Smart Cockpit System Questions - Flattened (1)

SMART COCKPIT SYSTEM QUESTIONS

1. AIR SYSTEMS 2. APU 3. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT 4. COMMUNICATIONS 5. ELECTICAL 6. ENGINES 7. FIRE PROTECTION 8. FLIGHT CONTROLS 9. FLIGHT INTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS 10. FUEL 11. HYDRAULICS 12. ICE & RAIN RAI N PROTECTION 13. LANDI LA NDING NG GEAR & BRAK ES 14. WARNING WA RNING SYSTEMS

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 A IR SYSTEMS •

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During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is s elected elected ON for air conditi oning. What is the consequence? Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone o which requires the most cooling During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during o two pack operation. o With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones. If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone o temperature demands will be averaged for control of the left pack. When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illumin ates. ates. What What is correct? This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems. o Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the o backup system has occurred. o This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset button. This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a o preset value. When When w ill t he descent descent mode be activated in the pressurization syst em? When T/D is reached. o o When retard is announced in the FMA. o When descending 0.25psi below the selected flight altitude. When within 15 000 feet of the landing airport. o Due to a malfunction you are required to return t o the airport of departure. To To avoid th e OFF OFF SCHED SCHED DESCE DESCENT NT warnin g you reset th e FLT ALT. What can you expect? The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport o o The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost o The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning. o From where does does the Cabin Cabin Auto Controller get its input s. From the static ports o From the Captain’s CDU o o From the ADIRU’s From the EFIS control panel o Where are the bleed trip sensors installed? On the 9th Stage bleed air line. o On the engine side of the engine bleed air valve. o Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve. o o On the bleed air duct prior to the pack valve. The right WING-BODY WING-BODY OVER OVERHEAT HEAT light i s il lumi nated, what area is affected? The keel beam o  APU bleed duct o o Left aircond bay Right engine strut o What What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? To increase the pressure in the cabin. o To decrease the air conditioning system pack load o If increased smoke removal is required o o To operate as air mixers in the mix manifold The wing-body overheat overheat li ght c omes on. What is t he related related master caution w arning? OVHT /DET o  AIR COND o OVERHEAD o o  As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this condition.

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One PACK PACK light illuminates on r ecall ecall onl y. What What is the situation? There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down. o Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed. o The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby o pack control Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack. o The Recirculation Fan: Is driven by a DC motor. o Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures. o Reduces air conditioning pack load. o o Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs. Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if: Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF. o Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF. o Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON. o Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON. o The amber OFF OFF SCHEDU SCHEDULE LE DESCEN DESCENT T ligh t i llu minates. What d oes it indi cates? The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be o manually shift to manual The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to o STANDBY. The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the o altitude window. The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual. o In MANUAL MANUAL pressurization pressurization mode the outfl ow i s driven by?  A motor supplied from DC bus 2. o  A motor supplied from DC standby bus. o  A motor supplied from DC bus 1. o o Requires AC power from transfer bus 1. What What is th e primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit? The Right pack. o The Left pack. o o Both packs. Ground air o During descent when the descent mode is activated: activated:  Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT. o  Aircraft descends 0.50 below the selected FLT ALT. o  Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT; o o  Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT. The maximum maximum differential pressure is: 7.90 psi o 8.45 psi o 8.65 psi o 9.10 psi o What are the causes of an Amber A UTO FAIL ligh t? Loss of DC power; o Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft; o Both above statements are correct; o Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the FLT ALT selector during p reflight, but s ubsequently the A/C climbed to FL390, FL390, would you expect: expect: o  A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negat ive pressure relief valve;  A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressu re relief valve; o  A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve; o The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSID on the ground when: Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust. o o When the PSEU is activated. When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor. o

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 AUTO mo de acti ve. The AUTO FAIL li ght i ll uminates when: The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800ft. o The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min. o The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN. o When bot h the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light i lluminate: o Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system. Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system. o Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller. o Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric i nformation f rom? The captain's pitot/static system. o o The FO's pitot/static system. The ADIRUs. o Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within approximately _____. 5 seconds o o 30 seconds 1 minute o 3 minutes o Where is the forw ard outflow valve located? Just in front of the forward airstairs. o Forward of the left hand air conditioning inlet. o o There is no forward outflow valve. The forw ard outflow valve: Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow o valve is almost closed or the recirculation fan is operating. Is motor operated and operates independently of the main outflow valve. o Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential o pressure. has been removed from the 737-600/700 models. o Why should l ivestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds? Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay. o o Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay. The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft o cargo door making loading easier If a flight is aborted, and a return t o the field of departure is m ade, the crew: Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV. o o Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude. o Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the field of departure. What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP? FL410. o FL250. o o FL180. o FL100. Takeoff is allow ed with Pack sw itches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted: True. o False. o The Altitude Warning Horn i s: o  An intermittent warning horn.  A continuous warning horn. o  An intermittent warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warn ing. o  A continuous warning horn accompanied by a Master Ca ution warning. o On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot\'s first action should be to:  Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action. o o To don oxygen masks. Initiate an emergency descent. o Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist. o

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 An amber AUTOFAIL indicat io n wil l il lu minate if one or more of th e fol lowing co ndit io ns occur:  A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated. o Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if o the cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft. Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with o the loss of AC power. o Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.  A decompressi on of th e cabin wil l r esult in th e foll ow ing:  An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft (approximately) a \'Master o Caution\', plus an \'Overhead\' indication on the light/glare shield will illuminate. The overhead panel will illuminate with \'PAX OXY ON\' amber indications.  An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate o \'AUTOFAIL\' and \'ALTN\' amber indications on the pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset by selecting manual mode on the pressurisation selector.  An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will o deploy. To activate Oxygen flow to the Passengers the Crew must select the \'Passenger Oxygen Switch\' to ON.  An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the oxygen masks will deploy and o the overhead panel will show \'CREW OXY ON\'.  A fl ight deck ZONE TEMP li ght which remains il lumi nated aft er the master cauti on system is reset indicates: o  A flight deck duct overheat. o  A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller . Both above statements are correct. o Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs. o  A ZONE TEMP li ght m ay be reset by t he tri p reset sw it ch on th e Bl eed Panel . True. o o False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets. o False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip. False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only. o In Cruise the air cond itioning ram air doors are: o Fully open. Fully closed. o o Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control. Modulate as a function of airspeed. o If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET swit ch th en: The fault was caused by an overheat trip. o o The fault was caused by a controller fault. The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault. o o The pack should be selected off as per the QRH. The ram air syst em provides cooling air fo r: The cargo area. o The heat exchangers. o o The E/E. Deflector doors are installed forw ard of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush in gestion prior to l ift off and after touchdow n. Deflector doors extend when activated: Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor o Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear o Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans). o If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controls command the packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy the average temperature demand of t he two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves wil l: Open. o Close. o If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack to maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as measured at the pack temperature sensor. 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F) o 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F) o 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F) o 6

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Overheat d etection is provided by temperature sensors located: In the mix manifold. o Downstream of the packs. o Downstream of the packs and the mix manifold. o Downstream of the packs, the trim air valve and the mix manifold. o The recircul ation fan system cir culates air from the passenger cabin around the lining o f the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve is closed, exhaust air from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo compartment for additional infl ight heating. True o o False (Forward cargo compartment only!)

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The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO (automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).  All three modes use DC motor. o o  Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor. o  Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor. Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of ____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____feet. o 10 000 ft and 41 000 ft. 8 000 ft and 41 000 ft. o o 12 000 ft and 41 000 ft. 7 500 ft and 41 000 ft. o The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure, baro corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to both automatic controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from theCaptain\'s and First Officer\'s BARO reference selectors. The automatic controllers also receive: Throttle position from both stall management computers. o Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the o air/ground sensors. Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS. o Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve. A small amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents, miscellaneous fixed vents, and b y seal leakage. True o False o If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the PACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System An nunc iator ligh ts i llu minate. The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive o The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control o The pack will be inoperative o Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of motion t akes up to 2 minut es. True o False o (Fortunately Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 20 seconds only.)

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 A DUCT OVERHEAT l ig ht only wil l c ause: o The temperature mix valves to drive full cold. The temperature mix valves to drive full hot. o  An automatic shutdown of the pack. o  A BLEED TRIP OFF. o

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What sys tems need pneumatic pow er for operation?  Air Conditioning, pressurization, wing anti-ice and APU. o Wing anti-ice, APU and engine starting. o  APU, engine starting, air Conditioning and pressurization. o Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic o reservoirs and water tank pressurization. Engine bleed air is obtained from: 4th and 9th stage of the compressor section. o 5th and 9th stage of the compressor section. o 4th and 8th stage of the compressor section. o o 5th and 8th stage of the compressor section. Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed? Modulating and Shutoff valve. o Engine Bleed Air valve. o Isolation valve. o o 5th valve of the compressor section. How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered? They are AC activated and pneumatically operated. o They are DC activated and pneumatically operated. o They are pneumatically activated and AC operated. o They are pneumatically activated and DC operated. o  An il lu minated BLEED TRIP OFF li ght i ndic ates: Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open. o Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes. o Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open. o Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes. o What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in  AUTO? The isolation valve is always open o The isolation valve is always closed. o The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on o pneumatic load. Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned o OFF. What happens w hen the WING BODY OVHT TEST swi tch is pressed? The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate. o The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate. o o The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate  All of the above. o When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate? When the APU bleed valve is open. o When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON. o When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the o isolation valve is closed. When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF. o In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List , the crew s elects a warm er temperature in order to: Reduce cabin airflow. o o Reduce the workload on the other pack. o Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves. o The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do? Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start. o o Do not start the engines, call Maintenance. o Do not start the engines, check MEL. Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start. o

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The motorized Exhaust valve:  Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration. o Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails. o Is normally open in pressurized flights above 8,000 feet. o  All the above. o The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates apossible APU back pressure condition and thrust must be limit ed to IDLE. True. o False. o What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air? o It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold. It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold. o It is discharged overboard. o It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section. o What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to i llum inate? Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits. o o Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits. o  All of the above. o The ram air system deflector doo rs:  Are always extended when the gear is down. o Extend during slow flight when flaps are not retracted. o o Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight. Extend on the ground only. o If any individu al zone is sw itched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting wil l be ignored by the temperature control s ystem. True o False o The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not o extinguish. Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish. o o Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish. Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does o not extinguish. See QRH Air Systems - EQUIPMENT COOLING OFF  A l eak i n the APU Bl eed Air Duc t w il l be indicat ed by: Right WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates o o  APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel Left WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates o CWS Master Caution BLEED o On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indic ator the L pr essure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:  As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurizat ion, this is normal. o o Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize. Set both packs to high for 2 minutes. o Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF o

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 APU •

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 APU o perati on requires th e foll ow ing:  APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN o  APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN o Battery switch must be ON. o  All of the above. o The APU Electronics Control Unit (ECU) provides:  Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil o temperature  Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT o exceedance  Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit o  All of the above are correct. o The APU can supply bot h transfer busses: On the ground only o In the air only o o On the ground or in the air o Never.  APU c ooli ng air: Enters through the air inlet door o Enters through the ram air system o Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet o o Is supplied by the air conditioning packs. During APU operation, fuel i s automatically heated to prevent i cing: True o False. o Moving the battery switc h to OFF automatically shut s dow n the APU. On the ground only o o In the air only On the ground or in the air o Never. o (Because of power loss to the Electronic Control Unit (ECU))

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The APU generator ammeter: o Remains unchanged from the B737-300 thru 500 Is displayed in a digital readout format on the electrical panel o Displays APU generator voltage o  APU generator amperage is no longer displayed on the flight d eck. o It is r ecommended to operate the APU for _____ befor e using i t as a bleed air sour ce. 20 seconds o 30 seconds o 45 seconds. o 1 full minute o (This one minute stabilization is recommended to extend the service life of the APU.)

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During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior to normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several times. These indications have no adverse effect on st arting the APU. It is not necessary to monit or EGT during st art. True o o False.

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Electric al power to start th e APU comes from: The battery bus or the DC ground power receptacle o Battery power or either AC transfer bus o Either the AC or DC standby bus o The No.1 Transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used. o

(With AC power available, the starter generator uses AC power to start the APU. With no AC power, the starter generator uses battery power to start the APU.) •

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If the APU is the only s ource of electrical power: In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed o o In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load o On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed. o The APU swit ch OFF position has an automatic shut down delay of: 30 seconds o 60 seconds o o 120 seconds o 135 seconds The APU is capable of supplyi ng bleed air for both air condi tioning packs: On the ground only o o In the air only On the ground or in the air o o Never. The APU may be used as an electrical and p neumatic source sim ultaneously up t o: 10 000 feet o 17 000 feet o o 25 000 feet 30 000 feet o The APU start cycle may take up to: 60 seconds o 120 seconds o 135 seconds o o 3 minutes (Automatic shutdown occurs in the event of EGT exceedance.)

