selection criteria for design alternatives can be based on Answer : ...Choose...Requirements and constraints Costs and benefits Risks All of the above 68. Objectives of customer focus is to: Answer : ...Choose...Elicit parameters that are critical to quality from customers Collect data and metrics Track performance All of the above 69. The mechanism for obtaining customer feedback at project closure as per veloci-Q is: Answer : ...Choose...Create a feedback form and send it Use template in veloci-Q as a feedback form, tailor the feedback form by including project specific questions Call the customer and obtain feedback An acceptance mail from the customer post project completion will suffice 70. We take customer complaint seriously Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE None of the above All of the above

71. Customer Satisfaction survey is conducted to Answer : ...Choose... a. obtain feedback on delivery by Wipro b. obtain feedback on the engagement with Wipro c. a and b d. none of the above 72. Corrective and Preventive Action Plan should be drawn for: Answer : ...Choose... a. Customer complaints received b. Customer feedback ratings c. Customer Satisfaction surveys d. All of the above 73. While tailoring the processes to meet the project needs, which of the following should be ensured Answer : ...Choose...Coverage of all phases of the selected life cycle To define the ETVX for the phases and activities of the tailored process SEPG sign off of the tailored process all of the above 74. Which of these are used to identify the Risks in the project? Answer: ...Choose...Risk Identification checklist Stake holder inputs Past project data All of the above 75. Which of these set of parameters are used for Risk Quantification in Risk Plan? Answer : ...Choose...Probability and Impact Mitigation and Contingency Probability and Mitigation Contingency and Impact 76. The set of actions to be taken when the perceived risk becomes a reality is documented as part of Answer : ...Choose...Contingency plan Mitigation Plan Defect Prevention Report Risk Tracker

77. The threshold value of Risk Score beyond which the Mitigation and contingency plans need to be documented is Answer:...Choose...181002745 78. The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for use for Risk Analysis is Answer : ...Choose... a. Voice of Customer b. FME c. ARCA d. Pugh Matrix 79. Effort Deviation means Answer : ...Choose... (Actual Ans: Difference b/w actual effort and planned effort expressed as % of planned effort) a. Variation between planned effort and actual effort+ effort to go PM's effort allocated to the Team member Projected effort and planned effort Actually consumed effort only 80. Which of this is not the intended use of Metrics? Answer : ...Choose...To monitor the project performance To take appropriate decisions based on measured values To monitor individual performance To revise plans 81. Which of the below situations recommends an RCA? Answer : ...Choose...Metrics computed as part of the project is better than norm Metrics computed as part of the project is below norm Metrics is equal to the norm All of the above 82. What is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of the project? Answer : ...Choose... a. PDMR(Project data and metrics report) b. Work Plans c. PMR(Project Monitoring Review) d. ASR(Account Status Report) 83. Which metric is used for tracking change in requirements? Answer : ...Choose... a. Requirements Change Index b. Requirements Volatility c. CRs Index d. None of the above 84. What does function point estimation mean: Answer : ...Choose...A standard method to measure size of software projects A Metric for effort calculation A review technique / mechanism An experimental method to calculate project delivery time 85. A Functional specification review involves one of the following: Answer : ...Choose...The following factors like safety, performance, reliability are considered. Code review Identification and testing of sub modules Validation of the work items with the environment 86. The effectiveness of the Quality Management System is continuously improved through

Answer : ...Choose...Audit results, corrective and preventive actions, CSATs, Management Review Sales reports, Balance sheets, Company audit reports Quality group recruitments Individual Performance appraisals 87. Preventive action is different from corrective action in terms of Answer : ...Choose...Fire Fighting Identifying the necessary action as soon as the non conformities occurred Identifying the problems, waiting for its occurrence and doing the post mortem study Identifying potential nonconformities and stops the non conformitis before occurring 88. Quality Policy Answer : ...Choose...Should not be shown to the customer as it is very confidentialis prepared for the Mission Quality Group is used to rate the Mission Quality Group performance every year states a clear commitment to quality and consistent with organization goals 89. What is re-work in a development project? Answer : ...Choose...Working late night Working on the job repeatedly Reviewing the specifications Bug Fixing 90. stands for Answer : ...Choose...International Organization for Standardization International Systems for Organization International Systems Orientation International Systems Organization 91. Purpose of Project performance report is to Answer : ...Choose...provide the project team appropriate reward compute average time it takes for screens to load To record the learning’s from the project for future referencere start the project again at a future date 92. Process improvements can be suggested by anyone in Wipro Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE Only Project Managers are eligible None of the above 93. Prototype helps in validating Answer : ...Choose...technology design requirements technical skills 94. PDCA stands for Answer : ...Choose...Plan, Define, Change, AddPlan, Do, Change, AidPlan, Do, Check, ActPlan, Define, Check, Add

