SETS 6000

What is the fastening device shown at the left side of the drawing ?

No. 1

>

A

A beam clamp.

B

An angle iron fastener.

C

A frame clamp.

D

A support fastener. Technical nomenclature

What is the measuring instrument shown on the left top ?

No. 2

>

A

An outside calliper.

B

An outside pipe calliper.

C

A Dornier calliper.

D

A Vernier calliper. Vernier caliper is the correct name

What is the accuracy of the measuring instrument shown on the top left ?

No. 3

>

A

1/10th to 1/20th millimetre

B

1/20th to 1/25th millimetre

C

0.1 to 0.5 millimetre

D

0.1 to 0.25 millimetre A vernier caliper has an accuracy of 0.1 to 0.05 mm , or 1/10 to 1/20th millimetres

Suppose you need to draw a circle of 186 mm diameter on metal or on a packing sheet. How would you do this using the compass shown top centre ?

No. 4

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A

Measure 186mm on packing, draw 2 lines through the centre.

B

Set opening of compass legs to 93 mm using a steel ruler.

C

Indicate straight line with points 0mm, 93mm and 186mm on packing.

D

Project first a hexagon on packing or steel plate. If you are to project a circle of "X" mm on a plane you are to adjust the opening of the compass legs at X : 2 'You do this by setting the leg opening on a steel ruler and actual adjustment is done by adjusting the screw on the side of the

What is the accuracy of a micrometer shown top right ?

No. 5

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A

0.1 to 0.2 millimetres.

B

0.1 to 0.5 millimetres.

C

0.01 to 0.005 millimetres.

D

0.05 to 0.01 millimetres. Option is correct. 0.01 to 0.005 mm corresponds to between 1/100 and 1/200th of one millimeter.

What is the measuring device shown at the bottom ?

No. 6

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A

A tracing instrument

B

A right angle plane tracer.

C

An angular tracer.

D

A 90 degree angle projector. Option is correct. It is used to project 90 degree lines in relation to the side of the metal against which the measuring device is held.

What is the measuring device shown in the top and what is it used for ?

No. 7

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A

A thread gauge. To measure thread size on bolts and studs.

B

A bolt thickness gauge. To measure the size of bolts.

C

Thread thickness gauge. Measure clearance of bolts and nuts.

D

Thread wear down gauge. Measures wear-down on bolts / nuts.

What measuring device is shown in the bottom left corner ?

No. 8

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Self explanatory. The thread patterns are held against the thread to see which one is matching.

A

A pipe calliper.

B

An inside tracer.

C

An adjustable inside calliper.

D

A bore calliper. This inside caliper can be fine-adjusted by adjusting the screw fitted on the side which will keep the outward force in check brought by the top spring blade. This type of caliper can be used with more accuracy than a simple two legged

What is the purpose of the calliper shown in the bottom left corner ?

No. 9

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A

Measuring piston ring gaps.

B

Measuring fuel pump lifts.

C

Measuring inside diameters of hydraulic pipes.

D

Measuring inside diameters or gaps. This is an adjustable INSIDE caliper. The spring blade on top forces the legs outward. By releasing the screw after the caliper is inserted in the bore or gap the legs will slide against the inner surface of the item which is to be

What is the measuring device shown in the right bottom corner ?

No. 10

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A

A flange calliper.

B

A pipe calliper.

C

An adjustable pipe calliper.

D

An adjustable outside calliper. This is an adjustable OUTSIDE caliper used to measure diameters or outside measurements. Its spring blade on top forces the legs outwards but the force is caught by the retaining screw.

How will the tool shown at the top be powered if it is to be used on tankers ?

No. 11

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A

By battery power, 12 Volt maximum.

B

By AC power 110 Volt, 60 Hz maximum.

C

By compressed air 8.5 kg/cm2 maximum.

D

By compressed air 3.5 kg/cm2 maximum. No flexible wiring or electric tools are allowed to be used outside the engine room on tankers. A powered tool is therefore to be driven by air or water. The air pressure is the ship's working air of 8.5 kg/cm2 maximum.

For what are RECOIL-LESS HAMMERS used ?

No. 12

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A

To assemble tight fitting parts.

B

To chisel deep grooves in metal.

C

To hammer on ring spanners.

D

To test the foundation bolts of engines. They are used in the assembly of tight fitting machinery or motor parts, e.g. to fit the end covers of an electric motor in place or to fit a tight sleeve on a shaft etc...They are usually lead shot hammers, their weight ensuring that there is no

What kind of tool is shown top left and for what is it used ?

No. 13

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A

A ratchet spanner / Used on main engine piston crowns.

B

A torque spanner / Used on foundation bolts.

C

A forged torque spanner / Used to hammer nuts.

D

A forged ring spanner / Used to be hammered by a sledgehammer.

What is the tool shown upper right ?

No. 14

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This is a forged ring spanner, intended for heavy duty, for hammering nuts loose or fast by using a sledgehammer or heavy hammer for smaller size nuts

A

A bearing cap-wrench.

B

A purifier assembly wrench.

C

An orifice removal wrench.

D

A hydrant wrench. This is a hydrant wrench. The pin is inserted in the round slot of the hydrant cap or in the round slot of ANY retaining cap and torque applied to open or to close as required. Used on hydrants, purifiers, telescopic piping etc.. They come in

What tool is shown bottom left and for what is it used ?

No. 15

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A

Articulated socket wrench/ Out of centre extension.

B

Square ratchet wrench / 45 degree out of line wrench.

C

Flexible socket spanner / For sunken nuts removal and fitting.

D

Flexible ratchet wrench / As extension for ratchets. This is the flexible out of centre handle of an articulated socket wrench.

What kind of tool is shown right bottom and into what does it fit ?

No. 16

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A

A bar wrench / It fits into exhaust gas pipe fastening bolts.

B

An angle wrench / It fits into cylinder cover plugs.

C

A socket bolt wrench / It fits into Allen Bolts (Allen keys).

D

A torque wrench / It fits over nuts. This is a socket bolt wrench or also called an "ALLEN" key. It fits into the heads of "ALLEN" bolts.

What kind of wrench is shown upper left ?

No. 17

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A

An adjustable spanner.

B

A spring wrench.

C

A Stillwell adjustable wrench.

D

A Stilson wrench. This is a STILSON wrench used to clamp and fasten on round or worn surfaces. It finds its grip and is self locking but leaves marks on the surface. Not to be used on nuts in good condition.

What kind of tool is shown upper right ?

No. 18

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A

A Stilson wrench.

B

A pipe wrench.

C

An adjustable nut wrench.

D

An adjustable vice grip wrench. This is an adjustable vice grip wrench. Used on piping or worn nuts etc.. The force applied to the surface by the claw is not in proportion to the torque applied as is the case with the Stilson wrench

What is the tool shown bottom left ?

No. 19

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A

A ratchet spanner.

B

A flexible ring spanner.

C

A forged flexible star-spanner

D

A torque ring spanner. This is a ratchet spanner. The ring is fitted inside a ratchet ring. It comes in various sizes (Spanner sizes are not interchangeable)

What kind of tool is shown top right ?

No. 20

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A

A star spanner, double forged.

B

A mechanic's spanner.

C

A common bolt spanner, double forged.

D

A double ended open jaw spanner. This is a double ended ring spanner preferably used on all easily access able nuts.

What is the tool shown top left ?

No. 21

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A

A flat mechanic's double spanner.

B

A double ended ring spanner.

C

A double flat spanner.

D

A forked double spanner This is a double ended open spanner, used where no space exists to use a ring spanner or where a ring spanner cannot be lifted over the nut or nipple.

What kind of tool is shown bottom left ? How can it be extended ?

No. 22

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A

A star spanner / Extended by torque bar.

B

An open spanner / Cannot be extended.

C

A double hexagon spanner / Extended by rod.

D

A single ended ring spanner / Extended by a pipe or tube.

Tools6a.BMP

An additional torque can be applied on this spanner by sliding a pipe over it to obtain extra leverage.

What kind of tool is shown bottom right bottom ?

No. 23

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A

A combined open ended spanner and socket wrench.

B

A flat ratchet spanner.

C

A socket wrench forked spanner.

D

A single ended forked ratchet wrench. This is a combination spanner. On one side is the spanner open ended, on the other side is it a socket wrench of the same size.

What kind of assembly does the upper left piece and the upper centre piece make ?

No. 24

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A

A socket wrench assembly.

B

A ratchet spanner.

C

A ratchet lever assembly.

D

A ratchet torque assembly. The socket wrench consists of the socket and the lever as shown.

What kind of tool is shown on the bottom left corner of the picture and when is it used ?

No. 25

>

A

A rod spanner / For cylinder cover tightening.

B

An extended spanner / When the nut is found frozen.

C

A hexagon fork spanner. / To apply extra force when tightening.

D

A pinchbar spanner / When there is no side space available. The pinch bar spanner is used when there is no space available on the side or around the nut where a conventional spanner cannot be used.

What kind of tool is shown bottom centre ?

No. 26

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A

An adjustable pocket spanner.

B

A pipe wrench.

C

A shifting spanner.

D

A Stilson wrench. This tool is a vice grip wrench. Force applied to the nut is not in proportion to the torque applied on the nut when loosening or tightening.

On what equipment should the wrench shown bottom right be used ?

No. 27

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A

On bolts and nuts.

B

On broken studs.

C

On large diameter pipes and shafts.

D

On electric motor couplings. A chain wrench is used to grip on the circumference of piping and rods, or other components that are circular.

The tools shown here are ................?

No. 28

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A

engineer's tools.

B

electrician's tools.

C

duty engineer's and watchkeeper's control room tools.

D

welder's tools. These are insulated handgrip tools and therefore Electrician's tools. The bolt and wire cutter shown on the bottom right of the drawing is standard outfit for your domestic home maintenance electrician, but is seldom

What is the tool shown top left called and by whom is it mostly used ?

No. 29

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A

Welding rod pliers / fitters and welders.

B

Manometer curved pliers / engineers.

C

Instrument long nose pliers / Automation and control engineers.

D

Curved long nose pliers / Electricians. The name indicates what is actually seen. A curved long nose pliers is for general use and not used by anybody specifically, however the long nose pliers shown in the picture have INSULATED hand grips, indicating that it is an

What is the tool shown top right and by whom is it used ?

No. 30

>

A

Combination pliers / For general use.

B

Electrician's pliers / By the electrician.

C

Mechanical pliers / By the engineers and fitters.

D

Flat nose pliers / By the electrician. As shown these pliers have flat noses and are called flat nose pliers. It is a tool for general use. However, the picture shows that the pliers have insulated handgrips and therefore it is an ELECTRICIAN'S tool. Most pliers of this type do not

What is the tool shown bottom left and by whom is it used ?

No. 31

>

A

Inside circlip pliers / By engineers.

B

Outside circlip pliers / By engineers.

C

Round point pliers / By electricians.

D

Eye nose pliers / By the electrician. These are round point pliers, a tool for general use. However on the tool shown there are the insulated handgrips, indicating that it is an electrician's tool.

What kind of tool is shown bottom left ? What is its use ?

No. 32

>

A

Mason's chisel / To break up cement boxes.

B

Blacksmith's chisel / To cut steel bars and rods.

C

Hot chisel / To cut bolts and nuts.

D

Cold chisel / A general purpose cutting and splitting tool. The cold chisel is a general purpose tool used for cutting and splitting any material softer than the nose of the chisel. The chisel nose is generally hardened.

If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylene pressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to what should they be connected ?

No. 33

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A

The oxygen and acetylene bottles.

B

Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.

C

Gas bottles depending the material to weld.

D

Safety valves. No Gas bottles are allowed to be stored in the engine room. If gas welding is available on board, the bottles are stored in a well ventilated open compartment venting to the upper deck and pipe lines with non-return valves are fitted leading

When igniting the welding torch, how would you proceed ?

No. 34

>

A

Open acetylene, ignite, than adjust flame with oxygen.

B

Open oxygen and acetylene, than ignite

C

Open acetylene, ignite, open oxygen than adjust flame

D

Ignite whilst controlling acetylene, open oxygen, adjust flame You are to control the acetylene whilst igniting. At all times you need your flame to be under control. Once there is a controlled acetylene flame you should open the oxygen, then adjust the flame to the desired intensity. Never open

What is the gas welding equipment shown right side ?

No. 35

>

A

A heavy duty welding torch.

B

A blow-by torch.

C

A cutting torch.

D

An illumination torch. This is a gas cutting torch. The purpose is to cut through steel. The lever on the lower part of the handle is to "blow" the hot metal during burning.

How should oxygen and acetylene bottles be transported. ?

No. 36

>

A

In a safety net, well secured..

B

In a special provided stand with clamps.

C

With the caps secured by gas-tight tape.

D

In an upright position. Regulations require gas bottles be transported in upright position.

Depending on the plate thickness to be cut you should increase ................?

No. 37

>

A

the acetylene flow.

B

the oxygen flow.

C

the oxygen and the acetylene flow.

D

the nozzle size. By increased capacity requirement (increased plate thickness) it is necessary to increase the nozzle capacity by using a bigger size nozzle in the cutting torch.

If you are welding in the workshop, you must ensure in advance that the bridge is told and that .....

No. 38

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A

the Chief Engineer is informed as well.

B

the emergency fire pump is started.

C

the fire extinguishers of the engine room platform are not expired.

D

the fire alarm for the workshop platform is switched off. The duty engineer is to be informed on all occasions, not the Chief engineer. The bridge is to be informed and the fire detection loop covering the workshop is switched off, as the fire alarm will be activated by the smoke produced, and

What is the function of this hydraulic stressing tool when fastening and unfastening bolts/nuts on an engine ?

No. 39

>

A

To fasten or unfasten the nut.

B

To press the part to be fastened together or down so that the nut can be tightened by hand.

C

To apply pressure on cylinder head or bearing so that the bolts/nuts can be tightened by hand.

D

To elongate the bolts at required stress value so that the nuts can be tightened to the position to ensure correct pre-tensioning.

The bolts or studs are elongated by pre-tensioning to the correct value and the nuts are tightened by hand and the hydraulic pressure released. This is the correct method for pre-tensioning.

The "scleroscope" is used to determining ...........

No. 40

>

A

the "hardness " of a metal..

B

the "thickness" of a metal.

C

the "brittleness" of a metal.

D

the existence of cracks in metal.

Which of these four screws is a fillister head screw ?

No. 41

>

A

No 1

B

No 2

C

No 3

D

No 4

What type of screw is No. 2 ?

No. 42

>

A

A hexagon head screw.

B

A button head screw.

C

A flat head screw.

D

A fillister head screw.

What type of screw is No. 3 ?

No. 43

>

A

A button head screw.

B

A hexagon head screw.

C

A fillister head screw.

D

A flat head screw.

What type of screw is No. 4 ?

No. 44

>

A

A hexagon head screw.

B

A fillister head screw.

C

A flat head screw.

D

A button head screw.

For cutting hard materials, metal saws with ............................... blades should be used ?

No. 45

>

A

large pitch.

B

small pitch.

C

sharp angle teeth.

D

dual angle teeth. Option is correct. Saws with small pitch must be used (8 teeth per cm of length). Also use a small pitch saw for cutting small strip objects, so that several teeth are cutting at the same time.

When starting to tap a hole, how is the process checked for perpendicularity?

No. 46

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A

By sighting.

B

By spirit level.

C

By try square.

D

By straight edge.

What general name is given to files which remove maximum metal in the shortest time?

No. 47

>

A

Single cut

B

Draw file.

C

Double cut.

D

Bastard.

The figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.2 ?

No. 48

>

.

A

Single bevel

B

Double bevel

C

Double V

D

Double U 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - See sketch

When fitting new bottom ends to a small diesel engine, the bottom end bolts have no locking devices. Which of the following should be fitted.

No. 49

>

A

Taper pins

B

Bifurcated taper pins

C

Parallel pins

D

Split pins 1.2.2.5 Screw Thread Fasteners - Use split pins which are used after drilling. The other devices require a reamed hole and, apart from B, would probably drop out during use.

The sketch shows the rollers for a pyramid rolling machine. Which is the idler?