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The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to: 10 000 feet o 17 000 feet o o 25 000 feet 35 000 feet o THe APU will shu tdown o n the ground if: The battery switch is placed to OFF o The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminates o The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the main tank illuminate o o  All of the above are correct. When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. True o False. o

(When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a NO indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.)

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If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle: The FAULT light illuminates o The MAINT light illuminates o The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate o There is no light associated wih this malfunction. o In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main busses automatically shed until the load is within design limits. On the ground, the APU attempts to c arry a full electrical load. If an overload condition is s ensed, the APU sheds galley busses first , and then both main busses until the load is wi thin lim its. True o False. o The APU OVERSPEED lig ht il lumi nated indi cates:  APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown o The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during a normal APU o shutdown. The first two statements are correct. o None of the above o

(If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes (light is disarmed when the APU switch is in OFF position).) •

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Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdow n of the APU when it ill uminates? LOW OIL PRESSURE o o FAULT OVERSPEED o MAINT o The APU starts, operates and can s upply electrical pow er alone up to: o 41,000 feet 17,000 feet o o 25,000 feet 37,000 feet o The blue APU MAINT light m eans t hat:  APU may be operated o o  APU shuts down automatically  APU has to be shut down manually in flight or on ground o o  APU has to be shut down manually on ground only Pulling up the APU fire warning sw itch: Discharges the APU fire extinguisher o Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU o o Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and o closes the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door. When the APU is st arted usin g battery power only, there is no i ndication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line. True o False o

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 A UTOMATIC FLIGHT •

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With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the: MCP o FMC o FCC. o The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of : The Autopilots (A/P) o The Flight Directors (F/D) o The Autothrottle (A/T) o o  All of the above are correct. Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:  A/T computer o FMC o IRUs o VNAV is terminated by: o Selecting a different pitch mode G/S capture o Extending flaps beyond 15 with APP mode engaged o  All of the above. o Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will disengage the autopilot. o True False. o If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overriden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs? The autopilot disengages o LNAV disengages o o The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 ft of selected altitude. LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages. o

(If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of selected altitude, A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ and returns to selected altitude in ALT HOLD mode.) •

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The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is: Less than normal CWS force o Greater than normal CWS force o o The same as normal CWS force. When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide sl ope can be captured from above or below: True o False o When cont rol w heel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings level w hen the bank angle is: 5 degrees or less o 6 degrees or less o 10 degrees or less o 15 degrees or less. o How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS? o One Two o Three o Fours (two for each channel) o

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The AUTOLAND warning l ight is armed du ring dual ILS A/P appro ach below ____ feet. 2500 feet o 800 feet o 500 feet o 200 feet o What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD? CWS P o MCP SPD o VNAV o o V/S The autopilot cannot be engaged while forc e is applied to th e control w heel. True o False. o In the 'ARM' autothrott le mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain thru st at the selected N1 limit di splayed on the thrust mode display. o True False. o (ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The pilot can set thrust levers manually.)

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LNAV terminates w hen: o HDG SEL mode is engaged Upon VOR or localizer capture o  Aircraft is not within LNAV capture criteria o  All of the above are correct. o Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HOLD or after G/S capture. True o False. o (Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.)

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Which A/T modes permit manual thr ust c hange without A /T interference? GA & ARM o N1 & ARM o THR HLD & ARM o Only THR HLD o What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot during an ILS approach ? 2000 feet o 1500 feet o 800 feet o 500 feet. o Which of th e followi ng occu rs w hen a TO/GA switc h is p ressed below 2000 feet RA for a flight director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach? The autopilot disengages o GA mode of the Flight Director engages o The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1 o  All the above are correct. o The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is engaged in CMD: True o False. o LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer. o True False. o

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 Af ter li ft -off, t he A/T remains i n THR HLD unti l: 400 feet RA o 800 feet RA o 400 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off o 800 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off o If an engine failure occurs during t akeoff, the pitc h command target speed is: V2, if airspeed is below V2 o Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20 o V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20 o  All of the above o Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode: True o False. o The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP altitud e by at l east 100 feet, arms th e V/S mode. True o o False Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the autopilot. True o False. o Which mode must be armed before the second autopil ot c an be selected? o VNAV VOR LOC o  APP o LNAV o During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after ____ IAS. o 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS. 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS o 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS. o 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS. o Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are powering the busses. True o False. o Pushin g a CWS engage sw itc h engages the A/P pitch and r oll axes i n the CWS mode and displays CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the airplane in response to control pressures applied by either pilot . The control pressure is simi lar to that required for m anual fl ight. If aileron pressure is released w ith 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds existing heading. The heading hold f eature wit h bank less than 6 degrees is inhi bited when: Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS o 250 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode. o Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode. Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS o 200 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode. Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS o 250 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode. If engaged the autothro ttle w ill disengaged ____ after landing touchdow n. 2 seconds o 5 seconds o 8 seconds o 10 seconds o If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel approach (before FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged. True o False. o (this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...) 17

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The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at touchdown. 27 feet o 35 feet o 50 feet o 100 feet. o During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed. 8 degrees o 10 degrees o o 13 degrees o 15 degrees. If wi ndshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases to approximately : 600 fpm o o 800 fpm o 1000 fpm 1200 fpm o If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P attempt to hold th e airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture, wit hout regard to angle of attack or st ick sh aker limi tations. o True False. o (Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by pushing the TO/GA switch or disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.)

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The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:  A/P disengages & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet o  A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 200 fe et o  A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 fe et o  A/P disengages, stab trim or A/T warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 o feet  An A/T Dis engage fl ashin g li ght (amber) in dicat es airspeed error under fo ll ow in g conditions: inflight, flaps not up & airspeed differs from commanded value by _______ and is no t approaching c ommanded value. + or - 10 knots o + 10 knots or - 5 knots o o + 5 knots or - 10 knots + 15 knots or -10 knots. o Locali zer can be in tercepted i n HDG SEL, LNAV or CWS R. True o False. o The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode and status: LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors o are operating normally for an automatic landing LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated o sensors are operating normally for an automatic landing LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are o operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout. LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are o operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.

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The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of trim below 800 feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P goaround if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test switch held in posit ion 2.4- Automatic ground t est system fail. True. o False. o  Af ter local izer & gl idesl ope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually overrid ing pitch and roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot di sengagement. True o False. o Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS capture. Immediately. o 2 seconds. o Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude. o 4 seconds. o When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the pitch f light mode annunciation becomes: VNAV SPD. o VNAV PTH. o VNAV ACQ. o VNAV ALT. o (VNAV ALT maintains altitude.)

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During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA sw itch: F/D roll commands hold current heading. o o F/D roll commands hold current ground track. F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft. o (The Roll Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA is blank.)

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What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed during VNAV operations? o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts. IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed.. o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes. o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes. o  Antenna swit chin g f rom tail antenna to nose antenna occ urs w hen: VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged. o o LOC frequency is selected only. LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged. o VOR frequency is selected only. o  At what altit ude wil l both A/P's automati cally di sengage if FLARE is not armed d uring an ILS dual channel approach? 350 feet RA. o o 500 feet RA 50 feet RA. o Will not disengage. o  Af ter a normal t akeoff which pi tc h c ommand c an yo u expect? V2 o V2 to V2+15kt o o V2 to V2+20kt V2+20kt o Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode) Which i s the correct mode on the FMA?  ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA o N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD o o  ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV o

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 As you push th e TO/GA sw it ch fo r an automati c Go-Around, what is th e co rrect FMA announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode) N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA o GA / LNAV / MCP SPD o GA / - / TO/GA o MCP SPD / - / GA o When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will happen? VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. o VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. o o VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. o VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH 1030. What w ill t he aircraft do? The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level o The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level o o You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD o The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change. On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur. LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale o LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope o LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope. o o LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope You are established on the ILS at 3000´and inadvertently press TO/GA once. What will happen? The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic o The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic o Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000´ o o The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display uni t. What is c orrect? The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature o The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be o illuminated The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information o o The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values

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COMMUNICATIONS •

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How are the communication sys tems controll ed? By their respective control modulators. o By the Mode Control Panel. o By the Audio Control Panel. o What is the purpose of t he ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel? o It selects an alternate radio. It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP. o It swaps audio control panels with the observer. o The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone or the boom microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operation of the hand microphone. o True. False. o In cased of degraded audio s ystem operation:  Audio warnings for altitude alert are not heard . o  Audio warnings for altitude alert and GPWS are not heard. Windshear alerts are not o affected. o  Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are no t heard. In cased of degraded audio system operation c an access the passenger address system through the ACP (Audio Control Panel). True. o o False.

(An audio system operating in the degraded mode cannot access the passenger address system through the audio control panel. The crewmember can still use the service interphone handset and PA microphone if they are installed on the control stand.) •

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The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention of other crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired. Attention is gained through the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual signal at called position is : Blue. o Pink. o o Green. o Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds. On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate until: remains illuminated for 10 seconds. o remains illuminated for 20 seconds. o remains illuminated for 30 seconds. o o remains illuminated for 40 seconds. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased: Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight. o Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON. o Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or o OFF. Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON. o The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:  Always powers the CVR when DC bus 1 is powered. o  Always powers the CVR when DC bus 2 is powered. o o  Always powers the CVR when AC Transfer bus 1 is powered.  Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine o shutdown. The CVR uses four independent channels to record f light deck audio for maximum of: 30 minutes. o 60 minutes. o o 90 minutes. 120 minutes. o

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The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:  Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to o  AUTO.  Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to o  AUTO (after takeoff)  Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to o  AUTO (after landing). The CVR (orange box) is located: In the forward Electronic & Equipment bay (E&E). o In the aft right side of the aft cargo compartment. o o In the flight deck (under the captain's seat). o In the aft galley. When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder active?  Anytime the battery switch is ON. o In flight only. o  Anytime DC power is available, o o  Anytime 115 VAC is applied to the aircraft. Which radio does the First Officer us e in the degraded mode? VHF-1 o VHF-2 o Both VHFs o In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors fu nctional? o Yes. No. o  Audi o warnin gs fo r altit ude alert, GPWS, and win dshear are not heard on an audio system operating in the degraded mode. True o False o When the ALT NORM sw itc h on the Audi o Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT: The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on o any radios. The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one o radio. The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the o crewmember can communicate on all radios. The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and o interphone. With the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station: o  All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.  Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard . o The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost. o VHF 2 is the only useable radio. o The call system from f light deck t o cabin operates: o Blue call lights and a single low tone chime o Green call lights and a two tone chime Blue call lights and a single high tone chime o Pink call lights and a two tone chime o Flight Att endants may be called from t he flight deck, the other attendant station, or fr om any passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin identify the source of incomi ng calls to the attendants. o True False o

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ELECTRICAL •

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Which of t he follow ing is false concerning the B737NG electrical syst em? Each Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) supplies its own and can also supply essential o and non-essential loads of the opposite side bus system. The AC power sources are paralleled by an auto-paralleling system. o The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an o existing power source. The purpose of the AC ground s ervice bus is to p ower: The cabin lighting o The utility outlets o The battery charger o  All the above. o The TR´s ( Transformer rectifier ) convert: 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC o 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC o 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC o 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC o Which is the power source for the AC standby bus? o Transfer bus 1 under normal conditions Transfer bus 2 o  AC main bus 1 o Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions o If the AC source pow ering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus w ill r emain unpow ered. True. o o False.  A hig h oil temperature in t he IDG w ould cause an automati c dis connect of th e IDG. True o o False. The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope c apture to: Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control o Computers (FCCs) Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus o Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered. o o Provide more power to DC bus 1 In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS switch to OFF will: Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power o Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power o Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power o o Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail. The TR3 Disc onnect Relay: Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director o approach Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode o  Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS o approach Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC o Voltmeter. The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs): o  Are used in conjunction with a separate gene rator drive unit (CSD)  Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal o range of operation  Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of o operation Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from o their associated generator.

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 Af ter the loss of all generators, a fu ll y ch arged batter y can fu rnis h power to th e STANDBY Bus equipment fo r a minimum of: 20 minutes o 30 minutes o 60 minutes o 90 minutes o The cross bus t ie relay: Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director o approach Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode o o Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF o Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the  AC voltmeter Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates: Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards. o Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured. o o The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply. o The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply. For ground service, a ground service sw itch i s placed: On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck o On aft attendant´s panel o On forward attendant´s panel o o On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when: The GROUND POWER switch is positioned ON o The GROUND SERVICE switch is positioned ON o The pneumatic ground cart is disconnected o The AC ground power cart has been disconnected o The 115V AC Standby Bus is po wered by: The 115V Transfer Bus No.1 under normal conditions. o The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions. o The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators. o o The first & the third statements are correct. One basic principl e of operation for t he B737 electrical s ystem is: o  All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System. There is no paralleling of the AC power sources. o There is no paralleling of any power source. o o  An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source. . Because engine generators power t he transfer busses directly, and tr ansfer busses are connected by a bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator will not necessarily result in the los s of any bus(ses). True o False. o The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found in the B737-300 thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay opens automatically under the same circum stances as did the TR3 disconnect relay. True o False. o The SOURCE OFF light w ill ill umin ate: o When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source. When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer o function have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated. o o  All of the above.

