Systems Analysis and Design 9th Edition Review

System Analysis and Design 9th Edition Chapters 1-12 Review Chapter 1 1. Structured analysis is called a ____ approach since it is based on an overall plan. A: managed B: foundation C: basic D: predictive 2. One of the two main sectors of E-commerce is ____. A: business-to-consumer B: brick-and-mortar C: consumer-to-business D: dot-com 3. Software consists of system software and ____. A: application software B: network operating system C: linear software D: data software 4. The term ____ refers to the combination of hardware and software products and services that companies use to manage, access, communicate, and share information. A: practical technology B: electronic technology C: information technology D: systems technology 5. ____ tests system concepts and examine input, output, and user interfaces before final decisions are made. A: CASE tools B: Prototyping C: Investigative design D: Group typing 6. Google is an example of ____. A: an Internet-dependent company B: a brick-and-mortar company C: a B2B company D: an Internet-independent company 7. The programs that control the hardware and produce the desired information or results are referred to as ____. A: data B: people C: processes D: software 8. ____ verifies that an individual demonstrated a certain level of knowledge and skill on a standardized test. A: Certification B: Validation

C: Documentation D: Authentication 9. The ____ are logical rules that identify data patterns and relationships. A: linear rules B: system rules C: inference rules D: productivity rules 10. A graphical representation of one or more tasks that a company performs is considered ____. A: a business model B: a business process C: a business profile D: an analytic profile 11. Data that has been transformed into output that is valuable to users is ____. A: mission B: information C: operations D: processes 12. The IT group provides technical support that includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: Web support B: application development C: user systems requests D: database administration 13. The newest development in data acquisition is called ____ technology, which uses highfrequency radio waves to track physical objects. A: RID B: RAD C: RFID D: FID 14. A ____ is an overview that describes a company's overall functions, processes, organization, products, services, customers, suppliers, competitors, constraints, and future direction. A: business model B: business process C: business system D: business profile 15. A set of related components that produce specific results is a ____. A: system B: compound C: strategy D: package 16. A development system that focuses on team-based fact-finding is ____. A: RAD B: JAD C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 17. When first introduced, management information systems (MIS) was a category of systems which served ____.

A: managers B: administrative staff C: operational personnel D: maintenance staff 18. The ____ is NOT an example of an internal user of a company's information system. A: customers who track their orders on a company's Web site B: company's technicians C: company's sales staff D: company's corporate officers 19. The correct definition of an in-house application is ____. A: an information system developed by outside vendors B: an information system developed by the company that uses the information system C: a software package D: an information system that is Internet-based 20. Structured analysis uses a set of process models to describe a system ____. A: in words B: in numbers C: dynamically D: graphically 21. A way in which businesses use information is ________. A: to deliver quality products and services B: to make sound decisions C: to maintain customer loyalty D: all of these choices 22. The combination of information technology, people, and data to support business requirements is called a(n) ________. A: active data system B: information system C: electronic system D: communal system 23. In an information system, the system's raw material is ________. A: data B: critical quota C: people D: matter 24. The ________ component is NOT a key part of an information system. A: Internet access B: processes C: software D: people 25. An inventory or payroll application is an example of a ________. A: data system B: vertical system C: legacy system D: horizontal system

26. The building blocks of an information system, representing actual day-to-day business operations are called ________. A: business models B: processes C: hardware D: data 27. The process used by systems analysts to represent company operations and information needs is called ________. A: user targeted modeling B: business action modeling C: business process modeling D: product modeling 28. BPMN refers to ________. A: business process modeling notation B: business profile modeling notation C: none of these choices D: business process modeling names 29. Computer-to-computer data transfer between companies, usually over private telecommunications lines is referred to as ________. A: electronic data interchange B: B2C C: Internet module exchange D: transaction processing 30. The ________ systems are also referred to as expert systems. A: business support B: user productivity C: TP D: knowledge management 31. ________ refers to information systems that support company-wide operations and data management requirements. A: EDI B: WebSphere strategy C: E-commerce D: Enterprise computing 32. The most popular options for developing information systems are structured analysis, objectoriented analysis, and ________. A: data flow analysis B: network methods C: modeling D: agile methods 33. The systems planning phase usually begins with a formal request to the IT department, called a ________. A: systems order B: client complaint C: planning request D: systems request

34. A development method that Microsoft calls ________ documents the experience of its own software development teams. A: Rational Unified Process B: Microsoft Application Development C: Microsoft Solutions Framework D: Microsoft Xtreme Programming

Chapter 2 Review 1. An evaluation of the resources needed for users to be trained on a new system is part of ____ feasibility. A: economic B: technical C: operational D: schedule 2. The first step in evaluating feasibility is ____. A: setting priorities B: identifying systems requests that are not feasible or necessary C: conducting a preliminary investigation D: building a prototype 3. The first step in a preliminary investigation is generally to ____. A: evaluate feasibility B: perform fact-finding C: understand the problem or opportunity D: estimate project development time and cost 4. An organizational chart does NOT show ____. A: formal reporting relationships B: an overview of the way each department functions C: the informal alignment of a group D: the names of employees and their positions 5. Many companies use ____ request forms that can be filled out and submitted electronically. A: printed B: faxed C: online D: offline 6. A company's ____ are broken down into one-year, three-year, and five-year categories. A: objectives B: goals C: requirements D: inventory 7. The coding of data to keep it safe from unauthorized users is called ____. A: prototyping B: encryption

C: password access D: key access 8. EDI refers to ____. A: external development interchange B: electronic data interchange C: external data interchange D: none of the above 9. A risk is an event that can affect a project ____. A: negatively B: positively C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 10. Chapter 2 explained four types of project feasibility tests that a systems request must pass and did NOT include ____ feasibility. A: technical B: marketing C: economic D: schedule 11. An examination of the reliability of the hardware and software environment for a new system is part of ____ feasibility. A: economic B: technical C: operational D: schedule 12. A project where management has a yes/no choice to implement is called a ____ project. A: nondiscretionary B: discretionary C: resource D: non-resource 13. A popular technique for investigating causes and effects is called a(n) ____. A: Ishikawa diagram B: arrowhead diagram C: Moore diagram D: Problem/Solution diagram 14. A fact-finding method during the preliminary investigation includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: observing the current system in operation B: conducting a survey of users C: reviewing current system documentation D: figuring out the costs of the solution 15. ____ feasibility means that a project can be implemented in an acceptable time frame. A: Technical B: Time

