SETS6000 Drafts
Short Description
SETS6000 Drafts...
Description
QUASTION 1
2
3
A
Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person?
Frequent lengthy stays on board are required
When should the Master review the Safety Management System and report to the Company?
The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance?
Yes, it is allowed.
Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued?
Only one DOC can be issued to the Company.
Under ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted......
becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor.
Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that the company is in control of.....
the subcontractors' insurance system.
4
5
6
7
Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and By wall posters in the accommodation of interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform the affected ships. and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How?
Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code?
To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters concerning safety and environmental protection to the management.
Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out his functions?
An executive salary and a company car
8
9
It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's ..........................., which trading policy objectives forms an integral part of the Safety Management 10 System.
Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person? 11
A university degree
A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the standards of totally disregarded since not enforceable. 12 the ISM code, should be .... Under ISM, who is responsible for implementing the Company's Safety and Environmental Policy on The Designated Person 13 board? Under ISM, which methods can the Master use to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy?
Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules
14 Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as 15 defined by the Company?
By the state of cleanliness on board
Under ISM, the Master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and By calling the ship's complement together should issue appropriate orders and instructions in and give short orders in clear English. a clear and simple manner. How should this to be 16 done? It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are The Master observed. Who should actually verify this on 17 board? What are the best means of verifying that specified requirements (procedures and instructions) By inspecting the Deck and Engine work regarding the Safety Management System are book daily by the Master. observed? 18 It is the Master's responsibility to review the Safety Management System and report its deficiencies the Classification Society. 19 to ......
20
The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include any deficiencies and may include......
proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS.
21 What are statuory requirements? Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include.....
being a member of the Board of the Company.
The safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, include .....
continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection.
22
23
24
What is most important when people are working in tanks or closed spaces?
What is most important when preparing for 25 emergencies?
continuous improvement of safety management skills
What is the status of company policy, rules and 26 regulations? 27 Where do you find minimum drill requirements? What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS 28 convention? What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code? 29 Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the 30 Shipping Company or "The Company"?
What is meant by a "Safety Management System"?
SOLAS
An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO. The Owner
A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on board ship.
31 Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company which......................... 32 the ship.
owns
What is meant by a major non-conformity under the A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard ISM code? which poses a threat to life. 33
The overriding responsibility of the Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Master is self evident and need not to be Safety Management system? repeated in the SMS. 34
35
The safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, provide for .....
shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the required qualifications.
Safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, establish .....
a dictatorial regime on board.
36 The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, among other things, that applicable codes, the IMO, and Flag-State administrations guidelines and standards recommended 37 by ........................... are taken into account.
38
The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place....
that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.
The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices written procedures and work instructions. are taken into account in ship operation through ..... 39 The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices the defined levels of authority and lines of are taken into account in ship operation through communication between and amongst written procedures. These requirements include the shore and shipboard personnel. following information:- ...... 40
The functional requirement for a Safety 1) maintain a correspondence system Management System is to develop, implement and ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters maintain a system which includes the of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship. following :- .... 41 Under ISM, the Company should establish ...................... to describe how the 42 objectives of the ISM code will be achieved.
a safety and environmental policy
Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is ....
known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
Under the ISM code, what is meant by a nonconformity?
Lack of comfort leading to health risks.
43
44 Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct Damage. non-conformities whenever possible. In this 45 respect, what are "Non-Conformities"? Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the make note in the log book of this Safety Management system relevant to the ships deficiency. 46 operation, he should.... A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for use onboard the particular type ship being operated, including the methods of rescue available. the duties and responsibilities of the crewmembers 47 and...... In addition to routine drills prescribed in emergency situations such as identified International and National regulations, drills should potential emergency shipboard situations. 48 also include...... The scope of drills should exercise the company's ashore and on board personnel and develop familiarity with a particular emergency. Documented evidence of drills should exist which 49 demonstrate.......
that all the kinds of drills were carried out.
The Company should have available shoreside organisational structure, resources means and a very large communications network is procedures for communications and equipment for required. responding to a shipboard emergency. This means 50 that...... The SMS should include procedures ensuring that .................... are reported to the company, investigated and analysed with the objective of 51 improving safety and pollution prevention?
illness and injury
The Company should have ................. for responding to non-conformities identified from internal audits and during routine operation of the 52 ship.
printed labels
The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ship is maintained in the cooperation of the Master. conformity with the provisions of the relevant 53 rules and regulations and with.. Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the 54 ship and pollution of the environment?
Cargo shifting, collision, explosion
Under the SMS, as part of shipboard all machinery and ships equipment in responsibilities, there should be routine inspections use. 55 of.....
56
57
Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations, it is expected that the Company has identified risks associated with......
the shipping industry's cost structure.
The Company should have procedures established guarantyee that there is no recurrence of for corrective action. Corrective actions involve a non-conformity. solutions which......
The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment and technical systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations. 58 Once identified..
a rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment.
The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems associated with alternatives should be part of the Company's 59 maintenance plan. Example of tests are......
operation of alarms and emergency shutdowns.
The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that: 1) ................. 2) ................ 3) ....
1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed and approved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed promptly
60 The documents used to describe and implement 61 the SMS may be referred to as the......
Ship Management Manual.
The Company should carry out ................................ to verify whether safety and pollution prevention activities comply with the 62 Shipboard Management System. Personnel carrying out audits should 63 be ...................... the areas being audited.
inspections by third party consultants
experts in
A .................................. should be issued for every Company complying with the requirements of the Safety Management Certificate ISM code by the Administration, or by the 64 Organisation recognised by the Administration . When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in accordance with the approved SMS, a ................. should be issued to the ship by the Administration or organisation 65 recognised by it. Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance requirements, inclusive…
Document of Compliance
of a computerised planned maintenance system.
66
67
Familiarisation for personnel transferred or on new on board training in a supernumerary assignments could be accomplished by....... capacity.
Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master 68 applies.... It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding 69 responsibility and authority as required......
in emergency and extreme circumstances. by the International Association of Classification Societies.
Verification of the Master's qualifications should be medical examination. done firstly by.... 70
71
72
73
The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to safety and environmental protection by......
reminding him time to time.
The Master is to be fully conversant with the Company's SMS and should be informed of all shore management. requirements through formal meetings with the...... The Master must be given the necessary support so that he can perform his duties safely. If the Master reports deficiencies in the SMS, the company should......
The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with ........................ seafarers in accordance with national and international 74 requirements.
make financial assistance available to the Master to correct the deficiencies.
safety conscious and diligent
Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ................. with which the Company should be the shipping business 75 familiar.
The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to ...emergency 76 shipboard operations.
77
Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to newly assigned personnel prior to sailing. What are "essential instructions"?
potential Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and insure that they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board
78 A "venturi" tube would normally found in...
79
The choice and level of detail to assist familiarisation to new or newly assigned crewmembers will depend upon ....
the rank of the newly assigned crewmember.
If individuals require essential familiarisation it will be the Master's duty to assess as such and initiate a training program. prior to sailing. ( 27)... 80 The Company should ensure that all personnel involved in the SMS have an adequate understanding of relevant rules, Through written instructions. regulations, codes and guidelines. How could 81 such information be communicated? The Company should identify the individual(s) previous training, experience and having the responsibility to define training needs required proficiency in operation of the appropriate to specific tasks, taking into account.... ship. 82
83
The Company should establish procedures for the ship's personnel to receive relevant information on the size of the Company. the SMS and the amount of documentation should be determined by......
Under SMS, sufficient instructions in a suitable language need to be verified, as well as ensuring an understanding of them by the crew. How can this be verified? 84
The crew is to be recruited in English speaking countries or will have to pass and examination.
Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel on the procedures required for effective to communicate effectively in the execution communication and what verification is of their duties related to the SMS, carried out on board. 85 documented evidence must be available...... When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives, the focus is 86 on......
economy.
Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives and should include, among other 87 things.....
methods to lower the lifeboats.
The Company should establish procedures to ensure that personnel transferred to new assignments related to safety and environment protection are given familiarisation training. What 88 are defined as new assignments?
Another ship
B
C
D
Every 2 to 3 months
As may be necessary
Is not required at all
Prior to change of command
Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board
Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year
No, it is not longer allowed.
Yes, only for manning.
Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance.
One DOC is issued to the One DOC is issued to company and one DOC is the Company and one issued to the manning for each subcontractor. company only.
remains the responsibility of the Company.
becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor.
One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning. is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand.
all activities concerning the Safety the subcontractors' Management System personnel and resources. which have been subcontracted.
the financial portfolio of the subcontractors.
By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers Messroom.
By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility and command flow chart.
By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities for each functional area.
To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitions requested by the ship.
To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on board.
To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between the Authorities and the ship's staff.
Adequate resources and shore based support
Freedom to travel worldwide at will
All of the other options.
legal policy objectives
ethics and environment objectives
safety management objectives
ANSWER C
A
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
A
ISMCODE/Sets A ISMCODE/Sets B ISMCODE/Sets B
ISMCODE/Sets D
ISMCODE/Sets C
B
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
D
Twenty years seagoing A master's certificate experience
Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
ISMCODE/Sets D
encouraged and supported.
erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.
discouraged.
The Master
The senior Officers
The entire crew
B
B At his own discretion taking into account the As defined and trading pattern and the documented by the workload on the ship, Company as well as weather conditions
He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and the shipboard safety committee
By judging the morale Through interviewing of the officers and crew officers and crew on board
By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator
By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice.
Tell what is expected in a By Standing Orders, Bridge casual and amicable way night order book, as during social gatherings to examples. officers and crew.
The Master and Officers
The Designated Person.
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets
The Chief Engineer B
By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned as input controller.
By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities of crew members.
the Port State control of the next port of call.
the Flag State authorities.
a list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the Company.
a list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are to be promoted.
By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own Safety Work Book. the shore based management.
ISMCODE/Sets C
D
the officer's and crew's appraisal reports.
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
A ISMCODE/Sets
having overall control over all company departmental heads.
monitoring the safety and final control over all pollution prevention aspects shipboard operations and of the operation of each maintenance activities. ship.
hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training of its shipboard personnel.
holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into the water every week.
conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke free areas on board.
ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets A ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices.
The international code for transportation of cargoes safely on board ships, as regulated by Marpol Annex III.
A
The Manager
The Bareboat Charterer
Could be any of the other options.
D
The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by documented training methods.
A documented shipboard system which lists each and every known shipboard hazard to safety, health and the environment.
A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to implement the company safety and environment protection policy.
The International Ship Management Association's code for navigational safety.
has chartered
has mortgaged
has assumed responsibility for the operation of
A serious threat to the environment due to the A total lack of discipline on discharge of oil, board whereby the authority chemicals or toxic of the master is diminished. substances from the ship.
A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of the ship or personnel or to the environment.
The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority.
The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the vessel.
The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of implementing the SMS.
safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas.
safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.
ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets D
D
ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets D
ISMCODE/Sets B
supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date.
sources of information concerning operational a cooperative and pollution prevention for joint safeguards against all informative atmosphere departmental use and identified risks. on board. consultation in case of emergency. Classification Societies
ISMCODE/Sets
maritime industry organisations
ISMCODE/Sets C
ISMCODE/Sets D ISMCODE/Sets
All of the other options. D
compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations. training by qualified instructors.
that all Marpol requirements that Boat and Emergency are complied with. Station Bills are posted.
videos and books.
regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel.
the procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.
the provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures All of the other options. for internal audits and management review.
1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.
1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief engineers 3) office staff home telephone numbers.
company regulations
company newsletters
known by all ships officers.
B
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
A
ISMCODE/Sets D
1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities.
ISMCODE/Sets
B circulation of informative guidelines
known and maintained at known and implemented by all levels of the all Officers and members of organisation both ship the ships crew. based as well as shore based.
Not conforming with safe working practices which may lead to accidents.
A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement.
A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
Defects, malfunctioning.
Deficiencies.
Any one the other options.
A
ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets D ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets D
inform the P & I club.
shipboard communication methods available.
correct the deficiency and make note of the correction inform the Company. applied in the official log book.
ISMCODE/Sets D
the methods of reporting the ways of combating a casualties to the Authorities. worst case scenario.
ISMCODE/Sets B
fire drills in port.
boat drills at sea.
diving exercises under the ship.
that all shore staff, office that the ships staff has staff and subcontractors, followed the correct that the Company has been manning agents and procedures in notifying able to respond effectively. repair outfits were the shore staff. effectively involved .
A
ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets C
the Company needs the office is to be staffed a 24-hour contact has to be offices spread out over by Emergency Response available. the globe. Teams 24 hours a day.
ISMCODE/Sets C
cargo operations and ballast operations
non-conformities, accidents crew changes and hazardous situations
ISMCODE/Sets C
inventory cards
a toll free telephone number
ISMCODE/Sets
procedures D
the approval of the London Salvage Association.
any additional requirements the by-laws of the relevant which may be established P & I club. by the Company.
Fire, flooding, grounding
Heavy weather damage, Inerting, tank cleaning, gas loss of propulsion, loss of freeing steering
the accommodation.
machinery, ships equipment all crews belongings, and structural integrity of luggage and items stowed the ship. in crew cabins.
ISMCODE/Sets C
C
C
the carriage of liquid oil the particular type of vessel drugs and alcohol misuse. cargoes in bulk. and it's trade.
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
C punish the persons guilty may reduce or prevent investigate who was at fault of neglect without taking occurrence of a nonand put the blame on the any other action conformity. person(s) involved. afterwards. tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability.
it must be ensured that each and every component these items are checked of these systems and at least once a week by equipment is carried as the Master. spare on board.
pre-arrival and predeparture tests.
emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors).
Any or all of the other options.
1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents are authorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are authorised by P & I Club.
1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews the documents 3) the Master implements the contents of documents.
1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to be reviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe.
Safety Management Manual.
Shipboard Instruction Manual.
ISMCODE/Sets B ISMCODE/Sets B ISMCODE/Sets D
ISMCODE/Sets
A Ship Maintenance Manual.
B
ISMCODE/Sets
external safety audits
drydock Inspections
ISMCODE/Sets
internal safety audits D
familiarised with
independent of
very conversant
Document of Compliance
International Shipmanagement Certificate
Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate
Credibility Certificate
Certificate of Responsibility
Safety Management Certificate
C
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
B ISMCODE/Sets B
of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.
of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel.
of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine departments up to date. C
visual aids such as observing overlap while manuals, operating All of the other options. vessel in port. instructions and videos. in normal in both normal and in case of oil spill clean-ups. circumstances. extreme circumstances. by the Company's Main by the Shipowner's Trust by the SOLAS Convention. Policy Objective. Fund.
drug and alcohol test.
interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness.
confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention.
having the having the Designated including such requirements Superintendents prepare Person sent on board in operating instructions. monthly information at specified intervals. sheets. Port state inspectors.
ISMCODE/Sets
D D
B
ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets D ISMCODE/Sets C
senior Classification Society P & I club representatives. surveyors.
ISMCODE/Sets A
call in outside contractors to look at reward the Master for his these deficiencies and diligence. rectify/repair the same.
respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS.
intelligent and healthy
qualified, certified and medically fit
drug and alcohol abstaining
ISMCODE/Sets D ISMCODE/Sets D
the manpower industry
National and International requirements
crew management responsibilities
C
ISMCODE/Sets
theoretical
assumed
occuring A
SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incoming crewmember
The role in the shipboard organisation, dayworker or watchkeeper, which watch assigned to.
Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms and bathrooms
ISMCODE/Sets
ISMCODE/Sets A ISMCODE/Sets
the intelligence the individual experience the age of the seaman quotient of the newly with the new assignment and the number of years assigned crewmember. and the job responsibilities. worked at sea. then the company should identify such requirements and develop an appropriate plan.
they should serve a full they cannot take shipboard contract of at least ten duty at all until they prove months in a lower rank themselves qualified for the prior to take up the new job. position.
Described in the job responsibilities.
Formal discussions with company representatives.
ISMCODE/Sets C ISMCODE/Sets B ISMCODE/Sets
All of the other options. D
familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when transferred to different type vessel.
drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.
ISMCODE/Sets
All of the other options. D
whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate the requirements of the the type of vessel and the shipboard personnel Charterers. trading pattern. understand their respective roles.
Videos on the correct pronunciation of English need to be available on board.
The crew must be proficient in their own national language and have basic understanding of the By witnessing an language in use on board. exercise.
on the educational level of each crewmember.
on the ability of each on the medical examination crewmember to read and of each crewmember. write in English.
finance.
prevention.
ISMCODE/Sets C
ISMCODE/Sets D ISMCODE/Sets A ISMCODE/Sets
response to accidents. C
measures to mitigate identified risks.
efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
ISMCODE/Sets B
Promotion
A different job
ISMCODE/Sets
All of the other options D
Business
QUESTION
Answer 1 When a ship is delivered to the charterer without stores, provisions, and bunkers.
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
It is a charter for an agreed period.
It is the charter of a ship that has no cargo handling equipment.
When can an owner place a "LIEN" on a cargo?
When he changes his mind about what he considers as unfair conditions, in the charter party.
When the master considers that the charterer's agent is excessively demanding and unreasonable.
When the owner believes that the charterer is paying him less freight, than similar ships of age and class are receiving.
What is "FREIGHT"?
The remuneration payable by the charterers to owners, for the carriage of the goods.
The deadweight The amount of cargo displacement of the the named ship in ship and the basis the charter party is for calculating port required to load. dues.
It simply refers to the return of the vessel to the owners, upon completion of the charter hire.
It is the term used It means returning for the redelivery of cargo found to be any excess bunkers damaged or in poor remaining upon condition, to the completion of the shippers, at the charter, to the latter charterer's expense. or his agent.
In general, it is the term used requiring charterers to redeliver the ship in the "same good order" as delivered, fair wear and tear excepted.
The master can decide on his own, as to whether or not he should follow orders coming from the charterer, or the charterer's agent.
Neither the master or his Officers need concern themselves over complaints made against them by charterers to owners.
When Notice of Immediately after Readiness has been the vessel arrives at sent meaning that the loading port. the ship is ready to load.
Once the vessel is secured alongside, with the gangway down, at the loading port.
What is a "BAREBOAT CHARTER"? 1
2
3
What does the term "RE- DELIVERY" mean with reference to charters?
4
What should the correct working relationship between the Master and the Charterer be?
The master, as the servant of the owner has no direct dealings with the charterer.
5 Immediately after When does "Laytime" start on a voyage charter? the charter party has been agreed. 6
The master is always subject to charterer's orders, regarding the ship's employment and agency matters.
He should invite them into his cabin, ply them with drinks and during the conversation do his utmost to convince them to see things his way.
How should the master treat cargo claim surveyors who are "LOOKING FOR EVIDENCE?"
He should give them a free hand by letting them they go wherever they please and let them interview anyone onboard.
He should be stiff and reticent in the belief that such surveyors are trying to pin responsibility for any damage on the owner.
When can a vessel be declared as "OFF-HIRE"?
8
Once the vessel becomes unavailable to the charterer, due to machinery, crew strikes, hull damage or drydocking.
What is a "NOTICE OF READINESS"?
9
Notice given by the owner to the charterer, that his vessel has arrived and is ready to commence loading or discharging.
At anytime it is not When a vessel is possible to work between charters cargo such as and is in the market weekends, holidays, looking for bad weather, and employment, then it delay in delivery of is off-hire. cargo etc. Notice from the Notice given by the master to the master to the charterer's agent, harbour master, that that the vessel is his ship is ready in ready in all respects all respects to to commence commence loading loading or or discharging. discharging.
7
It is the charter of a ship whose cargo holds are empty. When freight is owing or unpaid on any part of the cargo at the destination, then a common law lien is allowed on the unpaid freight. The remuneration payable in advance by charterers to owner, before loading is allowed to commence.
What is the principle of General Average?
###
What are the York-Antwerp rules?
###
What is a "LETTER OF PROTEST"?
###
###
What does "STCW " mean?
Rules incorporated into national law, that are voluntarily and naturally accepted by shippers, shipowners, and insurers. It is a written communication to convey dissatisfaction by one party concerning an operational matter controlled by the recipient. Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping.
As General Average is a partial loss because of a deliberate act by the master, then it follows that the owners must bear the cost of the loss.
The principle of GA is that which has been sacrificed for the benefit of all, shall be made good by the contribution of all.
Anytime the owners and charterers have a disagreement then the ship goes offhire until they resolve their differences. Notice given by the master to the owner's agent that his vessel is ready to commence loading or discharging.
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
The charterers are liable to all other parties for any losses sustained, as a result of General Average.
Rules set up to Rules drawn up by a determine who is number of maritime responsible for countries to enable losses, as a result of the assessment of General Average. General Average.
Rules which are not usually incorporated into the contract of carriage.
A written communication from the charterer to the owner, about the unprofessional behaviour of the master and his crew.
A written complaint from the master to the owner, criticising what he considers to be unreasonable demands from the charterer.
A written protest from a crew member to the master clearly stating he does not agree with the disciplinary action taken against him.
Standard training and conditions of work.
Standard training in conventional workplaces.
Safe training certificates for the workplace.
Page 17
B
He should receive them courteously, but ensure they are accompanied by an Officer wherever they go.
It is only paid upon completion of the It is usually paid It is paid in advance entire charter every 15 or 30 days, When is the "CHARTER HIRE" of a time chartered for the entire period It is paid at the end period, after in advance, after vessel paid? of the agreed of each voyage. deduction of deduction of the charter. specified expenses broker's commission. such as broker's ### commission. None. A ship that When the remaining When the crew's deviates for bunkers are not provisions are not When made to save In the voyage charter party what "deviations" are whatever cause sufficient to make it sufficient to make it life or avoid an usually considered as justifiable? automatically goes to the designated to the designated imminent danger. off-hire. voyage port. voyage port. ### Any expense incurred in saving the ship (and cargo) from a perilous position is wholly for the account of the buyer of the cargo.
ANSWER ANSWER YOU ARE RIGH
Business
QUESTION
When is a ship deemed to be "SEAWORTHY" for charter purposes?
###
### ### ### ### ### ###
###
Answer 1
Answer 2
As long as the master believes his At anytime it is able vessel to be to proceed to sea, seaworthy then it is regardless of any seaworthy, and defects. nobody can dispute this.
It is simply a bill of It is a bill of lading lading that has presented by a become soiled by What is a "DIRTY BILL OF LADING"? suspicious shipper, dropping it or some known to deal in such, thereby contraband goods. making it difficult to read. What does " FAS " mean in the context of cargo? Free alongside ship. For all ships. What does " FOB " mean in the context of cargo? For Overseas Bulk. For Owner's Bank. What does "C & F" mean in the context of cargo? Call for resources. Cost and freight. Cost information What does " CIF " mean in the context of cargo? Carriage in full. facility. What does " CIP " mean in the context of Carriage and Cargo in part. cargoes? insurance paid. It is a form of receipt, signed by It is a notice to the the master master that the confirming that What is a "BILL OF LADING "? goods described will goods described be delivered & have been delivered loaded. to his custody & loaded onto his ship.
Answer 3
Answer 4
Once all its certificates are in order, and all its crew are considered competent, then a vessel is deemed to be seaworthy.
A ship is deemed to be "Seaworthy" when she is reasonably fit in all respects, to encounter the ordinary perils of the sea, of the adventure insured.
It is a claused or foul bill of lading that has doubting remarks written on it by the master about the cargo loaded.
It is a bill of lading used for dirty or foul smelling cargo, such as animal hides.
ANSWER ANSWER YOU ARE RIGH
D
TRY TO ANSWER
C A C B
TRY TRY TRY TRY
Covered in full.