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When the STANDBY POWER Swi tch is OFF: The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated o  Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power o sources The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished o The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1. o Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: The battery is being overcharged. o Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON. o The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON. o o The battery bus is not powered. In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC external power. True o False. o Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates: o The associated generator bus is not powered The associated transfer bus is not powered o The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus o The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus. o When the aircraft batteries is t he only source of pow er: The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged o and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged o The Captain\'s inboard and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays are o inoperative Both the Captain\'s and First Officer\'s PFD/ND displays remain operative but only o DEU No 1 is powered until the battery is discharged Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates: The associated generator bus is not powered. o The associated transfer bus is not powered. o o The IDG is not supplying power to its associated Transfer bus. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus. o It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and the other transfer bus wit h the APU. True. o False. o The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT) One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off. o During climb, the galleys may become inoperative. o Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from o lift-off. o The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.  AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter fo r th e so urce sel ect ed by the AC meter selector. True o False. o During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew should see include:  A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light o  A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light o Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the o associated Transfer bus o  All of the above. Illumination of the DRIVE light indi cates: IDG failure o IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature o o IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch  Any of the above. o 25

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Both A C Transfer busses can be pow ered simul taneously by:  A single IDG on the ground or inflight o The APU generator while on the ground or inflight o Both of the above o No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously o On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO, the Battery Bus is: Not powered. o Powered by TR3. o Powered by the Hot Battery Bus. o o Powered by the Battery. The TR UNIT will il luminate in fli ght if :  Any TR unit fails. o TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail. o TR2 fails. o TR3 fails. o The ELEC light wil l illumi nate in fligh t if:  A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system. o  A fault exists in the DC or Standby system. o  A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system. o The ELEC light only operates on the ground. o What is the signifi cance of an illuminated ELEC light? o One of the three TRs has failed. The DC system or standby system equipment has failed. o The battery is discharged. o Two or more TRs have failed. o With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle: The APU can be started using DC external power. o o The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source.  All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered. o There is no external DC power receptacle. o Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates: o The AC Standby Bus is unpowered The DC Standby Bus is unpowered o o The Battery Bus is unpowered  Any of the above. o With the STANDBY switc h in the AUTO positi on, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate source for standby power: Inflight only. o On the ground only. o Either inflight or on the ground. o Will not occur. o In flight if A PU is the only sourc e of electrical power: o  All galley busses are automatically shed Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed o Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed o No galley busses are automatically shed o With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on the ground, loss of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter & DC Standby bus is powered by battery. True. o False. o DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc voltage. Normal i ndication is : ______ volts 24 +/- 4 o 26 +/- 6 o 24 +/-2 o o 26 +/-4

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The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when: Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG o The IDG is disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure o The IDG is disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch o The engine is not running. o The purpose of the static i nverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from t he battery to 115V  AC pow er to suppl y the AC st andby bus durin g the los s of n ormal electr ic al pow er. True. o False. o

(The power supply to the inverter is controlled by the standby power switch and the battery switch on the overhead panel.) •

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The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes (if fully charged). 30 o 45 o o 60 o 75 DC busses pow ered from t he battery follow ing a loss o f both g enerators are: Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus. o o DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when o the battery switch is OFF). Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus. o (Switched hot battery bus is powered whenever the battery switch is ON.)

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If the TR UNIT light is i lluminates in flight, i t ind icates that one or mo re TR\'s have failed and you are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode. True. o False. o  An il lumi nated TR UNIT li ght whi le on th e ground in di cates th at at least tw o TRs have failed. o True False o What is th e purpos e of the GROUND SERVICE swi tch ? Provides automatic control of ground service bus. o Provide automatic control of ground service busses. o Provide manual control of ground service bus. o o Provide manual control of ground service busses. (Enables servicing airplane using external power without activating AC transfer busses.)

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Either generator or the APU can power bot h transfer buses. In the event a power sou rce fails, what is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite transfer bus power source? o The generator switch must be OFF. The battery switch must be ON. o The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position. o Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator w ith t he AC busses loaded: o 100 to 125 volts. 110 to 125 volts. o o 110 to 135 volts. 115 to 125 volts. o

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Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates: DC bus 1 unpowered o DC bus 2 unpowered o  AC standby bus unpowered o Hot battery bus unpowered o DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only DC voltage. Normal indication is: 12 +/- 4 volts. o 24 +/- 10 volts. o o 26 +/- 4 volts. (During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as 30 +/- 3 volts)

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Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a fault exists in DC power syst em or standby power syst em. True. o o False. (The ELEC light is inhibited in f light.)

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Galley busses are powered from: o The AC Transfer busses. The generator busses. o The Battery bus. o The main busses. o How many TRs are required to power the entire DC system?  Any one TR. o o Two TRs. Three TRs. o  Any TR and the battery. o What is the source of p ower for TR3? Transfer bus 1. o Transfer bus 2. o o  AC standby bus. None of above o What is the source of p ower for TR2? Transfer bus 1. o Transfer bus 2. o  AC Standby bus o o None of above. The swi tched hot battery bus is powered whenever: TR1 is powered. o Transfer bus 1 is powered. o  AC ground service bus is powered. o The battery switch is ON. o The purpose of the cros s tie relay is to: Isolate transfer bus 1 and 2 o Isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 o Disconnect TR1 and TR3 o What is the source of p ower for TR1? Transfer bus 1 o Transfer bus 2 o  AC standby bus o On the groun d, wit h the BATTERY sw itc h OFF and STANDBY POWER Switc h in BA T, the switched hot battery bus is: o Not powered Powered by TR 3 o Powered by the Hot Battery Bus o Powered by the Battery o

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The main battery charger is powered through: DC bus 1 o  AC ground service bus 2 o  AC main bus 1 o Transfer Bus 1 o Which bus supplies electrical pow er to the auxiliary battery charger?  AC ground service bus 1 o  AC ground service bus 2 o Transfer bus 2 o Transfer bus 1 o The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the battery is powering the standby bus. True o False. o The electrical sys tem incorpor ates an automatic l oad shedding feature. What is t he first bus that is shed? o Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first. Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first. o The AC standby bus is shed first. o None of above. o The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the second bus that is shed? o Galleys on transfer bus 1 Galleys on transfer bus 2 o The AC ground service bus. o The AC standby bus o  Af ter an overlo ad sit uation has been res ol ved, how do you recover th e gall ey bu ses ? It happens automatically. o o Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.  A ground engineer should reselect the appro priate switch in the E/E o Once disconnected, the IDG can be reconnected in flight. True o o False

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Reverse thrust can be selected wit h the forw ard thrust levers in w hat position? Maximum thrust position o Forward thrust position o Idle thrust position o  Any position o Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the ignition select switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus whil e the Right ign iter plug receives power from the AC standby bus. True o o False (The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus.)

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Starter Cutout speed is : 25% o 46% o o  Approximately 50% o  Approximately 56%  An auto-reli ght c apabi li ty is provided for fl ame-ou t protec ti on. Whenever the EEC detec ts an engine flameout, both igiters are activated. A flameout is d etected w hen: o  An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs  An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is be low idle RPM o o  An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or N2 is be low idle RPM  An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM or EGT is o below 200°C  At low N2 values, the o il sc aveng e pump may not provide enough pressure t o return oi l to the tank, causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be indicated after start. o True False. o Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers? System A o o System B System A for engine No.1 & system B for Engine No.2 o o System A for engine No.2 & system B for Engine No.1 The EEC drives all engine indications except: Fuel flow & oil pressure o Oil temperature & engine vibration o o Oil quantity & engine vibration Oil temperature, pressure & quantity indications. o Loss of either DEU: Has no effect on EECs o Results in a loss of signal to the affected EEC o Results in a loss of signal to both EECs o

(The EEC lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent engines from operating on a single source of data.) •

If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn o ff igni tion & s hut off fuel to the engine: 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts o o 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle o No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start. o (A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE.)

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The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do? Nothing, this is normal condition o Do not start the engines o Shut down the APU o Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines o The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and approach idle. Approach idle is selected in fl ight: Below approximately 12000 ft o If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON o o If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine o Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON (This higher % RPM improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.)

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 Approach idl e is maintained: Until after touchdown (60 KIAS) o o Until Reverser selection o Until 84 KIAS Until after touchdown, when ground minimum idle is selected. o In flight, if a fault prevents t he EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle schedule begins: Below 20 000 feet MSL o o Below 15 000 feet MSL Below 10 000 feet MSL o Below 5 000 feet MSL. o The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut off fuel to th e engine if:  An impending hot start is detected during ground star ts o o  An impending hot start is detected during ground sta rts or in flight starts The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts o The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts. o Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until: o The completion of the APU start cycle Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to acceptable load o  An AC fuel pump pressurizes the manifold o  APU shutdown o What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged? The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56% o o The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes  An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed o valves Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE o extinguishes) Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the follo wing is true?  Acceptable, no action is necessary o Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature o Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced o thrust setting Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible. o EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mo de thrust f or the same thrust lever position. True o False. o

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The EEC automatically selects approach idl e in fli ght anytime: The airplane descends below 15000 feet MSL o Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or o FLT Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for o either engine Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine o During a normal engine start: Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start o switch to GND o Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater that 15% N2 o Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start o switch to GND The APU GEN OFF BUS light wi ll i llu minate: o When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus o Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1 Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2 o Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer o bus If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X BLEED START indication will be displayed above the N2 dial. True o False. o Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdow n of the APU when it ill uminates? LOW OIL PRESSURE o o LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT o OVERSPEED o The EEC provi des EGT redli ne exceedance pro tecti on. o True False. o The EEC provides redline overspeed pro tection for: N1 only in both the normal and alternate modes o N2 only in both the normal and alternate modes o N1 & N2 in the normal mode only o o N1 & N2 in both the normal and alternate modes. The thrust reverser may be deployed: Inflight when the thrust lever is at idle o When either radio altimeter is sensing less than 10 feet altitude o When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode o  All of the above o The REVERSER light, located on the aft overhead panel, illuminates when the thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation valve closes. True o False o

(Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, a malfunction has occured and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.) •

The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is: ENGINE START SWITCH .........OFF o ENGINE START SWITCH......... GROUND o ENGINE START LEVER ..........CUT OFF o

(Continue to monitor the engine for 60 seconds (clears fuel and cools engine components) and then ENGINE START SWITCH OFF.)

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In case of LOSS OF THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, you are supposed to wait for successful engine start(s) before starting APU. True. o False. o

(DO NOT wait for successful engine start(s) prior to starting APU. The APU has demonstrated the capability to provide electrical power up to 20 000 feet. APU may be placed on either or both busses.) •

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 Af ter a L OSS THRUST ON B OTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may tak e u p to  ______ to accel erate to idle. o 30 seconds o 60 seconds 2 minutes o 3 minutes o During battery start, when does the EEC become energized? When positioning the startswitch to GND o o N2 greater than 15% o When start lever is raised to idle  Above 25% N1 o The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC´s alternate mode. What is correct? o The EEC´s automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define o engine parameters If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions o will be used for the engine parameters. You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control o panel.

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FIRE PROTECTION •

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Pulling up the APU fire warning sw itch: Discharges the APU fire extinguisher. o Trips the generator control relay, and generator breaker, arms the associated o extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve Closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door. o o The first & the second statement are correct. o The second & the third statement are correct. The power source for Engine Fire Extinguishing is: Transfer Bus No.1. o The Switched Battery Bus. o The Hot Battery Bus. o o None of the above. Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION & OVHT/DET annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the Master FIRE WARN lights and the red fire swi tch li ght. What are the other indications ? The APU DET INOP light illuminates. o  A Red ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates. o o The Fire Bell. Pulling the engine fire warning sw itch up: Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve. o Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve only if the o battery switch is ON Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve. The engine fuel shutoff valve must be closed using o the engine start lever. Closes the engine fuel shutoff valve. The spar fuel shutoff valve must be closed using o the engine start lever. Illumination of the APU DET INOP light will also cause the MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate. True. o o False. Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests: The engine overheat detectors. o o The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU. o The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE. During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL, an alert is i nitiated only if one of the detector elements in Loop A and one of the detector elements in L oop B s ignal an overheat or fire cond ition. True. o o False. In case of APU fire, the Recall Items are : 1) APU SWITCH .........................................................OFF 2) APU FIRE WARNING SWITCH...... ………………...PULL & ROTATE o o

True False.

