Social Science NTSE Stage-1

N T S E S TAG E - 1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science DPP No. 01

Class : X

Nationalism in Europe & India 1.

The first clear expression of Nationalism in Europe came with : (A) The American Revolution (B) The French Revolution (C) The Russian Revolution (D) The Industrial Revolution

2.

Nationalism brought about in Europe the emergence of : (A) The Nation State (B) The Modern State (C) Multinational Dynastic State (D) Alliances formed among many European states

3.

Frederic Serrieu, a French artist, in his series of four prints (1848) visualised his dream of a world as : (A) A world made up of ‘democratic and social republics’ (B) A world made up of one nation, one world (C) A world with one absolute ruler (D) A world following one religion, one language

4.

The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution were expressed by the French as : (A) La Patrie (B) Le Citoyen (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

5.

The Civil Code of 1804, also known as the Napoleonic Code, established : (A) Equality before the law (B) Secured the right to property (C) Did away with all the privileges based on birth (D) All the above

6.

What kind of political and constitutional change was brought about by the French Revolution? (A) It ended the absolute monarchy (B) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens (C) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny (D) All the above

7.

Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848. (A) Linguistic Revolt in Germany (B) Artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardships (C) Revolt against monarchy in Switzerland (D) Revolt for freedom in Greece

8.

Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during mid-eighteenth century was __________ . (A) The Nobility (B) The landed aristocracy (C) The Church (D) The absolute monarchs

9.

The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to _________________. (A) Revolutions (B) Women and non-propertied men organising opposition movements, demanding equal rights throughout 19th and early 20th centuries (C) Demand of equal political rights (D) Return of monarchy

10.

In politics, liberalism emphasized ______________ . (A) End of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and a representative government through Parliament (B) The inviolability of private property (C) The right to vote (D) Both (A) and (B)

11.

Friedrich List, a German professor of Economics, hoped to achieve two political ends through economic measures. They were ______________ . (A) Increase in power in Europe (B) Binding Germans economically into a nation (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Awakening national sentiment through a free economic system

12.

Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon’s defeat? (A) Fascism (B) Conservatism (C) Nazism

(D) Communism

13.

All the new regimes, set up in 1815, were autocratic because : (A) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent (B) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs etc. (C) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy (D) All the above

14.

Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to (A) Armies being trained by revolutionaries (B) All revolutionaries trained to overthrow monarchy (C) Secret societies being formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas (D) All the above

15.

The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were : (A) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour (B) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garibaldi (C) Victor Emmanuel, Bismarck, Cavour (D) None of the above

16.

In the 19th century, the French artists symbolised the French nation as : (A) Marianne, a popular Christian name for women (B) Marianne, a female figure, with a red cap, the tricolour and the cockade (C) As a female named Marianne, with characteristics of liberty (A red cap, a broken chair) and the Republic (the red cap, tricolour and the cockade) (D) All the above

17.

The revolutions of 1830 and 1848 AD were led by : (A) Liberal nationalists belonging to the aristocratic class (B) The peasants (C) Liberal nationalists belonging to the educated middle class elite, consisting of professors, school teachers, clubs and members of the commercial middle class (D) All the above

18.

The Nationalist Greeks got the support of the West European nations because : (A) They were fighting against the Muslim Ottoman Empire (B) They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture (C) Greece was considered the cradle of European civilisation (D) All the above

19.

Cavour’s contribution to Italian unification was : (A) Diplomatic alliance with the enemies of Austria (B) War with Austrians and Bourbons. (C) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont (D) Defeated the Bourbon kings

20.

Who was Giuseppe Mazzini ? When and where he was born ? (A) Giueseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary, born in Rome in 1810 (B) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian, born in Genoa, in 1807 (C) Giuseppe Mazzini was a Corsican, born in Genoa in 1807 (D) Giuseppe Mazzini was a famous Italian painter, born in Genoa in 1810

21.

The purpose behind the painting “The Massacre at Chios” by Eugene Delacroix, 1824, was : (A) To appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks (B) To dramatise the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were killed (C) To focus on the suffering of women and children (D) All the above

22.

The aim of Romanticism, a cultural movement, was : (A) To create a sense of shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of the nation (B) Glorification of science and reason (C) To focus on emotions, intuitions and mystical feeling (D) Both (A) and (C)

23.

German philosopher Johann Gotfried Herder claimed that true German culture was discovered through (A) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances (B) Common people — das volk (C) Vernacular language (D) All the above

24.

In France, 1848 was a year when : (A) Louis Philippe of France was dethroned, and France declared a Republic (B) Suffrage to all males above 21 was given and the right to work guaranteed (C) Food shortages, widespread unemployment led to a revolt in Paris (D) All the above

25.

The weavers of Silesia revolted in 1845 against contractors because : (A) The contractors who gave them orders drastically reduced their payments. (B) The contractors took advantage of their misery and desperate need for jobs. (C) Both A and B. (D) The contractors had killed eleven weavers.

26.

Ireland suffered under the British, because : (A) The English helped the Protestants in Ireland to dominate the Catholics who were in a majority (B) Catholics’ revolts against the British were suppressed. (C) Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801, after the failure of Wolfe Tone revolt in 1798 (D) All the above

27.

How was the process of German unification completed and who was proclaimed the ruler? (A) After many wars, Kaiser William became the ruler (B) After 3 wars fought over 7 years with Austria, Denmark and France, Kaiser William I became the ruler of a unified Germany. (C) The Germans defeated the Habsburg Empire and made Kaiser William I the ruler (D) Otto von Bismarck became the ruler after defeating France

28.

Garibaldi contributed to the Italian unification by : (A) Declaring Victor Emmanuel as the king of united Italy in 1860 (B) Conquering Papal states in 1860. (C) Conquering two Sicilies and South Italy in 1860. (D) Both (A) and (C)

29.

Some historians consider Great Britain as a model of the nation state because : (A) It was created after a long-drawn-out wars and political struggle (B) It became a nation-state after forcing Scotland, Wales and Ireland to submit to it. (C) It was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution, but the result of a long-drawn-out process. (D) All the above

30.

Under the British dominance, Scotland suffered because of : (A) Systematic suppression of its cultural and political institutions (B) The Catholics of Scottish Highlands were ruthlessly suppressed and lost independence (C) Denial to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress (D) All the above

31.

‘Forced recruitment’ means a process by which (A) Indians were forced by the British rulers to finance the British army (B) The Indian princes had to supply soldiers to fight for the British (C) The colonial state forced people in rural areas to join the army (D) None of the above

32.

The growth of modern nationalism in India, as in Vietnam, is closely connected to : (A) A sense of oppression under colonialism (B) An anti-colonial movement (C) A discovery of unity in their struggle against colonialism (D) All the above

33.

Which of the following statements is not true about the Jallianwalla Bagh incident? (A) General Dyer blocked all exit points, and opened fire on the peaceful crowd, killing hundreds (B) Gandhiji went on indefinite fast to stop the repression by the British (C) As a reaction, crowds took to the streets in many Indian towns, attacking the police and government buildings (D) Dyer’s aim was to produce a moral effect of great terror and awe in the minds of the satyagrahis

34.

Which of the following was not a part of Gandhiji’s satyagraha? (A) Emphasis on the power of truth and search for truth (B) Satyagraha as a pure soul-force (C) A physical force which sought destruction of the enemy (D) Not a weapon of the weak but a weapon which forced the adversary to accept the truth without violence

35.

The first three successful Satyagraha movements by Gandhiji in India were : (A) Against the Rowlatt Act, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India (B) Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience and Khilafat (C) Peasants Movements in Champaran in Bihar, Kheda district in Gujarat and in Ahmedabad by cotton mill workers (D) Khilafat movement, Non-Cooperation and Quit India movement

36.

When was the Non-Cooperation programme adopted by the Congress? (A) At Surat in December 1920 (B) At Nagpur in December 1920 (C) At Calcutta in January 1921 (D) At Bombay in December 1920

37.