No. 50

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.1.3.13 Forming - See sketch

What device is fitted to prevent component gases mixing in hoses?

No. 51

>

A

A relief vale.

B

A stop valve.

C

A by-pass valve.

D

A hose check valve. 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - i.e. Non-return valves.

The diagram shows four types of machine screws. Identify the cheese head screw.

No. 52

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.2.2.5 Screw Thread Fasteners - See diagram

Identify the powered hand tool No. 2 ?

No. 53

>

A

Drill

B

Grinder

C

Screwdriver

D

Input wrench 1.2.1.3 Powered Hand Tools - See sketch

Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic, How is this best heated prior to bending?

No. 54

>

A

Heat in an oven.

B

Heat in boiling water.

C

Flame heat.

D

Hot air stream. 1.1.3.14 Bonding Plastics - Heat for 20 minutes.

It is required to make a drip tray. What machine would be used?

No. 55

>

A

Powered brake press.

B

Rolling machine.

C

Hand operated folding machine.

D

Nibbler.

In readiness for use, a good scraper would have it's cutting edges?

No. 56

A

>

B

C

Honed Sand stoned Highly tempered

D

Polished Sand stoned Lightly tempered

A method of joining two plastics together is by solvent welding. What is this process?

No. 57

>

Ground Oil stoned Highly tempered Ground Oil stoned Lightly tempered

A

Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces.

B

Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined.

C

A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join.

D

A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join.

1.2.1.2 Hand Tools - It is necessary to keep the cutting edges very sharp. Hence, lightly tempered allows for finishing off after grinding with an oilstone.

When gas cutting a mild steel plate, what does the size of nozzle used depend upon?

No. 58

>

A

Thickness the of plate

B

The gases used

C

Impurities in the material

D

Gases remaining in the cylinder

The sketch shows a partially completed knocked up joint made from 0.5 mm plate. Which direction of bending completes the joint?

No. 59

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.1.3.4 Self Secured Joints - The right-hand overhang is knocked up against vertical. See sketch

.A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm steel plate. What edge preparation is required for No.2 ?

No. 60

>

A

None.

B

Single bevel Closed corner.

C

Double bevel closed corner.

D

Double U. 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - NB Will not give a square corner. See sketch

Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding in the workshop how is welding rendered safe?

No. 61

>

A

By respirator.

B

By extraction.

C

By ventilation.

D

By extractor welding gun. 1.1.3.5 Safety and Health when Welding - The good ventilation will ensure safe working practice.

Which set of equipment is required to mark out the keyway of a 30 mm diameter shaft?

No. 62

A

B

C

>

D

A blind hole in a valve casing requires to be tapped 12 mm. Which tap(s) would be used?

No. 63

>

Porthole glass Slip gauges Scriber Dial gauge Vee block Dividers Vernier protractor Polish flat bar Slip gauges Scriber Engineer's square Surface plate Vee block Vernier height gauge Dividers

A

Plug.

B

Second and plug.

C

Taper and plug.

D

Taper, second and plug. 1.2.1.2 Hand Tools - The taper would ensure squareness; the second, the thread had started; the plug that the thread goes to bottom of hole.

For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

No. 64

>

A

ad

B

ae

C

Db

D

af 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - Should be 0.707 of ab. See sketch

A crankcase weld requires detailed inspection while on passage. How would this be carried out?

No. 65

>

A

By x-ray.

B

Visually.

C

By dye penetrant.

D

By magnetic particle.

Which gas is NOT commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate?

No. 66

>

A

Propane.

B

Acetylene

C

Natural gas.

D

Helium.

.

When bonding together two metal components, what is the correct sequence?

No. 67

A

B

>

C

D

Clean and rough surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin. Apply to surfaces and Clamp together only when tacky.

1.2.1.7 Adhesives and Bonding - Glue line is 0.02 to 0.2 mm and curing time may be up to 12 hours.

When gas welding, which is the most likely cause of a serious accident?

No. 68

>

Clamp together. Add activator to epoxy resin. Apply to edges removing surplus. Add activator to epoxy resin. Clamp together. Add activator to epoxy resin. Clamp together. Clean and rough surfaces. Add activator to epoxy resin. Apply to surfaces and Clamp together.

A

Touching hot metal.

B

Flying sparks.

C

Leaving torch on floor.

D

Not extinguishing when finished. 1.1.3.5 Safety and Health when Welding - Always extinguish when not welding.

For the square pyramid float component shown, which is the correct development?

No. 69

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4

Which of the materials listed can be cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?

No. 70

>

A

Bronze.

B

Stainless steel.

C

Cast iron.

D

Mild steel.

What is the limiting factor of a visual inspection of a weld?

No. 71

>

A

There is none.

B

It will not show if penetration is correct.

C

It will not indicate blow holes.

D

It gives an indication only.

When working with bonded resins what is their useable pot life?

No. 72

>

A

2 to 3 minutes.

B

4 to 6 minutes.

C

9 to 10 minutes.

D

11 to 14 minutes.

What general name is given to files used for finishing?

No. 73

>

A

Single cut

B

Draw file.

C

Second cut.

D

Smooth.

Which column gives the correct factors for a clean cut edge preparation?

No. 74

>

A

B

C

D

Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Distance between plate and nozzle. Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Angle of nozzle to plate. Polished surface. Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Oversized nozzle. Pressure. Flame adjustment. Angle of nozzle to plate. Undersized nozzle. Polished surface. Which of the following size nominations is most commonly used?

No. 75

>

.

A

Actual size.

B

Basic size.

C

Nominal size.

D

Limit of size. 1.2.2.10 Limits and Fits - Often used to describe threads and pipes.

What is the plate thickness limit for hand-operated folding machines?

No. 76

>

A

2.5 mm

B

3.0 mm

C

3.5 mm

D

4.0 mm

Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causing an arc between itself and the metal to be cut?

No. 77

>

A

Electric arc cutting.

B

Molten arc cutting.

C

Arc cutting.

D

Plasma arc cutting.

A repair to a compressor requires a plate of the form illustrated to be designed. Which illustration is dimensioned to be the correct standard.

No. 78

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.2.2.9 Dimensioning - See sketch

The speed and feed for a 20 mm diameter reamer would be?

No. 79

>

A

Same as a drill.

B

75% less than a drill.

C

50% less than a drill.

D

25% less than a drill. 1.2.1.5 Drilling Machines - Usually less than 50% with copious supply of cutting fluid. Left hand spiral prevents cutting ahead of finish.

A scriber should not be used for marking out?

No. 80

>

A

When material is copper.

B

When material is to be bent.

C

When material is to be hot worked.

D

When material is plastic. 1.2.1.1 Marking Out lead to cracking.

Hoses are easily damaged and require special care for long life, but what are they reinforced with?

No. 81

>

- Scribing is metal removal and may

A

Canvas.

B

Cotton.

C

Nylon.

D

Wire. 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - Rubber and neoprene are soft.

The diagram shows four types of socket head screws. Identify the socket shoulder screw.

No. 82

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.2.2.5 Screw Thread Fasteners - See sketch

What dictates the size of drill hole required prior to cutting an internal thread?

No. 83

>

A

The core diameter.

B

The outside diameter.

C

The thread form.

D

The thread pitch.

When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used?

No. 84

A

>

B

C

D

Leather gloves Leather apron Safety boots Leather gloves Boiler suit Safety boots Welding helmet Leather gloves Leather apron Welding helmet Safety Boots Leather gloves Leather apron Boiler suit Breathing apparatus

Which of the following effects could be reduced if hand powered tools were used?

No. 85

A

>

B

C

D

What effect will an undersized vee width have on the form produced?

No. 86

>

A

Outside bend may fracture.

B

Inside bend may fracture.

C

Outside bend may be scuffed.

D

Inside bend may be polished.

Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder ?

No. 87

>

Over familiarity Use of safety glasses Tiredness Fatigue Loss of concentration Accidents Inaccurate work Distraction Use of hard hat Cramp Eye strain Injury to hands Tools correctly sharpened Loss of concentration Fatigue

A

170 bar right hand thread black colour.

B

170 bar right hand thread blue colour.

C

15 bar left hand thread maroon colour.

D

7.5 bar left hand thread red colour.

Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity?

No. 88

>

A

Cast iron.

B

Low carbon steel.

C

Medium carbon steel.

D

High carbon steel. 1.1.3.6 Principles of Electric Arc Welding - Porosity caused by oxidation of carbon.

When out of use temporarily, how should the workshop surface plate be stored?

No. 89

>

A

Covered with grease.

B

Covered with a wooden cover.

C

Wiped with an oiled rag.

D

Covered with a cloth sheet.

A 1.3 m long slot is to be marked off on the floor plate but only a 300 mm straight edge is available. How is this overcome?

No. 90

>

A

By using a cardboard template.

B

By using a piece of wood.

C

By using a length of tape.

D

By using a chalk line.

What is the softening temperature for PVC?

No. 91

>

A

100°C

B

105°C

C

110°C

D

115°C

Which type of examination reveals pin holes, slag inclusion and lack of fusion?

No. 92

>

A

Dye penetrant.

B

Visual.

C

Fluorescent penetrant.

D

Macroscopic.

What is a trammel used for?

No. 93

>

A

For cutting out joints

B

For scribing large circles

C

Substitute if dividers are unavailable

D

For marking off pipes 1.1.3.10 Plate work marking out - i.e. Larger than possible by dividers.

A frustrum of a hexagonal pyramid is shown. Which drawing goes to the left of the figure in third angle projection?

No. 94

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.2.2.2 Linework - See sketch

What is the effect of low pressure cutting oxygen?

No. 95

>

A

Combustion will not occur.

B

Melting point will not be reached.

C

The melt will not be blown out.

D

The cut will be ragged at edges. 1.1.3.11 Thermal Cutting - Oxidation is too slow.

The Vernier protractor gives an angular accuracy of?

No. 96

>

A

7 minutes of angle.

B

5 minutes of angle.

C

1 minute of angle.

D

3 minutes of angle. 1.2.1.4 Measurement - The main scale is marked 0 to 90° each way. It has 12 dividers occupying 23° of the main scale. ° one Vernier division = 23/12 = 1 11/12° i.e. 1/12 or 5' less than 2°

Dimensions are read from the bottom of the drawing but if this is not possible what is the next choice?

No. 97

>

A

Turn drawing clockwise 45. reading from RH side.

B

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from RH side.

C

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from LH side

D

Turn drawing clockwise reading from RH side 1.2.2.9 Dimensioning - Reading from right hand side.

After sharpening a twist drill, which points are the most important to check?

No. 98

A

B

>

C

D

When fitting a blade into a hacksaw, which direction should the teeth be pointing relative to the handle?

No. 99

>

Web size Rake angle Flank condition Land Overall length Chisel edge Helix angle Clearance angle Chisel edge angle Point angle Lip length Flute length Face of drill Ensure no rough grinding marks Lip length

A

Towards the handle.

B

Towards if blade is fitted at 90 degrees to normal

C

Towards if blade is fitted at 180 degrees to normal

D

Away from the handle.

1.2.1.5 Drilling Machines - The answers are all relevant otherwise errors will occur.

In the following gas flame temperatures, which is the oxy-acetylene?

No. 100

>

A

1880°C

B

2770°

C

2820°

D

3200°C 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - Most metals require a 50/50 mixture (neutral flame) for a successful weld.

During a plasma cutting process the workpiece was not totally penetrated. What would be the most likely problem?

No. 101

>

A

Speed of cut too high.

B

Speed of cut too low.

C

Current is too high.

D

Metal is too porous.

What is shown in No. 1 ?

No. 102

>

A

Small circle guide.

B

Roller guide.

C

Spade guide.

D

Radius bar. 1.1.3.11 Thermal Cutting - Attachment used with a straight edge for straight cuts. See sketch

How does the brake press differ from the other forming machines?

No. 103

>

A

Uses rollers

B

Uses male and female formers

C

Can pierce only

D

Can crop only

When using third angle projection, viewing the component from x, which drawing will be above the front elevation?

No. 104

>

A

A

B

B

C

C

D

D 1.2.2.2 Linework - See sketch

A flashback arrester has been triggered. Which is the correct sequence to follow after this event?

No. 105

A

B

>

C

D

Ascertain cause of activation Clean, if necessary Check equipment Clean, if necessary Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Ascertain cause of activation Ascertain cause of activation Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Clean, if necessary Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Clean, if necessary Ascertain cause of activation

1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - Always find out why it activated first.

When self-secured joints are to be made, which tool is most useful?

No. 106

>

A

A press.

B

A folder.

C

Tin snips.

D

A rubber headed hammer.

Which table best describes the flexible hacksaw blade?

No. 107

A

B

C

>

D

If a gas pressure gauge is over-pressured and bursts, what feature minimizes damage?

No. 108

>

Only teeth hardened Reasonably non-rigid Overheats unless liquid cooled Only teeth hardened Easily broken if misused Has a long life Reasonably non-rigid Only teeth hardened Easily broken if misused Reasonably non-rigid Overheats unless liquid cooled Only teeth hardened Reasonably non-rigid Not easily broken Has a long life

A

The flexible back.

B

A relief valve.

C

A bursting disc.

D

Auto shut off valve.

The sketch shows the two scales of a Vernier caliper. What degree of accuracy will a measurement have?

No. 109

>

A

0.01

B

0.02

C

0.03

D

0.04 1.2.1.4 Measurement - See sketch

When two pieces of metal at right- angles are welded together, what weld is used?

No. 110

>

A

Fillet

B

Butt

C

Bevel

D

Lap

What condition must exist in order to cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?

No. 111

>

A

Slow oxidation.

B

Rapid oxidation.

C

Slow temperature rise.

D

Low velocity jet.

Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for use in a low pressure system?

No. 112

>

A

The nozzle sizes are different.

B

The oxygen pressure differs.

C

The acetylene pressure differs.

D

Both gas pressures must be equal. 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - In low pressure system, acetylene supplied at low pressure and hence induction system needed.

The engine room workshop carries different types of hacksaw blades. Which blade should be used to cut sheet metal?

No. 113

>

A

Tooth pitch = 6/cm

B

Tooth pitch = 8/cm

C

Tooth pitch = 10/cm

D

Tooth pitch =14/cm

A centre punch has a 60° point for?

No. 114

>

A

Ease to see.

B

Use as scriber.

C

Long life.

D

Accurate marking.

What type of ball- bearing is shown in the illustration?

No. 115

>

A

Shallow groove.

B

Two-way thrust.

C

Heavy duty.

D

Deep groove.

If two pieces of metal are welded together while laying in the same plane, this is known as?

No. 116

>

A

A lap weld.

B

A corner weld.

C

A fillet weld.

D

A butt weld.

Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process, checking for:

No. 117

>

A

B

C

D

Fusion Undercutting Surface pin holes Fusion Undercutting Slag inclusion Excessive spatter Slag inclusion Fusion Undercutting Contour Undercutting Surface pin holes Fusion Continuous weld

In the system of limits and fits shown, on what basis has the drawing been made?

No. 118

>

A

Interference fits.

B

Shaft basis fits.

C

Hole bases fits.

D

Clearance fits. 1.2.2.10 Limits and Fits - See sketch

A white metal lined bearing is to be fitted on to a shaft. Which combination would be used?

No. 119

>

A

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.

B

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

C

Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

D

Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on bearing. 1.2.1.2 Hand Tools - The engineer's blue gives the high spots and these would be removed until an even distribution was apparent.

For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

No. 120

>

A

ab

B

ac

C

ad

D

de 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - Should be 0.707 of ab. See sketch

What is the greatest danger when working with sheet metal?

No. 121

>

A

Plate is too large.

B

Plate is too heavy.

C

Edges are sharp.

D

Space to manoeuvre is usually restricting. 1.1.3.13 Forming - Initially wear gloves. All finished components should be edge finished.

A flat chisel requires tempering; which temperature and colour is correct for this process?

No. 122

>

A

240°C dark straw.

B

250°C light brown.

C

260°C dark brown.

D

280°C purple.

Thick plates require a multi-run weld. Which type of runs are used?

No. 123

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - See sketch

Identify the powered hand tool in No. 1 ?