(There is no RECALL ITEMS for an APU Fire! (see QRH).) •

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If the OVHT DET switch is positioned to A or B, the system operates as a single loop system. The non-selected loop is not mon itored. o True. False. o During cargo fire TEST, Individual detector faults can only be detected by a manually ini tiated test . The MASTER CAUTION light does not ill umin ate. True. o o False. 35

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Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: a single fire extinguisher bottle is installed in the air conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of fire in either the forward or aft compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo fire warning light to illuminate. The extinguisher is armed by pushing the appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch. True o False. o In case of Cargo Fir e, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warnin g Li ghts are illum inated red.  At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at o least one detector on the remaining loop detects smoke) o  At least one detector in each loop detects smoke. o  At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire con dition. If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in one or both c argo compartments have failed. True. o False. o (BOTH loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed.)

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Main wh eel well fir e protection c onsists of fire detection powered by the: Battery bus. o o No.1 AC Transfer bus. Switched hot battery bus. o  A dual fi re detector l oop is i ns talled in th e main w heel well. True. o False. o

(A single fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. As the temperature of the detector increases to a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition. The WHEEL WELL fire warning remains illuminated until the temperature of the detector has decreased below the onset temperature.) •

Cargo comp artement smoke detection is powered by : Hot battery bus. o o Switch hot battery bus. Transfer bus No.1. o DC bus 1 & DC bus 2. o (Cargo compartment fire extinguishing is powered by the hot battery bus.)

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The lavatory smoke detection sys tem monitors for th e presence of smok e. When smoke is detected :- an aural warning sounds- the red alarm indicator light on the lavatory smoke detector panel illumin ates True. o False. o

(There is no flight indication. When smoke is no longer present, the system automatically resets.) •

 Af ter a wheel well fi re, if th e landing gear must be retracted fo r airpl ane performance, leave the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL WELL fire warning light has extinguis hed. o 10 minutes. 15 minutes. o 20 minutes. o 30 minutes. o

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During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be opened if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is conf irmed to be in the flight deck. True. o False. o

(CAUTION : - Establish normal holding airspeed (high airspeed may prevent opening the window)- Window should not be opened unless the source is confirmed to be originating in the flight deck.) •

If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew crew is supposed to descent to t he lowest safe altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR should be positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch should be opened. What is the main caus e of th e OUTFLO OUTFLOW W VALVE operation? To depressurize the cabin. o To provide maximum cabin ventilation. o To provide smoke/fumes contamination of/from other compartments. o This causes the cabin airflow to carry smoke/fumes aft. o (The outflow valve can take up to 20 seconds to open.)

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FLIGHT CONTROLS •

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The primary flight control s con sist of rud der, ailerons ailerons and _____ ______ _ Spoilers o Flaps o Elevators o Speedbrakes o Why are mechanical mechanical gates gates i nstalled on t he flap selector unit. To prevent inadvertent flap lever movement beyond F1 and F15 during G/A o To hinder flap movement beyond F15 until gear down is selected. o Prevent flap movement to UP position when speed is too low. o o Has no particular function. If the spoil ers become jammed: jammed: The first officer’s control wheel operates the ailerons o The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons o The ALT spoiler system is selected o The first officer’s control wheel operates the spoilers and ailerons o In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated operated wit h the Standby syst em. True o False o Roll contr ol is provided by the ailerons, assist assist ed by the _____ _____ Flight spoilers o o Ground spoilers Flight spoilers & ground spoilers o Flight spoilers or ground spoilers (depending on speed) o During a normal landing, flight spoilers & ground spoilers will always extend simultaneously. True o o False. Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot & stabilizer position. True o False o (The feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel & centering unit.)

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To operate the Feel Feel syst em, the Elevator Elevator Feel Computer us es: Either hydraulics system A or B pressure o o Either hydraulics system A or B pressure (whichever is higher) o Hydraulics system A Hydraulics system B o (The system operates normally even with only one hydraulics system remaining)

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 A Mach Tri m sy st em prov pr ovid id es sp eed st abili abi li ty at the th e hi gher gh er Mach numb nu mbers ers .Mach tr im is automatically accomplished above: o Mach 0.50 Mach 0.615 o Mach 0.655 o Mach 0.70 o Mach Mach Trim syst em corrects for Mach tuck by m oving st abilizer abilizer up. True o False. o (It moves elevators up (not the stabilizer))

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Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC / ADIRU, to compute a Mach trim actuator position whih repositions the elevator feel & centering unit, which adjusts t he control column neutral position (column w ill not move). True o False. o (Of course the column will move !)

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In addition to Hydraulic System A & B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic Hydraulic System through the: System A Standby Rudder Power Control Unit o o System B Standby Rudder Power Control Unit o Standby Rudder Power Control Unit Main Rudder Power Control Unit o The Power Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of pow er for the Aut oslat System if:  A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed o o Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative o The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down  A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed. o The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for th e leading leading edge devices is:  All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated o o  All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated  All LE devices EXT lights illuminated o LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated. o During flight w ith both hydraulic sys tems A & B inoperative: inoperative: o The standby hydraulic system operates the trailing edge flaps normally Trim is available for the stabilizer and rudder only. Aileron trim is inoperative with the o autopilots disengaged. The autoslat system is still functional through the operation of the PTU o The eleva elevator tor transfer mechanism allow s: The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer the source of power for elevator o actuators to hydraulic systems A or B, depending upon which is producing higher pressure. The control column to be physically separated in the event of an elevator jam. o Forces from either control column to be transferred to the stabilizer. o The elevator feel & centering unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control o columns.  Auto u to pilo pi lo t t ri m & mai n s tab il izer trim tr im use us e separat sep arat e moto mo tors rs . True o False. o What What is the number of flight spoilers loc ated ated on each wing? 2 o 3 o o 4 6. o The Flap/Slat Flap/Slat Electroni cs Uni t (FSEU) (FSEU) prov ides: LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7 except during autoslat operation o TE asymetry protection by removing hydraulic pressure to the TE flaps if an asymetry o is detected o Uncommanded motion protection for LE devices and TE flaps.  All of the above are correct. o Select Select th e correct s tatement: tatement: The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulics systems A & B, with backup o from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest. Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and decelaration. o o The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the Alternate Flap drive system.  All statements are correct. o

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Loss of Hydraulic System B pressure does not cause illumination of the amber YAW DAMPER light or yaw damper disengagement. True o False. o Leading Edge devi ces are norm ally o perated by ______ o Hydraulic System A Hydraulic System B o Hydraulic Systems A & B o Standby Hydraulic system. o The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT ligh t : o Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended Indicates LE Slats are fully extended o Is inhibited during Autoslat operation inflight o Provides TE Flaps asymetry protection. o Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of: o  Altitude & elevator position Elevator balance tabs position o Only System A hydraulic pressure o  Airspeed & stabilzer position. o The number of slats loc ated on each w ing are: 2 o o 3 4 o 6. o When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the yaw damper indicator. True o o False. The trailing edge flaps devices consist of doubl e slotted flaps inboard outbo ard of each engine. True o o False. With the loss of hydraulic syst em B, (system A operating normally): Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing o normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON. Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is o providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON o Main & standby yaw damper functions are lost Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed o to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS ligh t il lumi nates w hen the: Flaps are up & a pressure imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or o if one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails o Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the o elevator pitot systems fails. No correct answer is provided. o The airspeed range for trim operation is: o 100-300 KIAS 158-300 KIAS o 100 KIAS - Mach 0.50 o 100 KIAS - Mach 0.615 o Yaw damper inpu ts (main or standby) can be overriden: o Only when the yaw damper switch is off By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs o By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs o By either trim or rudder pedal inputs. o

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Main electric trim can be used to apply up to +14.5 units. True o False. o Main Electric Trim: a)Flaps retracted 3.95 to 14.5 units b)Flaps extended 0.05 to 14.5 units(same than autopilot trim) Manual trim: 0.20 to 16.9 units.

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Main electric t rim has 2 speed modes : high & low speed. True o False. o  An alt ernate retract ion s ystem is provid ed for th e LE Devi ces. True o False. o What is number of groun d spoilers on each wing? 2 o 3 o 4 o 6. o The Autoslat sys tem: o Provides for slat deployment above VMO/MMO Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the o airplane approaches a stall Is normally powered by Hydraulic System A o Is normally powered by Transfer Bus No.2 o The flap load relief sys tem is operational at: o  All flap settings Flaps 15, 30 & 40 o Flaps 30 & 40 o Flaps 40 only. o The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Swit ch: Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure, and electrically o extends the TE Flaps Closes the Flight Spoiler Shutoff valve o  Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurizes the STANDBY Rudder Power o Control Unit.  Arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and o closes the Trailing During landing, compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy. Compression of the Right main landing gear strut enables the ground s poilers to deploy... o True False. o

Note : if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected, when the air/ground system senses ground mode (any gear compresses), the SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the UP position and flight spoiler panels deploy automatically. When the Right main landing gear strut compresses, a mechanical linkage opens the ground spoiler shutoff valve and the ground spoilers deploy. •

During descent from altitude you need to decrease your aispeed by using your speed brakes. What is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.  ARMED o FLIGHT DETENT o UP o o  Any intermediate position.

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If wheel spinup is n ot detected on landing with t he speed brake armed the flight spo ilers will deploy automatically : Only when the RIGHT main landing gear strut compresses o When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses) o When the ground spoilers deploy o Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy. o What is the maximum flap extension altitude? 10 000 feet o 17 000 feet o 20 000 feet o o 23 000 feet Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed simultaneously to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the aileron feel and centering unit, which causes the control wheel to rotate and redefines the aileron neutral posi tion. True o o False. The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a Mach trim actuator position.  Airspeed Indicator o  ADIRU o Mach/Airspeed Indicator & thrust levers position o What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL & AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have in common? Will illuminate if both system computers fail o Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed o  Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights. o  All of the above. o Extendin g the fl aps to f laps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approx imately _______ 30 seconds o 1 minute o 2 minutes o o 4 minutes. If you experience a 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON' you may: o Use maximum force, including a combined effort of both pilots, if required (a maximum two-pilot effort on the controls will not cause a cable or system failure) Turn off any flight control switches o Limit bank angle to 10 degrees o o  All of the above.

Never turn off any flight control switches. See QRH : 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON' •

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The LE FLAPS TRANSIT ligh t i llum inated in dicates _______ Leading edge devices are in transit o o Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting  Asymetric leading edge devices o  Any of the above. o The speedbrake lever w ill mo ve forward and all spoil ers will retract if either thrust lever is advanced after landing. o True o False. The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indi cates th at the sp eedbrake is not usable. True o False. o

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The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing with down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____ degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated. 6,5 o 8 o 10 o 12. o  At what fl ap settin g(s) should th e leadi ng edge slats be in t he FULL EXTEND pos it ion? 1 o 1 to 5 o o Greater than 5 o 5 to 40. With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will illuminate: True o False. o What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing? o 1 5 o 15 o 30 or 40. o During an 'ALL FLAPS UP LANDING', the speed to be maint ained is: VREF40 + 15 o o VREF40 + 30 VREF40 + 55 o VREF40 + 60 o During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps 15 landin g. Af ter armin g t he ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt m ax), you set the flaps to desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed schedule. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light w ill remain i lluminates unti l the f laps approach the: Flaps 1 position o Flaps 5 position o Flaps 10 position o o Flaps 15 position. If the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light is illuminated in flight. It indicates: o The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than Flaps 5 or the Radio altitude is less than 500 ft The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps o extended more than Flaps 10 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft o The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than Flaps 15 or the Radio altitude is less than 2500 ft o The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than Flaps 1 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft You have to perform a 'Runaway Stabilizer' recall items. What are your chronological actions? o 1) Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues, cutout the stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold trim wheel) You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency o You disengage autopilot and cutout immediately cutout switches o You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches o See QRH.

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The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft center of gravity and high thrus t wh en the autopilot is not engaged. True o False. o

The STS monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed and vertical speed and then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer trim.Remember that the SPEED TRIM FAIL amber light is often illuminated when you arrive at the aircraft. It is only due to the Inertial Vertical Speed Indicator which is not powered by the ADIRUs (IRS selectors OFF): the STS receives invalid inputs. •

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The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-arounds. Conditions f or speed trim operation are: o  Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement  Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds o following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement o  Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement  Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds o following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement During a steady right-handed tur n on the ground, correct indications of th e YawDamper indicator would be? o Steady full scale left deflection. Steady full scale right deflection o Steady in the center position. o Landing flap 40 selected and in position. An IAS of 178kts is flown due to a highwind gust. Would you expect: o Flaps to retract to 30. Flaps to retract to 25. o Flaps to remain in the current configuration. o

When the flaps are set at 40, the TE flaps:- retract to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots- reextend when airspeed is reduced below 158 knots.When the flaps are set at 30, the TE flaps:retract to 25 if the airspeed exceeds 176 knots- re-extend when airspeed is reduced below 171 knots. •

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Trailing unc ommanded motion protection is prov ided by: The FSEU. o o The Trailing Edge flaps bypass valve. Both of the answers above. o With the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated (indicating failure of the Mach trim system), you must: Limit airspeed to 280 kt / .82 Mach o Limit aispeed to 270 kt o o Limit airspeed to 280 kt and altitude to 20,000 ft See QRH (Flight Controls / Mach Trim Fail).