The various social groups that joined the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement of 1921, were : (A) The rich in the cities, the poor in the villages and the workers in plantations (B) The middle class in cities, the peasants and the tribals in the countryside and plantation workers (C) The students in cities, the farmers in villages and the workers in the plantations (D) The Brahmans in cities, the peasants in the villages and workers in plantations

38.

Why did Gandhiji urge the Congress to join the Khilafat Movement ? (A) He wanted to support the Khilafat (B) He saw this as an opportunity to bring the Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement (C) He knew that without Hindu-Muslim unity no broad-based movement could be launched (D) Both (B) and (C)

39.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in support of : (A) Khilafat (B) Swaraj (C) Khilafat and Swaraj (D) None of the above

40.

Why was the tribals’ chanting of Gandhiji’s name and raising slogans demanding “Swatantra Bharat” important ? (A) It showed the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi (B) They were going beyond their own locality and emotionally identifying with an all-India movement (C) They were a unifying force of the Non-Cooperation Movement (D) The various ways in which ‘Swaraj’ was interpreted by different people

41.

The leader of the peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra was : (A) Baba Ramchandra (B) Venkata Raju (C) Alluri Sitaram Raju

(D) None of the above

42.

Baba Ramchandra was : (A) A sanyasi, who was earlier an indentured labourer (B) Leader of the peasants revolt in Awadh (C) Founder of the Kishan Sabha of Awadh in October 1920 along with J.L. Nehru (D) All the above

43.

Who started the Swaraj Party and why ? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose to oppose Gandhiji’s policies (B) The young leaders in Congress who were against mass struggles (C) Nehru and Bose who wanted full independence (D) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. Because they wanted to enter the Provincial Councils and oppose British policies

44.

The two events which shaped Indian politics in the 1920s were : (A) The setting up of the Simon Commission by the Tory Government in Britain which had not a single Indian member (B) The worldwide economic depression which led to a fall in agricultural prices (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The division within the Congress

45.

Why did production of Indian textiles and handloom go up during the Non-Cooperation Movement? (A) Foreign cloth was burnt in huge bonfires (B) People discarded imported clothes and wore only Indian ones (C) The import of foreign clothes was halved between 1921-22 and the value dropped from Rs 102 crores to Rs 57 crores (D) All the above

46.

Which of the following statements are not associated with the Non- Cooperation Movement in the towns? (A) Only the Brahmans and the rich took part in the movement (B) The council elections were boycotted even by the Justice Party of Madras (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Thousands of students left government-controlled schools; headmasters and teachers resigned; lawyers gave up their practice

47.

Who presided over the December 1929 Session of the Congress at Lahore and what was its demand? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence (B) Subhas Chandra Bose and “Poorna Swaraj” was its demand (C) Mahatma Gandhi. He asked for peaceful transfer of power by the British (D) Jawaharlal Nehru, the demand was for more representation of Indians in the Councils

48.

Which of the following statements is/ are true about the Dandi March of Mahatma Gandhi? (A) It started on 11 March, 1930 and ended on 6 April, 1930 (B) Mahatma Gandhi marched over 240 miles with 78 of his trusted followers covering 10 miles a day (C) On 6th April, Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. (D) All the above

49.

The two reasons why Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference of December 1931, were : (A) The arrest of Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Violence of the Indian people against symbols of the British Raj like railways, police posts (C) The signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in March 1931 (D) Both (B) and (C)

50.

Name two industrial organizations established by Indian merchants and industrialists to protect their business interests. (A) The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) (B) The Indian Industrial and Commerical Congress (1922) (C) The Federation of the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) in 1927 (D) Both (B) and (C)

51.

The business groups and industrialists lost enthusiasm for the Civil Disobedience Movement because : (A) They lost faith in Gandhiji’s methods (B) They were frightened by the British repression (C) The spread of violent activities worried them about prolonged disruption of business and the failure of the Round Table Conference made them afraid (D) All the above

52.

One important feature of Civil Disobedience Movement was : (A) Gandhiji’s belief that women should not join it and remain at home. (B) The complete change in the status of women in society. (C) The large-scale participation of women in the movement, in protest marches, manufacturing salt, picketing, boycotting foreign cloth and even going to jail (D) The large-scale participation of the Dalits or Harijans

53.

Who was the President of the Muslim League in 1930? (A) Mr M.A. Jinnah (B) Maulana Azad (C) Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(D) Sir Muhammad Iqbal

54.

Muslim leaders and intellectuals were concerned about the status of Muslims as a minority within India, because : (A) There was distrust and suspicion between the two communities (B) They feared that their culture and identity would be submerged under the domination of a Hindu majority (C) Their leaders differed with the policies of the Congress (D) The Congress was not ready to grant them a separate electorate

55.

People belonging to different communities, regions or language groups developed a sense of collective belonging through (A) Experiences of united struggles (B) A variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination (C) History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols all developed nationalism (D) All the above

56.

How did history help in creating a feeling of nationalism in India by the end of the 19th century ? (A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves (B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements (C) By urging them to struggle and change the miserable conditions of life under British rule (D) All the above

57.

Who was the first writer to create the image of ‘Bharat Mata’ as an identity of India and how? (A) Abanindranath Tagore by his paintings of a mother figure in 1905 (B) Rabindranath Tagore through his collection of ballads, nursery rhymes and myths (C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1870, by writing the song “Vande Mataram” and later including it in his novel ‘Anand Math’ (D) None of the above

58.

The two great writers of Bengal and Madras, who contributed to nationalism in the late nineteenth century through folklore were : (A) Abanindranath Tagore and Ravi Verma (B) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri (C) Jamini Roy and Ravi Verma (D) None of the above

59.

Name a leader of the Dalits and the association formed by him. (A) Mahatma Gandhi and ‘Harijan’ association (B) Baba Amte, ‘Dalit Association’ (C) Dr B.R. Ambedkar, Depressed Classes Association in 1930 (D) None of the above

60.

The reason for Mahatma Gandhiji’s fast unto death in 1932, was (A) the failure of the Civil Disobedience Movement (B) the public resort to violence during the Civil Disobedience Movement (C) the clash with Dr Ambedkar over his demand for a separate electorate for Dalits which he thought would halt their integration into society (D) the failure of the Second Round Table Conference

N T S E S TAG E - 1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science

DPP No. 02

Class : X

Indian Constitution & Judiciary 1.

A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relation between the (A) Three organs of government (B) Centre and States (C) Legislature and the Executive (D) Constitution and the States

2.

Match the following columns I II A. Union List 1. Banking B. State List 2. Public order and police C. Concurrent List 3. Labour welfare (A) A-2, B-1, C-3 (B) A-1, B-2, C-3 (C) A-1, B-3, C-2

(D) A-3, B-1, C-2

Which of the following give the Indian Constitution a unitary bias? I. Rigidity of the amendment process II. Written Constitution III. Same Constitution for Centre and States IV. Indestructibility of the State boundaries (A) II and IV (B) 1, II and IV (C) III and IV

(D) III only

Constitutional amendment process is not required for the 1. creation or abolition of a State Legislative Council. 2. creation of Council of Ministers for Union Territories. 3. amendment of Schedule Eight. 4. amendment of Schedule Five. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3.

4.

5.

Regarding Constitutional Amendments I. the provision of joint sitting is not available II. they become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills III. the President's assent to a constitutional amendment is obligatory IV. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution according to the procedure laid down in Article 368 (A) I and III (B) I, II and III (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV

6.

The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning I. the State treats all religions equally II. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people III. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction IV. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment (A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) I, II and IV

7.

Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in (A) Part II of the Constitution (B) The Citizenship Act, 1955 (C) Schedule I of the Constitution (D) Various enactments by Parliament

8.

Which of the following statements is/ are correct? I. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority. II. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory. III. The President's recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State. IV. The President must receive the State's opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of that State. (A) I only (B) I and II (C) I, III and IV (D) I and III

9.

In order to register as an overseas citizen of India, one can be a citizen of another country, but 1. eligible to have become a citizen of India at the time of India's independence 2. belonging to a territory that became a part of India after August 15, 1947 3. was a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution of India 4. who migrated to that country before the commencement of the Constitution of India (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

10.

