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Free Guide for SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Content Index (A) SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination – 2012, Notification (B) Topic Wise Sample Practice Question Ø General Intelligence & Reasoning (Verbal) o Alphabet Test o Logical Sequence of Words o Classification Test o Analogy o Series Completion o Coding-Decoding o Blood Relation o Direction Sense Test o Alpha-Numeric Sequence Test o Number, Ranking and Time Sequence Test o Mathematical Operations o Puzzle Test o Logical Venn diagram o Inserting the Missing Character o Data Sufficiency Ø General Intelligence & Reasoning (Non-Verbal) o Series o Analogy Ø Quantitative Aptitude o Number System

o Squares, Cubes and Indices o Decimal Fractions o HCF & LCM o Average o Ratio & Proportion o Partnership, Mixtures and Allegations o Problems on Ages o Percentage o Profit & Loss o Time and Work o Pipes and Cisterns o Time and Distance o Problems on Train o Allegation or Mixture o Probability o Boats and Streams o Simple Interest o Compound Interest o Area o Volume and Surface Area o Stock and Shares Ø English Comprehension o Narration (Direct and Indirect) o Common Error o One-Word Substitution o Synonyms and Antonyms o Idioms and Phrases o Sentence Correction o Sentence Arrangements o Analogy o Foreign Words & Phrases o Comprehension Ø General Knowledge

o Indian History o General Science o Indian Polity o Indian Economy

(C) Previous Year Exam Paper of CHSL/LDC Exam Ø Solved CHSL Exam Paper Held on 4 Dec., 2011 Ø Solved CHSL Exam Paper Held on 11 Dec., 2011 (D) Study Kit For SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination - 2012 (E) Suggested Reading Books Ø A Complete Guide for SSC 10 + 2 Level Examination

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination 2012, (Notification)

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Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2012 Commission will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerk for which 12th Standard Pass or equivalent is the minimum qualification. The Examination will comprise of a Written Objective Type Examination followed by Data Entry Skill Test / Typing Test .

Education Qualification: Must have passed 12th Standard or equivalent or higher examination from a recognised Board or University.

Posts: D Data Entry Operator Rs.2400/E Data Entry Operator less than Rs.2400/L Lower Division Clerk Rs.1900 O Other

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: The examination will consist of a written examination and skill test for the post of Data Entry Operator and Typing Test for the post of Lower Division Clerk on Computer. SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below: Scheme of Examination Click Here To Buy SSC CHSL Exam 2012 Study Kit:http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/chsle

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Date of Exam

Part

I

21.10.2012 II & 28.10.2012 (Sundays)

Subject

Total Duration / Maximum Timing for General Marks candidates

General Intelligence (50 questions)

50 Marks

English Language (Basic Knowledge) ( 50 questions )

50 Marks

III

Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic 50 Marks Skill) (50 questions)

IV

General Awareness (50 questions)

2 Hours 10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon

Total Duration/ Timing for Visually Handicapped candidates

2 Hours 20 mins 10.00 A.M. to 12.20 PM

50 Marks

NOTE-I : The Paper will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi for Part-I, III & IV. The Commission may also at its discretion, set questions in Part-I,III and IV in Mizo, Manipuri, Assamese, Sindhi, Oriya, Telgu, Tamil, Malayalam,Kannada, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi and Kashmiri subject to approval from the Department of Personnel & Training and subject to availability of experts/printing facilities. NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

Important Links: • •

SSC: Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination: Syllabus Click Here:http://sscportal.in/community/syllabus/ssc-chsle-exam-2012 SSC: Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination: Exam Pattern Click Here: http://sscportal.in/community/exam-pattern/ssc-chsle-exam-2012

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES •

Commission will hold a Combined All India Open Examination for recruitment to the posts of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerk for which 12th Standard Pass or equivalent is the minimum qualification. The Examination will comprise of a Written Objective Type Examination followed by Data Entry Skill Test / Typing Test .

•

The Commission will not undertake detailed scrutiny of applications for eligibility and other aspects at the time of written examination and, therefore, the candidature is accepted only provisionally. Before applying, candidates are advised to go through the requirements of educational qualification, age etc. and satisfy themselves that they are eligible for the concerned posts. Copies of supporting documents will be sought only from those candidates who qualify for the Skill Test/ Typing Test. When scrutiny is undertaken, if any claim made in the application is not found substantiated, the candidature will be cancelled and the Commission’s decision shall be final.

•

BEFORE APPLYING, CANDIDATES IN THEIR OWN INTEREST ARE ADVISED TO GO THROUGH THE DETAILED INSTRUCTIONS CONTAINED IN THIS NOTICE AND ALSO AVAILABLE ON THE WEBSITE OF THE COMMISSION( http://ssc.nic.in).

•

Candidates seeking reservation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC /PH/EXS must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice .They should also be in possession of the certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim at the time of Skill Test/Typing Test.

•

Only those candidates with visual disability of 40% or more would be considered as VISUALLY HANDICAPPED (VH) for availing reservation for VH.

•

Central Government civilian employees/servants claiming age relaxation should be in possession of a certificate in the prescribed format from their office in respect of the length of continuous service which should be not less than three years in the immediate period preceding the closing date for receipt of application. They should continue to have the status of Central Government civilian servants/employees till the time of appointment, in the event of their selection.

•

FEE: RUPEES ONE HUNDRED ONLY(s 100.00) Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically Handicapped and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation.

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•

CLOSING DATE: 10.08.2012 (upto 5:00 P.M.). For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad – 17.08.2012(upto 5:00 P.M.). APPLICATIONS RECEIVED LATE WILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED.

•

Only a single application will be entertained. Candidature in respect of multiple applications will be rejected outright without any notice to such candidates.

•

MOBILES, OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS AND WIRELESS EQUIPMENTS ARE BANNED WITHIN THE PREMISES OF THE EXAMINATION CENTRES. THEIR POSSESSION IN SWITCHED ON OR SWITCHED OFF MODE IS CONSIDERED BY THE COMMISSION AS A MANIPULATIVE PRACTICE AND WILL INVITE SUMMARILY CANCELLATION OF CANDIDATURE, DEBARMENT FROM THE COMMISSION’S EXAMINATIONS AND CRIMINAL PROSECUTION.

•

CANDIDATES MAY SEND/SUBMIT APPLICATION IN THE PRESCRIBED FORMAT TO THE CONCERNED REGIONAL OFFICE OF SSC AS MENTIONED IN PARA-7 OF THE NOTICE OR APPLY ON LINE. FACILITY OF ON-LINE APPLICATION WILL BE AVAILABLE FROM 14.07.2012 TO 08.08.2012(5:00 PM) for Part-I Registration and for PartII Registration upto 10.08.2012 (5:00 PM). CANDIDATES APPLYING ON-LINE SHOULD RETAIN THE REGISTRATION NUMBER ASSIGNED TO THEM ON LINE FOR FURTHER CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION. THEY ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT PRINT OUTS OF THEIR APPLICATION TO THE COMMISSION

•

Candidates may contact following Regional Help Lines for clarifications, if any, in respect of filling/submitting applications : (i) SSC(NR), New Delhi - 01164715222, 01165570666 (ii) SSC(CR), Allahabad - 05322250372, 05326541021 (iii) SSC(SR), Chennai - 09445195946, 04428251139 (iv) SSC(WR), Mumbai - 09869730700, 07738422705 (v) SSC(ER), Kolkata - 09477461228, 09477461229 (vi) SSC(MPR) Raipur - 09407921504, 09407921505 (vii)SSC(KKR), Bangalore - 09483862010, 09483862020 (viii)SSC(NWR), Chandigarh - 09915509204, 09915509331 (ix)SSC(NER), Guwahati, - 09207053500, 09707679564

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Important Dates: • •

Date of Exam: 21.10.2012 & 28.10.2012 Closing Date : 10.08.2012

Exam Syllabus General Intelligence: 1

Semantic Analogy

14 Symbolic operations

2

Symbolic/Number Analogy

15 Trends

3

Figural Analogy

16 Space Orientation

4

Semantic Classification

17 Venn Diagrams

5

Symbolic/Number Classification

18 Drawing inferences

6

Figural Classification

19 Punched hole/pattern-folding & unfolding

7

Semantic Series

20 Figural Pattern – folding and completion

8

Number Series

21 Embedded figures

9

Figural Series

22 Critical Thinking

10 Problem Solving

23 Emotional Intelligence

11 Word Building

24 Social Intelligence

12 Coding and de-coding

25 Other sub-topics, if an

13 Numerical operations

English Language: 1

Spot the Error

2

Fill in the Blanks

3

Synonyms/Homonyms

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4

Antonyms

5

Spellings/Detecting Mis-spelt words

6

Idioms & Phrases

7

One word substitution

8

Improvement of Sentences

9

Active/Passive Voice of Verbs

10 Conversion into Direct/Indirect narration 11 Shuffling of Sentence parts 12 Shuffling of Sentences in a passage 13 Comprehension Passage 14 Cloze Passage

Quantitative Aptitude: Arithmetic: Ø Number Systems: o Computation of Whole Number o Decimal and Fractions o Relationship between numbers Fundamental arithmetical operations: o o o o o o o o o o o

Percentages Ratio and Proportion Square roots Averages Interest (Simple and Compound) Profit and Loss Discount Partnership Business Mixture and Allegation Time and distance Time and work

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Algebra: o Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra (and their simple applications) e.g. Formulas for (a+b)2,(a-b)2, (a+b)3 (a-b)3 , a3-b3, a3+b3, a2-b2; if a+b+c=0, then a3+b3+c3=3 abc etc. and Elementary surds (simple problems) o Graphs of Linear Equations.

Geometry: Ø Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts: Ø Triangle and its various kinds of centres viz. Centroid, In-centre, Orthocentre, Circumcentre Ø Congruence and similarity of triangles Ø Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles.

Mensuration: Ø Ø Ø Ø Ø Ø Ø Ø Ø

Triangle, Quadrilaterals Regular Polygons (sum of the internal angles of a polygon) Circle Right Prism Right Circular Cone Right Circular Cylinder Sphere, Hemispheres Rectangular Parallelepiped Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base

Trigonometry: Ø Trigonometry (for acute angles 0 with 0≤0≤90) o Trigonometric ratios o Degree and Radian Measures o Standard Identities like sin20 + Cos20=1 etc. Ø Complementary Angles, Heights and Distances (simple problems only)

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Statistical Charts: Use of Tables and Graphs: Ø Ø Ø Ø

Histogram Frequency Polygen Bar-diagram Pic-chart

General Awareness Questions are designed to test the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture Geography, Economic Scene, General policy and scientific research.

(B) SKILL TEST for DATA ENTRY OPERATOR: Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer. The ‘Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on Computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words key depressions as per the given passage and the duration of the said Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2000-2200 strokes/key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer. The “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test would be of qualifying nature. Candidates allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on Computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the Centre/venue so notified. Only those candidates who qualify in the written part of examination and secure at least minimum qualifying marks as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion, will be eligible to take the Skill Test. Only such candidates who qualify in the Skill Test at a speed of not less than 8000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list. None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will be exempted from the Skill Test as passing of the skill test is a precondition and one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator.

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(C) Typing Test for LDCs: Typing Test will be conducted for those candidates who qualify in the Written Examination. Such Typing Test will be conducted in English or Hindi and candidates while applying for the Examination, will have to indicate his/her choice/option for Skill Test Medium in the Application Form. The choice of language in the application will be final and no change will be allowed. Typing Test will be administered on the Computer, to be provided by the Commission or any agency authorized by the Commission will be of qualifying in nature. Candidates opting for English medium should have typing speed of 35 words per minute and those opting for Hindi medium should have typing speed of 30 words per minute. The speed will be adjudged on the accuracy of typing on the Computer of a given text passage in 10 minutes. Visually Handicapped candidates (with 40% disability and above) will be allowed 30 minutes. Passage Dictators will be provided to each of VH candidates for the Typewriting test. The Passage Dictators will read out the passage to the VH candidates within the allotted time period.

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Topic Wise Sample Practice Questions

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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING (VERBAL) ANSWERS

ALPHABET TEST 1. (d)

Directions (Q. No. 1-10): In each of the following Questions, five words are given which of them will come in the middle it all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a distionary? 1. (a) (c) 2. (a) (c) 3. (a) (c) 3. (a) (c) 5. (a) (c)

Bishop Bicycle Parasite Petal Research Round Nature Narrate Didactic Dictionary

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

Bifocal Bitter Party Paste Rational Rustic Native Diastole Dictum Diastole

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (b)

House School Tamato Brinjal Brick Bridge Hostel Inn Kennel Stable

5. (c)

Direction (Q. No. 1-20): Sequence of occurrence of events or various stages in a process: Curd 2. Grass Butter 4. Milk 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 (b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 Heel 2. Shoulder Skull 4. Neck Knee 6. Chest Thigh 8. Stomach Face 10. Hand 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 3, 2, 5, 8 3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1 Butterfly 2. Cocoon Egg 4. Work 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 Rainbow 2. Rain Sin 4. Happy Child 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (d) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

4. (b)

5. (a)

Classification Test

1. (a) (c) 2. (a) (c) 3. (a) (c) 4. (a) (c) 5. (a) (c)

Logical Sequence of Words 1. 1. 3. (a) (c) 2. 1. 3. 5. 7. 9. (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. 1. 3. (a) (c) 4. 1. 3. 5. (a) (c)

3. (d)

Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Choose the word which is look like the other words in the group

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (d)

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

Cottage Palace Cucumber Carrot Heart Spade Hotel Club House Aviary

ANSWERS 1. (c) 2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (b)

Analogy Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the following Questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear : choose the correct alternatives. 1. Aeroplane : Cockpit : : Train : ?

(a) Wagon (b) Coach (c) Compartment (d) Engine 2. Amnesia : Memory : : Paralysis : ? (a) Movement (b) Limbs (c) Handicapped (d) Legs 3. Meningitis : Brain : : Cirrhosis : ? (a) Lungs (b) Brain (c) Liver (d) Heart 4. Book : Publisher : : Film : ? (a) Producer (b) Director (c) Editor (d) Writer 5. Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?

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FTJBBNM. How is FISHERY written in that code? (a) ZSFIGJT (b) ZSFGIHR (c) ZSFGEHR (d) ZSFEHGR

(b) Atone (d) Sins

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (c)

ANSWERS 4. (a)

5. (c)

1. (a)

Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Find the missing term in each of the following series : 1. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, ?, 5 (a) 5 (b) 25 (c) 125 (d) 625 2. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ? (a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 51 (d) 52 3. 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001 (a) 101 (b) 110 (c) 111 (d) 113 4. 13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76 (a) 45 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 55 5. 0, 4, 6, 3, 7, 9, 6, ?, 12 (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 14

ANSWERS 2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (c)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (c)

Blood Relation

Series Completion

1. (c)

2. (b)

5. (b)

Coding-Decoding 1.In a certain code LAWN is written as JCUP. How will SLIT be coded in that code? (a) QNGV (b) QJGV (c) QNVG (d) NJGV 2. In a certain code SATELLITE is written as FUBHTLDSHK. How is LAUNCHING written in that code? (a) DOUBFMGHO (b) OVBMCFMHG (c) OVMBCFMGH (d) DOUBCFMHG 3. In a certain code LOUD is written as JOSF then which of the following English words shall be coded as PKQG? (a) RISE (b) ROPE (c) ROAD (d) RICE 4. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code? (a) PSHBMCDRH (b) BHSPMCDRH (c) BHSPOCDRH (d) BHSPNHRDC 5. In a certain code CONCISE is written as

1. Pointing to a woman, Naman said, "She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother." How is the woman related to Naman? (a) Sister (b) Niece (c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate 2. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend, "She is the grand daughter of the elder brother of my father." How is the girl in the photograph related to this man? (a) Niece (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law 3. A man said to a lady, "Your mother's husband's sister is my aunt." How is the lady related to the man? (a) Daughter (b) Grand daughter (c) Mother (d) Sister 4. If Neena says, "Anita's father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal", then how is Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal? (a) Niece (b) Daughter (c) Wife (d) None of these 5. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Rajiv said, "Her mother has only one grandchild whose mother is my wife." How is the woman in the picture related to Rajiv? (a) Cousin (b) Wife (c) Sister (d) Data inadequate

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (b)

Direction Sense Test 1. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he turns to East and walks 2 km, after this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now, how far is he from his starting point? (a) 3 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 7 km 2. Raj travelled from a point X straight to Y at a distance of 80 metres. He turned right and walked 50 metres, then again turned right and

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ANSWERS 1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (a)

Alpha-Numeric Sequence Test Directions (Q. No. 1 to 5) : These questions are based on the following arrangement; JY2=S£ξEGM¤7$HP9KLβ@WQ13#C DÓ 1. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed by a number or immediately preceded by a letter, but not both? (a) Nil (b) One (c) Two (d) Three 2. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed by a number or immediately preceded by a symbol, but not both? (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) None of these 3. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed by a number or immediately preceded by a symbol, but not both? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the positions of the elements in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? (a) 2 Y C D (b) £ S 1 3 (c) J S © 3 (d) = # 2 C 5. 2 Y S is to E G £ in the same way as P H K is to? (a) W Q β (b) @ W L (c) @ β Q (d) @ W K

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (b)

Number, Ranking and Time Sequence Test 1. If the positions of the first and the sixth digits of the number 2796543018 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be the third to the left of seventh digit from the left end? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 7 (d) 8 2. What will be the difference between the sum of the odd digits and the sum of the even digits in the number 857423? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these 3. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is decreased by 1 and each of the even digits is increased by 1, then which of the following will be the sum of the digits of the new number? (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 29 4. How many times will you write even numerals if you write all the numbers from 291 to 300? (a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 17 5. A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also, it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number is? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (c)

Mathematical Operations 1. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means ×, × means +, then 12 + 6 ÷ 3 – 2 × 8 = ?

(a) – 2 (c) 4

(b) 2 (d) 8

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(b) 7

2 5

3 (d) 44 5 5. If × means –, + means ÷, – means × and ÷ means +, then 15 – 2 ÷ 900 + 90 × 100 = ? (a) 190 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) None of these (c) 8

(c) (iii) (d) All are required

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (c)

Directions (Q. No. 1-5) : In the following diagram, the circle represents College Professors, the triangle stands for Surgical Specialists, and Medical Specialists are represented by the rectangle.

A D

ANSWERS 2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (b)

B

5. (d)

Puzzle Test Directions (Q. No. 1-5): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east. (ii) C is on the immediate right of D. (iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. (iv) G is between E and F. (v) D is sitting third from the south end. 1. Who is sitting to the right of E? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) F 2. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends? (a) AB (b) AE (c) CD (d) FB 3. Name the person who should change place with C such that he gets the third place from the north end. (a) E (b) F (c) G (d) D 4. Immediately between which of the following pairs of people is D sitting? (a) AC (b) AF (c) CE (d) CF 5. Which of the conditions (i) to (v) given above is not required to find out the place in which A is sitting? (a) (i) (b) (ii)

5. (d)

Logical Venndiagram

X

1. (c)

4. (d)

Y

X

Z

B

C 1. College Professors who are also Surgical Specialists are represented by (1) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 2. Surgical Specialists who are also Medical Specialists but not Professors are represented by (a) B (b) X (c) X (d) Z 3. C represents (a) Medical Specialists (b) College Professors (c) Surgical Specialists (d) Mecial and Surgical Specialists 4. B represents (a) Professors who are neither Medical nor Surgical Specialists (b) Professors who are not Surgical Specialists (c) Medical Specialists who are neither Professors nor Surgical Specialists (d) Professors who are not Medical Specialists 5. College Professors who are also Medical Specialists are represented by (a) A (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (b)

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Syllogism Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 1. Statements:

All dolls are windows. All bottles are windows. All cars are bottles. Conclusions: I. All cars are windows. II. Some cars are dolls. III. Some windows are cars. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Only I and III follow (d) All follow 2. Statements: All fruits are vegetables. All pens are vegetables. All vegetables are rains. Conclusions: I. All fruits are rains. II. All pens are rains. III. Some rains are vegetables. (a) None follows (b) Only I and II follow (c) Only II and III follow (d) All follow 3. Statements: All snakes are trees. Some trees are roads. All roads are mountains. Conclusions: I. Some mountains are snakes. II. Some roads are snakes. III. Some mountains are trees. (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only III follows (d) Both I and II follow 4. Statements: Some saints are balls. All balls are bats. Some tigers are balls. Conclusions: I. Some bats are tigers. II. Some saints are bats. III. All bats are balls. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and III follow (d) Only III follows 5. Statements: Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are deserts. All deserts are roads. Conclusions: I. Some roads are rivers. II. Some roads are hills.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

III. Some deserts are hills. None follows Only I follows Only I and II follow Only II and III follow

ANSWERS 1. (c)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (b)

Inserting the Missing Character Directions (Q. No. 1-20): In each of the following questions, a set of figures carrying certain characters, is given. Assuming that the characters in each set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character in each case. 1. 4

16 16

9 9

12

6

(a) 21 (c) 35

20

(b) 25 (d) 45

2. 18

19 22

35

24 26

27

43

(a) 49 (c) 89

?

(b) 76 (d) 94

3. 27

54 42

9

84 ?

42

14

(a) 12 (c) 24

7

(b) 21 (d) 35

4. 2

9 1

4 3

20

(a) 20 (c) 50

?

90

7

?

(b) 25 (d) 75

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3 11

144

9 15

9801

(a) 1216 (c) 8100

6

?