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If you activate th e FLT CONTROL swi tch Overhead panel) to STBY RUD, you acti vate: o standby hydraulic systemp pump. standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons o and elevators. activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to o pressurize standby rudder power control unit.

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If you select the ALTERNATE FLAPS to the 'ARM' position: Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes, standby pump activates and ALTERNATE o FLAPS position switch is armed Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes and standby pump activates. o Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is de-energized. o Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is energized. o The FEEL DIFF PRESS lig ht indi cates:  A loss of pressure in the elvator feel computer. o  An excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer. o  An excessive temperature in the elevator feel computer o o a data loss in the elevator feel computer.

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLA YS •

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To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page: CLB or CRZ o PROG o CLB o CLB or PERF o When penetrating turbulence: The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and o transferred to the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page o The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the o N1 set manually o The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1 set manually The purpos e of t he FMC FIX INFO page is to : Establish your position relative to any stored fix o Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix o methods, monitor flight progress o Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a known fix The first & the third statements are correct. o If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit ill uminates; it indicates:  A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU o  An entry of an invalid present position o o  A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal. o On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either degrees Celsius or Fahrenheit: o True False. o The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates: The airplane is excessively off the flight planned course o Position information is contradictory o o The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course o The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message 'OVERSPEED DISCONNECT' means: VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by o more than 15 knots o The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed o VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more o than 10 knots Using a Reduced Takeoff thru st s etting may result in Aut omatic FMC of Reduced Climb Thrust. o True o False. The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment: True o o False. The airplane is not certified for operations:  Above 78°15' N or below 78°15'S o  Above 73°N or below 60°S o o  Above 82°N or below 82°S  Approaching North or South pole o

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On which CDU is the ground speed disp layed? PROGRESS page 1 o CRZ o POS REF page 2 o INIT REF o Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a previously selected approach: True o False. o With t he CONTROL PANEL select sw itc h on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in th e BOTH ON 2 position: The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & o First Officer's displays Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator o DEU 2 controls all six display units o  ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's o pitot probe The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is 35 degrees or more. True o False. o  Amber if the slip/skid indicator is also at full scale deflection.

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The rising r unway is dis played when localizer pointer is in vi ew and radio altitude is less than ____ feet. 2500 o o 1500 500 o o 200 The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on the Mode Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse) True o o False. The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading & VOR/ADF bearing to the station. The RMI is powered by: The AC transfer bus 2 o The AC standby bus o The DC standby bus. o o The TR3.

The RMI is powered by the AC standby bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as battery power is available. •

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When the 'ROLL' flag (amber) appear on the Attitude indicator: The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 2 degrees o o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 5 degrees The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 10 degrees o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 15 degrees o The Altit ude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the dig ital alti meter indi cates the Captain's & F/O's altitude indic ations dis agree by more than: 50 feet o o 100 feet for more than 2 continuous seconds 200 feet for more than 5 continuous seconds o 500 feet for more than 10 continuous seconds o If the Altitude Failure Flag (amber) appears, it means that the barometric altitude or barometric correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed except the ALT  ALERT annu nc iat ion and t he barometri c s ett ing. o True False. o

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Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during normal operation. True o False o The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the navigation display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed by: Reducing the amount of map information o Reducing range o Deselecting one or more of the EFIS control map switches (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, o POS) o  All of the above. If you s elect the 'BOTH ON 1' swi tch of t he CONTROL PANEL: The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units o The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units o The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units o The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units o In the air, the flight r ecorder is not pow ered if bot h engines are shut dow n. True o False. o

In the air the flight recorder is powered even with both engine shut down as long as APU electrical power is available. •

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The Pitch Limit Indicator (amber) indicates: Pitch attitude corresponding to stick pusher activation o  Appears anytime the Flaps are UP o Pitch limit o o Pitch Limit when flaps are UP The Mach digital c ounter indicates current Mach number & it is di splayed when airspeed inc reases above ___ Mach 0.30 o 0.40 o 0.50 o o 0.60 It blanks when airspeed decreases below 0.38 Mach

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The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff. It is removed:  At first flap retraction or when VREF is entered o o When landing gear lever is placed UP When speed is more than 250 knots KIAS o  All of the above. o The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed after Zero Fuel Weight is entered in the CDU and takeoff gross weight is calculated or after takeoff gross weight is set with the speed reference selector. o True False. o It is not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet altitude.

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The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1 or DEU2 for all 6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a single DEU source, a 'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's altimeters. True o False. o

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If the Upper Display fails: The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard display and the Upper display o blanks The engine display automatically moves to the Outboard display and the Upper o display blanks. The engine display automatically moves to the Lower display and the Upper display o blanks o The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard or Outboard display and the Upper display blanks There is no automatic switching for a lower DU failure.

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If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display (OUTBD PFD), the compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit & the inboard display unit blanks. True o False. o What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)? o The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the  ADIRUs The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments o The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs o The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack. o

There are 4 ADMs. They convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to its on-side pitot probe; there is no cross connection. •

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The Static Ai r temperature is displayed on: The CDU IDENT page o The CDU PERF INIT page o o The CDU CLB page The CDU PROGRESS page o The Standby attitude indicator provides attitude information that is independent of the primary attitude displays. The indicator is p owered by: o The Battery bus The Transfer bus 1 o The Transfer bus 2 o The TR2 o

The indicator is powered by the battery bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as battery power is available. The gyro reaches operational speed approximately 60 seconds after power is applied. •

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The Weather Radar Annun ciati on 'WXR ATT' ind icates: The Weather radar has failed o The Weather radar Attitude calibration has been lost o o The Attitude stabilization for antenna has been lost o The Display unit cooling has been lost or an overheat condition has occurred The ND Wind direction/speed and wi nd arrow is: Displayed in only in ND MAP mode o o Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 6 knots Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots o o Displayed only in ILS mode What will occur if the aircraft pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication ( PLI ) on the PFD during slow speed maneuvering ? The aircraft stalls o o The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet The stick shaker warning activates o o The stick nudger pushes the control column forward. 50

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During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to fl ashing amber for three second. What does it mean? Radio altitude data is unreliable o The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA) o  A windshear has been encountered o The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet o The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:  Automatically when APPROACH is selected on the MCP panel o Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel o By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page o o By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL: The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available o The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is o operating The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON o o The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in GROUND position The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in th e lower porti on of the PFD duri ng an ILS approach. What does it m ean? The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch o Glide slope is not being tracked o o The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error o  An amber DSPLY SOURCE ann unci ation below each s peed t ape indic ates: The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be o considered unreliable unless verified by another source  A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units o o  A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred  A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the o source for all six display units If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed: o Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors On the ENGINE PRIMARY display o o On the ENGINE SECONDARY display On the inboard display unit o Speed Trend Vector: Tip of arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next _____ based on the current airspeed and acceleration. o 5 seconds 7 seconds o o 2 seconds 10 seconds o The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With range greater than 20 NM´s the trend vector: o Predicts position at the end of 10,20 and 30 second intervals Predicts position at the end of 20,40 and 60 second intervals o o Predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals Predicts position at the end of 60,90 and 120 second intervals o

Predicts position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals. Each segment represents 30 seconds. Based on bank angle and ground speed. Selected range determines the number of segments displayed. For range:

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With t he CONTROL PANEL select sw itc h on t he Displays Sour ce Panel in t he BOTH ON 2 position: The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and o First Officer's displays Both pilots displays are using the No2 DEU o DEU 2 controls all six display units o o  ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe

The CONTROL PANEL select switch determines which EFIS control panel controls the pilots’ display functions. With the switch positioned to either BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2, the selected EFIS control panel provides inputs for both sets of pilot displays. When in the NORMAL position, a 'DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL' annunciation illuminates on the pilot’s altimeters and indicates a failure of the associated EFIS control panel. •

 An amber CDS FAUL T annu nc iat ion below each sp eed tape indic ates: The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be o considered unreliable unless verified by another source  A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units o o  A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred o Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display units

CDS FAULT (amber) – A non–dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine. CDS MAINT (white) – A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine. •

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 A magent a bug on t he vertic al speed i ndic ator i n t he PFD in dicat es:  Actual vertical speed o Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected o Electrical power loss to the indicator o Indicates vertical speed in VNAV mode o The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data: Position and speed only o  Attitude and speed only o  Altitude and speed only o o Position, attitude, altitude and speed

The ADIRS produces flight data such as position, speed, altitude and attitude for the flight displays, flight management computers, flight controls, engine controls and all other systems requiring inertial and air data. •

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The Landing Alt itu de reference bar (Amber- 0-500ft, Whit e- 500 –1000ft) ind icates: o Height above Minimum descent altitude o Height above touchdown / Landing Altitude Radio Altitude o Height above MSL o WXR selector on the EFIS Control Panel energizes the weather radar transmitter and displays w eather radar returns in: o  APP, VOR, MAP and PLN modes o Map, centre Map, expanded VOR and expanded APP modes Only APP and Map modes o Only expanded VOR and expanded APP modes o When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns are limited to: o 80 NM 160 NM o 320 NM o 640 NM o 52

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With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be show n wi thin: 160 NM o 120 NM o 80 NM o 40 NM o During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway symbol comes into view: Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA o Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA o  At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 150 0ft RA o o  At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200 ft RA • displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than 2500 feet • rises towards airplane symbol when radio altitude is below 200 feet • is not displayed when the localizer signal is unusable.

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'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is different than th e WXR displ ay range. True o False o

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FUEL •

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Each fuel tank us es two A C powered fuel pumps whi ch are cooled and lubri cated by fuel passing through t he pump. True o False. o In flight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engin e? It receives fuel from the No.2 tank automatically o It will shut down due to fuel starvation o It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve o o It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve. Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because: Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check o valves. Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check o valves. o Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps. o Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF. The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve: Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start lever; o however, the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the Engine Start lever. o Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel  And the spar fuel shutoff valve require AC power to operat e o  And the spar fuel shutoff valves close whenever their respective Engine Fire Warning o switch is pulled or Engine Start lever is placed to CUTOFF Fuel Quantity in dicators wi ll displ ay:  An 88888 reading if a malfunction occurs. o o Blank if a malfunction occurs  An ERR symbol if a malfunction occurs o  A FUEL ERROR message if a malfunction occurs. o The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when: Both Center Tank Fuel Pump switches are turned off. o The No.1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank No.1 forward pump is o operating. The Center fuel tank is about 3/4 full. o Either engine is operating. o The center tank scavenge jet pump transfers remaining fuel from the center tank at a rate of appr oxi mately ____. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude. o o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight. o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature. o Overwing fueling receptacles exist for bot h main tanks. o True False. o The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main fuel tanks combi ned. True o o False

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There are CDS fuel alert f or: Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow o difference between engines Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no o pressure with fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or o no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines  Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch ON, impending fuel o filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks. During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700 lbs) of fuel in t he center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit wil l show :  A LOW indication o  A CONFIG indication o  A pump LOW PRESSURE indication o None of the above. o You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel i n th e No.1 main t ank and 3060 kg (6750 lbs) of fuel i n the No2 main tank. You will see:  A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and o system annunciation for fuel  An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light o and system annunciation for fuel o  An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system annunciation for fuel The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber. o Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to t he fueling manifold? The fueling valve. o The crossfeed valve. o o The Manual Defuelling valve For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks? 453 kg (1000 lbs) o 500 kg (1100 lbs) o o 590 kg (1300 lbs) There is no maximum fuel imbalance. o In whic h fuel tanks are bypass valves located? Center tank. o Both main tanks. o  All tanks. o o None. The Engin e Fuel Shut Off v alves: o  Are AC operated to OPEN and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire switch.  Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the o respective engine fire switch. o  Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.  Are cable operated to CLOSE. o What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate? Low fuel pressure in the affected tank o Low pressure in the fuel manifold o Low fuel pump output pressure o o The first two statements are correct. What is the conditio n of t he VALVE OPEN light w hen the crossfeed selector i s posi tioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed? Illuminated dim blue. o Illuminated bright blue. o o Illuminated amber. o Extinguished.

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Fuel for the APU is:  Approximately 164 kg/hr with electrics & bleeds at sea level, decreasing to 17 kg/hr at o high altitude and low loads Not heated o recorded on the fuel flowmeters. o What is the source of electrical power for t he engine fuel shutoff valves? The Hot Battery Bus. o The Battery Bus. o The DC Standby Bus. o The AC Standby Bus. o What is the source of electrical power for t he spar fuel shutoff valves? The DC Standby Bus. o The Battery Bus. o The Hot Battery Bus. o The Transfer Bus No.2. o Fuel for t he APU is normally su pplied from th e: o Left side of the fuel manifold. No.2 Main tank. o Center tank. o  Aux tank. o If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from main tank No.1.