No. 124

>

A

Drill

B

Grinder

C

Screwdriver

D

Input wrench 1.2.1.3 Powered Hand Tools - See sketch

The square to round section shown requires a template. What forms the triangular base line from which the true lengths are obtained?

No. 125

>

A

ab a1

B

a1 a2

C

a2 ab

D

ax ab

How is the emergency stop button indented on workshop machinery, for example, the lathe?

No. 126

>

A

Large round head with light emitting diode insert.

B

Large round head painted green.

C

Large round head painted red.

D

Large round head painted yellow.

In electric arc welding, what purpose does the the electrode coating serve?

No. 127

>

A

B

C

D

Which of the four bearings shown provides positive location?

No. 128

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4

The figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.3 ?

No. 129

>

It provides a gas shield Reduces splatter Gives a stable arc Gives a variable arc Reduces splatter Tolerates poor welding Assists multi-runs Allows damp electrodes to be used Gives a stable arc Reduces slag inclusion Reduces Porosity Controls the metallurgical properties Assists penetration Tolerates poor welding Reduces splatter

A

Double U

B

Double bevel

C

Single bevel

D

Single U

All mechanical cutting devices have the same basic features. These are?

No. 130

>

A

One moving blade

B

One fixed blade

C

Two moving blades

D

One moving and one fixed blade

The engine room workshop has a bench shear. What is the maximum thickness of mild steel it will cut?

No. 131

>

A

1 mm

B

3 mm

C

5 mm

D

7 mm

For the cover shown, what length of plate is required?

No. 132

>

A

350.2 mm

B

348.4 mm

C

345.1 mm

D

343.7 mm 1.1.3.13 Forming - See sketch

How does a two-stage pressure regulator give precise control?

No. 133

>

A

Both stages are adjustable

B

First stage only is adjustable

C

Second stage only is adjustable

D

Automatical regulation of both stages. 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - Pressure drops from, say, 169 bar to 4 bar. Therefore, constant 4 bar regulated in 2nd stage to desired pressure.

When using a centre lathe what operation could a hacksaw be used for?

No. 134

>

A

Cutting off.

B

Shaping.

C

Cutting threads.

D

Removing burrs.

A chisel is refurbished and requires the cutting end to be tempered after hardening. How is this achieved?

No. 135

>

A

Heat to 230.C Quench in oil.

B

Heat to 280.C Quench in oil

C

Heat to 260.C Quench in water

D

Heat to 250.C Quench in water

In the following, which gives advantages only for adhesive bonding?

No. 136

>

A

Needs good surfaces/no protruding parts.

B

Poor electrical conductivity/may act as an insulator.

C

Toxic hazards/reduced galvanic action.

D

Weight reduction/may join thin sheet.

What is significant about the spring-back hacksaw blade?

No. 137

>

A

It can be bent into a circle over its length.

B

It is a compromise between the flexible and all-hard blade.

C

It is only available with a large tooth pitch.

D

It is only suitable for use in a power saw.

The drawing of an engine mechanism component gives some surfaces as angles. How would these angles be marked out?

No. 138

>

A

With a steel rule.

B

With dividers.

C

With odd leg callipers.

D

With a vernier protractor.

An acetylene welding cylinder is packed with charcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar by how many times will it absorb its own volume ?

No. 139

>

A

275 times

B

325 times

C

375 times

D

425 times 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - NB Discharge rate max = 1/5 of cylinder pressure/hour. Above, acetone will be discharged.

A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation is required for No.1 ?

No. 140

>

A

Double bevel 60°

B

Double bevel 45°

C

Single bevel 60°

D

Single bevel 45° 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - Gives a square corner (preparation angle 45°). See sketch

Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosity in a welded joint?

No. 141

A

>

B

C

D

Welding current too low. Speed of travel too fast. Incorrect electrode manipulation. Damp electrode coating. Damaged electrode coating. Too long an arc. Incorrect starting. Wrong electrode angle. Incorrect joint set up. Speed of travel too fast. Welding current too low. Welding current too high. Incorrect root gap. Incorrect electrode size. Dirty parent metal.

What feature of a good weld is indicated by No.4 ?

No. 142

>

A

Good penetration.

B

Blend with parent metal.

C

Contour even and regular.

D

Backing bar has been used. 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - See sketch

Mild steel plate 2 mm thick bent in vees would produce an approximate inside bend radius of?

No. 143

>

A

1.0 mm

B

1.5 mm

C

2.0 mm

D

2.5 mm 1.1.3.13 Forming - Radius equates to metal thickness.

What is the system called which gives explicit instructions on drawings which cannot be misinterpreted?

No. 144

>

A

Cumulative effect.

B

Geometrical tolerancing.

C

Limits and fits.

D

Tolerances.

When carrying out a repair using a bonded resin what precautions should be observed?

No. 145

>

A

Use gloves, do not smoke,use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

B

Use gloves, ensure below flash point of material, use brush and use safety goggles.

C

Use gloves, use stirrer, take care opening tins and use safety goggles.

D

Use gloves, use brush use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

Looking at the drawing, can this component be made?

No. 146

>

1.2.1.7 Adhesives and Bonding - Main protection is against dermatitis.

A

Yes.

B

No - material is not given.

C

No - scale is not given.

D

No - relevant dimensions are missing. 1.2.2.2 Linework - Dimensions for slot are missing.

Which is the preferred table to be checked to ensure a sound weld is produced during an arc welding process?

No. 147

A

>

B

C

D

Electrode Arc length Ambient Electrode Arc length Welding current Electrode angle Arc length Welding current Electrode angle Relative humidity Arc length Electrode angle Ambient temperature Relative humidity

What presents the greatest danger when sharpening a chisel on a grinding machine?

No. 148

>

A

Wrong grade of wheel.

B

Worn wheel.

C

Exsessive rest clearance.

D

Using too much force. 1.1.4.1 Safety - Chisel could be drawn into the gap.

When tempering a cold chisel, at which part of the chisel is the flame directed?

No. 149

>

A

The cutting edge.

B

The hammer end.

C

Mid-way.

D

The beginning of the tapered portion.

What may be done to improve the finished appearance of a self-secured joint?

No. 150

>

A

Caulk.

B

Solder.

C

Burnish.

D

Fit edging wire. 1.1.3.4 Self Secured Joints - Applied along the outer edges

What special care do an engineer's dividers need :

No. 151

>

A

Keep oiled.

B

Keep screw thread clean.

C

Always use same leg in centre pop.

D

Protect points when not in use. 2.1.1.1 Marking out - These are all important for efficient use.

Thermoplastic type adhesives soften when subject to heat, are fusible and soluble. They are not suitable for?

No. 152

>

A

Leather.

B

Wood.

C

Aluminium.

D

Fabrics. 1.2.1.7 Adhesives and Bonding

The ventilation trunk shown goes from square to round section. What does its development look like?

No. 153

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4

To make a single grooved seam from 1 mm plate, in what order would the following operations be carried out?

No. 154

A

B

C

>

D

A

Makes machining easier.

B

Improves positional accuracy.

C

Reduces the marking out time.

D

Ignores conventions.

What is the attachment shown in No. 2 ?

No. 156

>

1.1.3.4 Self Secured Joints - A grooving tool is used to complete the joint.

In the method of datum dimensioning (sometimes known as parallel dimensioning), what is the advantage over conventional dimensioning?

No. 155

>

Set to thickness Hook together Fold Fold Hook together Flatten Set to thickness Flatten Set to thickness Fold Hook together Fold Set to thickness Hook together Flatten

A

Small circle guide.

B

Roller guide.

C

Spade guide.

D

Radius bar. 1.1.3.11 Thermal Cutting - Used for straight or curved cuts. See sketch

The safety features for a welded acetylene gas cylinder are?

No. 157

>

A

Spring load relief valve.

B

Bursting discs.

C

Fusible plugs.

D

Gas loaded relief valves. 1.1.3.7 Principles of Gas Welding - On back of cylinder valve. Alternatively, may have two fusible plugs.

The sketch shows the configuration of a pinch bending roll. How does this operate?

No. 158

>

A

Roller No. 2 rises

B

Roller No. 1 is lower

C

Rollers No. 2 and No. 3 rise

D

Roller No. 3 rises 1.1.3.13 Forming - See sketch

A short box girder is fabricated from 18 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation is necessary for No.3 ?

No. 159

>

A

Double bevel

B

Single bevel

C

None

D

Single U 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - Gives a square corner (preparation angle 60°). See sketch

A component with a working temperature of 325°C is to be joined using epoxy resin. Which of the following is suitable?

No. 160

>

A

Epoxy silicone.

B

Epoxy phenolic.

C

Epoxy nitrile.

D

Phenolic nitrile. 1.2.1.7 Adhesives and Bonding - Tolerate temperatures up to 350°C

The figures show welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No. 1 ?

No. 161

>

A

Single V

B

Double V

C

Double U

D

None 1.1.3.8 Welded Joints and Common Faults - See sketch

Prior to welding, plate edges are prepared to?

No. 162

>

A

Allow filler to the flow.

B

Give economical use of the filler.

C

Give a flat surface to the filler.

D

Allow maximum penetration of the filler.

Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon and a non-consumable electrode?

No. 163

>

A

Gas metal arc.

B

Metal inert gas.

C

Manual metal arc.

D

Tungsten inert gas.

For a particular welding arrangement, the decision is to use a manifold system. Why would this be chosen?

No. 164

>

A

Because of the long time span of welding

B

The discharge rate is too high from single bottle

C

Better stability when using large bore nozzles

D

Cost - two cylindersare cheaper than one

Plates of less than 6 mm thickness (T) have no edge preparation but what ratio of (T) is the gap?

No. 165

>

A

T/6

B

T/4

C

T/2

D

T/1

When tempering use is made of the microscopic oxide film formed on the surface, in what sequence does change occur?

No. 166

>

A

B

C

D

A 90°centre punch is specifically designed to?

No. 167

>

Straw Brown Purple Straw Purple Blue Brown Brown Purple Blue Straw Purple Straw Brown Blue

A

Act as a pin punch.

B

Pop mark for drilling.

C

To scribe.

D

Give long life. 1.2.1.1 Marking Out

Given a set of odd-leg calipers and a small cork, what use is the cork?

No. 168

>

A

Cork is used as centre when marking out.

B

Cork is to protect the point.

C

Cork has the same properties as silica gel and prevents corrosion.

D

Cork is a sales gimmick.

- Previous indent a 60° pop mark.

In the sketches, which view is incomplete?

No. 169

>

A

No.1

B

No.2

C

No.3

D

No.4 1.2.2.2 Linework - See sketch

If a view is projected in a direction which is not horizontal or vertical, what name is given to the view?

No. 170

>

A

An auxiliary view.

B

An isometric view.

C

An elevated view.

D

A pictorial view.

Sketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What is control No. 1 used for?

No. 171

>

A

Acetylene control.

B

Pre-heat oxygen.

C

Mixing gases.

D

Cutting oxygen. 1.1.3.11 Thermal Cutting - See sketch

What does the geometrical tolerancing shown in the drawing refer to?

No. 172

>

A

Flatness.

B

Roundness.

C

Screw thread.

D

Squareness. 1.2.2.11 Geometrical Tolerancing - See sketch

What is the maximum number of 50 W bulbs you would recommend to be connected to a 220 V outlet fused with a 10 A fast blowing fuse?

No. 173

>

A

20

B

46

C

44

D

22

What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter ?

No. 174

>

A

Between 200 and 300 Volts

B

Between 200 and 500 Volts

C

Between 500 and 800 Volts

D

Between 250 and 1000 Volts

Which of the following statements is correct?

No. 175

>

A

The resistance of a human body increases in a humid atmosphere.

B

The resistance of a human body is unaffected by humidity.

C

The resistance of a human body decreases if the applied voltage is increased.

D

The resistance of a human body is unaffected by applied voltage.

What is the normal resistance of the human body?

No. 176

>

A

4,000 Ohms at 25 Volt

B

5,000 Ohms at 25 Volt

C

2,000 Ohms at 25 Volt

D

5,000 Ohms at any voltage

Can a current as low as 25mA kill a human being?

No. 177

>

A

Yes, but only if applied for a long period.

B

Yes, but only if the applied voltage is high enough.

C

Yes, but only from an AC source.

D

No, not a fit healthy person.

How many ohms make one megohm?

No. 178

>

A

100,000

B

1,000,000

C

1,000

D

10,000,000

Express 125mA in amperes?

No. 179

>

A

0.00125 A

B

1.25 A

C

0.125 A

D

0.0125 A

A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "insulated neutral" type. What does this means?

No. 180

>

A

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator.

B

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull.

C

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220V distribution system.

D

The system does not have a neutral point.

How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system ?

No. 181

>

A

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow.

B

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow.

C

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage.

D

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance.

What is the purpose of a preference load tripping system ?

No. 182

>

A

To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can cause damage.

B

To re-connect essential equipment after a black out.

C

To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.

D

To trip a generator if the load becomes too large.

What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the generator main bus-bars?

No. 183

>

A

To measure the generator output voltage

B

To measure the generator output current

C

To measure the temperature of the bus-bar

D

To prevent bus-bar overload

What will happen if the connections between an ammeter and an instrument transformer located on the generator main bus-bars are disconnected ?

No. 184

>

A

The ammeter will go to zero.

B

The ammeter will go to maximum.

C

The ammeter will read zero and the instrument transformer will quickly become over heated.

D

Nothing will happen.

What does the symbol in the diagram show?

No. 185

>

A

A PNP transistor.

B

A thyristor.

C

A NPN transistor.

D

A double pole transistor.

What does the symbol in the diagram show?

No. 186

>

A

A zener diode

B

A thyristor

C

A bridge rectifier

D

A diode

NPN.bmp

What does the symbol in the diagram show?

No. 187

>

A

A zener transistor.

B

A rectification diode.

C

A zener diode.

D

A regulating diode.

What can the component showed in the picture be used for?

No. 188

>

A

As a frequency stabiliser.

B

As a voltage stabiliser.

C

As a temperature stabiliser.

D

As a light emitter.

What does the symbol show?

No. 189

>

A

A light absorber.

B

A light emitting diode.

C

A heat absorber.

D

A heat measurer.

What does the symbol in the diagram show?

No. 190

>

A

A circuit that is connected to a DC source.

B

A circuit that is not allowed to be earthed.

C

A circuit that is connected to earth.

D

A circuit that is connected to earth if a short circuit occurs.

What does the symbol in the picture show?

No. 191

AA

capacitor

C

An AC power supply

D

A switch

What does this symbol show?

No. 192

>

A

An OR gate.

B

A NOR gate.

C

A NAND gate.

D

An AND gate.

What does the symbol in the picture show?

No. 193

>

A

An OR gate.

B

A NOR gate.

C

A NAND gate.

D

An AND gate.

What does the symbol in the picture show?

No. 194

>

A

A double amplifier.

B

A latch.

C

A lock amplifier.

D

A latch rectifier.

What is the total resistance of the three resistors shown in the diagram?

No. 195

>

A

150 Ohm

B

250 Ohm

C

300 Ohm

D

200 Ohm

What will the total resistance of the four resistors shown in the diagram?

No. 196

>

A

200 Ohm

B

250 Ohm

C

300 Ohm

D

400 Ohm

Calculate the current "I" in the diagram?

No. 197

>

A

100 mA.

B

0.01mA.

C

1.0 A.

D

0.01 A.

What is the total resistance of the two resistors shown in the diagram?

No. 198

>

A

400

B

300

C

200

D

100

What resistance does RS have to be for the combined resistance of the circuit to be 50 Ohm?

No. 199

>

A

100 Ohm

B

200 Ohm

C

20 Ohm

D

50 Ohm

What is the function of the circuit shown in the diagram?

No. 200

>

A

A full wave rectifier.

B

A half wave rectifier.

C

A zero point meter.

D

A transformer balance adjuster.

From the sample diagrams shown, choose the correct voltage waveform measured across the load.

No. 201

>

A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

What is the symbol in the picture show?

No. 202

>

A

A NPN diode.

B

A PNP diode.

C

A PNP transistor.

D

A NPN transistor.

Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor ?

No. 203

>

A

Copper.

B

Brass.

C

Silver.

D

Steel.

An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400 W. What is the resistance of the heater?

