TEQ - CPL ATG_FW - 2011

ATG REVISION QUESTIONS 1.

The principles on which the production of lift are based on are a. Boyle's Law b. Bernoulli's Theorem c. Reynolds Number

12.

During flight at zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of the wing would be: a. less than atmospheric pressure, b. equal to atmospheric pressure, c. greater than atmospheric pressure.

2.

When considering aerodynamic forces, the effect of size is related to a. Joule's Law b. Bernoulli's Theorem c. Reynolds Number

13.

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the: a. amount of airflow above and below the wing, b. point at which the CG is located, c. distribution of high and low pressure acting on the wing.

14. 3.

Newton's first Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia states a. to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction b. force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration c. every body persists in a state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force.

In the lift formula, V² is: a. IAS b. EAS c. TAS

15.

In the lift formula, ½ρV² is: a. EAS b. TAS c. Static energy

16.

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to: a. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed; b. increase the angle of descent without increasing airspeed; c. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made.

17.

It is true to say concerning the use of flaps during approach and landing that a. flaps decrease lift which increases the stall speed, b. flaps provide an increase in lift, c. a steeper than normal approach is necessary because of increase in stall speed.

18.

It is true to say regarding the use of flaps during level turns that: a. using a constant flap setting and varying bank has no effect on stall speed, b. the addition of flaps increases the stall speed, c. the addition of flaps decreases the stall speed.

19.

The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended is lower than cruising speed because: a. the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing structure at higher speeds, b. the flaps will retract automatically at higher speeds, c. too much drag is induced.

20.

When gliding for range, the speed at which the glide is conducted is: a. Minimum L/D ratio. b. Minimum drag to minimum lift ratio. c. Maximum L/D ratio.

21.

When gliding into a head wind the best glide angle will be achieved at a. an IAS which produces the best lift/drag ratio b. an IAS which is higher than that for best lift/drag ratio c. an IAS which is lower than that for best lift/drag ratio, but which is higher than that required for best endurance

22.

If airspeed doubles while the angle of attack remains the same, the drag will: a. remain the same, b. double, c. be four times greater.

23.

As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the: a. increase in induced drag b. increase in profile drag c. decrease in profile drag

4.

The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane is known as the angle of a. incidence b. dihedral c. attack

5.

In order to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed: a. increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift, b. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than drag, c. decrease angle of attack to compensate for increasing drag.

6.

7.

8.

If the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at a higher speed will be: a. twice than that at a lower speed, b. three times more than that at the lower speed, c. four times more than that at the lower speed A wing designed to produce lift resulting from relatively : a. high air pressure below and above the wing surface, b. low pressure below and high pressure above the wing surface, c. high pressure below and low pressure above the wing surface. The changes in aircraft control which must be made to maintain altitude while airspeed is decreasing are to a. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight b. maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase angle of attack c. to increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift

9.

The point of an aerofoil through which lift acts is the a. centre of pressure b. centre of gravity c. centre of rotation

10.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: a. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing, b. force produced perpendicular to the relative flow, c. reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface.

11.

On a wing, the lift force acts perpendicular to and the drag force acts parallel to the: a. chordline, b. longitudinal axis, c. flight path

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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24.

Changing the angle of attack of a wing, enables control of the: a. lift, gross weight and drag, b. lift airspeed and drag, c. airspeed, weight and drag.

25.

As airspeed decreases in level flight, total drag of the aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the a. increase in induced drag, b. increase in parasite drag, c. decrease in induced drag.

26.

27.

Regarding the angle of attack, it is true to say that: a. a decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing and decrease drag, b. an increase in angle of attack will decrease impact pressure below the wing and decrease drag, c. an increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing and increase drag, An aircraft at 100 mph produces 1,000 lb. of drag. If angle of attack remains the same but airspeed is doubled, total drag would increase to: a. 2 000 lbs., b. 3 000 lbs., c. 4 000 lbs.

36.

Stability about the lateral axis is given by: a. the elevators b. wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane; d. the ailerons.

37.

Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by: a. elevators; b. ailerons; c. wing dihedral

38.

Moving the centre of gravity aft will: a. reduce longitudinal stability; b. increase longitudinal stability; c. have no effect on longitudinal stability.

39.

If the aircraft has a nose-up pitch displacement, the effective angle of attack of the tailplane: a. remains the same; b. changes and causes the tailplane to apply a restoring moment; c. will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator selection.

40.

The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft: a. is reduced by the effects of wing downwash; b. is increased by the effects of wing downwash; c. is not affected by wing downwash.

28.

In comparison with a low aspect ratio wing, a high aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have: a. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, b. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack, c. increased drag, especially at low angles of attack.

41.

To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C of G: a. must always coincide with the C of P; b. must be forward of the Neutral Point; c. must be aft of the Neutral Point.

29.

In comparison with a high aspect ratio wing, a low aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have, a. decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack. b. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, c. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack.

42.

Wing dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift: a. on the down-going wing when the aircraft rolls; b. on the lower wing when the aircraft sideslips; c. on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked altitude.

30.

If an aircraft is stable, this means that: a. it is in a state of balance; b. if it is displaced it will return to its original position without any correction by the pilot; c. if it is displaced it must be returned to its original position by the pilot operating the controls.

43.

A high wing configuration gives: a. more lateral stability than a low wing; b. less lateral stability than a low wing; c. the same lateral stability as a low wing.

44.

After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates for a long time with only small reductions of amplitude on each oscillation. It would be said to have: a. low damping; b. high damping; c. negative damping.

45.

The presence of the fuselage in an aircraft with a high wing during a sideslip: a. increases the lift on the lower wing and decreases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a stabilising moment; b. increases the lift on both wings thus creating a stabilising moment; c. decreases the lift on the lower wing and, increases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a destabilising moment.

31.

For an aircraft which is neutrally stable in roll, following a wing drop: a. the wing would tend to return to the level position; b. the wing would continue to drop; c. the wing would remain in its displaced position.

32.

After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is: a. statically and dynamically unstable; b. statically stable but dynamically unstable; c. statically unstable but dynamically stable.

33.

Longitudinal stability is given by: a. the fin; b. the wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane.

34.

An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide: a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis; b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis; c. lateral stability about the normal axis.

46.

Sweepback of the wings will: a. increase lateral stability; b. decrease lateral stability; c. not affect the lateral stability.

35.

Lateral stability is given by: a. the ailerons; b. the wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane.

47.

If an aircraft is yawed to a large angle of sideslip: a. directional stability will be lost; b. if the sideslip angle is too large the fin may stall and directional stability will be decreased; c. the rudder will always have to be used to return the aircraft to its original position.

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62.

The aircraft nose initially tends to return to the original position after the elevator is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays: a. negative stability, b. positive static stability c. negative dynamic stability.

63.

Rotation about the lateral axis is known as: a. pitching and is controlled with the elevator, b. rolling and is controlled with the ailerons, c. yawing and is controlled with the ailerons.

64.

If an aircraft is loaded to the rear of the CG range, it will tend to be: a. unstable about the lateral axis, b. sluggish in aileron control, c. unstable about the longitudinal axis.

65.

A high wing aircraft has the thrust line above the drag line. When the landing gear is lowered, the force required on the tailplane to maintain straight and level flight is: a. Reduced force. b. No force. c. Increased force.

66.

The angle of climb is proportional to: a. the amount by which the lift exceeds the weight b. the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag c. the angle of attack of the wing.

67.

As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS: a. decreases because drag increases and thrust decreases b. increases because drag decreases and thrust is constant c. decreases because thrust decreases and drag is constant.

68.

As altitude increases the excess power available: a. decreases because the power available decreases and power required is constant b. increases because the power required decreases and power available is constant c. decreases because the power available decreases and power required increases.

69.

Moving the centre of gravity aft will: a. increase longitudinal stability b. reduce longitudinal stability c. have no effect on longitudinal stability.

To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. near to the stalling speed b. as high as possible within VNE limits c. the one that gives the highest L/D ratio.

70.

After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft continues to oscillate at a constant amplitude. It is: a. longitudinally neutrally stable b. laterally unstable c. longitudinally unstable.

If weight is increased the maximum gliding range of an aircraft: a. decreases b. increases c. remains the same.

71.

As bank angle is increased in a level turn at a constant IAS, the load factor will: a. remain the same b. increase c. decrease.

72.

In a level turn at a constant IAS: a. the drag will be greater than in level flight because of the increased induced drag b. the drag will be the same as in level flight because the IAS is the same c. the drag will be less than in level flight because the lift is less.

73.

For a level turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn is decreased the bank angle and load factor will: a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same.

48.

The fin gives: a. directional stability about the longitudinal axis b. directional stability about the normal axis; c. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.

49.

Increasing the size of the fin: a. reduces lateral stability; b. increases longitudinal stability and directional control; c. increases the size of the keel surface giving increased directional stability.

50.

51.

Pendulum stability is a property possessed by: a. aircraft with swept back wings; b. aircraft with high wing configuration; c. aircraft with low wing configuration. An aircraft with a `Dutch roll' instability will: a. go into a spiral dive following a lateral disturbance; b. experience simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw; c. experience oscillations in pitch.

52.

Dutch roll may be prevented by: a. having the wings swept back; b. reducing the size of the fin; c. fitting yaw dampers.

53.

An aircraft is yawed to starboard and the rudder is then centralized. If it then yaws to port it is: a. directionally neutrally stable; b. directionally statically stable; c. directionally dynamically stable.

54.

Increasing the size of the fin will: a. increase lateral stability b. decrease lateral stability c. not affect lateral stability.

55.

After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates with increasing amplitude. It is: a. dynamically neutral b. dynamically stable but statically unstable c. dynamically unstable longitudinally.

56.

57.

58.

To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C of G: a. should not be forward of the neutral point b. should not be aft of the neutral point c. should coincide with the neutral point.

59.

Dutch roll is: a. A type of slow roll b. primarily a pitching instability c. a combined rolling and yawing motion.

60.

When the C of G is close to the forward limit: a. very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch b. longitudinal stability is reduced c. larger stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.

61.

Stability of an aircraft about its lateral axis is normally provided by the: a. tailplane b. ailerons c. elevators.

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74.

A stall warning must be set to operate: a. at a speed just below stalling speed b. at a speed above stalling speed c. at the stalling speed.

75.

In a steady turn an aircraft experiences 3g, the stalling speed will be: a. above the normal stalling speed b. below the normal stalling speed c. the same as the normal stalling speed.

76.

77.

78.

At altitudes above sea level the IAS stalling speed will be: a. the same as at sea level b. less than at sea level c. greater than at sea level An aircraft wing stalls at: a. a constant true airspeed b. a constant angle of attack c. a constant indicated airspeed A typical stalling angle of attack is: a. 30 b. 15 c. 5

79.

With engine power on, an aircraft will stall: a. at the same speed as with power off b. at a lower speed than with power off c. at a higher speed than with power off

80.

If the aircraft weight changes by 6% the stalling speed will change by approximately: a. 3% b. 12% c. 6%

81.

A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the root will: a. prevent a root stall b. induce a root stall c. give a shorter landing run.

82.