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The cross feed valve when OPEN:  Allows fuel transfer from any tank to either engine or APU. o  Allows transfer of fuel between wing tanks only. o Clos.es the Bypass valve in each wing tank o The fuel temperature indi cator indi cates fuel temperature in the: No.1 tank. o No.2 tank. o Center tank. o No;1 & No.2 tanks. o The temperature indicating system uses AC electrical power.

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Once the fuel scavenging process begins, it cont inues for the remainder of t he flight. True. o False. o The accuracy of the fuel quantity indic ators is plus o r minus: 1 % of full scale reading. o o 2,5 % of full scale reading. 4 % of full scale reading. o 5 % of full scale reading. o The fuel quantity indicators are powered by: Standby DC power. o Standby AC power. o o Battery bus. TR2. o The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to an internal float. Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin. True. o False. o

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How many fuel measuring stic ks are installed in each main tank? Two. o Three. o Four. o Six. o Four are also installed in center tank.

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The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is  ___ mot or operated from the ___.  AC & Transfer Bus No.1 o o DC & Battery bus o  AC & Transfer Bus No.2 DC & DC Standby Bus. o With the Fuel LOW Alert displayed (amber): Fuel quantity is at least less than 2200 lbs / 1000 kg. o Fuel quantity is at least less than 2000 lbs / 907 kg. o o Fuel quantity is at least less than 1000 lbs / 453 kg. What is t he main pu rpos e of th e FUEL DOOR SWITCH BYPASS loc ated in th e Right Wing fueling panel? It energizes fueling panel if refueling power control relay fails. o o It checks operation of fuel quantity indicators. It de-energizes fueling panel if necessary (in case of thunderstorm for example). o The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is  ____ oper ated fr om the ____:  AC motor & Transfer bus 1. o DC motor & Hot battery bus. o o  AC motor & Transfer bus 2. DC motor & Battery bus. o The FUEL TEMP indicator located on the fuel control panel displays fuel temperature. A sensor in main tank No. 1 allows monitoring of fuel temperature.The temperature indicating system uses: DC power. o o  AC power. The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue when: The respective fueling valve is OPEN. o The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank o The respective fuelling valve is in transit. o The respective fueling valve is inoperative. o  A Cross feed sel ect or in operativ e is mainl y in dicat ed by a cros sf eed VALVE OPEN l ight remaining blue. It indicates the crossfeed valve valve position disagrees with the crossf eed selector positi on. If the valve is suspected clos ed: Maintain fuel balance with selective use of fuel pumps. o Land as soon as possible. o Flight conditions permitting, vary thrust to maintain fuel balance. If unable to maintain o acceptable balance, land as soon as possible. See B737NG QRH (CROSSFEED SELECTOR INOPERATIVE).

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 A fu el FILTER BYPASS li ght il lu minated indi cated im pendi ng fu el fi lt er bypass due to a contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur due to fuel contamination. o True. False. o

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With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum. Boeing QRH asks to increase speed, change altitude and/or deviate to a warmer air mass to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temperature limit (3°C / 5°F above the fuel freeze point or -43°C / -45°F wh ich ever is high er). TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed. o TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in o speed. o TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed. TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in o speed. In extreme conditions, it maybe necessary to descend as low as FL250.

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The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s) of an engine fuel leak, check: Total fuel remaining compared to planned fuel remaining. o Individual tank quantities. o o Fuel Flow indications for an engine with excessive fuel flow. o The first two statements are correct. Check \'LOW Fuel\' NNC in the B737NG QRH.

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 A s hut-off sy st em is u sed duri ng refuelli ng to:  Automatically close the fueling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full. o Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi. o o  Automatically close the manual defuelling valave when the wing tanks are full.  Are only available for Left & Right main tanks (not on the Center one). o The manual De-fueling valve is located: o Outboard of the Number 1 engine. Outboard of the Number 2 engine. o Inboard of the Number 1 engine. o o Inboard of the Number 2 engine. To defuel No. 1 tank: Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and o the Manual Defueling valve OPEN o Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the Manual Defueling valve OPEN Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve CLOSED and the o Manual Defueling valve OPEN When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be accomplished as follows: o Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally. Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate o normally. except the fuel shut-off system. Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate o normally. With failure of all generators, the c enter tank fuel : Cannot be used. o Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve. o Will be fed to the tanks by the center tank scavenge jet pump o Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero. Random fuel im balance must not exc eed 453 kgs (1000 lbs ): For takeoff, flight or landing but not for takeoff o For taxi, takeoff, flight or landing. o In flight only o Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000 lbs) True o o False.

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When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is corresponding main tank th rough a suctio n feed line that bypasses the pumps. True o False o Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages of the CDU. PERF INIT and HOLDING o PERF INIT and LEGS o LEGS and PROGRESS o PROGRESS and PERF INIT o Is there any fuel quantity measuring stick s ins talled in the Center tank? Yes o No. o There are 4 measuring sticks in the Center tank.

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The engines can suct ion fuel f rom the center tank. o True False. o For refuelling, w hich t ank(s) have an automatic shu toff valve that cl oses when the tank is full? o Left and right wing tanks Left and right wing tanks and center tank. o  A float switch removes power to the fuel valve solenoid when the tank is full

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Maximum tank fuel temperature is: 42°C o o 45°C 49°C o 55°C o Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low pressure. True. o o False. When is the fuel CONFIG light inhibited? When total fuel quantity is less than 726 kg o When center tank fuel is less than 363 kg o When center tank fuel quantity is less than 726 kg o When total fuel quantity is less than 363 kg o Fuel Measuring Stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from measuring s tick reading and fuel weight i ndicated by fuel quantity indicators. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it o magnetically to an internal float. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it o electrically to an internal float. o Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it pneumatically to an internal float. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it o automatically to an internal float. Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.

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What operates the spar fuel s hutoff valve? Cables and pulleys o DC from Hot Battery Bus o Pushrods and cranks o  AC from Standby Bus o

Spar fuel shutoff valves are located at the engine–mounting wing stations. The valves are DC motor operated from the hot battery bus. •

How many fuel measuring stic ks are installed? 20 o 16 o 12 o o 6 Six in each main tank (12) + 4 in the center tank = 16

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 An amber fuel IMBAL alert wil l remain dis pl ayed u nt il the imbalance is reduc ed to: o 91kgs 363kgs o o 453kgs 726kgs o Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) alert is inhibited when airplane is on ground. True o o False

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HYDRAULICS •

Refer to the refill indication (RF) to the Right of the hydraulic syst em quantity indication. Indication is dis played:  Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A orB o  At all times o When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is o on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in o Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.

Valid only when the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in. •

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If a leak develops in either pump, line or compon ent of syst em B, the quantity decreases until it indicates approximately zero and system B pressure is lost. The system B reservoir has one standpipe which supplies fluid to both the engine–driven pump and the electric motor–driven pump. However, with fluid level at the top of the standpipe, fluid remaining in the system B reservoir is suffi cient for pow er transfer unit operation. o True o False. If a leak occurs in the Standby Hydraulic System, the standby reservoir quantity decreases to zero. What is t he effect on System B reservoir quantity? No effect o Decreases to zero. o o Decreases to 20% full. o Decreases to approximately 72% full. Either A or B hydraulic s ystem can power all flight c ontrols with no decrease in airplane controllability. o True False o The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the: Trailing edge flaps. o Landing gear. o o  Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats. Outboard spoilers. o The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system A engine-driven hydraulic pu mp volum e is lost . The PTU uses system B pressure to power a hydraulic mot or-driven pump, which pressurizes system A hydraulic fluid. o True False o

The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid. •

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The autoslat system: Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B. o Uses Hydraulic System A pressure. o Uses Hydraulic System A fluid. o Uses standby hydraulic system fluid. o Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning swi tch shut s off hydraulic f luid to th e: Electric pump in System B o Engine driven pump in System B o Electric pump in System A o Engine driven pump in System A o

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The standby hydraulic syst em powers the: Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers. o Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper. o Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers. o  Alternate brakes, rudder, thrust re versers, and standby yaw damper. o What is one indication of a leak in the standby hydraulic system? Decrease in System A quantity. o The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates. o Illumination of the System A LOW PRESSURE lights. o Illumination of the System B LOW PRESSURE lights. o The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:  At all times. o Only when either FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD. o Only when the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch is moved to ARM. o Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function o is activated. Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications? Flaps are extended from 15 to 30. o Landing gear is extended. o Leading edge devices are extended. o Landing gear is extended & Leading edge devices are extended. o The amber LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illumin ates. What should you do? Position the hydraulic pump switch to off. o Pull the No.1 engine fire warning switch. o Disconnect the No.1 CSD. o Monitor System A and B pressures. o What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground operation of the electric h ydraulic pumps? 453 kg (1000 lbs) in the related main tanks. o 726 kg (1600 lbs) in both main tanks. o 760 kgs (1676 lbs) in the related main tanks. o o 760 kg (1676 lbs) in the center tank. The Landing Gear Transfer Unit : o Ensures System B can raise the gear on loss of System A. Ensures System A can operate leading edge flaps and slats when System B is lost. o Is used to lower the gear on loss of System A. o Ensures System A can raise the gear on loss of System B. o

The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A engine–driven pump volume is lost. The system B engine–driven pump supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit when all of the following conditions exist: •

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The illuminated Standby Hydraulic LOW PRESSURE Light indicates output pressure of standby pump is low . It is only armed when: Standby pump operation has been selected. o Standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated. o  Automatic standby function is activated. o The associated FLIGHT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD. o SYSTEM \'A\' HYDRAULIC LEAK- If a leak develops in the engine driven pump or its related lines, a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid level at t he top of the standpipe, the reservoir quantity dis played indi cates approximately  ___ ful l. 5% o 10% o 20% o o 30% System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor-driven pump.

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System A & B hydraulic fluid is cooled by:  Air provided by the recirculation fans. o Heat exchangers in the Left and Right packs. o Heat exchangers located in the main fuel tanks. o Hydraulic fluid is not cooled! o  A fl uid leak develops in System A electr ic pump or it s related li nes, or co mponents common to both the engine and electric motor driven pumps, the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost. True o False. o The Power Transfer Unit operates automatically when all of the following conditions exist: System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when o airborne System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when o airborne and when flaps are less than 5 but not up o System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and when flaps are less than 15 but not up System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when o airborne and when flaps are less than 5 but not up whith landing gear positioned to UP. The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump volume is lost. True o False. o

When system A engine-driven pump volume is lost: The engine system B engine-driven pump supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit when all of the following conditions exist: - airborne - No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value - landing gear lever is positioned UP - either main landing gear is not UP and locked. •

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The standby hydraulic sys tem is provi ded as a back-up if system A and/or B pressure is lost. The standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single electric motor-driven pump to pow er: Thrust reversers, rudder and leading edge flaps & slats o Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and standby yaw o damper Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper o Rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper o  Auto matic operation of th e St andby Hydrauli c System is in it iat ed when all the f ollo win g conditions exist: Loss of system A, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne o Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed o greater than 60 kts Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed o greater than 20 kts Loss of system A or B, flaps extended and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 o kts and FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic System ON  Auto matic operatio n of t he St andby Hydrauli c Syst em is i niti ated when:  A. System B fails and flaps are less than 15 but not up o System B fails and wheel speed > 50kts o o The main PCU Force Flight Monitor trips Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD o This answer is valid for 737 modified rudder- installed

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During normal operations, variations in hydraulic quantity indications occur when the system becomes pressurized after engine start , when raising or lowering the landing gear or leading devices or when cold soaking occ urs during l ong periods of crui se. True o False. o

These variations have little effect on systems operation. If the hydraulic system is not properly pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes. Foaming can be recognized by pressure fluctuations and the blinking of the related LOW PRESSURE lights. The MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights may also illuminate momentarily. •

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With the loss of sys tem A, you have to plan for alternate gear extension. True o o False. To start the standby system, what must you do? Select both FLT CONTROL switches to STBY RUD. o Select ARM with the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch. o Flight crew action is not required to start the standby system. o Why do the engine driven-pump switc hes normally stay in the ON position? o To increase the life of the blocking solenoids. To ensure the hydraulic system operates when the engines are running. o To energize the blocking solenoids. o What condition is not necessary before the PTU operates? o The number 2 engine-driven pump pressure is low. The number 1 engine-driven pump pressure is low. o o The flaps are less than 15 not UP. The airplane is in flight. o What c ondition is NOT necessary for the landing gear transfer unit to operate? System A hydraulic pressure is low o o The landing gear lever is in the UP position One of the main gear is not in the fully up position o o The number 1 engine N2 is less than idle. The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and: o Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi. o Brake pressure from hydraulic system A if it is greater than 1000 psi Brake pressure from standby hydraulic system. o Brake pressure from the PTU. o The STANDBY LOW QUANTITY light illuminates, what other indication(s) will you have? System A quantity between 3/4 and RF (Refill) indication. o o Both master caution lights and the flight control annunciator light will illuminate. o Both system B pump overhead lights illuminated. Illumination of the low pressure standby hydraulic amber light. o  An Engine Driven Hydrauli c pump suppli es approxi mately ____ t im es the volu me of an electrical hydraulic pump. 2 times. o o 4 times. 5 times. o 6 times. o With the loss of th e system B hydr aulic flui d and the syst em B FLIGHT CONTROL switc h to STBY RUD, what allows the movement of tr ailing edge flaps?  A system pressure. o o Standby hydraulic system pressure. Power Transfer Unit (PTU). o Electrical motor. o