No. 204

>

A

220 Ohm

B

11 Ohm

C

22 Ohm

D

110 Ohm

Two electrical heaters both marked 220 Volt and 2200 W are connected in series to a 220 Volt supply with a 10 A fuse. What will happen?

No. 205

>

A

The fuse will blow.

B

The heaters will produce twice their normal heat output.

C

The heaters will produce half of their normal heat output.

D

The heaters will be damaged as the voltage is different from their marked voltage.

When is it necessary to take into the consideration the internal resistance of a multi-meter?

No. 206

>

A

When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very high.

B

When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very low.

C

When the frequency of the circuit become very high.

D

It is not necessary to consider multi-meter resistance.

Which of the following components can be used as an voltage stabiliser?

No. 207

>

A

A coil.

B

A PNP transistor.

C

A zener diode.

D

An OR gate.

In the diagram, if E is set to 15 Volt, Uz will be 12 Volt. What will Uz become if E is increased to 20 Volt?

No. 208

>

A

17 Volt

B

16 Volt

C

12 Volt

D

20 Volt

What is the circuit shown here used for?

No. 209

>

A

As an amplifier.

B

As an rectifier.

C

As a voltage regulator.

D

To measure a DC current.

Choose the correct Boolean equation for the circuit shown.

No. 210

>

A

E = ((A*B) + (C*D))

B

E = ((A+B) + (C*D))

C

E = ((A+B) * (C+D))

D

E = ((A*B) * (C*D))

circ07.bmp

Choose the correct Boolean equation for the circuit shown.

No. 211

>

A

E =((A+B) * (C+D))

B

E =((A*B) * (C*D))

C

E =((A+B) + (C+D))

D

E =((A*B) * (C+D))

What is component X called ?

No. 212

>

A

A converter.

B

An integrator.

C

An invertor.

D

A rectifier.

What does the symbol in the diagram show?

No. 213

>

A

The windings of a three pole DC shunt motor.

B

The windings of a three phase AC " Y " connected motor with earthed neutral.

C

The windings of a three pool DC " Y " connected motor.

D

The windings of a three phase " D " connected motor.

What does this symbol show ?

No. 214

>

A

A three phase "Delta" connected motor.

B

A three phase DC connected motor.

C

A three phase " Y " connected motor.

D

A three phase compound AC motor.

What is the purpose of the circuit shown in the diagram ?

No. 215

>

A

To light the lamp when the coil is de-activated.

B

To operate the relay coil A with buttons 1 and 2.

C

To prevent relay coil A becoming over-heated.

D

To change direction of the motor connected to coil A.

Choose the correct Boolean expression for the output at D.

No. 216

>

A

D = A+ B + C

B

D = A + (B * C)

C

D=A*B*C

D

D = A - (B * C)

Which formula gives the correct Boolean expression for the component shown?

No. 217

>

A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

Which option gives the correct output for the gate shown?

No. 218

>

A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

Which option gives the correct output for the gate shown?

No. 219

>

A

1

B

2

C

3

D

4

Which option gives the correct output at A ?

No. 220

>

A

0 minus 1

B

0

C

0 times 0

D

1

What will happen when switch D is closed?

No. 221

>

A

Relay A will activate.

B

Lamp E will de-activate.

C

Relay B will de-activate.

D

Lamp E will activate.

What conditions are needed for relay A to be activated ?

No. 222

>

A

Relay B activated and switch F closed.

B

B de-activated and switch F and G closed.

C

Switch G open and relay B activated.

D

Switch F closed and relay B activated.

How can lamp E be turned on?

No. 223

>

A

By closing switch D.

B

By closing switch C.

C

By closing switch D and switch F at the same time.

D

Lamp E cannot be turned on.

How will coil C be activated ?

No. 224

>

A

When both D and E are closed.

B

When D, E and F are closed.

C

When E and A are closed.

D

When A and B are closed and either D or E are closed.

When will coil C be activated ?

No. 225

>

A

When E is closed and D is open.

B

When E is closed and relay F activated.

C

When relay F is activated.

D

When A and B is closed and D is open.

What does the symbol "A" represent?

No. 226

>

A

A differential amplifier.

B

An operational amplifier.

C

A summing amplifier.

D

A flip-flop amplifier.

What is the function of the circuit shown here?

No. 227

>

A

A digital summarizer.

B

A summing operational amplifier.

C

An integrating operational amplifier.

D

A differential amplifier.

What is the purpose of the circuit shown here?

No. 228

>

A

To measure low frequent current.

B

To measure the resistance of RL.

C

To measure voltage E.

D

To calibrate resistance Rv.

If the resistances RL and Rv are equal, what will be the voltage Vm? (Assume R1 = R2)

No. 229

>

A

E divided by R1 + R2

B

E = Vm

C

(R1*R2) + (RV*RL)

D

Zero

What does the symbol shown here represent ?

No. 230

>

A

An American standard NAND gate.

B

A European standard AND gate.

C

A European standard NAND gate.

D

An American standard NOR gate.

What does the symbol shown here represent ?

No. 231

>

A

An American standard invertor.

B

A European standard converter.

C

An American standard NOR gate.

D

A European standard OR gate.

What does this symbol represent ?

No. 232

>

A

A European standard NOR gate.

B

An American standard NAND gate.

C

A European standard NAND gate.

D

An American standard NOT gate.

What does this symbol represent ?

No. 233

>

A

An American standard AND gate.

B

A European standard AND gate.

C

An American standard NOR gate.

D

A European standard NAND gate.

What will be the output " A " in this circuit?

No. 234

>

A

0

B

0+0

C

1*0

D

1

What will be the output " A " in this circuit?

No. 235

>

A

1

B

0

C

1+1

D

inverted

The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid battery for the emergency generator is found to be 1.250. What action would you take?

No. 236

>

A

Top up with water.

B

Refresh with the addition of new acid.

C

Check the charging system and if possible increase the charging rate.

D

No action is required.

Complete the sentence. Ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system because....

No. 237

>

A

it limits fault current.

B

an earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and circuit breakers to trip.

C

it reduces cable size.

D

it reduces switch gear ratings.

What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature?

No. 238

>

A

A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.

B

A T802 (Thermistor) probe.

C

A NiCr/NiAl -type K (Thermocouple) probe.

D

A mercury thermometer probe.

Why should an electronic digital meter be used to measure voltage in electronic circuits?

No. 239

>

A

Because it's easier to read.

B

Because it's not affected by interference.

C

Because the voltage for electronic circuits can only be sensed by an electronic meter.

D

Because the input resistance of the meter is high enough not to affect the circuit under test.

What type of electrolyte is used in a nickel cadmium battery?

No. 240

>

A

Dilute sulphuric acid.

B

Distilled water.

C

Potassium hydroxide solution.

D

Dilute hydrochloric acid.

In the "Ward/Leonard" method of DC motor speed control, how is the motor direction changed?

No. 241

>

A

Reversal of generator polarity.

B

Reversal of motor field polarity.

C

By reversal of the rotation of the generator

D

By switching the motor armature connections

A flat lead acid battery can be revived by.....

No. 242

>

A

Filling with dilute sulphuric acid and trickle charging.

B

Adding "battery restorer".

C

Adding distilled water.

D

Trickle charging.

Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs as a result of:

No. 243

>

A

Lack of trickle charging.

B

Incomplete charging.

C

Heavy discharging.

D

Fast charging.

What safety protection measure should be taken when connecting a multimeter to an unknown voltage source?

No. 244

>

A

Set the multimeter to DC.

B

Set the multimeter to AC.

C

Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range.

D

Set the multimeter to DC and highest voltage range.

Which of the four alternatives shown gives the correct voltage output across component C when a step change in voltage is applied to the circuit?

No. 245

>

A

A

B

B

C

C

D

D

Which of the four alternatives shown gives the correct voltage output across component L when a step change in voltage is applied to the circuit?

No. 246

>

A

A

B

B

C

C

D

D

circ32.bmp

What is a diode?

No. 247

>

A

A conductor.

B

A semi-conductor.

C

An insulator.

D

A part conductor.

Which two symbols in boxes A to D have the same function ?

No. 248

>

A

A

B

B

C

C

D

D

The state of charge of a lead acid battery is best indicated by......

No. 249

>

A

its ampere hour capacity.

B

an individual cell voltage.

C

its total cell voltage.

D

the specific gravity of the electrolyte.

The basic unit of measurement of inductance is the......

No. 250

>

A

Ohm

B

Henry

C

Farad

D

Coulomb

Battery rooms must be ventilated because it......

No. 251

>

A

prevents sulphation during discharge.

B

supplies oxygen.

C

dissipates explosive gases.

D

prevents formation of moisture and condensation.

What kind of values can change continuously? Pressure and temperature are examples.

No. 252

>

A

Digital values.

B

Humpless values.

C

Binary values.

D

Analog values.

Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction ?

No. 253

>

A

A rectifier.

B

A transistor.

C

A transformer.

D

A rheostat.

What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases ?

No. 254

>

A

The current decreases.

B

The current increases.

C

The current remains the same.

D

The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.

Electric current is defined as the flow of electrons through a conductor. This is measured as.....

No. 255

>

A

Voltage.

B

resistance.

C

inductance.

D

amperage.

One kilo-watt is equal to......

No. 256

>

A

1.25 horse power.

B

1.34 horse power.

C

1.50 horse power.

D

2.00 horse power.

A horse-shoe magnet has ...........

No. 257

>

A

3 poles.

B

4 poles.

C

2 poles.

D

no poles.

What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal ?

No. 258

>

A

A transducer.

B

A reducer.

C

A transformer.

D

A pressure rectifier.

A micro-processor is:

No. 259

>

A

another name for a computer.

B

a CPU integrated circuit.

C

another name for a calculator.

D

a computer's random memory.

What is the purpose of the capacitors used across the output of a DC power supply ?

No. 260

>

A

They act as a permanent load.

B

They prevent overload.

C

They filter out ripple.

D

They increase the output frequency.

The resistance in a wire decreases if ..............

No. 261

>

A

the temperature of the wire increases.

B

the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.

C

the length of the wire increases.

D

the applied voltage decreases.

Which of these materials can be used to insulate magnetic flux ?

No. 262

>

A

Ceramic.

B

Rubber.

C

None of these.

D

Porcelain.

What is the main difference between a relay and a contactor ?

No. 263

>

A

A contactor is designed to handle heavier loads.

B

A relay is series connected but a contactor is parallel connected.

C

A contactor is series connected but a relay is parallel connected.

D

A relay can only operate with DC voltage but a contactor can operate with both DC and AC.

Voltage multiplied by current equals......

No. 264

>

A

resistance.

B

capacity.

C

power.

D

efficiency.

If the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant, the current will be ..........

No. 265

>

A

doubled.

B

halved.

C

remain the same.

D

quadrupled.

What is the voltage across A and B?

No. 266

>

A

6 volts

B

18 volts

C

24 volts

D

12 volts

What is the voltage across A and B?

No. 267

>

A

6 volts

B

12 volts

C

18 volts

D

- 6 volts

What is the current I3?

No. 268

>

A

I1 - I2

B

I1

C

I1 + I2

D

I2

This diagram shows the characteristics of a......

No. 269

>

A

transistor.

B

capacitor.

C

diode.

D

rectifier.

This diagram shows the characteristics of a .....

No. 270

>

A

diode.

B

transistor.

C

zener diode.

D

thyristor.

This symbol represents a .....

No. 271

>

A

PNP transistor.

B

field effect transistor.

C

thyristor.

D

diac.

This drawing shows the structure of a .........

No. 272

>

A

FET transistor.

B

diode.

C

bipolar transistor.

D

light activated SRC.

This drawing shows the structure of a .....

No. 273

>

A

PNP transistor.

B

flip-flop gate.

C

thyristor.

D

zener diode.

What is component number 2?

No. 274

>

A

A thyristor.

B

A diac.

C

A triac.

D

A FET transistor.

What is component number 3?

No. 275

>

A

A junction diode.

B

A diac.

C

A triac.

D

a FET transistor.

What is the function of component number 1?

No. 276

>

A

To regulate the capacity over the triac.

B

To lower the inductance across resistance RL.

C

To regulate the firing of the diac diode.

D

To limit the voltage across resistance RL.

What is this circuit used for ?

No. 277

>

A

To test the back firing of the triac.

B

To test the opening voltage across the diac.

C

To regulate the power across resistance RL.

D

To regulate the voltage across component number 3.

An ideal operational amplifier is characterised by ...........

No. 278

>

A

infinite input impedance.

B

zero output impedance.

C

infinite bandwidth.

D

all the other options.

Which of the following statements is most correct for a resistor ?

No. 279

>

A

An increase in temperature varies the resistance.

B

An increase in temperature has no effect on resistance.

C

An increase in temperature decreases resistance.

D

An increase in temperature increases resistance.

TTL is the abbreviation for a family of .....

No. 280

>

A

Integrated analog circuits.

B

Integrated digital circuits.

C

Integrated amplifying circuits.

D

Integrated differential circuits.

A triac circuit is used to regulate the brightness of a 220 V 60W bulb. What is the advantage of this circuit ?

No. 281

>

A

The power losses are almost zero.

B

The bulb will give about 10% more light.

C

The bulb will last about 30% longer.

D

The bulb will produce 30% less heat.

What is this component shown called ?

No. 282

>

A

An integrated rectifier.

B

A diode.

C

A transistor.

D

A capacitor.

What is the purpose of the lines on this component ?

No. 283

>

A

To identify the type of component.

B

To indicate the resistance and the resistance variance of the component.

C

To indicate the resistance of the component.

D

To indicate the maximum inductance which can be applied.

What type of component is this ?

No. 284

>

A

A resistor.

B

A capacitor.

C

A variable resistor.

D

A diode.

What is the name and application of this component ?

No. 285

>

A

A transistor for high power.

B

A high frequency diode.

C

A diode for high power applications.

D

A diode for light emitting applications.

pict39.bmp

What is the name of this component ?

No. 286

>

A

A high power diode.

B

A low power diode.

C

A high power transistor.

D

A high power half-wave rectifier.

Which statement is correct ?

No. 287

>

A

The TTL family of integrated circuits consume less current than the CMOS family of integrated circuits.

B

A CMOS integrated circuit is a non-digital switching system.

C

A TTL integrated circuit has a low processing speed.

D

The CMOS family of integrated circuits consume less current than the TTL family of integrated circuits.

What is the normal operating voltage of a TTL circuit ?

No. 288

>

A

12 volts

B

5 volts

C

8 volts

D

24 volts

What is this component ?

No. 289

>

A

An NPN transistor.

B

A P channel junction transistor.

C

An N channel junction transistor.

D

A PNP transistor.

What is this component ?

No. 290

>

A

A P channel junction transistor.

B

A P channel diode.

C

An NPN transistor.

D

An N channel junction transistor.

Which of the two transformers will provide an electrically insulated voltage E2 from the source voltage E1 ?

No. 291

>

A

Number 1.

B

Number 2.

C

Neither.

D

Both.

Which of the two transformers can be used for regulating the size of voltage E2 ?

No. 292

>

A

Number 1.

B

Number 2.

C

Both.

D

Neither.

Which of the two transformers are safer for regulating the voltage E2 in order to avoid electrocuting ?

No. 293

>

A

Number 1.

B

Number2.

C

Both the same.

D

Neither.

In both circuits Voltage E is the same and all resistors R have the same value. In which circuit will the current be greater?

No. 294

>

A

Circuit 1

B

Circuit 2

C

Both circuits will have the same current value.

D

The currents will be the same but the Voltage will be higher in 1.

Voltage form number 2 represents the output from a DIAC in a DIAC/TRIAC voltage regulator. What is the voltage used for ?

No. 295

>

A

To close the TRIAC.

B

To fire a light diode.

C

To fire the TRIAC.

D

To reverse the TRIAC voltage.

The pressostat shown in the picture controls the cut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the pump's electric motor would this be connected ?

No. 296

>

A

The main contactor.

B

The timer.

C

An auxiliary relay.

D

An overload relay.

P381ABCD.BMP

Of course not to the main contactor, the pressostat can withstand little current, There is no timer fitted for starting cut-in/cut-out pumps. Also certainly not to the overload. Option is correct.