At angles of attack above the stalling angle: a. the lift decreases and the drag decreases b. the lift decreases and the drag increases c. the lift increases and the drag increases.

83.

A leading edge slat is a device for: a. increasing the stalling angle of the wing b. decreasing the drag of the wing c. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.

84.

Wing tip staIling may be prevented: a. wash out on the wing b. wash in on the wing c. giving the tip a sharp leading edge.

85.

Increasing aircraft weight will: a. decrease the stalling speed b. not effect the stalling speed c. increase the stalling speed.

86.

87.

A stick shaker is: a. a high Mach number warning device b. an artificial stability device c. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning. The stalling speed is determined by: a. the maximum value of CL b. the CL for zero lift c. the CL for maximum L/D ratio.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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88.

A stick pusher is a device for: a. assisting the pilot to move the controls against high air loads b. preventing the aircraft from getting into a stall c. automatically compensating pitch changes at high speeds.

89.

Wing tip stalling may be prevented by: a. giving the tip a sharp leading edge b. wash-in on the wing c. wash-out on the wing.

90.

if weight is increased the stalling angle of attack is: a. increased b. decreased c. the same.

91.

With the C of G on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be: a. lower than with the C of G on the aft limit b. higher than the C of G on the aft limit c. the same as with the C of G on the aft limit.

92.

In an aircraft just after take-off, weight, altitude and temperature are of most importance. This WAT limit is most critical at: a. Second stage of climb. b. Third stage of climb. c. Final stage of climb.

93.

If an aircraft is flying close to the stall, and ailerons are operated: a. a stall could occur on the wing with the down aileron b. a stall could occur on the wing with the up aileron c. there would be no effect on stalling.

94.

On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence: a. at the tip b. at the centre of the span c. At the root.

95.

The indicated stalling speed of an aircraft at a given weight: a. increase with altitude increase b. is constant at all altitudes c. decreases with altitude increase.

96.

The separation point of the boundary layer: a. moves forward with increased angle of attack b. moves aft with increased angle of attack c. remains constant up to the stalling angle.

97.

To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted: a. in the same direction as the primary control surfaces they affect, b. in the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces they affect, c. depending upon the design of the trim tab controls.

98.

Flight manoeuvres are generally divided into four flight fundamentals: a. aircraft power, pitch, bank and trim, b. straight and level flight, turns, climbs and descents, c. take-offs, slow flight, fast flight and stalls.

99.

If the aircraft is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded limits, the instruments to rely on first to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery are a. turn indicator and VSI b. ASI and altimeter c. Turn indicator and ASI

100. The most important function of a rudder during coordinated flight is that: a. it prevents skid, b. properly applied, it helps to overcome adverse yaw, c. applying rudder overcomes the asymmetrical thrust of the propeller as the turn is initiated.

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101. Application of aileron alone when rolling into a turn will result in unbalanced flight for the duration of the aileron input and will result in a. sideslip b. skid c. either of the above may be correct depending on the direction of the turn 102. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach and landing? a. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. b. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. c. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold. 103. What criteria determines which engine is the ‘critical’ engine of a twin-engine airplane? a. The one with the centre of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage. b. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. c. The one with centre of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage. 104. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with un-supercharged engines? a. None b. Increases with altitude c. Decreases with altitude. 105. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane? a. With one engine inoperative. b. With climb power on. c. With full flaps and gear extended. 106. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? a. While manoeuvering at minimum controllable airspeed to avoid overbanking b. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. c. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude 107. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? ACCELERATE TOa. Best engine-out rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. b. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. c. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed. 108. What performance should a pilot of a light , twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc? a. Heading. b. Heading and altitude. c. Heading, altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min. 109. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent? a. Maximum single-engine rate of climb b. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. c. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. 110. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? a. Below .75 Mach. b. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. c. From 1.20 to 250 Mach.

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111. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? a. Initial buffet speed. b. Critical Mach number. c. Transonic index. 112. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow? a. Supersonic Mach number. b. Transonic Mach number. c. Critical Mach number 113. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? a. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up. b. A severe moment or ‘tuck under’. c. Severe porpoising. 114. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are shock-stalled first?. a. Inward and aft. b. Inward and forward. c. Outward and forward. 115. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? a. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. b. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. c. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. 116. What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? a. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. b. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. c. Severe pitch down movement when the centre of pressure shift forward. 117. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? a. Porpoise. b. Wingover. c. Dutch roll. 118. A wing with marked sweep-back a. has a low induced drag coefficient throughout the speed range b. has a high induce drag coefficient throughout the speed range c. has a reduced induced drag coefficient at the high speed range 119. Aircraft icing in flight is due to: a. Ice crystals. b. Snow flakes. c. Supercooled water droplets. 120. DTD 585, hydraulic fluid is: a. blue b. light straw c. red. 121. A mineral based hydraulic fluid will require all components to be fitted with: a. natural rubber seals b. butyl rubber seals c. synthetic rubber seals. 122. In a hydraulic system, when the engine is at idle RPM, the system pressure fails to rise above two thirds maximum normal working pressure, the probable fault is: a. accumulator charge pressure is too low b. the engine RPM is too low c. a pressure relief valve is stuck slightly open.

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123. The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. prevent cavitation at the pump b. provide, in an emergency, a supply of fluid for the pump c. assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations. 124. A one-way restrictor valve may be fitted to: a. a flap circuit to reduce the rate of movement in both directions b. an undercarriage circuit to reduce the speed of operation on lowering c. a speed brake to ensure it moves out quickly and moves in slowly. 125. A visco-static fluid is one which: a. maintains a constant viscosity at all working temperatures b. maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working temperature c. will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in the system. 126. A variable volume pump: a. maintains a constant volume of fluid to the circuits at all times b. maintain a constant pressure in the system. c. maintain a constant temperature throughout the system. 127. Excessive pressure due to thermal expansion in a closed circuit may be relieved by a: a. Flow control valve b. Pressure reducing valve c. Pressure relief valve. 128. Excessive system pressure fluctuations may be due to: a. high accumulator charge pressure b. low accumulator system pressure c. low accumulator charge pressure. 129. Most modern hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to: a. eliminate cavitation in the pump supply b. to provide pressure for emergency use c. to eliminate hydraulic hammering. 130. The hand pump in a hydraulic system is used to a. pump hydraulic fluid from the accumulator into the reservoir b. maintain system pressure in flight c. provide an alternative, in an emergency to the engine driven pump 131. The component in a hydraulic system that will be set to the highest pressure is the a. pressure relief valve b. accumulator c. non-return valve 132. A lower than specified accumulator gas pressure may a. allow fluid pressures to become excessive b. reduce the emergency source of hydraulic power c. reduce the amount of fluid stored in the accumulator 133. Whilst operating a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure dropped abnormally low, but slowly returned to normal after activation of the system was completed. The most likely cause of this would be a. low accumulator gas pressure b. a leak in the component actuator c. low fluid level 134. If fully extended hydraulic flaps start to re tract when the aircraft is below Vfe, a likely cause is a. a leak in the flap actuating cylinder b. low hydraulic fluid level c. expansion of hydraulic fluid due to high temperature

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135. In a wheelbrake circuit, the hydraulic accumulator will provide an increase in the number of brake applications in an emergency: a. if the initial charge pressure is increased b. if the initial charge pressure is reduced c. if the initial charge pressure is exhausted 136. Excessive brake travel could be due to a. air in the system b. a weak return spring c. a fluid leak in the master cylinder 137. If air has leaked into the lines of a foot operated hydraulic brake system a. the brake pedal will experience no resistance as it travels to the floor b. the brakes will feel spongy c. application of light foot pressure will cause the brakes to grab 138. The purpose of a shimmey damper is to a. eliminate vibration of the tailwheel b. eliminate vibration of the main wheels c. reduce nosewheel vibration during ground operations 139. What is the worst condition to land regarding hydroplaning? a. Snow. b. Slush. c. Standing water. 140. With reference to aeroplane operating manuals, the term Vle refers to a. the maximum speed at which the undercarriage may be lowered b. the maximum speed at which the aeroplane may be flown with the undercarriage extended c. the maximum speed of the aeroplane in the landing configuration 141. To measure the rate of climb of the cabin in a pressurised aircraft, the cabin VSI uses: a. static pressure measured at the aircraft altitude b. cabin differential pressure c. static pressure measured inside the cockpit 142. After a flight in a pressurised aircraft, none of the doors are able to be opened. This could be caused by a. the safety valve failing to operate due to faulty weight switches b. the negative relief valve opening one landing c. the use of incorrect door opening procedures 143. During a climb, the pilot notices that the cabin altimeter and VSI are reading the same as the aircraft altimeter and VSI. A possible cause is a. the negative relief valve is stuck closed b. the aircraft is not above 10,000 ft yet c. the safety valve has opened 144. On a given aircraft’s pressurisation panel the cabin altitude has been set to 8000 ft and cabin rate of change is set to maximum (2000 fpm). If after take-off from sea level the aircraft climbs at 1000 fpm, the cabin pressure would initially a. remain the same as outside pressure up to 8000 ft b. decrease at twice the rate of the outside pressure c. decrease at half the rate of the out side pressure 145. Oils and greases should not be used on joints in oxygen lines because a. they can clog the lines b. they may start a fire c. they will cause the connections to oxidise (rust)

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146. The use of supplemental oxygen by a pilot in a pressurized aircraft is mandatory a. at all times for a flight planned above 10,000 ft b. at all times when the aircraft is above 10,000 ft for longer than 60 mins c. at all times when the cabin altitude is above 10,000 ft for longer than 60 mins 147. For cruise in an unpressurised aircraft at FL270 a diluter demand oxygen system a. is not suitable for prolonged operations b. would deliver oxygen under pressure c. need not supply 100% oxygen 148. Continuous flow oxygen systems a. are suitable for prolonged use up to 25,000 ft b. are suitable for prolonged use up to 33,000 ft c. are suitable for prolonged use up to 40,000 ft 149. Which statement is incorrect regarding autopilot operation? a. Many autopilots should not be engaged above certain limiting IAS values b. Autopilots should always be off for take-off and landing c. Autopilots are designed to maintain attitude and so should be used during flight through turbulence

159. In the event a booster pump fails in the engine fuel system: a. fuel will be drawn through the pump by-pass b. the fuel in that tank will become isolated c. ram air vent pressure will maintain supply to the engine cylinders. 160. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by: a. the main engine pump b. booster pumps c. fuel tank vents. 161. Fuel system booster pumps are normally: a. engine driven b. electrically operated c. air operated. 162. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks if parking it overnight? a. Prevention of condensation of water in the tanks b. Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel lines c. Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded 163. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of its a. calorific value b. volatility c. resistance to detonation

150. When disengaging an autopilot a pilot’s main concern should be to a. guard against sudden changes in aircraft attitude b. maintain straight and level flight c. maintain a rate one turn

164. The volatility of a fuel is its a. anti-detonation resistance b. mass per unit volume c. vapour forming tendency

151. Which of the following ice protection systems is designed to be used only for de-icing? a. Alcohol spray b. Hot air c. Pneumatic system

165. If fuel of the specified octane rating cannot be attained it is permissible to use a. fuel of the next lower octane rating b. fuel of the next higher octane rating c. a mixture of the next lowest and the next highest grade