(b) 2250 (d) 11036

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

but heavier than Kamal. 5. On a T.V. channel, four serials A, B, C and D were screened, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day was the serial C screened? I. The first serial was screened on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by serial D. II. Serial A was not screened on 25th and one serial was screened between serials A and B.

ANSWERS

5. (c)

Data Sufficiency

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (d)

Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Each of the Questions below consists of a Question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data Provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the Questions. Read both statements and give answer. (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the Question, while the data in statement II alone are not dufficient to answer the Question. (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the Question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the Question. (c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the Question. (d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the Question; and (d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the Question. 1. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the heaviest? I. A and D are heavier than B, E and F but none of them is the heaviest. II. A is heavier than D but lighter than C. 2. Madan is taller than Kamal and Sharad is younger than Arvind. Who among them is the youngest? I. Sharad is younger than Madan. II. Arvind is younger than Kamal. 3. Among five friends, who is the tallest? I. D is taller than A and C. II. B is shorter than E but taller than D. 4. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash and Kamal are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest? I. Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal but lighter than Akash. II. Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash

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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING (NON - VERBAL) Series Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following questions consists of five figures called the problem figures followed by five other figures marked a, b, c, d . Select a figure from amongst the answer figures. which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures. 1. Problem figures

(a) (b) 5. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

Answer figures

Answer figures

(a)

(b)

ANSWERS (a) (b) 2. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (d)

Analogy

Answer figures

(a) (b) 3. Problem figures

1. (b)

(c)

(d)

Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures A, B, C and D constitute the problem set while figures a, b, c, d .There is a difinite relationship between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in figure (D) 1. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a) (b) 4. Problem figures

(c)

(A) (B) Answer figures

(C)

(D)

(a) (b) 2. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(A) (B) Answer figures

(C)

(D)

(d)

Answer figures

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(a) (b) 3. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(A) (B) Answer figures

(C)

(D)

(a) (b) 4. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(A) (B) Answer figures

(C)

(D)

(a) (b) 5. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(A) (B) Answer figures

(C)

(D)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (a)

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Number System 1. Evaluate:

2.

3.

4.

5.

9 3 - 5 - 5 4 ÷ 10 -3 ( 5) - 2 × 4 ÷ 2

(a) 9/10 (b) –8/17 (c) –16/19 (d) 4/7 The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them? (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 30 55% of a number is more than one-third of that number by 52. What is two-fifth of that number? (a) 96 (b) 240 (c) 144 (d) 142 The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is bigger than the original number by 27. What is the original number? (a) 63 (b) 48 (c) 96 (d) 69 What least number would be subtracted from 427398 so that the remaining number is divisible by 15? (a) 13 (b) 3 (c) 16 (d) 11

ANSWERS 1. (c)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (d)

(a)

11

(b)

1.1

(c)

0.11

(d)

.011

(a) 4/5

ANSWERS 1. (a)

16 1 + is: 36 4 (b) 1/3

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (c)

Decimal Fractions

5. (b)

.85 ´ (.105 + .024 - .008) .022 ´ .25 ´ 1.7

simplifies to:

2. The value of

103, 99.35, 102.20 (a) 10.1489 (Approx.) (b) 10.109 (Approx.) (c) 9.967 (Approx.) The correct sequence of these values matching with the above number is: (a) 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2 (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2 5. If a four-digited perfect square number is such that the number formed by the first two digits and the number formed by the last two digits are also perfect squares, then the four digited number is: (a) 5625 (b) 3616 (c) 1681 (d) 1024

1. If

Squares, Cubes and Indices 1. The expression

(c) 5/6 (d) 8/15 3. A decimal number has 16 decimal places. The number of decimal places in the square root of this number will be: (a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 4. Consider the following values of three given numers:

2025 = 45, then the value of 0.00002025 + 0.002025 + 2025 +

20.25 = (a) 49.95 (c) 4.9995 2. If

(b) 49.5495 (d) 499.95

15 = 3.88, the the value of

5 is: 3

(a) 1.39 (b) 1.29 (c) 1.89 (d) 1.63 3. If 2805 ÷ 2.55 = 1100, then 280.5 ÷ 25.5 is: (a) 111 (b) 1.1 (c) 0.11 (d) 11 4. The value of 213 + 2.013 + 0.213 + 2.0013 is: (a) 217.2273 (b) 21.8893 (c) 217.32

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0.05 ´ 0.05 ´ 0.05 + 0.04 ´ 0.04 ´ 0.04 =? 0.05 ´ 0.05 - 0.05 ´ 0.04 + 0.04 ´ 0.04 (a) 0.09 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.009 (d) 0.001

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (a)

HCF & LCM 1. How many numbers less than 10,000 are there which are divisible by 21, 35 and 63? (a) 33 (b) 32 (c) 38 (d) 37 2. Find the side of the largest possible square slabs which can be paved on the floor of a room 2m 50 cm long and 1 m 50 cm broad. Also find the number of such slabs to pave the floor. (a) 40, 18 (b) 30, 15 (c) 50, 15 (d) 20, 25 3. What is the largest number which when divides 1475, 3155 and 5255 leaves the same remainder in each case? (a) 220 (b) 420 (c) 350 (d) 540 4. A florist has 200 roses and 180 jasmines with him. He was asked to make garlands of flowers with only roses or only jasmines each containing the same number of flowers. What will be the largest number of flowers, he can join together without leaving a single flower? (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 20 (d) 19 5. The HCF and LCM of a pair of numbers are 12 and 926 respectively. How many such distinct pairs are possible? (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) 0

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

Average 1. The average weight of 8 persons increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person? (a) 82 kg (b) 85 kg (c) 76.5 kg (d) 80 kg 2. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much she should make on

her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8 examinations? (a) 88% (b) 78% (c) 92% (d) 68% 3. Ages of ‘A’ and ‘B’ are in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. Six years hence the ratio of their ages will become 8 : 11 respectively. What is B’s present age? (a) 18 years (b) 28 years (c) 27 years (d) 25 years 4. The total age of A and B is 12 years more than that of total age of B and C. C is how many years younger than A? (a) C is elder than A (b) 26 (c) 12 (d) 25 5. The average marks fetched by Mohan in History, Geography, Science and Mathematics is 10 more than the marks fetched in Mathematics. If he has got 110 marks aggregate in History and Geography, what will be the aggregate marks fetched in Science and Mathematics? (a) 90 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 85

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (d)

Ratio & Proportion 1. In a school the number of boys and that of the girls are in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 If the number of boys is increased by 20% and that of girls is increased by 10%, what will be the new ratio of number of boys to that of the girls? (a) 13 : 7 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 13 : 4 (d) 8 : 11 2. Income of two companies A and B are in the ratio of 5 : 8. Had the income of company A been more by Rs. 25 lakhs, the ratio of their incomes would have been 5 : 4 respectively. What is the income of company B? (a) Rs. 45 lakhs (b) Rs. 80 lakhs (c) Rs. 40 lakhs (d) Rs. 65 lakhs 3. The ratio of males and females in a city is 7 : 8 respectively and the percentage of children among males and females is 25% and 20% respectively. If the number of adult females in the city is 1,56,800, what is the total population? (a) 3,00,000 (b) 3,67,500 (c) 3,96,000 (d) 2,71,500 4. A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio 6: 19:7. If R gives Rs. 200 from his share to Q, the ratio of P, Q and R becomes 3 : 10 3 what is the total sum? (a) Rs. 6400 (b) Rs. 4800 (c) Rs. 3200 (d) Rs. 3600

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle 5. A total of 91 boys are seated in three rows. The ratio between the number of boys seated in the first and the second row is 5 : 2 respectively and the ratio between the number of boys seated in the second and the third row is 1 : 3 respectively. How many boys were there in the second row? (a) 24 (b) 14 (c) 42 (d) 60

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (b)

Partnership, 1. Avinash invested an amount of Rs. 25,000 and started a business. Jitendra joined him after one year with an amount of Rs. 30,000. After two years from starting the business they earned the profit of Rs. 46,000. What will be Jitendra’s share in the profit? (a) Rs. 16,000 (b) Rs. 13,000 (c) Rs. 7,66.67 (d) 17,250 2. Mr. Nilesh Agrawal opened a workshop investing Rs. 40,000. He invested additional amount of Rs. 10,000 every year. After two years his brother Suresh joined him with an amount of Rs. 85,000. Thereafter Suresh did not invest any additional amount. On completion of four years from the opening of workshop they earned an amount of Rs. 1,95,000. What will be Nilesh’s share in the earning? (a) Rs. 96,000 (b) Rs. 1,10,000 (c) Rs. 1,35,000 (d) Rs. 98,000 3. A invests Rs. 3000 for one year in a business. How much B should invest in order that the profit after 1 year may be divided into ratio of 2 : 3? (a) Rs. 3,000 (b) Rs. 1800 (c) Rs. 3600 (d) Rs. 9,000 4. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially? (a) 28 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 23 5. Three friends A, B and C started a business by investing amount in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 6 respectively. After a period of six months C withdrew half of the amount invested by him. If the amount invested by A is Rs. 40,000 and the total profit earned at the end of one year is Rs. 33,000, what, is C’s share in profit? (a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 15,000 (c) Rs. 11,000 (d) Rs. 12,000

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (a)

Problems on Ages 1. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar’s age at present? (a) 16 years (b) 19 years (c) 22 years (d) 25 years 2. The total of the ages of Jayant, Prem and Saransh is 93 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 2 : 3 : 4. What is the present age of Saransh? (a) 44 years (b) 36 years (c) 33 years (d) 38 years 3. The ratio of the present ages of two brothers is 1 : 2 and 5 years back, the ratio was1 : 3. What will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years? (a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 6 4. Hitesh is 40 years old and Ronnie is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3 : 5? (a) 2 years (b) 10 years (c) 30 years (d) 47 years 5. The ratio of the father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 3. The product of their ages is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 years will be: (a) 6 : 7 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 10 : 9 (d) 3 : 2

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (b)

Percentage 1. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 20, then the larger number is: (a) 25 (b) 46 (c) 27 (d) 82 2. When any number is divided by 12, then dividend becomes 1/4th of the other number. By how much percent first number is greater than the second number? (a) 165 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 3. If one number is 80% of the other and 4 times the sum of their squares is 656, then the numbers are: (a) 6,8 (b) 8, 10

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(c) 16, 20 (d) 10, 15 4. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 5. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get? (a) 57% (b) 77% (c) 80% (d) 90%

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (a)

Profit & Loss 1. A man purchased a box full of pencils at the rate of 7 for Rs. 9 and sold all of them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 11. In this transaction, he gained Rs. 10. How many pencils did the box contain? (a) 111 (b) 112 (c) 114 (d) 116 2. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At what price per dozen should he sell them to make a profit of 20%? (a) Rs. 9 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 6 (d) Rs. 7 3. A man buys eggs at 2 for Re. 1 and an equal number at 3 for Rs. 2 and sells the whole at 5 for Rs. 3. His gain or loss percent is: (a) 2

2 % loss 7

(b) 3

6 % gain 7

2 6 % loss (d) 2 % loss 7 7 4. A man bought some oranges at Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same number of oranges at Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges at Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs.120. The total number of oranges bought by him was: (a) 55 dozens (b) 80 dozens (c) 90 dozens (d) 60 dozens 5. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%? 1 8 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 2 (c) 3

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (d)

Time and Work 1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many days C alone will do the work? (a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 37 (d) 48 2. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They began to do the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining work in 23 days. The number of days after which A left the work was: (a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12 3. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before the completion of the work, A leaves off. The total number of days to complete the work is: (a) 6

3 5

(b) 8

1 1 (d) 13 2 5 4. A, B and C can complete a work separately in 24, 36 and 48 days respectively. They started together but C left after 4 days of start and A left 3 days before the completion of the work. In how many days will the work be completed? (a) 15 days (b) 24 days (c) 25 days (d) 38 days 5. A, B and C together earn Rs. 300 per day, while A and C together earn Rs. 188 and B and C together earn Rs. 152. The daily earning of C is: (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 70 (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 160 (c) 10

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (c)

5. (c)

4. (a)

5. (a)

Pipes and Cisterns 1. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours.

1 hours to fill the 3 tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in: (a) 43 hrs (b) 9 hrs Because of a leak, it took 2

4. (d)

1 2

Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle (c) 10 hrs (d) 14 hrs 2. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and 20 hours respectively. If both the taps are open then due to a leakage, it took 30 minutes more to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how long will it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank? (a) 44 hrs (b) 12 hrs (c) 18 hrs (d) 36 hrs 3. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately? (a) 10 hr (b) 4 hrs (c) 6 hrs (d) 8 hrs. 4. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in: (a) 92 min (b) 112 min (c) 144 min (d) 192 min 5. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank? (a) 22 hrs (b) 27 hrs (c) 35 hrs (d) cannot be determined

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (6)

4. (c)

5. (c)

Time and Distance 1. Mac travels from A to B a distance of 250 miles

1 hours. He returns to A in 4 hours 30 2 minutes. His average speed is: (a) 42 mph (b) 49 mph (c) 48 mph (d) 50 mph 2. A boy goes to his school from his house at a speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2 km/hr. If he takes 5 hours in going and coming, the distance between his house and school is: (a) 8.5 km (b) 5.5 km (c) 6 km (d) 9 km 3. The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that in the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to and for journey is 17 hours, covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is: (a) 50 km/hr (b) 53 km/hr (c) 52 km/hr (d) 56.25 km/hr 4. I started on my bicycle at 7 a.m. to reach a certain place. After going a certain distance, in 5

my bicycle went out of order. Consequently, I rested for 35 minutes and came back to my house walking all the way. I reached my house at 1 p.m. If my cycling speed is 10 kmph and my walking speed is 1 kmph, then on my bicycle I covered a distance of: 61 4 km (b) 13 km (a) 4 66 3 3 7 (c) 5 km (d) 15 km 6 8 5. A, B and C are on a trip by a car. A drives during the first hour at an average speed of 50 km/hr. B drives during the next 2 hours at an average speed of 48 km/hr. C drives for the next 3 hours at an average speed of 52 km/hr. They reached their destination after exactly 6 hours. Their mean speed was:

1 km/hr 3 (d) 52 km/hr

(a) 50 km/hr

(b) 50

(c) 51 km/hr

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (b)

Problems on Train 1. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train? (a) 75 km/hr (b) 82 km/hr (c) 79 km/hr (d) 79.2 km/hr 2. A train takes 18 seconds to pass completely through a station 162 m long and 15 seconds through another station 120 m long. The length of the train is: (a) 73 m (b) 92 m (c) 90 m (d) 100 m 3. How many seconds will a 500 metre long train take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3 km/hr in the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr? (a) 32 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 48 4. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track is 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metre long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the jogger? (a) 38 sec (b) 20 sec (c) 36 sec (d) 72 sec 5. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 6 kmph in the direction

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2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

Alligation or Mixture 1. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so that by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%? (a) 3 : 2 (b) 6 : 7 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 5 2. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per kg? (a) 38 kg (b) 43 kg (c) 54 kg (d) 63 kg 3. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16

2 on selling the mixture at cost 3

price? (a) 1 : 6 (b) 7 : 1 (c) 7 : 3 (d) 4 : 3 9. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is: (a) 4% 2. 35% (c) 20% (d) 30% 4. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixture be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5? (a) 5 : 3 (b) 9 : 4 (c) 5 : 6 (d) 7 : 9

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (d)

Probability 1. Two dice are thrown simultaneusly. What is the probility of getting two numbers whose product is even?

3 3 3 7 (b) (c) (d) 5 4 8 9 2. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the (a)

3 5 5 3 (b) (c) (d) 10 11 2 5 3. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5? (a)

ANSWERS 1. (d)

probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 3?

6 9 8 9 (b) (c) (d) 7 11 15 20 4. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What ist he probability of getting a prize? (a)

11 7 2 5 (b) (c) (d) 13 9 7 7 5. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card? (a)

(a)

5 7

(b)

4 13

(c)

1 4

(d)

11 52

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (c)

Boats and Streams 1. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken by him is: (a) 22 hours (b) 27 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 24 hours 2. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The distance travelled downsteam in 12 minutes is: (a) 3.3 km (b) 2.9 km (c) 2.4 km (d) 3.6 km 3. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back, how far is the place? (a) 2.4 km (b) 2.5 km (c) 3 km (d) 3.1 km 4. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B? (a) 162 km (b) 180 km

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(d) 220 km

1 kmph in still water and 3 finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is:

5. A man can row 9

(a) 2

1 km hr 3

(b) 4

1 km hr 9

(c) 4

2 km hr 3

(d) 4

1 km hr 2

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (c)

Simple Interest 1. If Rs. 64 accounts to Rs. 83.20 in 2 years, what will Rs. 86 amount to in 4 years at the same rate per cent pr annum? (a) Rs. 115.80 (b) Rs. 127.70 (c) Rs. 127.40 (d) Rs. 51.60 2. The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. At what rate of interest the same amount of interest can be received on the same sum after 5 years? (a) 10% (b) 8% (c) 9% (d) 12% 3. The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5% p.a. is Rs. 202.50 in one year. How much will the additional interest in one year be on the same deposit at 5% p.a.? (a) Rs. 30.25 (b) Rs. 22.50 (c) Rs. 25 (d) Rs. 52.75 4. A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum grows to Rs. 504 in 4 years. The same amount at 10% simple interest per annum in

1 years will grow to: 2 (a) Rs. 530 (b) Rs. 555 (c) Rs. 525 (d) Rs. 650 5. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years? (a) 5 : 3 (b) 4 : 7 (c) 2 : 3 (d) data inadequate 2

Compound Interest 1. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for 2 years is Rs. 96. What is the rate of interest per annum? (a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) None of these 2. The difference between simple and compound interests and compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is: (a) 625 (b) 620 (c) 640 (d) 660 3. The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest for 3 years will be: (a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 67 (c) Rs. 98.56 (d) Rs. 75.45 4. The difference between the simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years and compound interest which is compounded every 6 months is Rs. 124.05. What is the principal sum? (a) Rs. 9000 (b) Rs. 8000 (c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 13,000 5. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest is compounded annually is Rs. 16. If the interest were compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be: (a) Rs. 24.81 (b) Rs. 30 (c) Rs. 31.61 (d) Rs. 35

ANSWERS 1. (a)

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (c)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (a)

Area 1. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is: (a) 4 : 1

ANSWERS

2. (a)

(b)

3 :1

(c) 2 :1 (d) 2 2 :1 2. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq. metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal is: (a) 15 m (b) 19 m (c) 17 m (d) 22 m

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle 3. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle must be: (a) 10 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 22 cm (d) 42 cm 4. A took 15 seconds to cross a rectangular field diagonally walking at the rate of 52 m/min and B took the same time to cross the same field along its sides walking at the rate of 68 m/min. The area of the field is: (a) 52 m2 (b) 40 m2 (c) 61 m2 (d) 60 m2 5. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 sq. m. If its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is: (a) 8 m (b) 12 m (c) 15 m (d) 14.5 m

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (b)

Volume and Suface Area 1. A rectangular water tank is 80 m × 40 m. Water flows into it through a pipe 40 sq. cm at the opening at a speed of 10 km/hr. By how much, the water level will rise in the tank in half an hour? (a)

4 cm 11

(b)

(a) 5835 (c) 6420

ANSWERS 1. (c)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (d)

Stock and Shares 1. A 9% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is: (a) Rs. 72 (b) Rs. 94 (c) Rs. 112.50 (d) Rs. 118.50 2. A 12% stock yielding 10% is quoted at: (a) Rs. 87 (b) Rs. 112 (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 120 3. By investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Michael earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted at: (a) Rs. 90 (b) Rs. 96 (c) Rs. 106 (d) Rs. 110 4. To produce an annual income of Rs. 1200 from a 12% stock at 90, the amount of stock needed is: (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,800 (c) Rs. 13,000 (d) Rs. 16,000 5. In order to obtain an income of Rs. 650 from 10% stock at Rs. 96, one must make an investment of: (a) Rs. 6200 (b) Rs. 6240 (c) Rs. 6500 (d) Rs. 9800

ANSWERS

5 cm 9

5 4 cm 4. cm 8 5 2. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of areas of the four walls, the volume of the hall is: (a) 720 (b) 800 (c) 1200 (d) 2000 3. The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a

(b) 6400 (d) 9260

1. (c)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (b)

(c)

cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. It surface area is: (a) 127 cm2 (b) 236 cm2 2 (c) 361 cm (d) 480 cm2 4. A swimming pool 9 m wide and 12 m long is 1 m deep on the shallow side and 4 m deep on the deeper side. Its volume is: (a) 309 m3 (b) 270 m3 3 (c) 360 m (d) 607 m3 5. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m3) is:

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ENGLISH COMPREHENSION Narration (Direct and Indirect)

ANSWERS 1. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

Common Error

Directions: Pick out the correct alternative that complete sentence which is changed into indirect narration. 1. The thief said to the policeman, “Why did you beat me so mercilessly?” The thief: (a) asked the policeman why he had beaten him so mercilessly. (b) said the policeman that why he had beaten him mercilessly. (c) asked the policeman that why he had beaten him so mercilessly. (d) None of these. 2. The saint said to me, “Why do you not go to the temple daily?” The saint: (a) said to me that why I did not go to the temple daily. (b) asked me that why I did not go to the temple daily. (c) asked me that why I do not go to the temple daily. (d) enquired of me why I did not go to the temple daily. 3. My friend said to me, “Where do you go daily?” My friend: (a) asked me where I went daily. (b) said to me that where I went daily. (c) told me that where I went daily. (d) asked me that where I go daily. 4. The teacher said to me, “Have you read this book?” The teacher (a) told to me that had I read this book. (b) said to me that had I read this book. (c) asked me if I had read that book. (d) told me that I had read that book. 5. The milk man says, “My cow does not give much milk.” The milk man : (a) said that his cow does not give much milk. (b) told that his cow does not give much milk. (c) says that his cow does not give much milk. (d) told that his cow do not give much milk.