What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here ?

No. 297

>

A

Pressure to open contact.

B

Pressure to close contact.

C

Pressure to cross-connect contact.

D

Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how it is connected.

The terminal (item 4) of the pressostat has 3 connections. Between 1-2, also between 2=3. We can choose to connect normal close or normal open or both. When the pressostat reaches its switch setting by a given pressure it will reverse

In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, in what location is the BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the supply terminals ?

No. 298

>

A

Between points 3 and 4.

B

Between points 5 and 6.

C

Between points 7 and 8.

D

Between points 9 and 1.

Electc1a.BMP

Between points 9 and 1 so that the ballast will be in SERIES with the operating lamp and keeps its current restricted.

Between which points on this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp is the STARTER fitted ?

No. 299

>

A

Between points 3 and 4.

B

Between points 5 and 6.

C

Between points 7 and 8.

D

Between points 9 and 1. The starter is fitted between points 5 and 6 so that on interruption of contact in the starter a high voltage is produced on the end fittings of the lamp.

In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, through which points is the electric current absorbed by the lamp during NORMAL operation (lighting)?

No. 300

>

A

Through points 3 and 4.

B

Through points 5 and 6.

C

Through points 7 and 8.

D

Through points 3 and 8. Through points 3 and 8 Points 4 and 7 are under the same TENSION as points 3 and 8, but the current flowing trough the lamp does not pass these points.

What is item No 11 called, shown here in this fluorescent lamp assembly ?

No. 301

>

A

The starting box or switching box.

B

The base.

C

The lamp fitting or holder.

D

The lamp body or lamp box. This is the base or the armature of the lamp. The name BASE is used when the lamp is not covered or has no shade. If the lamp has a cover or shade, we call it an armature.

What is shown by item No 3 on this electric motor ?

No. 302

>

A

Shaft sleeves.

B

Ball bearings.

C

Dust throwers.

D

Seals. These are the motor ball bearings

What is shown by item No 5 on this electric motor ?

No. 303

>

A

The outer casing.

B

The ventilation air passage grids.

C

The motor cover.

D

The inspection plates. These are the ventilation passage grids, inlet on one side, outlet on the other side.

A battery of dry cells consists of 8 cells connected in series. Each cell has an E.M.F. of 1.5 Volt and an internal resistance of 0.5 Ohm. If the cells are connected to a resistance of 1.2 Ohm, what current flows ?

No. 304

>

A

1.8 Ampere

B

2.3 Ampere

C

2.8 Ampere

D

3.1 Ampere Total EMF = 8 x 1.5 = 12 Volt. Total resistance = (8x 0.5)+ 1.2 = 5.2 Ohm. Current is 12 divided by 5.2 is 2.3 Ampere

What is the resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt ?

No. 305

>

A

24.2 Ohm

B

9.09 Ohm

C

44 Ohm

D

11 Ohm The current absorbed by the element is 2000 divided by 220 = 9.09 Ampere. The resistance is 220 divided by 9.09 = 24.2 Ohm

Determine the resistance of three resistors connected in STAR in a resistance box with 3 terminals? Resistance AB = 20 Ohm, resistance BC = 30 Ohm, resistance CA = 40 Ohm.

No. 306

>

A

R1 = 15 Ohm, R2 = 5 Ohm, R3 = 25 Ohm

B

R1 = 10 Ohm, R2 = 18 Ohm, R3 = 22 Ohm

C

R1 = 12 Ohm, R2 = 8 Ohm, R3 = 22 Ohm

D

R1 = 10 Ohm, R2 = 10 Ohm, R3 = 30 Ohm Have you made a simple drawing and applied Kirchoffs Law ?

In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil ?

No. 307

>

A

To act as insulation.

B

To smother the arc.

C

The release of hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc.

D

All of the options. All of above reasons are true

In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15 milli-amps will .....

No. 308

>

A

be totally harmless.

B

give you a faint shock.

C

burn your skin.

D

be fatal. Suppose the resistance in Your body is 300000 Ohm. You touch 450 Volt. The current resulting which is 15 milli-amps might kill.

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system ?

No. 309

>

A

The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.

B

The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.

C

No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.

D

The opposite line fuse will trip due overload. The Supply System is ISOLATED, if one line is connected to the earth, nothing is happening to that circuit.

A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A. What will be the rating of the branch fuses?

No. 310

>

A

34 Amps

B

56 Amps

C

63 Amps

D

112 Amp The starting current is 3 x the full load current and the branch fuses will be 28 x 3 = 84 Ampere

A voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts ?

No. 311

>

A

7500 Ohm

B

35000 Ohm

C

70000 Ohm

D

165000 Ohm The voltmeter resistance is 500 Ohm per Volt (5000 Ohm for 10 Volt) If we wish to measure 150 Volts do we need 150 x 500 = 75000 Ohm resistance to apply in the measuring line. The voltmeter has resistance of 5000 Ohm, thus we need

The low voltage side of a welding transformer has two turns and delivers 300 A. If the primary side has 30 turns, how much current flows through it ?

No. 312

>

A

10 Amps.

B

15 Ampere.

C

20 Amps.

D

30 Amps. The transformation rate is primary/secondary 30/2 = 15. If the secondary winding takes 300 Ampere shall the primary take 300/15 = 20 Amps

Two 30 Ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is their combined resistance?

No. 313

>

A

15 Ohm

B

30 Ohm

C

20 Ohm

D

60 Ohm Basic Laws should be known.

An electric appliance takes 2500 Watt. The electric current is 15 Ampere. What is the resistance of the load ?

No. 314

>

A

8.2 Ohm

B

9.4 Ohm

C

10.5 Ohm

D

11.11 Ohm Apply basic Laws and find also that reactance X = 9.56 Ohm, reactive Power PR = 2.151 VAR

How many diodes are there in a single phase full bridge rectifier ?

No. 315

>

A

Two

B

Three

C

Four

D

Six Make sketch, how does it works ?

In an emergency insulation resistance readings lower than normal can be acceptable, but what would the allowable minimum be ?

No. 316

>

A

0.5 Meg Ohm

B

1.0 Meg Ohm

C

5.0 Meg Ohm

D

10.0 Meg Ohm Resistance of all components on board is to be minimum 100.0 Meg Ohm. For the purpose of EMERGENCY OPERATION ONLY is a resistance as low as 1.0 Meg ohm allowable.

What voltages are accredited standard secondary voltages for voltage transformers. ?

No. 317

>

A

240 Volt and 220 Volt.

B

220 Volt and 110 Volt.

C

380 Volt and 220 Volt.

D

230 Volt and 120 Volt. Standard Secondary Voltages are 220 and 110 Volt. Note that voltage above 220 Volt is considered HVT or high voltage, not secondary voltage..

Current transformers supply ampere meters and the current operated coils of instruments with a standard current of either ...........

No. 318

>

A

2 or 1 Amps.

B

5 or 1 Amps.

C

20 or 5 Amps.

D

20 or 5 milli-amps. Current transformers supply standardized current of either 5 or 1 Ampere.

What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit breakers ?

No. 319

>

A

1 - 3 Megohm

B

4 - 6 Megohm

C

5 - 8 Megohm

D

7 - 10 Megohm Reading should not be less than 4 to 6 Megohm

What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal ?

No. 320

>

A

To provide a gas tight seal.

B

As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement.

C

To allow minor sliding movements of the cable.

D

To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable by ensuring that the cable is fastened as should by its outer shield and no stress is brought over to the wires or fastening connections of the terminals.

What is the purpose of the part circled red ?

No. 321

>

A

To protect the motor from water.

B

To cover the fan of the motor.

C

To cover the lubrication inlet.

D

To cover the speed regulator.

pict44.bmp

A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure an unknown resistance in relation to what?

No. 322

>

A

A voltage drop.

B

A current imbalance.

C

Kirchoff's Laws.

D

A known resistance.

What is power?

No. 323

>

A

The mount of work done.

B

The rate of energy dissipation.

C

The capacity for doing work.

D

The generated current.

Which of the following is not a requirement for the Navigation light distribution board?

No. 324

>

A

Double pole switch.

B

Always supplied from batteries

C

Audible and visual lamp failure alarm

D

Location on the Bridge

What are valence electrons?

No. 325

>

A

Outer orbiting electrons.

B

Contained in the nucleus.

C

Orbiting electrons.

D

Positively charged electrons.

In one complete cycle of a single phase of alternating current how often is the voltage at zero?

No. 326

>

A

Never

B

Once

C

Twice

D

Three times

How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100 degrees C.?

No. 327

>

A

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged.

B

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 degrees C.

C

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor life span formula.

D

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of humidity.

When will the resistance in a wire decrease?

No. 328

>

A

When the temperature of the wire increases.

B

When the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.

C

When the length of the wire increases.

D

When the applied voltage decreases.

How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

No. 329

>

A

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow.

B

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow.

C

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage.

D

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance.

Why must each voltage system have it's own earth fault lamps?

No. 330

>

A

In case of failure of one set

B

To accurately locate the earth fault

C

To make tracing the earth easier

D

Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers

In a fluorescent lamp what is used to improve the power factor?

No. 331

>

A

Capacitor

B

Mercury gas

C

Coil

D

Thyristor

A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "closed insulation" type. What does this mean?

No. 332

>

A

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator

B

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull

C

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system

D

The system does not have a neutral point

In incandescent lights what is the filament constructed from?

No. 333

>

A

Nickel

B

Carbon

C

Tungsten

D

Chromium

Why must both primary and secondary windings have independent earth leakage detection?

No. 334

>

A

To accurately locate the earth.

B

There is no electrical connection between the two.

C

To allow for different leakage current levels.

D

Because of the difference in Voltages.

The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load will not exceed what percentage?

No. 335

>

A

1%

B

2%

C

3%

D

5%

Which conductor would produce the greatest inductance?

No. 336

>

A

Plain coiled.

B

Coiled with copper core.

C

Coiled multi strand.

D

Coiled with iron core.

In the formula e = B l ØSin . What does sin represent?

No. 337

>

A

Average rotational velocity.

B

Cycles/ second.

C

Maximum rotational velocity.

D

Instantaneous rotational velocity.

When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, what test voltage should you ensure that the instrument indicates?

No. 338

>

A

250 volts

B

500 volts

C

750 volts

D

1000 volts

Which law governs the relationship between potential difference and current?

No. 339

>

A

Coulomb's law

B

Lenz' law

C

Ohm's law

D

Kirchoff's current law

How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

No. 340

>

A

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

B

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

C

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage

D

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

Which of the following is most likely to cause an earth indication?

No. 341

>

A

A switched off motor has developed a short circuit.

B

A deck fitting has been affected by seawater.

C

Emergency generator, which is on stand-by, has been splashed with seawater.

D

Earth fault on the navigation lights.

When using an ohmmeter to find a short circuit, which meter reading indicates the fault?

No. 342

>

A

Infinity.

B

100 megohm.

C

1 megohm.

D

Zero.

At maximum voltage what angle is the conductor cutting the magnetic field?

No. 343

>

A

0 degrees

B

45 degrees

C

90 degrees

D

180 degrees

A Wheatstone Bridge is a precision instrument used mostly to measure:

No. 344

>

A

Capacitance.

B

Resistance.

C

Inductance.

D

Amperage.

Voltage multiplied by current equals what?

No. 345

>

A

Resistance.

B

Efficiency.

C

Power.

D

Reactance.

When is an atom considered to be a positively charged ion?

No. 346

>

A

When electrons are gained.

B

When electrons are lost.

C

When it has positive electrons.

D

When it has positive protons.

What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit breakers?

No. 347

>

A

1 - 3 Megohm

B

4 - 6 Megohm

C

5 - 8 Megohm

D

7 - 10 Megohm

What term describes the effective value of an alternating current?

No. 348

>

A

Mean

B

Average

C

RMS

D

Peak

Which measuring device should always be connected in series with a circuit?

No. 349

>

A

Ohmmeter.

B

Ammeter.

C

Wattmeter.

D

Voltmeter.

What is the unit of magnetic flux?

No. 350

>

A

Farad

B

Henry

C

Coulomb

D

Weber

How is a Voltmeter connected in a circuit?

No. 351

>

A

In series.

B

In series with a resistance.

C

In parallel.

D

In parallel, combined with a resistance.

If a 2kW heater is on for four hours, how much energy is used?

No. 352

>

A

24mJ

B

28.8mJ

C

36.6mJ

D

40mJ

What do good insulators have in common?

No. 353

>

A

Large number of electrons.

B

Positive electrons.

C

Stable atomic structure.

D

Negative nucleus.

In a non-reactive circuit which statement applies?

No. 354

>

A

Impedance is greater than resistance.

B

Impedance is less than resistance.

C

Impedance is zero.

D

Impedance is equal to resistance.

Which law states that the sum of the potential differences is equal to the sum of the E.M.F.s?

No. 355

>

A

Coulomb's Law

B

Ohm's Law

C

Lenz' Law

D

Kirchoff's Voltage Law

What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit containing electronic components?

No. 356

>

A

The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will consume.

B

The components in the circuit may be destroyed.

C

The wrong internal resistance may be shown.

D

The connections between components will show a high insulation value.

What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lamps in flameproof fittings?

No. 357

>

A

Seal could be damaged by extra heat.

B

Increase in surface heat of fitting.

C

Extra power could overload the cable.

D

Internal heat generated will damage the fitting.

When two masthead lights are fitted what is the required relationship between them?

No. 358

>

A

Both must be at the same level.

B

Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft.

C

Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.

D

Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.

When both a fuse and breaker are used on one circuit, when will the fuse blow?

No. 359

>

A

A break in the motor winding.

B

A very high short circuit current.

C

Continuous moderately high over-current.

D

An earth fault.

Why is the battery maintenance of such Importance?

No. 360

>

A

To comply with the planned maintenance requirements.

B

The batteries are the last resort back-up system.

C

They are an item of survey equipment.

D

To ensure there is a continuity of supply to the navigation lights.

Which of these materials can be used to insulate magnetic flux?

No. 361

>

A

Rubber.

B

Ceramic.

C

None of the other options.

D

Porcelain.

Which of the following is the most suitable for use as a magnet?

No. 362

>

A

Stainless steel.

B

Soft iron.

C

Copper.

D

Nickel.

In series connected resistors which value remains constant?

No. 363

>

A

Voltage.

B

Current.

C

Resistance.

D

Reactance.

How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100 degrees Celsius?

No. 364

>

A

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged.

B

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than 500 degrees Celsius.

C

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor life span formula.

D

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of humidity.

In the worst case what would be the effect a 25 milli-amps electric shock?

No. 365

>

A

Totally harmless

B

Give a mild shock

C

Burn the skin

D

Could be fatal

Two resistors of 6 ohm & 3 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the circuit current?

No. 366

>

A

2A

B

6A

C

3A

D

9A

If a p.d. of 24V exists across a 15 Ohm resistor what is the current?

No. 367

>

A

0.6amps

B

3.6amps

C

1.2amps

D

1.6amps

If a 100 metre length of 1.25 mm dia. wire has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length of the same wire of 0.75 mm dia. will have a resistance of 25 Ohm?

No. 368

>

A

35 metres

B

20 metres

C

25 metres

D

30 metres

What danger is associated with excess shaft magnetism?

No. 369

>

A

Failure of the generator to self excite.

B

Damage to shaft bearing surfaces.

C

Arcing at commutator.

D

Insulation breakdown.

Using lead/acid batteries what is the minimum number of cells required to produce 24V?

No. 370

>

A

12

B

24

C

6

D

16

Which law states that the sum of currents arriving at a junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving the junction?

No. 371

>

A

Ohm's Law

B

Lenz' Law

C

Kirchoff's Current Law

D

Faraday's Law

What is the unit for inductance?

No. 372

>

A

Henry

B

Weber

C

Farad

D

Coulomb

What is the electrolyte in a conventional lead/acid battery?

No. 373

>

A

Distilled water.

B

Dilute Sulphuric acid.

C

Dilute Hydrochloric acid.

D

Potassium hydroxide.

What happens to the current if the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant.

No. 374

>

A

Doubled.

B

Halved.