152. The APU is normally: a. Only used on the ground b. Only used in flight c. Only used in an emergency

166. AVGAS l00LL is coloured a. clear b. blue c. green

153. A bleed air heating system obtains a supply of hot air from: a. The turbine stage of a gas turbine engine b. The exhaust shroud of a piston engine c. The compressor stage of a gas turbine engine

167. AVGAS 100/130 is coloured a. clear b. blue c. green

154. On a modern aircraft the APU is a. A small gas turbine engine b. A petrol driven engine c. An electrically driven starter motor

168. A fuel has a rating of 100/130. The 100 indicates a. the proportion of iso-octane and neoheptane blended in the fuel b. the percentage of maximum manifold pressure that can be used in lean mixture c. the anti-detonation rating of the fuel in lean mixture

155. A weight of Basic Operating Empty Mass plus payload is known as: a. MRW b. MZFW c. MLW 156. Humidity is controlled at a. 50% b. 30% c. 85% 157. Combustion heating is normally provided by a. The exhaust system of a piston engine b. The heat exchangers c. A special heater with its own fuel supply 158. A typical engine bleed air system used on a turbojet aircraft is also known as a. A jockstrap system b. A bootstrap system c. A girthstrap system

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169. The purpose of an electric boost pump is to a. provide extra power at take-off b. transfer fuel from one tank to another c. guard against vapour locking 170. Cross feeding in a fuel system is primarily for a. allowing an engine to draw from either tank b. to balance the fuel, with equal amounts in each tank c. to allow the auxiliary tanks to top up the main tanks as fuel is drawn from the mains 171. Fuel vapourisation would most likely be caused by a. a high rate of climb on a cold day b. a high rate of climb on a hot day c. a low rate of climb on a cold day 172. If forward facing fuel tank vents are bent backwards a. increased fuel pressure may damage the boost pumps b. reduced tank pressure may cause tuel starvation or vapourisation c. increased tank pressure may cause fuel tank rupture

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173. The use of a lower than specified grade of fuel in an engine is likely to a. cause lead fouling of the spark plugs b. result in an over-lean mixture c. result in detonation

186. In a non paralleled constant frequency AC system the generator loadmeters will normally measure. a. KVA or Amps. b. KVA and power factor. c. KVAR and KW.

174. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air from around the exhaust manifold a. are used only in twin-engined aircraft b. may cause carbon monoxide poisoning c. are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as exhaust gases are easily detected by smell

187. A 400 Hz supply has: a. A capacity of 400 000 watts. b. An impedance of 400 ohms. c. A frequency of 400 cycles per second.

175. When is tyre heating most likely to occur, at: a. Low taxi speed, high tyre pressure. b. High taxi speed, high tyre pressure. c. Low taxi speed, low tyre pressure. 176. A transformer which halves the voltage will have: a. Half as many turns on the secondary coil as on the primary coil. b. Twice as many turns on the secondary as on the primary. c. Four times as many turns on the secondary as on the primary.

188. One advantage of a main a.c. supply system is: a. Easy, and almost lossless stepping up or down of voltage. b. Voltage does not need to be changed. c. Batteries are not needed. 189. One of the advantages of three phase generation over single phase generation is: a. That most aircraft services require three phase supply. b. That there is a more efficient conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy. c. That it gives lower cable weights and more compact generators.

177. The moving part of the AC generator is: a. The rotor. b. The stator. c. The exciter.

190. In a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC system the line voltage is: a. 115 volts. b. 208 volts. c. 200 volts.

178. Output from an AC generator is taken from: a. The exciter. b. The stator windings. c. The rotor windings.

191. In an A.C. generator, voltage regulation: a. Is by varying the drive rpm b. Is by varying the excitation current. c. Is by the insertion of variable resistors into the circuit.

179. The voltage of an AC generator: a. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero, and then rises in the same direction to a maximum and falls to zero. b. Rises to a maximum in one direction and then remains constant. c. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero and then rises to a maximum in the opposite direction and falls to zero.

192. In a constant speed A.C. "generation system which is paralleled" a. All generators are run off the same engine. b. All engines are run at the same rpm. c. A generator has its own constant speed drive.

180. An alternator is: a. A static inverter. b. A rotary switch for a de-icing system. c. An AC generator. 181. Impedance is: a. Volt/Watts b. Volt/Amps c. Volts/Frequency 182. If the frequency is increased in an inductive circuit: a. Impedence will decrease. b. Impedence will increase. c. Impedence will remain constant. 183. In an a.c. circuit which is mainly inductive: a. Current will lead voltage. b. Current and voltage will be 'in phase'. c. Current will lag voltage. 184. If frequency increases capacitive reactance will: a. Increase. b. Not change. c. Decrease. 185. Power factor is: a. Real load / Apparent load b. Apparent load / Real load c. Real load / Wattless load

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193. A low reactive load on one generator is compensated for in a paralleled system: a. through the excitation circuit of the generator. b. By altering the rotor speed. c. By increasing the real load on the other generators. 194. To increase the real load taken by a paralleled AC generator, the: a. Generator drive torque is increased. b. Generator excitation is increased. c. Generator drive torque and excitation are increased. 195. The frequency of aircraft constant frequency systems is maintained: a. Between 380 and 420 Hz. b. Between 350 and 450 Hz. c. Between 395 and 495 Hz. 196. Frequency is controlled by: a. Excitation voltage. b. Speed of rotation. c. Excitation current. 197. Load sharing circuits are necessary: a. Whenever generators are operating in series. b. Whenever generators are operating independently c. Whenever generators are operating in parallel. 198. Paralleled AC generators will have: a. One load meter to measure total system load b. One volt meter for each generator. c. One load meter for each generator.

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199. If an A.C. generator control relay tripped the: a. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will have opened. b. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will close. c. Generator circuit breaker for that generator trips and busbar tie breaker trips 200. On an aircraft A.C. generator, the output is usually taken from: a. The stator windings. b. The rotor. c. The excitor. 201. The CSD functions: a. To maintain a constant ratio between engine speed and generator speed. b. To vary the generator speed in proportion to load. c. To maintain constant generator speed. 202. If the CSD disconnect switch is used, the drive can be: a. Only reinstated when the aircraft is on the ground. b. Re-instated in flight from the electrical supply compartment. c. Re-instated in flight from the flight deck. 203. In the event of a mechanical failure occurring in the generator the CSD is protected by: a. A hydraulic clutch. b. A universal joint. c. Quill drive. 204. An APU is driven: a. By its own dedicated gas turbine. b. By an hydraulic motor. c. By a ram air turbine. 205. An auto-transformer: a. Varies the turns ratio automatically to maintain a constant output voltage with varying input voltage. b. Has only one coil which is used as both primary and secondary. c. Will maintain a constant output frequency with a varying supply frequency. 206. As the torque load increases on an induction motor it will: a. Slow down. b. Maintain RPM. c. Speed up. 207. When a fuse is “popped” or “blown”, it is: a. The fuse detatching from the panel. b. The fuse wire melting. c. Due to a minimum load. 208. When a generator is on line: a. it is at correct RPM b. the battery indicates a discharge c. it is connected to the bus-bar. 209. A short circuit: a. has high resistance b. has low current c. allows excessive current. 210. The capacity of a battery is rated in a. volts b. watts c. ampere-hours. 211. To prevent a circuit overheating: a. ram air is directed over major components b. fuses are fitted c. capacitors are fitted.

213. Battery state of charge must be checked every: a. six months b. three months c. year. 214. D.C. generators are normally: a. initially excited by direct current from the battery busbar b. initially excited by residual magnetism c. initially excited by ground power. 215. An earth return circuit is one which: a. uses the aircraft structure as the return b. has a common earth return lead for all circuits c. has a return lead for that circuit. 216. Load shedding will cause the: a. current to increase b. voltage to increase c. current to reduce. 217. A ruptured red disc on the nacelle skin of a gas turbine engine bay fire extinguisher indicates: a. The extinguisher is overcharged and therefore over pressurised. b. That excess pressure has been released to return it to safe limits. c. The extinguisher has discharged due to excess pressure. 218. What is the colour of a hand held fire extinguisher? a. Black. b. Red. c. Green. 219. The type of fire extinguisher that would be used for an electrical fire is: a. CO2 fire extinguisher. b. Any fire extinguisher coloured red. c. An extinguisher used for Class C fires. 220. A common type of fire extinuigshant in use is: a. Methyl Bromide. b. Sodium Chloride. c. Barium Oxide. 221. Fireproof bulkheads not having the benefit of cooling air are manufactured from: a. Light Allloy b. Titanium c. Magnesium 222. Which type of fire extinguishant may be also be found on gas turbine aircraft? a. Freon b. Argon c. Krypton 223. The valves of a four stroke piston engine will each: a. open twice during the normal "Otto" cycle. b. open once during the normal "Otto" cycle. c. open four times during the normal "Otto" cycle 224. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates: a. at twice the speed of the crankshaft. b. at half the speed of the crankshaft. c. at the same speed as the crankshaft. 225. Tappet and rocker arm clearance is essential: a. to allow lubrication between the contact surface. b. to allow for valve operation by the cam. c. to allow for expansion throughout the working temperature range of the engine.

212. Circuit breakers are fitted: a. in parallel with the load b. in series with the load c. in parallel with the fuses.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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226. Valve "Dwell" is: a. the period a valve remains open. b. the period a valve remains closed. c. the period taken by the rocker to take up the clearance gap before operating the valve.

239. The reserve of lubricating oil of a wet sump piston engine is stored in: a. the sump. b. a separate tank. c. the pipe system.

227. Valve overlap occurs: a. at the end of the power stroke. b. at the end of the exhaust stroke. c. at the end of the induction stroke.

240. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a space above the oil to provide for: a. jack ram displacement. b. pressurisation. c. expansion of the oil and frothing.

228. The weight of charge induced into a piston engine cylinder during normal operation: a. is increased by closing the exhaust valve before TDC. b. is reduced by closing the inlet valve after BDC. c. is increased by delaying the closing of the inlet valve.

241. The oil cooler of a dry sump lubrication system is normally cooled by: a. water. b. compressor oil. c. ram air.

229. The exhaust valve of a piston engine: a. normally has a hollow stem partially filled with sodium. b. is normally manufactured from metallic sodium to assist with cooling. c. normally has a hollow head filled with sodium.

242. The magnetic field in a magneto is provided by: a. battery current. b. an excitation field circuit. c. a permanent magnet.

230. Valve springs are primarily duplicated to: a. to ensure a gas tight seal when the valve is closed. b. to prevent the valve dropping into the cylinder in the event a spring breaks. c. to reduce valve bounce.

243. Excessive arcing across the contact breaker points of a magneto when the points are open is prevented by: a. a diode being fitted. b. a condenser being fitted. c. insulation of the contacts.

231. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the end of the power stroke: a. the gas temperature will be at its highest. b. the gas temperature will be reducing. c. the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC.

244. On a four stroke engine the ignition spark will occur: a. once each revolution of the engine. b. once every fourth revolution of the engine. c. once every two revolutions of the engine.

232. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the: a. ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder volume when at TDC. b. difference in pressure generated when the piston is at BDC to that generated at TDC. c. variation between the volume of the combustion chamber and the swept volume. 233. The majority of aircraft piston engine lubrication systems are of the: a. self lubricating type. b. wet sump type. c. dry sump type. 234. A dry sump lubrication system: a. maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank. b. maintains a reserve of oil in the sump. c. requires no reserve of oil. 235. The pressure pump of a dry sump lubrication system: a. has a greater capacity than the scavenge pump. b. has less capacity than the scavenge pump. c. is driven on a common shaft and has the same capacity as the scavenge pump. 236. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is: a. located between the pressure pump and tank. b. located after the pressure pump. c. located between the scavenge pump and the tank. 237. The by-pass valve of a dry sump lubrication system is: a. normally activated during low temperature engine starting. b. normally activated during high temperature engine starting. c. is a relief valve excess oil pressure. 238. Normally on most piston engines the lubrication oil of a dry sump system is cooled: a. on leaving the pressure pump. b. before returning to the oil tank. c. before returning to the sump.

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245. On engine start up, the generator warning light fails to extinguish, this will result in: a. the engine stopping when the battery is totally discharged. b. failure of the initial excitation of the magneto. c. the engine continuing to run normally. 246. The distributor rotor on a four stroke engine rotates at: a. the same speed as the engine. b. twice the speed of the engine. c. half the speed of the engine. 247. With increase of engine speed, ignition timing: a. will advance. b. will retard. c. will remain constant. 248. Fuel pumps: a. should not be run when the fuel system is dry. b. of all types are lubricated by the fuel that passes through them. c. are normally electrically operated. 249. Booster pumps are: a. normally driven by the engine. b. electrically operated. c. normally used for priming the engine only. 250. If the fuel pressure warning light comes on in flight the: a. booster pumps must be isolated. b. main fuel pump must be isolated. c. booster pumps must be switched on. 251. In the event of booster pump failure, the: a. fuel will continue to be drawn through the booster pump bypass by the engine driven pump. b. pump must be isolated and the remaining fuel in the tank transferred by the transfer pumps. c. fuel will be isolated in the tank. 252. Fuel pump delivery is normally: a. supplied at a constant flow rate to the engine. b. supplied at a constant pressure, controlled by a pressure relief valve. c. supplied at a constant volume.

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253. In an air-cooled piston engine: a. fins are incorporated to increase the cylinder and head surface areas. b. air is ducted through drillings in the cylinder head walls. c. air is used to cool the cooling oil. 254. Air is directed over the cylinder wall fins by: a. cowl gills. b. baffles. c. air deflection plates. 255. Engine temperature is normally indicated by: a. cylinder head temperature gauge. b. the engine master temperature gauge. c. the engine lubrication system temperature gauge. 256. Cooling air is normally provided by: a. airflow from a supercharger. b. airflow from a compressor bleed. c. ram air. 257. In a liquid cooled engine cooling system: a. temperature is controlled by a thermostat. b. temperature is controlled by a master pump. c. fuel is used to cool the coolant. 258. An alternative name sometimes given to the choke is the: a. butterfly. b. venturi. c. intake controller. 259. To prevent fuel starvation due to sudden opening of the throttle: a. the enrichment jet is fitted. b. the pressure balance duct is fitted. c. the accelerator pump is fitted. 260. When an aircraft is inverted in flight, fuel starvation of the engine may be prevented by: a. the carburettor balance duct. b. the power jet. c. a stand tube. 261. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by: a. hot air from the cooling system. b. hot oil from the engine lubrication system. c. spray mat heater elements. 262. The supercharger is normally positioned: a. in the exhaust manifold. b. before the carburettor. c. between the carburettor and the inlet manifold. 263. The impeller of a supercharger rotates: a. twice the speed of the engine. b. half the speed of the engine crankshaft. c. nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft. 264. The supercharger is normally located: a. at the side of the engine. b. at the rear of the engine. c. at the front of the engine. 265. Manifold boost pressure is: a. the indicated pressure in the inlet manifold between the impeller and the inlet valves. b. the indicated pressure in the inlet prior to the carburettor. c. the pressure indicated in the supercharger. 266. The turbocharger impeller is situated: a. prior to the fuel injector. b. after the carburettor. c. in the exhaust system.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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267. Turbocharger main bearings are lubricated by: a. the engine hydraulic system. b. the engine lubrication system. c. grease packs. 268. The turbocharger impeller is: a. driven by intake ram air. b. driven by exhaust gases. c. mounted on the same shaft as the turbine. 269. During the power stroke of a piston engine, as the piston descends the cylinder the temperature will: a. increase b. decrease c. remain relatively constant. 270. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates at: a. half the speed of the crankshaft b. the same speed as the crankshaft c. twice the speed of the crankshaft. 271. Piston engine valve 'dwell' is the: a. period a valve remains open b. period between valve overlap c. period when both inlet and exhaust valves are closed. 272. The purpose of valve springs are to: a. ensure the valves close b. obtain a close fit with the cam face c. ensure a gas tight seal when the valves are closed. 273. An over-rich mixture on starting a piston engine may be due to: a. boost reversal b. the hand priming pump plunger in the out position c. the timing being retarded. 274. Piston engine hydraulicing is caused by: a. excessive oil pressure in the engine lubrication system b. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is static c. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is running. 275. At low engine RPM, black smoke from the exhaust of a piston engine may indicate: a. oil leaking past the piston rings b. contaminated fuel c. a rich mixture. 276. Piston engine hydraulicing: a. can be ignored on inverted engines b. must be checked at idle RPM c. must be checked before attempting to start the engine. 277. As a supercharged engine climbs to high altitude, the cylinder head temperature will: a. reduce due to the reduction in ambient temperature b. remain approximately the same c. increase due to the increased weight of charge. 278. A supercharger normally rotates at: a. twice the crankshaft RPM b. four times the engine RPM c. ten times engine crankshaft RPM. 279. The supercharger main bearings are lubricated by: a. the engine lubrication system b. grease packs c. a self contained oil system. 280. A slight increase of power of a supercharged engine up to its rated altitude is due to: a. a slight increase in the volume of charge, due to the reduction in temperature, entering the cylinders b. a reduction in air density resulting in a richer mixture c. an increase in the weight of charge entering the cylinders due to temperature reduction.

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281. When a supercharged engine reaches its rated altitude with the throttle valve fully open, any further opening of the throttle in the cockpit will: a. increase RPM allowing further altitude to be gained b. increase boost c. be lost motion. 282. On a supercharged engine, on start up the boost pressure will a. fall b. remain constant c. rise. 283. When engine starting is initiated the waste gate of a turbocharger will be: a. fully open b. partially open c. fully closed. 284. If a leak occurs in the exhaust system of a turbo-charged piston engine prior to the turbine: a. critical height will be increased b. the waste gate will fail to close as altitude is increased c. the waste gate will close normally as altitude increases. 285. The a. b. c.

wastegate of a turbo-charger is: opened by spring pressure opened by oil pressure opened by electric actuator.

286. A supercharger's output is normally controlled by: a. the waste gate b. boost control lever c. the throttle valve. 287. A turbo-charger's main bearings are lubricated by: a. the engine lubrication system b. a self contained lubrication system c. the aircraft hydraulic system. 288. The helix angle is: a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance. b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the incidence angle. c. The angle of advance. 289. The blade angle is: a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance. b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the helix angle. c. Equal to the angle of attack plus blade incidence angle. 290. A variable pitch constant speed propeller is designed primarily to: a. Maintain the engine at a constant RPM. b. Maintain the propeller at a constant thrust. c. Maintain the propeller at a constant RPM. 291. A variable pitch constant speed propeller: a. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to engine RPM. b. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to propeller pitch. c. Eliminates the need for constant changes to mixture setting. 292. The pitch is controlled on a constant speed variable pitch propeller: a. By the RPM lever. b. By the throttle. c. By the C.S.U. 293. Prior to engine starting: a. Coarse pitch is selected to give maximum cooling airflow. b. Extra fine pitch is selected to reduce the load on the engine. c. Extra fine pitch is selected to increase cooling airflow to the engine.

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294. In the feathered position: a. The leading edge of the blade faces forward. b. The trailing edge of the blade faces forward. c. The thrust face faces forward. 295. When flying in low temperatures conditions: a. The C.S.U. is heated to prevent congealing of the oil. b. The C.S.U operation should be kept to a minimum. c. The C.S.U should be exercised periodically to prevent the oil congealing. 296. Overspeeding of the propeller in flight may be the result of: a. Excessive oil pressure in the C.S.U. b. Loss of oil pressure in the C.S.U. c. RPM lever set to high. 297. Synchronizing of propellers is based on: a. All propellers are set to the same pitch angle. b. All rotate at the same speed. c. All propellers develop the same thrust. 298. When piston-engined V.P propeller is to be feathered: a. The ignition of the engine should be switched off first. b. The throttle of the engine should be fully closed first. c. The feathering switch should be first operated. 299. The angle of advance of a propeller is: a. The same as the helix angle. b. The same as the blade angle. c. The same as the angle of attack. 300. A propeller’s ability to absorb power may be improved by: a. Decrease the solidity. b. Increase the solidity. c. Decrease the diameter. 301. The use of counter-rotating propellers has the effect of: a. Cancelling out the gyroscopic and toque effect. b. Cancelling out the gyroscopic effect and increasing the torque. c. Increasing the gyroscopic effect and the torque. 302. With an increase in temperature, the service ceiling would: a. Increase. b. Decrease. c. Remain unaffected. 303. In the choke tube area of the fuel nozzle: a. An area of high pressure is found. b. An area of low pressure is found. c. There is no difference in pressure. 304. As air density decreases, density altitude will: a. Increase. b. Decrease. c. Remain unaffected. 305. If the atmospheric pressure and temperature remain the same, an increase in humidity would: a. Shorten the take-off distance because the air is less dense. b. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is more dense. c. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is less dense. 306. The airspeed that a pilot would be unable to identify by the colour coding of an ASI is: a. The maximum landing gear extended speed. b. The maximum flap operating speed. c. The never exceed speed. 307. If the landing gear of an aeroplane moves forward during retraction the: a. Total moments will decrease. b. Total moments will remain the same. c. Total moments will increase.

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308. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is know as: a. Controllability. b. Manoeuvrability. c. Stability. 309. When carburettor heating is used, it: a. Richens the mixture. b. Leans the mixture. c. Puts more air into the mixture.

321. A crankshaft with counter balances can be damaged by: a. Carburettor icing. b. Closing and opening the throttle in rapid succession. c. Operating the engine with too rich a mixture. 322. When flying for endurance an aircraft must be flown at: a. Minimum power speed. b. Full throttle height. c. Minimum drag speed.

310. Differential ailerons are installed to: a. Improve lateral stability. b. Prevent spiral instability. c. Reduce adverse aileron yaw.

323. What is the reason for the twist in the propeller? a. To keep the propeller flying at the most efficient angle at all sections. b. To cancel out the effect of the high speed near the tips. c. Design requirement to keep the centrifugal twist axis in the centre.

311. The “blow-out” process on turbine engines is: a. Used to get rid of excess fuel after an aborted start. b. When the turbine section explodes after overspeeding. c. Timing the run-down to check for structural failure.