C
TRY TO ANSWER
Claim insurance policy.
A
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
From any source. Free On Board. Container freight. Cost, insurance and freight. Cargo insurance payment.
For all systems. First On Board. Carrier for research.
It is a simple form notifying the master on what time, date and place the goods described will be delivered for loading.
It is a document signed & issued by the shipper, clearly stating that the goods have been delivered & loaded.
TO TO TO TO
ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
###
When loading or discharge is The time and date a completed in less The term used to vessel departs or is time than laytime describe a voyage dispatched, to allows, owners are that has taken less commence a required to pay a time than estimated. voyage. "Reward" or dispatch, to the charterer. It is a letter offered It is a letter clearing to the master to sign It is a letter the shipper of any "clean bills of absolving the ship lading" even though responsibility for from any blame for damage to cargo he knows the goods damaged goods at are defective. The enroute to the discharge port. destination. master should not accept it. Damages payable Damages payable The number of days by the charterer to by the owner to the that must elapse, the owner, when the harbour authorities, after the laytime has laytime has expired for occupying a expired, before the and the vessel is still berth for a period owner can claim not completely longer than the damages from the loaded or stipulated laytime. charterer. discharged.
###
Rules that are essentially the same as the Hague-Visby rules, but more preferred by shipowners because of their precise conditions.
Rules that clearly state that the carrier Rules that only apply is liable from time of to vessels of acceptance and that German Registry or he is not exonerated ownership. from negligence in navigation etc.
Rules created at the request of carriers, who protested that existing rules provided too much protection to the shippers.
A term used to describe any voyage, from loading port to discharge.
###
A contract for the hire of a ship for a voyage or series of voyages, or for the carriage of a specific quantity of cargo on a number of voyages.
The lease of a ship by a third party, whereby the charterer assumes the rights of ownership.
What are "Laydays"?
Days when a vessel is not employed.
###
Days the charterer Days allowed by a allows the vessel to charter party for prepare for loading, loading and /or after arrival at the discharging a vessel. loading port.
Days allowed for the voyage, from the loading port to the discharge port.
What is "Laytime?"
Days allowed by the charterer to the owner for loading/discharging, without incurring demurrage charges.
Designated rest days during the loading or discharging, such as weekends / holidays.
The time the vessel waits at anchor, pending the acceptance of the tendered "Notice of Readiness".
Days a vessel is declared off-hire regardless of reason. A
TRY TO ANSWER
The date beyond which, if the vessel is not presented for loading, the charterers may reject the vessel.
The date by which the owner may serve notice of The date the charter cancellation, if a party expires. better employment opportunity presents itself.
B
TRY TO ANSWER
An insurer is liable for items such wear and tear, machinery breakdown and infestation, but is not liable for grounding or weather delays.
An insurer is liable for any loss or peril insured against, but not liable for any loss caused by perils not insured against.
D
TRY TO ANSWER
It is a receipt, issued by the shipper, stating the goods delivered are correct in quantity and are in good order.
It serves as a clearance from Customs, to allow the goods described to be loaded or discharged.
B
TRY TO ANSWER
What does the term "DISPATCH" mean with reference to cargoes?
###
What is a "LETTER OF INDEMNITY" presented with a Bill of Lading? ###
What is "DEMURRAGE"????
What are the "HAMBURG RULES"?
What is a "CHARTER"?
###
What is the "CANCELLATION DATE" with reference to charters? ###
The date stipulated in the charter party, by which either party may give notice to cancel the charter.
An insurer is liable An insurer is liable only for losses for anything that caused by peril, but What are an insurer's "LIABILITIES AND may happen, and excluded for losses EXCLUSIONS" in the context of marine insurance? excluded from attributable to the nothing. master and the crew. ### It is a receipt for goods received for To form a part of the shipment, and master's records, of loaded onboard. What is the prime function of a Bill of Lading? cargo loaded onto Possession of the his ship. original is proof the holder is the owner ### of the cargo.
Page 18
A specific period in the life of a ship, that describes its employment history.
The time a chartered ship completes loading or discharge on time, and departs or is dispatched to its next port.
It is a letter clearly stating that receiver will accept full responsibility for damage to cargo at time of discharge.
The term used when a chartered ship completes loading or discharge in less time than the laytime.
Business
QUESTION
In relation to the ISM code, what is the function of the "DESIGNATED PERSON"?
Answer 1 This is just a alternative title for the master.
###
What is a "SECOND REGISTER"? ### What are seen as the benefits of "FOC" registration? ### ### What does " ISM " mean?
What are the objectives of the " ISM " code? ### ### What is "MARPOL"?
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
The person with a direct link between management & the ship. He assumes responsibility in the event of an incident.
The person appointed by the company to visit all fleet ships regularly, and check SMS systems are in place.
The person ordered by owner to visit the ship unannounced, and to report back his findings.
A system that allows A system of dual The system used to owners to change registration, as change the Registry Register, when applied to some of a vessel, on a trading their vessels bareboat charter long-term time in politically agreements. charter. sensitive areas. Lower taxes and There are no real More flexibility, registration fees; benefits. It simply allowing the owner also allowing the allows an owner the to trade wherever engagement of right to register he wants, without crews of different outside his country. restriction. nationality. International Safety International Safety International Management. Method. Shipping Magazines.
D
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
International Ship Manoeuvres.
A
TRY TO ANSWER
To ensure safety, avoid damage to environment, apply international safety standards for operating ships.
To eliminate FOC & 2nd registers.
To give authorisation to bodies such as port state control, to detain substandard ships with substandard crew.
B
TRY TO ANSWER
A marine police authority.
A marine policy.
A marine pollution convention.
A mariner's policy for cleaner seas.
C
TRY TO ANSWER
Whenever he considers the demands of the crew are excessive and unreasonable.
Whenever there is a discrepancy between the ship's & shore cargo figures / when he considers the berthing arrangements unsafe & inadequate etc.
Whenever he is not happy with the performance of the ship and its crew. Also, when he is unhappy with its voyage routes and cargo to load.
C
TRY TO ANSWER
Negligence occurs when a master fails to do something he is expected to do, or when he does something a prudent master would not do.
Whenever he is in doubt about the credibility and attention of the agent.
What is considered as "Negligence" on the part of the master, in the context of marine insurance?
When the master When he fails to fails to enter his take over on the instructions, for safe Bridge, when navigation, in the making a landfall, or night order book, on departure until each evening before clear of land. retiring.
When the master fails to develop a "first name" relationship with his Officers, thereby failing to establish a responsible attitude from them.
D
TRY TO ANSWER
What do the letters " IMO " stand for?
International Merchandise Organisation.
Implementing Maritime Order.
International Investigating Marine Maritime Organisation. Organization.
D
TRY TO ANSWER
It must be obtained from customs by the agent on behalf of the master. It requires submitting various pertinent ship's documents.
Outward clearance is issued by Customs when the ship is being entered in. It requires the payment of a small fee but nothing else.
The shippers issue it or stevedores once all cargo is loaded or discharged, and all dues for services rendered have been paid.
B
TRY TO ANSWER
After a brief marine inquiry, it is customary to impose a small fine.
Collisions at sea are regarded as human errors that are not intentional and so there are no penalties.
It depends on the courts; they have powers to impose heavy fines and imprisonment. D
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
It is a routine document that an agent is authorised What is an "OUTWARD CLEARANCE ", and how is to issue once cargo it obtained? operations are completed and ship is ready to sail. ### There are no specific penalties, because it has not been What penalties can be imposed for breaching the possible to get all "COLLISION REGULATIONS"? states to agree to the "COLREG CONVENTION OF 1972". ### Offshore Petroleum What does "OPA 90" mean? ### Act of 1990.
What constitutes an "ACT OF SALVAGE"?
###
What is a Lloyds Open Form 95 (LOF 95)?
###
What constitutes a "Port of Refuge"? ###
What is a "SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM" designed to accomplish?
Onboard Protective Offshore Pollution Authorisation of Amendment of 1990. 1990. Salvage is the act of The process of saving a ship in When you find Any act or activity saving part of the imminent danger of something valuable undertaken to assist ship, when it is in sinking, whether in the sea & retrieve a ship or other imminent danger of requested to assist it, it now belongs to property, that is in being completely or not. If saved, ship you. danger of being lost. lost. now belongs to salvor. An agreement It is an open An agreement An agreement to between master and agreement, clearly between the master which the master salvor that must be stating a salvor is and salvor. It is a no gives his written formally executed, only entitled to be cure, no pay consent before before salvage compensated or agreement, which is salvage operations operation can retain that which he fair to all parties can begin. commence. saves undamaged. involved. Any port made for when the master considers it unsafe for the vessel to continue her voyage. To require a company to ensure its systems and procedures are documented and all operations are carried out according to these procedures.
The master, being In the event of a "Hull and Machinery" claim, who on the spot, is the is appointed to investigate, and report? most likely to be appointed. ###
TRY TO ANSWER
When should the master send "A LETTER OF PROTEST"?
###
###
It allows an owner to operate his ships, without any form of insurance cover.
B
To force all ship owners to apply minimum standards to both their ships and their crews.
###
###
An alternate register of a sovereign state that allows an owner the right to use crew of a different nationality.
ANSWER ANSWER YOU ARE RIGH
Oil Pollution Act of 1990.
The closest port available that the master heads for with the imminent approach of bad weather.
A port that allows the master to offload refugees or boat people without any restrictions.
To require a company to give assurances to To force companies P & I Clubs and to hire only Classification experienced officers Societies that they & crew. have a safety management system installed. The underwriters will appoint a surveyor of their choice, to ascertain the nature, cause and extent of the damage.
Page 19
An average adjuster will be appointed, to investigate and report to the underwriters.
A port the master heads for when he believes he cannot make it to his scheduled destination. SMS is just another creation of bureaucrats who think they know more than experienced owners. The latter can decide for themselves to use it or not. The harbour master, being an impartial person, is most likely to be asked by underwriters to investigate.
Business
QUESTION
When is a vessel considered to be a "TOTAL LOSS"? ###
Answer 1
Answer 2
When it is no longer able to trade without incurring major When it is missing or machinery when cost of repair breakdowns or exceeds value. repeated cargo equipment failure.
Amounts that the A negotiated insurers impose as a What is a "DEDUCTIBLE" in the context of marine amount that the penalty for not filing insurance? owner undertakes to a claim within three self-insure against. months. ### What perils are normally excluded from hull and machinery cover?
There are no exclusions.
Negligence of master, officers, crew and pilots.
Protection and Identification.
Particular and Individual.
To insure owners against third party liabilities.
To insure cargo against theft and damage.
### What does " P & I " mean in the context of ### maritime business? What are the functions of the "P & I" clubs? ### Which insurance coverage protects an owner against "COLLISION LIABILITY"?
The P & I club.
### ### What does " FOC " mean?
For Our Convenience.
Answer 3
Answer 4
When it is seriously When there has been damaged as a result no communication of a collision and with the vessel for can only be repaired more than a week. in a drydock. B An item which insurers are not prepared to arrange coverage for. Unlawful acts willfully committed by the master, officers or crew, to the prejudice of the owners. Protection and Indemnity. To protect ship's personnel against sickness, injury, death or disability.
A reduction insurers grant to owners with consistent good performance.
Partnership and Industry.
###
As much as possible including deck & engine logs, master What documents and information will be required & c/e reports, letters from a ship when filing an insurance claim? of protest, surveyors report, repair receipts etc. ###
What is the extent of a "P & I" club's cover?
###
What sort of personal injury cover do "P & I" clubs provide? ###
###
What does "SOLAS" stand for?
### What does " ILO " stand for?
What sort of agreement exists between the master and the crew?
###
###
Underwriters only need log books & the master's or chief engineer's report, together with photographs of the damage.
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
B
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
A
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
D
TRY TO ANSWER
C
TRY TO ANSWER
It is just a kind of logbook in which the master records the signing on and off of crew.
Page 20
C
Nothing required Underwriters will directly from ship. require nothing from Such claims usually ship, but will decide settled at meeting in claim solely on their owner's office on the surveyor's report. principle of "Utmost good faith".
An agreement the master requires the A formal agreement crew to sign as the required by the rules owner's of the ship's flag representative. A state that the entire letter of crew must sign. appointment covers the master himself.
Cost paid at Carriage paid toll. terminal. Departure Date Pre- Delivery Day PreWhat does " DDP " mean in the context of cargo? agreed. agreed.
TRY TO ANSWER
TRY TO ANSWER
International Labour Operation.
What does " CPT " mean in the context of cargo?
D
A
International Labour Intermediate Organisation. Lifeboat Operation.
By telex, fax or How do "P & I" clubs provide advice to owners at telephone far distant ports? instructions.
YOU ARE RIGH
Law regulating relations between sovereign states, detailing their rights and duties to each other.
There is no such thing, as it has never been possible to get multiple sovereign states to a agree to a common ground.
P & I club cover is generally limited to Complete coverage Most clubs are personal injury and for any & all claims, prepared to provide death claims only. within the limitation a range of cover to Very limited cover amounts specified in suit an owner's may be incl. for the policy. particular needs. cargo damage & pollution. Coverage is provided The clubs generally for medical They only cover cover all legal treatment, sickness & injury to liabilities connected repatriation & the ship's crew. to all personnel for replacement plus Repatriation & injury & death from whatever was replacement costs non-work related stipulated in are not included. illnesses. employment contract. Safe official lifeboat Save our lives and Safety of life at sea. appliance signals. ship.
By flying a representative out from the home office.
A
To protect owners against a total loss.
To assess the To determine who is To protect the proportion of responsible for the interests of the compensation paid To adjust General What is the function of an "AVERAGE ADJUSTER?" loss on which the charterer to the best to various interested Average. claim being made. of their ability. parties in the event of a total loss. ###
What is " INTERNATIONAL MARITIME LAW"?
A
TRY TO ANSWER
War zone, strikes and malicious acts.
There is no coverage The owners have the The owner's hull and from own damage choice of which machinery policy. losses, as a result of insurer to claim from. a collision. Foreign Officers' Final Official Flag of Convenience. Club. Convention.
Law that is only Law recognised by P applicable to & I clubs and other collisions and other insurers when violations of the settling claims. rules of the road.
ANSWER ANSWER YOU ARE RIGH
Through their nearest correspondent from their book of correspondents. Container port terminal.
P & I club cover is very selective and only available to those owners considered prudent. Owners with poor records are not accepted. Claims for personal injury must be work related & confined to crew. Civilians injured whilst conducting business on board are not covered. Safe orderly lifesaving appliance system. Inoperative Lighter Overload. A crew agreement no longer involves the ship owner, as his agent shall attend to such matters. Through a local marine lawyer or surveyor. Carriage paid to.
Delivered Duty Paid. Duty Due Paid.
Monitor Complince Legislative
QUESTION
1
What is a passenger ship?
What is the term "Exclusive Economic Zone"?
Answer A
Answer B
A ship that carries more than ten passengers
A ship that carries more than twelve passengers
Answer C
Answer D
A ship that carries A ship that carries more more than twenty than six passengers passengers
A
What sea area is known as "the continental shelf"?
3 The MARPOL Annex I regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil apply to which ships?
The present SOLAS regulations, unless expressly 5 provided otherwise, applies only to..........
Which of the following statements is not correct? 6
B
The Exclusive Economic Zone is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, up to 200NM
2
4
ANSWER Stability
The section that slopes down gradually from the low-water mark to the depth, averaging 130 metres,at which the angle of declination increase markedly.
The sea area to seaward of the Exclusive Economic Zone
All Tankers only
Tankers greater than 500 gross tons
ships of war and troopships.
cargo ships in excess of 500 gross tonnage.
Ships must respect established sea-lanes and Traffic Separation Schemes
A coastal State has jurisdiction over installations and structures within its economic zone.
The waters surrounding The safety zones the European continent around artificial islands only B All ships, unless All vessels greater than expressly provided 500 gross tons otherwise ships not propelled by fishing vessels. mechanical means. An archipelagos State may designate sea lanes through its waters.
The exclusive economic zone is the sea area within the 12 mile territorial sea.
For all ships according to SOLAS, how often the lifeboat monthly 7 drills should be conducted?
D B
D A
A Convention is a treaty between States, which have agreed to What is the meaning of the word "Convention", as used A Convention describes be bound by it to apply for instance in SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW a party of delegates at the principles "Conventions"? a meeting. contained in the convention within their sphere. 8
Page 21
A Convention explains maritime law based partly on generally accepted customary rules.
A Convention explains the enactment of national legislation giving effect to and enforcing its provisions. B
Monitor Complince Legislative
QUESTION
9
###
###
Answer A
Answer B
In international law the territorial sea forms part of a State's territory. At how many miles does the Law of the Three miles Sea Convention set the limit of the territorial sea?
What do the letters UNCLOS stand for?
Six miles.
### The normal base line for measuring the extent of the territorial area along the coast, as marked on large scale charts officially recognised by the coastal State is........
Twelve miles
Answer D Two hundred miles
United Nations Centre for Loss Prevention Studies, 1985
United Nations United Nations United Nations Convention on the Law Certificate for Load Line Classification of Ships, of the Sea, 1982 Spaces 1988 port state control officer ship shall comply with port State shall comply shall be mentioned in the requirements of the with the requirements the Safety ISM Code. of the ISM Code. Management System.
The International Maritime Police Convention
Maritime Policies as agreed by the IMO
the low-water line.
the estuary.
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
The Marine Environmental Protection and Liability Convention
the high-tide line.
the mean high water line.
### It is an area seaward of the territorial sea within which the coastal State enjoys limited jurisdiction
It is a sea area surrounding an It is the 200 mile zone archipelago within seaward of the normal which the coastal State coastal base line enjoys limited jurisdiction
What is the SOLAS Convention?
The "Voluntary Code for Safety Of Life At Sea."
The "International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea."
The law of the sea is embodied in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and the.......
London Conventions of STCW Convention of 1955. 1978 as amended in 1995.
###
###
B
C
C
A
Where would you find a sea area known as the "Contiguous Zone"?
###
ANSWER Stability
C
company directors shall The International Safety Management Code states that comply with the the company and the... requirements of the ISM Code.
What is MARPOL?
Answer C
Page 22
It is the area landward of the territorial sea; that is the estuaries and harbours A
The "International Life The "Convention on Life Saving Appliance Saving Appliances." Code." United Nation Conventions of 1958.
Geneva Conventions of 1958.
B
D
Monitor Complince Legislative
bility
Page 23
Monitor Complince Legislative
bility
Page 24
QUASTION 1 2
3
The lower end of the stem bar of a ship is attached to a........ stringer What stresses are the vessel's structure forward of Panting & Pounding the collision bulkhead stiffened to resist? Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately racking. aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist........
7
What is the type of framing shown in the ship cross section? A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's.... What is the minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft? Racking stresses in a ship can be reduced by fitting a good system of......
8
What stress is the connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads designed to resist?
4 5
6
A
9
What is the type of weld shown in the figure? What is the pipe which directs the anchor cable 10 from the windlass to the chain locker called?
B frame Panting & Racking panting.
Transverse
Longitudinal
construction sequence
tank capacities
Three
Four
stringers.
deck girders.
Hogging
Sagging
Fillet
Butt
Mooring
Hawser
11 In the figure, what is the section marked 4 called? Flat Bar What is distortion of a vessel's structure caused by Racking 12 rolling called?
Tee
13 Gross tonnage is defined as.... earning capacity. What is the connecting plate between a side frame Bracket 14 and a transverse deck beam called?
internal capacity.
15 What is the type of rudder shown in the figure? What is a keel structure constructed to allow piping 16 to run through called? What are bulkhead stiffeners attached to the tank 17 top by? How are stacked containers prevented from 18 moving in the hold? What is the uppermost continuous hull plating 19 called?
Unbalanced
Semi-balanced
Bar Keel
Flat Plate Keel
Cleats
Brackets
By girders
By wire lashings
Sheer Strake
Garboard Strake
20 What is the item shown in the figure?
Stay
Strut
Moulded beam is the measurement taken to 21 the.........
inside of the plating.
outside of the plating
22 What is the longitudinal curve of the deck called?
Sheer
Freeboard
Flare
Rake
hogging
sagging
23
What is the transverse curve of the deck called?
A vessel in the condition shown in Figure 1 will 24 be....
Slamming
Gusset
Where are panting stresses for a ship most 25 severe? What is the condition in which the greatest pounding stresses in a ship are liable to 26 occur?
Forward
Amidships
Loaded, beam sea
In ballast, beam s
27 What is the weight a vessel can carry called?
Load Displacement
Gross Tonnage
28 What is the hinge on which a rudder turns called?
Bolt
Pin
29 When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in........ What is the item of structure numbered 11 in the 30 figure called?
sheer.
tension.
Bulkhead
Floor Plate
To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be drains. 31 constructed with approved........ What is the vertical distance top to top between the 32 load line marks S and F? Summer Allowance The vertical distance measured from the deck line 33 to the centre of the load line disc is the........ At sea, water is self-drained from an exposed deck 34 by......... What is a drawing used to identify individual 35 strakes and plates called? What is the item of structure numbered 9 in the 36 figure? What is the item of structure numbered 12 in the 37 figure called?
Tropical Allowance
depth.
winter draught.
discharge pipes.
side scuttles.
Construction Drawing
Sheer Profile
Deck Plate
Panting Stringer
Boss Plate
Stern Bearing
In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller 38 will move in one revolution of the shaft is the: Diameter 39 In the figure, what are the items marked 6 called? What is the item of structure numbered 10 in the 40 figure called?
sills.
pitch
Chocks
Bilge Brackets
Breast Hook
Diamond Plate
C
D
ANSWER
beam
keel plate
D
Water Pressure
Hogging & Sagging
A
pounding.
hogging.
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
C Combination
Web
hydrostatic information
layout
D
Five
Six
A
side girders.
bulkheads.
D
Racking
Pounding
C
Vee Butt
Lap
A
Spurling
Scupper
C
Angle
Offset Bulb
D
Pounding
Heaving
light displacement.
load displacement.
Knee
Stiffener
Balanced
Spade
B
Box Keel
Duct Keel
D
Stays
Chocks
B
By portable beams
By cell guides
D
Stealer Plate
Stringer Plate
A
Bulwark Stanchion
Stiffener
C
inside of the frames.
inside of the ceiling.
Rise of Floor
Rake
Camber
Tumblehome
racking
twisting
B
CONSTRUCTION
1.jpg
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
A B C
A A C A
CONSTRUCTION
2.JPG
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
3.JPG
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
4.JPG
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
5.JPG
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION 6.JPG
Aft
Between the bulkheads
A
Loaded, head sea
In ballast, head sea
D
Registered Tonnage
Deadweight
D
Gudgeon
Coupling
C
torsion.
compression.
D
Wash Plate
Web
C
scuppers.
baffles.
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
7.JPG
CONSTRUCTION B
Dock Water Allowance
Fresh Water Allowance
D
summer draught.
statutory freeboard.
D
freeing ports.
drain valves.
C
Shell Expansion Plan
Body Plan
C
Foundation Plate
Floor Plate
B
Stern Post
Stern Frame
D
slip
circumference
B
Knees
Webs
B
Bracket
Bow Chock
A
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
7.JPG 4.JPG
CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION CONSTRUCTION
8.JPG
Quastion
A To port.
1
In which direction will the bow of a vessel move, with a single fixed pitch right-handed propeller which is turning astern?
10 minutes.
2
Over what length of time should a diesel powered vessel be slowed down from full sea-speed to manoeuvring speed? Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering ability. What does this mean?
It is the way a ship turns when the helm is put to the hard over position.
Your ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots, with rudder hard to starboard. Will this rudder position have any effect on the ship's behaviour? Choose the most complete answer.
Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port.