How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly. (A) Twelve Sessions (B) Twenty Sessions (C) Twenty- five Sessions (D) Twenty-eight Sessions

11.

Which of the following words did not form a part of the original Preamble and were added by a constitutional amendment subsequently ? (A) Socialist and Secular (B) Socialist and Democratic (C) Socialist and Republic (D) Democratic and Republic

12.

Which part of the Constitution of India was described as the ‘soul of the Constitution’ by Dr, B. R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee? (A) The Preamble (B) Right of Constitutional Remedies (C) The Chapter on Fundamental Rights (Part III) (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy

13.

The concept of welfare state is included in which part of the Indian Constitution ? (A) The Preamble of the Constitution (B) Fundamental Rights (C) Directive Principles of State Policy (D) 4th Schedule of the Constitution

14.

Those who crafted the Indian constitution felt that it has to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time. These changes are called ___________ . (A) Constitutional amendments (B) Reforms (C) Changes in the constitution (D) Revival of the constitution

15.

In a parliamentary form of government who among the following enjoys the real executive powers? (A) Head of the state (B) Cabinet (C) Supreme Court (D) Head of state

16.

Read the following Statements carefully(A) The Constitution of India was adopted by “Constituent Assembly.” (B) The Constituent Assembly was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad”. (C) The Constitution of India is a living document. (D) Indian Constitution has 395 articles and 12 Schedules. Which of the above statements is/are correct(A) 1, 2 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4 (C) 3 & 4

(D) All of these

17.

Values that inspired and guided the Indian freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These value are embedded in the ___________ of the Indian constitution. (A) 8th Schedule (B) Preamble (C) Article 13 (D) Volume 09

18.

The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on– (A) December 9, 1947 (B) December 9, 1946 (C) December 10,1946

(D) December 7, 1949

Directive principles are adopted from – (A) England (B) Ireland

(D) U.S.A.

19.

(C) France

20.

The residuary powers mean the (A) Powers shared between the Union and State Governments (B) Powers related to country's' external affairs (C) Powers related to country's internal affairs (D) Related with Union government

21.

The Indian constitution adopted many institutional details and procedures from colonial laws like the ___________ . (A) Rowlatt India Act (B) Morley – Minto reforms (C) Montague – Chelmsford reforms (D) Government of India Act 1935

22.

Those who crafted the Indian constitution felt that it has to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time. These changes are called ___________ . (A) Constitutional amendments (B) Reforms (C) Changes in the constitution (D) Revival of the constitution

23.

24.

Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble? I. When the Constitution was enacted II. The ideals that were to be achieved III. The system of government IV. The source of authority (A) II, III and IV (B) I and II (C) I, II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV

When was the last session of the Constituent Assembly held? (A) 24th January, 1950 (B) 24th February, 1950 (C) 24th April, 1950

(D) 24th December, 1950

25.

The Preamble was amended for the first time by (A) The 24th amendment (B) The 42th amendment (C) The 44th amendment (D) None of the above amendments

26.

A : The Supreme Court of lndia can provide Advisory opinion to the President B : The President of lndia is under obligation to accept the advise (A) A and B are true (B) A and B are false (C) A is true but B is false (D) A is false but B is true

27.

Which one of the following is not included in the role of the judiciary : (A) Amendment in the law made by the Parliament or state legislature. (B) Dispute resolution (C) Judicial review (D) Upholding the Law and enforcing Fundamental Rights

28.

Read the following statements : 1. The courts are not under the government and do not act on their behalf. 2. The removal of judges of the High Court as well as the Supreme Court is very difficult. 3. Courts play crucial role in protecting the Fundamental Rights 4. Courts ensure that there is no misuse of power by the legislature and the executive. Which one of the following qualities of judiciary best explains all of the above situations : (A) Committed judiciary (B) Faithful judiciary (C) Neutral judiciary (D) Independent judiciary

29.

Read the following statements carefully1. The Supreme Court is situated in Delhi. 2. In India there are 21 High Courts. 3. The seven North Eastern states share the same High Court situated in Meghalaya. 4. Punjab & Haryana share the same high court situated in Chandigarh. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect(A) Only 1 (B) 3 & 4 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2

30.

Constitution differs from country to country for the reason (A) Countries got independence on different dates and years (B) The ways adopted to get independence were different (C) The aspirations and ideologies of the people are different (D) It must be different from the constitution of the neighbouring nation.

31.

The importance of 9th Dec 1946 in the constitutional history of India is (A) The first meeting of the constituent assembly (B) Babu Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president of the constituent assembly. (C) The drafting committee was constituted. (D) The draft of the Indian constitution was published.

32.

Which one of the following is not a part of the constitution? (A) Preamble of the constitution (B) Directive principles (C) Fundamental rights (D) Fundamental duties

33.

Central Government enjoys vast powers over the entire country but at the same time the powers are given to the state GovernmrtIlents. This kind of distribution of power falls under the feature (A) Democratic principle

(B) Sovereignty

(C) Unitary and federal

(D) Rigid and flexible

34.

Right to education is included in the list of Fundamental rights under: (A) Cultural right (B) Educational right (C) Cultural and educational right (D) Right to liberty

35.

One of the following is not enforceable in the law courts of India. Identify that: (A) Fundamental rights (B) Directive principles (C) Right to property (D) Laws made in the legislature

36.

The legislative bodies which are not dissolved are (A) Loksabha (C) Loksabha and Legislative assembly

(B) Legislative assembly (D) Rajyasabha and Legislative council

37.

In general the rank of Ministers who do not take part in the cabinet meetings are (A) Deputy Ministers (B) Ministers of state (C) Cabinet rank (D) The Chairman of the Cabinet

38.

What happens to the bill if it fails in the first reading: (A) It goes to second reading (B) It goes to third reading by over passing the second reading (C) The bill fails and does not have second or third readings (D) The bill is sent to the other house for procedures

39.

Impeachment refers to (A) The process of election of a President (C) The process of the removal of President President

(B) The process of appointing the President (D) The process of with holding the bill by the

40.

Appointing the Judges to the High courts and Supreme court by the president of India fall under: (A) Executive powers (B) Legislative powers (C) Judicial powers (D) Emergency powers

41.

Maximum number of members in the Legislative council should not exceed (A) The members of Legislative assembly (B) One third of the members of the Legislative assembly (C) Fifty percent of the members of the assembly (D) Three fourths of the members of the assembly

42.

The Governors appointed by the President of India can be placed incharge of: (A) One state (B) Two states (C) Three states (D) Any number of states as directed by the President

43.

The portifolios to the ministers at the states are allotted by (A) The President of India (B) Chief Ministers (C) Prime Minister

44.

45.

(D) The Governor

The sessions court refers to (A) Civil courts at the Taluk level (C) Civil courts at the District level

(B) Criminal courts at the Taluk level (D) Criminal courts at the District level

Parliament means: (A) Loksabha (C) Loksabha and Rajasabha

(B) Rajyasabha (D) Loksabha, Rajyasabha and the president

46.

The powers to decide a bill as a money bill does not rest with (A) the Prime Minister (B) the Finance Minister (C) the Speaker of Loksabha (D) the Chairman of Rajyasabha

47.

The person acknowleged as the father of Indian constitution is (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(D) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

48.

Who p~esides over the first seSSIOn of Loksabha in the absence of the speaker? (A) Ex-prime minister (B) Chairman of Rajyasabha (C) Minister of parliamentary affairs (D) Speaker protem

49.

The main function of the cqnstituent assembly was: (A) to frame the constitution (B) to enforce the constitution (C) to amend the constitution (D) to identify the defects of the constitution

50.

‘Republic’, one of the feature of the constitution is borrowed from (A) Britain (B) France (C) USSR

(D) USA

NTSE STAGE-1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science DPP No. 03

Class : X

ELECTORAL POLITICS AND POLITICAL PARTIES 1.

Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’? (A) Chaudhary Charan Singh (C) Ajit Singh

(B) Chaudhary Devi Lal (D) None of the above

2.