324. Electrical power of a battery is measured by: a. Amp/hr. b. The number of cells in the battery. c. The voltage.

312. The angle of attack is increased during a turn: a. To compensate for increased aeroplane drag. b. To compensate for the reduced horizontal lift component. c. To compensate for the reduced vertical lift component.

325. Pneumatic boots that are used for de-icing are: a. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing. b. Fitted around the propeller intakes. c. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing and stabilisers.

313. A magneto obtains its current from: a. A battery. b. E.M.F. (generators). c. Magnets. 314. Aircraft A has a span of 50 ft and a chord of 6 ft. Aircraft B has a span of 80 ft and a chord of 10 ft. Aircraft C has a span of 48 ft and a chord of 4 ft. Which aircraft has the highest aspect ratio and which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio? a. A and B. b. B and C. c. C and B. 315. Refer to the previous question. Which of the aircraft mentioned has the highest stalling angle? a. A. b. B. c. C. 316. A tailwheel aircraft with a propeller turning clockwise as viewed from the cockpit, tends to turn the aircraft: a. Left around the vertical axis and left around the longitudinal axis. b. Right around the vertical axis and left around the longitudinal axis. c. Left around the vertical axis and right around the longitudinal axis. 317. At sea level, the Manifold Pressure Gauge will read: a. 29.92”. b. 1013.25 hPa. c. Static pressure. 318. The correct method of increasing power on an aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller is: a. Throttle, RPM, mixture. b. RPM, mixture, throttle. c. Mixture, RPM, throttle. 319. When the weight of the aircraft is increased the stalling speed will: a. Increase b. Decrease. c. Remain the same. 320. The system used to supply an aircraft instrument that operates on alternating current is: a. An alternator that is mechanically driven by the engine. b. An inverter. c. A transformer.

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326. The use of fuel with an incorrect octane rating may lead to: a. Detonation. b. Pre-ignition. c. A higher manifold pressure. 327. Propeller efficiency is defined as: a. The ratio of shaft horsepower to brake horsepower. b. The ratio of brake horsepower to thrust horsepower. c. The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. 328. When the aircraft exhaust smoke is blue, it means the aircraft: a. Has a too rich a mixture. b. Is burning oil. c. Has incorrect timing. 329. Carburettor icing occurs at: a. The engine air intake. b. The venturi, butterfly valve and manifold. c. The intake manifold only. 330. The breather pipe on an engine is used to: a. Blow out excess oil. b. Vent excess temperature. c. Relieve excess sump pressure. 331. The purpose of the reverse current cut-out switch in the electrical system is: a. To prevent the battery from losing its charge by driving the generator. b. To switch off the generator. c. To prevent the battery from being overcharged. 332. Circuit breakers are installed in aircraft: a. To switch systems on and off. b. To prevent overloading of a system. c. To see how much power a system requires. 333. The SG of AVGAS is 0.7. How much does 100 Imp Gal of fuel weigh? a. 700 lbs. b. 70 lbs. c. 7000 lbs. 334. The load capacity of a battery is measured in: a. Volts. b. Amps/hr. c. Ohm.

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335. The most electrical power is supplied by: a. AC generator. b. DC generator. c. AC/DC generator with TR unit.

349. Density is measured in: a. Kgs/cu metre. b. Pounds per square metre. c. Hectopascals.

336. Carburettor icing on an engine with a variable pitch propeller can be noticed by: a. Drop in RPM. b. Drop in Manifold Pressure. c. Drop in RPM AND Manifold Pressure.

350. The main load carrying part of the wing structure is: a. The leading edge. b. The spar. c. The rib.

337. On an EGT gauge the mixture is set at lean when: a. The temperature and RPM peaks. b. The temperature and RPM have peaked and then 2 units richer. c. The temperature only peaks. 338. A suction pump supplies vacuum to: a. ASI, Turn indicator and DI. b. AH and DI. c. VSI, DI and Turn Indicator. 339. On the power available/power required versus TAS graph, the lowest value would indicate: a. Minimum drag. b. Speed for endurance. c. Speed for range. 340. The absolute ceiling is: a. The level beyond which the aircraft cannot climb. b. The level at which the aircraft can only climb at 100 ft/min. c. The maximum level an aircraft can attain full throttle. 341. At the absolute ceiling the: a. Minimum speed is less than the maximum speed. b. Minimum speed is more than the maximum speed. c. Minimum speed I equal to the maximum speed. 342. Too low an octane rating (anti-clock value) can cause: a. Pre-ignition. b. Detonation. c. Overheating. 343. In level flight the balance of forces is affected by: a. Mass of the aircraft. b. Height of the aircraft. c. Fuel burn rate. 344. On a turbocharged aircraft the turbocharger is powered by: a. The engine. b. The electrical motor. c. Exhaust gases. 345. With reference to aircraft fitted with constant speed propellers, when the MP is reduced: a. The blade angle increases. b. The blade angle decreases. c. The blade angle remains the same. 346. A battery rated for 40 amps/hr means it will operate for: a. At 40 amps for 10 hours. b. At 10 amps for 40 hours. c. At 4 amps for 10 hours. 347. Conditions favourable for the formation of icing: a. High temperature and low humidity. b. High temperature and high humidity. c. High humidity and low temperature. 348. Choose the correct statement: a. An increase in temperature will cause an increase in density. b. An increase in humidity will cause a decrease in density. c. An increase in humidity will cause an increase in density.

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351. The strength of the wing structure will have to be greater: a. With large variations of the position of the centre of pressure. b. The centre of pressure has no effect on wing strength. c. With small movements of the centre of pressure. 352. A twenty-four volt lead acid battery would have: a. Six cells. b. Twelve cells. c. Twenty-four cells. 353. A twenty-four volt Nicad battery would probably have: a. Twelve cells. b. Twenty-four cells. c. Nineteen cells. 354. Combustion in a gas turbine engine occurs at: a. Constant volume. b. Constant pressure. c. Constant velocity. 355. The velocity of the gases through the turbine can be very high: a. Because of the high temperature and speed of sound. b. Because they are supersonic. c. Because of the speed of sound being low. 356. In relation to a generator an alternator will: a. Provide less electrical power. b. Provide more power at lower rpm. c. Weigh more and be bigger. 357. An aircraft magneto depends on the following to generate electrical power: a. The battery. b. The generator. c. Magnets. 358. The most likely immediate effect of using fuel of too low an octane rating is: a. Pre-ignition. b. Detonation. c. A cool running engine. 359. The operation of an oleo leg is based on: a. Steel springs. b. Rubber blocks or bunjees. c. Oil and air. 360. Absorption of water into aviation fuel is more likely: a. With cold fuel. b. In hot fuel. c. The temperature of the fuel has no effect. 361. To eliminate the risk of fire when refuelling: a. You should use plastic containers. b. Bond the aircraft to the fuel nozzle. c. Have an earth lead between ground, fuel truck, fuel nozzle and the aircraft. 362. Operation of the mixture control to the lean position controls: a. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold is reduced. b. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is increased. c. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is reduced

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363. A breakage or disconnection of the magneto earth wire will have the effect of: a. Stopping the engine. b. Causing the engine to run roughly. c. Make it impossible to stop the engine by switching off ignition. 364. An ignition system in which spark can be lethal is used on: a. Piston engines and turbine engines. b. Turbine engines only. c. Piston engines only. 365. During a climb in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, detonation is suspected. The correct procedure would be to: a. Increase rate of climb. b. Reduce RPM. c. Reduce speed.

377. Mass balance on an aileron is used: a. To assist the pilot in moving the controls. b. To eliminate flutter. c. To prevent aileron drag. 378. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur: a. At very low speeds. b. At large angles of attack. c. At very high speeds. 379. The speed at which full deflection of the flight controls can be made is: a. Va. b. Vmd. c. Vso.

366. To obtain best efficiency and effective fuel consumption with a constant speed propeller the best setting would be: a. Low r.p.m. (high pitch) when cruising. b. High r.p.m. (course pitch) for take-off. c. Low r.p.m. (fine pitch) for take-off.

380. In a pressurized aircraft you are cruising at Flight Level 290 and are at Maximum Differential. You wish to climb to Flight Level 300. You must: a. Decrease the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft. b. Increase the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft. c. Increase the cabin altitude.

367. When establishing climb power after take-off the correct sequence: a. Throttle – mixture – r.p.m. b. Throttle – r.p.m. – mixture. c. Mixture – r.p.m. – throttle.

381. The type of reciprocating aero-engine which could use a wet sump would be: a. A horizontally opposed engine. b. A radial engine. c. An inverted in-line engine.

368. Entering a climb from cruise flight the correct sequence is: a. Throttle – r.p.m. – mixture. b. R.p.m. – throttle – mixture. c. Mixture – r.p.m. – throttle.

382. The part of the valve gear which absorbs the wear from the cam is: a. The tappet. b. The push rod. c. The rocker arm.

369. If the cylinder head temperature and oil temperature are unusually high, the probable cause would be: a. Using fuel of too low an octane value. b. Using fuel of too high an octane rating. c. Using too rich a mixture. 370. After about 20 minutes flight with full tanks the engine stops but restarts immediately after selection of another tank: a. The possible cause was a blocked fuel tank vent. b. Detonation. c. Pre-ignition. 371. During operation of a reciprocating engine the piston is travelling up a. During the induction stroke. b. During the power stroke. c. During the exhaust stroke. 372. In a piston engine ignition occurs during: a. The power stroke. b. The compression stroke c. The exhaust stroke. 373. Valve overlap occurs between: a. The induction stroke and the power stroke. b. The compression stroke and the power stroke. c. The exhaust stroke and induction stroke. 374. High pressure oil is required in a piston engine: a. For lubricating the accessory gearbox. b. For lubricating the cylinder walls. c. For lubricating the big end and main bearings. 375. The oil pump which has greater the capacity is: a. The Scavenge pump. b. The Pressure pump. c. The Scavenge and Pressure pumps must have the same capacity. 376. The flow of fuel from the tank to the carburettor is controlled by: a. The float and diffuser. b. The needle valve and float. c. The accelerator pump.

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383. In a piston engine the spark would occur: a. About 20° after T.D.C. b. About 20° before T.D.C. c. 20° after T.D.C. 384. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a heavy aircraft it is best to: a. Lift off before his rotate point and stay upwind of his flight path. b. Lift off before his lift off point and stay downwind of his flight path. c. Lift off after his lift off point and stay below his flight path. 385. A loss of power when opening the throttle from Idle to 1500 r.p.m. would be prevented by: a. The enrichment jet. b. The main jet. c. A rich idling mixture. 386. Comparing a carburettor engine to a fuel injection engine: a. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by impact icing. b. Both are affected by impact icing. c. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by fuel evaporation icing. 387. Aircraft ignition systems have the following characteristics: a. The H.T. system requires only a light harness. b. The L.T. system uses a light harness and a transformer coil. c. The L.T. system requires suppressors and is more likely to cause radio interference. 388. The jet engine compressor which provides the biggest frontal areas is: a. The axial flow. b. The axial flow first stage and a centrifugal second stage. c. A centrifugal first stage and an axial flow second stage.

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389. When a jet engine starts normally but fails to accelerate above 30% r.p.m. it is called: a. A hung start. b. A hot start. c. A wet start.