C

Remains the same.

D

Quadrupled.

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system?

No. 375

>

A

The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.

B

The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip.

C

No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.

D

The opposite line fuse will trip due overload.

What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?

No. 376

>

A

45 degree C

B

55 degree C

C

80 degree C

D

105 degree C

What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the main bus bars?

No. 377

>

A

To measure the generator output voltage.

B

To measure the generator output current.

C

To measure the earth leakage.

D

To prevent bus-bar overload.

What is the danger of naked lights in the battery locker?

No. 378

>

A

Reaction with the gases to form a toxic mixture.

B

They may damage the battery casings

C

The batteries give off highly flammable hydrogen gas.

D

The batteries give off hydrogen sulphide making the air explosive.

What causes the EMF variation in an AC alternator?

No. 379

>

A

Flux density.

B

Changing polarity.

C

Velocity of conductor cutting flux.

D

Component of velocity at 90° to flux.

What is energy?

No. 380

>

A

Capacity to carry out work.

B

Rate of doing work.

C

Amount of work done.

D

Transfer of power.

Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in parallel?

No. 381

>

A

Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA

B

The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not

C

No common earth is available

D

Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship

How is an Ammeter connected in a circuit?

No. 382

>

A

In series.

B

In series with a resistance.

C

In parallel.

D

In parallel with a resistance.

Why do ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system?

No. 383

>

A

It limits fault current.

B

An earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and circuit breakers to trip.

C

It reduces cable size.

D

It reduces switchgear ratings.

What produces an induced E.M.F.?

No. 384

>

A

Change in voltage.

B

Change in flux linkage.

C

Change in current.

D

Change in resistance.

What is the wire made from in an HRC fuse?

No. 385

>

A

Platinum

B

Tungsten

C

Silver

D

Nickel

In an emergency, what would be the lowest acceptable insulation resistance readings?

No. 386

>

A

0.5 Meg Ohm

B

1.0 Meg Ohm

C

5.0 Meg Ohm

D

10.0 Meg Ohm

What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?

No. 387

>

A

Between 200 and 300 Volts

B

Between 1,000 and 10,000 Volts

C

Between 500 and 1000 Volts

D

Between 400 and 500 Volts

What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal?

No. 388

>

A

To provide a gas tight seal

B

As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement

C

To allow minor sliding movements of the cable

D

To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable

Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?

No. 389

>

A

It may damage the monitoring instruments.

B

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull.

C

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn.

D

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow.

What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal?

No. 390

>

A

A transducer.

B

A transponder.

C

A transformer.

D

A transceiver.

What law states that induced EMF always opposes the change producing it?

No. 391

>

A

Lenz

B

Faraday

C

Fleming

D

Coulomb

What is impedance?

No. 392

>

A

Total resistance in an electrical circuit.

B

Resistance provided by the cable in an electrical circuit.

C

Induction of an electrical circuit.

D

Induced E.M.F. of a circuit.

Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor?

No. 393

>

A

Copper.

B

Brass.

C

Silver.

D

Steel.

How much energy is dissipated when a 2A current is passed through a 50 ohm resistor for 3 minutes?

No. 394

>

A

24kJ

B

30kJ

C

33.3kJ

D

36kJ

What is the unit for energy?

No. 395

>

A

Watt

B

Coulomb

C

Joule

D

Ohm

Which statement is true for induced E.M.F.?

No. 396

>

A

Always equal to the current.

B

Always resists change in current.

C

Always assists change in current.

D

Is a function of resistance.

How can a Voltmeter measure a variety of voltage values?

No. 397

>

A

By connecting a shunt in series.

B

By connecting a shunt in parallel.

C

By connecting a capacitor in series.

D

By connecting a capacitor in parallel.

What do wire size numbers indicate?(e.g. sizes 10, 12 etc.)

No. 398

>

A

Wire section in square millimetres.

B

Wire outside diameter in millimetres.

C

Retrogressive numbering in " AWG".

D

Progressive numbering in Amps.

In parallel connected resistors which value remains constant?

No. 399

>

A

Impedance

B

Reactance

C

Voltage

D

Current

What gases are present in the modern incandescent lamp?

No. 400

>

A

Vacuum.

B

Argon and Nitrogen.

C

Argon and neon.

D

Neon and Nitrogen.

What is the advantage of a delta-star wound transformer?

No. 401

>

A

Can transform higher loads.

B

Allows cycle changing.

C

Allows an earthed secondary winding.

D

Allows an earthed primary winding.

What are ideal conditions for taking insulation test readings of a motor or alternator?

No. 402

>

A

Hot after stopping.

B

Cooled down to hand-warm.

C

Cooled down to ambient temperature.

D

Running.

Which of the following would you expect to find at the main switchboard?

No. 403

>

A

Insulated rubber matting.

B

Insulated grab rails.

C

Suitable extinguisher.

D

All of the other options.

Using Fleming's Right Hand Rule what does the thumb indicate?

No. 404

>

A

Direction of current in the conductor.

B

Direction of the magnetic flux.

C

Direction of movement of the conductor.

D

Direction of the excitation current.

What governs induced EMF in a conductor?

No. 405

>

A

Flux density.

B

Rate of cutting flux.

C

Rate of change of magnetic flux.

D

Magnetic strength.

Two resistors of 6O ohm & 3O ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the effective resistance?

No. 406

>

A

20 ohm

B

4.5O ohm

C

9O ohm

D

6O ohm

Why are Arc chutes fitted in circuit breakers?

No. 407

>

A

To extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation

B

To isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over

C

To control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc

D

To confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling

In the formula e = B l ØSin. What does 'e' represent?

No. 408

>

A

Maximum voltage

B

Average voltage

C

Instantaneous voltage

D

RMS voltage

For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far does the rotating vector (phasor) travel?

No. 409

>

A

180 deg.

B

90 deg.

C

270 deg.

D

360 deg.

In a purely resistive circuit what is the phase difference between voltage and current?

No. 410

>

A

0 degrees.

B

90 degrees.

C

180 degrees.

D

45 degrees.

The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as?

No. 411

>

A

RMS voltage.

B

Power factor.

C

Angle of phase difference.

D

Circuit inductance.

Why is a ballast resistor fitted in fluorescent lamps?

No. 412

>

A

Pre heat the electrodes.

B

Provide high starting voltage.

C

Stabilize current and power.

D

Performs all of these functions.

In one cycle of 3-phase AC how often is voltage at peak value?

No. 413

>

A

Six times

B

Twice

C

Three times

D

Always

In an incandescent lamp how much of the energy is converted to light?

No. 414

>

A

80%

B

60%

C

40%

D

20%

In internal alleyways what is the light spacing regulation?

No. 415

>

A

Lights spaced at 1.5 X alleyway height.

B

Lights spaced every 2 metres.

C

Lights spaced at 2 X alleyway height.

D

Lights spaced every 2.5 metres.

On an electrical drawing what symbol represents impedance?

No. 416

>

A

R

B

I

C

Z

D

L

How will an earth fault be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

No. 417

>

A

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

B

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

C

The voltage will drop

D

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

In what situation is Induced EMF given by the formula e=Blv?

No. 418

>

A

When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field.

B

When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line.

C

When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets.

D

When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor.

What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?

No. 419

>

A

The current decreases.

B

The current increases.

C

The current remains the same.

D

The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.

What would be the S.G. of a fully charged battery?

No. 420

>

A

1.12

B

1.2

C

1.28

D

1.36

In the AC sin wave what is the periodic time?

No. 421

>

A

Time for zero to max voltage.

B

Time for zero to zero voltage.

C

Cycles/second.

D

Time for one complete cycle.

What is the amplitude of the AC sin wave?

No. 422

>

A

Peak value.

B

Cycle length.

C

Cycles/second.

D

Phasor value.

What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?

No. 423

>

A

Between 200 and 300 Volts.

B

Between 200 and 500 Volts.

C

Between 500 and 800 Volts.

D

Between 400 and 500 Volts.

Which of the following is a requirement for the Navigation lighting distribution board?

No. 424

>

A

Fuse located on the main switchboard.

B

Alarm must sound in the engine room.

C

An alternate supply must be available.

D

Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light.

What units is impedance expressed in?

No. 425

>

A

Henry

B

Ohm

C

Farad

D

Weber

Two resistors of 6O ohm & 3O ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the current in each resistor?

No. 426

>

A

2A & 4A

B

3A & 6A

C

1A & 2A

D

0.66A & 1.33A

In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil?

No. 427

>

A

Acts as insulation.

B

To smother the arc.

C

To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc.

D

All of the other options.

Induced E.M.F. is out of phase with current by what degree?

No. 428

>

A

0 degrees

B

180 degrees

C

90 degrees

D

60 degrees

On an electrical drawing what symbol represents Inductance?

No. 429

>

A

F

B

I

C

R

D

L

What is a Clamp meter used for?

No. 430

>

A

To measure current in a single cable.

B

To measure cable resistance.

C

To measure current in a three phase cable.

D

To measure cable voltage.

If the effective resistance of a circuit is 8 ohm and current from source is 1.5A what is the E.M.F.?

No. 431

>

A

6V

B

24V

C

12V

D

9V

What is a multi meter used for?

No. 432

>

A

To measure resistance.

B

To measure voltage and resistance.

C

To measure voltage, resistance and current.

D

To measure voltage and current.

If magnet pole faces are 3cm X 4cm and have flux density of 0.417T, what is the flux?

No. 433

>

A

0.5mWb

B

0.4mWb

C

0.7mWb

D

0.55mWb

Except when used as bus-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should always be stranded?

No. 434

>

A

No 6 AWG

B

No 8 AWG

C

No 10 AWG

D

No 12 AWG

How does the RMS voltage compare to peak voltage?

No. 435

>

A

0.666 of peak value

B

0.707 of peak value

C

0.805 of peak value

D

0.777 of peak value

In a three-phase system why is a resistor fitted in series with the earth detection lights?

No. 436

>

A

To limit the earth current.

B

To protect the earth lights.

C

To provide an easier path for the earth current.

D

To lower the voltage at the earth lights.

What is the unit of lighting intensity?

No. 437

>

A

Lumen.

B

Candela.

C

Angstrom.

D

Lambert.

A voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts?

No. 438

>

A

7500 Ohm

B

35000 Ohm

C

70000 Ohm

D

165000 Ohm

An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400 W. What is the resistance of the heater?

No. 439

>

A

220 Ohm

B

11 Ohm

C

22 Ohm

D

110 Ohm

What is the unit for power?

No. 440

>

A

Ohm.

B

Watt.

C

Coulomb.

D

Joule.

Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?

No. 441

>

A

It may damage the monitoring instruments.

B

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull.

C

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be invalid.

D

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow.

What problem can arise from auto starting electric equipment?

No. 442

>

A

Overload the generator prime mover.

B

Trip preferential trips.

C

Trip reverse power trip.

D

Over speeds the generator prime mover.

What law determines the direction of induced EMF?

No. 443

>

A

Faraday.

B

Fleming.

C

Lenz.

D

Weber.

How can an Ammeter measure a variety of current values?

No. 444

>

A

By connecting a shunt in series.

B

By connecting a shunt in parallel.

C

By connecting a capacitor in series.

D

By connecting a capacitor in parallel.

Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction?

No. 445

>

A

A variable capacitor.

B

A transistor.

C

A transformer.

D

A rheostat.

What is the continuity resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt?

No. 446

>

A

24.2 Ohm.

B

9.09 Ohm.

C

44 Ohm.

D

11 Ohm.

What would a clamp type ampere meter read if clipped around a 3-core cable known to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phase electric motor?

No. 447

>

A

100 Amps

B

33.33 Amps

C

300 Amps

D

0 Amps

With reference to a magnet what is Hysteresis?

No. 448

>

A

Magnetic strength in relation to current.

B

Lag of flux compared to field strength.

C

Permeability of the magnet material.

D

Reluctance of magnetic material.

What is component number 3 ?

No. 449

>

A

The cooling water inlet.

B

The lubricating oil outlet.

C

The cooling water outlet.

D

The air vent valve.

Which part is the valve guide?

No. 450

>

A

Number 1

B

Number 2

C

Number 3

D

Number 4

Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ?

No. 451

>

A

Number 1

B

Number 6

C

Number 7

D

Number 8

Which part is the exhaust valve ?

No. 452

>

A

Number 1

B

Number 2

C

Number 4

D

Number 6

What is part number 3 ?

No. 453

>

A

The air chamber

B

The combustion center

C

The combustion chamber

D

The piston glider

same picture above

What is part number 5 ?

No. 454

>

A

The air receiver

B

The scavenging air box

C

The air filter

D

The air cooler

What is part number 8?

No. 455

>

A

The air box

B

The air filter

C

The cooler inlet

D

The air cooler

Which part is the turbine wheel ?

No. 456

>

P70517b.BMP

A

Number 4

B

Number 7

C

Number 8

D

Number 9

same picture above

Which part is the auxiliary fan ?

No. 457

>

A

Number 6

B

Number 7

C

Number 9

D

Number 10

What is part number 11?

No. 458

>

A

The turbine wheel

B

The blower

C

The turbine outlet

D

The blower ring

What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only ?

No. 459

>

P70517b.BMP

A

The engine is overloaded.

B

The main engine RPM is too high.

C

Faulty fuel injector.

D

Cooling water restriction.

same picture above

Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by .....

No. 460

>

A

a piston ring failure.

B

a burnt piston top.

C

a leaking exhaust valve.

D

All of the other options.

Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by ....

No. 461

>

A

a defective fuel valve.

B

a low air pressure.

C

lubrication low pressure.

D

not using the auxiliary fan.

What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine ?

No. 462

>

Same picture above

A

A faulty fuel valve.

B

A cracked liner.

C

Rising scavenging air temperature.

D

Broken piston ring.

Same picture above

Which of the following would most likely account for a decrease in main engine scavenging air temperature?

No. 463

>

A

An increase in air volume.

B

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

C

A dirty turbine wheel.

D

A decrease in air volume.

What does a pressure drop across the scavenge air cooler indicate ?

No. 464

>

A

Increased engine room temperature.

B

Fouling of cooler air side.

C

Fouling of the cooling water system.

D

A reduced cooling water flow.

P70517a.BMP

Same picture above

Exhaust temperature increasing on all main engine cylinders indicates....

No. 465

>

Same picture above

A

The air system is fouled.

B

The exhaust system is fouled.

C

The scavenging ports are fouled.

D

Any of the these faults.

Same picture above

The turbo charger turbine wheel is rotated by........

No. 466

>

A

pressured air supplied by blower number 10.

B

inlet air coming from the inlet filter.

C

exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.

D

any of the other options.

What is part number 5 ?

No. 467

>

A

A double valve.

B

A three way valve.

C

A thermostat.

D

A controllable thermostat.

What part is the de-airating tank ?

No. 468

>

A

Number 1

B

Number 4

C

Number 6

D

Number 7

same picture above

Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ?

No. 469

>

A

To operate the cooling system with salt water during cleaning of the fresh water generator.

B

To back flush the cooling water system.

C

For use in an emergency only.

D

Any of the other options

What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine? (high speed air side, half speed gas side)

No. 470

>

A

Oil.

B

Water.

C

A chemical mixture of oil and water.

D

A chemical mixture of acid and water.

What is the purpose of part number 6 ?

No. 471

>

A

To prevent an increase in water pressure.

B

To be an extra expansion tank.

C

To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system.

D

To measure difference of pressure before and after the cooler.

If the cooling water temperature goes below it's recommended value, what can happen ?

No. 472

>

A

Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls

B

Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls

C

The engine cannot be started again

D

The fuel pumps may be clogged

If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen ?

No. 473

>

A

Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke

B

The blower will slow down

C

A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls

D

The expansion tank will be emptied

same picture above

What is item "V" ?

No. 474

>

same picture above

A

A flow control valve.

B

A viscometer.

C

A fine filter.

D

A steam trap. Fuel VISCOSITY is measured after the fuel heater and viscometer acts on steam inlet of the Fuel Heater. This way correct fuel viscosity is obtained on the fuel pumps.

What is item "M" ?

No. 475

>

A

The fuel flow meter.

B

The by-pass valve.

C

The magnetic filter.