What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen? (A) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen (B) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans (C) He would modernise agriculture (D) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them

3.

Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false ? (A) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government (B) People elect the representatives of their choice in an election (C) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary (D) Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer

4.

Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections ? (A) 544 (B) 543 (C) 560 (D) 535

5.

Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to (A) Parliament (B) State Legislative Assembly (C) State Legislative Council (D) Panchayats and municipal bodies

6.

Which of these options is not correct ? (A) In an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not get elected9 (B) Resources, education and contacts may be lacking in their case (C) Influential people may prevent them from winning elections (D) Influential people help certain weaker sections in winning elections.

7.

How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes? (A) 40 (B) 41 (C) 51

(D) 71

How many seats are reserved for women in rural and urban local bodies? (A)1/2 of the seats (B) 1/3 of the seats (C) 2/3 of the seats

(D) None of the above

Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies? (A) Panchayats (B) Municipalities (C) Corporations

(D) Lok Sabha

8. 9. 10.

Which of the options given below are applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise? (A) Only rich and educated can vote (B) Only men can vote (C) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (D) Only employed people can vote

11.

For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof? (A) Ration card (B) Driving license (C) Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) (D) Any of these

12.

What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha? (A) 20 years (B) 18 years (C) 25 years

(D) 30 years

13.

What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections? (A) Serious criminal cases pending against them (B) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family (C) Educational qualification of the candidate (D) All the above

14.

What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called? (A) Discipline Roll (B) Code of Conduct (C) Conduct rules (D) Both (A) and (B)

15.

Which of these is permitted under the Code of Conduct for election campaign? (A) Use of place of worship for election propaganda (B) Use of government vehicle for elections (C) Use of media (D) Once elections are announced, making any promises of providing public facilities

16.

Which candidate is declared elected? (A) One who secures the highest number of votes from a constituency (B) One who secures two-third majority (C) One who secures of the total votes cast (D) None of the above

17.

Name the body which conducts the elections in India. [Important] (A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) Cabinet

(D) Election Commission

18.

How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen? (A) Appointed by the President (B) Elected by the people (C) Elected by the MPs (D) Elected by MPs and MLAs

19.

When on election duty, under whose control do the government officers work? (A) Central Government (B) Election Commission (C) District Magistrate (D) District Court

20.

Which of these powers is/are exercised by the Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections? (A) Election Commission tightens norms for poll expenses (B) Election Commission orders repoll in 398 booths (C) Election Commission appoints new Haryana DGP (D) Both (A) and (B)

21.

In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections? [Important] (A) Poor and illiterate (B) Rich and privileged (C) Educated people

(D) Women

22.

What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean? (A) The current holder of a political office (B) The candidate contesting the election (C) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (D) None of the above

23.

An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful pusposes is : (A) Incumbent (B) Rigging (C) Impersonation (D) Turnact

24.

The Election Commission is : (A) An elected body (B) An appointed body

(C) An independent body (D) Both (B) and (C)

25.

Which among the following is not correct? (A) The Election Commission conducts all elections for the Parliament and Assemblies (B) The Election Commission directs and controls the preparation of electoral roll (C) The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates (D) The Election Commission does scrutiny of nomination papers

26.

Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign? (A) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates (B) Using TV channels (C) Door to door canvassing (D) Contacting voters on phone

27.

Which of the following statement is incorrect? [CBSE 2010] (A) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election (B) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender (C) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations (D) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list.

28.

‘‘Save Democracy’’ slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections ? (A) Congress Party (B) Janata Party (B) Telugu Desam Party (D) Left Front

29.

What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India? (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 35 years (D) 40 years

30.

In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as: (A) Election Commission (B) Parliament (C) Judiciary (D) Lok Sabha

31.

Voter’s List is also known as: (A) Election Number (B) Voter Identity Card

(C) Electoral Roll

(D) None of these

What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha? (A) 9 years (B) 4 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 6 years

32. 33.

Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties ? (A) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters (B) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct (C) No party of candidates can use government resources for election campaign (D) Nobody can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion

34.

Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections? (A) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections (B) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over (C) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only (D) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

35.

Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country ? (A) Maharashtra (B) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) West Bengal

36.

Reserved Constituencies ensures : (A) Right to equality (B) Proper representation to all religious groups (C) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society (D) None of these

37.

Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India? (A) Maharashtra (B) U.P. (C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Bihar

Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’? (A) Indira Gandhi (B) Rajiv Gandhi

(D) Pt. Nehru

38. 39.

(C) Sonia Gandhi

The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is : (A) 541 (B) 546 (C) 543

(D) 540

40.

Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India ? (A) The Chief Justice of India (B) The Prime Minister of India (C) The President of India (D) The people of India

41.

Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India ? (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Election Commissioner (D) Council of Ministers

42.

The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is : (A) 59 (B) 79 (C) 89 (D) 99

43.

Which of these statements is incorrect? (A) Parties reflect fundamental political unity in a society (B) Parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others (C) They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections (D) All the above

44.

Parties put forward their _____ and _____ and the voters choose from them. (A) policies, programmes (B) rules, regulations (C) views, opinions (D) all the above

45.

Political parties exercise power through which of these functions? (A) Parties contest elections (B) They play a decisive role in making laws for a country (C) They form and run governments (D) All the above

46.

Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India? (A) Members and supporters of the party (B) Top party leadership (C) The existing government (D) None of these

47.

When was the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) formed? (A) 1952 (B) 1954 (C) 1962

48.

Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)? (A) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy (B) Opposes imperialism and communalism (C) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India (D) None of the above

49.

In which of these states does the CPI (M) enjoy strong support? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) West Bengal

(D) 1964

(D) Chhattisgarh

50.

Fill in the blank. An______ is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information. (A) affidavit (B) declaration (C) agreement (D) appeal

51.

Which of these statements is correct? (A) Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission (B) The Commission treats all the parties equally (C) It offers some special facilities to large and established parties (D) All the above

52.

How many parties are registered with the Election Commission of India? (A) 250 (B) 300 (C) 500

(D) more than 750

Which of these countries has a one party system? (A) India (B) China (C) USA

(D) UK

Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state? (A) One-party system (B) Two-party system (C) Multi-party system

(D) None of the above

Which of the following countries is the example of two-party system? (A) USA (B) UK (C) India

(D) Both (A) and (B)

53. 54. 55. 56.

Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in India? (A) National Democratic Alliance (B) The United Progressive Alliance (C) Left Front (D) All the above

57.

Which of these is true regarding the party system of any country? (A) The Constitution lays down party system (B) No country can choose its party system (C) People choose their party system (D) Important leaders choose their party system

58.

Those parties which are given the special privilege of ‘election symbol’ and other facilities are said to be : (A) ‘identified’ by the Election Commission (B) ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission (C) ‘patronised’ by the Election Commission (D) ‘attached’ by the Election Commission

59.

Which party is recognised as a ‘State party’? (A) A party that secures 6% of total votes in the Assembly election (B) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in an election to the State Assembly and wins a t least 2 seats (C) A party that wins 4 seats in the Assembly election (D) None of the above

60.

How many recognised national parties were there in 2006? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7

(D) 8

In which of these categories can the Indian National Congress be put? (A) Centrist party (B) Rightist party (C) Leftist party

(D) None of these

When was the BJP founded? (A) 1960 (B) 1970

(D) 1990

61. 62. 63.

(C) 1980

The BJP formed the government in 1998 as the leader of an alliance. Name the alliance. (A) National Democratic Alliance (B) United Progressive Alliance10 (C) National Progressive Alliance (D) United Democratic Alliance

64.

When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) formed? (A) 1982, Mayawati (B) 1984, Kanshi Ram (C) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav (D) 1986, Bhajanlal

65.

From the ideas and teaching of which of these leaders does BSP draw inspiration? (A) Sahu Maharaj (B) Mahatma Phule and Ramaswami Naicker (C) Babasaheb Ambedkar (D) All the above

66.

In which state does NCP have a major support? (A) Maharashtra (B) Meghalaya

(C) Manipur

(D) Assam

67.