C: Schedule D: Operational 16. A SWOT analysis does NOT include an examination of ____. A: weaknesses B: options C: strengths D: threats 17. Vital objectives that must be achieved for the enterprise to fulfill its mission are considered ____. A: the SDLC B: critical success factors C: critical business issues D: CASE tools 18. Hardware-based security controls that can identify a person by a retina scan or by mapping a facial pattern are referred to as ____. A: biological devices B: encrypted devices C: strategic scanning devices D: biometric devices 19. The purpose of a(n) ____ system is to provide the right product in the right place at the right time. A: EDI B: CRM C: CASE D: JIT 20. Microsoft Project is a tool that is often used by ____. A: end users B: project managers C: customer service personnel D: top managers 21. A systems request form should not ____. A: have complex instructions B: be easy to understand C: include enough space for all required information D: indicate what supporting documents are needed 22. A(n: ____ is a requirement or condition that a system must satisfy or an outcome that a system must achieve. A: condition B: constraint C: impediment D: obstacle 23. To avoid the problem of project creep, ____. A: define project scope as vaguely as possible B: leave project scope undefined

C: define project scope as clearly as possible D: expand the focus beyond the problem at hand 24. ____ considers questions such as “Does management support the project?” and “Will the new system require training for users?” A: schedule feasibility B: technical feasibility C: economic feasibility D: operational feasibility 25. ____ components can provide automated response to sales inquiries, Web-based order processing, and online inventory tracking. A: Mission statement B: Customer relationship management (CRM) C: Feasibility study D: Total cost of ownership (TCO: 26. A feasibility study includes tests for ____ feasibility, which means that the projected benefits of the proposed system outweigh the estimated costs. A: economic B: schedule C: operational D: technical 27. ____ is an example of a discretionary project. A: Creating a new report for a user B: Adding a report required by a new federal law C: Including annual updates to payroll and tax percentages D: All of the above 28. When setting priorities for systems requests, the highest priority goes to projects that provide the ____. A: least benefit, at the highest cost, in the longest period of time B: least benefit, at the lowest cost, in the longest period of time C: greatest benefit, at the highest cost, in the shortest period of time D: greatest benefit, at the lowest cost, in the shortest period of time 29. Projects where management has a choice in implementing them are called ____ projects. A: discretionary B: nondiscretionary C: appended D: concatenated 30. A systems analyst conducts a(n: ____ investigation to study the systems request and recommend specific action. A: preliminary B: appendix C: systems D: transitional

Chapter 3 Review 1. The project ____ handles administrative responsibilities for the development team and negotiates with users you might have conflicting requirements. A: expediter

B: supporter C: coordinator D: leader 2. PERT/CPM is considered to be a ____ technique. A: side-to-side B: parallel task C: bottom-up D: top-down 3. Analyzing risks is a two-step process that includes both ____ analysis. A: qualitative and quantitative B: profit and loss C: timing and critical path D: identification and response 4. Project ____ includes identifying project tasks and estimating completion time and costs. A: planning B: scheduling C: monitoring and controlling D: reporting 5. With PERT/CPM, the ____ is the amount of time it will take to complete a task. A: time assignment B: time duration C: time length D: time pattern 6. A ____ walk-through is a review of a project team member's work by other members of the team. A: status B: structured C: open D: private 7. Project ____ involves the creation of a specific timetable, usually in the form of charts that show tasks, task dependencies, and critical tasks that may delay a project. A: planning B: scheduling C: monitoring and controlling D: reporting 8. With PERT/CPM, tasks that must be completed one after the other, like a relay race, are called ____ tasks. A: dependent B: independent C: fast D: tiered

9. Walk-throughs that take place throughout the SDLC are also called all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: code reviews B: design reviews C: testing reviews D: timing review 10. Project ____ requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating the project team's workload. A: planning B: scheduling C: monitoring and controlling D: reporting 11. Task patterns can involve ____ tasks. A: dependent B: multiple successor C: multiple predecessor D: all of the above 12. Project managers can use ____ software to help plan, estimate, schedule, monitor, and report on a project. A: change control B: project management C: project resource D: path management 13. Project ____ tasks include regular progress reports to management, users, and the project team itself. A: planning B: scheduling C: monitoring and controlling D: reporting 14. When several tasks can start at the same time, each is called a ____ task. A: concurrent B: successor C: predecessor D: dependent 15. When software is ____ it is free, and supported by a large group of users and developers. A: free-source B: open-source C: private-source D: share-source 16. A(n) ____, or activity, is any work that has a beginning and an end and requires the use of company resources such as people, time, or money. A: event B: task

C: habit D: plan 17. Often, two or more concurrent tasks, depend on a single prior task, which is called a ____. A: concurrent B: successor C: predecessor D: dependent 18. The most popular project management software is ____. A: ACT B: Microsoft Office Project 2007 C: Open Workbench D: Project Solution 19. A(n) ____, or milestone, is a recognizable reference point that can be used to monitor progress and manage the project. A: plan B: habit C: event D: task 20. In the situation where concurrent tasks depend on a predecessor task, each concurrent task is called a ____ task. A: dependent B: successor C: predecessor D: dependent 21. A ____ path includes all tasks that are vital to the project schedule. A: vital B: baseline C: critical D: foundational 22. A(n: ____ chart displays complex task patterns and relationships. A: Gantt B: index C: PERT/CPM D: task 23. In developing time and cost estimates, project managers must consider _____. A: project size and scope B: IT resources C: prior experience with similar projects or systems D: all of the above 24. A project manager’s scheduling function _____. A: involves guiding, supervising, and coordinating the project team’s workload B: includes monitoring the progress of the project, evaluating results, and taking corrective action when necessary to stay on target C: involves staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members

D: includes identifying and arranging project tasks and estimating completion times and costs 25. A task is any work that requires the use of company resources including all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: controlling capital B: people C: time D: money 26. A risk management plan includes a review of all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: employees B: project scope C: stakeholders D: budget 27. Project scheduling involves all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: defining project constraints B: staffing the project team C: arranging for necessary resources D: assigning specific tasks to team members 28. Microsoft’s risk management model includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: category, which specifies the risk type B: probability, which indicates the degree of adverse effect should the risk occur, on a scale of 1 to 10 C: mitigation plan, which identifies plans to control or limit the risk D: trigger, which identifies a condition that would initiate the contingency plan 29. A project manager’s planning _____. A: involves guiding, supervising, and coordinating the project team’s workload B: includes monitoring the progress of the project, evaluating results, and taking corrective action when necessary to stay on target C: consists of staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members D: includes identifying project tasks and estimating completion times and costs 30. All of the following are versions of Microsoft Office Project 2007 EXCEPT ____. A: Standard B: Enterprise C: Professional D: Server

Chapter 4 Review 1. The sales tracking system must produce a daily fast-moving-item report, listing all products that exceed the forecasted sales volume grouped by style, color, size, and reorder status is an example of a(n) ____ requirement. A: output B: input C: processes D: performance