2. (b)

Directions: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part 1, 2, 3, 4. 1. I have seen as bad or worse scenes of 1 disorder at the English fair than the ones 2 3 in any other Australian mining town. 4 2. This is the third communication we have 1 sent and we are surprised that we have 2 3 received no answer. 4 3. The officers are now perfectly happy 1 2 fishing, boating, shooting, playing cricket

3

and other sports. 4 4. While in conversation with a high ranking 1 military officer he told me that at the 2 3 head-quarters nothing was known. 4 5. The fear of an impending invasion has more 1 2 to do than even the debasing of the coinage 3 with the financial difficulties. 4

ANSWERS 1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (c)

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One-Word Substitution

(a) Spiteful (c) Fussy

(b) Careless (d) Ignorant

ANSWERS Directions: In each of these questions, out of the four lternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentence, group of words or clauses. 1. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river's banks. (a) Swamps (b) Archipelago (c) Hinterland (d) Isthmus 2. A lower-area storm with high winds rotating about a centre of low atmospheric pressure (a) Cyclone (b) Tornado (c) Typhoon (d) Hurricane 3. One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law unto himself (a) Anarchist (b) Belligerent (c) Iconoclast (d) Agnostic 4. Something which is not through or profound (a) Superficial (b) Superstitious (c) Superfluous (d) Supernatural 5. Indifference to pleasure or pain (a) Docility (b) Stoicism (c) Patience (d) Reticence

ANSWERS 1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (b)

Synonyms and Antonyms Directions (Q. No. 1-30): In this section you find a number of sentences, parts of which are bold. For each bold part, four or five words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the bold part. 1. Indians are likely to be parochial. (a) Generous (b) Narrow-minded. (c) Brave (d) Short-sighted 2. I was discomfited to find the boss in the disco. (a) irritated (b) uncomfortable (c) embarrassed (d) displeased 3. He spent most of his years debunking politicians. (a) Exposing (b) Cheating (c) Threatening (d) Pacifying 4. We arrived safely at the quay and went ashore. (a) Peninsula (b) Wharf (c) Target (d) Island 5. Editors are known to be pernickety about grammar.

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (c)

Idioms and Phrases Directions (Q. No. 1-30): Select the meaning of the bold Idiom or phrase from the given alternatives. 1. In the organised society of today no individual or nation can plough a lonely furrow. (a) remain unaffected (b) do without the help of others (c) survive in isolation (d) remain non-aligned 2. To flog a dead horse (a) to do interesting things (b) to try to take work from a weak horse (c) to beat a horse that is dead (d) to revive interest in a subject which is out of date 3. To bait the hook to suit the fish (a) to look at things from other person's point of veiw (b) to catch fish by providing suitable food (c) to do things to please others (d) to prepare a box to pack the fish 4. Bed of roses (a) very soft bed (b) dull life (c) belong to (d) full of joys 5. Black and blue (a) painting (b) severely (c) together (d) intermix

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (b)

Sentence Correction Directions: Each of the following question is in the form of a sentence with four underlined portions marked a, b, c and d, respectively. Choose the marked portion that carries errors. If no error required then your answer is 5. 1. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, a called the wrap, which across are passed b several coloured threads, called wefts, c forming decorative patterns. d

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a principles of physics, chemists, and b c mathematics. d 4. The salesman refused to show the family a around the showroom, till they told him b c what kind of a carthey were looking for. d e 5. Despite the manager's comprehensive and a enthusiastic explanation of the scheme, we b were completely disinterested in the matter. d

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (c)

Sentence Arrangements Direction (Q. No. 1-30) : Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 1. A. 'Electricity' is a subject enumerated in the Concurrent list, meaning that the Federal and State legislatures are competent to enact laws on the subject. B. The Constitution of India has demarcated the legislative competence of the Federal and State legislatures in three different lists. C. However, a State law cannot override, or be inconsistent with, a Federal law and in case of inconsistency, the Federal law will override the State law. D. The Union list contains matters within the exclusive domain of the Federal legislature, the State list contains matters within the exclusive domain of the State legislature, and the Concurrent list contains subjects on which both the Federal and the State legislatures are competent to enact laws. (a) ACBD (b) BDAC (c) DABC (d) BCDA

2. A. The Vikings were the terrorists whom Europe feared the most between the eighth and the twelfth centuries. B. They set out on these voyages of dangerous adventure because they felt an even more unbearable fear than did their neighbours who stayed behind. C. For they were tortured by the thought that their name and reputation might vanish into nothingness. D. They managed to brave the seas to pillage, ransom, and create havoc from Constantinople to Lisbon and Dublin, even though they carried inside them all the usual fears of poor peasants as well as the loneliness of Scandinavia's long nights. (a) CDAB (b) CBAD (c) DABC (d) ADBC 3. A. Deprived of livelihood and income, they face penury, and as families split up and spread out, their community bonds crumble. B. Oddly, all this happens in the name of development, and the victim are described as beneficiaries. C. Cut off from their most vital resources, those uprooted are then robbed of their history traditions and culture. D. Imagine the entire population of the continent of Australia turned out of their homes – eighteen million people losing their lands, evicted from their houses. (a) DACB (b) DBAC (c) ACDB (d) ABDC 4. A. This chemical compound finds wide usage in diversified industries such as refectories, ceramics, etc. B. Indal developed the requisite technology in-house at its Belgaum centre. C. In 1982-83, it started developing special alumina, an import substitute. D. In pursuit of its policy of adding value to the basic products, Indal has been adding value to alumina too. (a) BCDA (b) CDAB (c) CBAD (d) DCAB 5. A. India accorded Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to Pakistan long ago. B. Matters have hardly improved since dialogue was broken off in early 1994. C. Pakistan is still only talking about giving India MFN status in trade, even though it is obliged to under the World Trade Organisation. D. In some ways, they have worsened. (a) CADB (b) BDCA (c) CBDA (d) ACBD

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (d)

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Analogy Direction (Q. No. 1-30): Each of the questions consists of two capitalised words which have a certain relationship to each other. Followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair that is related to each other in the same way as the capitalised pair. 1. PEST (a) salesclerk (b) expert (c) enigma (d) leader 2. PROLOGUE (a) preamble (b) sketch (c) movement (d) index 3. EXPAND (a) ascent (b) proliferate (c) bend (d) cool 4. RUST (a) vapour (b) dew (c) crystal (d) solution 5. CLAIM (a) hypothesis (b) verdict (c) counter argument (d) proposition

: : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : :

IRKSOME courteous proficient unexpected non-descript NOVEL constitution drawing symphony book VOLUME flight number flexibility temperature CORROSION flammability condensation purification precipitation LEGITIMATED confirmed appealed doubted repeated

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (a)

Foreign Words & Phrases Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the foreign words and phrases out of the four responses a, b, c and d. 1. vis-a-vis : (a) similar (b) face to face (c) contrary to the fact (d) in good faith 2. Modus operandi (a) successful operation (b) unsuccessful mission (c) mode or manner of doing a thing (d) a clandestine operation 3. Ad valorem (a) according to the-value (b) according to utility

(c) according to cost (d) according to demand 4. Aide memoire (a) hearing aid (b) without memory (c) with sound memory (d) notes to aid memory 5. Ad interim : (a) finally (b) ultimately (c) unanimously (d) in the mean time

ANSWERS 1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

Comprehension Directions (Q.1–11): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

What is immediately needed today is the establishement of a Wrold Government or an International Federation of mankind. It is the utmost necessity of the world today, and all those persons who wish to see all human beings happy and prosperous naturally feel it keenly. Of course, at times we feel that many of the problem of our political, social, linguistic and cultural life would come to an end if there were one Govenment all ovet the world. Travellers, businessmen, seekers of knowledge and teachers of righteousness know very well that great impediments and obstructions are faced by them when they pass from one country to another, exchange goods, get information, and make an efforts to spread their good gospel among their fellow-men. In the past, religious sects divided one set of people against another, colour of skin or shape of the body set one against the other. But today when philosophical light has exploded the darkness that was created by religious differences, and when scientific knowledge has flasified the superstitions, they have enabled human beings of all religious views and of all races and colours to come in frequent contact with one another . It is the governments of various countries that keep poeple of one country apart from, those of another. They create artificial barriers, unnatu-

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle ral distinctions, unhealthy isolation, unnecessary fears and dangers in the minds of common men who by their nature want to live in friendship with their fellow-men. But all these evils would cease to exist if there were one Government all over the world. 1. What divides people of a country against another? (a) Different religions (b) Different language (c) Different social and political systems of different people (d) Government of various countries 2. What is the urgent heed of the world today? (a) The establishment of an international economic order. (b) The establishment of a world government. (c) The creation of a cultural international social order. (d) The raising of an international spiritual army. 3. What will the world Government be expected to do? (a) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts (b) it will end all wars for all time to come (c) it will bring about a moral regeneration of mankind (d) it will kill the evil spirit in man 4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning as the word "righteousness" as used in the passage. (a) rectitude (b) religiosity (c) requirement (d) scrupulousness

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (d)

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GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Indian History

ered the oldest civilization before the discovery of Mohenjodaro and Harappa. The main features of Ancient Indian History are as follows: Indus Valley Civilization

The Indian History is perhaps the oldest in the world, and the sources of Indian History are the verbal history, because our ancients never did bother about putting things down on paper and archaeological evidences. Based on the evidences available today, Indian History, like the history of every ancient culture in the world, is broadly divided into four periods as mentioned below: Pre-History

From the big bang, the primeval swamp to the Indus Valley civilization. Though Indus Valley civilization is included in pre-historical period. However, technical evidences shows that Indus Valley civilization did have a script, although it has not been decoded yet. So, it is generally included in Ancient History nowadays. Ancient History

It begins from the Indus Valley civilization (for which the date is a matter of hot debate, but historians have agreed to disagree on 3000 BC) to just after the king Harsha Vardhana, which is around 700-800 BC. Medieval History

Discovery: In 1921, R.B. Dayaram Sahani, first discovered Harappa, in the Montgomery district of the Punjab. According to radio-carbon dating, it spread from the year 2350-1750. Indus Valley Civilization

Dr. R. D. Banerjee found the ancient city Mohenjodaro (literally, ‘city of the dead’) in Larkana district of Sindh, now in Pakistan in 1922. The Marvelous Town Planning of Mohenjodaro: A chief feature of Mohenjodaro is its superb town planning. The streets, which divided the city into neat rectangular or square blocks, varied in width but always intersected each other at right angles. The city had an elaborate drainage system, consisting of horizontal and vertical drains, street drains and so on. The architecture of the buildings was clearly intended to be functional and minimalist, and certainly not to please the aesthete. Mohenjodaro was obviously a cosmopolitan city, with people of different races mingling with the local populace-Prot oAustroloid, Mediterranean, Alpine and Mongoloid.

It begins from 800 BC to mid-18th century The Indus Valley Civilization Before the coming of Aryans, there was a AD. civilization that was not only well-developed, but Modern History actually far more sophisticated than that of the From mid-18th century to the independence Aryans. The Indus Valley civilization said its last of India, which is on August 15, 1947. The his- hurray roughly in 2200 BC. The beginning and tory of Modern India is farther sub-divided into end of the Indus Valley Civilization are both a two major periods: matter of debate because people could not have 1. The British Period. emerged complete with their perfect town plan2. The India Freedom Struggle and Partition of ning, neat houses, lovely jewellery and loads of India. make-up. So where did they come from? and then ANCIENT INDIA having come, just where did they disappear? The discovery of Mohenjodaro and Harappa Popular theory, which is most accepted is that by British archeologist: Marshall proved that the people of the Harappan civilization were Indian civilization is the oldest civilization in the chased out by the Aryans and went down south. world. Even India came before Greece, consid- The present South Indians are their descendants.

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Initially, they settled in the area of SaptSindhu, which included Punjab, Kashmir, Sindh, Kabul and Gandhara (Kandhar). The chief sources of this period are The Vedas and the Epics, the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, which through their stories PO and hymns tell us about the expansion of the Aryans. The epic Ramayana is a symbolic tale which tells of the Aryan expansion to the south-the good, almost godly, aryaputra (an Aryan’s son) king Rama surging forth to finish off the evil Dasyu (that was what the Aryans called the natives) Ravana. Aryans Political System

There was complex political system. They hung around together in small village settlements (which later grew to kingdoms) and the basis of their political and social organization was the clan or kula. It was very much a patriarchal society, with the man the house expected to keep his clan in control. The King was the Supreme Power

Geography SOLAR SYSTEM Important Facts Biggest planet Smallest plant Satellite of Earth Nearest planet from Sun Farthest planet from Sun Nearest planet to Earth Brightest planet Brightest star Planet having maximum number of satellite Coldest planet Red planet (seen at night) Heaviest planet Biggest satellite of solar Smallest satellite of solar system Blue planet Red planet Morning star Evening star Sister of Earth 9th planet

: Jupiter : Mercury : Moon : Mercury : Neptune : Venus : Venus : Dog Star : Jupiter (63) : Neptune : Mars : Jupiter : Ganymede system : Demos : Earth : Mars : Venus : Venus : Venus : Karla

The king was the supreme power though he had to work in tandem with the people’s wishes. He had an elaborate court of many officials, including the chief queen (Mahishi) who was elected to help in the decision making process. Two Assemblies, Sabha and Samiti further assisted the Sun Distance from Earth: 149.6 million km king. No Rigidity in Caste System

The caste system was a loose social system where people could move up and down the social scale. Aryan’s worshipped nature gods-they prayed to the Usha (Dawn), Prajapati (The Creator), Rudra (Thunder), Indra (Rain), Surya (Sun) and so on. These gods and goddesses were appeased by prayers and sacrifices. Growth of Buddhism and Jainism

Buddhism and Jainism were instant hits with the populace and became powerful clannish minorities while the bulk of the people remained with Aryanism. Not for long, however. As the two new religions which had extremely charismatic leaders and very zealous followers caught the people’s imagination, the influence of both faiths spread enough for kings to profess and actively promote them.

(Approximately). Critical value of absolute visual magnitude 4.83 Diameter: 13,92,000 km Temperature of Code: 20-15 million Celsius Apparent surface temperature: 5778°C (6000°C approximately) Rotational period: 25 days, 3 hrs., 21 minutes, 136 seconds (in reference of equator) 33 days (in reference to pole) Chemical composition: Hydrogen-69.5%, Helium28%. Carbon, Nitrogen and Oxygen-2%, Magnesium, Sulphur, Silicon and Iron 0.5% Age: 5 billion years (approximately) Possible life of normal star 10 billion years (approximately) Equatorial radius: 6,95,500 km (approximately) GALAXIES Galaxy Name Milky way Large Magellanic Cloud Small Magellanic Cloud Ursa Minor Dwarf Sculptor Dwarf Draco Dwarf

Magnitude Visual — 0.9 2.5 11.9 80 10.9

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle Formax Sysyem Leo -II System Leo -I System N. G.C 6822 N.G.C. 147 N.G.C. 185 N .G.C. 205 N.G.C. 2 21 (M 32) IC 1613 Andromeda Galaxy N.G.C. 598 (M 33) Maffel I

8.3 12.04 12.0 8.9 9.73 10.1 8.17 8.16 9.61 3.47 5.79 11.0

Moon Average distance: 3,84,365 km Diameter: 3,474 km Ratio of mass in reference to Earth: 1:81.30 Density (with reference to water): 3.3464 kg/metre3 Density (with reference to Earth): 0.6058 Ratio in the gravitational force of Moon & Sun: 0.116 Disappearing part of Moon: 0.41 Maximum distance of Earth from Sun 4,05,508 km Minimum distance of Earth from Sun 3,63,300 km Revolution period of the Moon round the Earth. Sidereal Month: 27 days, 7 hrs, 43.25 minutes Synodic Month: 29 days, 12 hrs, 44 minutes Rotation on its own axis : 27 days, 7 hrs, 43 minutes, 11.47sec. Atmosphere: Absent Highest mts. Peak : 35,000 (Libtney, situated at Moon’s south pole). Time taken by light to reach the earth.: 1.3 seconds. Speed of Rotation at its own axis: 2287 miles per hrs.

Earth Approximate age of Earth: 4600,000,000, years, Total surface area: 510,072,000 km2 Total land area: 153,000,000 km2 Water area: 71% of the total land surface 357,100,000 km2 Average density: 5.52 gm per cub.cm. Equatorial diameter: 12,756 km Polar diameter: 12,714 km Necessary escape velocity to cross the gravitational attraction of the Earth: 11.2 km/sec. Velocity of a rocket to go against the gravitational attraction of the Earth 8 km /sec. Distance from Moon: 3,84,365 km Maximum height of the earth from M.S.L. 8848 m (Mount Everest) Maximum depth of sea from M.S.L. : 11,033 metro (Mariana Trench) Lowest part of the earth surface: 396 metre (Dead Sea) Rotational period at its own axis: 23 hrs, 56 minutes 4.091 sec. Revolution of earth round the Sun: 365 day, 5 hrs, 48 minutes, 45.51 second Satellite of Earth: Moon Inclination at its own axis: 23*-27.

Average distance from Sun: 149,597,887.5 km

Venus Diameter: 11,102 km Mass: 4.867 × 10224 kg Volume: 92.843 × 1010 km3 Mean Radius: 6052 km Mean Density: 5204 kg/metre3 Surface Gravity: 8.87 metre/second2 Mean distance from the Sun: 108.2 million km Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion): 108.9 million km Least distance from the Sun: 107.5 million km (Perihelion) Rotational period: 243.7 days Revolutional period (Sidereal period): 224.7 days earth days Inclination of orbit: 3.39° Mean surface temperature: 464°C Mean surface pressure: 92 bars No. of Satellites: Nil

Mercury Diameter: 4878 km Mass: 3.64 × 1020 tons (3.3 10 kg) (About 5% of the earth) Volume: 2.15 × 1021 cube metre (About 6% of the earth) Average density: 340 pound/cubic feet Surface gravity: 11.8 feet/sec. (3.6 metre) Surface temperature: 280° to 800°F (–175 to 425°C) Surface atmospheric pressure: 2 × 1012 millibar Greatest distance from the earth: 142.6 million miles (229.4 million km) Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion) 43 million miles (70 million km) Least distance from the Sun (Perihelion) 29 million miles (46.5 million km) Revolution period (Sidereal year): 87.97 earth days Rotational period (Sidereal day): 58.65 earth days No. of Satellites: Nil

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Indian Polity DIRRERENT SOURCES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITURION Although the skeleton of the constitution was derived from Government of India Act 1935, many provisions were imported from other constitution,, of the world. Some of them are listed below: Government of India Act 1935: Federal scheme, office of Governor, power of Federal judiciary, emergency powers etc. Constitution of Britain: Law making procedures, rule of law, provision for single citizenship, Parliamentary system of government, office of CAG. Constitution of USA: Independence of judiciary. judicial review, fundamental rights, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges, preamble and functions of Vice-president. Constitution of Canada: Federation with strong Centre, to provide residuary powers to the centre. Constitution of Ireland: Directive Principles of State policy, method of presidential elections, and the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha by the President, Constitution of Germany: Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during emergency. Constitution of Australia: Idea of the Concurrent list. Constitution of South Africa: Amendment with 2/3rd majority in Parliament and election of the Members of Rajya Sabha on the basis of proportional representation. THE PREAMBLE The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ end now the Preamble reads as follows: “We, the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social. economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship Equality of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly on this twenty-sixty day November, 1949, we do hereby, Adopt, Enact and Give Ourselves this Constitution.” PARTS AND ARTICLES OF THE CONSTITUTION • Part I/Articles 1-4 • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Part II/Articles 5-11 Part III/Articles 12-35 Part I V/Articles 36-51 Part I V-A/Article 51A Part V/Articles 52-151 Part VI/Articles 152-237 Part VII/Article 238 Part VIII/Articles 239-241 Part IX/Articles 242-243 Part IX-A/Articles 243P-243 ZG Part X/Articles 244-244 Part XI/Articles 245-263 Part XMI/Articles 263-300 Part XIII/Articles 301—307 Part XIV/Articles 308-323 Part XIV-A/Articles 323A-323B Part XV/Articles 324-329 Part XVI/Articles 330-342

• • • • •

Part XVII/Article 343-351 Part XVIII/Articles 352-360 Part XIX/Article 361-367 Part XX/Article,68 Part XXI/Articles X69-392

: Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new states : Citizenship : Fundamental Rights : Directive Principles of State Policy : Duties of a citizen of India : Government at the Union level : Government at the State level : Repeated by 7th Amendment 1956 : Administration of Union Territories : The Panchayats : The Municipalities : A Scheduled and tribal areas : Relations between the Union and States : A Finance, property, contracts and suits : Trade, commerce and travel within territory of India : Services under the Union and States : Deals with administrative tribunals : A Election and Election Commission : Special provision to certain classes SCs/STs, OBCs and Anglo Indians : Official languages : Emergency provisions : Miscellaneous provisions : Amendment of Constitution : Temporary, transitional and special provisions SCHEDULES IN THE CONSTITUTION

First Schedule Second Schedule

• It deals with the territories of th, 28 states and 7 union, territories of the Indian Union. • Deals with salaries, allow a cesn etc., payable to the President of India, Governors of States, Chief Justice of India, judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts and

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Third Schedule

•

Fourth Schedule

•

Fifth Schedule Sixth Schedule

• •

Seventh Schedule

•

Eighth Schedule

•

Ninth Schedule

•

Tenth Schedule

•

Eleventh Schedule

•

Twelfth Schedule

•

the Comptroller and editor General of India. There revised salaries now are: President of India Rs 1.50,000 pm Vice-President Rs 1.20.000 pm Governor of a state Rs 1,10,000 par (varies from state to state) Chief Justice of India Rs 1,00.000 pm Judges of the Supreme Court Rs 90,000 pm Chief Justice of a High Court Rs 90,000 put Judges of a High Court Rs. 80.000 put It prescribes the various forms of oath or affirmation, which various incumbents have to take before assuming a public office. Allocates seats to each state and union territory in the Rajya Sabha. Contains provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas. It deals with the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas. Deals with provisions regarding administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. This Schedule in the Constitution, amended in 1988 by the Act 67 of 1988, received the assent of the President on 16 December 1988, and was applied to the states of Tripura and Mizoram w.e.f. 16 December 1988. Gives three lists of powers and subjects to be looked after by the Union and the states as follows: (i) Union List—Comprises subjects of all-India importance like Defence. International Affairs. Railways. Post and Telegraph, Income tax, etc. The Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on these subjects. It contains 97 subjects: (ii) State List-Contains subjects of local importance. Normally, the State Legislature alone legislates on these subjects. It contains 66 subjects. (iii) Concurrent List-Contains subjects on which the Parliament as well as the State Legislature enjoy authority. According to the 88th amendment, service tax is to be levied, collected and appropriated by the union and the states. Gives a list of 22 regional languages recognised by the Constitution; Originally there were only 14 languages in the schedule and the l5th language ‘Sindhi’ was added by the list amendment in 1967, and three languages-Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st amendment in 1992. In 2003, the 92nd amendment added four more languages to the list-’Bolo’, ‘Dogri’, ‘Maithali’ and ‘Santhali’. The language’ are as follows: 1. Assamese 2. Bengali 3. Bndo 4. Dogri 5. Gujarati 6. Hindi, 7. Kanada 8. Kashmiri 9. Malayalam 10. Maithali 11. Marathi 12. O, it a, 13. Punjabi 14. Sanskrit 15. Sindhi, 16. Tamil 17. Telugu 18. Santhali 19. Urdu 20. Konkagi 21. Manipuri 22. Nepali. Contains certain Acts and regulations of the State Legislature dealing with and reforms and abolition of the zamindari system. it contains 284 Acts. This Schedule was added to the Constitution in 1951, by the First Constitution (Amendment Act. Contains certain provisions -regarding disqualification of members on grounds of defection. It lists 29 subjects on which the panchayats have been given administrative control. It was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992, by the 73rd Amendment in 1992. It lists 18 subjects on which the municipalities are given administrative control. It was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992 by the 74th Amendment in 1992.