402. During a change in pitch attitude, an aircraft will rotate around its: a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis. b. Centre of pressure and lateral axis. c. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.

390. The most suitable property for a metal used to construct fairings would be: a. Its toughness. b. Its malleability. c. Its brittleness.

403. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as: a. Yawing and is controlled with rudder. b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons. c. Pitching and is controlled with the elevator.

391. The lubricating system of a piston engine normally uses the following type of pump: a. A diaphragm type pump. b. A vane type of pump. c. A gear type of pump. 392. The hydraulic service usually provided by the accumulator is: a. Emergency gear operation. b. Emergency brakes. c. Emergency flap operation. 393. The unit which is usually used in a hydraulic system to operate the various services is called: a. A Hydraulic jack. b. An accumulator. c. A reservoir. 394. The best way to determine the pro-charge pressure in an hydraulic accumulator is to operate the following service until the pressure drops: a. The toe brakes. b. The undercarriage. c. The flaps. 395. When operating the wheel brake system when stopping distance is important, the best way to use the brakes would be: a. Wait until the speed has dropped to below 100kts and then use maximum braking. b. Pump the brakes to allow cooling periods. c. Use maximum braking as soon as possible after touch down. 396. The most modern fire detection system uses: a. A bi-metal lie type switch. b. A fire wire or live wire system c. A thermo-couple warning system. 397. Fires originating in electrically powered equipment are classified as: a. Class A fires. b. Class B fires. c. Class C fires. 398. The main longitudinal member in a Truss type of fuselage construction would be: a. A stringer. b. A longeron. c. A former 399. Manual reversion is possible on: a. A hydraulically assisted control system. b. A hydraulically operated control system. c. A cable operated control system. 400.

In a modern automatic pilot system if one of the modes were inoperative, the pilot would be prevented from engaging by: a. The rate-rate system. b. The manual reversion system. c. The interlock system.

401. During flight, if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aircraft will rotate around its: a. Centre of pressure. b. Centre of lift. c. Centre of gravity.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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404. During a change in bank, an aircraft will rotate around its: a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis. b. Centre of gravity and lateral axis. c. Centre of pressure and longitudinal axis. 405. Rotation about the longitudinal axis is known as: a. Yawing and is controlled with the rudder. b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons. c. Rolling and is controlled with the rudder. 406. The three axis of the aircraft intersect at the: a. Centre of pressure. b. Centre of gravity. c. Midpoint of the datum line. 407. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as: a. Wingspan to the wing root. b. Square of the chord to the wingspan. c. Wingspan to the mean aerodynamic chord. 408. The angle between the chord line of a wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as the angle of: a. Dihedral. b. Incidence. c. Attack. 409. The angle between the chord of an airfoil and its direction of motion relative to the air is known as: a. The dihedral angle. b. The angle of attack. c. The angle of incidence. 410. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative airflow is known as the angle of: a. Attack. b. Incidence. c. Longitudinal dihedral. 411. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: a. Force produced perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. b. Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the mean surface. c. Force produced perpendicular to the relative airflow. 412. The lift produced by an airfoil is the force produced: a. Halfway between the chord line and the relative airflow. b. Opposite to the relative airflow. c. Perpendicular to the airflow. 413. During flight with a zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of the wing should be: a. Less than atmospheric pressure. b. Equal to atmospheric pressure. c. Greater than atmospheric pressure. 414. With reference to angle of attack: a. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and decrease drag. b. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag. c. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

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415. In order to maintain altitude whilst decreasing speed the pilot should: a. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift. b. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack. c. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than weight. 416. The point on the aerofoil through which lift acts is called the: a. Centre of pressure. b. Centre of gravity. c. Aerodynamic centre.. 417. When the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased from 1º to 8º the centre of pressure will: a. Remain unaffected. b. Move forward. c. Move aft. 418. Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are: a. Proportional to the square of the velocity (V²) of the relative airflow. b. Proportional to the increases and decreases in the velocity of the relative airflow. c. Inversely proportional to the area of the wing. 419. If the airspeed of an aircraft is doubled but the angle of attack is held constant, th eparasite drag will: a. Remain the same. b. Be four times greater. c. Double. 420. Assume the aircraft is cruising at 100 mph and creating 1000 lb of drag. If the angle of attack remains the same but the airspeed is doubled, the total drag would be increased to: a. 4000 lb b. 3000 lb c. 2000 lb

426. In all aircraft stalls are caused by: a. A loss of airspeed. b. Exceeding the critical angle of pitch. c. Exceeding the critical angle of attack. 427. For a given aerofoil, the angle of attack which results in a stall: a. Remains constant regardless of bank, load factor or airspeed. b. Varies directly with the degree of bank. c. Varies with the speed of airflow around the airfoil. 428. The angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls: a. Is dependant upon the speed of the airflow over the wings. b. Is a function of speed and density altitude. c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight. 429. Which statement is true relating to factors which produce stalls: a. The stalling angle of attack depends upon the speed of the airflow over the wings. b. Is a function of speed and density altitude. c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight. 430. Indicated stall speed is affected by: a. Angle of attack, weight, and air density. b. Weight, load factor, and power. c. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. 431. An aircraft in a steep-banked turn stalls at a higher IAS than it does with the wings level, because in the turn: a. The critical angle of attack has decreased. b. The critical angle of attack is reached at a higher IAS. c. Total lift has decreased. 432. Turbulent air causes an increase in stall speed because: a. The TAS is abruptly increased. b. The load factor is suddenly decreased. c. The angle of attack is increased.

421. Which of the following statements generally describes the relationship of the forces acting on an aircraft that is climbing at a constant airspeed and at a constant power: a. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater than weight. b. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater equal to weight. c. Total thrust is equal to total drag, total lift is equal to total weight.

433. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted: a. In such a direction as to remain flush with the primary control surfaces they affect. b. In the same direction as the primary control surfaces they affect. c. In the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces they affect.

422. The reason a light general aviation aeroplane tends to nose down during power reductions, is that the: a. Thrust line acts horizontally and above the force of drag. b. Centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of pressure. c. Centre of pressure is located forward of the centre of gravity.

434. Regarding the use of rudder in conventional aircraft to compensate for the effects of torque: a. If airspeed is decreased (power constant), right rudder pressure must be added. b. If power is reduced (airspeed constant), right rudder pressure must be added. c. If power is increased (airspeed constant), left rudder pressure must be added.

423. Frost on an aircraft’s wings will have the effect on an aircraft’s performance of: a. Decreasing the lift and decreasing the drag. b. Increasing the lift and decreasing the drag. c. Decreasing the lift and increasing the drag.

435. The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn from straight and level flight, is to: a. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the higher wing. b. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the lower wing. c. Overcome the yaw caused by the raised aileron on the higher wing.

424. Frost covering the upper surface of an aerofoil will usually cause: a. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. b. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. c. No problem for pilots of light aircraft. 425. What determines the angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls: a. Design of the wing. b. Load factor. c. True airspeed.

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436. When entering a turn, the primary function of rudder is to: a. Control yawing about the vertical axis. b. Allow the aircraft to pitch about its lateral axis. c. Prevent the aircraft from rolling about the longitudinal axis. 437. The hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is: a. Using high power settings. b. Operating at high airspeeds. c. Developing lift.

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438. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence: a. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced lift. b. Vortex operation begins with the initiation of the take-off roll. c. Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time. 439. If wake turbulence is encountered, the probability of induced roll increases when the encountering aircraft’s: a. Airspeed is slower than that of the generating aircraft. b. Attitude is higher than that of the generating aircraft. c. Heading is aligned with the flight path of the generating aircraft. 440. Aerodynamically, propeller thrust is the result of the: a. Angle of incidence of the blade. b. Decreased pressure on the flat side of the blade and increased pressure on the curved side. c. Shape and angle of attack of the blade. 441. Air deflection produced by a rotating propeller causes dynamic pressure on the engine side of the propeller to be greater than atmospheric pressure, thus generating: a. Torque. b. Drag. c. Thrust. 442. During take-off, when maximum power and thrust are required, the constant speed propeller should be set at a propeller blade angle which: a. Will produce a low slipstream velocity. b. Will produce a small angle of attack with respect to its relative airflow. c. Will produce a large angle of attack with respect to its relative airflow. 443. To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant speed propeller should be set to a blade angle which will produce a: a. Large angle of attack and low RPM. b. Small angle of attack and high RPM. c. Large angle of attack and high RPM. 444. To establish a climb after take-off in an aircraft equipped with a constant speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and: a. Increasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. b. Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. c. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. 445. With a CSU, if speed is increased and the power setting is constant, the propeller blade angle will: a. Low pitch blade angle. b. Coarsen the blade angle. c. Fine the blade angle. 446. In relation to an aerofoil the propeller provides: a. More thrust and less torque than lift and drag. b. Less thrust and more torque than lift and drag. c. More torque than lift and less thrust than drag. 447. Which is correct of the following statements: a. Blade angle consists of helix angle and angle of attack. b. Helix angle consists of blade angle and angle of attack. c. Angle of attack equals helix angle. 448. The blade angle of a propeller will: a. Be greater at the tip. b. Be greater at 70% radius. c. Be greatest at the root. 449. The force tending to twist a propeller blade of a constant speed propeller to fine pitch is: a. Torque. b. Centrifugal twisting moment. c. Aerodynamic twisting moment.

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450. When establishing a climb, the proper sequence of engine control adjustment is to increase: a. Mixture, followed by RPM and then manifold pressure. b. Manifold pressure, followed by RPM and then mixture. c. RPM, mixture and then manifold pressure. 451. The use of flaps will produce: a. Increased lift and decreased drag. b. Increased lift and increased drag. c. Decreased lift and increased drag. 452. The primary function of flap is to: a. Provide steeper gliding angle. b. Increase control-effectiveness at slow airspeeds. c. Permit a safer take-off over high obstructions. 453. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach will: a. Increase the angle of descent with increasing airspeed. b. Decrease the angle of descent with increasing power. c. Permits approaches in aircraft with a good L/D ratio. 454. Which statement is true regarding the use of flaps during turns: a. The addition of flaps decreases the stall speed. b. The addition of flaps increases the stall speed. c. Using a constant flap setting and varying the bank has no effect on the stall speed. 455. The lowering of flaps decreases the stalling angle except with: a. Fowler flaps. b. Slotted flaps. c. Split flaps. 456. The effect of flaps is to: a. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio. b. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio at small flap settings. c. Spoil the Lift/Drag ratio. 457. The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight in flight is known as: a. Power loading. b. Load factor. c. Yield load. 458. Assume an aircraft is certified with a maximum gross weight of 2500 lb. And a load factor of 3.8. If this aircraft was loaded to a gross weight of 2650 lb. And flown in turbulence creating a 3.8 load factor, what air load would be imposed upon its structure? a. 2650 lb. And this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. b. 570 lb above maximum permissible and this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. c. 150 lb. above maximum permissible and this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. 459. Wing loading of an aircraft is determined by a value which is the: a. Gross weight of the aircraft divided by the wing area. b. Ratio of the wing area to the horsepower. c. Gross weight divided by the span. 460. Load factor is the actual weight supported by the wings at any given moment: a. Divided by the normal weight of the aircraft. b. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. c. Added to the total weight of the aircraft. 461. If the angle of bank were held constant and the airspeed varied, the load factor would: a. Vary depending on the rate of turn. b. Decrease when the airspeed decreases. c. Remain constant.