95. Process improvement suggestions are periodically reviewed and evaluated for implementation Answer: ...Choose... a. SQA b. External Agency c. SEPG d. None of the above 96. Quality is defined as Answer : ...Choose... a. Ability of the product to meet stated or implicit needs of customers b. Set of process and procedures c. Use of checklists and templates

d. All of the above

97. In Wipro, quality group is Answer: ...Choose... a. Part of project teams b. A separate group headed by Chief Quality Officer(consists of SEPG, SQA Group and Tool Group), c. Part of a vertical d. None of the above 98. The subgroups of the quality group are (Actual Ans :SEPG,SQA Group, Tools Group) Answer : ...Choose...SEPG, Tools group, Six Sigma and Knowledge Management GroupSEPG, Six Sigma Group Tools Group, Knowledge Management Group SEPG, Six Sigma and Knowledge Management Group 99. Organizational learning enters Veloci-Q through Answer : ...Choose...Queries and PIP Audit findings Project Performance Analysis All of the above 100. It is mandatory to take corrective and preventive actions for Answer : ...Choose...(Doubt) a. Non-conformances b. Observations c. Customer complaints d. (a) and (c) 101. CMMi model outlines levels of maturity. Answer : ...Choose... a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 102. In CMMi level software process is improved in a controlled manner. Answer : ...Choose...125All of the above 103. is a cluster of related practices that are performed collectively to achieve a set of objectives. Answer : ...Choose... a. Quality System b. Channel W c. Process Area d. None of the above 104. In CMMi context is a collaborative effort to find strengths and improvement areas. Answer : ...Choose... a. Appraisal b. Audit c. Assessment

d. Observation 105. An assessment consists of Answer : ...Choose... a. Questionnaire, b. Documents review and Interviews c. Review of quality System Interview of customers d. All of the above 106. is an initiative that involves measuring and analyzing business processes. Answer : ...Choose... a. Six Sigma b. Root Cause Analysis c. Pugh Matrix d. None of the above 107. Statistical term that describes the amount of variation in data Answer : ...Choose... a. Normal Distribution b. Median c. Standard Deviation d. Six Sigma 108. DPMO stands for Answer : ...Choose... A. Defects per million opportunities B. Defects per million occasions C. Derivations per million opportunities D. Any of the above 109. In a six sigma project, the problem owner is Answer : ...Choose... A. TMGreen B. Black Belt C. BeltWhite Belt 110. Six sigma methodology that is used for reduction of cycle time is Answer : ...Choose... A. Cross Functional Process Mapping B. DMAIC C. DSSS D. Six steps 111. DSSS, DMAIC and TQSS are six sigma methodologies used for Answer : ...Choose... a. Reduction of cycle time b. Defect Reduction c. Cost calculations d. None of the above 112. is a repository of data and learning from closed projects. Answer : ...Choose...Project Data Bank Veloci-QSix SigmaNone of the above 113. A list of project documents, quality records and customer supplied documents are recorded in

Answer : ...Choose...Master List of Documents Project Folder Document Bank None of the above 114. Look ahead meetings and root cause analysis are examples of Answer : ...Choose... a. Defect prevention activities b. Error capture activities c. Appraisal activities d. None of the above 115. Triggers for root cause analysis are documented in Answer : ...Choose... a. Master list of documents b. Project Dashboard c. Project Plan d. Quality Plan 116. At organizational level, metrics are reviewed by management in Answer : ...Choose...Management Review Meeting Quality Review Meeting Quality Improvement Council Any of the above 117. Schedule deviation, effort deviation, field error rate are some of the metrics captured for Answer : ...Choose... a. Service projects b. Development Projects(/conversion or porting projects) c. Maintenance projects d. Any of the above 118. Difference between actual end date and planned end date expressed as a % of planned duration is Answer : ...Choose... a. Requirements volatility b. Schedule volatility c. Schedule deviation d. None of the above 119. Ratio of product size to total project effort is Answer : ...Choose... a. Effort DeviationCUT productivityOverall ProductivityNone of the above 120. The ratio of defected reported during UAT to the size of project is Answer : ...Choose...Overall ProductivityPhantom Error RatePost Delivery defect rateAny of the above 121. Project’s shared vision should be derived from Answer : ...Choose...Organization Shared VisionCustomer & project NeedsOrganizational process performance baselinesAll the above 122. Inputs for project initiation are Answer : ...Choose... a. b. c. d.

Project Requirements Contract/Proposal Both (a) and (b) Either (a) or (b)

123. The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and quality assurance activities at organizational level is Answer : ...Choose... a. SEPG b. SQA c. Tools Group d. None of the above 124. The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and quality assurance activities at vertical/group vertical level is Answer : ...Choose... a. SEPG b. SQA c. Tools Group d. None of the above 125. Acceptance criteria should be part of RS Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE Can be part of RS if provided by customer None of the above 126. The mandatory members for RS and FS review are Answer : ...Choose... a. PM / TM b. PM / TM / SQA c. Either PM or SQA Team members 127. The mandatory members for review of plan documents are Answer : ...Choose...TM, PM, SQA Either PM or SQA TM Tech Lead 128. Risk quantification is done based on Answer : ...Choose...Risk probability and impact of riskRisk mitigationRisk scheduleNone of the above 129. is used for tracking and monitoring risks. Answer : ...Choose...Risk Management planProject planRisk Identification checklistNone of the above 130. Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project is known as Answer : ...Choose... a. Process Tailoring b. Process Approval c. Process Deviation d. None of the above 131. Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project are documented in Answer : ...Choose... a. Project Plan b. Veloci-Q c. Master List of Process d. None of the above 132. The process model suited for projects with dissimilar service requests is Answer : ...Choose...Service Process modelRational Unified Process ModelVProcess ModelNone of the above