3
4
5
A ship turns around a point called the ''pivot point". What is the position of this point when the ship is At the ship's centre of gravity. stopped in the water?
6
A ship turns around a point called the ''pivot point". What is the usual position of this point when the Amidships. ship is at full sea speed? 800m.
7
What will be the stopping distance of your ship when proceeding at 8 knots and reversing to full astern? You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?
The bow may be pulled towards and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.
What is most noticeable about a ship with good course keeping stability?
She will maintain her course until large rudder angles are applied.
8
9
Your ship is equipped with a single right-handed fixed propeller. While steaming full ahead you You will stop in 1.5 times the reverse the engine to stop the ship. How will the ship's length. 10 ship react? In which of these vessel types is "squat" likely to be A cargo liner. 11 most pronounced? Your engine is going astern and you gather sternway. The rudder is amidships and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw. 12 How will your ship react?
You will change heading to port.
What would you say about a ship which is course unstable?
She will require large rudder angles to maintain course.
You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?
The bow could be pulled towards the bank.
13
14
15 16
In relation to squat effect, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Squat results in an increase in ship's draft.
How should you minimize squat effect?
Decrease the speed.
Who is responsible for the numbers and use of The pilot. 17 tugs during mooring? You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much change in the heading. What can Put the engines full astern. 18 you do to achieve this? Does a ship's trim influence her steering abilities? 19 Your ship is on a course of 240° True. A person has fallen overboard on the port side and, after letting go smoke and light floats, in order to carry out a 20 Williamson Turn would you.....
Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by the bow.
go hard to port until you are heading 180° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True.
The sinkage and change of trim caused when the ship is proceeding with a small 21 What is "ship squat"? underkeel clearance In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is the Tactical Diameter. 22 distance B known as?
23
The position of the pivot point when making sternway is approximately....
one quarter of the length of the ship from the stern
In a narrow canal, a ship proceeding at half speed be rejected away from the ahead swings towards the port bank of the bank by the pressure channel. As the bow approaches the bank, it would 24 initially.... In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is 25 point C known as?
26
How is shallow water effect felt by a vessel?
Pivot Point The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (for a left turning propeller).
In the diagram, B represents the start of a turning circle of a power driven ship in deep water with 20 degrees starboard rudder. If the ship was in shallow water, the turning circle with the same 27 rudder angle would be... A In the diagram of a ship's turning circle, what is the 28 distance A known as?
29
Advance.
You are going to leave a crowded anchorage by making a 180 degrees turn. You ship has a right Full ahead, rudder hard to handed propeller and you can turn either way. How port. can you make the turn using as little space as possible?
Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when 30 In ship handling terms, what is meant by "sinkage"? moving through the water.
In which of these vessel types is "sinkage" likely to 31 be most pronounced? A cargo liner. How is bank effect felt by a vessel? 32
33
The vessel's bow is pushed away from the nearest bank.
Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full astern from full ahead, the ship is No. sheering to starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading?
You are meeting another ship in confined waters. What can happen as the ships approach each 34 other?
Initially the bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other.
In ship handling terms, which of these overtaking situations is the most dangerous?
A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels.
35
36
To reduce the chance of When operating with conventional screw tugs, what "girting" is the function of the "Gob" or "Gog" rope?
1
Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering ability. How can overshoot be determined?
Do a 360 degrees turning circle. Large change at first then changing slightly.
2
You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance. Coming full astern from full ahead , how will your course change compared with deep water?
Stopping distance shorter & turning circle smaller.
3
You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance. How will your stopping distance and turning circle change compared with deep water?
4
5
When manoeuvring, when will you notice the effect When your underkeel of shallow water? clearance is 15% or less. You are on a VLCC and are approaching shallow water with an underkeel clearance of 15%. What speed should you have when entering the shallow water and when should you slow down?
Maintain normal sea-speed, no need to slow down.
7
What shape of hull does a course stable ship usually have? The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in shallow water. How much rudder lift force remains when the engine is stopped?
8
The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in deep water. How much rudder lift force remains when the About 5%. engine is stopped?
9
You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This wind suddenly increases to 60 knots. When this happens, the force pushing the vessel off the berth will be ......
6
A long, slim hull. About 80%.
doubled.
A tug is connected by a line at your bow. Will the Yes, the bollard pull is the bollard pull be the same at any speed? Choose the same at any speed. 10 most complete answer. The diagram shows the manoeuvring characteristics of a ship. What are the distances 11 A1 and A2 called?
Turning Distance
When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has to turn, how much lift force remains if the About 10%. rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from the 12 hard over position? You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce speed while in the turn, how 13 will the turning diameter change? What shape of a hull would you say a course 14 unstable ship would have? You have made a turning test at full speed in deep water. You are now going to make one with initial speed, slow ahead. Do you think the diameter will 15 differ from that of initial full ahead?
16
Most large tankers are moored using wire ropes on winches in order to remain safely moored alongside. If extra mooring lines are required, would a mixture of wires and full-length synthetic fibre ropes be appropriate?
A ship is being turned short round in a tidal stream that is running at three knots. If in still waters this normally takes 12 minutes, what allowance, if any, should be made for the drift of the ship during the 17 turn?
The turning diameter will become smaller. A long, slim hull. The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn. No, because the wires would take most of the strain and the fibre ropes practically none.
6 cables
The graph shows the decrease of speed, against time, on a 100,000 deadweight tanker proceeding at full speed of 13.3 knots and at minute 0 the engine was stopped. What is the decrease in 18 speed most likely to be?
Series 1
The rudder is in the hard over position, propeller stopped. The ship is turning slowly. What can be done to make her turn faster without increasing 19 forward speed?
Give full astern until the ship has stopped, then full ahead again with the rudder hard over.
B To starboard.
C Forwards.
D
Ship handling
Backwards. B
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
The stern may be pulled towards and the bow may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.
A
Ship handling
When you apply rudder, When you apply When you put the rudder she will continue to turn for rudder, she will take amidships, she will quickly sometime after the rudder is time before answering. return to a straight course. put amidships.
D
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
20 minutes.
1 hour.
4 hours.
It is the way a ship continues to turn after counter-rudder is applied.
It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is put amidship.
It is the way a ship responds when moving the helm from hard to port to hard to starboard.
No, the ship will go straight astern.
No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway. It should be in amidships position when going astern.
Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard.
Near the ship's stern.
At the stern.
2000m.
Outside of the ship's centre Near the ship's bow. line. At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the bow.
At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern.
8 ship lengths.
Check the information posted on the bridge.
The change in speed of The change in your the other ship. underkeel clearance.
You will sheer to starboard You will sheer to port and gradually lose and stop rather quickly. headway.
You will continue on a straight course.
A supply or anchor handling vessel.
A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.
A vessel with a high block coefficient.
You will change heading to starboard.
You will go straight astern.
Your stern will be pushed to starboard.
When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn long after the rudder is returned to amidships.
When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a straight course.
The stern could be pushed away from the bank.
The bow could be pushed away from the bank.
When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering. The stern could be pulled towards the river bank.
Squat results in a decrease in underkeel clearance.
Squat can be a serious problem for deep draft ships. Transfer ballast to change the ship's trim.
Squat results in a decrease in ship's draft.
D
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
go hard to starboard to 285° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True.
A
Ship handling
Deeper draft caused by A requirement for ships operating in fresh proceeding up river under rather than salt water low bridges Transfer. Radius of the turn.
A slight increase in underkeel clearance
A
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
one quarter of the length of the ship from the bow
amidships
one eight of the length of the ship from the stern
A
Ship handling
be unaffected
be pulled towards the bank be first pulled towards the by bank suction bank, then rejected away A
Ship handling
Increase the speed. The port authority. Make a complete turning circle.
The master.
The agent.
Do a zigzag manoeuvre.
Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine speed.
No, a ship will have the Yes, a ship usually steers same steering ability better if trimmed by the unaffected by trim. stern. go hard to port until you are heading 195° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True.
Do a zig-zag manoeuvre and reduce the speed.
go hard to starboard until you are heading 300° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True.
No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.
Diameter of the turn.
Centre of Flotation The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (for a right turning propeller).
Transfer Point Heading Point The vessel becomes The vessel responds very sluggish in responding to quickly to the rudder. the rudder.
A
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
B
C
A
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this maneuver until you have made the turn.
C
Ship handling
Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experiences when comparatively heavily loaded amidships.
B
Ship handling
Tactical Diameter.
Stopping Distance.
Rudder hard to port, full Full ahead, rudder hard astern. After you gain some to starboard. sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead. Sinkage is the change of draft experienced when moving through water.
Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experiences when comparatively heavily loaded both ends.
none of the other options. Transfer.
A supply or anchor handling vessel.
A vessel with a high block coefficient.
A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.
C
Ship handling
The vessel's stern is pushed away from the nearest bank.
The whole vessel is drawn in parallel to the nearest bank.
The whole vessel is pushed away parallel to the nearest bank.
A
Ship handling
Put the rudder hard to port.
Swing the rudder from side Put the rudder hard to to side. starboard. D
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
Initially the bows of the Both vessels will be ships will be pulled affected by squat. together.
There will be no effect.
A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.
A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.
A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels.
To keep the tug at the To secure the tug to the correct place on the ship's ship side when pushing
To improve the bollard pull of the tug
Do a 540 degrees turning circle.
Do a standing turn.
Do a 20/20 degree zigzag manoeuvre.
The heading will change only slightly.
The heading will not change.
The heading will most likely change by a large amount.
Stopping distance longer & turning circle larger.
Stopping distance & turning Stopping distance same & circle will remain the same. turning circle larger.
When your underkeel clearance is 10% or less.
When your underkeel clearance is 50% or less.
When your underkeel clearance is 75% or less.
Reduce to slow or less About 6-7 knots, slow About 10 knots, slow down in due time before down 30 minutes before 15 minutes before entering. entering. entering. A short, slim hull.
A long, wide hull.
A short, wide hull.
About 50%.
About 10%.
About 5%.
About 20%.
tripled.
About 50%
quadrupled.
About 80%.
quintupled.
No, when the speed is increasing, the bollard pull is also increasing.
No, when the speed No, best use of a tug is exceeds 5 knots the tug will made when the ship is not be of much help. going astern.
Tactical Diameter
Advance
About 30%.
About 50%.
C
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
D
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
C
Ship handling
Yes, there will be a large difference in the turning diameter between full and slow ahead.
A
Ship handling
Yes, because the fibre ropes are more flexible and complement the wires, adding to the overall effectiveness of the mooring.
A
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
A
Ship handling
B
Ship handling
Transfer
About 80%.
The turning diameter will not change.
The turning diameter will increase.
A length to beam ratio greater than 5.5.
A length to beam ratio less A length to beam ratio less than 7. than 5.5.
Yes, it will be much smaller with slow ahead.
Yes, it will be much greater with slow ahead.
No, because most fibre Yes, because the extra ropes of the required fibre ropes are easier breaking strain are large to handle. and difficult to handle.
no allowance
Series 2
Give a kick ahead.
3 cables
Series 3
Give slow ahead.
The change will depend on rudder angle.
12 cables
None of the other options.
Give half astern.
9.JPG
10.JPG
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13.JPG
14.JPG
Quastion 1
A
What is the name given to an elongated area of low pressure extending outwards from a depression?
Trough
Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a weather " cold front "?
In advance - steady ; during the passage - sudden rise ; in the rear - fall.
2 3
4 5 6
7
8 9
10
Referring to the weathyer map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 5, you would expect… Refering to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, the preassure system affecting position C is a…. Which type of clouds, from those listed, has a low base but great vertical height Refering to the weather map "Metmap 4", the line at position 1 is called…
Frontal trough Cumulonimbus The warm front (low clouds, but improving over the next hours)
Refering to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate the preassure gradient between positions A and B. 14 mb. In 100nm. Use the distance scale on the map. Refering to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, Westerely winds are being experienced C position in which of the following? With which type of cloud is continuous rain usually Nimbostratus associated? Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", a typical 980 mb value for the low pressure would be about....
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", a typical 11 value for the high pressure would be… In meteorology, isobars are lines joining places 12 having the same ...... A typical value for a high pressure centre in the 13 North Atlantic is about… What weather phenomenon can cause a 14 reduction of radar range due to attenuation? Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate 15 the pressure at position 5. When a marine thermometer is used to take air 16 temperatures, it should be hung… Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", in which of the following positions will the wind be 17 lightest?
18
Light SW winds, good visibility
1025 mb. Pressure tendency 1030 mb. Rough seas.
screen sited to windward Position 1.
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate the pressure gradient between positions C and D. 3 mb. In 100 nm. Use the distance scale on the map.
A barograph is an instrument which records 19 continuos… What corrections must be applied to a mercury 20 barometer? 21 A classic anticyclone is an area of....
Preassure Height, Latitude … High preassure, descending air, eight winds
22
The visual range corresponding to the term "moderate visibility" used in weather bulletins is…
2 - 5 Nm.
Which of the following is NOT true with regard to a Wind circulate anticlockwise in North 23 summer anticyclone? Hemisphere Which of those listed is NOT classified as 24 precipitation? FROST and DEW 25 From those listed, which is the highest cloud?
Altocumulus, altostratus.
26 Cumulus clouds are…
Deatached clouds generally dense with sharp outlines.
In a tropical revolving storm, "the eye" is a small 27 central region of...... 28
Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by ...... heavy rain sometimes with thunder and lightning. Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm front"?
29 If Frontal depressions move in families, each 30 depression following its predecessor but in ......
31
The cause of ice accumulation on a ship is due to freezing of sea spray at a temperature below ......
On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds 32 to wind ...... On the Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to 33 wind ...... 34 Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of ...... 35 An occluded depression tends to move .... In what latitude do tropical revolving storms 36 generally originate? If a meteorological depression has a large warm 37 sector, it has a tendency to ......
38
In advance - continuous rain; during the passage rain almost or completely stops; in the rear mainly cloudy and slight rain. a slightly higher latitude. 0 degrees C. force 8. force 10 and above. 48 - 55 knots. slowly and irregularly. 0 to 25 degrees. weaken.
Steaming South at 10 knots, you have measured the wind speed 15 knots. Smoke from the funnel is WNW going away to port directly to abeam. What is the approximate true direction of the wind.
Which of these is the correct pressure sequence 39 associated with a weather "warm front"?
40
comparatively strong winds and heavy clouds.
In advance - steady ; during the passage - steady fall ; in the rear - increase.
Referring to the weather "Metmap 2" for 1200 May Light and Variable 15th, winds at position A will be forecasted as…
The eye of a tropical revolving storm is an area with very high from the North or South. 41 light wind but with seas that are.... 42 Wind force 5 corresponds to a wind speed of .... 10 - 14 knots. South Westerlies are the general surface wind in 0 - 30 degrees. 43 which of the following latitudes? 44
Fast moving high clouds are an indication of ....
bad weather to come.
45 A falling barometer is an indication of ....
good weather to come.
Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold front"?
In advance - heavy rain ; during the passage - no rain ; in the rear - no rain.
Which of these are "high clouds"?
Altocumulus, altostratus.
46 47
the centre of the storm is to your left if you are in The direction of the centre of a storm may be found Northern hemisphere and to your right if you are in 48 by Buys Ballot's law, namely face the wind and .... Southern hemisphere. In meteorology, isotherms are lines joining places pressure. 49 having the same .... You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving storm which is approaching to you. What barometric changes 50 would you expect? 51
No change.
Which of these are "low clouds"?
Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
Which of these is the correct sequence of visibility associated with a weather "cold front"?
In advance - very good ; during the passage moderate in showers ; at the rear - usually poor.
52 Warm oclusion
53 Meteorology - what does the figure indicate? Warm occlusion Where, in warm sector depression, are fog patches in the warm sector of depression 54 and light drizzle most likely to occur? If the atmosphere contains less water vapour than it is capable of holding at that temperature, it is said No data 55 to be... Sea waves will increase in height in certain conditions. From those listed, which is NOT one of Travel with current 56 those conditions?
upper figure?
The number of observations.
On this weather routeing chart, what does the 57 upper figure indicate? WIND
4 kts
On this weather routeing chart, what is the wind 58 speed indicated by the arrow? Report
Radio calling in point, way or reporting point showing direction of vessels movement. 59 On this weather routeing chart, what is indicated? 60
What is rain accompanied by snow called?
Sleet.
On this weather routeing chart, what does this 61 figure indicate? Pipeline What is the quantity of water vapour present in the 62 atmosphere called? Humidity
Assuming a forecast wind of say, 26 kts, with the wind duration 30 hours and maximum fetch of 300nm., what would be the value of the significant wave height?
4.9
63 Which type of cloud is associated with 64 thunderstorms? A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually followed immediately by a shower of 65 rain or snow is called a ...... Dense sea fog is most likely to form when the wind 66 changes direction to bring air from a… In which area will the isobars be spaced closest, 67 given the wind speeds indicated? A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often 68 associated with ...... Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the 69 earth? What is water content of the atmosphere (usually 70 expressed as a percentage) known as? In what direction does the wind blow around a 71 cyclonic storm in the northern hemisphere?
with cumulonimbus squall warm air mass over a relatively colder sea surface 40kts cold front. Troposphere 1 Humidity Anti-clockwise
If the distance between two consecutive isobars (drawn at intervals of 4mb) is found to be 100 n.m. 30 kts and the latitude is 50 deg, what is the geostrophic 72 wind speed? If an observer is facing the wind in the northern hemisphere, where does the low pressure lie?
To the right
73 What is the instrument used for atmosphe relative 74 humidity measurement? 75 What does this indicate on a weather map? When visibility is considerably reduced we usually 76 call it… What instrument is used for measuring the velocity 77 of the wind? What weather conditions are likely to result from the movement of warm air mass over a relatively 78 colder sea surface?
79 80 81
82
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, at position D, the winds can be expected to... What type of clouds are shown in the picture? Referring to the weathyer map "Metmap 4", the area at position 3 is called Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, what is the predominant weather system over the UK at 1200 June 26th?
psychrometer or hygrometer. Cold front Night Anemometer Fog
be affected by sea breezes Stratocumulus The warm sector An Anticyclone
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", estimate SSW 83 the wind direction at position 3. The temperature of the wet bulb thermometer falls Evaporation 84 according to the rate of...
85 86
87 88 89 90
91
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", the forecast states "the low pressure system to the NW of the British Isles is moving slowly SE." How would you expect the wind to change at position X? Which of these pressures would be described as "average" in temperate latitudes? Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", what is the forecast wind direction and strength at position Z? Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 1, you would expect… In the Beaufort weather notation, what is the meaning of the symbol RR? An Isallobar is Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", if you were at position 2, you would expect in few hours....
To WSW, increase 35 knots 1010 mb. SW, 35 knots. (Low clouds, rain, but improving over the next hour) The warm front Continuous heavy rain Position have the same tendency The cold front (the wind veer to the west, visibility to improve)
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, identify the predominant pressure Secondary depression 92 system over the UK. 93
94
With which type of cloud is hail usually associated? Cumulonimbus ? How does a current flowing in the same direction No data as the wind affect the sea wave length and height?
In the Northern hemisphere, the wind at sea level 95 rotates around a depression in… No data In meteorology, isobars are lines joining places pressure. 96 having the same ...... Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 May 15th, the predominant weather system at 97 position G is... a weak low
98
Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, what is the pressure system over the UK most likely do over the next 12 hours?
Move east wards Referring to the weather map "Metmap 4", the line The cold front (the wind veer to the west, visibility 99 at position 2 is called to improve) Referring to the weather map "Metmap 1" for 0700 July 4th, if you are in the Dover Straits, the wind 100 can be expected to... Veer SW; Referring to the weather map "Metmap 2" for 1200 on passing Eng. Channel vessel will probably May 15th, the pressure system over the UK will experience fog or poor visibility. Remain 101 probably, in the next 12 hours...... stationary. Showery precipitation is most likely to be produced 102 by… Cummulus and cumulonimbus clouds
103
103.Referring to the weather map "Metmap 3", in which of the following positions will the wind be strongest?
In position 5
The three forms in which water can exist in the 104 atmosphere are as a solid, a liquid and… Gas or evoporated The most accurate sea surface temperature would 105 be obtained from a.... No data
B
C
D
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
None of these are correct.
In advance - fall ; during the passage - sudden rise ; in the rear - rise continues more slowly.
In advance - sudden fall; during the passage sudden rise; in the rear steady.
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
C A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
Fog.
Mist.
Rain & snow.
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A A D A A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
Cumulonimbus.
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
very strong winds and no clouds.
no winds and heavy rain.
comparatively light winds and little clouds.
D
dense fog.
slight wind and heavy rain.
very cold air and sometimes hail.
A
In advance - no rain; during the passage continuous rain; in the rear - drizzle.
In advance - showers; In advance - drizzle; during during the passage the passage - no rain; in the thunderstorms / in the rear - continuous rain. rear - clear skies.
B
the same latitude.
a slightly lower latitude.
a much higher latitude.
C
+2 degrees C.
- 2 degrees C.
-5 degrees C.
A
C A
D force 10.
force 12.
force 14.
force 8 and above.
force 12 and above.
force 6 and above.
56 - 63 knots. fast and irregularly.
34 - 40 knots. fast.
28 - 33 knots. slowly.
25 to 35 degrees.
35 to 50 degrees.
50 to 65 degrees.
remain unchanged.
deepen.
move fast.
WSW
NW
SW
C A A A A C
A In advance - steady fall ; during the passage fall ceases ; in the rear In advance - increase ; - little change or slow during the passage - steady fall. ; in the rear - decrease.
In advance - sharply falling ; during the passage - rise and fall ; in the rear - slowly rising.
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
B
A very high and confused. 17 - 21 knots. 30 - 40 degrees.
30 - 34 knots.
very high from the East or West. 25 - 29 knots.
40 - 60 degrees.
60 - 90 degrees.
moderate and confused.
good weather to come. rainy weather to come.
unchanged weather.
B B C ?
bad weather to come.
no change in weather.
rainy weather to come.
?
In advance - no rain ; during the passage moderate rain ; in the rear - heavy rain.
In advance - clear skies ; during the passage thunderstorms, often with hail ; in the rear - steady drizzle with cloudy skies.
In advance - usually some rain and perhaps thunder ; during the passage - rain, often heavy ; in the rear - heavy rain for a short period than fair .
D
Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
Cumulonimbus.
in the Northern hemisphere the centre the center of the storm will of the storm will bear 8 be ahead about a point to to 12 points to the right. the right.
the center of the storm will be right behind you about a point on your left.
humidity.
temperature.
iceberg density.
Slight Increase.
Rapid fall.
Rapid Increase.
C
B C
? Altocumulus, altostratus.
Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
Megastratus.
In advance - usually poor ; during the In advance - very poor ; passage - first bad than during the passage - bad ; good ; in the rear in the rear - moderate. usually very good except in showers.
In advance - very good ; during the passage - very poor ; in the rear moderate.
Cold occlusion
Warm front
Cold front
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
B
A A
A No data
No data
No data A
The percentage frequency of variables winds.
The number of observed calms.
None of the other options.
D
3 kts
5 kts
7 kts
A
Ramark.
Coast radio station providing range and bearing from stations on Aeronautical radio beacon. request.
Snow flakes.
Ice pellets.
Hail.
Telegraph line
Power transmission line
Overhead transporter
A
Relative humidity
Absolute humidity
Dew point
A
A A
3.5
3
3.9
B A cyclone
storm
tropical cyclone A A
20kts
30kts
10kts
warm front.
occluded front.
warn front.