2. Response time must not exceed four seconds is an example of a(n) ____ requirement. A: control B: input C: process D: performance 3. ____ questions encourage spontaneous and unstructured responses. A: Open-ended B: Closed-ended C: Range-of-response D: Leading 4. A ____ is a document containing a number of standard questions that can be sent to many individuals. A: questionnaire B: survey C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 5. If you want to ensure that the sample is balanced geographically, you could use a ____ sample to select five customers from each of four zip codes. A: random B: systematic C: stratified D: structured 6. In ____ brainstorming, each participant speaks when it is his or her turn, or passes. A: unstructured B: structured C: random D: systematic 7. A ____, such as Microsoft Outlook or Lotus Organizer, can help manage those tasks and provide a personal calendar and a to-do list, with priorities and the capability to check off completed items. A: PDA B: DPA C: PIM D: PMI

8. Chapter 4 describes ____, which involves fact-finding to describe the current system and identification of the requirements for the new system, such as outputs, inputs, processes, performance, and security. A: output design B: requirements modeling C: requirements design D: output modeling 9. ____ refer to the logical rules that are applied to transform the data into meaningful information. A: Outputs

B: Inputs C: Processes D: Performance 10. ____ analysis identifies the data flowing into a process, the business rules that transform the data, and the resulting output data flow. A: Structured B: Data C: Enterprise D: Process 11. ____ skills are especially valuable to a systems analyst who must work with people at all organizational levels, balance conflicting needs of users, and communicate effectively. A: Data processing B: Personal C: Analytical D: Interpersonal 12. ____ methods represent a recent trend that stresses intense interaction between system developers and users. A: Co-op B: Object C: Flow D: Agile 13. The end product of ____ is the new information system. A: JAD B: RAD C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 14. During the ____ phase, users interact with systems analysts and develop models and prototypes that represent all system processes, outputs, and inputs. A: software design B: software rollout C: user design D: user rollout 15. A functional decomposition diagram (FDD: is a top-down representation of a function or process. FDDs also are called ____ charts. A: structure B: pie C: flow D: modeling 16. A ____ diagram visually represents the interaction between users and the information system. A: data case B: requirements case C: use case D: design case

17. A ____ requirement is a characteristic or feature that must be included in an information system to satisfy business requirements and be acceptable to users. A: management B: system C: program D: data 18. The department head must enter overtime hours on a separate screen is an example of a(n) ____ requirement. A: output B: input C: processes D: performance 19. All transactions must have audit trails is an example of a(n) ____ requirement. A: control B: input C: process D: performance 20. Your primary responsibility during an interview is to listen carefully to the answers, concentrate on what is said and notice any nonverbal communication that takes place. This process is called ____ listening. A: closed B: tracked C: open D: engaged 21. A common tool for showing the distribution of a questionnaire or sampling results is a vertical bar chart called a(n) ____. A: flowchart B: histogram C: agile method D: Venn diagram 22. A(n) ____ is a top-down representation of a function or a process. A: UML B: TCO C: FDD D: REJ 23. All of the following are categories of system requirements EXCEPT ____. A: outputs B: dynamics C: performance D: controls 24. The term ____ refers to a system’s ability to handle increased business volume and transactions in the future. A: scalability B: reliability C: compatibility D: applicability

25. Microsoft has developed a method for measuring a system’s total costs and benefits, called ____, which is a framework to help IT professionals analyze and optimize IT investments. A: TCO B: REJ C: FDD D: UML 26. ____ enable a systems analyst to identify a problem, evaluate the key elements, and develop a useful solution. A: Analytical skills B: Artistic skills C: Interpersonal skills D: Confrontational skills 27. ____ is a typical example of a system requirement for the output category. A: Manufacturing employees must swipe their ID cards into data collection terminals that record labor costs B: The contact management system must generate a daily reminder list for all sales reps C: The student records system must allow record access by either the student name or the student number D: The system must support 25 users simultaneously 28. One of the main activities in the systems analysis phase is ____ modeling, which involves factfinding to describe the current system and identification requirements for the new system. A: objective B: requirements C: goal-based D: user-based 29. Using a(n) ____, an analyst can show business functions and break them down into lowerlevel functions and processes. A: UML B: TCO C: FDD D: REJ 30. A(n) ____ diagram shows the timing of interactions between objects as they occur. A: timing B: ordering C: orientation D: sequence

Chapter 5 Review 1. Whether to use a decision table or a decision tree often is a matter of ____. A: personal preference B: data requirements C: cycle times D: number of domains 2. A set of DFDs provides a ____ model that shows what the system does, not how it does it. A: control B: data

C: logical D: physical 3. The symbol for an entity is a ____, which may be shaded to make it look three dimensional. A: circle B: triangle C: rectangle D: square 4. ____ maintains consistency among a set of DFDs by ensuring that input and output data flows align properly. A: Diverging B: Balancing C: Looping D: Decomposing 5. The data ____ serves as a central storehouse of documentation for an information system. A: dictionary B: store C: diagram D: partition 6. ____ English is a subset of standard English that describes logical processes clearly and accurately. A: Logical B: Structured C: Simple D: Dictionary

7. A ____ model describes how the system will be constructed. A: physical B: dictionary C: structured D: logical 8. A ____ process is a process that has input, but produces no output. A: blue box B: black box C: gray hole D: black hole 9. When you explode a DFD, the higher-level diagram is called the parent diagram, and the lowerlevel diagram is referred to as the ____ diagram. A: subset B: child C: pet D: subordinate 10. ____ refers to whether the data element contains numeric, alphabetic, or character values. A: Domain

B: Type C: Category D: Rules 11. Iteration also is called ____. A: looping B: sequencing C: partitioning D: decomposing 12. In DFDs, a process symbol can be referred to as a ____, because the inputs, outputs, and general functions of the process are known, but the underlying details and logic of the process are hidden. A: blue box B: black box C: gray hole D: black hole 13. To draw a context diagram, you start by placing a single process symbol ____. A: in the center of the page B: at the top of the page C: at the bottom of the page D: anywhere on the page 14. Data elements are combined into ____, also called data structures. A: domains B: records C: skeletons D: iterations 15. Modular design is based on combinations of three logical structures that does NOT include ____. A: sequence B: source C: selection D: iteration 16. The only disadvantage of the four-model approach is the added ____ needed to develop a logical and physical model of the current system. A: time B: cost C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 17. DFDs use four basic symbols that represent all EXCEPT the following ____. A: data flows B: data stores C: entities D: attributes

18. DFD entities also are called ____, because they are data origins or final destinations. A: pseudocode B: terminators C: originators D: sink holes 19. ____ also is called exploding, partitioning, or decomposing. A: Balancing B: Leveling C: Processing D: Sequencing 20. A ____ documents the details of a functional primitive, and represents a specific set of processing steps and business logic. A: diagram description B: physical model C: data structure D: process description

Chapter 6 Review 1. A ____ is a command that tells an object to perform a certain method. A: note B: tag C: action D: message 2. O-O methodology is popular because it integrates easily with object-oriented programming languages such as ____. A: Java B: Smalltalk C: Perl D: all of the above 3. Objects within a class can be grouped into ____, which are more specific categories within a class. A: sub-states B: mini-states C: subclasses D: mini-classes 4. The line from the actor to the use case is called a(n) ____, because it links a particular actor to a use case. A: association B: partition C: instance D: relationship 5. Just as structured analysis uses DFDs to model data and processes, systems analysts use the ____ to describe object-oriented systems.