Which of these parties has national level political organisations? (A) Samajwadi Party (B) Telugu Desam Party (C) Rashtriya Janta Dal (D) None of the above

68.

Which one of the following is not a component of a political party ? (A) The leaders (B) The followers (C) The active members (D) Women

69.

Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ? (A) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections. (B) Several parties compete for power. (C) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together. (D) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.

70.

Which one of the following is not true regarding the government order that makes it mandatory for an election candidate to declare his details in an affidavit ? (A) It aims at reducing the influence of criminals in politics. (B) It gives details of existing property and criminal cases pending against a candidate. (C) It aims at reducing the influence of money in politics. (D) The Election Commission checks these details and cancels the nomination papers of suspected criminals or if the information is false.

NTSE STAGE-1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science

DPP No. 04

Class : X

Physical feartures of India, Climate & Agriculture 1.

Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India? (A) Difference in rock formations (B) Weathering (C) Erosion and deposition (D) Landuse

2.

Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features? (A) Geological formations (B) Population density (C) Weathering (D) Erosion and deposition

3.

Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms ? (A) Theory of Motion (B) Theory of Plate Tectonics (C) Theory of Evolution (D) Theory of Relativity

4.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates? (A) Three (B) Five (C) Seven (D) Ten

5.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity ? (A) Volcanic activity (B) Folding (C) Faulting (D) Glaciation

6.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the following is formed ? (A) Convergent boundary (B) Divergent boundary (C) Transform boundary (D) Colliding boundary

7.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of the following is formed ? (A) Convergent boundary (B) Divergent boundary (C) Transform boundary (D) None of the above

8.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ in the event of two plates coming together, which of the following is not possible ? (A) The plates may collide and crumble. (B) The plates may move horizontally past each other. (C) The plates may form divergent boundary. (D) One plate may slide under the other.

9.

According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates ? (A) Change in position and size of continents. (B) Formation of ocean basins. (C) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India. (D) All of the above.

10.

A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _______. (A) Coast (B)Island (C) Peninsula

(D) None of the above

11.

Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass ? (A) The Himalayas (B) The Northern Plains (C) The Peninsular Plateau (D) The Indian Desert

12.

The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass ? (A) Angaraland (B) Gondwanaland (C) Tethys (D) Eurasian Plate

13.

Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland ? (A) India (B) Australia (C) Europe (D) South America

14.

The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger Eurasian plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision ? (A) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates. (B) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed. (C) Sedimentary rocks accumulated in the Tethys geosyncline were folded. (D) India and Australia were formed.

15.

Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the Tethys geosyncline ? (A) The Himalayas (B) The Northern Plains (C) The Peninsular Plateau (D) The Indian Desert

16.

The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this depression ? (A) The Himalayas (B) The Northern Plains (C) The Peninsular Plateau (D) The Coastal Plains

17.

Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks ? (A) The Himalayas (B) The Northern Plains (C) The Peninsular Plateau (D) The Indian Desert

18.

From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an unstable zone ? (A) The Himalayan Mountains (B) The Peninsular Plateau (C) The Indian Desert (D) The Islands

19.

Which of the following are young-fold mountains ? (A) The Aravalis (B) The Nilgiris (C) The Himalayas

(D) The Sahyadri

20.

Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India ? (A) Kunlun Mountains (B) Plateau of Tibet (C) River Brahamaputra (D) The Himalayas

21.

The velocity of winds is related to (A) The amount of moisture they carry (C) Pressure gradient in the direction of the flow

(B) The nearness to the sea (D) The direction in which they blow

22.

Doldrums are belts of low atmospheric pressure obtained in the regions from the equator to a distance of(A) 5 degree latitude towards the north only (B) 5 degree latitude towards the south only (C) 5 degree latitude towards north and south (D) 15 degree latitude towards north and south

23.

The typhoons are more frequently experienced in (A) The North Sea (B) The West indies Islands (C) The Philipine islands (D) The Laccadive Islands

24.

Trivandrum has equable climate as : (A)· it lies on the Arabian sea coast (B) it is near the equator (C) it has well distributed rainfall throughout the year (D) all of the above

25.

Where does the coldest zone of climate lie ? (A) 30° – 45° N and S (B) 45° – 65° N and S

(C) 65° – 90° N and S (D) 0° – 10° N and S

26.

Which part of India experience highest day temperature in the month of March? (A) Thar desert (B) Shivalik range (C) Deccan Plateau (D) N.E. Part of India

27.

The jet streams are the fast blowing air currents in the upper layers of the atmosphere, they control: (A) the advancement of monsoon climate (B) western disturbances which affect India's climate (C) monsoon breaks (D) all of the above

28.

The Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu receives rainfall due to : (A) north west trade winds (B) north east trade winds (C) Bay of Bengal Branch of Monsoon winds (D) all of the above

29.

Which of the following is incorrect? (A) the windward side of Sahyadris receive heavy rains (B) the sudden approach of the moisture laden winds is burst of the monsoons (C) rainfall decreases from east to west and south to north (D) the months of October-November form a period of transition from dry winter condition to hot rainy season.

30.

Tropical cyclones cause rain on the: (A) Malabar coast (B) Coromandel coast

(C) Konkan coast

(D) Saurashtra coast

31.

Variation in atmospheric pressure in different hemispheres across the equator is: (A) Southern oscillations (B) mango showers (C) burst of monsoons (D) none of the above

32.

Dust stroms in the evening are very common during May in : (A) Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh (B) Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh (C) Himachal Pradesh and Jammu Kashmir (D) none of the above

33.

Winters are dry in India because: (A) winds are from land to sea (C) winds are from mountainous regions

34.

(B) winds are from sea to land (D) none of the above

Which climatic region has the least temperature range ? (A) Equatorial region (B) Monsoon region (C) Tropical region

(D) Mediterranean region

35.

The chief characteristics of the Mediterranean type of climate are (A) Cool summers, mild winters, rainfall all the year round. (B) mild rainy winters, warm and dry summers (C) Hot and rainy throughout the year. (D) very long and severe winters, short and cool summers

36.

The climate characteristics of which of the following natural regions are dry summers and moist winters ? (A) China type region (B) Coniferous forest region (C) Mediterranean region (D) Monsoon region

37.

Which one of the following is found on the western coast of continents between 30º and 40º latitudes ? (A) Tropical Grassland Region (B) Hot Desert Climate Region (C) Mediterranean Climate Region (D) Temperate Climate Region

38.

The winds blowing from sea towards the coastal areas are called (A) Ocean currents (B) Land breeze (C) Coastal winds

(D) Sea breeze

39.

Roaring Forties are (A) Ocean currents in northern hemisphere (B) Cyclonic westerlies in northern hemishpere (C) Spring Tides (D) Steady north–west anti–Trade wind in Southern Hemisphere

40.

Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to (A) Gravitational pull of the earth (B) Rotation of earth (C) Revolution of earth (D) uneven heating of earth

41.

The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from (A) Cosmic rays (B) Ultrasonic waves (C) Infra –red rays

(D) Ultraviolet rays

The western disturbances enter India from the– (A) West (B) South

(D) North

42.

(C) East

43.

What will happen when the ‘Axis of monsoon trough lies over the plains – (A) Good rain (B) Floods (C) Dry (D) None

44.

The EI Nino which influences the Indian monsoon is (A) a cold ocean current that flows north ward along the coast of Chile (B) a warm ocean current that flow west-wards along the coast of Ecuador and Peru (C) a low pressure system over western coast of Spain (D) none of the above.

45.

The Doldrums is an area of – (A) Low temperature (B) Low pressure

(C) Low rainfall

(D) Low humidity

46.

Temperate cyclones bring along with them – (A) Pleasant weather (C) Thunderstorms and torrential rainfall

(B) Snowfall and Hail (D) Mild rainfall

47.

When the wind is deflected due to the rotation of the Earth, it is called as – (A) Geostropic Wind (B) Polar Wind (C) Westerlies (D) Trade Winds

48.

The line joining places which have the same height above mean sea level is called – (A) Isohyte (B) Isobar (C) Contour line (D) Isohaline

49.