133. The data warehousing development process model is derived from Answer : ...Choose... a. Incremental Iterative Process Model b. Rational Unified Process Model c. V-Process Model d. None of the above 134. For a project that involves resolving incidents, job cycle monitoring and software upgrades, the process model to be chosen is Answer : ...Choose...V-Process model Iterative Process model Production Support process model None of the above 135. Estimation technique where the project activities are broken down into smaller tasks and estimated is Answer : ...Choose... a. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) b. Function Point c. Lines of code d. None of the above 136. Planned and systematic activities performed to provide adequate confidence that an item/product conforms to requirements is Answer : ...Choose...Regression Testing Unit Testing Quality Assurance None of the above 137. The i model was developed by Answer : ...Choose...Software Engineering Institute the above

Wipro Motorola None of

138. are requests to make changes to baselined work products. Answer : ...Choose...Requirements Maintenance Request (MR)Change Request (CR)None of the above 139. Work items that would undergo changes during product life cycle are known as Answer : ...Choose...Change Items Configuration Items Product Items None of the above 140. Wipro’s quality system is known as Answer : ...Choose...Wiq Tree Veloci-Q Project Data BankK-net 141. Wipro’s quality policy is Answer : ...Choose... a. Meet the needs and expectations of customers b. Achieve customer satisfaction by providing defect free products and services on time. c. Attain CMMi Level 5 compliance d. None of the above 142. Group that focus on the tools used by projects and the impact of using tools is Answer : ...Choose...Tools group SQA SEPGAll of the above 143. Practitioners working on projects can suggest process improvements through a Answer : ...Choose...Process Improvement Proposal Change Request Email/Phone All of the above

144. are the industry standards and benchmarks for quality. Answer : ...Choose...Six Sigma Quality Models Veloci-Q ChannelW 145. Bureau of India Standards emphasizes on Answer : ...Choose...Project Quality Process Quality Quality Models Product Quality 146. In Veloci-Q, intentions and directions for quality initiative are documented in Answer : ...Choose...Policies section Procedure section Guidelines section All of the above 147. In a project context, who needs to do what is documented in Answer : ...Choose...Policies section Procedure section Guidelines section All of the above 148. Process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard manner are Answer : ...Choose...Policies Procedures Checklists and Templates All of the above 149. The extent to which a specific process is defined, managed, measured and controlled within an organization is known as Answer : ...Choose...Software Process Maturity Procedures Capacity Measurememt Maturity Capability Maturity Model Any of the above 150. The two representations in the CMMI Framework are: Answer : ...Choose...Integrated and Staged Integrated and Continuous Staged and Continuous None of the above 151. The philosophy of is based on the key principles like: Answer : ...Choose...Say what you do, do what you sayRecord what you did and check the resultsAct upon the findingsAll of the above 152. ____________ documents all change requests to baselined items. Answer : ...Choose...Change Register Change Control Register Configuration Register Change Request Register 153. Configuration audits are verification mechanisms used to ensure that deliverables are: Answer : ...Choose...Defect free On schedule Consistent with requirements None of the above 154. The different types of Reviews are: Answer : ...Choose... a. Formal / Table reviews b. Peer / Online Reviews c. Project Monitoring Reviews d. Both a and b 155. _________is used to document the features/functionality to be tested, test strategy and testing methods to be used. Answer : ...Choose...Test Plan Test Form Test development Test Design 156. _________ serves as an important verification activity to ensure the completeness of testing in order to ensure product quality.

Answer : testing

...Choose...Unit Testing Integration Testing Test Audit System

157. __________ matrix is an aid to trace requirements across different phases of development. Answer : ...Choose...Traceability Requirements Change request All of the above 158. _________ is a technique used for arriving and prioritizing requirements. Answer : ...Choose...Pugh matrix Quality Function Deployment (QFD)Voice Of Customer (VOC)All of the above 159. Pair Programming, Small & Frequent releases are practices recommended by Answer : ...Choose...XP model V-Process model 2I process model All of the above 160. Project monitoring reviews are conducted to Answer : ...Choose... a. review project progress b. understand project requirements c. monitor requirements volatility d. All of the above 161. ________ is defined as any adverse event that is likely to occur. Answer : ...Choose... a. Change request b. Risk c. Maintenance d. request Disaster recovery 162. ________ are mistakes / faults caught during the same phase of SDLC Answer : ...Choose...Defects Bugs Errors All of the above 163. The process model applicable to projects that involve development of new products or major enhancements to existing products is Answer : ...Choose...V-process model Waterfall process model Iterative process model None of the above.