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Indian Economy HISTORY OF PLANNING IN INDIA • First attempt to initiate economic planning in India was made by Sir M.Visvesvarayya, a noted engineer and politician in 1934 through his book ‘Planned Economy For India’. • In 1938 ‘National Planning Commission’ was set-up under the chairmanship of J.L. Nehru by the Indian National Congress. Its recommendations could not be implemented because of the beginning of the Second World War and changes in the Indian political situation. • In 1944 ‘Bombay Plan’ was presented by 8 leading industrialists of Bombay. • In 1944 ‘Gandhian Plan’ was given by S. N. Agarwal. • In 1945 ‘People’s Plan’ was given by M. N. Roy. • In 1950 ‘Sarvodaya Plan’ was given by J. P. Narayan. A few points of this plan were accepted by the Government.

THE PLANNING COMMISSION • The Planning Commission was set up on March 15, 1950 under the chairmanship J.L. Nehru, by a resolution of Union Cabinet. • It is an extra-constitutional, non-statutory body. • It consists of Prime Minister as the ex-officio Chairman, one deputy-Chairn appointed by the PM and some full time members. • The tenure of its members and deputy chairman is not fixed. There is no defi definition of its members also. They are appointed by the Government on its c discretion. The number of members can also change according to the wishes of Government.

Functions • Assessment of material, capital & human resources of the country. • Formulation of plans for the most effective & balanced utilization of country’s resources. • To determine the various stages of planning and to propose the allocation of resources on the priority basis. • To act as an advisory body to the Union Government. • To evaluate from time to time the progress achieved in every stage of the plan and also to suggest remedial measures. • To advise the Centre and the State Governments from time to time on special matters referred to the Commission.

NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT COUNCIL • All the plans made by the Planning Commission have to be approved by National Development Council first. It was constituted to build co-operation between the States and the Planning Commission for economic planning. • It is an extra-constitutional and extra-legal body. • It was set up on August 6, 1952, by a proposal of the Government. The PM is the ex-officio chairman of NDC. Other members are Union Cabinet ministers, Chief’ Ministers & Finance Ministers of all States, Lt. Governors of Union Territories and Governors of Centrally Ruled States.

State Planning Boards • Apex planning body at State level is generally a State Planning Body comprising the Chief Minister as Chairman, Finance and Planning ministers of that State and some technical experts. • District Planning Committee is also there comprising both official and non-official members.

FIVE YEAR PLANS First Five Year Plan (1951-56) • It was based on Harrod-Domar Model. • Community Development Program was launched in 1952. • Two- fold objectives were there: o To correct the disequilibrium in the economy caused by 3 main problemsinflux of refugees, severe food shortage and mounting inflation. o To initiate a process of all-round balanced development to ensure a rising national income and a steady improvement in living standards. • Emphasized on agriculture, price stability, power & transport. • It was more than a success, because of good harvests in the last two years.

Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) • Also called Mahalanobis Plan after its chief architect. It was based on 1928 Soviet Model of Feldman. • Its emphasis was on economic stability. Agriculture target fixed in the first plan was almost achieved. Consequently, the agriculture sector got low priority in the second five year plan. • Its objective was rapid industrialization, particularly basic and heavy industries such as iron and steel, heavy chemicals like

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Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) • At its conception time, it was felt that Indian economy has entered a take-off stage. Therefore, its aim was to make India a ‘selfreliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy. • Also, it was realized from the experience of first two plans that agriculture should be given the top priority to suffice the requirements of export and industry. • The other objectives of the plan included the expansion of basic industries, optimum utilization of country’s labour power and reducing the inequalities of income and

wealth. • Relied heavily on foreign aid (IMF). • Complete failure due to unforeseen misfortunes, viz. Chinese aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), severest drought in 100 years (1965-66).

Three Annual Plans (1966-69) • Plan holiday for 3 years. The prevailing crisis in agriculture and serious food shortage necessitated the emphasis on agriculture during the Annual Plans. • During these plans a whole new agricultural strategy involving wide-spread distribution of HighYielding Varieties of seeds, the extensive use of fertilizers, exploitation of irrigation potential and soil conservation was put into action to tide-over the crisis in agricultural production. • During the Annual Plans, the economy basically absorbed the shocks given during the Third Plan, making way for a planned growth.

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General Science INVENTIONS AND DISCOVERIS Invention Acetylene gas Adding machine Adhesive tape, Scotch Aeroplane Air Conditioning Airplane, jet engine Airship (non-rigid) Aerosol spray Artificial Heart Atomic Bomb Atomic numbers Atomic theory Automatic rifle Bakelite Ballistic missile Balloon Ball-Point Pen Barometer Battery (Electric) Bicyle Bicycle Tyres (Pneumatic) Bifocal Lens Bleaching Powder Bunsen Burner Burglar Alarm Calculus Camera, Kodak Canned food Car (Steam) Car (Petrol) Carburetor Cassette, Audio Cassette, Videotape Celluloid Cement (Portland) Chemotherapy Chronometer Cinema Clock (Mechanical) Clock (Pendulum) Cloning, DNA Cloning, Mamma, Compact disc Compact disc player Computer, laptop Computer, mini, Crossword Puzzle CT scan Diesel Engine Disc Brake Disc, video DNA, Structure Dyriamo Electric Flat Iron Electric Lamp

Year 1862 1642 1930 1903 1902 1939 1852 1926 1957 1945 1913 1803 1918 1907 1944 1783 1888 1644 1800 1839-40 1888 1780 1798 1855 1858 1670 1888 1804 1769 1888 1876 1963 1969 1861 1824 1909 1735 1895 1725 1656 1973 1996 1972 1979 1987 1960 1913 1973 1895 1902 1972 1951 1832 1882 1879

Inventor Country Berthelot France Pascal France Richard Drew U.S.A. Orville & Wilbur Wright U.S.A. Carrier U.S.A. Ohain Germany Henri Giffard France Erik Rotheim Norway Willem Kolff Netherlands J. Robert Oppenheimer U.S.A. Moseley Britain Dalton Britain John Browning U.S.A. Leo H. Baekeland Belgium Wernher von Braun Germany Jacques & Joseph Montgolfier France John J. Loud U.S.A. Evangelista Torricelli Italy Alessandro Volta Italy Kirkpatrick Macmillan Britain John Boyd Dunlop Britain Benjamin Franklin U.S.A Tennant Britain R. Willhelm von Bunsen Germany Edwin T. Holmes U.S.A. Newton Britain Walker Eastman U.S.A. Appert France Nicolas Cugnot France Karl Benz Germany Gottlieb Daimler Germany Philips Co. Holland Sony Japan Alexander Parkes Britain Joseph Aspdin Britain Ehrlich Germany John Harrison Britain Nicolas & Jean Lumiere France I-Hsing & Liang Ling-Tsan China Christian Huygens Netherlands Boyer, Cohen U.S.A. Wilmut, et al U.K. RCA U.S.A. Sony, Philips co Japan, Netherlands Sinclair Britain Digital Corp. U.S.A. Arthur Wynne U.S.A. Hounsfield Britain Rudolf Diesel Germany Dr.F. LanchesterBritain Philips Co. Holland Crick-UK, Watson-US, W iikins-UK — Hypolite Pixii France H.W. Seeley U.S.A. Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A.

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle Electric Motor (DC) Electric Motor (AC) Electric Iron Electric Washing machine Electro-Magnet Electron Electroplating Electronic Computer Facsimile Machine Fibre optics Film (moving outlined) Film (taiking) Film (musical sound) Frequency Modulation (FM) Frisbee Fountain Pen Galvanometer Glider Gramophone Helicopter HIV Holography Hydrogen bomb Intelligence testing Jet Engine Laser Launderette Lift (Mechanical) Lighting Conductor Locomotive Logarithms Loom, power Loudspeaker Machine Gun Magnetic Recording Tape Match, Safety Microphone Microprocessor Microscope, comp. Microwave Oven Motor cycle Movie Projector MR! Neon Lamp Neutron Neutron bomb Photocopier Photoelectric cell Photo film, celluloid Photo film , Transparent Photography (on metal) Photography (on paper) Photography (on film, Piano Pistol, revolver Plutonium fission Printing (rotary) Printing (Web) Proton Quantum Theory Radar Radiocarbon dating Radio Telegraphy

1873 1888 1882 1906 1824 1897 1805 1824 1843 1955 1885 1922 1923 1933 1948 1884 1834 1853 1878 1924 1984 1947 1952 1905 1937 1960 1934 1852 1752 1804 1614 1785 1900 1718 1928 1826 1876 1971 1590 1947 1885 1893 1971 1910 1932 1958 1938 1893 1893 1884 1826 1835 1888 1709 1836 ‘E940 1846 1865 1919 1900 1922 1947 1864

Zenobe’ Gramme Nikola Tesla, Henry W. Seely Alva J. Fisher William Sturgeon Tnomson.J Luigi Brugnatelli Dr. Alan M. Turing Alexander Bain Kepany Louis Prince J. Engl, J. Mussolle & H. Vogt Dr Le de Fo;est E.H. Armstrong Fred Morrisson Lewis E. Waterman Andre-Marie Ampere Sir George Cayley Thomos Alva Edison Etienne Oehmichen Martagnier Denis Gason Edward Teller Simon Binet Sir Frank Whittle Theodore Maiman J.F. Cantrell Elisha G. Otis Benjamin Franklin Richard Trevithick Napier E. Cartwright Horace Short Richard Gatling Fritz Pfleumer John Walker Alexander Graham Bell Robert Noyce & Gordon Moore Z. nssen Per -y LeBaron Spencer G. Daimler Thomas Edison Danradian Ge urges Claude Chadwicrt Samuel Cohen Carlson Julius Elster, Hans F. Geitel Reichenbach Goodwin Eastman J.N. Niepce W.H. Fox Talbot John Carbutt Cristofori Colt Kennedy, Whal, Seabolg, Segre Richard Hoe William Bullock Rutherford Plank A.H. Taylor & Leo C. Young Libby Dr. Mohlon Loomis

Belgium U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A Britain Britain Italy Britain Britain Britain France Germany U.S.A. U.S.A. U,S.A. U.S.A. France Britain U.S.A. France French Britain U.S.A. French Britain U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. Britain Britain Britain Britain Britain Germany Britain U.S.A. U.S.A Netherlands U.S.A. Germany U.S.A. U.S.A. France Britain U.S.A. U.S.A. Germany U.S.A. U.S.A. France Britain U.S.A. Italy U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. N. Zealand Germany U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A.

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Guidance Programme for SSC CHSL Exam 2012: http://sscportal.in/community/guidance-programme/chsle Radio Telegraphy (Trans Atlantic Rayon Razor (electric) Razor (Safety) Refrigerator Relativity Theory Rubber (latex foam) Rubber (Tyres) Rubber (Vulcanised) Rubber (Waterproof) Safety Pin Safety razor Seat belt Ship (steam) Ship (turbine) Skyscraper Slide Rule Spinning Frame Spinning Jenny Spinning Mule Steam Engine Steam Engine (Piston) Steam Engine (Condenser) Steel (Stainless) Stethoscope Submarine Super Computer Synthesiser Tank Tape recorder Telegraph Telegraph Code Telephone, Cellular Telephone (Imperfect) Telephone (Perfected) Telescope Television (Mechanical) Television (Electronic) Television, colour Transformer Transistor Transistor radio Uranium Fission, Atomic reactor Vacuum Cleaner, elec. Video tape Velcro (hook-and-loop-fastener Washing Machine (elec.) Watch Welder (electric) Windmill Wireless (telegraphy) X-ray Zip Fastener

1901 1883 1931 1895 1850 1905 1928 1846 ,1841 1823 1849 1903 1959 1775 1894 1882 1621 1769 1764 1779 1698 1712 1765 1913 1819 1776 1976 1964 1914 1899 1787 1837 1947 1849 1876 1608 1926 1927 1928 1831 1948 1955 1942 1907 1956 1948 1907 1462 1877 600 1896 1895 1891

Marconi Sir Joseph Swan Ccl. Jacob Scnick King C. Gillette James Harrison, Alexander catlin Einstein Dunlop Rubber Co. Thomas Hancock Charles Goodyear Charles Macintosh Walter Hunt King Camp Gillette Volvo I.C. Perier Hon. Sir C. Parsons W.Le Baron Jenny William Oughtred Sir Richard Arkwright James Hargreaves Samuel Crompton Thomas Savery Thomas Newcomen James Watt Harry Brearley Laennec David Bushnell J.H.Van Tassel Moog Sir Ernest D. Swington Fessenden Poulsen M. Lammond Samuel F.B. Morse Bell Labs Antonio Meucci Alexander Graham Bell Hans Lippershey John Logie Baird P.T. Farnsworth John Logie Baird Michael Faraday Bardeen, Shockley & Brattain Sony Szilard Fermi Spangler Charles Ginsberg Georges de Mestral Hurley Machine Co. Bartholomew Manfredi Elisha Thomson Persian corn grinding G. Marconi W.K. Roentgen W.L. Judson

Italy Britain U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. Germany Britain Britain U.S.A. Britain U.S.A. U.S.A. Sweden France Britain U.S.A. Britain Britain Britain Britain Britain Britain Britain Britain French U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. Britain Denmark France U.S.A. U.S.A. Italy U.S.A. Netherlands Britain U.S.A. Britain Britain U.S.A. Japan U.S.A. U.S.A. U.S.A. Switzerland U.S.A. Italy U.S.A. Italy Germany U.S.A.

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Solved Papers

SOLVED PAPER

1

SSC (10+2) LEVEL DATA ENTRY OPERATOR & LDC EXAM First Sitting

Held on : 04.12.2011 Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses

PART -I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives. 1. Necklace: Adornment: :? (a) Medal : Decoration(b) Bronze : Medal (c) Scarf : Dress (d) Window : House 2. AL : CN :: DA:? (a) BL (b) AA (c) HR (d) FC 3. ABC : ZYX :: CBA :? (a) XYZ (b) BCA (c) YZX (d) XZY 4. AZBY : ZAYB :: CXDW :? (a) AYBZ (b) EVFU (c) BYAZ (d) XCWD 5. 25:81 ::36:? (a) 121 (b) 93 (c) 65 (d) 103 6. Black : White: : up :? (a) Opposite (b) Disappointment (c) Wall (d) Down 7. Book : Author: : Statue :? (a) Mason (b) Painter (c) Sculptor (d) Calligrapher 8. 292: 146: : 582 :? (a) 272 (b) 286 (c) 291 (d) 292 9. 6:18::4:?_ (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4

10. (a) Eye (2) Hand (c) Nose (d) Ear 11. (a) A (b) O (c) I (d) N 12. (a) MNP (b) PQS (c) WXZ (d) GHK 13. (a) 4 (b) 25 (c) 146 (d) 625 14. (a) 32-42 (b) 48-58 (c) 96-106 (d) 86-78 15. (a) Grapes (b) Pomegranate (c) Cardamom (d) Mango 16. (a) water (b) pool (c) lake (d) pond 17. (a) 58-85 (b) 96-69 (c) 38-83 (d) 47-73 18. (a) DABC (b) PMNO (c) ZWXY (d) IDEF 19. Arrange the following words according to English Dictionary. (a) slunk (b) slung (c) slump (d) slum (a) (d), (c) , (b), (a) (b) (c) , (b), (d), (a) (c) (c), (a), (d), (b) (d) (a), (b), (c), (d) Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order ? 20. (a) Plant (c) Seed (e) fruit

(b) Food (d) Leaf

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2 (a) (e), (d), (c), (b), (a) (b) (c), (b), (d), (e), (a) (c) (c), (a), (d), (e), (b) (d) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b) 21. (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Platinum (d) Diamond (a) (d), (a), (b), (c) (b) (c), (d), (a), (b) (c) (b), (a), (c), (d) (d) (a), (b), (c), (d) 22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? d _ n _ _ _ nndm _n (a) ndmnm (b) mdnmn (c) mndmn (d) dmnnm Directions (23-26): In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 23. 9,16, 25, 36, ?, 64 (a) 56 (b) 49 (c) 80 (d) 72 24. 3,5,8,13,21,34,55,?. (a) 34 (b) 55 (c) 21 (d) 89 25. AZBY C ?? (a) XD (b) WE (c) DX (d) EW 26. YXW, UTS, QPO, MLK, ? (a) LMN (b) JIH (c) KJI (d) IHG 27. Find the wrong number in the given series. 4131, 1377, 461, 153, 51 (a) 461 (b) 153 (c) 1377 (d) 51 28. A prisoner introduced a boy who came to visit him to the jailor as “Brothers and sisters I have none, he is my father’s son’s son”. Who is the boy ? (a) Nephew (b) Son (c) Cousin (d) Uncle 29. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

U M E R N B 1 2 3 4 5 6 (a) 5,1,2,6,3,4 (b) 2,3,4,5,1,6 (c) 3,4,2,5,6,1 (d) 5,6,1,3,4,2 If ‘LIBERALIZATION’ is coded as 3425613 4918470, then ‘AERATION’ can be coded as (a) 15168470 (b) 15186471 (c) 15618470 (d) 51618471 Akhilesh is taller than Sheebu. Aman is not as tall as Akhilesh but is taller than Tejinder. Sheebu is also not as tall as Aman but is taller than Tejinder. Who is the tallest? (a) Akhilesh (b) Sheebu (c) Aman (d) Tejinder From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word? EMBOSSMENT (a) BOSS (b) TOMB (c) STEM (d) MATS Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the un­solved equation 6 × 8 × 2 = 268, 1 × 2 × 3 = 312, 9 × 7 × 5 = ? (a) 957 (b) 579 (c) 795 (d) 597 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation. 4 * 6 * 6 * 2 * 20 (a) + ÷ = ÷ (b) × – + = (c) + – = ÷ (d) – + = ÷ If REPUBLIC can be written as CRIELPBU, then how CUL­CUTTA can be written ? (a) ACTUTLUC (b) UEPUEAA (c) NHENHJJS (d) ATTUCLUC Which of the following inter­change of signs would make the given equation correct ? (12 ÷ 6) + 3 × 7 = 42 (a) ÷ and × (b) 6 and 7 (c) + and + (d) 12 and 3

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3

Directions (37- 38): In each the following questions, select e missing number from the given ponses. 37. 14 22 37 04 06 03 05 03 05 61 135 ? (a) 120 (b) 112 (c) 116 (d) 555 38. 64 25 81 36 49 16 14 12 ? (a) 13 (b) 26 (c) 97 (d) 15 39. Raman starts walking in the morning facing the Sun. After sometime, he turned to the left. Later again he turned to his left. At what direction is Raman moving now ? (a) East (b) West (c) South (d) North 40. Mohan travelled from point ‘A’ straight to ‘B’ at a distance of 8 m. He turned right and walked 4m, again turned to his right and walked 8 m. Finally he turned to his right and walked 3 m. How far he was from his starting point? (a) 8m (b) 3m (c) 1 m (d) 4 m 41. Two statements are given fol­lowed by four conclusions 1,11, and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer. Statements 1. All dogs are books 2. All books are pictures. Conclusion I. All dogs are pictures. II. All books are dogs . III. All pictures are dogs. IV. Some pictures are books.