A: UML B: Java C: FTP D: OOD 6. The ____ shows what is included in the system (inside the rectangle) and what is not included in the system (outside the rectangle). A: system diagram B: system boundary C: system border D: system template 7. When you identify use cases, try to group all the related transactions into ____. A: a single use case B: several use cases C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 8. All possible states must be documented in the____ diagram. A: state transition B: use case C: object-model D: logical-model 9. Like a DFD, a class diagram is a(n) ____ model, which evolves into a physical model and finally becomes a functioning information system. A: static B: logical C: random D: object 10. The end product of object-oriented analysis is an object ____. A: diagram B: model C: box D: use case 11. A ____ is identified by a dashed line and represents the time during which the object above it is able to interact with the other objects in the use case. A: lifeline B: timeline C: interaction line D: safe line 12. If objects are similar to nouns, attributes are similar to ____. A: adjectives B: verbs C: adverbs D: punctuation

13. A(n) ____ diagram resembles a horizontal flowchart that shows the actions and events as they occur. A: activity B: action C: movement D: process 14. The concept that a message gives different meanings to different objects is called ____. A: multi-use B: state versatility C: action flexibility D: polymorphism 15. All objects within a class share common ____. A: attributes B: methods C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 16. A class can belong to a more general category called a ____. A: pseudoclass B: superclass C: subclass D: case 17. When the outcome of one use case is incorporated by another use case, we say that the second case ____ the first case. A: uses B: incorporates C: needs D: pairs with 18. A ____ represents the steps in a specific business function or process. A: task flow B: task case C: use flow D: use case 19. In a class diagram, each class appears as a(n) ____, with the class name at the top, followed by the class's attributes and methods. A: rounded rectangle B: rectangle C: oval D: circle 20. A use case diagram is a visual summary of several related use cases within a ____. A: system B: subsystem C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b.

21. ____ is a widely used method of visualizing and documenting an information system. A: UML B: Java C: UNIX D: DFD 22. Objects can have a specific attribute called a(n) ____, which describes the object’s current status. A: state B: cycle C: instance D: status 23. A(n) ____ is a group of similar objects. A: aggregate B: concatenation C: class D: packet 24. Sequence diagrams include symbols that represent all of the following EXCEPT ____. A: classes B: indices C: lifelines D: messages 25. The number of ____ needed to describe an object depends on the business requirements of the information system and its users. A: attributes B: packets C: indices D: keys 26. When you create a use case diagram, the first step is to identify the system boundary, which is represented by a ____. A: triangle B: circle C: rectangle D: square 27. Inheritance enables an object to derive one or more of its attributes from a(n) ____. A: user B: precedent C: antecedent D: parent 28. ____ enables an object to derive one or more of its attributes from another object. A: Concatenation B: Encapsulation C: Inheritance D: Polymorphism 29. An object has certain ____, which are characteristics that describe the object. A: keys B: attributes C: indices D: packets

Chapter 7 Review 1. Another term for IBS is ____, because system operations are managed by the outside firm, or host. A: managed hosting B: direct hosting C: outside hosting D: enterprise hosting 2. The choice between developing versus purchasing software often is called a ____ decision. A: make or buy B: build or buy C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 3. A software package that can be used by many different types of organizations is called a(n) ____ application. A: vertical B: horizontal C: limited D: unlimited 4. ____ was NOT listed as a reason that companies would develop software in-house versus buying it from an outside source. A: Meet constraints of existing systems B: Develop internal resources and capabilities C: Lower costs D: Satisfy unique business requirements 5. Some user applications have powerful screen and report ____ that allow users to design their own data entry forms and reports. A: generators B: creators C: templates D: files 6. The ____ of a project is the total value of the benefits minus the total value of the costs, with both costs and benefits adjusted to reflect the point in time at which they occur. A: ROI B: NPV C: EPS D: IRR 7. When you use an ____, you already know the specific product or service you want and you need to obtain price quotations or bids. A: RFP B: RFQ C: NPV D: TCO

8. The goal of systems design is to build a system that is ____. A: effective B: reliable C: maintainable D: all of the above 9. ____ is a model of software deployment where an application is hosted as a service provided to customers over the Internet. A: SAS B: SaaS C: SSA D: SSaa 10. Web-based software usually requires additional layers, called ____, to communicate with existing software and legacy systems. A: hubs B: portals C: channels D: middleware 11. The outsourcing of a basic business process is often called ____. A: BPO B: BOP C: ISB D: IBS 12. A ____ model has a variable fee based on the number of users or workstations that have access to the application. A: managed B: subscription C: service D: cloud computing 13. The ____ makes, builds, and develops in-house software. A: company's IT department B: company's ASP C: company's IBS D: all of the above 14. An accounting package is a good example of a(n) ____ application because it can be utilized by many different businesses, or separate divisions that exist in large, diversified companies. A: vertical B: horizontal C: limited D: unlimited 15. The following is NOT one of the three ways the chapter listed as a way to customize a software package: ____. A: You can merge two existing packages into one solution B: You can purchase a basic package that vendors will customize to suit your needs.