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462. The additional load imposed on the wings during a level coordinated turn in smooth air is dependent on the: a. Angle of bank. b. Rate of turn. c. True airspeed. 463. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn: a. Varies with the rate of turn. b. Is directly related to the aircraft’s gross weight. c. Is constant. 464. In a constant altitude co-ordinated turn, the load factor imposed on an aircraft is the result of: a. Rate of turn and airspeed. b. Angle of attack and airspeed. c. Centrifugal force and gravity. 465. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is varied, the load factor would: a. Remain constant. b. Vary depending upon airspeed. c. Increase if the speed is increased. 466. The increase in load factor that would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60º to 70º is: a. 0.5 G b. 1.0 G c. 1.5 G 467. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots? a. 66 Knots. b. 74 Knots. c. 84 Knots. 468. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 80 knots? a. 90 Knots. b. 112 Knots. c. 120 Knots. 469. At a constant power setting the rate of climb of an aircraft is greater when the wings are level than when in a climbing turn because, when level, the: a. Wing loading is greater. b. Centre of lift is nearer the trailing edge. c. Vertical lift component is greater. 470. Which statement is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an aircraft in a co-ordinated turn at a constant altitude? a. For any specific angle of bank and airspeed, the lighter the aircraft, the faster the rate and the smaller the radius of turn. b. For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary. c. The lower the airspeed the less the rate of turn for a specific bank angle. 471. Which statement is true if, during a level co-ordinated turn, the load factor was kept constant: a. A decrease in airspeed results in an increase in radius. b. An increase in airspeed results in an increase in radius. c. An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in radius. 472. Increasing the airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor during a level co-ordinated turn would result in: a. The same radius of turn. b. A decrease in turn radius. c. An increase in the radius of turn.

473. If, during a level turn, the rate of turn is kept constant, an increase in airspeed will result in: a. Constant load factor regardless of changes in angle of bank. b. Need to decrease the angle of bank to maintain the same rate of turn. c. Need to increase the angle of bank to maintain the same rate of turn. 474. The type of drag which decreases with increase in speed is: a. Form drag. b. Interference drag. c. Induced drag. 475. It is not necessary to hold off bank in: a. A gliding turn. b. A climbing turn. c. A level turn. 476. Aileron drag, or adverse yaw, is most likely at: a. High speed. b. High angle of attack. c. Low angle of attack. 477. To be suitable for supersonic flight an aerofoil should have: a. A well rounded leading edge. b. A laminar flow section. c. A very sharp leading edge. 478. The first shock wave on an aerofoil approaching the speed of sound occurs: a. At the trailing edge. b. On the top surface. c. Under the bottom surface. 479. The characteristics which would improve lateral stability are: a. High keel surface, low centre of gravity, dihedral. b. Longitudinal dihedral, low centre of gravity, large keel surface. c. Sweepback, high centre of gravity, anhedral. 480. The effect of inertia moment would be increased with: a. Forward centre of gravity. b. Centre of pressure well aft. c. Centre of gravity well aft. 481. The type of control balance used to oppose flutter is: a. Inset hinge balance. b. Servo tab balance. c. Mass balance. 482. A wing would be called polymorphic if fitted with: a. Split flaps. b. Vortex generators. c. Fowler flaps. 483. An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in: a. A steady Rate 1 turn. b. In a steady climb. c. During take-off. 484. A heavy aircraft in relation to a lighter aircraft of the same type will glide: a. Further in a tail wind. b. The same distance in still air conditions. c. More slowly in a head wind. 485. When taking off with an obstacle ahead the best speed to use for the initial climb would be: a. Vx b. Va c. Vy 486. The vectors shown below indicate: a. A skidding left turn. b. A slipping right turn. c. A skidding right turn.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

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487. To achieve the correct Vref at maximum landing weight you would approach at: a. 1.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI green arc. b. 1.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI white arc. c. 1.3 Times the speed at the top of the ASI white arc. 488. Contra rotating propellers have the effect of: a. Eliminating both gyroscopic and toque effects. b. Reducing gyroscopic effect but increasing torque effect. c. Increasing gyroscopic effect but reducing torque effect. 489. The effect of size when considering aerodynamic force is allowed for by: a. Separation point. b. Bernoulli’s Theorem. c. Reynolds Number.

501. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is increased, the load factor would: a. Remain the same. b. Vary depending on speed. c. Vary depending on weight. TURBINE ENGINES 502. The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the: a. Pressure rises and velocity falls. b. Pressure rises at a constant velocity. c. Velocity, pressure and temperature rise. d. Velocity rises and pressure falls.

490. The dividing line between Laminar Flow and Turbulent Flow around an aerofoil is known as: a. Separation point. b. Transition Point. c. Line of mean camber.

503. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by: a. Bleed air from the engines. b. Turbo compressors. c. Ram air, heated via a heat exchanger. d. The APU.

491. The effect of induced drag can be reduced by: a. Washout. b. Low aspect ratio. c. Increasing the angle of incidence at the tip.

504. When considering gas turbine engine performance, a change in ambient temperature or air density means that: a. As air density increases, thrust increases. b. As temperature increases, thrust increases. c. No change occurs.

492. Apart from warning devices the aerodynamic warning of the approaching stall is: a. Buffet of the tail surfaces. b. The attitude of the aircraft. c. A sharp dropping of the nose. 493. The possibility of a spin developing into a flat spin is greatest with: a. A forward centre of gravity. b. A small inertia moment. c. An aft centre of gravity. 494. The density of the air at sea level in ISA is: a. 1225 kg/cubic metre. b. 1.225 gms/ sq metre c. 1225 gms/cubic metre 495. The difference between RAS and EAS is: a. Compressibility. b. Position Error. c. Position error and instrument error. 496. The sum of Form Drag, Skin Friction Drag, and Interference Drag is: a. Total Drag. b. Induced Drag. c. Profile Drag. 497. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur at: a. Large angle of attack. b. Very high speed. c. Very low speed. 498. If the humidity is high you would expect the take-off run: a. To be unaffected because it is not given in the take-off performance graph. b. To be longer because of the lower density. c. To be shorter because of the higher density. 499. The rate of climb of an aircraft is determined by: a. Power available over power required. b. Lift available over lift required. c. The lift/drag ratio. 500. Ignoring the effect of Mach Number, the stalling speed (IAS): a. Reduces with increasing height. b. Remains the same with increasing height. c. Increases with reduced density.

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505. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant: a. volume b. pressure c. velocity 506. When starting a turbo-jet engine: a. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. b. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start. c. The engine should start between 60 to 80 seconds after the fuel shut off lever is opened. 507. In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to: a. Oil pressure. b. The resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces. c. Blade creep. d. Thermal expansion. 508. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is: a. Greater than turbine rpm. b. Less than turbine rpm. c. The same as turbine rpm. d. Independent of turbine rpm. 509. When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the: a. Pressure drops. b. Velocity decreases. c. Temperature increases d. Pressure rises. 510. For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: a. External mass airflow divided by the internal mass airflow. b. Internal mass airflow divided by the external mass airflow. c. Internal mass airflow divided by the mass fuel flow. d. Mass fuel flow divided by the internal mass airflow. 511. After the gas leaves the combustion chambers it: a. Is directed onto the turbine by the nozzle guide vanes. b. Flows directly onto the turbine blades. c. Is directed onto the turbine blades by variable guide vanes. 512. Within the combustion chambers the burned fuel/air mixture: a. Increases in volume. b. Reduces in volume. c. Maintains a constant volume.

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513. Some secondary air is directed through the dilution holes in the combustion chambers to: a. Atomise the fuel prior to combustion. b. Create a swirl effect of the mixture. c. Cool the gas before it reaches the turbine.

527. In a clamshell door type thrust reversal system, when reverse is selected, the exhaust gases are: a. Discharged at approximately 45 degrees. b. Discharged at 90 degrees. c. Fully reversed.

514. Igniters are fitted: a. In each combustion chamber. b. Immediately aft of the combustion chambers. c. To just two or three combustion chambers.

528. The high pressure fuel cock: a. Controls fuel flow from the tank to the fuel flow control unit. b. Is used to control fuel flow to the engine. c. Is used to pressurise the fuel tank.

515. The compression ratio is the: a. Ratio between the inlet to the engine and the exhaust outlet pressure. b. Ratio between the pressure at the inlet to the compressor and the outlet of the compressor. c. Ratio between the entrance to the engine intake and compressor outlet pressure. 516. Compressor surge may be indicated by: a. A reduction in engine gas temperature. b. An increase in jet pipe temperature. c. A rapid increase of power. 517. Compressor surge may be identified by: a. Increased engine rpm. b. A fall in engine gas temperature. c. An indication of vibration. 518. The swirl assembly, or vanes, of a combustion chamber are fitted: a. To generate a rotary motion to the mixture before it enters the combustion chamber. b. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the secondary air flow. c. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the inlet to the primary combustion zone. 519. The action of the swirl vanes in a combustion system is to create: a. A smooth flow. b. A back flow. c. A straightened flow. 520. Nozzle guide vanes: a. Tend to straighten the gas flow. b. Are found immediately after the turbine assembly. c. Give the gas a swirl. 521. The gas temperature: a. Increases as it passes through the turbine. b. Remains constant as it passes through the turbine. c. Reduces as it passes through the turbine. 522. Loss of efficiency of turbine blade tips are minimised by: a. Blade tip shrouds. b. Fir tree attachments. c. Air bleed. 523. The main turbine/compressor engine shaft is normally mounted on: a. Needle roller bearings. b. Ball bearings only. c. Ball or roller bearings. 524. Modern gas turbine engine turbine blades are normally attached by: a. The fir tree method. b. The De Laval Bulb Root. c. The BMW Hollow Blade. 525. A free turbine is: a. Connected to the high pressure compressor of a two spool engine. b. Not connected to the compressor. c. Connected to the low pressure compressor. 526. In a By-Pass engine, the by-pass exhaust is: a. Always exhausted separately. b. Always mixed with the normal exhaust gas in the jet pipe. c. Sometimes mixed with the normal exhaust gases in the jet pipe.