D

The manometer. Fuel flow meter is fitted before the junction of the return fuel piping with the booster pump suction.

What is the function of valve "PR" in this fuel circuit ?

No. 476

>

A

A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop.

B

A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.

C

A de-gassing/ HP gas release by very high fuel temperature.

D

A constant pressure regulating valve. The fuel pressure to the fuel pumps suction manifold needs to be kept at constant pressure irrespective of the engine revolutions and consequently fuel consumption may vary.

What are the parts marked "F" ?

No. 477

>

A

Fine filters.

B

Magnetic filters.

C

Automatic filters.

D

Any of the these. These are the fine filters prior the fuel been admitted to the fuel pumps designed to remove the last impurities. They can also be magnetic to remove metal and may be automatic. Example: automatic ball filters.

What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?

No. 478

>

A

Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1).

B

Marine diesel.

C

Distillate diesel.

D

Gas oil. Marine diesel oil, distillate diesel oil and gas oil all have a low Viscosity rating and do not need to be heated to 60 degrees C . The fuel used is either an intermediate or heavy fuel.

When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve "D"?

No. 479

>

A

At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.

B

Every 4 hours.

C

Twice a day.

D

Once a day. Fuel oil settling and daily tanks are to be drained at 08.00hr and at 17.00hr and finally checked/drained by the duty engineer prior to leaving the engine room in UMS mode at night time. If excess accumulated water is found from the

Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer "T" ?

No. 480

>

A

Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.

B

Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.

C

Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.

D

None of the other options. Since fuel of higher viscosity is used, You will find upon consulting the Fuel Viscosity Temperature Chart that the fuel has to have a higher temperature in order to have the same viscosity at the Fuel Pumps of the engine.

If the outlet temperature "Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during normal sea speed the inlet temperature "Tin"is 62 degree C, what would "Tin" show during engine slow down ?

No. 481

>

A

Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease.

B

Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller.

C

Inlet temperature "Tin" will fluctuate.

D

Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase. When engine slowdown occurs the temperature transmitter "TT" will send a signal TO OPEN to the by-pass valve "BP" of the cooler. The water to the inlet will be less cooled by the cooler and the inlet temperature "Tin" will increase. The

What is item "J" ?

No. 482

>

A

A Water Strainer.

B

The Jacket Cooling Water Pump.

C

The Piston Cooling Water Pump.

D

The Sea Water Cooling Pump. The drawing is of a diesel engine Jacket Cooling Water system in which the Jacket CW Pump is fitted with suction from the outlet with connection from the expansion tank, pressurising the engine system via the cooler.

If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?

No. 483

>

A

There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.

B

There is an internal leakage on the engine.

C

Cracked cylinder head.

D

Malfunctioning thermostatic valve. Option A,B or C will all result in loss of water in the system and the water level in the expansion tank will drop

What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shown here ?

No. 484

>

A

An open circuit

B

A free closed circuit

C

A forced circuit

D

None of the other options The flow in the circuit is clearly forced by the jacket cooling water pump.

What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system ?

No. 485

>

A

The expansion tank.

B

The construction of the buffer tank.

C

The air cushion in the buffer tank.

D

The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps. The piston telescopic pipes are slide in buffer vessels and the AIR CUSHIONS of the buffer tanks absorb the compression and expansion forces caused by the increasing and decreasing volume of water in the buffer tanks due to

If the system pressure is 3.5 kg/cm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer vessels ?

No. 486

>

A

Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2

B

Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2.

C

Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2.

D

Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2 The pressure in the buffer vessels fluctuates with the up-and downward movement of the piston.

Why is there an indicating flap "IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling water buffer tank ?

No. 487

>

A

To indicate if the pump is running

B

To indicate that the engine is running

C

To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.

D

To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order. The flap will move upwards by increased flow during the downward stroke of the engine and will move downwards during decreased flow by the upward movement of the piston. It will only act in this way when the water flow and

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops ?

No. 488

>

A

The level will decrease.

B

The level will increase.

C

The level will at first decrease but increases again.

D

Nothing will happen. The pumping action of the telescopic piping in the buffer vessels reduces or terminates so that the air volume in the buffer tanks stabilizes and water volume increases in the buffer vessels. This water is flowing from the expansion tank.

What are items "F" ?

No. 489

>

A

Flow controllers.

B

Thermostatic valves.

C

Filters.

D

Flow meters. Filters are fitted from sump tank line to pumps.

How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil?

No. 490

>

A

Direct from the lub oil main line.

B

From the camshaft lub oil line.

C

Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.

D

Independently. Oil enters via the main bearings of the crankshaft, then lubricates the bottom end bearings and finally the crosshead bearings via drilled passages in the connecting rod.

How is the gear train lubricated on this Diesel engine?

No. 491

>

A

Via the crankshaft.

B

Via the camshaft system.

C

By its own independent lub oil cicuit.

D

Direct from the common lub oil circuit. The gear train is lubricated directly from the common lub oil circuit.

How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Diesel engine?

No. 492

>

A

Via the crankshaft.

B

Via the camshaft.

C

Direct via the main lub oil line.

D

By its own independent supply system. The lubrication is affected by the main lub oil line via a direct branch line.

Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line?

No. 493

>

A

The crosshead bearing.

B

The main bearings.

C

The thrust bearing.

D

The gear train. Crossheads are not lubricated directly by the lubricating inlet supply line but via the main bearings, crankshaft, bottom end bearings and connecting rod.

What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?

No. 494

>

A

To keep the oil temperature constant.

B

To absorb pump vibrations.

C

To keep the oil pressure constant.

D

To act as a high pressure safety valve. The oil pressure is to be kept constant by slight temperature variation, in particular when the engine system is started after a prolonged stop. Option is correct.

What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?

No. 495

>

A

Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet

B

Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet

C

Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet

D

Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet The entire control and regulating system is fitted on the inlet. The lub. oil inlet temperature is controlled.

What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?

No. 496

>

A

To collect the system oil in use.

B

To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use.

C

As supply source of the system oil.

D

All of these options. The sump tank is the collecting tank of the oil used for lubricating. The collected oil act as a buffer to ensure a constant supply source to the lub. oil pumps. Option is correct.

What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?

No. 497

>

A

Loop scavenging

B

Uniflow scavenging

C

Compounded scavenging

D

None of the other options The scavenge ports are fitted in the lower part of the cylinder liner and an exhaust valve is fitted in the cylinder head. Obviously uniflow scavenging is applied.

When does the exhaust valve "EV" open ?

No. 498

>

A

When the piston is at bottom dead point.

B

When the piston moves upward.

C

At the end of the working stroke.

D

None of the other options The exhaust valve opens at the end of the working stroke when gasses in the cylinder cannot be further used to contribute to mechanical labour.

Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger ?

No. 499

>

A

Constant pressure type.

B

Booster type.

C

Impulse type.

D

Split type. All exhaust outlets go to a one common manifold, known as "CONSTANT PRESSURE TYPE" of manifold feeding the turbocharger.

What is the function of drain valve "D" ?

No. 500

>

A

To release the air when the engine is stopped.

B

To drain the oil from the manifold.

C

To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion.

D

To drain the moisture from the manifold. The air compressed in the turbocharger is cooled in the air cooler and may be around its dew point moisture temperature. Any condensate formed needs to be drained.

Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the turbocharger ?

No. 501

>

A

TEB

B

TE

C

TE1

D

TE5 The common inlet of the turbocharger always indicates the highest temperature due to the accumulation effect.

What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine running at full speed ?

No. 502

>

A

25 kg/cm2

B

7.0 kg/cm2

C

1.25 kg/cm2

D

0.25 kg/cm2

Diesel5.BMP

A uniflow scavenged diesel engine running at full speed would reasonably be 1.25 kg/cm2.

What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel running at full speed ?

No. 503

>

A

420 degrees C

B

75 degrees C

C

45 degrees C

D

28 degrees C

Diesel5.BMP

420 degree C might be the normal exhaust gas temperature. 75 degree C might be normal cooling water outlet temperature. 45 degree C might be normal scavenge air temperature. 28 degree C might well be the sea water

Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the exhaust gas entering the exhaust gas turbocharger "ET" ?

No. 504

>

A

Under a vacuum.

B

Under high pressure.

C

Under slight overpressure.

D

Under atmospheric pressure.

Diesel5.BMP

Under slight overpressure which exists in the engine room due to the forced draft fans

What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

No. 505

>

A

A heavy fuel oil system.

B

A blend fuel oil system.

C

A marine diesel oil system.

D

A gas oil system. The picture shows two different grades of fuel being mixed in a blending unit. Option ""is correct.

What is the component marked "BUC" ?

No. 506

>

A

The Basic Unit Controller

B

The Blend Unit Controller

C

The Blend Unit Calorifier

D

The Base Unit Calorifier The blend unit Controller is fitted in the blend fuel supply line to the engines after the blending unit

Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?

No. 507

>

A

The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.

B

The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.

C

The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.

D

All of these options. The blending unit controller acts on all components mentioned and its automatic steaming lines are clearly indicated in the picture.

Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

No. 508

>

A

In units DP and FP

B

In unit H

C

In unit BU

D

In unit BUC The actual blending takes place in the BLENDING UNIT "BU", this is where Fuel oil and Diesel Oil come together.

What are the components marked "M" ?

No. 509

>

A

Manometers

B

Magnetic shut-off valves

C

Microprocessors

D

Flow meters Flow meters are always fitted before the fuel oil booster pumps and after the filters.

What are the components marked "F" ?

No. 510

>

A

Flow meters.

B

Fuel filters.

C

Fuel pumps.

D

Fuel heaters. Fuel filters are always fitted in the suction line from the tank before the flow meters.

Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.

No. 511

>

A

The blending unit BU.

B

The blending unit controller BUC.

C

The unit H.

D

The HFO daily tank.

Diesel6.BMP

The HFO daily tank is of course to be initially heated to about 65 degree C in order to reduce the viscosity and make the fuel easily pumpable.

What is the component marked "P" ?

No. 512

>

A

The fresh water pump.

B

The lub oil pump.

C

The piston cooling pump.

D

The sea water pump. The system is a fresh water cooling system of an Auxiliary Engine (see Aux Expansion tank in the drawing) The pump is thus the fresh water pump.

On a small diesel engine how would pump "P" be driven ?

No. 513

>

A

By "V" belt from the crankshaft.

B

By an electric motor.

C

By gears driven from the crankshaft.

D

By gear drive from the main output shaft. Auxiliary diesels have usually attached fresh water pumps. In this case the pump is driven by gear "G" attached to the crankshaft.

What is the component marked "W" ?

No. 514

>

A

A water strainer.

B

A WAX by-pass temperature controller.

C

A water by-pass buffer.

D

A manual 3-way water by-pass valve. This is clearly not a manual valve, also not a strainer or a buffer. It indicates a by-pass valve since it is 3-way by-passing the cooler. Option ""is correct since it has no steering line it is operated by expansion of its WAX

How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?

No. 515

>

A

In series with the cylinders.

B

In line with the cylinders.

C

In parallel with the cylinders.

D

In tandem with the cylinders. The inlet of the turbocharger and the cylinders is taken from the same line and the outlet of the cylinders is giving out on the same line as the outlet of the turbocharger. The turbocharger is thus cooled in parallel

If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?

No. 516

>

A

They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees C)

B

They will remain the same

C

They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees C)

D

They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees C) The temperature is controlled by a WAX 3-way valve. Its temperature variation from full open to full close is usually 5 degree Fahrenheit or about 3 degree C maximum. When the water temperature rises due to the additional load the

For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is used ?

No. 517

>

A

Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.

B

Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet.

C

Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.

D

Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet. The water temperature is MEASURED by the WAX valve fitted in the inlet line and the reaction of the WAX element to temperature (expansion or retraction) controls the flow to the cooler. We correct in fact the water inlet purely from the

What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?

No. 518

>

A

To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse

B

To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks

C

To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.

D

To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils

The Auxiliary Diesel Renovating Lub Oil tank is used for the purpose of collecting used Aux diesel lub oil from its sump tanks and then run the lubrication oil purifier in closed circuit tank to tank until the oil is purified and a sample is send for

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?

No. 519

>

Lubrct1.BMP

A

To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B

To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intended for purification

C

To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils

D

To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes Usually fitted a double bottom in the engine room it serves as storage space for dirty or contaminated oil from the sump tank with the intention that this oil will be purified for reuse.

What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?

No. 520

>

A

A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil

B

A Main Engine system oil reserve tank

C

A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine

D

An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil

Lubrct1.BMP

The sump tank is fitted as double bottom tank below the main engine. The oil collected from the lubrication oil forced system in the main engine crankcase flows to the sump tank where it is collected and the quantity of oil

What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil purifiers have in common ?

No. 521

>

A

They all contain extremely dirty oils.

B

They all contain the same grade of oil.

C

They all contain in-service oils.

D

They all contain waste oils. The oils contained in the tanks connected to the lub. oil purifiers are all in-service oils with different degrees of use but all intended for reuse in the systems of either main engine or auxiliary diesels.

What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin) ?

No. 522

>

A

70 degree C

B

75 degree C

C

85 degree C

D

95 degree C Usual temperature of lubricating Oil Purifiers is 85 to 87 degree C for reason that by lower temperatures purification is less efficient, by higher temperatures the oils might crack

Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible ?

No. 523

>

A

Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank

B

M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank

C

M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank

D

M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank

.\LUBRCT2A.BMP

Both option and are understandable. Option is possible since suction is taken from a different tank and delivery of both purifiers to one tank is feasible. Tested and approved oil from the Dirty Oil tank

Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump tank?

No. 524

>

A

At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump.

B

From the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps.

C

After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running.

D

In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank.

During manoeuvring with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors ?

No. 525

>

The condition of the oil of the sump tank gives best indication of suitability after its discharge trough the purifier under normal operational condition of the main engine, i.e. Main Engine Forced Lubricating system in operation and

A

No 1 and No 2 compressors on "AUTO".

B

One compressor on "AUTO", the other on "MANUAL"

C

No 1 and No 2 compressor on "MANUAL".

D

Both compressors started at the local start position as required.

One compressor is selected on AUTO to cope with normal manoeuvring intensity. If very frequent manoeuvring is carried out the second compressor is started on MANUAL to cope with the increased air consumption. Sufficient power

In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical power ?

No. 526

>

A

In part 2, the turboblower.

B

In the main engine.

C

In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.

D

In part 5, the scavenge air blower. Heat from the exhaust gases of the main engine is converted into mechanical power by the Exhaust Gas Turbine (and transferred through the T/C rotor shaft to the blower).

In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power ?

No. 527

>

A

In the main engine

B

In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)

C

In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1)

D

In the exhaust gas boiler Mechanical power is applied on the shafts of the turbo blower and the scavenge air blower and the turbo blower and fan impeller converts it into thermal power (Pressure and temperature of the air increased)

In an "impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine ....

No. 528

>

A

are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold.

B

are driving only one single turbocharger.

C

are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.

D

are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold. For an impulse type turbocharger the gases are not entering an exhaust gas manifold which would be more or less under constant pressure, but are led directly to the turbocharger in groups of 2 or 3 exhaust pipe sets. The exhaust gas released

On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted ?

No. 529

>

A

On the exhaust gas boiler.

B

On the turbo blower.

C

On the scavenge air blower.

D

On the scavenge air manifold. The moisture of the scavenge air in the manifold needs to be drained off constantly to avoid water entering the cylinder space of the diesel.

Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value ?

No. 530

>

A

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

B

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

C

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

D

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine. The dew point of the water vapour present in the air may be reached by too low temperatures and condensate/moisture will enter the engine.

In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger via ....

No. 531

>

A

the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.

B

the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups.

C

a separate manifold for each turbocharger.

D

nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe. The constant pressure type turbocharger is fed via a common exhaust gas manifold in which all exhaust gas is collected. One or more turbochargers are fed from this common exhaust manifold which has an average exhaust

For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump temperature on the turbine side ?

No. 532

>

A

35 to 45 degrees C

B

45 to 50 degrees C

C

55 to 65 degrees C

D

72 to 82 degrees C The cooling water surrounding the sump casing is usually already 65 degrees C, so the temperature of the sump can in no way be lower, but about 10 to 15 degrees higher. Option is correct

In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?