C: You can purchase the package and make your own modifications, if this is permissible under the terms of the software license. D: You can negotiate directly with the software vendor to make enhancements to meet your needs by paying for the changes. 16. Read-only properties means that users can ____. A: view the data B: change the data C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 17. The Systems Analyst's Toolkit explains how to use three main cost analysis tools that do NOT include ____. A: payback analysis B: ROI C: NPV D: EPS 18. Another valuable resource is the Internet bulletin board system that contains thousands of forums, called ____, that cover every imaginable topic. A: gatherings B: newsgroups C: social groups D: feeds 19. The two major Web-based development environments are IBM's WebSphere and Microsoft's ____. A: .NET B: JavaScript C: Office D: Access 20. ____ development treats the Web as the platform, rather than just a communication channel. A: Internet-based B: Traditional C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 21. Although the traditional model of software acquisition still accounts for more software acquisition, a new model called ____ is changing the picture dramatically. A: Hardware as a Help B: Software as a Service C: Processing as a Product D: Storage as a Solution 22. A ____ measures the time a package takes to process a certain number of transactions. A: newsgroup B: parameter C: benchmark D: default

23. A user ____ utilizes standard business software, such as Microsoft Word or Microsoft Excel, which has been configured in a specific manner to enhance user productivity. A: application B: configuration C: interface D: interpolation 24. ____, like that illustrated in the accompanying figure, produces an early, rapidly constructed working version of a proposed system.

A: Prototyping B: Outsourcing C: Coding D: Benchmarking 25. IBM’s ____ is one of the major Web-based development environments. A: WebSphere B: .NET C: NetSphere D: .WEB 26. A(n: ____ model is an outsourcing fee model that charges a variable fee based on the volume of transactions or operations performed by the application. A: method B: administrative C: transaction D: interpolated 27. In combination, the powerful tools that systems analysts use to provide a framework for rapid, efficient software development, is called a ____ environment. A: 2GL B: 3GL C: 4GL D: 5GL 28. In addition to configuring software, an IT staff can create a user ____, which includes screens, commands, controls, and features that enable users to interact more effectively with the application. A: montage B: index C: interface D: package 29. Guidelines to follow when determining data entry and storage considerations include all of the following except ____. A: data should be entered into the system where and when it occurs B: data should be verified when it is entered C: data duplication should be encouraged D: data should be entered into a system only once

30. Reports that trace the entry of and changes to critical data values are called ____ and are essential in every system. A: audit trails B: protective pathways C: backtracks D: value tracks

Chapter 8 Review 1. A ____ check tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value. A: process-control B: toggle button C: data validation D: range 2. Web-based logs, called ____, are journals written from a particular point of view. A: wogs B: jogs C: blogs D: logs 3. ____ interaction describes the relationship between computers and people who use them to perform business-related tasks. A: Human-computer B: Person-computer C: Human-PC D: Person-PC 4. Companies use various ____ methods to maintain output integrity and security. For example, every report should include an appropriate title, report number or code, printing date, and time period covered. A: output reporting B: output listing C: output control D: output checking 5. ____ includes the necessary measures to ensure that input data is correct, complete, and secure. A: Output control B: Input control C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 6. When designing a report, you should prepare a sample report, which is called a ____, for users to review. A: mock-up B: prototype C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 7. An option button, or ____ button, represents one choice in a set of options. A: television B: DVD player

C: stereo D: radio 8. A ____ report produces one or more lines of output for each record processed. A: summary B: highlights C: control D: detail 9. A ____ check identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong. A: reasonableness B: process-control C: data validation D: range 10. A ____ is a specially formatted digital audio file that can be downloaded by Internet users from a variety of content providers. A: songcast B: podcast C: listencast D: voicecast 11. A ____ interface uses icons, graphical objects, and pointing devices. A: green screen B: Web 1.0 C: human-computer D: graphical user 12. Output ____ protects privacy rights and shields the organization's proprietary data from theft or unauthorized access. A: reporting B: prototyping C: security D: safety 13. Once data is entered, the company should store source documents in a safe location for some specified length of time according to their ____ policy. A: records retention B: records safety C: records filing D: records scanning 14. After a report design is approved, you should document the design by creating a report ____ form, which contains information about the fields, data types and lengths, and report frequency. A: system B: analysis C: design D: prototype 15. The main part of the form, called the ____ zone, usually takes up at least half of the space on the form and contains captions and areas for entering variable data. A: body B: heading C: footer D: authorization

16. Each line of output printed is called a ____ line. A: detail B: information C: data D: control 17. A ____ check is used for data items that must have certain values. A: process-control B: reasonableness C: validity D: range 18. An automated facsimile or ____ system allows a customer to request a fax using e-mail, via the company Web site, or by telephone. A: fax fast B: fax mail C: fax now D: faxback 19. A ____ check improves input quality by testing the data and rejecting any entry that fails to meet specified conditions. A: data resources B: data dependency C: data validation D: data quality 20. A ____ workstation is a network terminal that supports a full-featured user interface, but limits the printing or copying of data, except to certain network resources that can be monitored and controlled. A: disk B: diskless C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 21. Sensitive data can be coded, in a process called ____, so only users with decoding software can read it. A: filtering B: context safety C: spam D: encryption 22. A popular security solution is the use of a network based application, often called a ____, that controls access to and from workstation interfaces. A: port cop B: port protector C: workstation cop D: workstation protector 23. A ____ report displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions. A: exception B: error C: end D: estimation 24. Good form ____ makes the form easy to complete and provides enough space, both vertically and horizontally, for users to enter the data.

A: layout B: processing C: data entry D: output 25. ____ is often used by large firms to scan and store images of original documents to provide high-quality records management and archiving. A: COF B: COL C: COS D: COM 26. Using ____ input, data entry usually is performed on a specified time schedule, such as daily, weekly, monthly, or longer. A: batch B: intermittent C: sequence D: combination 27. Every page should include a page ____, which appears at the top of the page and includes the column headings that identify the data. A: footer B: header C: control D: signature 28. The ____ zone usually contains the company name or logo and the title and number of the form. A: control B: heading C: footer D: body 29. Although the vast majority of reports are designed graphically, some systems still produce one or more character-based reports that use a character set with ____ spacing. A: fixed B: variable C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 30. When the value of a control field changes, a control ____ occurs. A: break B: miss C: mistake D: error 31. A ____ check is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together. A: dual B: two-time C: combination D: readiness 32. ____ design focuses on user needs for screen and printed forms of output. A: Output B: User interface

C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 33. A ____ describes how users interact with a computer system, and consists of all the hardware, software, screens, menus, functions, output, and features that affect two-way communications between the user and the computer. A: user scope map B: user interface C: user path D: user process 34. A ____ document is a form used to request and collect input data, trigger or authorize an input action, and provide a record of the original transaction. A: report B: sequence C: source D: output 35. In addition to built-in design tools, popular software packages such as ____ Reports offer powerful features that help designers deal with professional-level design issues across the enterprise. A: Crystal B: Diamond C: Gold D: Platinum 36. The ____ zone contains codes, identification information, numbers, and dates that are used for storing completed forms. A: footer B: control C: body D: heading 37. Database programs such as Microsoft Access include a variety of report design tools, including a ____, which is a menu-driven feature that designers can use to create reports quickly and easily. A: Data Wizard B: Data Generator C: Report Wizard D: Report Generator 38. A ____ box can display messages or provide a place for a user to enter data. A: option B: text C: graphics D: storyboard 39. In a user-centered system, the distinction blurs between ____ and the interface itself. A: input B: output C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 40. A sales manager might want to know total sales for each sales representative, but not want a detail report listing every sale made by them. In that case, a ____ report is appropriate. A: summary