Stratosphere 2
Mesosphere 3
Ionosphere 4
Dew
Fog
Mist
Clockwise
Towards the pole
Towards the equator
15 kts
60 kts
120 kts
A A A A A
? To the left
Ahead
Behind D
Warm front
Occluded front
Stationary front
No data
No data
No data
Barometer
Tachometer
Hydrometer
Rain
Squalls
Trough
A A A A
A
No data Cumulus
No data Stratus
No data Cirrus
No data
No data
No data
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A B A
A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
temperature.
humidity
iceberg density.
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
A NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA A
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
NO DATA
A A
Metmap 4
15.JPG
Metmap 2
metmap3.JPG
Metmap2.JPG Metmap 2
upper figure.jpg
wind.jpg
report.jpg
GRAFIK
grafik.jpg
metmap2.jpg clouds.jpg
Metmap-1
Metmap 3
C
C
C
D
A
Stability
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
What is meant by "Synchronism or Resonance?"
This is a situation used This is a term used to This is a term used to to describe gentle describe pitching and describe violent rolling. rolling. rolling.
D
Stability
How is a "Turning Couple" formed?
A couple is formed A couple is formed when two unequal when two equal parallel forces in a vertical forces are acting in position are acting in opposite directions. the same direction.
A couple is formed when two unequal parallel forces are acting in the same direction.
A
Stability
It is the ability of a vessel to return to her initial or upright position, after having been forcibly inclined.
D
Stability
It is the term used to indicate a vessel has a more than adequate GM.
A
Stability
C
Stability
D
Stability
D
Stability
A
Stability
C
Stability
A
Stability
A
Stability
B
Stability
A
Stability
C
Stability
C
Stability
B
Stability
1
2
3 What is "Statical Stability?"
It is the basic stability information a vessel is required to carry by law.
A couple is formed by joining two vertical posts together.
It is the relationship between the moment of a couple and the It is another name for righting moment. the metacentric height.
This expresses KM as moving away off the centreline at large angles of heel.
It is just another name for metacentre.
What is "dynamical stability?"
It is the expression used to describe a vessel, that is in the most stable condition possible.
It is the expression used to describe the transfer of buoyancy, from one side to the other, when a vessel heels.
How would you increase the GM of a ship, loaded with a timber deck cargo, that has become "unstable?"
By filling the small divided double bottom By completely By jettisoning the entire By filling all wing ballast tanks on the lower emptying all partly filled deck cargo of timber. tanks. side, whilst jettisoning double bottom tanks. the deck cargo from the higher side.
What is a "Pro-metacentre?" 4
5
6
To test the safe working load of a derrick or crane.
To determine the maximum angle of heel, before a ship will capsize.
It is the ability of a vessel to return to an upright position.
It is the measure of the It is the energy work that is done when generated by a rolling the vessel is inclined by vessel. external forces.
There is no need for such an experiment, because the information it gives may be obtained in various other easier ways.
It is done to find out the "GM" of a vessel, plus the Ship's Lightweight, and VCG & LCG at this Lightweight.
What is the purpose of performing an Inclining 7 Experiment or Stability Test? What is initial angles of heel in stability 8 calculations?
What is the "Wave Period?"
It is the comparison of the height of successive waves.
9
10
It is the time in minutes between successive wave crests, passing a fixed point.
It is the time in seconds between successive wave crests or troughs, passing a fixed point.
Obtaining Statical What are "Cross Curves of Stability" used for onboard a Giving the capacity of Showing tank Stability curves at ship? various holds or tanks. calibration values. known Displacements.
If the vessel is tending to "resonance", what is the 11 universal action to alter this condition?
It is the time interval between the highest waves, in a sequence of waves. Similar to a set of Bonjean curves.
decrease speed and alter course
The change in the Centre of Flotation, after trimming.
They show the actual angle of trim.
The change of draft after trimming.
They only serve as a base for the two vertical lines.
What do the intersecting horizontal lines signify in the 12 diagram? What is the "Centre of Pressure?" 13
What effect does "Freeboard" have on a vessel's dynamical stability?
It is the point where the It is the pressure in the It is the part that is total thrust of the It is the pressure at the centre of a specific least likely to give way pressure could be Centre of Flotation. tank. to external pressure. considered to act. It does not have any effect on dynamical stability.
14
For all ships in general what is the IMO recommended minimum allowable value for initial 15 metacentric height (GM)? What are "Hydrostatic Curves" used for in ship calculations? 16
ANSWER Stability
This a dangerous condition that occurs when the ship's still water period and the apparent wave period are equal.
0.35m
As freeboard increases, the range of stability also increases, and this in turn leads to greater dynamical stability.
If freeboard is greater, then the dynamical stability is correspondingly reduced.
Freeboard and dynamical stability are not related in any way.
0.25m
0.15m
0.45m
For hydrostatic pressures on bulkheads.
For pressures at various depths in oil fuel bunkers.
Mainly for trim Obtaining the shape of calculations for the body sections. predicting end draughts. Page 78
Stability
QUESTION For all ships in general, what is the IMO recommended minimum allowable value for rightning lever (GZ), at an angle of heel equal to 17 or greater than 30 degrees?
How do you ensure reliable results from an Inclining Experiment? 18
Answer A 0.35m
Answer B 0.42m
Answer C 0.2m
Perform test in calm conditions, with slack moorings, with minimum number of personnel, and minimise free surface effects of liquids.
Tighten all moorings, use a weight not less than 10 tonnes, and make an accurate sounding of all tanks.
The Gross Tonnage of the vessel.
The Trim of the vessel.
The Tonnage Mark of the vessel.
A very powerful wind force, such as that experienced in a tropical revolving storm.
A vertical force at the point at which a load is being carried, with the force being the difference between upward and downward thrust.
Answer D
ANSWER Stability
0.15m C
Stability
A
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
A
Stability
C
Stability
It must be done in early No specific preparations morning or late are necessary, and it evening, when the least can be done even in number of people are very windy conditions. likely to be around.
The Terminus or most forward point.
1 What does the letter " T " stand for in the diagram? It is the total weight applied at a recognised "weaker" part of a ship , such as where the Main Deck meets the superstructure.
What is a "Shear Force" in a ship?
A violent sideways motion in heavy weather, which can cause a vessel to shear violently.
What is the "Centre of Gravity", of an object?
It is the point at which the whole weight of the It is always the mid object may be point of the object. regarded as acting.
It is the point where an It is the end point of an object will snap, if it is object. bent.
Buoyancy
Negative Buoyancy
Reserve Buoyancy
What is the "Centre of Buoyancy of a ship?"
The point through which the force of buoyancy, is considered to act downwards.
The geometrical centre of underwater volume & the point through It is the centre point of which the force of each cargo hold, in a buoyancy may be fully laden vessel. considered to act upwards.
It is the middle point of the watertight volume, above the waterline. B
Stability
What is the "Principle of Suspended Weights''?
When a weight is suspended from a ship's derrick, its centre of gravity is considered as being at the derrick head.
When a weight is suspended from a derrick, its centre of gravity is considered as being at the heel of the derrick.
When a weight is suspended from a derrick ever increasing pressure is exerted on the cargo runner and thus it may part.
When a weight is suspended from a derrick, personnel working in the vicinity should be warned "not to stand under it".
A
Stability
Left Centre of Flotation. Light Container Freight.
Longitudinal Centre of Flotation.
Longitudinal Common Factor.
C
Stability
The movement of liquid A vessel being top in slack tanks due to a heavy. ship's motion.
A vessel having a very large GM.
Pressing up double bottom tanks . A
Stability
The process of lifting a heavy object, by squatting first, before applying an upward lifting motion with one's arms & legs.
The method of applying a superior force to a metal object, to bend or shape said object to the way you want it.
A beam bends by placing weights on either side of it. The "Moment" is calculated by multiplying the weight applied by the respective distance.
This is another name for hogging, and it occurs when there is too much weight at either end.
large
small
zero
negative
C A
Stability Stability
A
Stability
C
Stability
2
3 What is the intact volume of a vessel above the 4 waterline called?
5
6 7 What do the letters "LCF" mean in relation to stability? What causes a "Free Surface Effect?" 8
What is a "Bending Moment" in a ship?
9 10 A stiff vessel will have a GM which is....
Lost Buoyancy
The vessel is in a state The vessel is in a state The ship is in a state of The vessel is in a state of neutral equilibrium. of stable equilibrium. unstable equilibrium. of semi - equilibrium.
What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this 11 diagram? If the forward draught of a vessel is greater than the aft 12 draught, what state of trim is the vessel in? What is the horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity, acting on a vessel when heeled 13 by wind or waves, called? Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from 14 the...... At what angle of heel on a statical stability curve is the 15 GM plotted?
The vessel is said to be The vessel is said to be The vessel is trimmed finely balanced. on even keel. by the head.
The vessel is trimmed by the stern.
Metacentric Height
KG
KM
Righting Lever
D
Stability
waterline to the keel.
main deck to the waterline.
main deck to the keel.
top of the bulwarks to the waterline.
B
Stability
60 degrees.
45 degrees.
30 degrees.
57.3 degrees.
D
Stability
0.25h
0.33h
0.5h C
Stability
The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h, measured from the bottom, is... 0.1 h 16
Page 79
Stability
QUESTION
Answer A
It is in a state of "Neutral Equilibrium".
What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this 17 diagram? When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will 18 be.... If the angle of heel is less than 10 degrees, what is the 19 equation for finding GZ?
What does fresh water allowance or " FWA " mean? 20 What effect does " Hogging " have on a vessel's draught? 21
What is "Deadweight"?
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
It is in a state of It is in a state of It is a vessel in a "Stable Equilibrium". G "Unstable Equilibrium". "Tender State". vyshe M
zero
negative
C
Stability
GM times BM / 3.
GM times Sin(x).
GM times cos(x).
BM times sin(x).
B
Stability
The amount the laden fresh water draft must be reduced by, to equal the maximum allowed laden salt water draft.
The amount the vessel may submerge it's maximum salt water draft by, when loading in fresh water.
D
Stability
A
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
C
Stability
B
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
D
Stability
D
Stability
C
Stability
D
Stability
D
Stability
A C
Stability Stability
C
Stability
C
Stability
The amount of fresh The maximum amount water that may be of fresh water a fully consumed by each laden vessel is allowed crew member daily, to carry. during rationing.
It makes the amidships It makes the amidships It causes a vessel to be It has no effect on the draft appear less than it draught greater than it trimmed by the head. draught. should be. should be.
The weight of the provisions, stores and bunkers.
The difference between the vessel's loaded and The weight of the light displacements. It vessel's cargo only. is the weight that a ship carries.
The amount of cargo a vessel is allowed to carry, depending on the Load Line Zone she in.
KG = KM minus KB.
KG = KG plus BM.
KG = KM minus GM.
23 From the diagram, give the formula for the "KG" value. Zero to 30 degrees.
25 What do the letters "LOA" stand for in relation to a ship? Latest Official Act.
What is a "Metacentre?"
It is the position between the centre of gravity and the centre of buoyancy.
26 What do you call the effect of the movement of liquid in Sideways movement. 27 a slack tank? Longitudinal Centre of 28 What does the term "LCB" mean? Ballast. There is no specific What is the "formula" for calculating the righting formula for this moment of a ship? 29 purpose.
30
About which point on a waterline does a vessel change Around it's mid point. trim?
How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre of salt 31 water? What happens to cause a vessel to be in a state of "Unstable Equilibrium''? 32
What is the "Breadth Extreme?" 33 34 What is a GZ curve used to determine?
What causes ships to experience "Stresses?"
35 What does "Breadth Moulded" mean in relation to a ship? 36
Stability
small
KG = KM plus GM.
What is the "Range of Stability" on a statical stability curve?
C large
22
24
ANSWER Stability
1.015
Zero to one radian ( 57.3 degrees ).
Angles of heel where all Zero to angle of deck GZ levers are positive. immersion.
Length Over All.
Longest Objective Attainable.
Largest Outside Article.
It is the intersecting point between the vertical lines through the centre of buoyancy in the initial and slightly listed positions.
When a vessel heels over so that the low side touches the sea, that point is the metacentre.
When a vessel is in a vertical position, the metacentre is the point below the centre of buoyancy.
Fore and aft movement. Lowest Centre of Buoyancy. It is the product of the ship's displacement multiplied by the BM.
Free surface effect. Lowest Cantilever Beam. It is the GM multiplied by the displacement in tonnes.
The open surface effect. Longitudinal Centre of Buoyancy. It is the GZ multiplied by the displacement in tonnes.
Anywhere along the fore and aft line.
Around the point at The Longitudinal Centre which a weight is of Flotation. added or taken away.
1.008
0.925
When the metacentre and the centre of When a vessel has a gravity, are at the same very large GM. height above the keel.
1.025
When the centre of When a vessel is rolling gravity rises above the very heavily. metacentre.
The mean of the The maximum breadth breadth at # 1 hatch measured from outside and the breadth at the the shell plating P to S. aftermost hatch.
The maximum breadth measured from inside the plating.
The maximum breadth measured from the inside plating at the bottom of the centremost hatch.
Displacement
Deadweight
Stability
Buoyancy
As long as a ship is properly built and handled , it will never experience stresses .
When the upward force due to weight at a point, and the downward thrust due to buoyancy, at the same point are unequal.
Stresses to a ship are mainly caused when it is subjected to forces from wind, waves and loads.
When the downward force due to weight at a point, and the upward thrust due to buoyancy, at the same point, are not equal.
The maximum breadth The maximum breadth The maximum breadth The maximum breadth measured from outside measured across the measured from inside measured from the the plating. hatches. the shell plating P to S. waterline.
Page 80
Stability
QUESTION
What is the "Depth Moulded" in relation to a ship? 37
What is the "Centre of Flotation or Tipping Centre" of a vessel? 38
What are the "Stresses" that effect a ship?
Answer A The vertical distance from the top of keel to the uppermost continuous deck at side.
Answer B The vertical distance from the keel to the main deck.
Answer C
The vertical distance The vertical distance from the keel, to the top from the waterline, to of the centremost hatch the uppermost deck. coaming.
It is the exact mid point of the ship, around It is a fixed known point It is the point on which which the vessel trims on the longitudinal the vessel initially rests, as weights are added metacentre. when being drydocked. or taken away. Mainly tensile, compressive and bending stresses.
39 Lloyds Buoyancy 40 What do the letters "LBP" stand for in relation to a ship? Particulars.
A mould of a ship inside in a block, which is used for modeling purposes in a shipyard.
Answer D
It is the geometrical centre of the waterplane and also the point about which the vessel trims.
Heavy cargoes such as The ageing process of iron ore, steel billets a vessel in heavy and other ores with low weather. stowage factors.
Rust and general wear & tear, when accompanied by poor maintenance.
Loadline Beam Position.
Length Between Perpendiculars.
Largest Beam Possible.
The block coefficient of fineness, which is the ratio between the underwater volume, and volume of circumscribing block.
A stability model, which is used when calculating GM and other pertinent information.
The waterplane coefficient, which is the ratio between the waterplane area and the area of the circumscribing rectangle .
41 What does the diagram show, and what does it mean?
ANSWER Stability
A
Stability
A
Stability
A
Stability
C
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
A
Stability
A
Stability
It is a figure showing how an Inclining Experiment is done.
It is the longitudinal metacentre and is used when calculations involving trim are considered.
It is the transverse metacentre and is used with inclinations of heel & list .
X
X
X
What is the "True Mean Draught?"
The draught at the Centre of Flotation is considered as the True Mean Draught or the draught the vessel would lie in even keel conditions.
It is the mean of the forward and aft draughts or the amidships draught.
It is the draught It is the mean between between the forward the amidship and after and midships draughts. draughts.
What is a "Ship's Rolling Period''?
It is the time in seconds taken by a vessel to complete a roll i.e port to starboard and back to port.
It is the time taken in seconds for a vessel to complete a roll, either to starboard or to port.
A
Stability
What causes "Sagging" in a loaded vessel?
Improper loading, caused by placing too much weight at either end of the ship.
Leaving peak tanks Leaving the fore and This condition is caused empty, and then after peaks full, when by aged bottom plates. loading tanks/holds the ship is fully loaded. near to amidships.
D
Stability
STABILITY
x
x
A
Stability
Displacement minus the deadweight. It is the weight of the ship itself.
D
Stability
C
Stability
It is the metacentric height.
What do the letters ML in the attached diagram mean & 42 what is it used for ? What happens when a weight is loaded on board X 43 the vessel?
44
45
46 What is a righting lever (GZ) curve used to 47 determine? Define the "Lightweight" of a ship.
It is the time in seconds It is the time in seconds between a vessel of the downward or pitching downwards and upward pitch. returning to the upright.
x
Accommodation weight Stores for the crew and The net tonnage. only. passengers.
48 With a forward draught of 8.00m and an aft draught of 9.00m, the amidships draught reads 8.30m. What state The vessel is sagged. 49 is the vessel in?
The vessel is hogged.
The vessel is on even keel.
What is the "Change of Trim''? 50
It is the term used to It is the difference describe leveling and between the original bagging grain in a slack trim and the final trim. hold.
It is another term used to describe the change of draft.
It is the moment required to change the trim by one centimetre.
B
Stability
51
What is "reserve buoyancy" in relation to a vessel?
The watertight volume of a vessel, which is below the waterline.
The total volume of a fully laden ship.
The watertight volume The watertight volume of the engine room and above the waterline. store rooms.
D
Stability
If a ship goes from salt water to fresh water, What happens when a vessel passes between water of there will be a bodily different densities? sinkage plus a small change of trim. 52
The densities of all waters through which a ship passes are essentially the same, so nothing happens.
If passing from water of less density to water of greater density, the draught will be increased.
The forward draught decreases, whilst the aft draught increases, but the mean draught remains the same.
A
Stability
How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre of fresh 53 water?
1
0.895
1.012
1.024
A
Stability
Gross Registered Tonnage.
Grave Reverse Trim.
Ground Rules of Trim.
Grain Regulatory Tests.
A
Stability
54
What do the letters "GRT" mean?
The vessel is in a normal state.
Page 81
Stability
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Answer D
What is "relative or specific gravity?" 55
56
What is a "Moment", in terms of stability?
The time taken to It is the product of force perform an Inclining and distance. Experiment.
It refers to the weight loaded daily.
The consequence of overloading.
What do the letters "MCTC" stand for?
The Moment to Movement to Change Change Trim one Tonnage by one tonne. Centimetre.
The Mid Container Terminal Centre.
The Main Change of Trim.
57
The density of a substance, compared to the density of fresh water.
Answer C
The mathematical factor needed to calculate the vessel's displacement.
ANSWER Stability
It is the density of fresh It is the density of sea water. or salt water. B
Stability
A
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
B
Stability
C
Stability
The metacentric height The metacentric height The metacentric height The metacentric height is represented by the is not shown on this is represented by the is represented by the letters " BM ". diagram. letters "GM ". letter " M ".
Which letters signify the metacentric height on the 58 diagram? A fixed angle of heel The angle of heel caused by a transverse The same as the Angle where the deck edge is imbalance of internal of Loll. immersed. forces within the ship.
What is an "Angle of List?"
The angle of heel where the GM is zero.
What is the "Ship's Displacement in Tonnes''?
The weight of the ship's The weight of all the cargo. enclosed spaces.
The weight of the hull, The actual entire weight the machinery and the of the ship. stores.
It is in a state of stable It is in a state of equilibrium. unstable equilibrium.
It is in a state of semi stable equilibrium.
A
Stability
What does the term "Trim" mean?
The difference between The state of a vessel the mean draught, and on even keel. the forward draught.
The difference between the draught at the The difference between forward perpendicular the mean draught and and the draught at the the after draught. after perpendicular.
C
Stability
What are the "effects" of free surface?
It cause a loss of GM, thereby creating a possibly dangerous situation.
It results in a loss of bouyancy.
63
It causes an increase in GM, thereby making the ship roll very heavily.
C
Stability
What is the principle of Archimedes?
That every floating body displaces it's own weight of the liquid in which it floats.
That a floating body must be completely watertight, in order for it to float.
64
That a floating body That every body that becomes unstable, if floats displaces at least the density of the water twice its own weight in it is floating in exceeds water. the specific gravity of salt water.
C
Stability
59
60
It is in a state of neutral equilibrium.
What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this 61 diagram?
62 It causes the ship to "go by the head", thus increasing the risk due to heavy pitching.
Page 82
Cargo work
QUESTION
Answer A
How much space would 300 tonnes of tea with a stowage factor of 3.0 take up, if it had a broken stowage 90 cubic metres 1 factor of 10%? When operating union purchase cargo lifts...... 2 When crew members are working in confined spaces that have been cleared of hazardous materials, 3 ventilation should be provided......
5
990 cubic metres
angles between the safe working load married runners should relates to the single never exceed 120°. derrick limit. at least every 30 minutes
there is unrestricted When timber deck cargo has been loaded, the stowage access between should be such that..... 4 stowage. Portable lights should be removed from cargo work areas after use. The most important reason is to......
Answer B
prevent stealing.
While loading dangerous goods, a package is dropped. Despite damaging the packaging the product can be clearly seen and is not damaged. What should be Repair the packaging done?
Answer C 330 cubic metres
Answer D 3,330 cubic metres
angles between married preventer guys and runners should exceed slewing guys must 90°. share pad eyes.
continuously/ 30 vol per if oxygen levels fall 1 hour
if the TLV is exceeded
there is a mixture of heavy with light cargo.
there is solid stowage access is maintained to to prevent water from the hatches. flowing on deck.
reduce power consumption.
reduce the safety hazard.
meet SOLAS requirements.
Reject the package
Make an entry in the Log Book
Advise the Master
6 To protect cargo from the effects of sweat volume per unit of weight.
To provide ventilation circulation number of types of cargo per hold.
To provide cargo To prevent chafage on segregation cargo weight allowed for deck weight per unit. loading.
In terms of flashpoint, what defines if a container carrying a flammable liquid must carry this sign?
Required for a flashpoint of 55 degrees C or below.
Required for a flashpoint of 100 degrees C or above.
Required for any flammable liquid regardless of the flashpoint.
For general cargo, thorough hold preparation is required. This is mainly to ensure that.....
bilges are clean and working.
all dunnage is renewed.
the next cargo is carried the previous cargo efficiently and safely. value is realized.
Ballast lines to deep tanks should be.....
flooded to keep pumps ultrasonically tested primed. annually.
8 The cargo Stowage Factor is the......
9
###
B
A
B
D
D
Which one of the following is not a primary purpose for 7 using dunnage?
###
ANSWER
Bulk grain cargo should be carried as directed under the the IMDG Code. ### rules of.....
the SOLAS (IMO) Grain Rules.
Page 83
A
Required for a flashpoint of 80 degrees F and above.
flushed weekly.
blanked prior to loading dry cargo in them.
the ISM Code..
the IAMSAR Manual.
B
Cargo work
QUESTION Guideline requirements for the carriage of bulk grain state that...... ###
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
following a cargo shift, the maximum heel must be no more than 12°.
The ship can sail with a grain must always be maximum of 5° heel. overstowed. Nevernyj!
### A cargo plan would NOT include.... Prior to preparing and cleaning holds in preparation for ### bulk cargo it is important to...... When loading vehicles as cargo, the fuel tanks should ### be......
the position of all cargo.
the identity of cargo discharge ports.
the location of dangerous goods.
isolate fire lines.
increase ventilation.
maximize the GM.
empty.
full.
carrying a minimum of fuel.
### Bale capacity compared to grain capacity is....
less.
more.
the same.
###
During cargo operations, winch operators should....
After a partial discharge and prior to sailing, it is ### important to...... While loading dangerous goods, the documentation is incomplete regarding stowage and classification details. ### The deck officer should...... What is the IMDG Code? ### Which of the following refrigerated cargoes is not compatible for carriage in the same conditions as the ### others listed? Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from ### the...... ### Cargo containers on deck are secured......