Which Edible crops do not need more water – (A) Rice (B) Wheat

50.

(C) Millet

Brazil is the largest producer and seller in the world for. (A) Tea (B) Coffee (C) Rapeseed

(D) Oilseeds (D) Linseed

51.

Which crops need different range of temperatures at the time of sowing and croping ? (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Suger cane (D) Corn

52.

What was the primary objective of green revolution in India ? (A) To increase forest (B) Modernization of agriculture (C) To increase cash crop cultivation (D) To introduce method of paddy cultivation

53.

Which is cultivable waste land? (A) left uncultivated for a long time (B) the land which can be cultivated but not cultivation (C) the total arable land in our country (D) none of the above

54.

Which is not the cash crop ? (A) Rubber (B) Sugar cane

(C) Jute

(D) Corn

What is the staple food of East Asia ? (A) Rice (B) Wheat

(C) Millet

(D) None

55. 56. 57. 58.

United state of America is the largest producer and seller in the world for (A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Maize

(D) All

Which is the leading country for jute production ? (A) Brazil (B) India

(C) China

(D) Bangladesh

Which country is the leader in white revolution ? (A) India (B) USA

(C) China

(D) Australia

59.

Kangra valley of Himachal Pradesh, Doon valley of Uttaranchal and the hilly terrains of Kashmir are (..........) producing areas: (A) Tropical fruits (B) Tea (C) both the above (D) none of these

60.

What is the contribution of agriculture to GNP ? (A) 20% (B) 26%

(C) 30%

(D) none of the above

NTSE STAGE-1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science DPP No. 05

Class : X

Soil, Forest & Wildlife, Minerals, Industries, Human resource 1.

Which of the following soils have the following features such as sandy and porous, poor in nitrogenous matter and humus etc.? . (A) desert soil (B) mountain soil (C) laterite soil (D) red soil

2.

Calcium carbonate, Magnesium carbonate, Potash and Lime are rich in : (A) alluvial soils (B) red soils (C) black soils

(D) all of the above

The vegetation find in laterite soil is : (A) scrubs and pastures (B) cotton crop

(D) none of the above

3.

(C) tea plantations

4.

The hot and arid desert areas provide perfect home for : (A) Zebras (B) Yaks (C) Camels and wild Asses (D) none of the above

5.

Black cotton soils (or Regur soils) are formed due to disintegration of (A) Granite (B) Basalt (C) Charcoal

6.

Laterite soil develops under (A) Cold temperate climate (C) Mediterranean type of climate

(D) Rhyolite

(B) Hot and dry climate (D) Wet tropical climate

7.

Which of the following soils has the characteristic of being generally clayey, deep and impermeable ? (A) Laterite (B) Desert (C) Black (D) Alluvial

8.

Which of the following is a correct arrangement of soils in the order of decreasing particle size ? (A) Gravel, sand, silt and clay (B) Sand, gravel, clay and silt (C) Silt, sand, gravel and clay (D) Clay, gravel, sand and silt

9.

The alluvium which contains Kankar nodules with calcium carbonate in sub-soil is : (A) khadar soil (B) bhangar soil (C) both of the above (D) none of the above

10.

Soil erosion can be prevented by (A) Allowing herbivorous animals to grase freely (B) Growing plants on a large scale to form soil cove (C) Making the land sloppy (D) Adding chemicals to increase cohesion

11.

Which of the following agents of gradation is responsible for the formation of ‘Barkhans’ ? (A) Glaciers (B) Running water (C) Waves (D) Wind

12.

The formation of which of the following soils results from the leaching away of the siliceous matter of the rocks ? (A) Red (B) Laterite (C) Desert (D) Black

13.

The young alluvium of the flood plains is called – (A) Bhabar (B) Regur (C) Bhangar

(D) Khadar

Which soil is formed differently from the other three soils (A) Regur (B) Bhabar (C) Bangar

(D) Khadar

14. 15.

India has five major ship building centres located at Mumbai, Kolkata, Kochi, Vishakapatnam:. Which is· the fifth Ship Yard? (A) Chennai (B) Mangalore (C) Marmagao (D) Kandla

16.

The challanges faced by Jute industry are: (A) traditional machinery (C) synthetic substitutes

(B) stiff international competition (D) all the above

17.

The industries which manufacture, parts and component to be used by big industries are : (A) ancilliary industries (B) basic industries (C) consumer industries (D) village industries

18.

The industry which is localised on the banks of river Hoogli near Kolkata is : (A) Jute textile industry (B) Cotton textile industry (C) Ship buildiilg yard (D) none of the above

19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

The biggest meat market of the world is in(A) London (B) Boston

(C) Chicago

(D) Winnipeg

The highest number of cotton mills in India is in (A) Ahmedabad (B) Mumbai

(C) Coimbatore

(D) Kolkatta

The Manchester of Japan is (A) Kobe (B) Osaka

(C) Tokyo

(D) Hiroshima

Rayon is a type of – (A) woolen textile

(C) Synthetic textile

(D) Jute textile

The largest steel plant of the country in – (A) Bhilai (B) Bokaro

(C) Rourkela

(D) Durgapur

Diesel locomotives are manufactured at – (A) Varanasi (B) Gorakhpur

(C) Jamshedpur

(D) Barauni

(B) Silk textile

25.

Large-scale industries are those industries where the investment on plant and machinery is needed – (A) 10 lakhs (B) 20 Lakhs (C) 30 lakhs (D) more than 35 lakhs

26.

The first cotton mill was set up at Bombay (A) 1919 (B) 1926

(C) 1818

(D) 1854

Salem steel plant is located in (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Karnataka

(D) Kerala

Coal is an example of (A) Stone (B) Igneous Rock

(C) metamorphic Rock

(D) Sedimentary Rock

27. 28. 29.

The Gulf of Kachchh is ideally suited to develop electricity from (A) Wind energy (B) Tidal energy (C) Geo–thermal energy (D) None of these

30.

The monazite sands on the Kerala coasts also contain (A) Uranium (B) Zirconium (C) Ilmenite

(D) Mica

Damodar Valley, Ruhr and Appalachian are famous for. (A) Iron ore (B) Coal field (C) Bauxite

(D) Mica

India is the largest producer of– (A) Iron ore (B) Coal

(C) Mica

(D) Manganese ore

India’s position as regarding mica deposits is – (A) 2nd in the world (B) Ist in the world

(C) 5th in the world

(D) 7th in the world

31. 32. 33. 34.

Bauxite is an ore from which ........... is extracted. (A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Silver

(D) Aluminum

35.

The Himalaya region is poor in mineral resource because – (A) It is made up of crystalline rocks (B) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the arrangement of rocks and made it complex (C) The climatic conditions are not suitable for exploitation of minerals (D) The terrain makes exploitation of minerals difficults and very costly due to transport difficulties

36.

In India, gold is extracted by the method of – (A) Shaft mining (B) Quarrying

(C) Open–pit mining

(D) Drilling

37.

The first oil refinery in India was built by – (A) Esso (B) Caltex (C) Burma Oil Company (D) Assam Oil Company

38.

Thermal power is a great demand in : (A) industry and agriculture (C) both the above

(B) transport and domestic sectors (D) none of the above

The three minerals used in steel are : (A) Iron, Zinc and Coal (C) Iron, Manganese and Coal

(B) Iron, Limestone and Zinc (D) none of the above

39.

40.

Classification of existing plant and animal kingdom based on their characteristics is given by (A) International World Wildlife Fund. (B) The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources. (C) International Green Peace Organization. (D) International Union for Forest.

41.

The joint forest management programme has involved the local communities, especially in (A) Punjab. (B) Kerala. (C) Orissa. (D) Gujarat.

42.

We should accept those developmental activities that are (A) people centric. (B) child centric. (C) government centric. (D) commercial centric.

43.

Reserved forest where natural vegetation, beauty and wildlife are preserved in their natural environment is the (A) protected forest. (B) biosphere reserve. (C) wildlife sanctuary. (D) national park.

44.