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Where is t he heat exchanger for hydraulic sys tem A l ocated? In the standby hydraulic tank. o In the System A hydraulic tank. o In the centre fuel tank. o In fuel tank No.1. o

Hydraulic fluid used for cooling and lubrication of the pumps passes through a heat exchanger before returning to the reservoir. The heat exchanger for system A is located in main fuel tank No. 1 and for system B is in main fuel tank No. 2. •

Which hydraulic s ystem operates the Flight Spoilers? o  All on left wing system A, all on right wing system B. o  All on right wing system A, all on left wing system B. Both wings by system B o 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B o There are 12 spoilers in total: 4 ground spoilers and 8 flight spoilers

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Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF: o Disengages pump drive. Energizes the blocking valve to block pump output. o De-energizes the pump recirculation solenoid. o Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output. o Hydraulic sys tem pressure indication is derived from: Engine driven pump output only. o Combined engine and electric pump outputs. o Selectable engine or electric pump outputs. o Related system low pressure switch. o

Pressure switches, located in the engine–driven and electric motor–driven pump output lines, send signals to illuminate the related LOW PRESSURE light if pump output pressure is low. A check valve, located in each output line, isolates the related pump from the system. The related system pressure transmitter sends the combined pressure of the engine–driven and electric motor– driven pump to the related hydraulic system pressure indication. •

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Maximum hydraulic s ystem pressure indication is: o 3000psi in white 3500psi in white o 3500psi in amber o 3000psi in amber o Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to: o ON, activates the standby pump and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch. o STBY, activates the standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch. OFF, activates the PTU and arms the primary flap selector. o  ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms o  ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch. OFF and ARM are the only two positions for this switch

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 Al ternate brakes are op erated by: System A o System B o o System B via PTU Standby system o

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Hydraulic s ystem fluid q uantity show n on the Low er Display Unit indic ates percentage in the band: 0% - 100% o 0% - 106% o 10% - 100% o 10% - 106% o If you lose hydraulic pressure in System B, the followi ng systems w ill be affected: Yaw Damper, Alternate Brakes, Autopilot A, Trailing Edge Flaps o Main Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps o Standby Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot A, Flight Spoilers o o Ground Spoilers, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF: Energizes a blocking valve in the pump. o Disengages pump drive. o De-energizes the pump recirculation valve. o Opens system transfer valve to System 2. o

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ICE &RAIN PROTECTION •

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Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:  An overpressure condition o  An overtemperature or overpressure cond ition o The respective cowl anti-ice valve is open o The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti-ice vave position o disagrees with the respective engine anti-ice switch position. Windshield wi pers of are provided to maintain a clear area on the cockpit No.1 window s. Which of the following s tatements is corr ect? Each wiper is operated by a separate system o o Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated & electrically controlled Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield o None of the above. o Both windshield wipers are controlled with a common switch. True. o False. o When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on ground? When cleared on the runway. o During taxi out. o Before engine start. o Immediately after engine start. o The amber COWL A NTI-ICE is ill umin ated. o It indicates an overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve It indicates an overpressure and excessive temperature condition o It indicates an excessive temperature in the duct between the cowl anti-ice valve and o cowl lip. It indicates either an overpressure or an excessive temperature condition o In flight there are 2 methods r ecommended for operating the wing anti-ice system: True. o False. o The CAPT, F/O and AUX pitot probes contain static sensors. True. o False. o What maintains the correct t emperature on w indows No. 4 and 5? Individual thermal switches o  A thermal switch located on window No. 5 o o  A thermal switch on window No. 4 o These windows are heated with cabin air The win dow heat PWR TEST: Must be tested before each flight. o Provides a confident test. o  Also tests the overheat protection system. o o Must be tested before using the window heat system. The wing anti-ice system prov ides bleed air to all l eading edge slats: True o False. o

The wing anti-ice system provides protection for the three inboard leading edge slats by using bleed air. The wing anti-ice does not include the leading edge flaps or the outboard leading edge flaps. •

Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10 degrees C. True o o False.

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What can cause a WINDOW HEAT ON ligh t to be exting uis hed? The window heat switch is OFF. o  An overheat has occurred. o There has been a system failure. o  All of the above. o Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side of each indicator indic ates : If amber, an overtemperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine o cowl anti-ice valve. If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is OFF. o o If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON. o  All of the above. What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative? 250 KIAS. o 280 KIAS. o 250 KIAS below 10 000 feet. o o 280 KIAS below 10 000 feet. Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning s ystem, autothrot tle, autopilot and autoslats and are anti i ced: By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD windo w heat switch. o Whenever wing anti-ice is being used. o Whenever the alternate static ports are heated. o o By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the Probe Heat switches. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated? Elevator pitot probes. o  Alternate static ports. o No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port. o No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port. o The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate? The Right elevator pitot is blocked. o System B hydraulic pressure is low. o The Right elevator pitot is not heated. o o  All of the above are correct. Which wi ndow (s) are heated wi th t he LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switc h ON? o L2, L3, L4, L5. L1, L2, L3. o L2, L4, L5. o L1 only. o What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight? Both Control valves open o Stick shaker logic is biased for icing conditions o FMC displayed Vref is not adjusted o  All of the above o The Engine Anti-Ice should be t urned on: o When there is any visible moisture. If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture o Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds. o If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less. o When operating on standby pow er, only the captain's pitot probe is heated, however, the CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure. o True. False. o Temperature contr ollers maintain t he correct t emperature on w indow s No. 1 and 2. In the event of an overheat, power is automatically removed. True. o o False. Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE swit ch t o ON in fl ight: Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON. o Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight. o o  Adjusts FMC displayed VREF automatically when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON. Have no influence on stick shaker logic. o 70

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With the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON and the aircraft on the ground, the WING ANTI-ICE swi tch remains ON regardless of th e control valve position. True. o False. o The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which conditi ons wi ll allow t he wing anti-ice valve to open? Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside o both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature. Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature o inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature. o Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature. Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside o both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature. The cow l ant i-ice valv e is _________ cont roll ed and _______ operated. Electrically – Electrically o o Pneumatically – Mechanically o Electrically – Mechanically Electrically - Pneumatically o You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What happened? This is a normal indication. o o There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip. There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip. o The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG ANTIo ICE switch. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat? o Leading flaps. Outboard leading edge slats o Three inboard leading edge slats o  All of the above o If operating on standby power, probe heat lig hts do not indi cate system status True o o False Windshield w iper selector has ______ position 2 o 3 o o 4 5 o PARK / INT / LOW / HIGH

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If you select the WING ANTI-ICE switch on the ground: Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning o setting and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on either engine is below takeoff warning o setting and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning o setting.

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Passing 3000' climbing, you have selected Engine Anti-Ice ON. Passing FL90, you select them OFF. Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the o airspeed indicator return to normal. Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to o normal. Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the o airspeed indicator return to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight. Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to o normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used for takeoff. The wing anti-ice control valves are: o DC motor-operated  AC motor operated o Both DC & AC motor-operated o The wing anti-ice system is effective wi th the slats in any position. True o o False. Does the availability of bleed air for engine anti-ice require that the engine bleed air swi tch be ON? Yes o No. o Which system annunciator light ill uminates when any of the pitot li ghts com es on? o OVERHEAD  ANTI-ICE o PITOT o The OVHT test wil l cause all overheat li ghts t o come on and the ON lights wil l eventually go out . How does a pi tot reinstate the Window heat after performing an Overheat test? Cycle power OFF and ON to Main AC Bus # 2 o o Cycle all switches OFF and ON Cycle all switches OFF for 10 seconds and ON o Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE swit ch to ON in flight : Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON o o Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of flight  Adjusts FMC displayed Vref automatically when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON o o Has no influence on stick shaker logic

Each cowl anti–ice valve is electrically controlled and pressure actuated. Positioning the ENG  ANTI ICE switches to ON: • allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl anti–ice valve for cowl lip anti–icing • sets stall warning logic for icing conditions.

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LANDING GEAR & B RAKES •

The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a conventional two–wheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable one–wheel unit. True o False o The nose gear is a conventional steerable two–wheel unit.

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When the manual Extension Access Door is open: Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position o o Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available o Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system A pressure is available Landing gear retraction is enabled. o Fittings l ocated in the opening of each main gear w ell: o  Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear whe els during retraction Provide positive unlock during main gear retraction o o  Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well  Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the o gear if hydraulic system A fails. Which pressure is indicated by th e Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator? Normal pressure of 3500 PSI o Maximum pressure of 3500 PSI o Normal precharge of 2800 PSI o Normal precharge in the brake accumulator of 1200 PSI. o During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided: o Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane Skid and hydroplane only o Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only o None of the above. o If a landing is made with RTO selected: o  Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level o  Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level  AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 3 seconds after touchdown o  AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown and no automatic o braking action occurs. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touc hdown: o However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur However, autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to o reverse thrust range Prior to decelerating through through 60 knots groundspeed o  After decelerating through 60 knots gr oundspeed. o  Af ter braking has st arted, which of th e fo ll ow ing pilo t act io ns wil l di sarm the syst em immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light: Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position o  Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after o touchdown for landing  Applying manual brakes o Both second & third statements are correct. o

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The air/ground sys tem receives air/ground logic signals fro m: The altimeter o The cabin pressure controller o Six sensors, two on each landing gear o The FMC position updating from the GPS o In flight and ground operation of various airplane systems are controlled by the air/ground system. The system receives air/ground logic signals from six sensors, two on each landing gear. These signals are used to configure the airplane systems to the appropriate air or ground status.

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What s ystem normally pr ovides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering? o System A System B o Standby system o Nose wheel steering accumulator o The lockout pin is ins talled in the sterring depressurization valve. What does thi s do? o Bypasses system B pressure o Depressurizes both system A & B pressure  Allows airplane pushback or towing without dep ressurizing the hydraulic systems o Both first & third statements are correct. o Which of the following i s not part of the braking syst em?  Antiskid protection o o Parking brake Brake accumulator o Nose wheel brakes o Which of the follow ing condit ions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff? o  AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON Wheel speed greater than 60 knots o o Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE Position ANTISKID switch to RTO o The nose wheel door s remain open w hen the gear is down. True. o o False. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?  AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF o  A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system o Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band o System B pressure is low o When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING swit ch i s in A LT posi tion : Hydraulic s ystem B provides pow er for nose wheel steering. o Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering. o Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering. o The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking o What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate? o  AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.  A fault in the braking system. o Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band. o System B pressure is low. o The landing gear warning horn is deactivated w ith all gear down and locked. o True. False. o What airspeed must be consi dered w ith a w heel w ell fire situation? Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M) o o Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes o Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M) o

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What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes in RTO? Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle o  Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected o  Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are r etarded to idle o  AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate o The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake when hydraulic system A & B are depressurized. True o False. o Hydraulic pressure from System B w ill be used to raise the landing gear: o When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON o When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down o and the landing gear is positioned up  After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and o the landing gear is positioned up The parking brake can be set wit h either A or B hyd raulic systems pr essurized. If A & B hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator. True o False. o Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating through 30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust levers are retarded to IDLE and th e main wheels s pin–up. True o False o Where is t he main wheel gear viewi ng si ght l ocated? o Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the port side Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the starboard side o There is no viewing sight on the 737-NG o Is autobrake available with alternate brakes? o No. Yes for takeoff only. o o Yes for landing only. Yes for takeoff and landing. o The parking brake will fail w hen: o The hydraulic A system is depressurized. o The hydraulic B system is depressurized. The hydraulic A and B systems are depressurized. o None of the above as the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake o accumulator. What is the maximum airspeed to retract the gear? o 210 kt. o 235 kt. 250 kt. o 270 kt. o What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear   extended? 235 kt / .78M. o o 235 kt / .80M. o 270 kt / .80M. 270 kt / .82M. o  A l anding gear indic ator l ight wil l i ll uminate red w hen: o Landing gear is not down and locked (with either thrust lever retarded to idle, and below 800 ft AGL. o Related landing gear is in disagreement with landing gear lever position. Landing gear is up and locked with landing gear lever UP and OFF. o Both first and second statements are correct. o

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What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator? 2500 psi. o 2800 psi. o 3000 psi. o 3500 psi. o If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff: Use the override trigger. o Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position. o When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure. o Land at the nearest suitable airfield. o If the landing gear indicator light s are illuminated red: Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded o to idle, and below 800 feet AGL). Related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever POSITION (in o transit or unsafe) Both above statements are correct. o Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING GEAR lever in the UP position. True. o False. o The hydraulic pressure is removed with the LANDING GEAR lever in the OFF position!