B: highlights C: error D: regression analysis 41. A control break usually causes specific actions, such as printing subtotals for a group of records. That type of detail report is called a ____ report. A: control output B: control series C: control break D: control error 42. Companies use various ____ methods to maintain output integrity and security. For example, every report should include an appropriate title, report number or code, printing date, and time period covered. A: output reporting B: output listing C: output control D: output checking 43. Data ____ is the process of manually entering data into the information system, usually in the form of keystrokes or mouse clicks. A: entry B: checking C: layout D: switching 44. Batch ____ are totals used to verify batch input. A: controls B: zones C: buttons D: tags 45. Data ____ policies and procedures protect data from loss or damage, which is a vital goal in every organization. A: control B: process C: security D: integrity 46. Good interface design is based partly on ____, which provides the operational structure required to carry out the design objectives. A: aesthetics B: interface technology C: ergonomics D: output security 47. When designing data entry screens, provide an on-screen instruction to let users know the date format, and provide an example if the user must enter ____. A: verifiers B: clones C: separators D: masks 48. A key physical design element is the ____, which describes how users interact with a computer system.

A: HCI B: PCI C: UI D: PI 49. In a well-designed detail report, a field called a(n) ____ field controls the output. A: break B: indexed C: dominant D: control 51. In older systems, often the user interface mainly consisted of ____-control screens that allowed a user to send commands to the system. A: physical B: process C: input D: command 52. In a source document, if totals are included on a form, they appear in the ____ zone. A: calculated B: control C: totals D: heading 53. Initial screen designs can be presented to users in the form of a(n) ____, which is a sketch that shows the general screen layout and design. A: storyboard B: turnaround document C: faxback D: output control 54. A combination check is a data validation check that ____. A: tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value B: identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong C: is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together D: is used for mandatory data items 55. In a data entry screen, a(n) ____ is a control feature that is used to represent on or off status and switches to the other status when clicked. A: command button B: option button C: toggle button D: radio button

Chapter 9 Review 1. A ____ is a set of one or more fields that can occur any number of times in a single record, with each occurrence having different values. A: loop B: repeating group C: variety group D: combination field 2. ____, which record details of all accesses and changes to the file or database, can be used to recover changes made since the last backup.

A: Primary table files B: Audit log files C: Backup encryption files D: Data warehouse records 3. A ____ file is created for archiving purposes. A: work B: table C: security D: history 4. During the system design phase, you use ____ to organize, access, and maintain data structures. A: key files B: key records C: key fields D: key tables 5. ____ describes the numeric relationship between two entities and shows how instances of one entity relate to instances of another entity. A: Cardinality B: ERD C: The primary key D: Normalization 6. ____ codes distinguish items by using a series of subgroups of digits. A: Significant digit B: Action C: Derivation D: Cipher 7. A(n) ____ date is the total number of days from some specific base date. A: arithmetic B: control C: absolute D: variable 8. Data ____ problems can occur if updates are not applied in every file. A: structure B: security C: integrity D: redundancy 9. Because intranets and extranets use the same protocols as the Internet, they are called ____. A: protocol-centric B: client/server focused C: middleware focused D: Web-centric 10. A(n) ____ relationship exists when exactly one of the second entity occurs for each instance of the first entity. A: one-to-one B: one-to-many C: many-to-many D: none of the above

11. Some abbreviation codes are called ____ codes because they use a specific combination of letters that are easy to remember. A: mnemonic B: harmonic C: rhyming D: alphabetic 12. EBCDIC and ASCII require eight bits, or ____ byte(s), for each character. A: one B: two C: three D: four 13. A ____ language controls database operations, including storing, retrieving, updating, and deleting data. A: data manipulation B: data query C: data information D: data communication 14. A ____ key is a field in one table that must match a primary key value in another table in order to establish the relationship between the two tables. A: primary B: secondary C: foreign D: referential 15. A table is ____ if it does not contain a repeating group. A: first normal form B: second normal form C: concatenated D: considered invalid 16. Data ____ software looks for meaningful patterns and relationships among data. A: process B: validation C: mart D: mining 17. ____ fields are special fields within data records to provide additional control or security information. A: Primary B: Audit C: Check D: Limit 18. The inherent efficiency of high-volume processing on larger computers is called ____. A: flexible data sharing B: data independence C: controlled redundancy D: economy of scale 19. A record, also called a ____, is a set of related fields that describes one instance of an entity. A: tuple B: couple C: table

D: label 20. A DBMS is usually managed by a person called a ____. A: database administrator B: file administrator C: system administrator D: security administrator 21. Any field that could serve as a primary key is called a ____ key. A: candidate B: summary C: potential D: primary 22. A ____ specifies the fields and identifies the primary key in a particular table or file. A: output design B: market basket design C: table design D: diagram design 23. A ____ is an integrated collection of data that can include seemingly unrelated information, no matter where it is stored in the company. A: data warehouse B: data storehouse C: database D: database set 24. In the event of a file catastrophe, ____ procedures can be used to restore the file or database to its current state at the time of the last backup. A: recovery B: reinstatement C: back-up D: security 25. A ____ file stores records that contain day-to-day business and operational data. A: master B: table C: transaction D: work 26. A(n) ____ is a person, place, thing, or event for which data is collected and maintained. A: table B: entity C: field D: record 27. A ____ relationship exists when one instance of the first entity can relate to many instances of the second entity, and one instance of the second entity can relate to many instances of the first entity. A: one-to-one B: one-to-many C: many-to-many D: none of the above 28. ____ codes combine data from different item attributes, or characteristics, to build the code. A: Significant digit B: Action

C: Derivation D: Cipher 29. A ____ format uses only 16 bits to represent the number 12,345 in binary form. A: integer B: binary storage C: long integer D: character-based 30. A ____ consists of linked tables that form one overall data structure. A: database structure B: database system C: open structure D: open system 31. A ____ is a text document written in HTML. A: Web browser B: Web page C: Web site D: Web server 32. Without referential integrity, you might have a sales order called a(n) ____, because it has no related customer. A: orphan B: loop C: gap D: error 33. A ____ is a set of numbers or letters that represent a data item. A: key B: state C: code D: unit 34. ____ storage refers to data that a user can view, understand, and access, regardless of how or where that information actually is organized or stored. A: Logical B: Physical C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 35. A ____ is a view of the database used by one or more systems or users. A: schema B: subschema C: class D: subclass 36. A nonkey field is any field that is NOT a ____. A: primary key B: candidate key C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 37. Field X is ____ on field Y if the value of field X depends on the value of field Y. A: functionally independent B: functionally dependent