42.

43.

44.

45.

(a) Only I and IV follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Either II or III follows (d) Either II or IV follows One statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statement Indicate your answer. Statement Metals expand when heated. Conclusions I. Non-metals do not expand when heated. II. All things which expand when heated, are metals. (a) Only conclusion I follows. (b) Only conclusion II follows. (c) Both conclusions I and lI follow (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East, ‘C’ is between Wand ‘E’, ‘B’ is just to the right of ‘E’ but left of `D’, ‘F’ is not at the right end. Who is between ‘B’ and ‘C’ ? (a) A (b) D (c) E (d) F A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted Red, Green, and Black on pair of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only one face painted that too only red ? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? Question Figure

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4 Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 46. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line AB ? Question Figure A

B

Answer figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 47. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Fishes, Snakes and Birds (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

48. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. : ‘F’ can be represented by 01, 13, 32, etc. and ‘N’ can be represented by 57, 69, 95, etc. Iden­tify the set for the word PEN.

MATRIX - I 0 1 2 3 4 0 E F G H I 1 H I E F G 2 F G H I E 3 1 E F G H 4 G H I E F MATRIX - II 5 6 7 8 9 5 L M N O P 6 O P L M N 7 M N O P L 8 P L M N O 9 N O P L M (a) 66, 30, 95 (b) 85, 00, 95 (c) 86, 00, 95 (d) 65, 00, 95 49. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded. Question Figures

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 50. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will paper when opened? Question Figures

Answer figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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5 Directions (61-65): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

PART II ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (51-55): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, then your answer is (d)i.e. No error. 51. There are (a)/ no poetries (b)/in my book. (c)/ No error (d) 52. That house (a)/is built of (b)/ stones. (c)/ No error (d) 53. He as well as (a)/ you like (b)/ to go. (c)/ No error (d) 54. Very soon (a)/ I realised (b)/ that he is at fault. (c)/ No error. (d) 55. Santosh lives (a)/ by the principals (b)/ he professes. (c)/ No error (d) Directions (56-60): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. 56. The headmaster congratulated Rajan _ getting the merit scholarship. (a) for (b) about (c) with (d) on 57. Smallpox has been eradicated _ India. (a) in (b) from (c) within (d) out of 58. The police offered a___for information about the stolen money. (a) reward (b) award (c) profit (d) prize 59. There is no possibility of______coming late. (a) they (b) their (c) them (d) theirs 60. His friend_____unexpectedly. (a) returned to (b) comeback (c) turned up (d) get down

61. Elastic (a) rubbery (c) expensive 62. Vacillate (a) waver (c) quiver 63. Impeccable (a) perfect (c) faultless 64. Impediment (a) clear (c) incapable 65. Advance (a) reduce (c) progress

(b) flexible (d) exciting (b) never (d) queer (b) fair (d) criminal (b) ailment (d) obstruction (b) halt (d) extend

Directions (66-70): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 66. Dormant (a) acute (c) able 67. Chivalrous (a) gallant (c) amorous 68. Erudite (a) illiterate (c) boring 69. Despair (a) sneer (c) irony 70. Transparent (a) translucent (c) clear

(b) active (d) ablaze (b) dastardly (d) defiant (b) crude (d) ignorant (b) compliment (d) hope (b) opaque (d) sharp

Directions (71-75): In the fol­lowing questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase.

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6 71. At one’s beck and call (a) to attend a call (b) to be helped by someone (c) to be useful to someone (d) to be dominated by someone 72. To explore every avenue (a) to search all streets (b) to scout the wilderness (c) to find adventure (d) to try every opportunity 73. A red letter day (a) a dangerous day in one’s life (b) a sorrowful day in one’s life (c) an important or joyful occasion in one’s life (d) both a dangerous and sorrowful day in one’s life 74. To have something up one’s sleeve (a) to hide something in the sleeve (b) to play a magician trick (c) to have a secret plan (d) to play hide and seek 75. On the spur of the moment (a) to act at once (b) to ride a horse in a race (c) to act deliberately (d) to act at the appointed time Directions (76-80): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d). 76. Enlightenment were a state of relaxed awareness. (a) had (b) has (c) is (d) No improvement 77. I complimented him for his success in the examination. (a) about (b) on (c) at (d) No improvement

78. He should not had ignored his friend. (a) should not have (b) should have not (c) should not has (d) No improvement 79. The judge asked the lawyer to be consistent with proof in the case. (a) corroboration (b) testimony (c) evidence (d) No improvement 80. Raju requested me to his birthday party tomorrow. (a) indulged (b) invited (c) inspired (d) No improvement Directions (81- 85): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 81. Pertaining to horses (a) equine (b) equestrian (c) equinox (d) equation 82. One who cannot be corrected (a) incurable (b) incorrigible (c) hardened (d) vulnerable 83. Difficult or impossible to read (a) illogical (b) illegible (c) ineligible (d) legible 84. An unexpected piece of good fortune (a) Turnstile (b) Windfall (c) Philanthropy (d) Benevolence 85. Those who go on to someone else’s land without the owner’s permission (a) delinquents (b) trespassers (c) offenders (d) culprits Directions (86-90): In the following questions. groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. 86. (a) (c) 87. (a) (c) 88. (a) (c)

desiccation desiccasion nigardlely nigardly relinquish relinqeush

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

dessication deziccation niggardly nigardly relenquish relinquesh

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ecspectation expectation assimilation assimillation

7 (b) (d) (b) (d)

expactation expectasion asimillation asimilation

Directions (91-100): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the Help of the alterna­tives given. PASSAGE (Question Nos. 91 to 100) Even during that cold winter afternoon, the postman was slowly pushing his bicycle up the hill that led out to the village. He used to walk very (91) because there was a lot of ice on the ground. He had only one letter to (92), this was for an (93) lady who leved at the (94) of the hill. Everyone (95) her ‘grandmother:. She had lived alone (96) since her daughter had emigrated (97) Australia many years (98). She (99) used to invite the postman for a cup of tea (100) he read her letters. 91. (a) (c) 92. (a) (c) 93. (a) (c) 94. (a) (c) 95. (a) (c) 96. (a) (c) 97. (a) (c) 98. (a) (c) 99. (a) (c) 100. (a) (c)

briskly fast post deliver ancient old foot end called branded even about for in since before always frequently always sometimes

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (d)

slowly leisurely handover give important illiterate top mouth named designated ever all about to after away rarely occasionly while often

PART III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 101. Of the three numbers, the sum of the first two is 55, sum of the second and third is 65 and sum of third with thrice of the first is 110. The third number is (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 28 102. Among the numbers greatest one is (a) 103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

2

2, 3 9, 4 16 5 32 , the

(b)

3 5

9 32

(c)

4

(a)

9 2 c.c. 4

(b) 27 3 c.c.

(c)

4 2 c.c. 9

(d) 9 3 c.c.

(d) 16 The sum of the numerator and denominator of a positive fraction is 11. If 2 is added to both numerator and denominator, the fraction is increased by 1/24. The difference of numerator and denominator of the fraction is (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 9 The expression 26n – 42n, where n is a natural number is always divisible by (a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 36 (d) 48 The sum of a pair of positive integers is 336 and their H.C.F. is 21. The number of such possible pairs is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 The difference between the exterior and interior angles at a vertex of a regular polygon is 150°. The number of sides of the polygon is (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 24 (d) 30 Each edge of a regular tetrahedron is 3 cm, then its volume is

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8 108. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere and that of the cone is 3 cm and height of the cone is 4 cm. The total surface area of the toy 22 ) is 7 (a) 75.43 sq. cm. (b) 103.71 sq. cm. (c) 85.35 sq. cm. (d) 120.71 sq. cm. 109. The respective heights and volumes of a hemisphere and a right circular cylinder are equal, then the ratio of their radii is

(taking p =

(a)

2: 3

(b)

3 :1

(c)

(d) 2 : 3 3: 2 110. The four equal circles of radius 4 cm drawn on the four corners of a square touch each other externally. Then the area of the portion between the square and the four sectors is (a) 9 (p – 4) sq. cm. (a) 16 (p – 4) sq. cm. (c) 9 (4 - p ) sq. cm. (d) 16 (4 - p ) sq.cm. 111. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are of lengths 15 cm and 18 cm. If the distance between two smaller sides is 12 cm, then the distance between two bigger sides is (a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 15 cm 112. A metal pipe is 21 cm long and its exterior diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and the metal weighs 8 gm/cm” the weight of the pipe 22 ö æ (in kg.) is ç use p = ÷ 7 ø è (a) 3.696 (b) 3.669 (c) 3.966 (d) 3.699 113. 2 men and 3 women can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 women can do the same work in 8 days. Then, 2 men and 1 woman can do the same work in (a) 12 days (b) 12 ½ days. (c) 13 days (d) 13 ½ days

114. A can do a work in 21 days. B is 40% more efficient than A. The number of days required for B to finish the same work alone is (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18 115. A discount series of 10%. 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of (a) 50% (b) 56.8% (c) 70% (d) 70.28% 116. In a shop, shirts are usually sold at 40% above the cost price. During a sale, the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% off the usual selling price. If he manages to sell 72 shirts for Rs. 13,608, then his cost price per shirt, in Rs. is (a) 210 (b) 150 (c) 149 (d) 125 117. If A : B = 4:9andA : C = 2 : 3, then (A + B) : (A + C) is (a) 15: 13 (b) 10 : 13 (c) 13: 1 0 (d) 13: 15 118. Two vessels A and B contains acid and water in the ratio 4 : 3 and 5 : 3 respectively. Then the ratio in which these mixtures to be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing acid and water in the ratio 3 : 2 is (a) 5 : 8 (b) 7 : 8 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 4 : 7 119. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is (a) 165 runs (b) 170 runs (c) 172 runs (d) 174 runs 120. Five years ago, the average age of P and Q was 25. The average age of P, Q and R today is 25. Age of R after 5 years will be (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 35

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9

121. Some toffees are bought at the rate of 11 for Rs. 10 and the same number at the rate of 9 for Rs 10. If the whole lot is sold at one rupee per toffee, find the gain or loss %. (a) Gain 2% (b) Loss 2% (c) Loss 1 % (d) Gain 1 % 122. If the cost price of 25 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 articles, then the gain percentageis (a) 20% (b) 22.5% (c) 25% (d) 27.5% 123. Shelf A has 4/5 of the number of books that shelf B has. If 25% of the books in A are transferred to B and then 25% of the books from B are transferred to A, then the percentage of the total number of books that A will have is (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 124. A vessel has 60 litres of solution of acid and water having 80% acid. How much water be added to make it a solution in which acid forms 60% ? (a) 48 litres (b) 20 litres (c) 36 litres (d) None of these 125. A man rows 40 km upstream in 8 hours and a distances of 36 km downstream in 6 hours. Then speed of stream is (a) 0.5 km/hr (b) 1.5 km/hr (c) 1 km/hr (d) 3 km/hr 126. The difference between simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% p.a. for 2 years is Rs. 160. Find the sum. (a) Rs. 64,000 (b) Rs. 60,000 (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 48,000 1 1 = 2, find the value of 8 x3 + 3 . 2x x (a) 48 (b) 88 (c) 40 (d) 44 128. If x = 2 – 21/3 + 22/3, then the value of x3– 6x2 + 18x + 18 is

127. If x +

(a) 22 (c) 40 129. If x + x17 +

130.

131.

132.

133.

134

135.

(b) 33 (d) 45 1 = 2 and k is real, then the value of x 1

x19

is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) –2 If x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y + 8 = 0, then the value of x - y is (a) 4 (b) – 4 (c) 0 (d) 8 3 3 3 If a – b – c – 3abc = 0, then (a) a = b= c (b) a + b + c = 0 (c) a + c = b (d) a = b + c In D ABC, O is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians and the area of D AOE = 15 cm2, then area of quadrilateral BDOF is (a) 20 cm2 (b) 30 cm2 (c) 40 cm2 (d) 25 cm2 The radius of two concentric circles are 9 cm and 15 cm. If the chord of the greater circle be a tangent to the smaller circle, then the length of that chord is (a) 24 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 18 cm O and C are respectively the orthocentre and circumcentre of an acute-angled triangle PQR. The points P and 0 are joined and produced to meet the side QR at S. If ÐPQS = 60° and ÐQCR = 130°, then ÐRPS = (a) 300 (b) 350 (c) 100° (d) 604 The length of a chord of a cir­cle is equal to the radius of the circle. The angle which this chord subtends in the major segment of the circle is equal to (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°

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10 136. In D ABC, AD is the internal bisector of LA, meeting the side BC at D. If BD = 5 cm, BC = 7.5 cm, then AB : AC is (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 5 137. If sin a + cos b = 2 (0° £ b < a £ 90°), then sin æ 2a + b ö ç ÷= è 3 ø

(a) 1

(b)

(c) 0

(d)

2+ 3 2 3

2

Directions (142- 146): Read the following graph and answer questions 142 to 146.

2a 3

2600

(d) cos

4200

a 3

2600

(c) sin

2800

a 3

2100

(b) cos

3100

a 2

2200

(a) sin

3600

Trade Deficit of a Country in Crores of Rupees

138. If cos4 q – sin 4 q = 2/3, then the value of 2 cos2 q – 1 is (a) 0 (b) 1

193 . The height of the monument (in 12 metre) is (a) 35 (b) 49 (c) 42 (d) 56 141. If sin a sec (30° + a) = 1 (0 < a < 60°), then the value of sin a + cos 2a is

1994-95

such that its tan gent is 1 . On walking 138 5 metres towards the monument the secant of the angle of elevation vation is found to be

1992-93

140. At a point on a horizontal line through the base of a monument, the angle of elevation of the top of the monument is found to be

1993-94

3

1991-92

1

1989-90

(d)

1990-91

3

1987-88

(c)

(d)

1988-89

2 3

3 2 139. The value of cot 10° . cot 20° . cot 60° . cot 70° . cot 80° is (a) 1 (b) –1 (c)

142. The deficit in 1993-94 was roughly how many times the deficit in 1990-91 ? (a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.5 (d) 0.5 143. Percentage increase in deficit in 1993-94 as compared to deficit in 1989-90 was (a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 100 (d) 2100 144. In which of the following years, the percent increase of deficit was highest over its preceding year? (a) 1992-93 (b) 1990-91 (c) 1993-94 (d) 1988-89 145. The ratio of the number of years, in which the trade deficit is above the average deficit, to those years in which the trade deficit is below the average deficit, is (a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 4 : 4 (d) 3 : 4 146. The deficit in 1992-93 was approximately how many percent of the average deficit? (a) 150 (b) 140 (c) 125 (d) 90

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Directions (147 - 150): Study the following table and answer questions 147 to 150 Employees Source of K income of (in `) Salary 12,000 Bonus 2,400 Overtime 5,400 Arrears 6,000 Miscellaneous 1,200 Total

27,000

L

M

N

O

6,000 1,200 2,100 5,400 300

21,000 4,500 6,000 12,000 1,500

9,000 2,400 5,100 4,200 300

12,000 3,000 6,000 7,500 1,500

15,000

45,000

21,000

30,000

147. The employee who has mini­mum ratio of income from arrears to income from salary is (a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N 148. The employee who earns max­imum bonus in comparison to his total Income. (a) M (b) N (c) L (d) K 149. The employee who has maxi­mum percentage of his salary out of the total income. (a) K (b) L (c) M (d) O 150. The income from overtime is what percent of the income from the arrears in case of employees in category O ? (a) 80 (b) 75 (c) 25 (d) 20

PART IV GENERAL AWARENESS 151. Cost of production of the producer is given by: (a) sum of wages paid to labourers. (b) sum of wages and interest paid on capital. (c) sum of wages, interest, rent and supernormal profit. (d) sum of wages, interest, rent and normal profit.

152. ‘Kesari’, the Newspaper was started by (a) G.K. Gokhale (b) B. G. Tilak (c) Sardar Patel (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 153. When was the Indian Constitution adopted? (a) 15th August, 1947 (b) 26th November, 1949 (c) 26th January, 1950 (d) 2nd October, 1952 154. Which one of the following is the smallest endocrine gland in human body ? (a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Pancreas 155. Double is a_______data type. (a) primitive (b) user defined (c) system defined (d) local 156. Yellow spots on citrus leaves is due to the deficiency of: (a) Zinc (b) Magnesium (c) Boron (d) Iron 157. Rangaswami Cup is associat­ed with (a) Wrestling (b) Football (c) Hockey (d) Golf 158. The working of a rockets based on the principle of: (a) Conservation of momentum (b) Conservation of mass (c) Conservation of energy (d) Conservation of angular momentum

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12 159. Which one of the following is a Wild Life Sanctuary ? (a) Jaldapara (b) Garumara (c) Corbett (d) Chapramari 160. The river which is used for inland waterways in India is . (a) Ganga (b) Cauveri (c) Mahi (d) Luni 161. The atmospheric layer closest to the earth is: (a) Mesosphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Ionosphere 162. ‘Yellow Revolution’ is associated with the production of (a) Poultry (b) Gold (c) Sunflower (d) Oil seeds 163. Under the “Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme”, the amount of pension for those above 80 years has been increased per month from ` 200 to (a) ` 300 (b) ` 400 (c) ` 500 (d) `1000 164. The state which has recently overtaken Karnataka for the top rank in the production of bio-fertilisers is (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab 165. The upper house of the State Legislature in India is called (a) Legislative Council (b) Legislative Assembly (c) Executive Council (d) Governor - in - Council 166. Maximum number of sugar factories are located in (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Bihar (d) Assam 167. The All Women Expedition Team of the Indian Air Force which scaled the Mount Everest some time back was headed by (a) Sqn. Ldr. D. Panda (b) Sqn. Ldr. Nirupama Pandey

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

(c) Flt. Lt. Nivedita Choudhary (d) Flt. Lt. Rajika Sharma While computing national income estimates, which of the following is required to be observed? (a) The value of exports to be added and the value of imports to be subtracted (b) The value of exports to be subtracted and the value of imports to be added (c) The value of both exports and imports to be added (d) The value of both exports and imports to be subtracted If the Prime Minister of India submits his resignation to the President, it will mean the resignation of the (a) Prime Minister only (b) Prime Minister and the Cabinet Ministers (c) Entire Council of Ministers (d) Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and the Speaker A fuse wire is made of: (a) an alloy of tin and copper (b) an alloy of tin and lead (c) an alloy of tin and aluminium (d) an alloy of nickel and chromium Iltutmish established a centre of learning at (a) Multan (b) Kolkata (c) Alwar (d) Patna The energy that can harness heat stored below the earth’s surface is known as ; (a) thermal energy (b) nuclear energy (c) tidal energy (d) geothermal energy The temperature of boiling water in a steam engine may be high because (a) there are dissolved substances in water (b) there is low pressure inside the boiler (c) there is high pressure inside the boiler (d) the fire is at very high temperature

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174. Konark which has famous ‘Sun God Temple’ with wonderful specimens of Hindu architecture lies in the state of: (a) Orissa (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh 175. AGMARK is a guarantee of standard (a) quality (b) quantity (c) weight (d) size 176. Vector of Kala-azar is (a) Anopheles mosquito (b) Culex mosquito (c) Tse-Tsefly (d) Sand fly 177. The World Day to Combat Desertification is observed every, year on: (a) 4th May (b) 17th June (c) 14th August (d) 3rd October 178. In case no party enjoys absolute majority in the Legislative Assembly of a state, the Governor will go by (a) the advice of former Chief Minister (b) the advice of the Prime Minister (c) the advice of the President of India (d) his own discretion 179. The planet that takes 88 days to make one revolution of the sun is (a) Mercury (b) Saturn (c) Jupiter (d) Mars 180. The chief raw material used for manufacturing Rayon is (a) Nylon (b) Cellulose (c) Silicon (d) Radium and Argon 181. ‘Giddha’ is a form of dance associated with the state of (a) Punjab (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Rajasthan 182. The gas used to dilute oxygen for breathing by deep sea divers is (a) Neon (b) Argon (c) Nitrogen (d) Helium