Classification of existing plant and animal kingdom based on their characteristics is given by (A) International World Wildlife Fund. (B) The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources. (C) International Green Peace Organization. (D) International Union for Forest.

45.

Forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals and communities are called (A) unclassed forest. (B) protected forest. (C) reserved forest. (D) mangrove forest.

46.

Responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the environment and improves the well-being of the local people is (A) vanmahotsav. (B) monoculture. (C) eco-tourism (D) enrichment plantation.

47.

Depletion of forest is called (A) deforestation. (B) afforestation.

(C) social forestry.

(D) unclassed forest.

48.

Conservation strategy that directly involved community participation is called (A) enrichment plantation. (B) afforestation. (C) chipko movement. (D) project tiger.

49.

Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in (A) north India. (B) south India. (C) west India.

(D) east India.

50.

Species that is classified as rare species in India is (A) neelgai. (B) Himalayan brown bear. (C) cheetah. (D) lion.

51.

The main cause of environmental degradation in the developing countries of Asia and Africa is (A) overpopulation. (B) mining activity. (C) monoculture. (D) enrichment plantation.

52.

Pioneer of the ‘chipko movement’ in the state of Uttaranchal is (A) G.L. Bahuguna. (B) S.L. Bahuguna. (C) Kanhu Sanjal.

53.

Example of vulnerable species is (A) Asiatic cheetah. (C) gangetic dolphin.

(D) Premji nath.

(B) Himalayan brown bear. (D) blue sheep.

54.

Active and judicious utilization of natural resources is called (A) conservation. (B) social forestry. (C) enrichment plantation. (D) monoculture.

55.

Percentage of mammal species on the verge of extinction is (A) 10. (B) 15. (C) 20.

(D) 25.

56.

Number of new trees is planted and the people are told about the usefulness of forest in (A) vanmahotsav. (B) enrichment plantation. (C) eco-tourism. (D) monoculture.

57.

A single commercially valuable species, extensively planted and other species eliminated is called (A) enrichment plantation. (B) intensive subsistence farming. (C) primitive subsistence farming. (D) shifting agriculture.

58.

The number of villages of Rajasthan that declared Bhairodev dakav sonchuri was (A) 2. (B) 5. (C) 7. (D) 9.

59.

One of the historical factors causing damage to our resources was (A) optimum utilization of resources during British time. (B) under utilization of resources during British time. (C) over-exploitation of resources during British time. (D) use of resources during British time.

60.

An all India list of protected species was published in (A) 1972. (B) 1967. (C) 1955.

(D) 1945.

The biological loss is strongly correlated with the loss of (A) diversity. (B) cultural diversity. (C) social diversity.

(D) biodiversity.

The forest cover in the country is estimated to be (A) 637,293 sq kms. (B) 547,293 sq kms. (C) 437,239 sq kms.

(D) 337,392 sq kms.

In 1993, the population of the tiger had dropped to (A) 3,600. (B) 2,999. (C) 1,900.

(D) 1,200.

61. 62. 63. 64.

The following group of states has the highest and lowest density of population in India in 2001 (A) West Bengal – Arunachal Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh – Sikkim (C) Kerala – Meghalaya (D) Arunachal Pradesh-Mizoram

65.

The following state groups has the highest and the lowest rate of literacy (A) Kerala - Bihar (B) Tamil Nadu- Andhra Pradesh (C) Gujarat and Maharashtra (D) Jammu and kashmir - Arunachal Pradesh

66.

‘Demography’ is the study of (A) infrastructures. (B) changing numbers of births, deaths, diseases in a community over a period of time. (C) human rights. (D) human behaviour.

67.

The census describes (A) only counts of number of people. (B) only migration in states. (C) holistic approach towards counting, professions, economic and social conditions of people. (D) only deaths in a population of country.

68.

The year in Indian census that is called as the great year of divide is (A) 1911. (B) 1921. (C) 1931.

(D) 1941.

69.

According to the census 2001, a ‘Literate’ person is one (A) who can read his/her name. (B) who can write any language. (C) who can read and write his/her name. (D) who is 7 years old and can read and write any one language with understanding.

70.

A large proportion of children in the population of India is a result of (A) high life expectancies. (B) more married couples. (C) high birth rate. (D) high death rate.

71.

The national population policy by the government of India started in year (A) 1992. (B) 1952. (C) 2000.

72.

Primary activities includes (A) Construction work (C) communications

(D) 1999.

(B) Mining (D) Administration services

73.

The correct definition of the occupational structure is (A) distribution of children in population. (B) distribution of population according to different occupation. (C) distribution of population in age group. (D) distribution of male population.

74.

The annual growth rate in population is related to (A) high birth rate. (B) high migration rate. (C) increase in age composition. (D) decline in population.

75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83.

The state that has attracted larger migration in India since 1980 is (A) Punjab. (B) Uttar Pradesh. (C) Bihar.

(D) Tripura.

Number of deaths per thousand persons in a year is called the (A) death rate. (B) birth rate. (C) migration rate.

(D) annual growth rate.

Civil services is a part of (A) tertiary sector. (B) primary sector.

(D) industrial sector.

(C) secondary sector.

The Himalayan state, Sikkim, has a population of about (A) 0.3 million. (B) 0.4 million. (C) 0.2 million.

(D) 0.5 million.

16% of India’s population is present in the state of (A) West Bengal. (B) Maharastra. (C) Uttar Pradesh.

(D) Bihar.

Smallest country in the world is (A) Monaco. (B) Nauru.

(D) Tuvalu.

(C) Vatican City.

The difference between the birth rate and death rate is called (A) natural growth rate. (B) death rate. (C) birth rate.

(D) fertility rate.

One of the most densely populated countries of the world is (A) China. (B) Pakistan. (C) India.

(D) Sri lanka.

One of the components of population growth is (A) age composition. (C) migration.

(B) sex ratio. (D) occupational structure.

84.

The distribution of the population according to different types of occupation is (A) occupational structure. (B) occupation growth. (C) occupation ratio. (D) occupation size.

85.

Density of population in Arunachal Pradesh is (A) 13 persons per sq km. (C) 80 persons per sq km.

(B) 40 persons per sq km. (D) 100 persons per sq km.

86.

An important component of population composition is (A) health. (B) infrastructure. (C) government policies. (D) immigration.

87.

Working Age includes the age group between (A) 0-10years. (B) 15-59 years.

(C) 11-15 years.

The ultimate resource is the (A) human resource. (C) human-made resource.

(B) renewable resource. (D) non-renewable resource.

88.

(D) above 59 years.

89.

Developing countries have a higher proportion of their workforce engaged in (A) tertiary activities. (B) secondary activities. (C) quaternary activities. (D) primary activities.

90.

The general trend of internationlal migration is from the (A) developed to developed nations (B) developing to developing nations (C) less developed nations to more developed nations (D) under developed nations to under developed nations.

NTSE STAGE-1 DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SESSION-2012-13 IIT-JEE | AIPMT | AIEEE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY | NTSE Subject : Social Science DPP No. 06

Class : X

Sectors of Indian Economy, People as a Resource 1. 2. 3. 4.

New Economic Policy facilitates investment by the .............. (A) Public sector (B) Private sector (C) Joint sector

(D) Corporate sector

The aim of liberalisation is to free the large private sector from: (A) Bureaucratic control (B) Political control (C) Social control

(D) Foreign control

Which of the following comes under tertiary sector? (A) Agriculture (B) Industry (C) Transport

(D) All of these

Which of the following is public limited company in the private sector ? (A) TISCO (B) TELCO (C) OCM

(D) All of these

5.

Gross Domestic Product is the sum of all goods and services produced in a year without deducting the wear and tear of factors of production. It is expressed as : (A) GDP = Cp + Cg + Ip + Jg (B) GDP'=Cp+Cg (C) GDP=lp+lg (D) none of the above

6.

The major source of employment in India is : (A) industrial units under private sector (C) agriculture and allied activities

(B) industrial units under public sector (D) none of the above

7.

Industries which deal with security of the nation are under : (A) Private Sector (B) Public Sector (C) Co–operative Sector (D) Joint Sector

8.