C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 38. Different privileges, also called ____, can be associated with different users of a computer system. A: passwords B: user IDs C: filters D: permissions 39. A(n) ____ is a graphical model of an information system that depicts the relationships among system entities. A: SQL B: OCE C: ODBC D: ERD 40. With a(n) ____ language, the user provides an example of the data requested. A: SQL B: IDE C: QBE D: interpolated 41. One common method of indicating ____ is called crow's foot notation because of the shapes, which include circles, bars, and symbols that indicate various possibilities. A: scalability B: compatibility C: cardinality D: functionality 42. When a system reads a physical record, it loads the data from storage into a ____, which is a segment of computer memory. A: client B: table C: password D: buffer

Chapter 10 1. A form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless communication that does not require high powe A: Bluetooth B: USB C: RFID D: Mbps 2. In the ____ section in a typical system design specification, startup processing, initial data entry or acquisition, user training requirements, and software test plans are specified. A: System Environment B: Executive Summary C: System Components D: Implementation Requirement

3. The ____ technology is compatible with earlier 802.11 versions A: BSS B: ESS C: ISS D: MIMO 4. A ____, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, has a central networking device that manages the network A: hierarchical network B: star network C: bus network D: ring network

5. In the OSI (open system interconnection: model, the application layer ____. A: defines specific methods of transmitting data over the physical layer B: provides network services requested by a local workstation C: defines control structures that manage the communications link between computers D: contains physical components that carry data 6. The maximum speed for wireless network standards is measured in ____. A: Bps B: Gbps C: Mbps D: Tbps 7. To increase bandwidth, the IEEE created two ____ to its initial standard to offer considerable improvement in transmission speed. A: amendments B: options C: LANs

D: versions 8. The ____ section in a typical system design specification describes the constraints, or conditions, affecting a system, including any requirements that involve operations, hardware, systems software, or security. A: Time and Cost Estimates B: System Environment C: Executive Summary D: System Components 9. During business hours, a salesperson can enter a sale on a ____ terminal, which is part of an information system that handles daily sales transactions and maintains the online inventory file. A: POS B: batch C: topological D: portal 10. All of the following use access points except ____. A: BSS B: ESS C: ISS D: none of the above 11. When using the ____ configuration, a central wireless device called an access point is used to serve all wireless clients A: Basic Service Set B: Extended Service Set C: Independent Service Set D: Dependent Service Set 12. An ____ Service Set is made up of two or more Basic Service Set networks. A: Distributed B: Extended C: Dependent D: Independent 13. In addition to Wi-Fi, another form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless communication that does not require high power. A: Bluetooth B: Redtooth C: Blueconnect D: Redconnect 14. ____ translates the logical design of an information system into a physical structure that includes hardware, software, network support, processing methods, and security. A: Network architecture B: System architecture C: Open architecture D: Data architecture 15. A specific hardware and software environment is also called a ____. A: platform B: master C: setting D: foundation

16. Scalability is also called ____. A: extensibility B: switchability C: sharing D: n-tier 17. IBM uses the term ____ to describe Internet-based solutions that allow sellers and buyers to automate procurement processes and achieve substantial benefits. A: e-marketplaces B: e-resources C: e-salesforce D: e-networking 18. A ____ is a computer that supplies data, processing services, or other support to one or more computers. A: server B: client C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 19. In addition to centralized data processing, early systems performed all data input and output at a central location, often called a data processing ____. A: marketplace B: portal C: center D: hub 20. As technology became available, companies resolved the problems of stand-alone computing by joining clients into a ____ that allows sharing of data and hardware resources. A: cloud network B: peer-to-peer network C: Web-centric network D: local area network 21. In a ____ design, also called a file sharing architecture, an individual LAN client has a copy of the application program installed locally, while the data is stored on a central file server. A: file server B: data server C: independent server D: peer-to-peer server 22. The ____ stores the data and provides data access and database management functions. A: client B: server C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 23. A ____ client design locates all or most of the processing logic at the server. A: fat B: thin C: tall D: short

24. You can think of the middle layer in an n-tier design as a(n) ____, because it provides the application logic, or business logic, required by the system. A: functional server B: application server C: data server D: file server 25. Just as processing can be done at various places in a client/server design, data can be stored in more than one location using a distributed ____. A: database centric B: database access C: database gateway D: database management 26. In the past, a device known as a ____ was used to connect star networks, but a switch offers advanced technology and much better performance. A: portal B: peer network C: gateway D: hub 27. A ____ local area network is relatively inexpensive to install and is well-suited to workgroups and users who are not anchored to a specific desk or location. A: cordless B: metropolitan C: peer-based D: wireless 28. The Basic Service Set (BSS) in also called the ____ mode. A: dependent B: independent C: structured D: infrastructure

Chapter 11 Review 1. In a structure chart, a____ line, which has a diamond on one end, indicates that a control module determines which subordinate modules will be invokeD: A: method B: condition C: class D: attribute 2. During ____ testing, programmers must test programs that interact with other programs and files individually, before they are integrated into the system. A: unit B: integrated C: link D: outcome

3. Many organizations require a more formal type of desk checking called a(n) ____ review. A: design B: integrated C: code D: interpolated 4. The objective of ____ testing is to identify and eliminate execution errors that could cause a program to terminate abnormally, and logic errors that could have been missed during desk checking. A: unit B: integration C: user D: system 5. ____ is the process of reviewing the program code to spot logic errors, which produce incorrect results. A: Logic review B: Code review C: Results walkthrough D: Desk checking 6. ____ describes the relationships and interdependence among modules. A: Resolution B: Modularity C: Coupling D: Dynamism 7. In ____ programming, two programmers work on the same task on the same computer. A: parallel B: duo C: double D: driver 8. To achieve better, faster, and less expensive methods of software development, ____ designed a Capability Maturity Model (CMM)®, which improves quality, reduces development time, and cuts costs. A: ISO (International Organization for Standardization) B: SEI (Software Engineering Institute) C: ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) D: CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies) 9. The ____ changeover method allows the new system to be implemented in stages, or modules. A: phased operation B: parallel operation C: pilot operation D: direct cutover 10. A class diagram includes the class ____, which represent the program logiC: A: attributes B: events C: methods D: characters