183. An instrument used to measure humidity is: (a) Anemometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Thermometer (d) Pyrheliometer 184. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separator because of: (a) Cohesive force (b) Gravitational force (c) Centripetal force (d) Centrifugal force 185. The market price is related to (a) very short period (b) short period (c) long period (d) very long period 186. The airways company acquired by South India’s ‘Sun Group’ is (a) Go Air (b) IndiGo (c) Spice Jet (d) Jet Airways 187. India is a secular state because in our country: (a) state has no religion (b) religion has been abolished (c) state patronises a particular religion (d) None of these 188. Who was the mother of Mahavira ? (a) Yashoda (b) Trishala (c) Jameli (d) Mahamaya 189. Equilibrium price is the price when (a) supply is greater than demand (b) supply is less than demand (c) demand is very high (d) supply is equal to demand 190. The Third battle of Panipat was fought in the year (a) 1526 A. D. (b) 1556 A. D. (c) 1761 A.D. (d) 1776 A.D. 191. Which of the following years has been ranked as one of the three warmest years ? (a) 2006 (b) 2008 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 192. Cadmium pollution is associated with (a) Minamata disease (b) Black foot disease (c) Dyslexia (d) Itaiitai

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14 193. The Great Bath of Indus Valley Civilization is found at; (a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro (c) Ropar (d) Kalibangan 194. Who invented ‘Helicopter’? (a) Cockrell (b) Brequet (c) Otis (d) Frank Whittle 195. Most of the computers available today are (a) 3rd generation computers (b) 4th generation computers (c) 5th generation computers (d) 6th generation computers 196. Bleaching powder is prepared by passing (a) Chlorine over slaked lime (b) Oxygen over slaked lime (c) Carbon dioxide over slaked lime (d) Chlorine over quick lime

197. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (a) Sodium isothiocyanate (b) Potassium isothiocyanate (c) Ethyl isothiocyanate (d) Methyl isothiocyanate 198. ‘National Botanical Garden’ is located at (a) Shimla (b) Kolkata (c) Lucknow (d) Bengaluru 199. October and November months give more rainfall to (a) Malwa Plateau (b) Chota Nagpur Plateau (c) Eastern Hills (d) Coromandal Coast 200. Which one of the following is considered as nature’s radar ? (a) Hippopotamus (b) Pigeon (c) Vulture (d) Owl

ANSWERS 1. (a) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31.(a) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (b) 91.(b) 101. (c) 111. (b) 121. (c) 131. (d) 141. (a) 151. (d) 161. (c) 171. (d) 181. (a) 191. (d)

2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (a) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (c) 102. (b) 112. (a) 122. (c) 132. (b) 142. (b) 152. (b) 162. (d) 172. (d) 182. (d) 192. (d)

3. (a) 13. (c) 23. (b) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (b) 63. (a) 73. (c) 83. (c) 93. (c) 103. (c) 113. (b) 123. (b) 133. (a) 143. (c) 153. (b) 163. (c) 173. (c) 183. (b) 193. (b)

4. (d) 14. (d) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (d) 74. (c) 84. (b) 94. (b) 104. (d) 114. (c) 124. (b) 134. (b) 144. (d) 154. (c) 164. (a) 174. (a) 184. (d) 194. (b)

5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (a) 45. (d) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (a) 85. (b) 95. (a) 105. (c) 115. (b) 125. (a) 135. (a) 145. (a) 155. (a) 165. (a) 175.(a) 185. (a) 195. (b)

6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (b) 56. (d) 66. (b) 76.(c) 86. (a) 96. (b) 106. (c) 116. (b) 126. (a) 136. (a) 146. (c) 156. (b) 166. (a) 176. (d) 186. (c) 196. (a)

7. (c) 17. (d) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (d) 57. (a) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (b) 97. (d) 107.(a) 117. (c) 127. (c) 137. (b) 147. (d) 157. (c) 167. (b) 177. (b) 187. (a) 197. (d)

8. (c) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (a) 68. (a) 78. (a) 88. (a) 98. (c) 108. (b) 118. (b) 128. (c) 138. (c) 148. (b) 158. (a) 168. (a) 178. (d) 188. (b) 198. (b)

9. (b) 19. (a) 29. (a) 39. (b) 49.(c) 59. (b) 69. (d) 79. (c) 89. (c) 99. (a) 109. (c) 119. (d) 129. (c) 139. (c) 149. (c) 159. (c) 169. (c) 179. (a) 189. (d) 199. (d)

10. (b) 20. (ac) 30. (c) 40. (c) 50. (d) 60. (c) 70. (b) 80. (b) 90. (a) 100. (b) 110. (d) 120. (b) 130. (c) 140. (c) 150. (a) 160. (a) 170. (b) 180. (b) 190. (c) 200. (b)

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15

SSC (10+2) LEVEL DATA ENTRY OPERATOR & LDC EXAM First Sitting

Held on : 11.12.2011

PART I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions, select the related word/ letters /number from the given alternatives. 1. Defy : Obey: : Rest : ? (a) Lazy (b) (c) Labour (d) 2. Water : Swim: : Land (a) Walk (b) (c) Sit (d) 3. Patient : Doctor : : (a) Student : Advisor (b) (c) Apple : Knife (d) 4. AN : BO : : CP : ? (a) DQ (b) (c) DS (d) 5. DDW : ECV :: FBU : ? (a) GAW (b) (c) VAG (d) 6. BCDZ : CDEV :: DEFT : ? (a) FFGQ (b) (c) EFGP (d) 7. 196 : 169 : :81 : ? (a) 64 (b) (c) 100 (d) 8. 30: ?: : 130: 222 (a) 30 (b) (c) 66 (d) 9. 4, 16,4 : 2, 4, 2 : : ? : 3, 9, 3 (a) 6, 9, 6 (b) (c) 9, 27, 9 (d)

Idle Work Stand Move Scissor : Iron Nurse : Surgeon FS FQ GAV GAT EGFR EFGS 72 144 40 68 9, 81, 9 9, 18,9

Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses : 10. (1) Pen (b) Crayon (c) Eraser (d) Pencil 11. (a) Moon (b) Mars (c) Venus (d) Jupiter 12. (a) Democracy (b) Parliament (c) Uncivil (d) Election 13. (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E 14. (a) EBD (b) IFH (c) QNO (d) YVX 15. (a) QRST (b) BECD (c) FIGH (d) LOMN 16. (a) 10 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 21 17. (a) 22-30 (b) 44-36 (c) 52-62 (d) 77-85 18. (a) 78-87 (b) 49-94 (c) 96-68 (d) 56-65 19. Arrange the following words according to English Dictionary. (a) Banal (b) Banana (c) Banish (d) Bandage (e) Bandit (a) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e) (b) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e) (c) (a), (b), (d), (e), (c) (d) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d) Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order ?

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16 20. (a) Atomic Age (b) Metallic Age (c) Stone Age (d) Alloy Age (a) (a), (c), (d), (b) (b) (c), (b), (d), (a) (c) (b), (c), (a), (d) (d) (d), (c), (b), (a) 21. (a) Cure (b) Doctor (c) Disease (d) Diagnosis (5) Medicine (a) (b), (d), (c), (5), (a) (b) (c), (b), (d), (5), (a) (c) (d), (b), (c), (5), (a) (d) (d), (c), (b), (a), (5) 22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? a _ cdd _bed _abe _ dab _ (a) baddc (b) abddc (c) badcd (d) bdadc Directions (23-26): In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one/two term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 23. Y, S, U, O, Q, ? ? (a) NO (b) LM (c) J K (d) H I 24. EAC, GCE, IEG, ? (a) JHI (b) KGI (c) JGI (d) KIJ 25. 1, 9, 25, ?, 81 (a) 36 (b) 49 (c) 64 (d) 28 26. 3, 6, 12, 21, ?, 48 (a) 31 (b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 38 27. Find the wrong number in the given series. 3, 6,11, 16, 27, 38. (a) 6 (b) 38 (c) 16 (d) 27 28. Showing a man a woman said, “his brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is the woman related to the man?

(a) Aunt (b) Sister (c) Daughter (d) Mother 29. F has less money than H but more than G. E has more than F but less than H. Who is the poorest? (a) F (b) E (c) H (d) G 30. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. (a) SEPTUM (b) RECTUM (c) CUSTOM (d) SPECT 31. A group of alphabets are giv­en with each being asigned a number. These have to be un­scrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses. U B A N R 1 2 3 4 5 (a) 1 4 2 3 5 (b) 1 5 2 3 4 (c) 4 1 5 3 2 (d) 5 3 4 2 1 32. APPRECIATION is coded as 177832419465. How will you code PERCEPTION? (a) 7382379465 (b) 7392378465 (c) 7292378465 (d) 7383297465 33. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation. 16 * 2 * 24 * 3 * 6 (a) + = – ÷ (b) × – + = (c) + ÷ = ÷ (d) – – ÷ = 34. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answerr for the unsolved equation. 6 – 9 – 2 = 926, 3 – 2 – 1 = 213, 0 – 4 – 8 = ? (a) 840 (b) 48 (c) 84 (d) 480 35. Which interchange of signs will make the following equa­tion correct? 30 – 6 + 4 + 2 × 3 = 7

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(a) + and × (c) – and ÷

(b) – and + (d) ÷ and –

Directions (36-37): In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given re­sponses. 36. 16 4 81 3 ? 25 (a) 97 (c) 125 37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

6 4 3 6 2 3 36 72

4 27 5

(b) 12 (d) 30

5 5 4 ?

(a) 100 (b) 175 (c) 125 (d) 120 A taxi driver commenced his journey from a point and drove 10km towards North and turned to his left and drove another 5 km. After waiting to meet one of his friends, he turned to his right and continuted to drive another 10 km. He has covered a distance of 25 km so far but in which direction he now may be? (a) North (b) East (c) West (d) South Sita cycled 8 km southward from her home turned right and cycled 5 km, turned right and cycled 8 km, turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kms will she have cycle to reach straight home? (a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 15 km (d) 13 km If in a code MASTER is written as SAMRET then how CAR­ROT be written in the same code? (a) RACTOR (b) RCATRO (c) RCATOR (d) ARMTOR Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East. C is between A and E. B is

just to the right of E but left of D. F is not at the right end. Who is at the right end? (a) D (b) B (c) E (d) C 42. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted red, green and black on pair of opposite fac­es. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only Red and Green faces? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24 43. One statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, fol­low from the given statements. Indicate your answer. Statement Many people feel nervous when giving a talk before a group. Conclusions I. Many people can talk confidently before a group. II. Very few people can talk confidently before a group. (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Neither I nor II follows (d) Both I and II follow 44. Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your an swer. Statements (i) Blue is Black and some Black is red. (ii) All red is Green but not Yellow Conclusions I. Some Blue is Green.

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18 II. No Black is Yellow. III. Some Black is not Yellow. IV. No Black is Green. (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and IV follow (c) Only I and III follow (d) Only I, II and IV follow 45. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? Question Figure

Question Figure A

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 49. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Honey-bee, Insect and Housefly?

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 46. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened? Question Figures

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 48. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line AB?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 3 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 4 to 7. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 00, 12, 21, etc. and ‘T’ can be repre­sented by 02, 10, 23, etc. Iden­tify the set for the word LAMB. MATRIX - I 0 1 2 3 0 A M T I 1 T I A M 2 1 A M T 3 M T I A MATRIX - II 4 5 6 7 4 E B L U 5 L U E B 6 U E B L 7 B L U E

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19 (b) 46, 12, 23, 57 (d) 46, 32, 01, 74

PART II ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (51-55): In the following questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, then your answer is (d) i.e. No error. 51. This custom (a)/ has come down (b)/ since times immemorial. (c) / No error. (d) 52. This letter will reach him (a)/ before he left (b)/ for Delhi. (c)/ No error. (d) 53. We stayed for (a)/ a short time (b) / in the hotel. (c)/ No error. (d) 54. Students are prohibited (a)/ to bring cycles (b)/ into the college. (c)/ No error. (d) 55. Unless you are careful, (a)/ you are bound to make mistake (b)/ in your work. (c)/ No error. (d) Directions (56-60): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it as your answer. 56. The aim of education is to____the best in students. (a) bring on (b) bring in (c) bring about (d) bring out 57. I have known him_______along time. (a) since (b) for (c) before (d) from 58. I wish I__________her to clean the room. (a) have asking (b) have asked (c) asked (d) had asked 59. He always takes full ______of the mistakes made by his friends. (a) benefit (b) advantage (c) profit (d) use

60. He drained what was left_____ his drink. (a) from (b) in (c) of (d) off Directions (61-65): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 61. Irresolute (a) undecided (c) ignorant 62. Frugal (a) economical (c) splendid 63. Motive (a) reason (c) intention 64. Pity (a) offence (c) kindness 65. Quash (a) question (c) reject

(b) angry (d) firm (b) delicate (d) hungry (b) occasion (d) preparation (b) mercy (d) joy (b) pledge (d) slash

Directions (66-70): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 66. Quiet (a) strong (c) incomplete 67. Vague (a) clear (c) unknown 68. Incredible (a) believable (c) imaginable 69. Inevitable (a) avoidable (c) inseparable 70. Humility (a) dignity (c) anger

(b) noisy (d) violent (b) dull (d) shady (b) possible (d) enjoyable (b) unnecessary (d) uncertain (b) cruelty (d) pride

Directions (71-75): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in

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20 bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. 71. As a businessman, my father always maintained that his transactions constituted an open book. (a) an account book always open (b) a book of open confessions (c) an opening for new ventures (d) straight forward and honest dealings 72. The project advanced by leaps and bounds. (a) rapidly (b) slowly (c) sharply (d) simply 73. She is too fond of her own voice. (a) loves singing (b) very selfish (c) does not listen properly to anyone else (d) very talkative 74. Indian police is, on the whole, high handed in dealing with citizens. (a) kind (b) overbearing (c) prompt (d) adept 75. I take exception to your statement that I am bad tempered. (a) do not agree (b) feel unhappy (c) object (d) feel angry Directions (76-80): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). 76. My foot is paining. (a) aching (b) ailing. (c) hurting (d) No improvement 77. The light went out while I read, (a) was reading (b) am reading (c) had read (d) No improvement 78. She said me about her holiday in Kerala. (a) told about (b) said about (c) told me about (d) No improvement

79. Why do you prefer the theatre than the cinema? (a) for (b) against (c) to (d) No improvement 80. He is the only man I know who can laugh at himself. (a) whose (b) whom (c) which (d) No improvement Directions (81-85): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 81. Place where wine is made (a) bakery (b) cloakroom (c) tannery (d) brewery 82. A paper written by hand (a) handicraft (b) handiwork (c) manuscript (d) thesis 83. The art of preserving skin of animals, birds and fish (a) taxonomy (b) taxidermy (c) topology (d) seismology 84. Related to moon (a) solar (b) moony (c) lunar (d) honeymoon 85. The plants and vegetation of a region (a) flora (b) fauna (c) landscape (d) environment Directions (86-90): In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. 86. (a) (c) 87. (a) (c) 88. (a) (c) 89. (a) (c) 90. (a) (c)

systamatically systematicaly erthiness earthhiness truely truily allienate alienatte vacilliation vacillation

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

systematically systimatically earthines earthiness truly trueily aliennate alienate vasillation vacilation

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Directions (91-100): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in’ the blanks with the help of the al­ternatives given. PASSAGE (Question Nos. 91 to 100) The true elixir of life near to our hands is the commonest of all liquids, plain water. It has 91 a role of vast significance in 92 the course of earth’s history and 93 to play the leading role in the 94 of life on the surface of our 95 . Indeed, there is noth­ing here which 96 so much to the beauty of the 97 as water, be it just a little 98 trickling over the rocks or a 99 pond by the way side where animals100 their thirst. 91. (a) (c) 92. (a) (c) 93. (a) (c) 94. (a) (c) 95. (a) (c) 96. (a) (c) 97. (a) (c) 98. (a) (c) 99. (a) (c) 100. (a) (c)

done created shaping preventing decides prepares movement scene star planet deduces detracts countryside humanbeings river waterfalls dirty huge complete pamper

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (d)

played developed solving uplifting continues refuses drama future constellation sea adds brightens river skies stream well short little quench destroy

PART III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 101. From each of the two given unequal numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted. Then, of the resulting numbers,

the larger one is five times than the smaller one. Then the ratio of the larger to smaller one is (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 102. The largest number among (a)

2

(b)

3

2, 3 3, 4 4 is

3

(d) All are equal (c) 4 4 103. A got married 8 years ago. A’s 1 persent age is 1

1 times his age at the time of marriage. 4

1 times his present age. 10 His son’s age in years, is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 104. When an integer K is divided by 3, the remainder is 1, and when K + 1 is divided by 5, the remainder is 0. Of the following, a possible value of K is (a) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 105. A farmer has 945 cows and 2475 sheep. He farms then into flocks, keeping cows and sheep separate and having the same number of animals in each flock. If these flocks are as large as possible, then the maximum number of animals in each flock and total num­ber of flocks required for the purpose are respectively (a) 15 and 228 (b) 9 and 380 (c) 45 and 76 (d) 46 and 75 106. The number of sides in two regular polygons are in the ratio 5 : 4 and the difference between each interior angle of the polygons is 6°. Then the number of sides are (a) 15, 12 (b) 5A (c) 10, 8 (d) 20, 16

A’s son’s age is

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22 107. If the length of each side of a regular tetrahedron is 12 cm, then the volume of the tetra­hedron is (a) 144 V-2 cu. cm. (b) 72 f cu. cm. (c) 8, cu. cm. (d) 12 J cu. cm. 108. If the radii of the circular ends of a truncated conical bucket which is 45cm high be 28 cm and 7 cm, then the capacity of the bucket in 22 ö æ cubic centimetre is uses ç use p = ÷ 7 ø è (a) 48510 (b) 45810 (c) 48150 (d) 48051 109. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal base and have the same height. Their volumes are in the ratio (a) 1: 3: 2 (b) 2: 3: 1 (c) 1: 2: 3 (d) 3: 1: 2 110. A metal wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area 484 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, then (taking x = p = 22 ) its area is 7 (a) 308 cm2 (b) 506 cm2 (c) 600 cm2 (d) 616 cm2 111. Sides of a parallelogram are in the ratio 5 : 4. Its area is 1000 sq. units. Altitude on the greater side is 20 units. Altitude on the smaller side is (a) 30 units (b) 25 units (c) 10 units (d) 15 units 112. A circus tent is cylindrical up to a height of 3 m and conical above it. If its diameter is 105m and the slant height of the conical part is 63 m, then the total area of the canvas required to make the tent is 22 ö æ ç take p = ÷ 7 ø è 2 (a) 11385 m (b) 10395 m2 2 (c) 9900 m (d) 990 m2

113. B and C can complete a piece of work in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days. All the three can do it in 6 days. A and B together can complete it in (a) 4 days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 10 days 114. A can do a work in 9 days, if B is 50% more efficient than A, then in how many days can B do the same work? (a) 13.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 6 (d) 3 115. The successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of (a) 30% (b) 28% (c) 25% (d) 27% 116. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20% on the marked price. The dealer has a (a) loss of 20% (b) gain of 25% (c) loss of 12% (d) gain of 12% 117. If 120% of a is equal to 80% of b, then

b+ a b-a

is equal to (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 118. The ratio of spirit and water in two mixturers of 20 litre and 36 litre is 3 : 7 apd 7 : 5 respectively. Both the mixtures are mixed together. Now the ratio of the spirit and water in the new mixture is (a) 25: 29 (b) 9 : 10 (c) 27: 29 (d) 27: 31 119. The average of n numbers x1,… x2 is x . Then the value of

n

å ( xi - x ) is equal to i=1 t =1

(a) n (b) 0 (c) nx (d) x 120. The average of six numbers is 32. If each of the first three numbers is increased by 2 and

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121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

23

each of the remaining three numbers is decreased by 4, then the new average is (a) 35 (b) 34 (c) 31 (d) 30 The cost price : selling price of an article is a : b. If b is 200% of a then the percentage of profit on cost price is (a) 75% (b) 125% (c) 100% (d) 200% A person sells 400 mangoes at the cost price of 320 mangoes. His percentage of loss is (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25 A person ordered 4 shirts of brand A and some shirts of brand B. The price of one shirt of brand A was twice that of brand B. When the order was executed, it was found that the numbers of the two brands has been interchanged. This increased the bill by 40%. The ratio of the number of brand A shirts to that of brand B shirts in the original order was (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1: 4 (d) 1 : 5 A litre of pure alcohol is added to 6 litres of 30% alcohol solution. The percentage of water in the solution is (a) 50% (b) 65% (c) 60% (d) 40% A man can row 30 km down­stream and return in a total of 8 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is four times the speed of the current, then the of the speed current is (a) 1 km/hour (b) 2 km/hour (c) 4 km/hour (d) 3 km/hour The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs.1. Find the sum. (a) Rs .630 (b) Rs. 620 (c) Rs. 625 (d) Rs. 635

127. If x2 + 2 = 2x, then the value of x4– x3+ x2 + 2 is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –l

(d)

2

 1 1 1 128. If 2x = 3y= 6– z then  x  y  z  is equal to   (a) 0 3 2

(c) 129. If

(b) 1 (d) - 1 2

1 1 1 = + x+ y x y

( x ¹ 0, y ¹ 0, x ¹ y ) then, the

value of x3 – y3 is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –l (d) 2 130. For real a, b, c if a2 + b2 + c2 – ab + bc + ca, then value of

a+c is b

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 131. If x = a (b – c), y = b (c – a) and z = c (a – b), then 3

3

3

æ xö æ yö æ zö ç ÷ +ç ÷ +ç ÷ = èaø èbø ècø (a) xyz 3abc 3xyz (c) abc

(b) 3 xyzabc (d)

xyz abc

132. In a quadrilateral ABCD, with unequal sides if the diagonals AC and BD intersect at right angles, then (a) AB2 + BC2 = CD2 + DA2 (b) AB2 + CD2 = BC2 + DA2 (c) AB2 + AD2 = BC2 + CD2 (d) AB2 + BC2 = 2(CD2 + DA2) 133. The tangents are drawn at the extremities of a diameter AB of a circle with centre P. If a