###
Deck cargo stowage should......
### Possible shifts of grain cargo may be controlled by......
###
When deck cargo is loaded it is important to......
have a clear view of the take orders from one work area. controller.
have a portable radio.
secure & shore the remaining cargo.
thoroughly ventilate.
redo the cargo plan.
request the missing details before sailing.
accept the cargo but make a log entry.
obtain full documentation before loading.
Answer D
ANSWER
grain must never be overstowed. ? loading and discharge equipment details. consult the IMO Code of Practice. open to the atmosphere. dependent on the stowage factor. be able to communicate with one another. carry out a cargo survey. reject the cargo altogether.
D D C D
A
C
The International Code The International The International for the carriage of Maritime Dangerous Maritime Distress Code livestock Goods Code
The Maritime Industry guidance document for the carriage of Dangerous Goods
Apples
Butter
Asparagus
Pears
waterline to the keel.
main deck to the waterline.
main deck to the keel.
top of the bulwarks to the waterline.
B
if heavy weather is forecast.
with twistlocks, rods up to the second stack. and chains.
only if containing cargo.
C
allow an unobstructed view from the Bridge.
not require temporary walkways.
ensure that access is maintained to the hatches.
"saucers" filled with bagged grain.
overstowing with heavy fitting canvas dividers. cargo.
load the heaviest cargo maintain access to on deck. moorings. Page 84
not be placed on dunnage.
allow for ice accretion.
maintaining a low GM. ensure that access is maintained to the hatches.
C
B
A A
D
Cargo work
QUESTION When planning to load a coal bulk cargo, you ### should...... The principal reason for cargo segregation is to......
Answer A
Answer B
### ### The weight a vessel can carry is called the...... In which document will full references and details ### relating to dangerous goods be found? When rigging a Jumbo Derrick for a heavy lift, which of ### the following is standard practice? Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be ### anticipated to be.....
Answer D
treat it as potentially dangerous.
blank off the hold ventilation system.
rig fire hoses to every hold.
reject the cargo unless there is sufficient moisture content.
maintain stability.
allow ventilation.
keep apart cargo that should not be mixed.
allow space for additional cargo.
### When planning to load an iron ore bulk cargo......
Answer C
there may be a need to no other cargo may be there is a need to cover sea water flooding brace the adjacent in the same hold. it once loaded. must be available. structure. load displacement. gross tonnage. registered tonnage. deadweight. ISM Guidelines
'M' Notices
The IMDG Code
The stowage plan
To put winches in double gear
To ensure an aft trim
To discharge ballast
To slacken preventer backstays
a spontaneous combustion risk.
of a high flash point.
needing underdeck stowage.
of a hazardous nature.
recording cargo samples daily.
checking cargo packaging daily.
checking temperature regularly.
When carrying refrigerated cargo, while on passage the for CO2 build up. ### most important monitoring is ....... a taut lifeline on the ship's centreline.
lifelines to be rigged on lifelines to be made the port and starboard available if required. sides.
### Railway Iron as far as possible should be stowed.....
on deck.
athwart-ships.
bedded on softer cargo. fore & aft.
A tackle being used to lift a load. What is the velocity ratio of this tackle as it is ### being used?(Picture may be attached)
NODATA
NODATA
NODATA
###
The IMO regulations for timber deck cargoes require.....
lifelines to be of manila.
ANSWER
C
C D C
D D
C B
NODATA A
Page 85
Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work
Page 86
Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work Page 87
Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work Cargo work
Cargo work
Page 88
Chem Spec
QUESTION Tank cleaning will require the vessel's officers to 1 consult.... 2.Where is the correct discharge for residues and 2 washings containing NLS situated? 3 3.Cargo samples in general are analysed in order to.... 4.Ballast water may be loaded into tanks previously 4 containing NLS that have been.... 5.When loading toxic cargo, measurement should 5 always be.... 6.Who is responsible on board for cargo operations?
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
The Certificate of Fitness
The Ballast Water Management plan
The Garbage Management Plan
The P&A Manual
Above the waterline
Below the waterline
At the waterline
At the forward end of the vessel
B
control quality
see what it looks like
test for temperature
determine acidity
A
certificated to carry ballast
properly cleaned
stripped
discharged
B
uncontrolled
open
restricted
closed
D
The Master
The Chief Officer
The Master or responsible officer The officer of the watch appointed by the Master
6 7.Who has the responsibility for issuing certificates 7 following survey?
8
8.A cargo tank should not be entered unless....
9.The category of cargo requiring the most efficient 9 stripping arrangement is Category....
###
10.Temperature control of cargoes means....
11.What does the term pH value of a chemical cargo ### refer to? 12.Cargoes with high melting points that may solidify ### require.... 13.Care should be taken when disconnecting cargo ### pipes and lines because.... ### 14.Methanol is a common.... 15.Who should tank cleaning operations be supervised ### by? ### 16.Submerged pumps are commonly driven.... 17.The category of chemical posing the greatest threat of harm to the marine environment is Category....
### ### What is the MARPOL 73/78 Convention about?
Answer D
ANSWER A
C
The Master of the vessel
Port State Control
an Enclosed Space Entry Permit has been issued
The Classification Society the Chief Mate's verbal permission has been obtained
a permit to work has been issued
the Master has advised that the atmosphere is safe
A
B
C
D
allowing the cargo to heat naturally
monitoring the cargo temperature
applying heat in a controlled manner
allowing the cargo to adopt ambient temperatures
The temperature of a product
The acidity or alkalinity The viscosity of a of a product product
The colour of a product
B
cooling
heating
special additives
B
the pipes may be brittle residues may remain
the pipes are delicate
vapour
acid
alkaline
C A
A responsible officer
A deck officer
A pumpman
A shore representative
by steam
mechanically
hydraulically
electrically
A
B
C
D
Pollution prevention
Safety equipment
Fire fighting equipment Hours of Work
The Flag State
the pipes may be electrically charged alcohol
Page 89
agitation
A
A A
C
A C
A A
Chem Spec
QUESTION
Answer A
19.Procedures in the event of an emergency should be all deck officers ### understood by.... 20.What should cargo sample lockers be constructed Stainless steel ### of? 21.The bursting pressure of new cargo hoses is required to be the designed working pressure multiplied 2 ### by....
###
25.Personal escape sets are to be provided for....
28.As well as chemical cargoes, what may chemical ### tankers also be used to transport?
###
Neoprene
B
4
5
6
50°C
40°C
30°C
loaded with caution
not loaded
loaded
C
water
oil
air
other liquids
D
all crewmembers
all cabins
all cabin berths and all persons expected on additional sets for board working spaces
prewash
hot wash
A-wash
The ship owner
The Port Authority
The Clean Up contractor
Nuclear waste
Other liquid products
Bulk solids
the bottom of the tank
the reference point
the sounding pipe
###
29.Ullage is the distance from the underside of the deck the liquid surface to.... The physical data of a liquid chemical can be found on....
31.Before cargo operations begin, the responsible person on board and the terminal representative will ### complete a.... ### 32.Ingestion means poisoning by.... 33.The flammable range of different chemicals may ### be....
ANSWER
Fully resistant material Wood
Waste products
all ratings
Answer D
D
26.Category A substances will often require cleaning before sailing from the discharge port. This procedure is cold wash ### called a.... 27.In the event of cargo spillage, which of the following The agent ### would be informed first?
all ratings
Answer C
all crewmembers
22.Open cargo venting should only be used for cargoes that do not present a hazard when inhaled and have a 60°C ### flash point of above.... 23.If information concerning a cargo is not available it loaded till information ### should be.... becomes available ### 24.The term solubility refers to the ability to mix with....
Answer B
A
D
C C C
A
the information supplied by the Manufacturer
material safety data Sheets
ship details plan
ship/shore safety check ship/shore operation list plan
meeting agreement
swallowing
absorption
skin contact
breathing
always the same
always different
the same
often different
The Cargo List
The Certificate of Fitness
The IOPP Certificate
34.The list of cargoes capable of being carried on board The Chemical List ### a particular chemical tanker is called....
C
Page 90
ICS Cargo Data Sheets all of these
D
B A D C
Chem Spec
QUESTION ###
### ### ### ### ###
### ###
### ### ### ### ### ### ###
### ### ###
35.If a cargo is of low flash point it is said to be.... 36.What is the minimum distance from the forward division of the accommodation for accesses to the accommodation? 37.Permanent or Portable ventilation systems may be fitted to.... 38.In addition to fireman's outfits, how many BA sets should be carried in a chemical tanker? 39.Inhibitors are used to stop the product from.... 40.Cargo hoses should be tested.... 41.Nitrogen is used instead of inert gas in order to.... 42.Before cargo operations start the Master should establish proper liaison between the ship and.... 43.An important publication required to be approved by the Flag State and carried on board every chemical tanker is called?.... 44.On chemical tankers, the term REACTIVITY refers to complications concerning.... 45.Which cargo operations are to be recorded in the Cargo Record Book? 46.Prior to unloading, all pumps, valves and associated instrumentation should be.... 47.Bulk Chemical Codes apply to.... 48.What are generally the main cargo pumps fitted on board chemical tankers? 49.Inhibited or polymerizable cargoes should not be carried adjacent to.... 50.How far from land must the vessel be before residues of NLS Category B C & D may be discharged into the sea? 51.The frequency of pressure testing ashore of BA sets should as a minimum be every.... 52.What is the material used most commonly for cargo piping, valves and pumps?
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
ANSWER
toxic
non-flammable
flammable
poisonous
1 metre
2 metres
3 metres
4 metres
The Engine Room
Accomodation
cargo tanks
Pump rooms
C
1
2
3
4
vaporising every year provide better protection against explosion
melting every 3 years
self reacting every 2 years
boiling every 5 years
C C A
prevent contamination of the cargo
kill micro-organisms
aid ease of use
the port authority
the flag state administration
the terminal
the harbour control
The Operational Manual
The Procedures and Arrangements Manual
The Arrangements Manual
The Procedures Manual
temperature control
health of personnel
A
All petroleum cargo operations
All bunker operations
B D C
the cargo All cargo operations
pollution of the environment All cargo operations involving NLS
C
C
B C
B
sighted
cleaned
overhauled
function tested
all ships
all tankers
all chemical tankers
all bulk carriers
Screw Pumps
Piston pumps
Gear pumps
Centrifugal pumps
D
heated cargoes
ambient cargoes
cooled cargoes
any cargoes
A
12 miles
50 miles
25 miles
30 miles
5 Years
6 Years
10 Years
15 Years
A
Steel
Stainless steel
Cast Iron
Plastic
B
Page 91
A
Chem Spec
QUESTION 53.The term PADDING means protecting cargo ### with a blanket of inert gas, such as.... 54.What is the term for filling tanks and lines with nitrogen, or similar liquid or gas, to prevent ### cargo contact with the atmosphere? 55.Which of the following would NOT normally be ### used for heating chemical cargoes? 56.In the event of cargo spillage cargo operations ### should be.... 57.To help establish safe levels of toxicity, which ### equipment is often used?
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
ANSWER
nitrogen
oxygen
argon
carbon dioxide
Padding
Blanketing
Inerting
Covering
Steam
Water
Thermal Oils
Electricity
D
continued
slowed down
suspended
speeded up
C
Oxygen analysers
Draeger tubes
Explosimeters
Avometers
Page 92
A
A
B
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec
Page 93
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec
Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Page 94
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Page 95
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec Chem Spec
Page 96
Marpol
QUESTION The entries in the Oil Record Book must be............ 1
Answer A
Bunkering procedures for all ships require that ..................... communication should be maintained continuous 2 with the shore/barge staff in charge of the transfer.
3
4
5
6
Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck the time needs to be officer on watch is informed prior to the starting of recorded exactly. bunkering. This is because ............. . Which of the following is not a "Special Area" according to MARPOL Regulation 10?
Answer B
in the language of the in the language of the Captain and in English crew and in English or or French. French.
Mediterranean Sea area including the Black Sea
frequent
Answer C
Answer D
in any language in the official language comprehensible by the of the Flag State and in Port State Control English or French. officers. occasional
intermittent
the bunkering flag has he is responsible for all appropriate precautions to be hoisted and the communication with the have to be taken by the oil spill recovery team shore or barge. deck department. put on stand-by. Baltic Sea area
Red Sea area
allowed at the fuel allowed at the fuel system manifold in the system manifold on the totally prohibited. engine room. main deck.
Ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific criteria are being met. Which of those listed below is correct?
The ship has cin operation as require reg. 16(5) of Anex I
The ship has in operation equipment as The ship is sailing require reg. 16(5) of within a special area Annex I to MARPOL
The ship is proceeding an route
the Master
the Chief Engineer
the 2nd Engineer
A responsible person
Ballast Water Pumps
Engine Room Bilge Pump
Cargo Hold Bilge Pump Sludge Pump
According to the MEPC, Circular No. 235, issued by the IMO, entitled "Guidelines for systems for Required for ships of Left to be fitted at Strongly recommended handling oily wastes in machinery spaces of ships", a 10000 GRT and above Owener's discretion 9 return line to the bilge or holding tank is.............. The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection six months. at all times and kept for a minimum of...........
allowed at the ballast system manifold in the engine room.
two years.
five years.
Annex V
Annex I
Annex III
allowed anywhere outside the designated strictly prohibited. Special Areas.
allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast.
allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor.
biodegradable sacks.
plastic bags.
cardboard boxes.
sealed metal containers.
of 400 tonnes and above.
of 150 tonnes and above.
of 1500 tonnes and above.
carrying 12 or more passengers.
Annex I
Annex II
Annex IV
Annex V
a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system.
a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system.
a ballast system completely separated none of the other from the cargo and fuel options. oil systems.
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, where the bunker delivery note shall be 1 kept?
Must be kept on board
no data
no data
no data
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,the bunker delivery note shall be retained 2 for the period of....
3 Year
no data
no data
no data
3 For the purposes of Annex II, special areas shall be…
No data
No data
No data
No data
According to regulation on measures for existing oil tankers to become effective on 5 April 2005, a category 2 or 3 oil tanker of 15 years and over after the date of its delivery shall....
comply with the Condition Assessment Scheme adopted by the Marine No data Environment Protection Committee by resolution MEPC.94 (46)
No data
No data
For the purpose of Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, the term "SOx Emission Control Area" means…..
area where the adoption of special mandatory measures for SOx emissions from ships is required to prevent, reduce and No data control air pollution from SOx and its attendant adverse impacts on land and sea areas.
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
Four Categories
No data
No data
No data
According to regulation prohibiting carrying certain types of oil as cargo in single hull oil tankers to become Heavy Grade Oil effective on 5 April 2005, what type of oil as cargo does 8 the prohibition cover?
No data
No data
No data
En route at a speed of at least 7 No data knots,1ppm.,12NM,dep th 25m.
No data
No data
Na novye suda;400 or more and have more 12persons;sewage dis. No data 3NM esli disinfected and 12 esli nedisinfected
No data
Which MARPOL Annex deals with the Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid 11 Substances in Bulk? The disposal of plastics at sea is.......... 12 In the USA any food waste being put ashore must be 13 delivered in.......... MARPOL Annex V came into effect from the 1st July 1997, for new ships, and from 1st July 1998 for all other 14 vessels. It affects ships........ Which Marpol Annex deals with the Regulations for the 15 Prevention of Pollution by Oil? The term "segregated ballast" means....... 16
4
5
Annex II
Where a cargo subject to the provisions of Annex I is 6 carried in a cargo space of chemical tanker, For the purposes of the Annex II noxious liquid 7 substances shall be divided into
According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain 9 conditions are satisfied. Which of them?
According to revised Annex IV to become effective on 1 August 2005, the discharge of sewage into the sea is prohibited, except when some conditions are fulfilled. Which one of these conditions is not 10 correct?
11
Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited, except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that ....
Where a cargo subject to the provisions of Annex I is 12 carried in a cargo space of chemical tanker
No data
No data
No data
No data
7 knots, 12NM, 1part in No data 10 part of water
No data
No data
0,1 % by weight or 0.01% on ashoreutil tank is empty, posle etogogo smyvki kak v categorii D
No data
No data
No data
Correct!!!!!: tank prewashed and discharged to a No data receptionfacility; 7kn, 1ppm, 12nm, Depth 25
No data
No data
7kn., 10ppm.,below No data waterline, 12NM., 25m.
No data
No data
Correct!!!!!:130kw and more;2000Y-17g/kw130 rpm, but 9,8 g/kw -2000 rpm. MCR engine more 10%
No data
No data
No data
no data
No data
No data
No data
According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture "?
A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
A mixture with oil A mixture with oil A mixture with any oil content above 50 ppm content above 100 ppm content
Which is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast?
Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used
The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast
The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump
The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank, pumped via the segregated ballast pump
Which description given is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol?
Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines.
What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol?
A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils
Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fitted centre tank
A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures
What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol?
An area with particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required
An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at any time
A sea area where, for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions, and in view of traffic, special prevention is required
A sea area where, in view of its particular dense traffic, no overboard discharge of any oily mixture is allowed
What does the "instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content " mean, according to Marpol?
The total quantity of oil The total rate of oil discharged at any discharged per hour moment divided by 3600
The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant, divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant
The total quantity of oil discharged, divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship
According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean?
A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995
A ship for which the keel was laid or was in A ship which was any similar stage of delivered after 31 construction after 30 December 1979 June 1976
Does the definition of an "oil tanker " apply to a gas carrier?
Yes, it does
No, it does not
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,there are special requirements to fuel oil sample. 13 The sample is to be.... According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category D substances is prohibited, unless certain 14 conditions are satisfied. Which of them? For the purposes of the Annex II, noxious liquid substances of category A, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations, would 15 present ..... According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea within special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which one is not 16 correct? According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category C substances is prohibited, unless certain 17 conditions are satisfied. Which of them?
According to Annex VI to become emission limits of Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), 18 explanations.Which is not correct? For the purpose of Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, the term "ships constructed" 19 means ships.....
20
meet Reg14 and 18 Req.; 0,2 sulphure, kept under the ship’s control until the subject fuel has been substantially No data consumed, but in any case for at least 12 months from the date of delivery.
23
24
25
26
27
28 Provisions of Annex III shall apply to....
Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals
31
Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
Yes.
Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals.
Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.
No data
No data
No data
Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products
29
According to Marpol, what does the term "oil " mean?
Pollution Prevention
D
Pollution Prevention
C
Pollution Prevention
B
Pollution Prevention
D
Pollution Prevention
D
Pollution Prevention
B
Pollution Prevention
C
Pollution Prevention
A
Pollution Prevention
B
Pollution Prevention
A
Pollution Prevention
A
Pollution Prevention
A
Pollution Prevention
C
Pollution Prevention
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
C
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
No data
Any grade of crude oil
Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
D
Marpol
B
Marpol
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
C
Marpol
C
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
A
Marpol
D
Marpol
A
Marpol
D
Marpol
All of the other options apply
all ships carrying harmful substances in packaged form
Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an No. oil tanker? Every ship to which Annex II applies shall be provided 30 with
C
Marpol
21
22
No data
Pollution Prevention
No data
the tanker is more than the tanker is more than the tanker is more than the tanker is more than 50 nautical miles from 10 nautical miles from 25 nautical miles from 100 nautical miles from the nearest land./En the nearest land. the nearest land. the nearest land. route No data
Pollution Prevention
A
Required for all ships
one year.
10
C
Caribbean Sea area
Cross connections between the fuel and ballast systems are.................. .
Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that ............................. should personally 7 supervise all bunkering operations. Which of the following pumps is not allowed to have a 8 direct overboard connection to the sea?
ANSWER Chem Spec
Page 97
Marpol
QUESTION
What is the meaning of the term " Combination Carrier "? 32
33
Answer A A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example reefercontainer, log-bulk etc.
For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed ................ of the total quantity 1/10000 of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
A ship designed to A ship designed to carry A cargo ship that has carry either oil products either oil or solid product oil tanks, or crude oil in bulk or in cargoes in bulk example palm oil tanks parcels
1/15000
1/25000
30 litres per nautical mile
75 litres per nautical mile
100 litres per nautical mile
120 litres per nautical mile
For existing tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than ..................... of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the 35 residue formed part.
1/15000
1/25000
1/50000
1/100000
Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these 36 conditions for a tanker is that....
the tanker is loaded.
the tanker is in ballast condition.
the tanker is tank cleaning.
the tanker is en route.
Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited, except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that ....
the tanker is more than the tanker is more than the tanker is more than the tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from 25 nautical miles from 50 nautical miles from 100 nautical miles from the nearest land. the nearest land. the nearest land. the nearest land.
According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel"?
A cargo of refined oil A cargo of heavy fuel for combustible oil , intermediate fuel or purpose in thermal diesel oil machinery or boilers
38
Regulation on measures for existing oil tankers to No data become effective on 5 April 2005. For the 39 purpose of this regulation "heavy diesel oil" means........ According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, requirements of regulation on emission limits of Nitrogen Oxides (NOX) emission does not 40 apply to....
engines less 130kW, vessels less 400 GT
No data
According to revised AnnexIV to become effective on 01.08.05, the discharge of sewage which is not comminuted or disinfected is prohibited, except when some conditions are fulfilled.Which of these 42 conditions isn't correct?
New installation HCFCs (hydrochlorofluorocorb No data ons) are permited until JAN 1st. 2020 has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant,,is discharging sewage which is not comminuted or No data disinfected at a distance of more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land.
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,who can certify true copies of the bunker 43 delivery note?
Master or person in charge of ship
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, new installations, which contain ozone depleting substances shall be prohibited on all ships. 41 What is the exception?
Any oil used on board A cargo of refined oil in connection with the with flashpoint above 60 propulsion and auxiliary degree C machinery. No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
According to Annex III, each ship carrying harmful 44 substances shall have….
a special list or manifest setting forth the harmful substances on board and the location thereof. A detailed stowage plan which No data sets out the location of the harmful substances on board may be used in place of such special list or manifest.
According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain 45 conditions are satisfied. Which of them?
7 knots, 12 NM, Depth 25m.,1ppm.
No data
No data
No data
According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing 46 category A substances shall be ....
prohibited
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,the bunker delivery note shall be 49 accompanied by..... For the purposes of Annex II, term "noxious liquid 50 substance" means…
possible in incineratorsprovided No data with the Type Approval Certificate;2000year representative sample of the fuel oil delivered, taking No data into account Guidelines for the Sampling Any noxious liquid No data carried in bulk
According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain 51 conditions are satisfied. Which of them?
7 knots, 12 NM, Depth 25m.,1ppm.
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, the survey of engines for compliance with regulation on emission limits of Nitrogen Oxides 52 (NOx) shall be conducted…
Initial; Periodical(5 years); intermediate; Annual
According to Annex III, each ship carrying harmful 53 substances shall have….
a special list or manifest setting forth the harmful substances on board and the location thereof. A detailed stowage plan which No data sets out the location of the harmful substances on board may be used in place of such special list or manifest.
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,shipboard incineration of polyvinyl 48 chlorides (PVCs) shall be prohibited, except
Marpol
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
D
Marpol
C
Marpol
D
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
No data
No data
47.According to Annex II, oil-like substances may be carried on an oil tanker and discharged in accordance with the provisions of Annex I, provided that certain conditions are fulfilled. Which one is 47 not correct? no
C
D
1/30000
The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a 34 tanker shall not exceed.....
37
ANSWER Chem Spec
No data
No data
According to Annex II, …..shall be issued after survey to any ship carrying noxious liquid substances in bulk and which is engaged in 54 international voyages. IOPP certificate
No data
No data
No data
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, "SOx Emission Control Area" shall 55 include....
No data
No data
No data
No data
For the purpose of Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, the term "ozone depleting 56 substances" means …..