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

573-3

529. Fuel is fed to the engine from the supply system via: a. Fuel Control Unit b. The fuel injection jets. c. The injector control unit. 530. In an automatic electrical starting system in a gas turbine engine the: a. Ignition commences ten seconds after the start button has been pushed. b. Ignition commences at the same time the starter motor engages. c. Ignition commences when fuel starts flowing into the combustion system. 531. In an electrically operated gas turbine start system, the electric motor: a. Must be manually disconnected when the engine has reached the required rpm. b. Is automatically switched off when the required rpm are reached. c. Is automatically switched off after a specified period of time or the engine is at sustaining rpm. 532. In an air start system: a. Air is blown through the compressor inlet to rotate the engine. b. Air is blown through the turbine to rotate the engine. c. Air is supplied to an air starter motor. 533. A gas turbine engine, on starting, accelerates to a figure below idle rpm and fails to accelerate above that value, this indicates: a. A wet start. b. A hung start. 534. Prior to engine starting a gas turbine engine, the throttle: a. Must be set at ground idle. b. Must be set at a value above ground idle. c. Must be closed. 535. In the event a surge is suspected in the compressor of a gas turbine engine, the: a. Throttle must be opened slowly. b. Engine must be shut down. c. Throttle must be closed slowly. 536. On leaving the compressor, the air: a. Passes into the primary zone of the combustion chamber. b. Passes through the diffuser. c. Passes into the primary and secondary zone of the combustion chamber. d. Passes into the swirl assembly of the combustion chamber. 537. Fuel on entering the combustion chamber is primarily atomised by: a. The swirl vanes. b. The diffuser. c. The dilution holes. d. The burner feed. 538. In a basic turbojet engine, of the total energy produced, approximately: a. 60% leaves the engine as thrust. b. 40% leaves the engine as thrust. c. 90% leaves the engine as thrust. d. 25% leaves the engine as thrust.

PAGE 21

539. A basic centrifugal compressor, generally produces a pressure ratio of: a. 4 to 4.5 to one. b. 30 to one. c. 130 to one. d. l5 to one. 540. Modern centrifugal compressors produce a balance of air compression between that done by the impeller, and that done by the diffuser is approximately: a. 20% to 30%. b. 40% to 60%. c. 50% to 50%. d. 10% to 90%.

550. When a supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shockwave static pressure will (i) and temperature will (ii) a. Fall rise b. Rise rise c. Fall fall d. Rise fall 551. One of the factors leading to pitch-up at the stall on swept wing aircraft is: a. Negative camber at the root b. Airflow separation at the root c. Spanwise outward flow of the boundary layer d. Rearward movement of the cp

541. The compressor blades of an axial flow compressor are curved throughout their length and: a. Their angle of incidence increases from root to tip b. Their angle of incidence reduces from root to tip. c. Their angle of attack reduces from root to tip. d. Their angle of attack increases from root to tip.

552. When airflow over a wing becomes supersonic, the pressure pattern on the top surface will become: a. Rectangular b. Irregular c. The same as subsonic d. Triangular

542. The compression ratio of the compressor: a. Is the measure of air pressure between each stage. b. Is the measure of air pressure between the diffuser and combustion chambers. c. Is the measure of air pressure between compressor inlet and compressor outlet. d. Is the measure of air pressure between free stream pressure and compressor outlet.

553. A mach trim system operates: a. At all M b. At high M c. At low M d. Above MDET

543. Compressor surge may be minimised by use of: a. Fixed inlet guide vanes. b. Compressor bleed. c. Turbo-fans. d. Swirl vanes. 544. When starting a twin spool compressor engine: a. Both spools are rotated to avoid surge. b. The low pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. c. The high pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. d. The free turbine only is rotated to avoid surge. 545. Blade creep is: a. Reduced by tip shrouding. b. A permanent lengthening of the blade. c. A temporary lengthening of the blade. d. Reduced by disc shrouding. 546. The main bearings of the compressor/turbine drive shaft are: a. Needle roller bearings. b. Nylon bearings. c. Ball bearings. d. Ball or roller bearings. 547. Reverse thrust power available is: a. 90%. b. 100%. c. 50%. d. 25%. HIGH SPEED FLIGHT 548. When an aircraft is flying at speeds above Mach 1, pressure disturbances from the aircraft will be felt only: a. Within the Mach cone b. In front of the Mach cone c. In front of the normal shock wave d. In front of the oblique shock wave 549. On a typical symmetrical aerofoil, as the free stream Mach number approaches M 1.0, the centre of pressure will: a. Move aft to about 45% chord b. Move forward to about 25% chord c. Move from 25% chord to the leading edge d. Move aft to the trailing edge

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

573-3

554. What is the relationship of VMO and MMO, in a climb and descent? a. If climbing at VMO, it is possible to exceed MMO b. If climbing at MMO, Indicated Airspeed is increasing c. If climbing at VMO, Mach number is decreasing d. If descending at MMO, VMO cannot be exceeded 555. A modern jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons plus roll control spoilers is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number: a. Only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons. b. Only the outboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. c. The inboard and outboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. d. Only the inboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may be active. 556. The shock wave angle of a supersonic aircraft at increasing Mach number: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remain the same d. Decreases, then increases above certain mach number 557. The least energy loss through a normal shockwave occurs when ML is: a. Exactly 1.0 M b. Just below 1.0 M c. Just above 1.0 M d. Well above 1.0M 558. At what speed does a shock wave move forward over the ground? a. Aircraft TAS b. Aircraft ground speed c. Flight level airspeed d. Speed of sound at ground level 559. A shock stall occurs when laminar flow breaks down: a. Behind the leading edge b. Behind the trailing edge c. Behind the shock wave d. At a high angle of attack and high mach number 560. MCRIT is the free stream Mach number at which: a. The bow shock wave attaches to the wing leading edge b. The first local mach number at any point on the aircraft equals M1.0 c. The bottom shock wave reaches the wing trailing edge d. The centre of pressure is at its most rearward point

PAGE 22

561. Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of: a. Profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag b. Induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag c. Wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag d. Induced drag, form drag, interference drag and zero lift drag 562. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic speed range: a. The coefficient of drag increases then decreases b. The coefficient of drag increases c. The coefficient of drag decreases then increases d. The coefficient of drag decreases 563. Compared to a straight wing of the same aerofoil section a wing swept at 30º should theoretically have an MCRIT (i) times MCRIT for the straight wing, but will, in practice gain (ii) that increase a. Sin 30º half b. 1.154 half c. Cos 30º twice d. 1.414 twice 564. Compared to a normal transonic aerofoil section a supercritical section has: a. A flatter bottom surface b. A flatter top surface c. A more cambered top surface d. A very sharp leading edge 565. The two areas of speed instability in transonic aircraft are: a. above VIMD M 0.75 to 0.81 b. below VIMD M 0.89 to 0.98 c. above VIMD above M 0.4 above M 1.0 d. below VIMD 566. Shockwaves at MFS above MDET will be: a. Oblique b. Detached c. Normal d. Sufficient to slow the local airflow to subsonic values 567. On a typical transonic aerofoil the transonic rearward shift of the CP occurs at about: a. M 0.89 to M0.98 b. M 0.75 to M0.89 c. M 0.81 to M1.4 d. M 0.75 to M0.98

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

573-3

568. Compared to straight wings of the same aerofoil section swept wings (i) the onset of the transonic drag rise and have a (ii) CD in supersonic flight a. Hasten higher b. Hasten lower c. Delay lower d. Delay higher 569. Maintaining thickness/chord ratio but changing to a supercritical wing section will: a. Give the aircraft an increased range b. Make lateral stability more critical c. Lead to more prominent shockwave formation d. Reduce the aft shift of CP in the transonic range. 570. In the transonic range CLMax will speed will (ii) a. Increase increase b. Increase decrease c. Decrease decrease d. Decrease increase

(i)

and the 1g stalling

571. One function of the Mach trimmer is to: a. Adjust for aileron reversal b. Maintain the required stick force gradient c. Adjust the stick force per g gradient d. Trim the aircraft nose down 572. Mach number is: a. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at sea level. b. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. c. The ratio of the aircraft’s LAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. d. The speed of sound. 573. The term ‘transonic speed’ for an aircraft means: a. Speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic. b. Speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic. c. Speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic. d. Speeds between M 0.4 and M 1.0

PAGE 23

ANSWERS: ATG REVISION QUESTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

B C C A A C C C A B C A C C A

51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

B C B A C B B A C C A B A A A

101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115.

A A A C A B C A A A B C B B A

151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165.

C A C A B B C B A B B A C C B

201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215.

C A C A B A B C C C B B B B A

251. 252. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265.

A B A B A C A A C C A C C B A

301. 302. 303. 304. 305. 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314. 315.

A B B A C A A C A C A C C C A

351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365.

A B C B A B C B C B C A C B B

401. 402. 403. 404. 405. 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412. 413. 414. 415.

C C C A B B C B B A C C A B A

451. 452. 453. 454. 455. 456. 457. 458. 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 465.

B A C A B C B B A A C A C C A

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

B B C A C

66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

B C C C C

116. 117. 118. 119. 120.

B C C C C

166. 167. 168. 169. 170.

B C C C A

216. 217. 218. 219. 220.

C C C C A

266. 267. 268. 269. 270.

A B B B A

316. 317. 318. 319. 320.

A C C A B

366. 367. 368. 369. 370.

A B C A A

416. 417. 418. 419. 420.

A B A B A

466. 467. 468. 469. 470.

B C B C B

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.

B C B B A C C A C B C B C A B C C A B A B

71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91.

B A A B A A B B B A B B A A C C A B C C B

121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141.

C C C B A B C C A C A B A A B C B C C B C

171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191.

B B C B C A A B C C B B C C A A C A C C B

221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241.

B A B B C B B C A C B A C A B A A B A C C

271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291.

C A B B C C C C A C C A A C A C A C A A B

321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334. 335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341.

B A A A C A C B B C A B A B A B B B B A C

371. 372. 373. 374. 375. 376. 377. 378. 379. 380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. 387. 388. 389. 390. 391.

C B C C A B B C A C A A B A C B B C A B C

421. 422. 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. 429. 430. 431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441.

C B C A A C A C C B B C C A A A C A C C C

471. 472. 473. 474. 475. 476. 477. 478. 479. 480. 481. 482. 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. 490. 491.

B C C C A B C B A C C C B B A A B A C B A

42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

B A A A A

92. 93. 94. 95. 96.

A A B B A

142. 143. 144. 145. 146.

A C C B C

192. 193. 194. 195. 196.

C A A A B

242. 243. 244. 245. 246.

C B C C C

292. 293. 294. 295. 296.

C B A C B

342. 343. 344. 345. 346.

B C C B C

392. 393. 394. 395. 396.

B A A C B

442. 443. 444. 445. 446.

B B C A B

492. 493. 494. 495. 496.

A C C A C

47. 48. 49. 50.

B B C B

97. 98. 99. 100.

B B B B

147. 148. 149. 150.

C C C A

197. 198. 199. 200.

C C A A

247. 248. 249. 250.

A A B C

297. 298. 299. 300.

B B A B

347. 348. 349. 350.

C B A B

397. 398. 399. 400.

C B A C

447. 448. 449. 450.

A C B A

497. 498. 499. 500.

B B A C

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

573-3

PAGE 2

501. 502. 503. 504.

A A A A

521. 522. 523. 524.

C A C A

541. 542. 543. 544.

B C D C

561. 562. 563. 564.

B A B B

505. 506. 507. 508. 509.

B A B C A

525. 526. 527. 528. 529.

B C A B A

545. 546. 547. 548. 549.

B D C A A

565. 566. 567. 568. 569.

B A A D A

510. 511. 512. 513. 514.

A A A C C

530. 531. 532. 533. 534.

B B C B C

550. 551. 552. 553. 554.

B C B B A

570. 571. 572. 573.

D B B C

515. 516. 517. 518. 519. 520.

B B C C A C

535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540.

A B A B A C

555. 556. 557. 558. 559. 560.

D B C B C B

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG

573-3

PAGE 2