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2

sin q + cos q = 3, then the value of sin4q – sin q - cos q cos4q is

138. If

1 (a) 5

(c)

3 5

2 (b) 5

(d)

4 5

139. The value of tan l °. tang’ tan3°. tan4° ... tan87°. tan88°. tan89° is

30 27.5

30

2 3

22.5

(d)

35

2

Glucose biscuit Cream Cracker biscuit Salted biscuit

25

(b)

50 45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5

22.5 27.5

3

Directions (142-146): The bar diagram given below shows the productions (in the unit of thousand pieces) of three types of biscuits by a company in the five consecutive years. Study the diagram and answer the following questions 142 to 146

30

2

(d) 30 3 (c) 28 3 141. If sec2q + tan2q = 7, then the value of q when 0° £ q £ 90° is (a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 0° (d) 90°

20

(c)

1

(b) 20 3

25

(a)

(a) 25 3

(0° < q < 90°) the value

of 2 sinq + cosq is

3

(c) 1 (d) undefined 140. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side of a road which is 100m wide. From a point between them on road, angles of elevation of their tops are 30° and 60°. The height of each pole in metre, is

30

2

(b)

3

22.5

1

1

12.5

137. If 2cosq – sinq =

(a)

20

tangent to the circle at the point C intersects the other two tangents at g and R, then the measure of the ÐQPR is (a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 180° 134. Let O be the in-centre of a triangle ABC and D be a point on the side BC of DABC, such that OD ^ BC. If ÐBOD = 15°, then ÐABC= (a) 75° (b) 45° (c) 150° (d) 90° 135. AB is a chord to a circle and PAT is the tangent to the cir cle at A. If ÐBAT = 75° and ÐBAC = 45°, C being a point on the circle, then ÐABC is equal to (a) 40° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 70° 136. D is any point on side AC of DABC. If P, Q, X, Yare the midpints of AB, BC, AD and DC respectively, then the ratio of PX and QY is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3

1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 Years

142. The percentage drop in the number of glucose biscuits manufactured from 1994 to 1995 is (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 20 143. The difference (in the unit of thousand pieces) between the total number of cream cracker biscuits manufactured in the years

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1993, 1995 and 1997 and the total number of the biscuits of same type in the years 1994 and 1996 is (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 20 144. Total production of all the three types of biscuits was the least in the year (a) 1993 (b) 1997 (c) 1996 (d) 1995

145. The production of all the three types of biscuits was maximum in the year (a) 1995 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1993 146. The ratio of production of glucose biscuits and total production of biscuits in that year was maximum in (a) 1994 (b) 1993 (c) 1996 (d) 1997

Directions (147-150 : Study the following table which shows the number of studetns appeared and passed in diffeent streams in a University and answer the questions given below it Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2006

Engineering App Pass eared 324 289 356 312 284 212 310 246 380 286

Medical App Pass eared 469 246 430 364 384 326 395 298 466 405

147. Approximately what per cent of students appearing in medical, passed in 2003 ? (a) 75% (b) 85% (c) 78% (d) 88% 148. Approximately what per cent of total students appearing in 2004, appeared in commerce stream? (a) 55.3% (b) 64.4% (c) 52.5% (d) 59.3% 149. The number of students appearing in all streams was minimum in the year (a) 2002 (b) 2003 (c) 2004 (d) 2006 150. The number of students passing in all streams was maxi­mum in the year. (a) 2001 (b) 2005 (c) 2006 (d) 2004

Management App Pass eared 96 69 74 62 124 102 106 92 78 63

Commerce App Pass eared 1467 1310 1246 1129 1387 1176 1180 1074 1375 1207

PART IV GENERAL AWARENESS 151. Which one of the following is not included while estimating national income through income method? (a) Rent (b) Mixed incomes (c) Pension (d) Undistributed profits 152. Taxation is a tool of (a) Monetary policy (b) Fiscal policy (c) Price policy (d) Wage policy 153. Globalisation means (a) Integration of economy (b) Integration of financial market (c) Integration of the domestic economy with the world economy (d) Integration of the various sectors of economy

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26 154. Which is the artificial port of India? (a) Kandla (b) Mangalore (c) Chennai or Madras (d) Haldia 155. The Nobel Prize was instituted by the country (a) USA (b) UK (c) Russia (d) Sweden 156. Which of the following motion is related with the Union Budget ? (a) Adjournment (b) Censure (c) Cut (d) None of the above 157. Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were taken from the Constitution of (a) Britain (b) Ireland (c) USA (d) Canada 158. As per Indian Constitution, the Right to Property is a (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right (c) Legal Right (d) Moral Right 159. The success of democracy depends upon the (a) Right to criticise (b) Right to association (c) Right to personal liberty (d) Right to property 160. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Finance Minister (d) Vice-President 161. In 1937, the Congress formed ministries in (a) 7 states (b) 9 states (c) 5 states (d) 4 states 162. Kalinga war took place in the year (a) 261 BC (b) 263 BC (c) 232 BC (d) 240 BC 163. The Akaal Takht was built by (a) Guru Ramdas (b) Guru Teg Bahadur (c) Guru Hargovind (d) Guru Nanak

164. Who was the regent of Akbar in his early days ? (a) Abul Fazl (b) Bairam Khan (c) Tansen. (d) Todarmal 165. Before assuming the office of the Sultan of Delhi Balban was the Prime Minister of Sultan (a) Nasir-ud-din (b) Qutub-ud-din-Albak (c) Bahrem Shah (d) Aram Shah 166. Which one of the following is known as the ‘brown coal’? (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous (c) Coke (d) Lignite 167. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is at (a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Mumbai (c) Hyderabad (d) Bengaluru 168. Which one of the following is known as the ‘Pearl City’? (a) Kandla (b) Tuticorin (c) Kochi (d) Hyderabad 169. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of (a) Cotton (b) Oil-seeds (c) Pulses (d) Maize 170. Which planet in our solar system is nearly as big as the earth ? (a) Mercury (b) Mars (c) Venus (d) Pluto 171. In onion the edible part is (a) Leaf (b) Root (c) Stem (d) Flower 172. Mushroom cultivation is not useful in (a) Biogas production (b) Biological control of crop diseases (c) Recycling of agricultural wastes (d) Preventing cancer 173. The Drone in honey bee are (a) Fertile male (b) Fertile female (c) Sterile male (d) Sterile female

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174. Of which tissue nails, hoofs and horns are made of (a) Cutide (b) Chitin (c) Keratin (d) Tunicin 175. Haemoglobin has highest affinity for (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Nitrogen 176. Which chromosomal combination is responsible for maleness in man ? (a) XO (b) XXX (c) XX (d) XY 177. The Newton’s First Law is also called as (a) Law of moments (b) Law of inertia (c) Law of energy (d) Law of momentum 178. If we want to calculate the pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel, the quantity which is not required to determine it, is (a) Height of the liquid column (b) Surface area of the bottom of the vessel (c) Density of the liquid (d) Acceleration due to gravity at the bottom of the vessel 179. The water from a hand pump is warm in winter because (a) Our body is cold in winter and the water appears to be warm (b) The temperature inside the earth is higher than the atmospheric temperature (c) The pumping process causes friction which warms up the water (d) Inside water comes out and absorbs heat from the environment 180. A water tank appears shallower when it is viewed from top due to (a) rectilinear propagation of light (b) reflection (c) total internal reflection (d) refraction 181. Small and cheap computers built into several home appliances are of which type?

182.

183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

(a) Mainframes (b) Mini computers (c) Microcomputers (d) None of the above What is the process of defining tables called? (a) Data definition (b) Data Normalisation (c) Index definition (d) Data administration The chief source of naphthalene is (a) Coaltar (b) Diesel (c) Charcoal (d) Camphor Why is water not suitable for putting out a petrol fire ? (a) The oxygen content of water is isolated by petrol and thus it helps in burning (b) Petrol is too inflammable to be extinguished by water (c) The heat required for combustion of petrol is very low (d) Water, being heavy, slips below petrol which thus remains in contact with air and burns Milk is (a) Emulsion (b) Suspension (c) Foam (d) Gel The chemical substance present in bones and teeth’ is (a) Calcium phosphate (b) Calcium chloride (c) Calcium sulphate (d) Calcium borate Social forestry is (a) growing different types of plants together on private land (b) management of forest by cooperative societies (c) growing one type of plant in government owned land (d) growing and management of useful plants on government owned land Which of the following exhibits unidirectional flow in an ecosystem ? (a) Light (b) Energy (c) Water (d) Biomass

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28 189. Maximum permissible concentration of copper in drinking water in mg/L is (a) 0.01 (b) 0.05 (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0 190. Earth Summit was held in (a) Chicago (b) Adelaide (c) London (d) Rio de Jeneiro 191. Who invented Penicillin ? (a) William Harvey (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Alexander Fleming (d) Edward Jenner 192. The coins of which of the following reveal their love for music ? (a) Mauryas (b) Nandas (c) Guptas (d) Cholas 193. Who of the following won the Wimbledon 2011 Women’s Singles title ? (a) Maria Sharapova (b) Petra Kvitova (c) Venus Williams (d) Serena Williams 194. The Vice-President Hamid Ansari presented the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi fellow­ships and awards for the year 2010 on July 22, 2011. Who of the following received award in the field of music ? (a) Chhanu Lal Mishra (b) Malabika Mitra (c) Atamjit Singh (d) T. K. Murthy

195. How many new Duranto Trains are proposed to be introduced as per the Railway Budget 2011-12 ? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 10 196. According to the latest data of the Planning Commission, poverty based on the formula suggested by the Tendulkar Committee in 2009-10 has declined to (a) 36% (b) 32% (c) 28% (d) 24% 197. After ONGC, OTC, NTPC and SAIL, the ‘Navratna’ PSU which was awarded ‘Maharatna’ status is (a) HAL (b) GAIL (c) Coal India Ltd (d) BHEL 198. Which of the following regis­ters the highest dnsity in the country as per Census 2011? (a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh (c) Puducherry (d) West Bengal 199. On June 9, 2011 India suc­cessfully flight tested (a) Agni-I (b) Agni-II (c) Prithvi-II (d) Akash 200. Right to Education became a fundamental right on (a) March 15, 2010 (b) April 1, 2010 (c) July 17, 2010 (d) October 10, 2010

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ANSWERS 1. (c) 11. (a) 21. (b) 31. (b) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (a) 71. (d) 81. (d) 91. (b) 101. (c) 111. (b) 121. (c) 131. (c) 141. (a) 151. (c) 161. (a) 171. (c) 181. (c) 191. (c)

2. (a) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (b) 62. (a) 72. (a) 82. (c) 92. (a) 102. (b) 112. (a) 122. (c) 132. (b) 142. (c) 152. (b) 162. (a) 172. (b) 182. (a) 192. (c)

3. (a) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (d) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (c) 73. (c) 83. (b) 93. (b) 103. (c) 113. (c) 123. (b) 133. (c) 143. (b) 153. (c) 163. (c) 173. (a) 183. (a) 193. (b)

4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (a) 54. (b) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (c) 94. (a) 104. (c) 114. (c) 124. (c) 134. (c) 144. (a) 154. (c) 164. (b) 174. (c) 184. (d) 194. (a)

5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (b) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (a) 95. (c) 105. (c) 115. (b) 125. (b) 135. (c) 145. (a) 155. (d) 165. (a) 175. (a) 185. (a) 195. (c)

6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (b) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (a) 86. (b) 96. (b) 106. (a) 116. (d) 126. (c) 136. (b) 146. (b) 156. (c) 166. (d) 176. (d) 186. (a) 196. (b)

7. (a) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (a) 47. (b) 57. (b) 67. (a) 77. (a) 87. (d) 97. (c) 107. (a) 117. (a) 127. (a) 137. (c) 147. (b) 157. (b) 167. (a) 177. (b) 187. (b) 197. (c)

8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (b) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (c) 68. (a) 78. (c) 88. (b) 98. (b) 108. (a) 118. (c) 128. (a) 138. (c) 148. (d) 158.(c) 168. (d) 178. (b) 188. (b) 198. (a)

9. (b) 19. (c) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (b) 69. (a) 79. (c) 89. (d) 99. (c) 109. (c) 119. (b) 129. (a) 139. (c) 149. (c) 159. (c) 169. (c) 179. (b) 189. (c) 199. (c)

10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (c) 40. (a) 50. (a) 60. (c) 70. (b) 80. (d) 90. (c) 100. (b) 110. (d) 120. (c) 130. (b) 140. (a) 150. (b) 160. (b) 170. (c) 180. (d) 190. (d) 200. (b)

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SSC (10+2) LEVEL DATA ENTRY OPERATOR & LDC EXAM Second Sitting

Held on : 11.12.2011 Directions (10- 18): Select the one which is different from the other three responses

PART-I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE Directions (1-9): Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives. 1. Horse : Hoof : : ? (a) Man : Foot (b) Dog : Black (c) Paise : Rupee (d) Pen : Pencil 2. LO : PK :: IR : ? (a) GT (b) SH (c) MN (d) FU 3. Night : Morning :: ? : Night (a) Noon (b) Forenoon (c) Afternoon (d) Evening 4. QTU :: LM :: BEF : ? (a) PSZ (b) CFH (c) WZA (d) UXB 5. 6524: 6465: : 9638: ? (a) 9825 (b) 9736 (c) 9697 (d) 9579 6. 64 : 144 : : 256 : ? (a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 400 (d) 336 7. 08 : 28 : : 15 : ? (a) 63 (b) 65 (c) 126 (d) 124 8. ACEG : ZXVT : : HJLM : ? (a) QOMK (b) SRPO (c) RPNL (d) SQON 9. Oxygen : Burn : : Carbondioxide : ? (a) Isolate (b) Foam (c) Extinguishes (d) Explode

10. (a) Pen (b) Marker (c) Paper (d) Pencil 11. (a) ABDG (b) CDFI (c) EFHK (d) GHJK 12. (a) Graph (b) Chart (c) Model (d) Drawing 13. (a) 73 (b) 53 (c) 87 (d) 67 14. (a) Peak (b) Mountain (c) Hillock (d) Valley 15. (a) 919-949 (b) 646-686 (c) 828-848 (d) 434 464 16. (a) NML (b) OPQ (c) X W V (d) H G E 17. (a) E (b) 1 (c) O (d) V 18. (a) 24-47 (b) 38-61 (c) 74-98 (d) 54-77 19. Arrange the following words according to English Dictionary. (A) gargle (B) garden (C) garbo (D) garnish (E) garland (a) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) (b) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D) (c) (C), (B), (D), (E), (A) (d) (D), (C), (B), (A), (E) Directions (20 - 21): Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order ?

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20. (A) Vegetable (B) Market (C) Cutting (D) Cooking (E) Food (a) (A), (B), (D), (D), (E) (b) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E) (c) (C), (A). (B), (E), (D) (d) (E), (B), (A), (C), (D) . 21. (A) Honey (B) Flower (C) Honey Bee (D) Wax (a) (A), (C), (D), (B) (b) (B), (A), (D), (C) (c) (B), (C), (A), (D) (d) (D), (C), (B), (A) 22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? _bb_c_bg_b_g (a) cbgbc (b) cgbcb (c) cgbcc (d) gbcbb Directions (23-26): Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 23. 169,144,121,100, ? (a) 99 (b) 74 (c) 81 (d) 101 24. FLU, GMV, HNW, IOX, ? (a) JYP (b) WYP (c) WPY (d) JPY 25. A,P,C,Q,E,R,G, ? , (a) SI (b) H I (c) IS (d) T J 26. 5, ? , 23, 47, 95, 191. (a) 13 (b) 10 (c) 17 (d) 11 27. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. EDUCATIONAL (a) NATIONAL (b) NEAT (c) DEAN (d) LION 28. Find the wrong number in the given series. 20, 40, 200, 400, 2000, 4000, 8000 (a) 200 (b) 2000 (c) 8000 (d) 4000

29. Which of the following inter­changes of signs would make the given equation correct ? 5 + 6 + 3 –12 × 2 = 17 (a) ÷ and × (b) ÷ and × (c) + and ÷ (d) + and – 30. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK then how will THROW be coded ? (a) HTO RW (b) HTWOR (c) HTWRO (d) HTROW 31. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation. 5 + 3 + 7 = 573; 6 + 3 + 9 = 693; 6 + 4 + 8 = 684; 9 + 4 + 5 = ? (a) 594 (b) 945 (c) 459 (d) 954 32. If Anil runs less fast than Su­nil and Sunil runs as fast but not faster than Suraj, then Suraj runs: (a) As fast as Anil (b) Faster than Sunil (c) Faster than Anil (d) Less fast than Anil 33. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation 16 * 4 * 3 * 4 * 13 (a) ÷ × – = (b) × – + = (c) + = ÷ × (d) – × ÷ = 34. If BANGALORE is written as 987685432, how is ELLORA written in the same code ? (a) 245538 (b) 255438 (c) 245348 (d) 254538 35. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses. EOCNA 12345

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32 (a) 3 4 5 2 1 (b) 2 3 1 5 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 5 (d) 1 3 2 5 4 36. Looking at a photograph a person said “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son”. At whose photograph was the person looking at ? (a) His son’s (b) His nephew (c) His father’s (d) His own Directions (37-38): Select the missing number from the given responses. 37. 5 4 9 6 7 5 2 4 1 3 4 5 35 60 72 ? (a) 116 (b) 136 (c) 120 (d) 126 38. 64 36 2 81 25 4 144 16 ? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 16 39. Mitan travelled 12 kms south­ward, then turned left and travelled 10 kms, then turned left and travelled 12 km. How far was Mitan from the starting point ? (a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 12 km (d) 14 km 40. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East. ‘C’ is between ‘A’ and ‘E’, ‘B’ is just to the right of ‘E’ but left of ‘D’, ‘F’ is not at the right end. Which pair is sitting by the side of, ‘D’? (a) CE (b) FA (c) EB (d) FD 41. The question below has a statement followed by two assumptions. You have to decide whether the assumption is implied in the statement. Indicate your answer. Statement Rich people are more prone to have heart attacks.

Assumptions : (I) Most of the deaths among rich people are due to heart attacks. (II) Poor people do not have heart attacks. (a) Only (a) is implicit (b) Only (II) is implicit (c) Both (I) and (II) are implicit (d) Neither (I) nor (II) is implicit 42. Mohan starts from point A and walks 1 km towards south, turns left and walks 1 km. Then turns left again and walks 1 km. Now which direction he is facing? (a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South—West 43. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted red, green and black on pair of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only two faces painted ? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32 44. Three statements are given followed by four conclusions. (I), (II), (1II) and (IV). You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer. Statements (1) All dogs are rats. (2) All rats are crows. (3) All crows are parrots. Conclusions (I) All dogs are parrots. (II) Some parrots are dogs. (III)Some crows are dogs. (IV)All rats are dogs. (a) Only (I) and (Il) follow (b) Only (I), (II) and (III) follow (c) Either (II) or (IV) follow (d) Either (I) or (II) or (lll) follow

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45. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ? Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 46. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened? Question Figures

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 48. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line AB? Question Figure

Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) 49. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given be­low. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 55, 67, 86, etc and ‘R’ can be represented by 04, 23, 30, etc. Identify the set for the word DOOR. Matrix I 0 1 2 3 4 0 F O M S R 1 S R F O M 2 O M S R F 3 R F O M S 4 M S R F O Matrix II 5 6 7 8 9 5 A T D l P 6 I P A T D 7 T D I P A 8 P A T D I 9 D I P A T (a) 69, 44, 20, 43 (b) 76, 01, 44, 24 (c) 95, 20, 44, 12 (d) 57, 13, 32, 23 50. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among horses, parrots and birds ?

A

B

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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PART-II ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (51-55): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The num­ber of that part is your answer. If there is no error, then your answer is (d) i.e. No error. 51. Due to the heavy rains (a)/ the ship drowned (b)/ in the middle of the ocean. (c)/ No error (d) 52. Death of (a)/ his only son (b)/ made Mohan desolate. (c)/ No error (d) 53. He fell heavily (a)/ and this caused (b)/ him great pain. (c)/ No error (d) 54. When I met him (a)/ the couple of days back (b)/ he was writing a new book. (c)/ No error (d) 55. In his old age, (a)/ a person is likely to get (b)/ more weak day by day. (c)/ No error (d) Directions (56 - 60): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it as your answer. 56. Our teacher_____several points before the exams. (a) cleared off (b) cleared away (c) cleared up (d) cleared out 57. Let me give you___. (a) an advise (b) any advice (c) some advice (d) some advises 58. The cart was driven____bullocks. (a) with (b) off (c) to (d) by 59. Simon_____very polite at the moment, because he wants to make a good impression. (a) was being (b) has been (c) is behaving (b) is being.