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, operation of each diesel engine, which is covered by requirements on restriction of Nitrogen 64 Oxides (NOX) emission, is prohibited, except WHEN
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,all tankers which are subject to vapour 65 emission control (VOC), shall.....
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,shipboard incineration shall be allowed 67 only in shipboard incinerator, except incineration of…
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service, in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations, shall 68 include.....
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
According to revised Annex IV to become effective on 1 August 2005, every ship to which this Annex No data applies shall be equipped with a sewage system. Which 69 one is no correct?
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
According to Annex II, every ship of 150GT and above certified to carry noxious liquid substances in 70 bulk shall carry on board..........
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005, while ships are within "SOx Emission Control Area" (SECA), certain conditions shall be 71 fulfilled. Which one is not correct?
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
No data A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
A
Marpol
According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea within special area of any mixture containing 57 category A substances Regulation on measures for existing oil tankers to 58 become effective on 5 April 2005 shall apply to For the purpose of Annex VI to become effective on 19 59 May 2005, the term "emission" means....... According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,......shall be issued, after survey to any ship of 400GT or above engaged in voyages to ports 60 under the jurisdiction of other Parties. For the purpose of Annex III "harmful substances" are 61 those substances which are identified as ..... According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain 62 conditions are satisfied. Which of them? According to Reg. on measures for existing oil tankers from 05.04.2005, Administration may allow continued operation of category 2&3 oil tanker beyond the date specified therein, but such operation 63 shall not go beyond.....
66.According to revised Annex IV to become effective on 1 August 2005, the discharge of sewage into 66 the sea is prohibited, except when the ship is....
According to Annex VI to become effective on 19 May 2005,shipboard incineration of the certain substances shall be prohibited. This prohibition does 72 not cover… According to Annex III, packages containing harmful 73 substances shall be durably marked… According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category B substances is prohibited, unless certain 74 conditions are satisfied. Which of them? According to Annex III, packages containing harmful 75 substances shall be durably marked .... According to Annex II, the discharge into the sea outside special area of any mixture containing category C substances is prohibited, unless certain 76 conditions are satisfied. Which of them?
Which of these design requirements must be met by oil administration; not ex. filtering equipment fitted on ships of 10,000 grt and 15ppm; alarm if 77 above? 16ppm; Auto stop
Marpol defines Crude Oil as....
78
a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not, irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.
Which of the following products is not listed under "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex Flashed feed stock 79 I? Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" Clarified 80 in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? 81 Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution?
Blending Stocks
I,
II,
III,
IV
II,
III,
V,
VII
I,
III,
V,
VI
a liquid hydrocarbon a liquid hydrocarbon to from which certain which certain distillate distillate fractions were fractions were added. removed.
a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which neither distillate fractions were removed nor added.
Reformates
Polymer fuel
Alkylates fuel
Road Oil
Automotive
Spindloe oil
C
Marpol
Roofers Flux
Solvent
Straight run residue
C
Marpol Page 98
Marpol
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Of the four categories of discharge associated with the operation of offshore platforms, for which type or types 82 is Marpol 73/78 applicable?
Type I and Type IV
Type I only
83 Who can certify true copies of Oil Record Books?
Port Authorities
A Notary Public
84 Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board?
In the Master's cabin
On the bridge
The Record of Construction and Equipment has a The location and chapter about "Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges)". What capacity of the sludge information is recorded in this chapter? tanks 85
Answer C Type IV only
Any ship of 400 GT to 10 000GT which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with.............oil filtering equipment for engine bilge 88 discharge.
I, V,
II, VI,
III, IV, VII / Все
50ppm
According to Annex I, any of 10 000 GT and above shall be provided with equipment for oily-water separation and with arrangements for it. Which 89 equipment is it?
IV,
VI,
I,
No data I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX (9 requirements presented)!!!!
II, IV, V, VII, VIII
At least two slop tanks are required for....
new and existing oil new oil tankers of tankers above 150,000 70,000 tons dwt and tons dwt. above.
Any tank fitted with In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as overboard discharge slop tanks? facilities.
II,
III,
V,
Which of these are not the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System? Otvet nevernyj!!!! 91
92
II, III, VII
The circumstances of The amount and the reasons for the discharged and the discharge reasons for it
15ppm
VI,
Types I, III and IV
The total tank capacity The number and and the means for The capacity of the capacity of sludge tanks disposal of oil residue sludge tanks and the and means of in addition to the pumping arrangements connection to open provision of sludge deck sludge connection tanks
I (100ppm oil filtering II equipment)
No oil discharge monitoring equipment (ODME) is to be do not include SBT, fitted on tankers if trading in specific areas or within 50 two slop tanks, miles from nearest land, provided that certain conditions 100ppm oil 90 are fulfilled.These conditions do not include: separator
IV,
Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay and.......
the entries match operations completed, after which it is signed by the Master.
30ppm
100ppm
III
IV
No data
No data
I,
II, VII
III,
IV,
VI, I,
99
There is potential for pollution when starting to take ballast on non-SBT tankers, because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this, which notice should be placed on the ballast pump?
VI,
III,
Which of these items should be included in an on board I, ### pollution prevention training program?
II,
V
V,
VI,
A
Marpol
when the operations are completed, will be signed by the Officer in charge during the time of the operation.
the Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be countersigned by the Master.
will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master.
D
Marpol
may be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.
may be thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.
B
Marpol
II, VII,
II, VI,
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
II,
VII
III,
V,
VI, I,
IV, VIII
VI
VI,
III,
IV,
V,
II,
III, VIII
VII
IV,
I,
I,
II,
II,
III,
III
IV,
II,
VI I,
V
IV,
VI,
IV,
VII I.
III,
Fuel oil No 1 D
Fuel oil No 2
Fuel oil No 4
30 mm
25 mm
10mm
###
IV,
VI,
III, VIII
V
VI,
I, VII
V,
III,
VI
VI,
you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food you cannot throw overboard unless anything overboard. ground to less than 25 mm.
you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining you cannot throw and packing materials plastics overboard. that float overboard.
Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore.
Paper, metal and glass Comminuted (ground ground up to less than up) food waste beyond 25 mm beyond 25 12 miles offshore. miles offshore.
I, X,
II, III, VI, VIII, XIII
Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore. IV, I, X,
III, IV, VII, IX, XIII
V, I,
II, VII, XIII
III, VIII,
V, I, X, V, XII,
II, IV, VIII, X, XIII (nojapan)
They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention
National regulations in Only Japan and the Only Australia has the ports visited may United States have additional regulations be more stringent and additional regulations to to be complied with. must be complied with. be complied with.
Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with......
the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers
the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues
the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages
the handling and discharge of garbage
I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). Harmful packaged They deal with pollution caused by........ substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of .......... or 100 T more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers apply.
200 cubic metres
400 T
500 cubic metres
cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore.
cannot be thrown overboard at any time.
###
###
II, VII
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics......
cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore.
cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore.
What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol?
Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship.
Spilling, leaking or Dumping or disposal escaping from the ship. from the ship.
Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system
15 ppm oily bilge water Interface oily water separator with alarm detector system
Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
Crude oil / product carrier
116.Any discharge of oily mixtures from machinery spaces bilges of oil tanker of 10 000 GT and above is prohibited, except when amongst other ### requirements.......is fitted.
For an existing tanker of 40,000 tons dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should the Crude oil tanker ### designation be on the IOPP certificate? How would an existing oil tanker of less than 40,000 As a crude oil tanker ### tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate? A new oil tanker of 70,000 dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, may be designed as crude oil tanker ### a .............................on the IOPP certificate.
As a crude oil / product As a crude oil / carrier petrochemical tanker
Any release how ever caused.
Product carrier As a product carrier
product oil carrier
crude oil / petrochemical tanker
crude oil / product carrier
crude oil tanker
petrochemical tanker
crude oil / product carrier
petrochemical tanker
product carrier
crude oil / product carrier
A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons deadweight and above, which satisfies the requirements for Segregated Ballast crude oil tanker. Tanks with protective location as well as COW, may be ### designated as a.......
crude oil / product carrier.
product carrier.
petrochemical / product carrier.
### Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the fore peak tank? Only tugs
Only fishing vessels
Only tugs and fishing vessels
No, not on any vessel
A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt, NOT fitted with SBT and PL, should be designated as a ........................... on the ### IOPP certificate.
###
product carrier
A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above, satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW, crude oil tanker should be designated as a ....... on the IOPP certificate.
What is the meaning of "an incident" according to Marpol? ###
The actual or probable The actual or probable discharge into the sea The probable discharge discharge into the sea of a harmful substance into the sea of oil or of of oil or of an oily or effluents containing an oily mixture. mixture. such substances.
Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to Double hulls ### discharge oily mixtures into the sea?
A slop tank arrangement
Segregated ballast tanks
Hydrocarbons in any form
Any substance creating Petroleum products and harm to health and life petrochemicals or able to damage amenities.
What is the meaning of a "harmful substance" under Marpol?
Oils and fuels
Who may carry out Marpol Inspections?
Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is Coast Guard officers. located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
Who may carry out MARPOL Surveys?
Port-State Control Inspectors
Surveyors nominated by Administrations or Coast Guard Inspectors organisations recognised by Administrations
If mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it affect unscheduled inspections carried out according to Marpol?
The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
Two unscheduled Only one unscheduled Unscheduled inspections are inspection per year is inspections are required required during a 5required once every two years year period
###
###
###
The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances.
15 ppm oil filtering equipment
###
Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.
A
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
A
Marpol
VI
How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations? ###
###
VI,
START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED
Fuel oil No 1
###
V,
FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST
Which of the following products is not listed under ### "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?
Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V?
V,
ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP
10
###
Marpol
Marpol
No data
According to Annex V, the disposal of garbage into the sea within the special area is prohibited. Which one is ### the exception?
Marpol
A
D
3
###
A
5
No data
Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that, within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters.....
Marpol
1
12
VI,
D
2.5
No data
II,
Marpol
Marpol
25
I, VIII
A
Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks.
No data
For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, ### which of these items apply?
Marpol
III, V, VII, VIII
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown ### overboard outside .......... miles offshore.
###
C IV,
Any tank separated from the ship's side by a distance of at least 3 metres.
VII II,
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and 5mm food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than ......... in size.
Marpol
Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation filter.
I, III, V, VI, VII (II,IV, VIII not corect)
START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on I, board your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are ### these questions?
According to Annex V, disposal of garbage into the sea outside special area is prohibited, unless certain conditions are fulfilled. These conditions do not ### include the disposal of ..........
III,
D
Marpol
I, V,
II, VII
Marpol
B
97.Topping off during oil cargo loading or bunkering is the most critical operation and some of these precautions or actions should not be taken. Which one 97 is not correct?
I,
II
Marpol
B
may be thrown may not be thrown overboard outside 25 overboard at any time. miles offshore.
Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common causes of oil pollution. Which five of these items are the main preventive measures 98 against tank overflow?
III, VII
Marpol
D
new oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above.
Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that 96 float......
III,
II, VI,
B D
new oil tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above.
95
II, VIII
I,
VII
93 Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty 3 ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less 94 than ......% of the tank capacity.
ANSWER Chem Spec
The Officers of the Flag The Master State At a place where it is In the ship's office readily available
In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for The amount and the The report of the example allowed discharge in order to save life), a specifications of the oil accident indicating statement shall be made in the oil record book discharged precautions 86 explaining what? The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tankers contains information in Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel 87 tanks. Which of these items are included?
Answer D
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
C
Marpol
B
Marpol
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
B
Marpol
B
Marpol
C
Marpol
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
C
Marpol
C
Marpol
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
A
Marpol
C
Marpol
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
B
Marpol
C
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
C
Marpol
A
Marpol
All of the other options.
Approved ship's officers
At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the The Midterm survey equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME ### are in order. What is this survey called?
The Intermediate survey
The Annual survey
The Special survey
Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These ### intervals are not to exceed.....
two years.
two and a half years.
three years.
five years.
These items are standard inspection items for Marpol, as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. ### Which item does not belong?
Item II - does not belong
Item V - does not belong
Item VI - does not belong
Item VII - does not belong
B
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
Page 99
Marpol
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.
Penalties under the law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be.....
imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such that, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements? Which one is not correct?
NOT CORRECT! Condition allow for clean ballast well;The draught at the aft perpendiculars shall I, not be less than…;Light ship draught covers low sea chest.
###
### Every oil tanker of ....... grt and above and every other ship of ...... grt and above shall be subject to Marpol ### (IOPP) surveys. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers?
500, 1000
III,
IV,
VI
400, 700
To reduce the bending To reduce the shear moments on tankers. forces on tankers.
Answer C
Answer D
ANSWER Chem Spec
imposed by all countries, the severity in all cases most depending on where the severe. violation occurs.
I,
II,
IV,
V
I,
IV,
V,
Marpol
VII
250, 500
150, 400
To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers.
To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event of grounding or collision.
###
B
A
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
B
Marpol
The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific The bill of lading trades, provided reception facilities are existing in ports. ### What document is to be endorsed?
The ship's IOPP certificate
The charter party
The oil record book
One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped an oil content meter. ### with.......
segregated ballast tanks and PL.
a crude oil washing system.
two separate slop tanks.
If an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL ### and COW?
The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
The requirements for The requirements for SBT, Pl and CBT do not SBT, PL, CBT and apply COW do not apply
D
Marpol
The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
D
Marpol
B
Marpol
A
Marpol
B
Marpol
The requirement for SBT does not apply
If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its The requirements for machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the SBT do not apply ### requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW? Provided an oil Under which conditions are fore peak tanks, after peak separating system of tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total 15 ppm is to be fitted capacity determination of CBT's for tankers? on board ###
When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid? ###
If significant alterations If significant alterations have taken place to have taken place in the fittings, equipment or ship's construction arrangements without without sanction. sanction.
New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of I, ### these circumstances arise?
###
II
When alterations to the ship's construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out Improvement in ship's without sanction, the IOPP certificate ceases to be construction valid. What is the exception?
The provisions of MARPOL permit the discharge into the sea of substances containing oil, approved by the Administration for purpose of combating specific pollution incidents into the sea. ### Under which of these conditions?
Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment Provided the protective with automatic stop location of the tanks is when 15 ppm level is ensured exceeded is to be fitted
No data
II,
V
Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system
If significant alterations have taken place to Any of the other materials without options. sanction.
III,
V
IV,
V
Modification of The direct replacement arrangements as long of equipment and as purpose and lay-out fittings does not deviate from Marpol requirements
Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the Administration
No data
No data
No data
Crew negligence
Damage to ship and equipment due to operational error
Intent to cause Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at damage, or recklessly sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the Collision or groundings and with knowledge result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is that damage could the exception? probably result ### The provisions of MARPOL prohibit any discharge of oily mixture into the sea. It does not apply to the discharge resulting from damage to a ship, provided ### that ……. No data
The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
Marpol
No data
No data
No data
A
Marpol
Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharging ### these into the sea?
Dillutants are allowed
Oil dispersants are allowed
Not allowed at all
Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm
C
Marpol
What is the maximum oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in ### a special area?
10ppm
15 ppm
50 ppm
100 ppm
B
Marpol
II, V, VII
II, III,
B
Marpol
A
Marpol
C
Marpol
D
Marpol
A ship other than a tanker of 400grt and above, but less than 10,000grt, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are I, IV, satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied? ### Other Q: which one is not correct?
Any discharge into the sea of oily mixtures from any oil tanker is prohibited, unless certain conditions are ### satisfied. Which one is not correct? Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception? ###
VI
Correct: Not in special Area; Vessel 50NM from the land; En route;30LTR/mile; Slop tank; ODME No Data fitted For exceptionally long voyages, when the ship's bunkers are depleted and weather conditions are deteriorating.
For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean Segregated ballast ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be included? tanks only ###
VI
II, IV,
VIII
No Data
No Data
In the event of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships.
Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats.
If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptured, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this.
Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks
Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
Page 100
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
1.GMDSS: What will be the resulting capacity and voltage of two 12 V, 100 Ah parallel coupled 12 Volts, 200 A/H batteries? 1
24 Volts, 200 A/H
6 Volts, 100 H/A
24 Volts, 100 A/H
GMDSS: What is the approximate maximum 2 range for VHF telephony?
30 to 50 nautical miles
5 to 15 nautical miles
50 to 75 nautical miles
GMDSS: How many NAVAREAs are there in the world? 66
10
12
16
GMDSS: You have received a distress alert on MF DSC. On what frequency would you acknowledge 2187.5 kHz the call if no coast station has acknowledged?
2182 kHz
Channel 70 VHF
Channel 16 VHF
Seelonce Distress
Seelonce Fini
Seelonce Mayday
Prudence
2187.5 kHz
2177.0 kHz
2189.5 kHz
2182.0 kHz
5 digit number
Vessel's call sign
MID number
MMSI number
In GMDSS, there are sea areas A1, A2, A3 and A4. Which area is described as: sea area that is A2 covered by coast stations equipped with VHF DSC?
A4
A1
A3
GMDSS: You are on board the M/V Star/D5DF and have received a distress message from M/V Spiro/C6GFD. What is correct acknowledgement of this distress message?
Mayday Mayday Mayday Spiro C6GFD Mayday Spiro Spiro this is Star D5DF, Spiro C6GFD this is Received Mayday Star Star Star, Received Mayday
Mayday Relay Spiro Mayday Relay Spiro this is Star Star, Received Mayday
10 hours
50 hours
100 to 150 nautical miles
3
4
GMDSS: During distress communication, there are several signals that may be used. What signal would be used by the coast station in charge of the distress traffic when asking for 5 GMDSS: What transmitting frequency should be radio silence? used on MF DSC if you want to call a foreign 6 coast station and you do not know the national channel? GMDSS: What identification is used in a DSC? 7
8
9
Mayday Spiro Spiro Spiro C6GFD this is Star Star Star D5DF, Received Mayday
GMDSS: Four 12 Volt lead-acid batteries are connected in series. Each battery has a capacity 20 hours of 50 Ah. How long would these batteries run a 10 radio station that drains 10 A?
Page 101
5 hours
GMDSS QUESTION GMDSS: Your vessel is in distress and you want to utilise the Inmarsat A terminal for alerting. Which priority would you use to be able to be 11 automatically connected to the RCC?
12
Answer 1
Answer 2
Answer 4
Priority 1
Priority 3
Priority 2
Any of the other options
GMDSS: The wavelength of a radio signal is found by the formula: wavelength equals 300,000 divided by the frequency in kHz. What wavelength is the frequency 500 kHz?
6,000 meters
600,000 meters
600 meters
60,000 meters
GMDSS: What is a DUPLEX radio connection?
The transmitting frequency is the same as the receiving frequency
The transmitting frequency is 1.5 kHz below the receiving frequency
The transmitting frequency is 1.5 kHz above the receiving frequency
The transmitting frequency is different from the receiving frequency
The Troposphere
The Ionosphere
The Ozone layer
13
GMDSS: What do we call the special atmospheric layer that reflects high frequency (HF) radio The Stratosphere waves? 14
15
Answer 3
GMDSS: What natural phenomena is useful for propagation of high frequency (HF) radio waves?
As few sun spots as possible
As many sun spots as possible
New moon
Full moon
GMDSS: What is the speed of radio waves in air?
20,000 km per second
25,000 km per second
50,000 km per second
300,000 km per second
GMDSS: What is the unit of electrical potential?
The Ampere
The Volt
The Watt
The Ohm
GMDSS: What is the unit of electrical current?
The Watt
The Ohm
The Ampere
The Volt
4 hours
3 hours
1 hour
16
17
18 GMDSS: How long should the radio batteries last in the GMDSS station in case of a black-out? (If the vessel is 2 hours 19 equipped with an emergency generator)
Page 102
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
GMDSS: Ohm's Law describes the connection between voltage (E), current (I) and resistance (R) in an electrical I=RxE circuit (E= I x R). How could you find the current if both 20 voltage and resistance are known? GMDSS: What radio transceivers may normally be 21 used when the vessel is in port? GMDSS: What signal can trigger a SART?
Answer 2 I = R / E ( / = divided by )
Answer 3 I=ExR
I=E/R
MF and HF transceivers MF transceiver only
Inmarsat systems and VHF transceiver
VHF transceiver only
A 3 cm radar signal
A distress signal
A 10 cm radar signal
An MF two-tone alarm signal
100,000 Hz
1,000,000,000 Hz
10,000 Hz
1,000,000 Hz
22 23 GMDSS: How many Hz (Hertz) are there in 1 MHz?
Answer 4
GMDSS: You want to call a foreign coast station on MF DSC and you do not know the national channel. What Transmit on 2177.0 kHz, Transmit on 2187.5 kHz, Transmit on 2189.5 kHz, Transmit on 2189.5 kHz, frequency would you use for transmitting and for receive on 2189.5 kHz receive on 2187.5 kHz receive on 2189.5 kHz receive on 2177.0 kHz receiving? 24 GMDSS: A Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB does not transmit the By taking manual vessels position. How can the LUT (Local User bearings 25 Terminal) stations determine the vessels position? GMDSS: What radio equipment utilises the mode F1B? MF radiotelephony
By cross bearings taken By cross bearings taken by geostationary By doppler effect by airplanes in the area satellites Navtex
26 27 28 29 30 31 32
Page 103
Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB
Radio Telex
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
33
34
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46
47
Page 104
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
48 49
50 51 52
53 54 55
56 57 58 59 60 61 62
63
Page 105
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
64
65 66 67
68
69
70
71
72
73
Page 106
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
74
75
76 77
78
79 80 81 82 83
Page 107
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
84 85
86 87 88 89
90
91 92
93
94 Page 108
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
95 96
97 98
99 ###
###
### GMDSS: The Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB has global ### coverage. How is this possible?
Because this EPIRB utilises Inmarsat satellites
Because this EPIRB Because this EPIRB utilises satellites that utilises satellites in are geostationary equatorial orbits
Because this EPIRB utilises satellites in low polar orbits
GMDSS: How accurate is the positioning of a Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB?
Within a radius of 5 km
Within 1 square km
Within 10 square km
Within 15 square km
Check for wear and Replace the releaser tear on the releaser; when owners tell us if worn out, replace it to do so
It must be replaced every 5 years
Replace the releaser according to date markings
10 minutes
2 hours
1.5 hours
45 minutes
24 hours
96 hours
48 hours
12 hours
### GMDSS: How can you decide when the hydrostatic release mechanism on an EPIRB is to ### be replaced? GMDSS: What is the maximum time from activating a Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB until the alert ### reaches the LUT (Local User Terminal)? GMDSS: How long a time will the battery in a Cospas/Sarsat EPIRB last when activated? ###
Page 109
GMDSS QUESTION
GMDSS: What is the purpose of the mercury switch inside some types of Cospas/Sarsat EPIRBs?
Answer 1
Answer 2
To connect the battery to the transmitter
### GMDSS: How can you avoid a false alert when cleaning certain types of Cospas/Sarsat EPIRBs with soap-water ?
The heaviest part must always point downwards
Answer 3
To disconnect the To avoid overload in battery from the the transmitter when transmitter when the EPIRB is activated taken out of the water
To connect the antenna to the transmitter when the EPIRB is afloat in the sea
The heaviest part The heaviest part must be submerged must always point into a bucket of water upwards
The heaviest part must always point upwards and you must avoid touching the sea water contacts.
### Used in Radio Telex to Used in Radio telex to Mode used in NAVTEX be put in touch with a GMDSS: What does the command DIRTLX mean? transmit a Store and to receive a certain telex Forward message Broadcast message subscriber. Two way traffic. ###
###
Used in Radio Telex to be connected to the director of the coast radio station
By pushing the bellbutton to get someone at the other end to read through your message, and then confirm the receipt
By asking for, and receiving the answerback from the subscriber after the message is transmitted
Any Radio Equipment
GMDSS: How can you be sure that your radio telex message (ARQ) is well received by the subscriber ashore?