11. O-O analysis makes it easier to translate an object model directly into an object-oriented programming language. This process is called object-oriented ____. A: changeover B: development C: tracking D: cycling 12. ____ measures a module's scope and processing characteristics. A: Stimulation B: Cohesion C: Code review D: Integration 13. A ____ evaluation assesses the overall quality of the information system. A: pre-implementation B: post-implementation C: pilot-implementation D: testing-implementation 14. A control couple shows a message, also called a ____ flag, which one module sends to another. A: cycle B: data C: status D: cutover 15. The ____ cutover approach causes the changeover from the old system to the new system to occur immediately when the new system becomes operational. A: direct B: parallel C: pilot D: phased 16. Typically, a higher-level module, called a ____ module, directs lower-level modules. A: control B: terminal C: iteration D: method 17. The environment for the actual system operation is called the ____ environment. A: operational B: production C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor v. 18. ____ can be used to model business logic for an information system. A: Decision tables B: Decision trees C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 19. Defect tracking software documents and tracks replacement code, called ____. A: stubs B: units

C: flags D: patches 20. A module consists of related program code organized into ____ units that are easy to understand and maintain. A: small B: large C: either a. or b. D: neither a. nor b. 21. Testing two or more programs that depend on each other is called integration testing, or ____ testing. A: stub B: desk C: loop D: link 22. More recently, the Software Engineering Institute established a new model, called Capability Maturity Model ____, that integrates software and systems development into a much larger framework called process improvement. A: International B: Cohesion C: Process D: Integration 23. Objects contain both data and program logic, called ____. A: methods B: conditions C: attributes D: tests 24. During systems implementation, the ____ serves as a blueprint for constructing the new system. A: system design specification B: RFQ C: RFP D: system structure chart 25. A condition line indicates that a control module determines which ____ modules will be invoked, depending on a specific condition. A: parent B: peer C: subordinate D: pilot 26. The ____ operation changeover method requires that both the old and the new information systems operate fully for a specified perioD: A: direct B: parallel C: pilot D: phased 27. A successful information system requires ____ for users, managers, and IT staff members so people understand the system and know how to use it effectively. A: tracking

B: flowcharting C: code reviews D: training 28. Structured application development usually involves a ____ approach, which proceeds from a general design to a detailed structure. A: bottom-up B: top-down C: parallel process D: parent-child 29. Compiling the program using a CASE tool or a language compiler detects syntax errors, which are ____ errors. A: cycle B: math data C: testing D: language grammar 30. The main objective of ____ is to avoid problems or to detect them as soon as possible. A: systems implementation B: quality assurance C: status flags D: partitioning

Chapter 12 Review 1. A____ is an unauthorized attempt to increase permission levels. A: privilege escalation attack B: denial-of-service attack C: Trojan horse D: identity management invasion 2. ____ also can be used to measure the quality of IT support or services by measuring the time from a user request for help to the resolution of the problem. A: Bandwidth B: Turnaround time C: Throughput D: Response time 3. Risk ____ develops safeguards that reduce risks and their impact. A: assessment B: management C: identification D: control 4. The ____ is the configuration of a system documented at the beginning of the project and consists of all necessary system requirements and design constraints. A: functional baseline B: operational baseline C: allocated baseline D: product baseline 5. ____ shifts the risk to another asset or party, such as an insurance company, in risk control. A: Acceptance B: Avoidance

C: Mitigation D: Transference 6. The release methodology offers all of the following advantages except ____. A: all changes are tested together before a new system version is released B: costs are reduced because only one set of system tests is needed C: documentation changes are coordinated and become effective simultaneously D: new features or upgrades are available more often 7. ____ prevents unauthorized users from creating, modifying, or deleting information. A: Availability B: Integrity C: Confidentiality D: Risk management 8. Depending on the system, bandwidth might be measured in any of the following except ____. A: Kbps (kilobits per second. B: Mbps (megabits per second. C: Dbps (decibits per second. D: Gbps (gigabits per second. 9. In a typical system, the initial version of the system is 1.0, and the release that includes the first set of maintenance changes is version ____. A: 1.0 B: 1.1 C: 2.0 D: 2.1 10.____ means that nothing is done, in risk control. A: Acceptance B: Avoidance C: Mitigation D: Transference 11. The ____ triangle has three main elements of system security: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. A: CPA B: CIA C: CSI D: CIS 12. ____ includes monitoring the system for signs of trouble, logging all system failures, diagnosing the problem, and applying corrective action. A: Error analysis B: Fault analysis C: Error management D: Fault management 13. When a____ methodology is used, all noncritical changes are held until they can be implemented at the same time. A: in-house development B: version control C: maintenance release D: bug fix 14. The maintenance team includes a system administrator and one or more ____.

A: systems analysts B: programmers C: both a. and b. D: neither a. nor b. 15. ____ include items such as supplies, equipment rental, and software leases. A: Maintenance costs B: Operational costs C: Connection costs D: User costs 16. ____ refers to copying data in prescribed intervals, or continuously. A: Security B: Classifying C: Backup D: Recovery 17. ____ measures actual system performance under specific circumstances and is affected by network loads and hardware efficiency. A: Bandwidth B: Throughput C: Response time D: Answer time 18. A ____ is a formal reference point that measures system characteristics at a specific time. A: baseline B: foundation C: bottom line D: core 19. A____ programmer concentrates on operating system software and utilities. A: systems B: security C: applications D: database 20. ____ maintenance reduces the possibility of future system failure. A: Corrective B: Adaptive C: Perfective D: Preventive 21. If significant changes take place in the existing system, the IT department might develop a ____ that could include online support, a special Web site, and formal training sessions. A: user training package B: management training package C: buyer training package D: seller training package 22. ____ protects information from unauthorized disclosure and safeguards privacy. A: Confidentiality B: Availability C: Integrity D: Flexibility

23. To measure system performance, many firms use ____ testing, which uses a set of standard tests to evaluate system performance and capacity. A: foundation B: benchmark C: comparison D: baseline 24. In a typical system, the initial release version of the system is ____. A: 0.0 B: 0.1 C: 1.0 D: 10.0 25. A ____ manages computer and network systems. A: system supervisor B: system administrator C: system analyst D: system programmer 26. ____ activities include changing programs, procedures, or documentation to ensure correct system performance. A: Maintenance B: Operational C: Connection D: Analyst 27. A ____ network is a dedicated connection, similar to a leased telephone line. A: private B: public C: virtual D: protected 28. Bandwidth requirements are made in ____. A: bits per millisecond B: bits per second C: packets per millisecond D: packets per second 29. The ____ baseline documents the system at the end of the design phase. A: functional B: allocated C: product D: formal 30. A(n) ____ programmer focuses on creating and supporting large-scale database systems. A: systems B: security C: applications D: database