60. If I don’t_____advantage of this platform, then how dare I be a film maker ? (a) make (b) take (c) bring (d) find Directions (61 - 65): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 61. meticulous (a) correct (c) methodical 62. abundant (a) sufficient (c) significant 63. anticipate (a) antagonise (c) accept 64. restrict (a) curtail (c) retain 65. tremendous (a) awesome (c) considerable

(b) clean (d) painstaking (b) plentiful (d) vibrant (b) expect (d) hope (b) prohibit (d) retail (b) remarkable (d) excessive

Directions (66 - 70): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the giv­en word. 66. make (a) liberate (c) emancipate 67. praise (a) heckle (c) hate 68. terminate (a) hasten (c) begin 69. rapidly (a) lazily (b) secretly (c) slowly 70. successor (a) failure (c) predecessor

(b) break (d) bind (b) accuse (d) scold (b) depart (d) change

(d) firmly (b) loser (d) predator

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Directions (71 - 75): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase. 71. The officer called for an explanation from the cashier for the shortage of cash. (a) asked (b) begged (c) served a notice (d) demanded 72. The actress took cue from her .brother and became successful. (a) some help (b) a hint (c) some money (d) learnt acting 73. We wanted the gift to be a sur prise for my mother, but my sister gave the game away. (a) lost the game (b) gave out the secret (c) gave away the gift (d) withdrew from the plan 74. Let us have a heart to heart talk to solve this problem. (a) good talk (b) emotional talk (c) frank talk (d) loving talk 75. His speech fell short on the audience. (a) had no effect (b) moved the audience (c) impressed the audience (d) was quite short Directions (76 - 80): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). 76. He said that he saw him last year, to discuss the documents. (a) met (b) had seen (c) seen (d) No improvement 77. Them shoes are mine. (a) Those (b) That (c) Their (d) No improvement 78. Unity in diversity is the most noticeable

quality of India____ (a) popular (b) remarkable (c) famous (d) No improvement 79. He is addicted to alcohol and exerts a bad influence for his family. (a) on (b) in (c) about (d) No improvement 80. Kalidasa is the Shakespeare of India. (a) Shakespeare (b) a Shakespeare (c) like Shakespeare (d) No improvement Directions (81-82): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 81. Book giving information about every branch of knowledge (a) Directory (b) Dictionary (c) Encyclopaedia (d) Dissertation 82. Member of a tribe that wanders from place to place with no fixed home (a) Vagabond (b) Nomad (c) Wanderer (d) Truant 83. Fit to be chosen (a) Eligible (b) Capable (c) Suitable (d) Valuable 84. An animal or plant living in or upon another (a) master (b) dependant (c) insect (d) parasite 85. Sum of money to be paid for freeing a person from captivity (a) Ransom (b) Compensation (c) Tribute (d) Penalty Directions (86 - 90): In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. 86. (a) (c) 87. (a) (c) 88. (a) (c)

Skaleton Skelaton Mischeivous Mischievous Defenitly Definitely

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

Sekeleton Skeleton Mischevous Mischivous Definately Defenitely

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36 89. (a) (b) (c) 90. (a) (c)

Exhilirate Exhilarate Exhiliret Maintenance Maintenence

(d) Exhilerate (b) Maintanance (d) Maintanence

Directions (91 - 100): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Twenty million years ago, our immediate ancestors probably still lived in the trees. After we came (91) from the trees, we evolved an up­right (92); our hands were more useful, being (93).We possessed agility and an excellent binocular (94). We had, in course of time, (95) many of the preconditions required for (96) tools. Moreover, there was now a real (97) in possessing a large brain and (98) communicating complex thoughts. Anyway, other things (99) equal, it is better to be smart (100) to be stupid. 91. (a) (c) 92. (a) (c) 93. (a) (c) 94. (a) (c) 95. (a) (c) 96. (a) (c) 97. (a) (c) 98. (a) (c) 99. (a) (c) 100. (a) (c)

across into posture pose free loose vision tools lost demanded making sharpening use advantage in upon was been not than

(b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d)

under down position posterior tight lazy skill ability acquired forgotten doing breaking pride right about on being are rather unless

PART III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 101. If x, y are acute angles, 0 < x + y < 90° and sin (2x – 20°) = cos (2y + 20°), then the value of tan (x + y) is (a)

1 3

(b)

3 2

(c) 102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

(d) 1 3 The ratio of the angles ÐA and ÐB of a nonsquare rhombus ABCD is 4 : 5, then the value of ÐC is (a) 50° (b) 45° (c) 80° (d) 95° A straight line parallel to BC of AABC intersects AB and AC at points P and Q respective­ly. AP = QC, PB= 4 units and AQ = 9 units, then the length of AP is (a) 25 units (b) 3 units (c) 6 units (d) 6.5 units If x + y = a and xy = b2, then the value of x3 – x2y – xy2 + y3 in terms of a and b is (a) (a2 + 4b2) (b) a3 – 3b2 3 2 (c) a – 4b (d) a3+3b2 From a right circular cylinder of radius 10 cm and height 21 cm, a right circular cone of same base radius is removed. If the volume of the remaining portion is 4400 cm3, then the height of the removed cone (taking p = 22/7) is (a) 15 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 24 cm I is the incentre of D ABC, ÐABC = 60° and ÐACB = 50°. Then ÐBIC is (a) 55° (b) 125­ (c) 70 (d) 65° 2 2 If (3a + 1) + (b – 1) + (2c – 3)2 = 0, then the value of (3a + b + 2c) is equal to (a) 3 (b) -1 (c) 2 (d) 5

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37

108. Among the following num bers 6

12, 4, 5, 3 the least one is 3

(a)

110.

111.

112.

113.

12

(b)

3

4

(d) 3 5 A trader marks his goods45% above the cost price and gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. The gain % on goods he makes is (a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 29 (d) 16 The simplified value of (see x sec y + tan x tan y)2 – (sex x tan y + tan x sec y)2 is (a) –1 (b) 0 (c) sect x (d) 1 Speed of a boat is 5 km per hour in still water and the speed of the stream is 3 km per hour. If the boat take 3 hours to go to a place and come back, the distance of the place is (a) 3.75 km (b) 4km (c) 4.8 km (d) 4.25 km The single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%,10% and 5% is (a) 11.66% (8) 31.6% (c) 31.66% (d) 32% If xy (x + y) = 1, then the value of (c)

109.

6

4

4

1 3 3

x y

- x 3 - y 3 is

(a) 0 (b) l (c) 3 (d) – 2 114. Two vessels A and B contain acid and water mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 and 4 : 3. In what ratio must these mixtures be mixed to form a new mixture containing half acid and half water ? (a) 5 : 7 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 115. The base of a right pyramid is a square of side 40 cm long. If the volume of the pyramid is 8000 cm3, then its height is .

(a) 5 cm (c) 15 cm 116. If

x 2

2x + 5x + 2

(a) 2

(b) 10 cm (d) 20 cm =

1 , value of 6

(b)

1ö æ ç x + ÷ is xø è

1 2

1 (d) – 2 2 117. Each internal angle of regular polygon is two times Its external angle. Then the number of sides of the polygon is (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7 118. The perimeterof a rhombus is 40 cm and the measure of an angle is 60°, then the area of it is (a) 100 Ö3 cm2 (b) 50 Ö3 cm2 2 (c) 160 Ö3 cm (d) 100 cm2 119. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the circumcircle of a square is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 5 120. The ratio of the sum to the LCM of two natural numbers is 7 : 12. If their HCF is 4, then the smaller number is (a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 8 2 ° 2 121. sin 5 + sin 6° +... + sin 284° + sin2 85° = ? (c) -

(a) 39 (c) 40

1 2

(b) 40 (d) 39

1 2 1 2

122. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium such that AD || BC, if Ð ABC = 70°, then the value of ÐBCD is (a) 60° (b) 70° (c) 40° (d) 80°

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38 123. A man sells 320 mangoes at the cost price of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 10 124. The value of the expression

( a - b )2 ( b - c )2 ( c - a )2 + + ( b - c )( c - a ) ( a - b )( c - a ) ( a - b )( b - c )

(d) 2 (c) 1 3 A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. To do the same job B alone would take (a) 7 ½ days (b) 8 days (c) 10 days (d) 7 days An ore contains 25% of an alloy that has 90% iron. Other than this, in the remaining 75% of the ore, there is no iron. To obtain 60 kg of pure iron, the quantity of the ore needed, in kgs. is approx­imately (a) 250.57 (b) 266.67 (c) 275.23 (d) 300 If sinq + cosecq = 2, then value of sin100q + cosec100q is equal to (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 100 A telegraph post is bent, at a point above the ground due to storm. Its top just meets the ground at a distance of 8Ö3 f metres from its foot and makes an angle of 30°, then the height of the post is (a) 16 metres (b) 23 metres (c) 24 metres (d) 10 metres A number when divided by 91 gives a remainder 17. When the same number is divided by 13, the remainder will be (a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3 When 60% of a number is subtracted from another number, the second number reduces (a) 0

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

is

(b) 3

to its 52%; the ratio of the first number to the second number is (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 5 : 4 (d) 4 : 5 131. If the sum of the two numbers is 120 and their quotient is 5, then the difference of the two numbers is (a) 115 (b) 100 (c) 80 (d) 72 132. The ratio of height and the diameter of a right circular cone is 3 : 2 and its volume is 1078 cc, then (taking p = 22/7) its height is (a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 28 cm 133. A person sold an article at 20% profit on the selling price. Afterwards, when the cost price reduced by 10%, then he also reduced the selling price by 10%. His percentage of profit on cost price will be (a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 22.5 (d) 12.5 134. If

2x - y 1 3x - y = , then value of is. x + 2y 2 3x + y

(a)

1 5

(b)

3 5

(c)

4 5

(d) 1

135. A girl was asked to multiply a number by 7 , instead she divided the number by 7 8 8 and got the result 15 more than the correct result. The sum of the digits of the number was (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 11 136. The average age of 45 persons is decreased by 1/9 year when one of them having 60 years is replaced by a new comer. Then the age of the new comer is (a) 45 years (b) 55 years (c) 59 years (d) 49 years

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39

137. There are in all, 10 balls; some of them are red and the others white. The average cost of all balls is Rs. 28. If the average cost of red balls is Rs. 25 and that of white balls is Rs. 30, the number of white balls is (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 138. Either 8 men or 17 women can paint a house in 33 days. The number of days required to paint three such houses by 12 men and 24 women working at the same rate is (a) 44 (b) 43 (c) 34 (d) 66 139. The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of money at 5% p.a. for 2 years. is Rs.100. The sum of

money must be (a) Rs. 35,000 (b) Rs. 41,000 (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 45,000 140. A right circular cylinder and a cone have equal base radius and equal heights. If their curved surfaces are in the ratio 8 : 5, then the radius of the base to the height are in the ratio (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 3 :4 (d) 3 : 2 141. The tangents at two points A and B on the circle with centre 0 intersect at P; if in quadrilateral PAOB, ÐAOB : ÐAPS = 5 : 1, then measure of ÐAPS is (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 15°

Directions (142-146): Read the following graph and answer the questions. Result of Annual Examination in a High School (All data in %) (Success being considered) Scale 1 Unit = 1 cm Boys Girls

Result of Annual Exam in Percentage

120 110 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 V

IV

VII

VIII

IX

X

Classes ®

142. In which pair of classes are the results of girls and boys in inverse proportion? (a) V and X (b) VI and IX (c) VI and VIII (d) VII and X

143. In which class is the failure of boys the lowest or nil? (a) X (b) IX (c) VIII (d) VII

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40 144. In which class is the result of the girls more than the average result of the boys for the school? (a) VIII (b) X (c) IX (d) VI 145. In which class is the result of boys less than the overall average result of the girls ? (a) VII (b) VIII (c) IX (d) X 146. In which class is the differ­ence between the result of girls and that of boys maxi­mum ? (a) V (b) VII (c) VIII (d) X Directions (147 - 150): The following table shows production of cars (in thousands) in a company from 1999 to 2004. Study the table and answer the questions. Year 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 Type 8 20 16 17 21 6 P 16 10 14 12 12 14 Q 21 14 16 15 13 8 R 4 6 10 16 20 31 S 25 18 19 30 14 27 T 71 75 90 80 86 Total 74 147. In which year; the total production of cars of types P and Q together was equal to the total production of cars of types R and S together? (a) 2000 (b) 2001 (c) 2003 (d) 2004 148. In which year, the production of all types of cars taken together was approximately equal to the annual average of the total production during the period 1999 to 2004? (a) 1999 (b) 2001 (5) 2003 (d) 2004 149. The production of which type of cars was 25 % of the total production of all types of

cars during the year 2003 ? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S 150. There was a continuous increase in production of which type of cars during the period 1999 to 2004 ? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

PART IV GENERAL AWARENESS 151. The five year plan that gave priority to heavy industry was (a) Second (b) First (c) Seventh (d) Fourth 152. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowships and awards for the year 2010 were presented by the Vice President on July 22, 2011. Who of the following received award in the field of dance? (a) Chhanu Lai Mishra (b) Malabika Mitra (c) Atamjit Singh (d) T.K. Murthy 153. Who acts as the Chairman o the State Planning Board ? (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister (c) Leader of the Opposition (d) Speaker 154. Air bladder in fish acts as (a) Accessory respiratory organ (b) Hydrostatic organ (c) Both accessory respiratory organ and hydrostatic organ (d) Primary respiratory organ 155. Which of the following is called “Blue Planet” ? (a) Saturn (b) Earth (c) Jupiter (d) Mars 156. Which one of the following glands is responsible for secretion of sex hormons ? (a) Adrenal gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Pituitary gland (d) Sebaceous gland

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41

157. In cauliflower plant the useful part is (a) Underground stem (b) Root (c) Young inflorescence (d) Leaves 158. Aurobindo was arrested in connection with (a) Alipore Bomb Case (b) Kolhapur Bomb Case (c) Lahore Conspiracy Case (d) Kakori Case 159. For a ray of light to suffer total internal reflection it has to pass from (a) glass to water (b) water to glass (c) air to water (d) air to glass 160. Which of the following is an example of a database manager? (a) Organizer (b) Paradox (c) Quattro Pro (d) Corel Draw 161. If lime water is kept in the air, it turns milky due to presence of (a) Carbondioxide (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphurdioxide 162. What are the signals that inform the operating system that some activity has taken place called? (a) Informers (b) Interrupts (c) Events (d) Handlers 163. Name the Prime Minister who brought about a thaw in In­dia-China relations by signing the “Line of Actual Control”. (a) Lai Bahadur Shastri (b) P.V. Narashima Rao (c) Chandrasekhar (d) V. P. Singh 164. “Manchester” of South India is (a) Coimbatore (b) Madurai (c) Bengaluru (d) Chennai 165. The acid stored in batteries is (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetic acid 166. Heavy metal pollution of water is caused by’

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

(a) Paints (b) Wood burning (c) Acid Plants (d) Domestic sewage A stone is dropped from the roof of a house towards the ground. The kinetic energy of the stone will be maximum (a) just after it is dropped (b) when it is just on the half­way (c) just before it touches the ground (d) when it touches the ground Which state’s name was changed sometime back? (a) Jharkhand (b) Orissa (c) West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh The latest and the largest Shipyard set up with Japanese collaboration is (a) Hindustan Shipyard in Vishakhapatnam (b) Kochi Shipyard (c) Garden Reach Work­shops at Kolkata (d) Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai Income and consumption are (a) inversely related (b) directly related (c) partially related (d) unrelated. Which of the following ‘Public Undertakings’ has not been conferred with `Maharat­na’ Status? (a) SAIL (b) BHEL (c) ONGC (d) Coal India Limited Who is known as the ‘Indian Bismarck’? (a) Vallabhai Patel (b) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Bhagat Singh (d) Bal Gangadhara Tilak Which one of the four regions above the earth has smallest height (km.) ? (a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Thermosphere (d) Troposphere Which state of India shows the lowest population as per Census 2011 ? (a) Manipur (b) Tripura (c) Puducherry (d) Sikkim

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42 175. ‘Rail Bandhu’ is (a) Website of each railway division (b) the onboard medical officer in every train to attend to medical emergencies (c) security guard in every A. C. coach of Rajdhani/Shatabdi and A.C, Duronto Express (d) an onboard magazine of Indian Railways to be available in Rajdhani/ Shatabdi/A.C. Duronto Express 176. Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution? (a) Right to Education (b) Right to work (c) Right to property (d) Right to Equality before Law 177. The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for Breathing is: (a) Neon (b) Argon (c) Krypton (d) Helium 178. Coffee Research Institute of India is located at (a) Yercaud (b) Wayanad (c) Coorg (d) Coimbatore 179. How many major sea ports are there in India? (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 12 180. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of (a) Two years (b) Four years (c) Five Years (d) Six Years 181. When was National emergency imposed by the President of India on the grounds of internal disorder ? (a) 1962 (b) 1965 (c) 1971 (d) 1975 182. Which one of the following is an example for Monopoly ? (a) SPIC (b) Indian Railways (c) HMT (d) Hindustan Unilever Limited

183. A black body can absorb radi­ations of : (a) lower wavelengths only (b) intermediate wavelengths only (c) higher wavelengths only (d) all wavelengths 184. Which one of the following is having elastic demand ? (a) Electricity (b) Medicines (c) Rice (d) Match boxes 185. What growth rate of Indian economy has been projected by IMF for 2011-12? (a) 9.5% (b) 9% (c) 8.2% (d) 8.6% 186. ‘Stone Cancer’ occurs due to : (a) Acid rain (b) Global warming (c) Radioactivity (d) Bacterial action 187. The only Hindu Courtier of Akbar who accepted Din-i-Ila­hi was (a) Todermal (b) Birbal (c) Tansen (d) Man Singh 188. The chemical which is used in art and craft and can cause anemia and leukemia is (a) Benzene (b) Dioxine (c) Phthalate (d) Aldrin 189. Who of the following was the winner of Wimbledon 2011 men’s single’s title ? (a) Rafael Nadal (b) Novak Djokovic (c) Robert Lindstedt (d) Roger Federer 190. Asbestos is formed of (a) Calcium and Magnesium (b) Copper, Zinc and Manga­nese (c) Lead and iron (d) Calcium and Zinc 191. Which Party was established by Subhash Chandra Bose af­ter he came out of Indian Na­tional Congress ? (a) Indian National Army (b) Republican Party (c) Forward Block (d) Socialist Party 192. The Rama Krishna Mission was established by:

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193.

194.

195.

196.

43

(a) Vivekananda (b) Rama Krishna (c) M.G. Ranade (d) Keshab Chandra Sen The year of accession of Kanishka to throne was (a) 108 AD (b) 78 AD (c) 58 AD (d) 128 AD Total number of muscles present in our body is (a) 565 (b) 656 (c) 665 (d) 556 Which of the plant products is used in leather industry ? (a) Resin (b) Mucilage (c) Latex (d) Tannin The duration 19-21 days refers to : (a) incubation period of hen’s egg (b) average life-span of a red blood cell in humans (c) the period of menstrual cycle soon after menstruation, during which fertilisation

197.

198.

199.

200.

is most likely to occur (d) period of completion of one schizogony cycle of malarial parasite inside a red blood cell Which of the following Mughal emperors is credited with composition of Hindi songs ? (a) Babar (b) Akbar (c) Jahangir (d) Shahjehan WTO came into existence in the year (a) 1977 (b) 1985 (c) 1995 (d) 1950 Hydraulic machines work under the Principle of (a) Newton’s Law (b) Joules Law (c) Pascal’s Law (d) Floatation Law Who invented aeroplane ? (a) Orville Wright and Wilbur Wright (b) Sir Frank Whittle (c) Michael Faraday (d) Christian Huygens

ANSWERS 1. (a) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (d) 41. (d) 51. (b) 61. (c) 71. (b) 81. (c) 91. (d) 101. (d) 111. (c) 121. (b) 131. (c) 141. (a) 151. (b) 161. (a) 171. (b) 181. (d) 191. (c)

2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (c) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62. (b) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (a) 102. (b) 112. (b) 122. (b) 132. (c) 142. (b) 152. (a) 162. (d) 172. (a) 182. (b) 192. (a)

3. (d) 13.(c) 23. (c) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (b) 83. (c) 93. (a) 103. (c) 113. (c) 123. (c) 133. (b) 143. (c) 153. (b) 163. (a) 173. (d) 183. (d) 193. (b)

4. (c) 14. (d) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (b) 74. (c) 84. (d) 94. (a) 104. (c) 114. (a) 124. (b) 134. (b) 144. (c) 154. (c) 164. (b) 174. (d) 184. (a) 194. (b)

5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (c) 65. (b) 75. (a) 85. (a) 95. (b) 105. (c) 115. (c) 125. (a) 135. (d) 145. (a) 155. (b) 165. (a) 175. (d) 185. (*) 195. (d)

6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (d) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (b) 86. (d) 96. (a) 106. (b) 116. (b) 126. (b) 136. (b) 146. (c) 156. (c) 166. (a) 176.(c) 186. (a) 196. (c)

7. (b) 17. (d) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (c) 67. (c) 77. (a) 87. (c) 97. (b) 107. (a) 117. (b) 127. (b) 137. (c) 147. (c) 157. (c) 167. (c) 177. (d) 187. (b) 197. (d)

8. (d) 18. (c) 28. (c) 38. (b) 48. (d) 58. (d) 68. (c) 78. (b) 88. (c) 98. (a) 108. (c) 118. (b) 128. (c) 138. (c) 148. (c) 158. (a) 168. (b) 178.(-) 188. (d) 198. (c)

9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (a) 39. (b) 49. (d) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (b) 99. (b) 109. (d) 119. (a) 129. (b) 139. (c) 149. (d) 159. (a) 169. (a) 179. (d) 189. (b) 199. (c)

10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (b) 70. (c) 80. (d) 90. (a) 100. (c) 110. (d) 120. (c) 130. (d) 140. (c) 150. (d) 160. (a) 170. (b) 180. (d) 190. (a) 200. (a)

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