By asking for the answer-back of the subscriber at any time during transmission
GMDSS: With what equipment is it possible to receive EGC messages?
With NAVTEX receivers
GMDSS: What does the acronym ARQ mean?
Alfa-beam Radiation Shield Equipment
Automatic Repetition Anti Radiation Request Squelch
All stations, please observe radio silence on 2182 kHz due to distress traffic!
All stations, Seelonce All stations, Keep off All stations, Seelonce frequency please. Distress. Then give your ships name and Mayday Distress traffic callsign ongoing!
3 times
4 times
###
###
Answer 4
GMDSS: There is distress traffic on 2182 KHz but your vessel is not taking part in this. If you are disturbed by other stations, what signal would ### you use to impose radio silence? GMDSS: How many times should a Distress Call and Distress Message be repeated if no ### acknowledgement is received?
By calling the subscriber to ask if the message arrived well With Inmarsat-C, EGC receivers and any With Inmarsat-C only other Inmarsat systems with relevant equipment
Page 110
As many times as necessary
With EGC receivers only
Maximum 5 times
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
The station that acknowledged the distress alert
Always a coast station
Any station that itself The station in distress is not in distress
GMDSS: Your propeller has dropped off in N.E. bound lane off Cap Griz Nez, Dover Strait. What ### priority would you choose?
Urgency
Safety
Distress
Routine
GMDSS: Your vessel is not under command, and you wish to warn other vessels about this. What ### priority would you choose?
Urgency
Distress
Routine
Safety
GMDSS: Your propeller has dropped off in a gale two miles off Cap Finisterre with an onshore wind. Safety What priority would you choose?
Distress
Routine
Safety
GMDSS: Your vessel is equipped for sea area A1 VHF Digital Selective + A2. Suddenly there is an explosion in the Calling (DSC) and engine room. What equipment should be used to EPIRB transmit the distress alert?
MF DSC and EPIRB
VHF and MF DSC, EPIRB and SART
VHF and MF DSC, Inmarsat-C, EPIRB and SART
Send Mayday Relay instantly
Listen in for 3 minutes, and if nothing is heard, send Mayday Relay
If the station in distress is near your position and no coast station has acknowledged the alert
Acknowledgement should never be transmitted by means of DSC
2182.0 kHz
2187.5 kHz
###
###
GMDSS: Which station should primarily lead the distress traffic?
### Listen in for three minutes and if Acknowledge the call nothing further is heard, inform the nearest coast station ### If the station in GMDSS: You have received a distress alert on MF If the station in distress is far away DSC. In what circumstances should you transmit distress is near your and no other vessels position have acknowledged ### an acknowledgement by means of DSC? the alert GMDSS: What frequency would you use to transmit an acknowledgement of a MF DSC 2189.5 kHz 2177.0 kHz Distress Alert ? ### GMDSS: You have received a Distress Call, but the Distress Message is not heard. What would you do in this situation?
Page 111
GMDSS QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
GMDSS: You are radio operator on board a vessel in distress and you are 100 miles off the nearest VHF channel 70 coast station. What frequency would you use for a DSC alert?
GMDSS: Which of the following stations is, among other things, controlling the orbit of the Inmarsat satellites?
The MES
GMDSS: When operating the Inmarsat-C terminal, it is not necessary to use azimuth and elevation angles to find a satellite. Why is this the case?
The equipment will automatically point the antenna towards the satellite.
Answer 4
2182.0 kHz and VHF channel 16
2187.5 kHz and VHF channel 70
Acknowledge the distress alert on the same frequency
If no Do nothing! Only the acknowledgement is designated coast received from a coast station should deal station, transmit a with HF DSC alerts Distress Relay
The LES
The CES
### Transmit a Distress GMDSS: You have received a distress alert on HF Relay on the same DSC. What would you do next? frequency ###
Answer 3
2177.0 kHz and 2189.5 kHz
The NCS
###
###
###
GMDSS: What is the main difference between the Inmarsat-A and Inmarsat-B systems?
GMDSS: What is the average voltage across each cell in a Nickel Ferro (NiFe) accumulator ### when it is fully charged, and in use? ###
The Inmarsat-C The Inmarsat-C terminal uses an terminal uses a whip omnidirectional antenna antenna Unlike Inmarsat-A, Inmarsat-A is an It is not possible to Inmarsat-B is not analog system, while make telephone calls suited for data Inmarsat-B is digital through Inmarsat-B transmission due to low Baud-rate 1.6 to 1.7 Volts 2 Volts 1.2 Volts
The Inmarsat-C terminal is always linked to the Inmarsat-A terminal, and will therefore get it's signals from there Inmarsat-B uses an omnidirectional antenna 1.4 Volts
GMDSS: What kind of gas will be developed during charging of lead acid accumulators?
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
Carbon Monoxide
GMDSS: You have received a Distress Alert on VHF DSC channel 70. On what channel would you expect to hear the distress message?
Channel 70
Channel 69
Channel 16
Channel 12
###
Page 112
GMDSS QUESTION GMDSS: You have observed drifting debris in an area of heavy traffic and you want to warn other ships by means of VHF DSC. What priority would you use and on what channel would you transmit ### the message? GMDSS: EGC consists of SafetyNet and FleetNet. ### What services do we get from FleetNet? GMDSS: How often must a General Operator's ### Certificate (GOC) be renewed? GMDSS: On what frequency bands would you ### expect to find maritime VHF?
###
###
###
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
Urgency priority. Safety priority. No specific priority. Distress priority. Transmit message on Transmit message on Transmit message on Transmit message on Channel 16 any working channel Channel 6 Channel 16 Information from Commercial MSI (Maritime Safety Inmarsat Weather forecasts information for Information) Headquarters in subscribers only London Every 6 years Every 2 years Every 4 years Every 5 years 100 to 139 MHz
150 to 180 MHz
234 to 259 MHz
140 to 150 MHz
GMDSS: On what frequency bands would you expect to find maritime HF?
4000 to 25000 kHz
1600 to 4000 kHz
8000 to 34000 kHz
40 to 80 MHz
GMDSS: In Radio Telex there are many different codes and commands in use. What does the code DER mean?
Subscriber's telex machine is occupied
Subscriber's telex machine is defective
No Circuit
No paper on subscriber's telex machine
GMDSS: What is the most important feature of the Inmarsat EPIRB?
It can alert through both Inmarsat and Cospas Sarsat satellites
It is equipped with a telephony capability
GMDSS: What service is provided if you use the ### two digit code 32 on Inmarsat-A?
###
Answer 1
GMDSS: What service is provided if you use the two digit code 00 on Inmarsat-A?
GMDSS: What specific gravity would you expect from a lead acid accumulator that is fully ### discharged?
GMDSS: How do we find out if a NiCd accumulator is fully charged?
Technical assistance
Automatic telephone service
It has global coverage and is able to alert instantly when activated Advice of call duration and charges
Technical assistance
Advice of duration and charge
Automatic telephone service
Medico service
1.18
1.24
1.26
1.32
Measure the voltage during charging
Measure the current during charging
Measure the specific gravity of the electrolyte
Measure the voltage during discharging
###
Page 113
It is equipped with a GPS and is able to alert instantly when activated Medical service
GMDSS QUESTION
###
GMDSS: Your EPIRB has been activated due to a mishap. You are going to cancel the alarm using Inmarsat -C. How is this done?
Answer 1
Answer 2 Type the message in the 'Editor' and transmit to the shipping company office, telling them to notify National Telecom. By pressing the 'Set' and 'Alarm' buttons
Answer 3 Type the message in the 'Editor', choose 'Transmit', - then 'Distress' and then send the message accordingly By activating the 'Link Test'
A distress (SAR) message
A meteorological warning
A weather forecast
6 times 20 minutes
6 times 30 minutes
6 times 10 minutes
By the minutes (in 6 sec. blocks)
By word count
By kB (kilo Baud)
By k Bit (kilobits)
P1
P2
P0
P3
Every 4 years
Every 5 years
According to the date label
Use the 'Distress' window to edit the message
By transmitting a Distress Alert, and then send a ### cancellation GMDSS: A NAVTEX message has the following ID A navigational code: LD00 (Lima - Delta - Zero - Zero). What warning ### kind of message is it? GMDSS: How long transmission time is allotted 6 times 5 minutes ### per day to each station in the NAVTEX system? GMDSS: How can you test the Distress Alert capability in the Inmarsat-C system?
###
GMDSS: How is Inmarsat-C traffic charged?
GMDSS: What is the code for distress priority in ### Inmarsat-A?
GMDSS: How often should the EPIRB hydrostatic Every 3 years release mechanism be replaced?
Answer 4 Press the two distress buttons on the Inmarsat 'C' transceiver for 5 seconds By logging out from the current satellite, then press 'Set' and 'Alarm' buttons
###
Inmarsat EPIRB has a Inmarsat EPIRB has a built-in Inmarsat EPIRB built-in GPS and communications functions exactly as GMDSS: What are the main differences between communications system, but the Cospas Sarsat Cospas Sarsat EPIRBs and the Inmarsat EPIRBs? system, and has positioning of the system, but has no global coverage. beacon is done by global coverage. ### Doppler effect. GMDSS: How many SARTs should be carried on board? ###
At least one set.
2 sets on board vessels below 500grt, At least 2 sets. - 3 sets on board vessels above 500grt.
Page 114
Inmarsat EPIRB has a built-in GPS and communications system, but has no global coverage. 1 set on board vessels below 500grt2 sets on board vessels above 500grt.
GMDSS QUESTION
GMDSS: How many portable SAR VHFs must be carried on board vessels?
Answer 1
5 sets on board all vessels.
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
2 sets on board vessels below 500 gr, Tons, - 3 sets on board vessels above 500 gr. Tons.
3 sets on board vessels below 500 gr. Tons, - 4 sets on board vessels above 500 gr. Tons.
1 set on board vessels below 500 gr. Tons, - 2 sets on board vessels above 500 gr. Tons.
Because A3 is within range of coast stations equipped with MF DSC, and therefore it is sufficient to carry a MF transceiver. FEC is a two way system, while ARQ is used for broadcasting. With NAVTEX and EGC receivers.
Because A3 is within range of coast stations equipped with VHF DSC, and therefore it is sufficient to carry a ARQ is a two way VHF transceiver. connection in a private circuit (Ship Shore or Ship - Ship) while FEC is used With receiver solelyan forEGC broadcast. only.
ch. 1 to 28 and 60 to 88
ch. 1 to 26 and 60 to 88
### Because A4 is out of range of Inmarsat GMDSS: Why are there different requirements satellites, and regarding radio equipment in ocean areas A3 and therefore makes it A4? necessary to carry HF transceivers. ### GMDSS: What is the main difference between FEC is a two way FEC (Forward Error Correction) and ARQ system with active (Automatic Retransmission Request) used in error correction. ### radio telex systems? GMDSS: Through what equipment can you With a NAVTEX receive MSI (Maritime Safety Information) on receiver only. ### board vessels equipped for A3? GMDSS: What are the channels in the international VHF channel plan?
ch. 1 to 20 and 60 to 88
###
Try to get in touch GMDSS: You have received a distress alert on HF Transmit an with the vessel in DSC. No acknowledgement is received from a acknowledgement to distress by means of the vessel in distress. any available radio ### coast station. What would you do next? systems. GMDSS: What priority would be appropriate to use if you want to send a Medico message on Priority 1 Safety Priority 2 Urgent Inmarsat A? ### GMDSS: Your vessel has rudder failure, and is adrift in an area with heavy traffic. What priority Urgency would be appropriate to use if you want to notify ### shipping around you about this danger?
Distress
Page 115
Because A4 is within range of Inmarsat satellites, and therefore makes it necessary to carry Inmarsat systems additional to an HF transceiver. ARQ is exactly the same as ARQ With NAVTEX, EGC receivers and HF Radio Telex if fitted. ch 1 to 30 and 60 to 88
Do nothing! Only Transmit Distress coast stations are Relay to the nearest supposed to deal with coast station. these alerts. Priority 0 Routine
Priority 3 Distress
Routine
Safety
GMDSS
###
### ### ###
###
QUESTION
Answer 1
Answer 2
GMDSS: You want to transmit a Safety call on MF DSC. What frequency must be used, and on what frequency would you read the Safety Message? (It is not a vital message) GMDSS: You want to transmit an Urgency call on MF DSC. On what frequency would you send the call, and on what frequency would you read the message? GMDSS: A vessel is equipped for A3. What distress radio equipment must be fitted if the vessel is above 500 grt? GMDSS: What is the approximate range of a SART?
Transmit call on 2177.0 kHz, read the message on e.g. 2057 kHz. Send call on 2187.5 kHz, read the message on 2182 kHz. 1 EPIRB, 2 SARTs, and 2 portable VHFs.
Transmit call on 2187.5 kHz, read the message on 2182.0 kHz. Send call on 2177.0 kHz, read the message on 2182.0 kHz. 1 EPIRB, 1 SART and 3 portable VHFs.
Transmit call on 2189.5 kHz, read message on 2182.0 kHz. Send call on 2187.5 kHz, read the message on e.g. 2057.0 kHz. 1 EPIRB, 3 SART and 2 portable VHFs.
Transmit call on 2187.5 kHz, read message on e.g. 2057.0 kHz. Send call on 2182.0 kHz, read the message on 2187.5 kHz. 1 EPIRB, 2 SARTs and 3 portable VHFs.
3 n miles
5 - 10 n. miles
20 to 30 n miles
Below 1 n mile
GMDSS: What is the approximate range of a VHF 10 n miles DSC?
60 n miles
30 to 50 n miles
below 5 n miles
GMDSS: Which areas are not covered by the Inmarsat satellites?
Caspian Sea
Black Sea
North of 70 degrees north and South of 70 degrees south.
Because soot and salt will react chemically with the copper wire, resulting in oxidation and deterioration of the antenna. Coaxial cables are well insulated, and do not leak any energy to the surroundings.
Because soot and salt Because soot and salt would lead the are not good antenna current to conductors ground. Coaxial cables are Coaxial cables have easy to bend, and are an inherent capability therefore easy to to amplify radio install on board ships. signals.
Mediterranean Sea
Answer 3
Answer 4
### Because soot and salt GMDSS: Why is the radiation from a transmitting will act as an antenna weaker if the insulators are covered with insulating material, soot and salt? and the radio waves will be 'trapped'. ### GMDSS: What is good about leading the energy That is normally the from the transmitter to the antenna through a shortest way ### coaxial cable? ###
###
GMDSS: What is the correct charging voltage of a 12 Volt lead battery?
12 Volts
15.4 Volts
24 Volts
13.7 Volts
GMDSS: HF radio communication is sometimes nearly impossible to achieve in high latitudes. What may cause this situation?
Too many sun-spots at the time
Too few sunspots at the time
Too bad weather at the time
Too much Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) at the time
Page 116
GMDSS QUESTION
###
Answer 1
Answer 2
Answer 3
Answer 4
GMDSS: Why is it important to 'tune' the transmitter in such a way that we get maximum electrical current to the antenna?
To get maximum To heat the antenna. effect (Watts) into the This will result in air. better conductivity.
To eliminate the electricity caused by self induction in the antenna.
To save energy.
GMDSS: What is the range of a VHF station especially restricted by?
Heavy rain and snow Strong sun light. showers.
Thunderstorms.
Physical obstructions between transmitter and receiver.
GMDSS: You want to utilise a VHF transceiver to communicate between the bridge and the poop deck. What channel and what power would you use?
Channel 16, 25 Watts Channel 6, 1 Watt
Channel 70, 1 Watt
Channel 28, 25 Watts
1 EPIRB, 1 SART, 3 portable VHFs, EGC receiver, 2182 kHz watch receiver and 1 VHF with DSC.
1 EPIRB, 2 SARTs, 3 portable VHFs, NAVTEX receiver, 2182 kHz watch receiver and 1 VHF with DSC.
1 EPIRB, 2 SARTs, 3 portable VHFs, NAVTEX receiver, 2182 kHz watch receiver, Inmarsat 'C' transceiver and 1 VHF with DSC.
5 minutes
10 minutes
Not necessary to wait
ocean area covered by coast stations equipped with VHF DSC.
ocean area covered by Inmarsat satellites.
ocean area covered by coast stations equipped with MF DSC.
ocean area north of 70 degrees north and south of 70 degrees south.
List of Ship Stations
List of Radio determination and List of Coast Stations Special Service Stations.
A coast station prior to transmitting Mayday Relay.
A naval vessel in distress
###
###
1 EPIRB, 1 SART, 3 portable VHFs, GMDSS: What radio equipment would you NAVTEX receiver, expect to find on board a vessel above 500 grt in 2182 kHz watch sea area A1? receiver and 1 VHF ### with DSC. GMDSS: You have called a coast station by means of MF DSC to order a telephone call. 1 minute There is no reply from the coast station. How ### long should you wait before you try to call again? GMDSS: Ocean area A2 is described as an.... ### GMDSS: You are going to sent a radio telex through Ostende Radio in Belgium. What publication would you use to find information ### about frequencies to utilize for the call? GMDSS: You have received a 2 tone alarm signal on 2182 kHz. However, the signal ended with a ### 10 seconds prolonged tone. What station has transmitted the alarm signal?
Page 117
Admiralty List of Radio Signals
A coast guard vessel Any vessel in distress testing radio equipment.
GMDSS QUESTION
GMDSS: How many digits does a MMSI number consist of?
Answer 1
Answer 2
9 digits
### All 3 cm radars are unstable in such a way that they transmit on different ### frequencies. GMDSS: A quarter wave antenna is in resonance Tune the antenna to with the frequency 2346 kHz. What do we have make it electrically to do with the antenna circuit to get the antenna longer. ### in resonance with the frequency 3366 kHz? GMDSS: Why does the SART (Search & Rescue Radar Transponder) scan from 9.2 to 9.5 GHz in the X band?
###
GMDSS: Only one kind of EPIRB can be detected irrespective of position on the globe. What 1.6 GHz frequency does it transmit on?
GMDSS: You have had a radio telephone call through Singapore Radio. Total charge for the call was 30.61 Gold Franks. How many SDR ### (Special Drawing Rights) does this amount to? GMDSS: You are in position 20 N and 179 E. You wish to switch on the Inmarsat A terminal. Which Inmarsat satellite would you have to use in this ### part of the globe? GMDSS: Which of the following modes would be appropriate to use for receiving distress traffic on ### 2182 kHz?
5 SDR
Answer 3
Answer 4
7 digits
8 digits
10 digits
All 3 cm radars are preprogrammed to transmit on a specially allotted frequency within the X band. Tune the antenna to make it electrically shorter.
All 3 cm radars are equipped with a magnetron which, due to normal wear and tear, means that the radar transmits randomly in as the2346 X Do nothing, band. and 3366 kHz are so called 'paired' frequencies.
1.5 GHz
243 MHz
406 MHz
7 SDR
8 SDR
10 SDR
Because 3 cm radars receive on 9.2 and 9.5 GHz only. It is not possible to make any changes to the antenna circuit.
Indian Ocean Region - Atlantic Ocean Region Pacific Ocean Region IOR East - AOR-W - POR
Atlantic Ocean Region - AOR-E
F1B
GMDSS: Which of the following modes would be appropriate to use for receiving normal telephony J3E ### on MF? GMDSS: Which of the following modes would be appropriate to use for receiving normal telephony F1B ### on HF? GMDSS: Which of the following modes would be appropriate to use for receiving radio telex on H3E ### MF/HF?
J3E
R3E
H3E
H3E
F1B
R3E
J3E and R3E
H3E and J3E
A1A
J3E
R3E
F1B
Page 118
GMDSS QUESTION
###
GMDSS: What specific gravity would you expect if a lead accumulator is totally discharged?
Answer 1
Answer 2 1.18
1.32
LUT Local User Terminal
NCS Network Control Station
OPR...+
SVC....+
DIRTLX....+
TLX...+
DIRTLX...+
SVC...+
Ship's last port of call.
Weather in the immediate vicinity.
Ship's identification.
Ship's destination.
What is a SART?
Semi Automatic Rescue Transmitter.
Search And Rescue Transponder.
Satellite Activated Rescue Telephone.
Systematic Advised Rescue Tracker.
What do the letters E.P.I.R.B. stand for?
Enhanced Plotted Information Radio Broadcast.
Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.
Extremely Powerful Immersed Rescue Boat.
Electronic Precision Illuminated Radar Buoy.
Using spoken radio communication, what is the code word used to indicate a distress message?
MAYDAY
S.O.S.
URGENT
PRIORITY
Which of these are distress signals?
All of the other options.
What is an EPIRB?
An electronic positioning instrument and receiving device.
CES (LES) Coast Earth MES (SES) Mobile Station Earth Station
GMDSS: What command would be appropriate to use if you want to be connected directly to a TLX....+ ### subscriber via radio telex? GMDSS: What command would be appropriate to use if you want to send a radio telex message as OPR...+ ### Store and Forward? Which of these items has to be included in a ### distress message?
### ###
Answer 4
1.26
GMDSS: Which of the following stations is responsible for the technical operation and ### monitoring of the Inmarsat satellites?
1.24
Answer 3
###
###
###
###
In the case of permanent loss of power, what type of radio message would you send?
At what intervals should an EPIRB be tested, inspected and, if necessary have the source of ### energy replaced?
Urgency At intervals not exceeding twelve months
A gun or explosive signal fired at intervals of about one minute. A- smoke generator used to indicate the position of a ship or boat in distress. Distress
Flames on a vessel An electronic emergency positionindicating radio beacon.
An emergency receiving beacon.
Securite
All of the the other options
At intervals not At intervals not exceeding three exceeding six months months
Page 119
A continuous sounding with any fog- signaling apparatus.
At the weekly mustering and boat drills
GMDSS QUESTION
In which of these cases would you transmit a Distress message?
Answer 1
Answer 2
###
What type of radio messages contain important navigational or meteorological warnings?
Steering failure
It has to be thrown into the sea where it will self-activate
It has to be switched It is carried into the It will be activated by on by the Master survival craft and the nearest coast when the order to switched on by the station abandon ship is given occupants
Safety
Distress
All of the other options
Urgency message
Safety message
Distress relay
When an emergency is clearly over, how should a By broadcasting to all By broadcasting to Mayday message be cancelled? stations. those involved.
By broadcasting to the nearest coast station.
There is no need to take any action.
GMDSS: What is the average voltage across each cell of a Nickel Cadmium (NiCd) battery when it is fully charged?
1.6 to 1.7 Volts
1.2 Volts
3 Volts
GMDSS: How would you measure the charging condition of a NiFe battery?
By measuring the By measuring the voltage during By measuring the voltage during charging. It should be specific gravity of discharging. It should 1.6 to 1.7 Volts per each cell be 1.2 Volts per cell cell
###
###
Electrical failure
Urgency
What type of radio message would you transmit Distress alert and if your ship has a collision and there is grave and message ### imminent danger?
###
Main engine failure
Answer 4
Flooding
### The SART is the Search and Rescue Radar ### Transponder. How is this device activated?
Answer 3
2 Volts
Page 120
By measuring the current during charging
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
Answer A
What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on The SOLAS stretcher. 1 board? A companion of yours on a ship falls down a flight of Apply a tourniquet to stairs and thinks he may have broken his leg. What's his upper leg. 2 the best thing you should do?
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
The canvas pole stretcher.
The Hart Imco stretcher.
The Neil Robertson stretcher.
Apply a splint.
Seek help.
Pull on the foot to set the bone.