The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of : (A) Employment conditions (B) The nature of economic activity (C) Ownership of enterprises (D) Number of workes employed in the enterprise

9.

Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in ............. sector. (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D)Information technology.

10.

GDP is the total value of ............. produced during a particular year. (A) All goods and services (B) All final goods and services (C) All intermediate goods and services (D) All intermediate and final goods and services

11.

In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 is ............. (A) Between 20 percent to 30 percent (B) Between 30 percent to 40 percent (C) Between 50 percent to 60 percent (D) 70 percent

12.

The largest producing sector in 1973 was : (A) Primary Sector (C) Service Sector

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

(B) Secondary Sector (D) None of the above

Which was the largest producing sector of india in 2003 ? (A) Tertiary sector (B) Service sector (C) Primary Sector

(D) Private sector

The sector which has grown the most over last 30 years is : (A) Primary sector (B) Secondary sector (C) Tertiary sector

(D) Public sector

The GDP of India in 2003 was : (A) Rs. 21,0000 Crore (B) Rs. 19,0000 Crore (C) Rs. 17,0000 Crore

(D) Rs. 15,0000 Crore

Name the brand that is a public enterprise from the following (A) MTNL (B) Tata Indicom (C) Airtel

(D) Hutch

The sum of production in three sectors within the country is called the (A) Net Domestic Product. (B) Gross Domestic Product. (C) Net National Product. (D) Gross National Product.

18.

Who controls the unorganised sector? (A) Partially government and private entrepreneur (B) Both private entrepreneur and government (C) Private entrepreneur (D) Government

19.

Which state has a higher infant mortality rate than that of the poorest regions of the world such as African countries? (A) Punjab (B) Orissa (C) Delhi (D) Assam

20.

‘Right to work’ is reffered as______ (A) MRTP (B) PMGRY

(C) NREGA

What was the objective of NREGA 2005? (A) Increase production in agriculture (C) Guaranteed 100 days of employment

(B) To provide food security (D) Provide health facilities

21.

22.

What are Intermediate Goods? (A) Goods that are used in production of final goods and services (B) Goods that are directly exploited from nature (C) Goods used as input in agriculture (D) Goods used in manufacturing

23.

In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 was ______ (A) between 20% to 30% (B) between 30% to 40% (C) between 50% to 60% (D) 70%

24.

Find the odd one out -: (A) MTNL (B) Tata Indicom

25.

(C) Airtel

How children are there in India in school-going age group? (A) Appx. 200 Millions (B) Appx. 300 Millions (C) Appx. 240 Millions

(D) IGAY

(D) Hutch (D) Appx. 350 Millions

26.

Which sector is still government owned and has no other private owned sector for the same? (A) Railways (B) Airways (C) Postal service (D) Telecommunication

27.

The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of (A) employment conditions. (B) the nature of economic activity. (C) ownership of enterprises. (D) members of workers employed in the firm

28.

The organisation which improved the conditions of Labour is : (A) International Leader Organisation (B) International Labour Organisation (C) International Liberation Organisation (D) none of the abovev.

29.

Self-consumption is (A) non-production activity (C) non-economic activity

30. 31. 32.

33.

(B) non-market activity (D) none of the above

What is India’s position in scientific and technical manpower in the world? (A) first (B) second (C) third

(D) fourth

Investment in human capital is expenditure on (A) education (B) training

(D) all the above

(C) medical care

The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is (A) Kendriya Vidyalayas (B) Navodaya Vidyalayas (C) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas People as a resource refers to their (A) educational skills (B) productive skills

(D) None of the aboves (C) health skills

(D) none of the above

34.

Disguised unemployment occurs when the number of persons working on a farm is (A) only what is required (B) more than required (C) less than required (D) None of the above

35.

PHC stands for (A) Public Health Club

(B) Private Health Club

(C) Primary Health Centre

(D) None of these

36. 37. 38.

Which one among the following is the most labour absorbing sector? (A) Agriculture (B) Fisheries (C) Poultry farming

(D) Mining

Infant mortality rate in 2000 was : (A) 85 (B) 70

(D) 35

(C) 75

What is the life expectancy in India according to the census of 2000 ? (A) 72 years (B) 53 years (C) 64 years

(D) 80 years

39.

Which one of the following is not a cause of urban unemployment ? (A) Mass migration from rural to urban areas (B) Slow rate of economic development (C) Maladjustment between the demand and supply of labour (D) Caste system

40.

Educated unemployment is partly because of : (A) slower rate of industrial expansion (C) both a and b

(B) improper educational system (D) none of these

Every _________ person in India is poor. (A) third (B) fourth

(C) fifth

41.

(D) sixth

42.

Vulnerability to poverty is determined by the options for finding an alternative living in terms of (A) assets (B) education (C) health (D) all the above

43.

Social exclusion denies certain individuals the (A) facilities (B) benefits

44. 45.

(C) opportunities

(D) all the above

In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty ? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) West Bengal (C) Punjab

(D) Gujarat

Which state has focused more on human resource development ? (A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Maharashtra

(D) Kerala

46.

Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of (A) calories per day (B) wheat consumption (C) rice consumption per day (D) none of the above

47.

Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Indira Gandhi (C) Jawahar lal Nehru (D) Subhash Chandra Bose

48.

Which one of the social groups are vulnerable to poverty ? (A) Scheduled caste (B) Urban casual labour (C) Rural agricultural households (D) All the above

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-1

Nationalism in Europe & India Ques.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

B

A

A

C

D

D

B

A

B

D

C

B

D

C

B

Ques.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

C

C

D

C

B

D

D

D

D

C

D

B

D

C

D

Ques.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

C

D

B

C

C

B

B

D

C

B

C

D

D

C

D

Ques.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

C

A

D

D

D

C

C

D

B

D

D

C

B

C

C

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-2

Indian Constitution & Judiciary Que s.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

B

B

D

C

C

D

B

D

B

A

A

B

C

A

B

Que s.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

D

B

B

B

D

A

D

A

A

C

A

D

C

C

Que s.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

A

A

C

C

B

D

A

C

C

A

B

D

B

D

D

Que s.

46

47

48

49

50

Ans.

C

C

D

A

D

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-3

Electoral politics and political parties Ques.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

B

A

C

B

D

D

B

B

D

C

D

C

D

B

C

Ques.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

A

D

A

B

D

A

A

C

D

C

A

A

B

A

A

Ques.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

C

C

B

C

B

C

B

A

C

C

C

B

D

A

D

Ques.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

B

D

D

C

A

D

D

B

A

D

D

B

B

B

B

Ques.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

Ans.

A

C

A

B

D

A

D

D

C

D

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-4

Physical feartures of India, Climate & Agriculture Ques.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

A

B

B

C

D

A

B

C

D

C

C

B

C

C

A

Ques.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

B

C

A

C

D

C

C

C

D

C

C

D

B

D

B

Ques.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

A

A

A

A

B

C

C

D

D

A

D

A

A

B

B

Ques.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

D

A

C

C

B

A

B

B

D

A

C

D

A

B

B

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-5

Soil, Forest & Wildlife, Minerals, Industries, Human resource Ques.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

A

C

C

C

B

D

C

A

B

B

D

B

D

A

C

Ques.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

D

A

A

C

A

B

C

B

A

D

D

B

D

A

A

Ques.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

B

C

B

D

B

A

C

C

C

B

C

A

B

B

A

Ques.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

C

A

C

B

B

B

B

C

A

C

A

A

B

C

A

Ques.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

Ans.

B

A

A

A

A

B

C

B

D

C

B

B

B

A

A

Ques.

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

Ans.

A

A

D

C

C

A

A

A

A

A

A

B

A

A

C

SOCIAL SCIENCE_NTSE_STAGE-I_DPP-6

Sectors of Indian Economy, People as a Resource Ques.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

D

A

C

D

A

C

B

C

A

A

C

A

A

C

A

Ques.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

A

B

C

B

C

C

A

C

A

A

A

C

B

B

C

Ques.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

D

B

B

B

C

A

C

C

D

C

B

D

D

C

D

Ques.

46

47

48

Ans.

A

A

D