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The parking brake can be set wi th only B hydraulic system pressurized. True o False o

The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A and B hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator. •

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When the manual gear extension access door i s open: Normal landing gear extension is not possible. o Manual landing gear extension may be accomplished with the LANDING GEAR o handle in the UP position. Landing gear uplocks are released. o The landing gear may be retracted by moving the landing gear lever to the UP position o only if hydraulic system A pressure is available. The brake pressure accumulator provi des pressure to t he brake system and: Parking brake system. o o Flap system. Landing gear system. o Nose wheel steering system. o The wheels s hould be choc ked in case the brake pressure has bled down. True. o False. o Which statement is true? Rudder pedal steering overrides the steering wheel inputs. o Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear extends. o Rudder pedal steering allows 37 degrees of steering in either direction. o Hydraulic system B pressure is bypassed with the lock out pin installed in the steering o depressurization valve. If the thrust levers are advanced after touchdow n: The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate immediately. o The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 3 seconds. o The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate. o The AUTO BRAKE select switch will move to OFF. o

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If the go-around mode is selected after touchdow n and prior to A/T disengagement, the  A/Ps disengage and t he A/Ts may command GA th rust . True. o False. o Impact f ittings located in the opening of each main gear well: o  Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear whe els during retraction. Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction. o  Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by o preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well. The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial A C power application. If the self test is not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM light illuminates and the system does not work. True. o False. o With the AUTO BRAKE select sw itch at RTO, autobrake is i nitiated when: Wheel speed is > 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE. o o Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.  Automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE. o  AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are o retarded to IDLE. Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear: When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP. o o When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.  After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear o lever is positioned up.  After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and o the landing gear lever is positioned UP.  Af ter landi ng, aut obrake app li cat ion b egins when both forw ard th rust levers are retarded to IDLE and Nose wheel and main wheels spin up. True. o False. o The Nose wheel has no input.

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The landing gear indic ator lights found on t he center panel will i lluminate red when: One of the 6 green lights are faulty. o There are no red lights. o  All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position o  All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position o You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do the gear Uplocks all release? When the Manual Extension Access door is opened. o When either gear extension handle is raised. o When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits. o Which contr ols operate the nose wheel st eering s ystem? o The control wheel. The thrust levers. o The control column. o The steering wheel and the rudder pedals on the ground. o Following a manual extension, can the landing gear be retracted? o Yes. No. o

Following a manual extension, the landing gear may be retracted normally by accomplishing the following steps: 1. Close the manual extension access door. 2. Move the LANDING GEAR lever to DOWN with hydraulic system A pressure available, and then 3. Position the LANDING GEAR lever to UP.

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What is the steering authority for the rudder pedals? +/- 5 degrees o +/- 7 degrees o +/- 57 degrees o +/- 78 degrees o Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touc hdown: o However the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur. However autobrake action will occur only when both thust levers are retarded to o reverse thrust range. Prior to decelerating through 60 kts groundspeed. o  After decelerating through 60 kts gro undspeed o What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts w ith Autobrakes in RTO?  Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle. o  Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected. o  Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are re tarded to idle. o  AUTO BRAKE light will illuminate. o There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These lights: Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear o handle is down. Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is o retarded to idle at a radio altitude of 800 feet or less. Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever. o o  Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green ligh ts. What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system? System A o System B o Standby system o System A or Standby system o Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the up position. True. o False. o During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates. What should you do? Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light reo illuminates, use manual brakes in case of RTO. Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light o remains illuminated. Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO. o  AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation. o With the manual gear extension door open, which s tatement is correct? Landing gear can be retracted. o Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual o extension handles. Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure. o Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down o What is the purpose of t he landing gear transfer unit? If hydraulic B fluid is lost the landing gear can be extended by automatic activation of o the transfer unit o In case of No1 engine failure/separation, the gear can be retracted after takeoff. In case of engine failure the gear can be retracted in order to reduce drag for the o cruise segment. If hydraulic A fluid is lost, the transfer unit must be manually selected to B fluid when o the gear lever is selected up.

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How can you di sarm the autobrake after landing? Moving speed brake to down detent o  Advancing thrust lever 3 seconds after landing o  Apply manual braking o  All of the above. o The AUTO BRAKE Select Sw itc h: Is always selected to 2. o Must be pulled out to select RTO. o Set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle o at or above 90kts o Set at RST should extinguish the ANTISKID INOP light. When the gear is dow n w ith t hree greens, you can:  Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead o panel are illuminated as well. Still get a landing gear warning horn o  Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the o overhead panel is NOT illuminated. o  All of the above is correct Normal hydraulic brake pressure is: 1000psi o 2000psi o 3000psi o o 3500psi Full rudder pedal disp lacement will turn the nosewheel by: 7 degrees o 17 degrees o 47 degrees o 78 degrees o Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, w hich statement i s tr ue?  Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on the o normal system.  Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will operate on both o systems.  Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate on o both systems.  Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only operate o on the normal system. During landing g ear retraction: o Snubbers in the wheel bays stop the rotation of all wheels. The pilot applies manual brakes to stop main gear rotation. o o The brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels.  A fitting in the wheel well opening applies a braking force to the wh eels. o Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear uplock is released when related handle is pull ed to it s li mit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm). o True False o What con ditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:  Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are not o up and locked. o  Airborne, No1 and No2 engine RPM drop below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, either main landing gear is not up and locked.  Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is o positioned UP, both main landing gear are not up and locked.  Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is o positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.

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When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by: Hydraulic pressure o Gravity o  Air loads o  All the above o

When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN, hydraulic system A pressure is used to release the uplocks. The landing gear extends by hydraulic pressure, gravity and air loads. Overcenter mechanical and hydraulic locks hold the gear at full extension. •

 Af ter braki ng has st arted, t he Aut obrake syst em w il l d is engage aut omatical ly when: o Wheel speed falls below 20kts. o The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.  A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing. o Reverse thrust is deselected. o

 After braking has started, any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light: •

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is: Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown. o RTO mode selected on the ground. o  A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system. o  AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF. o

The RTO mode can be selected only when on the ground. Upon selection, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for one to two seconds and then extinguishes, indicating that an automatic self–test has been successfully accomplished.

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What is the purpose of the Proximity Swit ch Electronic Unit? Monitors the takeoff configuration warning. o Monitors the landing configuration warning. o Monitors the landing gear. o  All of the above. o The PSEU system on the ground monitors whic h of the follow ing? Takeoff/landing configuration warnings o Landing gear o  Air/ground sensing o  All of the above. o  A s teady w arning horn alert s t he crew when th e landing gear i s not down and lock ed and a landing is attempted. True o False o When is the Proximity Switc h Electronic Unit light inhi bited? In flight. o For 1 minute after landing. o o  All of the above. The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in the takeoff range. True o o False Which of t he follow ing is an input int o the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers?  ADIRU data. o  Anti-ice controls. o  Anti-ice controls. o o  All of the above. Which of the following w ill cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning syst em? Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5. o Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15. o Spoilers partially extended. o SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position. o While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This indicates:  A normal condition o  A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing o systems The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing. o o  A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER CAUTION sys tem. True o False. o The landing gear configur ation warning h orn w ill activate anytime a gear is not dow n and locked with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power setti ng (above 34 degrees): True o False. o The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unp repared terrain w hile in the landing configuration. o True False. o The SMYD computers receive inputs from: o  Anti ice controls. o  ADIRU's FMC o o  All of the above.

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The Ground Proximity Warning System Test: Can be performed only on the ground. o Is inhibited from liftoff to 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. o Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. o Can be performed anytime. o When are the GPWS wind shear warni ngs available? Below 1500 feet AGL. o Below 2500 feet AGL. o Below 3000 feet AGL. o Below 5000 feet AGL. o The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS modes. True o False. o When is a traffic advisory issued? When the other aircraft is within 40 NM. o When the other aircraft is within 20 NM. o o When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach. When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach. o When i s TCAS inhibited? By windshear alerts. o By GPWS. o  At low altitudes where traffic avoidance maneuvers are inapp ropriate. o o  All of the above. The Takeoff Config uration Warning horn sou nds if : Stabilizer trim is not in the green band. o Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff. o Speedbrake lever is not in the down position. o  All of the above is correct. o When does t he ALT ALERT light extinguish? When you level off at the selected altitude. o 300 feet before the selected altitude. o 200 feet before the selected altitude. o o 600 feet before the selected altitude. How can you s ilence the Mach/Airspeed w arning infli ght? Slow the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo o Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch o Descent to a lower altitude. o o Climb to a higher altitude. The mach/airspeed warning s ystem can only be checked on the groun d: True o False. o While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert: o Correct the flight path back to the glide slope. Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light o The alert cannot be cancelled o The first two statements are correct. o Which of the following w ill illum inate a landing gear configur ation warning? Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever. o o Landing gear is not down and locked. Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL. o  All of the above. o The GPWS prov ides a " BANK ANGLE" warni ng w hen the roll rate exceeds 25 degrees, 30 degrees, and 35 degrees. True o o False. Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode? Excessive descent rate. o Excessive terrain closure. o o Unsafe terrain clearance when in the landing configuration. Windshear. o 82

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While fly ing an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Alt itu de, a BELOW G/S alert oc cur s. To cancel the alert: Press RECALL. o Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the o glide slope. The alert cannot be cancelled. o Select another mode on MCP. o The volume of the aural alert and the repetition rate increase as deviation increases.

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The Ground Proximity Warning System Test: o Can be performed only on the ground. o Is inhibited from lift-off to 1, 000 feet RA Can be performed only above 1, 000 feet radio altitude. o Can be performed any time. o The Predictive Windshear alerts are issued: When TERR switch on EFIS control panel is pressed. o o When WPT switch on EFIS control panel is pressed. o  Automatically below 1, 200 feet RA.  Automatically below 2, 500 feet RA. o Predicti ve windsh ear alerts are triggered from: o EGPWS. Weather Radar System. o o  Aural Warning Module. Serviceability of the tailskid cartridge is show n by:  A green decal. o  A green indicator light o o Wear dimples.  A green and red decal. o In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid st ructure contacts the runway? The skirt. o The fairing. o The shoe. o o The cartridge. The terrain dis played in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from: Weather Radar correlated with IRS position. o GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position. o GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position. o FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position. o When is a traffic advisory issued? When the other aircraft is within 20 NM o When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach. o When the other aircraft is within 40 NM. o When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach. o The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting syst em will show for t errain: o Within 2,000 feet RA. Below 1,000 feet barometric altitude. o  Above 1,000 feet RA. o Within 2,000 feet barometric altitude. o In what mode wi ll th e TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occu rs and the TFC swit ches are selected OFF. In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes o In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes o In center MAP, VOR or APP modes. o In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes. o What is correct about the color o n the terrain display? Dotted green – terrain 2500’ below up to 500’ below o Dotted amber - terrain 2000’ below up to 500’ below o Dotted red – terrain more than 5000´above the aircraft o Solid red – look ahead terrain warning is active o

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Which statement is correct? When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the o minima correctly, there will be no GPWS minimums callouts. When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the o minima correctly, there will be a GPWS minimums callouts, since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector. It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach, because the aircraft o GPWS will remind you in time. None of the statements above are correct o On takeoff t he config w arning sounds . What can be the cause? o Trailing edge flaps set to 2 o Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition Stabilizer set in the takeoff range o Takeoff power not set on both engines o When can you expect the EGPWS "Five Hundred" call? When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS o approach. o When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check. o On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the o glideslope beam. TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by TCAS TEST PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then blanks.  An aural annunc iatio n sounds at the complet ion of t he test . 3 seconds o 5 seconds o 8 seconds o 10 seconds o The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order to resolve the traffic conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch command area(s) to ensure traffic avoidance. True o o False The RA aural alert " CLIMB – CLIMB NOW" m eans: o Increase climb rate from initial pitch attitude. Climb at displayed pitch. Airplane climbs through traffic’s altitude. o Climb at the displayed pitch. o Reversal maneuver from initial descent RA. o When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane’s capabilities: o Select ALT OFF Select TCAS OFF o Select TA/RA o Select TA o  Al l TCAS alerts are inhibit ed: Below approximately 500 feet radio altitude. o o By GPWS and windshear warnings. Below approximately 1,100 feet radio altitude. o Until the flaps are fully retracted after takeoff. o The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is : o  A red square  An amber circle o  A white solid diamond o  A white hollow diamond o  A TA symbol sh ow ing on t he ND has , alongsi de it, a d ow n arrow and " -07". Thi s means: o The traffic is descending at 700fpm. o You should descend at 700fpm. The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm. o You should descend at minimum 500fpm. o

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