ANSWER Stability D
C
If you are doing heart compression, approximately how 3 many compressions per minute is about right?
About 100 compressions per minute.
About 60 compressions About 40 compressions About 10 compressions per minute. per minute. per minute.
B
4 What is meant by an open fracture?
One that occurs at the end of a bone.
One where an end of one of the bones pierces the skin.
One where more then one bone is involved.
B
Have the casualty lie down.
C
A casualty has been injured by crushing his hand in an item of machinery. Which of the following should never 5 be done? Which of these drugs might be given to reduce severe 6 pain? When internal injury is suspected, which of the following 7 should NOT be done?
8 What is meant by the term compound fracture?
Which of these would be the best action if you 9 suspected a casualty was choking?
One where the bone has broken into more then one piece.
Give the patient some water provided there is Give the patient a shot no injury to the Apply direct pressure to of alcohol to help ease abdomen. the wound. the pain. Morphine. Get the patient to lie down.
Penicillin. Slightly elevate the legs.
A bone that is broken in A broken bone that is more then one place. causing bleeding. Press suddenly and sharply into the casualty's abdomen Get the casualty to lie with a quick hard down flat on his back. thrust.
Caffeine. Betadine Give the patient a drink Keep the patient warm. of water.
A C
A broken bone with the ends of the bone protruding from the A bone that has broken skin. leaving jagged edges.
A
Sit the casualty down and place his head between his knees.
Tap the casualty on the back between his shoulder blades
B
What damage could occur if first aider's hands are placed at the tip of the sternum during heart ### compressions?
The liver might be torn The ribs might be leading to severe cracked. internal bleeding.
The patient may vomit as his stomach is squeezed.
The lungs might be punctured leading to severe loss of breath.
A
Which of these is considered the best way to control ### severe bleeding?
Application of a tourniquet.
Direct pressure over the wound.
Direct pressure on a pressure point.
Raise the bleeding part above the level of the head.
B
Massage the affected area to prevent stiffness.
Rinse the area with cold Immobilise the affected water. area.
About 20 litres.
About 10 litres.
Raise the affected Which of these is best when you suspect that a casualty portion of the body has fractured a bone? above the level of the casualty's head. ### Approximately how much blood is contained in the About 1.5 litres. ### human body?
Page 121
D About 5 litres.
D
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside.
Answer C
Answer D
ANSWER Stability
A chemical compound Special clothes that which, when mixed, prevent a survivor from produces light and losing heat. heat.
B
### Which of these is a Thermal Protective Aid?
A portable electric heater.
Abdominal Thrust is the name of a technique used to attempt to force air out of a choking casualty's lungs. ### How is this technique performed? If an injured person's pulse cannot be felt at the wrist, ### where on the body should the pulse be taken?
Stand close behind the casualty, clench your Lay the casualty on a fist and place it in the hard surface, press centre of upper firmly and rapidly on abdomen. Grasp your the middle of the lower fist with your other half of the breast bone. hand and pull inwards. The chest near the The side of the neck. heart.
Bend the casualty Use the Abdominal forward and apply hard Thrust tool found in the blows to the centre of first aid box. the back.
B
The ankle.
A
Where should the hands of the first aider be placed ### when doing heart compressions? Which of these is the most effective method of artificial ### respiration?
In the middle where the collar bone (Clavicle) joins the breast bone Over the left nipple on (Sternum). the chest. Mouth to mouth Silvester method. method.
About 4 cm nearer the head then the lower At the end of the end of the breastbone breastbone. (sternum). Heath Robinson Mouth to nose method. method.
If the heart of a casualty has stopped, approximately how long will it take before the casualty is likely to suffer ### brain damage? Beyond 10 seconds. The cardiovascular system refers to what parts of the ### body? The lungs. A crew member has fallen from a height of about 5 meters and though conscious cannot feel any pain in ### his limbs. What should you do?
Beyond 1 minute. Beyond 6 minutes. The brain and nervous The heart and blood system. circulation systems.
The top of the leg.
Beyond 20 minutes. The bones and muscles.
Tie the patient to any Put the patient into the Do not move the patient pieces of wood that recovery position in as he may have neck or Carry the patient to the can be used as splints. case he vomits. spine injuries. ship's hospital. Slap his face gently with the palm of your hand.
C C
C
Throw cold water on his face.
Which of the following conditions would indicate that a ### casualty was dead?
Eyes are glazed and sunken.
Casualty is not moving. Casualty is pale.
The skin is wet and clammy.
A
### What is a resuscitator?
A plastic tube that fits over the casualty's throat to keep an airway open.
An electrical device with An oxygen tank, with a 2 paddles that can be demand valve and used to restart the mask. heart.
An insulated and heated bag that is used to wrap around a casualty suffering from hypothermia.
B
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Tilt his head back as far as it will go.
B
An unconscious seaman is lying on his back and is not breathing. What's the first thing you should do?
###
Waft smelling salts under his nose.
D
D
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
A shipmate touches some live electrical wires and Immediately check for collapses unconscious. What's the first thing you should Find and isolate the Put rubber soled shoes signs of breathing and a Dampen the victim with ### do? source of the electricity. on your feet. pulse. a wet towel.
ANSWER Stability
A
### Which of these describes basic life support?
Establishing an airway, breathing and keeping blood moving through Treating a wound or a chest compressions. burn correctly.
Surgery in a hospital with machines to bypass pump blood.
Dialysis for kidney problems.
A
In the absence of a Doctor, how long should artificial ### respiration and heart compression be continued?
When the casualty has had fixed and dilated pupils for 15 minutes you should stop CPR.
When the casualty turns pale and starts to go cold CPR can be stopped
When the casualty shows no response to the CPR after 20 minutes, it is useless to continue.
B
### What is hypothermia?
When the body When the body When the body temperature falls to 39 When heavy coughing temperature falls below temperature falls below degree C. occurs. 23 degree C. 35 degree C.
D
D
A
What types of drugs are permissible to take without ### permission? What would you do if you see a man fall into a cargo ### hold?
Until the heart starts beating or the rescuer is unable to continue because of fatigue.
Over the counter drugs providing instructions are followed. Antibiotics.
Sleeping pills.
No drugs (even aspirin) should be taken without permission from the captain or authorised officer.
Raise the alarm.
Go to the man and try to assist as much as possible.
Get a stretcher and rope.
Get the first aid kit.
What kind of first aid should be given to a person with ### frostbite?
Heat the affected areas Rub the affected area with hot-water bottles. with alcohol.
Apply hand or body heat to the affected parts skin-to-skin. (e.g. frozen hand in person's Give the person a opposite armpit). cigarette.
What is the rhythm when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation in combination with chest compressions by ### one first aider only?
15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations.
20 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
10 compressions followed by 3 full ventilations.
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5 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
C
A
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Put the hand in cold water for approximately 20 minutes and then How would you ease the pain for someone who gets his puncture the nail with a ### finger tip stuck in a hatch cover? preheated needle.
### How can asthma attacks be triggered?
###
A heavy fall or a severe blow to the upper part of the abdomen can upset the regularity of breathing. What are the symptoms?
By nervous tension, allergy or no obvious cause.
###
Answer D
A
By not keeping to a proper diet.
By too much fresh air activity.
A
The casually has difficulty in breathing and may be unable to speak.
D
Rest - Ice Compression Elevation.
Reflate - Ice Compression Estimation.
C
Frothing at the mouth.
Strong and painful pulse.
A
The person's pulse is very fast and he/she is getting cold.
The person may be very pale and pulse is slow and weak.
D
By loud music.
Rest - Inject - Care Evaluation.
Skin may be red and Sudden crushing, vice- loss of movements in like pain in the centre the right arm may of the chest. occur.
What are the symptoms of someone about to faint?
The person has a red face and small pupils.
The person starts to talk a lot and seems hyperactive.
How can you prevent a patient from fainting?
Tell the patient to sit down with his head up and tilted back breathing normally.
Tell the person to sit down and lean forward If standing in a crowd, Try to keep the person with the head between flex the leg muscles and in a standing position. the knees taking deep toes to aid circulation. breaths.
### The unconscious or recovery position should be used for a casualty who is breathing but unconscious. ### Why? ### What is the skin colour of a patient in shock? When acting as a watcher or lookout at a cargo hold and men below show signs of distress, what must you ### do?
To prevent the casualty To ease the pain of drowning in his own broken bones. vomit. Light blue. Dark blue. Try to rescue them yourself.
Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. snow) can cause damage to skin and eyes. What is this Radiation burn. ### type of burn called?
ANSWER Stability
Put the hand in a bucket of warm water for approximately 5 minutes and then Put the finger in your Put the finger in warm puncture the nail with a mouth and suck for half alcohol until the pain needle. an hour. reduces.
The casualty starts The casualty is The casualty feels very sweating profusely and speaking in a loud hungry. develops fever. manner.
Reflate - Inject The treatment for muscle strain may be remembered as Cooperation ### RICE. What is RICE? Elevation.
### What is the first sign and symptom of a heart attack?
Answer C
To correct for any spinal To minimize nose injury. bleeding. Pale or grey.
Green or purple.
Lower additional breathing equipment.
Raise the alarm immediately.
Don a B.A. set and enter the space.
Electrical burn.
Dry burn.
Cold burn.
Page 124
B
A C
C
A
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
###
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position. Why is this position so important?
This position ensures the heart keeps beating.
This position makes it easy to minimise any kind of bleeding.
This position ensures that an open airway is maintained.
This position prevents the patient from falling asleep.
When performing chest compressions, where on the casualty's body do you place your hands?
Place the heel of your hand on top of the heart position. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
Place the heel of one hand two finger Place the heel of your breadths above the two hands on the top of bottom of the the breastbone. breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
The position of your hands is not important.
12-16 times per minute.
25-27 times per minute.
### After checking for open airway, giving the first 2 inflations and checking the pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what rate of inflations should be given ### until natural breathing is restored?
Doesn't matter how many times.
What is the rhythm of resuscitation should two first ### aiders use when working as a team?
3 compressions after every 1 inflation.
C
C
B 7 inflations before 5 compressions after every 5 compressions. every 1 inflation.
Gently flood the casualty's ear with An insect has become lodged in the ear. How should it warm water so that the ### be removed? insect floats out. The ABC rule is important for first aiders to know. What Airway - Breathing ### does ABC stands for? Communication. What blood alcohol level is permissible under U.S. ### legislation before it is defined as intoxication? 0.01%. When using a compress bandage, what shows that the Blue colour of the skin ### bandage might be too tight? above the bandage. ### Exposure to cold conditions may cause ..... hyperthermia.
### What is the Recovery Position?
10-12 times per minute.
ANSWER Stability
The patient is seated in an up-right position and with the arms and legs arranged in order to keep this position stable.
10 compressions within every 3 inflations.
C
By using a rubber vacuum pump to suck the insect out. Attitude - Blood Communication.
Use a Q-tip and carefully try to get the insect out.
By using an ear bud and carefully try to get the insect out. Airway - Breathing Alcohol Blood Content. Circulation.
D
0.07%.
0.04%.
0.1%.
C
Swelling above the bandage. heat stroke.
Swelling above the bandage and strong pulsating pain. a heart attack.
Increase in heartbeat and dizzy feeling. hypothermia.
C D
The patient is placed in a "face-to-the-floor" position with arms and legs arranged in order The patient is seated in to stabilize this a position with the head The patient is placed position. kept as low as possible. flat on a bed.
B
Page 125
A
Medical First Aid
QUESTION
If a person is in shock, which of these is the correct ### thing to do?
Answer A
Answer B
Be kind to the patient and give him Apply hot-water bottles something to eat or to keep the patient drink at the first warm. opportunity.
Page 126
Answer C
Try and reassure the patient and stay with the person at all times.
Answer D
Move the patient to a place of safety.
ANSWER Stability
C
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Medical First Aid Answer
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Medical First Aid Answer
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Medical First Aid Answer
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Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION
Answer A
What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on The SOLAS stretcher. 1 board? A companion of yours on a ship falls down a flight of Apply a tourniquet to stairs and thinks he may have broken his leg. What's his upper leg. 2 the best thing you should do?
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
The canvas pole stretcher.
The Hart Imco stretcher.
The Neil Robertson stretcher.
Apply a splint.
Seek help.
Pull on the foot to set the bone.
If you are doing heart compression, approximately how 3 many compressions per minute is about right?
About 100 compressions per minute.
About 60 compressions About 40 compressions About 10 compressions per minute. per minute. per minute.
4 What is meant by an open fracture?
One that occurs at the end of a bone.
One where an end of one of the bones pierces the skin.
A casualty has been injured by crushing his hand in an item of machinery. Which of the following should never 5 be done? Which of these drugs might be given to reduce severe 6 pain? When internal injury is suspected, which of the following 7 should NOT be done?
8 What is meant by the term compound fracture?
Which of these would be the best action if you 9 suspected a casualty was choking?
One where the bone has broken into more then one piece.
Give the patient some water provided there is Give the patient a shot no injury to the Apply direct pressure to of alcohol to help ease abdomen. the wound. the pain. Morphine. Get the patient to lie down.
Penicillin. Slightly elevate the legs.
A bone that is broken in A broken bone that is more then one place. causing bleeding. Press suddenly and sharply into the casualty's abdomen Get the casualty to lie with a quick hard down flat on his back. thrust.
One where more then one bone is involved.
Have the casualty lie down.
Caffeine. Betadine Give the patient a drink of water. Keep the patient warm. A broken bone with the ends of the bone protruding from the A bone that has broken skin. leaving jagged edges. Sit the casualty down and place his head between his knees.
Tap the casualty on the back between his shoulder blades
What damage could occur if first aider's hands are placed at the tip of the sternum during heart ### compressions?
The liver might be torn The ribs might be leading to severe cracked. internal bleeding.
The patient may vomit as his stomach is squeezed.
The lungs might be punctured leading to severe loss of breath.
Which of these is considered the best way to control ### severe bleeding?
Application of a tourniquet.
Direct pressure over the wound.
Direct pressure on a pressure point.
Raise the bleeding part above the level of the head.
Massage the affected area to prevent stiffness.
Rinse the area with cold Immobilise the affected water. area.
Raise the affected Which of these is best when you suspect that a casualty portion of the body has fractured a bone? above the level of the casualty's head. ###
Page 133
Your Answers
A
C
Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION Approximately how much blood is contained in the ### human body?
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
About 1.5 litres.
About 20 litres.
About 10 litres.
### Which of these is a Thermal Protective Aid?
A portable electric heater.
A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside.
A chemical compound Special clothes that which, when mixed, prevent a survivor from produces light and losing heat. heat.
Abdominal Thrust is the name of a technique used to attempt to force air out of a choking casualty's lungs. ### How is this technique performed? If an injured person's pulse cannot be felt at the wrist, ### where on the body should the pulse be taken?
Stand close behind the casualty, clench your Lay the casualty on a fist and place it in the hard surface, press centre of upper firmly and rapidly on abdomen. Grasp your the middle of the lower fist with your other half of the breast bone. hand and pull inwards. The chest near the The side of the neck. heart.
Bend the casualty Use the Abdominal forward and apply hard Thrust tool found in the blows to the centre of first aid box. the back.
Where should the hands of the first aider be placed ### when doing heart compressions? Which of these is the most effective method of artificial ### respiration?
In the middle where the collar bone (Clavicle) joins the breast bone Over the left nipple on (Sternum). the chest. Mouth to mouth Silvester method. method.
About 4 cm nearer the head then the lower At the end of the end of the breastbone breastbone. (sternum). Heath Robinson Mouth to nose method. method.
If the heart of a casualty has stopped, approximately how long will it take before the casualty is likely to suffer ### brain damage? Beyond 10 seconds. The cardiovascular system refers to what parts of the ### body? The lungs. A crew member has fallen from a height of about 5 meters and though conscious cannot feel any pain in ### his limbs. What should you do?
Beyond 1 minute. Beyond 6 minutes. The brain and nervous The heart and blood system. circulation systems.
The top of the leg.
Beyond 20 minutes. The bones and muscles.
Tie the patient to any Put the patient into the Do not move the patient pieces of wood that recovery position in as he may have neck or Carry the patient to the can be used as splints. case he vomits. spine injuries. ship's hospital.
An unconscious seaman is lying on his back and is not breathing. What's the first thing you should do?
Throw cold water on his face.
Which of the following conditions would indicate that a ### casualty was dead?
Eyes are glazed and sunken.
###
The ankle.
About 5 litres.
Slap his face gently with the palm of your hand.
Waft smelling salts under his nose.
Casualty is not moving. Casualty is pale.
Page 134
Tilt his head back as far as it will go. The skin is wet and clammy.
Your Answers
Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION
### What is a resuscitator?
Answer A
Answer B
A plastic tube that fits over the casualty's throat to keep an airway open.
Answer C
An electrical device with An oxygen tank, with a 2 paddles that can be demand valve and used to restart the mask. heart.
Answer D An insulated and heated bag that is used to wrap around a casualty suffering from hypothermia.
A shipmate touches some live electrical wires and Immediately check for collapses unconscious. What's the first thing you should Find and isolate the Put rubber soled shoes signs of breathing and a Dampen the victim with ### do? source of the electricity. on your feet. pulse. a wet towel.
### Which of these describes basic life support?
Establishing an airway, breathing and keeping blood moving through Treating a wound or a chest compressions. burn correctly.
Surgery in a hospital with machines to bypass pump blood.
Dialysis for kidney problems.
In the absence of a Doctor, how long should artificial ### respiration and heart compression be continued?
When the casualty has had fixed and dilated pupils for 15 minutes you should stop CPR.
When the casualty turns pale and starts to go cold CPR can be stopped
When the casualty shows no response to the CPR after 20 minutes, it is useless to continue.
### What is hypothermia?
When the body When the body When the body temperature falls to 39 When heavy coughing temperature falls below temperature falls below degree C. occurs. 23 degree C. 35 degree C.
What types of drugs are permissible to take without ### permission? What would you do if you see a man fall into a cargo ### hold?
Until the heart starts beating or the rescuer is unable to continue because of fatigue.
Over the counter drugs providing instructions are followed. Antibiotics.
Sleeping pills.
No drugs (even aspirin) should be taken without permission from the captain or authorised officer.
Raise the alarm.
Go to the man and try to assist as much as possible.
Get a stretcher and rope.
Get the first aid kit.
What kind of first aid should be given to a person with ### frostbite?
Heat the affected areas Rub the affected area with hot-water bottles. with alcohol.
Apply hand or body heat to the affected parts skin-to-skin. (e.g. frozen hand in person's Give the person a opposite armpit). cigarette.
What is the rhythm when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation in combination with chest compressions by ### one first aider only?
15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations.
20 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
10 compressions followed by 3 full ventilations. Page 135
5 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations.
Your Answers
Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Put the hand in cold water for approximately 20 minutes and then How would you ease the pain for someone who gets his puncture the nail with a ### finger tip stuck in a hatch cover? preheated needle.
### How can asthma attacks be triggered?
###
A heavy fall or a severe blow to the upper part of the abdomen can upset the regularity of breathing. What are the symptoms?
By nervous tension, allergy or no obvious cause.
###
Answer D
Put the hand in a bucket of warm water for approximately 5 minutes and then Put the finger in your Put the finger in warm puncture the nail with a mouth and suck for half alcohol until the pain needle. an hour. reduces. By not keeping to a proper diet.
By loud music.
The casualty starts The casualty is The casualty feels very sweating profusely and speaking in a loud hungry. develops fever. manner.
Reflate - Inject The treatment for muscle strain may be remembered as Cooperation ### RICE. What is RICE? Elevation.
### What is the first sign and symptom of a heart attack?
Answer C
Rest - Inject - Care Evaluation.
Skin may be red and Sudden crushing, vice- loss of movements in like pain in the centre the right arm may of the chest. occur.
By too much fresh air activity. The casually has difficulty in breathing and may be unable to speak.
Rest - Ice Compression Elevation.
Reflate - Ice Compression Estimation.
Frothing at the mouth.
Strong and painful pulse.
The person's pulse is very fast and he/she is getting cold.
The person may be very pale and pulse is slow and weak.
What are the symptoms of someone about to faint?
The person has a red face and small pupils.
The person starts to talk a lot and seems hyperactive.
How can you prevent a patient from fainting?
Tell the patient to sit down with his head up and tilted back breathing normally.
Tell the person to sit down and lean forward If standing in a crowd, Try to keep the person with the head between flex the leg muscles and in a standing position. the knees taking deep toes to aid circulation. breaths.
### The unconscious or recovery position should be used for a casualty who is breathing but unconscious. ### Why? ### What is the skin colour of a patient in shock? When acting as a watcher or lookout at a cargo hold and men below show signs of distress, what must you ### do?
To prevent the casualty To ease the pain of drowning in his own broken bones. vomit. Light blue. Dark blue. Try to rescue them yourself.
Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. snow) can cause damage to skin and eyes. What is this Radiation burn. ### type of burn called?
To correct for any spinal To minimize nose injury. bleeding. Pale or grey.
Green or purple.
Lower additional breathing equipment.
Raise the alarm immediately.
Don a B.A. set and enter the space.
Electrical burn.
Dry burn.
Cold burn.
Page 136
Your Answers
Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION
Answer A
Answer B
Answer C
Answer D
Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position. Why is this position so important?
This position ensures the heart keeps beating.
This position makes it easy to minimise any kind of bleeding.
This position ensures that an open airway is maintained.
This position prevents the patient from falling asleep.
When performing chest compressions, where on the casualty's body do you place your hands?
Place the heel of your hand on top of the heart position. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
Place the heel of one hand two finger Place the heel of your breadths above the two hands on the top of bottom of the the breastbone. breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
The position of your hands is not important.
After checking for open airway, giving the first 2 inflations and checking the pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what rate of inflations should be given ### until natural breathing is restored?
Doesn't matter how many times.
12-16 times per minute.
25-27 times per minute.
What is the rhythm of resuscitation should two first ### aiders use when working as a team?
3 compressions after every 1 inflation.
7 inflations before 5 compressions after every 5 compressions. every 1 inflation.
###
###
Gently flood the casualty's ear with An insect has become lodged in the ear. How should it warm water so that the ### be removed? insect floats out. The ABC rule is important for first aiders to know. What Airway - Breathing ### does ABC stands for? Communication. What blood alcohol level is permissible under U.S. ### legislation before it is defined as intoxication? 0.01%. When using a compress bandage, what shows that the Blue colour of the skin ### bandage might be too tight? above the bandage. ### Exposure to cold conditions may cause ..... hyperthermia.
### What is the Recovery Position?
The patient is seated in an up-right position and with the arms and legs arranged in order to keep this position stable.
10-12 times per minute.
10 compressions within every 3 inflations.
By using a rubber vacuum pump to suck the insect out. Attitude - Blood Communication.
Use a Q-tip and carefully try to get the insect out.
By using an ear bud and carefully try to get the insect out. Airway - Breathing Alcohol Blood Content. Circulation.
0.07%.
0.04%.
0.1%.
Swelling above the bandage. heat stroke.
Swelling above the bandage and strong pulsating pain. a heart attack.
Increase in heartbeat and dizzy feeling. hypothermia.
The patient is placed in a "face-to-the-floor" position with arms and legs arranged in order The patient is seated in to stabilize this a position with the head The patient is placed position. kept as low as possible. flat on a bed.
Page 137
Your Answers
Medical First Aid - Test
QUESTION
If a person is in shock, which of these is the correct ### thing to do?
Answer A
Answer B
Be kind to the patient and give him Apply hot-water bottles something to eat or to keep the patient drink at the first warm. opportunity.
Page 138
Answer C
Try and reassure the patient and stay with the person at all times.
Answer D
Move the patient to a place of safety.
Your Answers
Medical First Aid - Test
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