No. 533

>

A

They need more cooling water.

B

The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.

C

The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted.

D

For ease of installation. The sea water is first heated up by the Scav Air coolers and the Lu. Oil cooler which have the lowest temperature. The water flowing out from these coolers can still be used to cooler the Jacket and Piston CW coolers which are at higher

How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled ?

No. 534

>

A

They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier.

B

They are refilled once per day.

C

They are refilled only when required.

D

They are refilled twice a week. These are the SETTLING TANKS which are refilled EVERY DAY.

What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3) shown in this fuel oil arrangement?

No. 535

>

A

45 to 60 degree C

B

30 to 45 degree C

C

60 to 80 degree C

D

Above 80 degree C

Oils6a.BMP

The heating control valve of the heating coil is set at 60 degree C, however during filling when colder oil from the bunker tanks is added the temperature will drop as much as 10 to 15 degree C. Option is correct.

What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?

No. 536

>

A

A fuel strainer.

B

A fuel transfer pump.

C

A heater.

D

A booster pump.

Oils6a.BMP

The fuel supplied from the settling tank to the purifier is heated from about 45-60 degree C to about 85-90 degree C.

What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

No. 537

>

A

A fuel oil transfer pump

B

A fuel oil booster pump

C

A fuel oil ball filter

D

A fuel oil purifier

Oils6a.BMP

From the settling tank to the daily tank fuel is being transferred via the purifier.

At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

No. 538

>

A

Variable, depending time of the day

B

Between 2/3 and 3/4 full

C

Full

D

Between 1/2 and 3/4 full The purifier at sea fills the day tank from the settling tank to a capacity greater than the engine consumption. Fuel in excess will flow back via the overflow return line to the settling tank. The daily tank is thus at constant level because

Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement shown here ?

No. 539

>

A

Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank

B

Daily to Settling, Settling to Settling tank

C

Settling to settling, Daily to Daily tank

D

Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank Suction is always from the settling tank: delivery either to settling tank or to the daily tank.

What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank?

No. 540

>

A

40 to 50 degree C

B

50 to 60 degree C

C

60 to 75 degree C

D

80 to 90 degree C The steam heating automatic valve to the heating coils closes at 60 degree C, however oil from the purifier at temperatures of 80 degree + is added gradually to the tank, raising its temperature well above 60 degree C. Option

Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank?

No. 541

>

A

A drain valve (Spring loaded)

B

Quick closing shut-off valves (remote operated)

C

A thermometer

D

A remote tank gauging system Option is not necessarily provided but optional. Local readings must be taken or tank sounded.

Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO) ?

No. 542

>

A

Daily tank low temperature

B

Daily tank low level

C

Daily tank high Level

D

Daily tank high temperature Whereas HI/LO Level alarms are provided only a low temperature alarm is fitted.

When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for example +4, this means that ....

No. 543

>

A

the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.

B

the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.

C

the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm.

D

the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other.

The + (plus) sign means that the distance between the crank webs has increased, thus reference distance + n/100 mm. The - sign means that the distance between the crank webs has decreased, thus reference distance -n/100 mm.

What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings?

No. 544

>

A

Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine.

B

Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.

C

Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak.

D

Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment. Ballast tanks influence the bedplate alignment but also cargo, fuel tank condition etc.. The shear forces on the engine room bulkheads influence the bedplate alignment, thus the bedplate may be bending slightly upwards or

A cylinder of a large diesel engine is 900 mm in diameter and the firing pressure is 80 bar. What is the force exerted on the piston at this firing pressure ?

No. 545

>

A

508,680 kg

B

635850, kg

C

487,334 kg

D

299,074 kg The working surface is 6358.5 cm2. The force is 508680 kg

What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel engine ?

No. 546

>

A

To open in port so the engine cannot be started.

B

To drain off water and condensate from the cylinder.

C

To release gas from the cylinder by operating turning gear.

D

To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder.

What force makes a safety valve of a diesel engine open?

No. 547

>

A

The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder.

B

The exhaust gas pressure.

C

The fuel pressure to the cylinder head.

D

The pressure inside the combustion space. Excessive pressure inside the combustion space opens the valve

At which moment exactly does the safety valve of a diesel engine open?

No. 548

>

A

At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing pressure.

B

When too much starting air is admitted.

C

When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure.

D

When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder. When the gas pressure in the combustion space exceeds the spring pressure of the safety valve the valve will open.

In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine?

No. 549

>

A

Compressing.

B

Firing.

C

Gas expanding.

D

Scavenging. The piston is below the scavenge ports and scavenge air is blowing the cylinder space clean.

What type of engine is shown here?

No. 550

>

A

A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging.

B

A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging.

C

A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging.

D

A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging. Scavenge air is admitted on the bottom of the cylinder liner via the scavenge ports and leaves via the exhaust valve. This is uniflow (single direction flow) scavenging.

If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the reading which was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS, left is SB.

No. 551

>

A

Zero

B

P

C

S

D

TS The meter has just been inserted and adjusted to zero, the engine now starts turning.

What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine?

No. 552

>

A

Foundation, one-piece motor block.

B

Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder.

C

Separate bedplate, one part crankcase and cylinder block.

D

One unit foundation and bedplate, separate cylinder block. The bedplate and columns are separate units. One cylinder block for each unit provided. All parts are bolted to one another.

A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts:-

No. 553

>

A

piston body, piston flange, piston crown.

B

piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece.

C

piston crown, piston body, piston rings.

D

piston, piston rings, telescopic piping. Piston Crown: water or oil cooled, piston rings fitted on this part. Piston rod: the flange of the piston rod is fastened to the piston crown. Piston skirt: bolted to piston crowns. Intermediate piece: between skirt and crown. The brass

What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moves in order to secure tightness ?

No. 554

>

A

The piston underside valves.

B

The scavenging air valve box.

C

The piston rod stuffing box.

D

The crankcase sealing assembly. The piston on this type of engines usually works as a scavenge air pump. Air-and oil tightness to the crankcase are ensured by the piston rod stuffing box.

During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine's piston are sliding up and down into ....

No. 555

>

A

the crankcase cooling space.

B

compressed air vessels.

C

piston cooling water piping.

D

telescopic buffer vessels. The telescopic piping are sliding down in telescopic buffer vessels, which are vessels connected to the piston cooling water circuit, but have an AIR CUSHION on top to compensate for the upward and downward movements of

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

No. 556

>

A

A four stroke supercharged engine.

B

A four stroke trunk type engine.

C

A two stroke crosshead type engine.

D

A two stroke trunk-piston type engine. The exhaust and scavenge ports indicate a two-stroke engine. It is clearly a trunk type.

What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?

No. 557

>

A

A uniflow scavenge system.

B

Loop scavenging.

C

Diverted scavenging.

D

Combined scavenging. The scavenge ports and the exhaust gas ports are on the bottom of the liner and the scavenging air flows in a loop through the cylinder.

What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?

No. 558

>

A

An impulse type.

B

A constant pressure type.

C

A dual entry type.

D

A radial inlet type. The large size exhaust gas manifold indicates that all exhaust gases are entering the manifold, also exhaust ports are used in the cylinder liner, so this is the final indication. In this case, a constant pressure type exhaust gas

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

No. 559

>

A

A four stroke trunk type engine.

B

A four stroke flanged type engine.

C

A two stroke trunk type engine.

D

A two stroke suspended engine. There are no scavenge ports but in-and outlet valves on top of the cylinder. It is a four stroke engine with a trunk type piston.

How are the inlet, exhaust valves and rocker arms actuated on this engine?

No. 560

>

A

Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods.

B

Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit.

C

Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster.

D

Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever. The cam pushes a lever which lifts the push rods. This indicates that the fuel pumps and the rocker arm pushrods are not at the same distance from the centre of engine. In this case the pushrods are on the inner side, the fuel pumps

In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard and during the taking of crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown ?

No. 561

>

A

Between TP and P

B

Between P and S

C

Between S and TS

D

Between TS and TP Readings start at TP (top port), than P (port), than SB (starboard) than TS (top starboard) At that point you cannot turn any further or you will push the deflection meter out of its position by the connecting rod. As shown, the meter is in

Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ?

No. 562

>

A

Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil.

B

Blend or intermediate fuel oil.

C

Heavy fuel oil.

D

Any of these fuels. Lately more and more engines are run on heavy fuel oil, including the smaller 4-stroke type. If not blended oil or intermediate fuel may be used. So any of these fuels is correct.

What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine ?

No. 563

>

A

To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder when starting.

B

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

C

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

D

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine. If the engine is started, the main starting air valve opens the supply from the air bottles to the starting air valves in the cylinder head. Only the cylinder that is in "START" position will receive air from the starting air valve (depending to

At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and allow 25 bar to flow into the cylinder ?

No. 564

>

A

When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam.

B

When control air is supplied to the top connection.

C

When the main starting air is opened from the bottle.

D

When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring. The air supplied on top via the top line keeps the valve shut since it counteracts the force of the spring. Thus when air is supplied to the starting air valves by the main starting valve the valves will not open, unless the air on top is released by

How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and spring) ensured in starting air valves of this type ?

No. 565

>

A

Teflon seals are fitted.

B

O-ring seals are fitted.

C

Piston rings are fitted.

D

Labyrinth seals are fitted. The valve has piston rings fitted on the sliding piston

What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ?

No. 566

>

A

Open up the main and cylinder head starting valve and clean pistons.

B

Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner.

C

See that the cyinderl starting valve is moving by air hose connection.

D

Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture.

How are starting air valves made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines ?

No. 567

>

Grease needs to be applied prior manoeuvring to ensure that the piston rings are tight and the valves freely moving. Moisture is of course to be drained off from the main starting valve unit, the lines and the air bottles.

A

By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.

B

They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed.

C

Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted.

D

A copper gasket is fitted. Only a copper gasket can stand the heat which exists on the starting air valve ring which is fitted in the cylinder head seat.

What kind of scavenging is shown on the top left drawing ?

No. 568

>

A

Transversal scavenging.

B

Loop scavenging.

C

Cross scavenging.

D

Single valve uniflow. The scavenge flow is transversal.

What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?

No. 569

>

A

Four-way uniflow.

B

Transversal.

C

Cross scavenging.

D

Loop scavenging. Exhaust and scavenge ports are on the same side of the cylinder and the air is flowing in a loop.

What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?

No. 570

>

A

Loop scavenging.

B

Traverse scavenging.

C

Cross scavenging.

D

Uniflow scavenging.

Diesl15a.BMP

The flow crosses its own path.

What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ?

No. 571

>

A

Transverse scavenging.

B

Cross scavenging.

C

Loop scavenging.

D

Uniflow scavenging. The scavenging flow is from the scavenge ports in the bottom to the exhaust valve on top, one way, thus UNIFLOW

What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ?

No. 572

>

A

Uniflow scavenging.

B

Cross scavenging.

C

Loop scavenging.

D

Balanced scavenging. The flow of the scavenging air is from the scavenge ports on the bottom to the exhaust valves on the top, thus uniflow in one direction.

Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traverse scavenging are called ..................... scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOW scavenging.

No. 573

>

A

MULTIFLOW.

B

DIVERSE FLOW.

C

REVERSE FLOW.

D

INVERSE FLOW. Uniflow is when the scavenge air is admitted on the bottom and goes one way to the top where it escapes via the exhaust valve. Reverse flow is where the scavenging air is admitted on the bottom, travels upwards and reverses

What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?

No. 574

>

A

Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.

B

Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.

C

Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump.

D

Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators. The pistons and cylinders need to be warm, at least 55 degree C, and lubricated, for which the lubricators have to be manually turned whilst the turning gear is turning the engine.

What should be observed when you make a lubrication check of the engine forced lubrication oil system ?

No. 575

>

A

The level in the oil sump tank.

B

The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.

C

Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train.

D

That the oil pressure on the top position manometer is correct. Oil under correct pressure should to be seen flowing uniformly from all bearings, including top bearings. Oil flow from guides and to the gear train needs to be uniform.

At what times during the sea voyage is the main engine in state of readiness for manoeuvring?

No. 576

>

A

In shallow waters.

B

By reduced visibility.

C

In all emergency situations.

D

All of these options. To propulsion equipment is to be in state of readiness at all times during the voyage ready to respond to any requirements made from the bridge as to changes of direction and speed

What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ?

No. 577

>

A

The lifting height of the plunger.

B

The setting of the overflow valve.

C

The setting of suction and overflow valve.

D

The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel. It is the rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel which determines the amount of fuel pumped. This is due to the tangential groove and top plunger shape which determines the end of the pumping action by uncovering the fuel port.

How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump?

No. 578

>

A

By the suction valve setting.

B

By the delivery valve setting.

C

By the plunger rotation.

D

By the fuel cam setting. The timing is adjusted by the fuel cam setting.

The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector, is shown here as a red interrupted line. For " UMS " classed vessel, how is this pipe best described ?

No. 579

>

A

It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity.

B

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted.

C

It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the alarm sounded.

D

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture.

Diesl10a.BMP

High pressure fuel piping must be shielded on UMS classed vessels. If ruptured this will ensure that the spilled oil is contained within the shielding and flows off to a small leakage tank fitted with a sensor to detect fuel leakage and

What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ?

No. 580

>

A

The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.

B

The mechanical force of the fuel cam.

C

The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.

D

The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring. The power originates from the mechanical movement of the cam.

If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can ..................

No. 581

>

A

tension the injector spring more.

B

tension the fuel pump spring more.

C

adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

D

adjust the fuel oil cam to retard. The lift-off pressure is determined by the injector spring pressure.

The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ...........

No. 582

>

A

an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.

B

an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.

C

a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.

D

a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller. Observe the astern and the ahead cam of the fuel pump. The engine is thus reversible.

The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via the ................... on the fuel pump.

No. 583

>

A

plunger spring

B

roller

C

barrel

D

cam lever The fuel cam pushes the roller which in turn causes the upward force of the plunger.

The injector seen in the drawing is best described as ........................ type injector.

No. 584

>

A

a heavy fuel oil

B

a diesel oil

C

a forced circulation

D

a water cooled It is a water cooled type injector.

The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of the ...... ............ .

No. 585

>

A

pipe plunger.

B

suction valve.

C

overflow valve.

D

fuel cam. It is the position of the overflow valve, controlled by setting the fuel rack via an eccentric which determines the end of pumping by the fuel pump and correspondingly the end of fuel injection in the cylinder.

Crankshaft distortions need to be measured and are referred to as ................. .

No. 586

>

A

crankshaft distortion readings.

B

crankshaft deflection measurements.

C

crankshaft misalignment calibrations.

D

Any of these answers.

In a trunk type piston, the gudgeon pin is subject to two forces. What are these forces ?

No. 587

>

A

Exhaust pressure and combustionl force.

B

Linear and and rotating motion.

C

Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation .

D

Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque. There is no crosshead and guide shoe to absorb the side thrust force. It is taken by the gudgeon pin and transferred to the cylinder liner surface.

Which of the following refers to the distance between the piston top at BDC and TDC?

No. 588

>

A

The cylinder distance.

B

The stroke.

C

The compression clearance.

D

Any of these.

In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable operation of the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ?

No. 589

>

A

Hunting.

B

Sensitivity.

C

Deadbeat.

D

Stability. In the case of hunting the revolutions increase and decrease in a consistent amount.

The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the number of:

No. 590

>

A

piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution.

B

piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.

C

strokes in each combustion cycle.

D

combustion events occurring in each stroke.

The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called............

No. 591

>

A

tensile stress.

B

compressive stress.

C

bending stress.

D

torsional stress.

What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil?

No. 592

>

A

The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity.

B

The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity.

C

The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity.

D

The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity.

What part shown in this diagram ?

No. 593

>

A

A crosshead bearing.

B

A piston and rings.

C

A piston filter.

D

A connecting rod.

In a 4 cycle engine the inlet valve begins to open when the piston is ....

No. 594

>

A

at BDC on the firing stroke.

B

after TDC on the suction stroke.

C

just before BDC on the suction stroke.

D

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke.

In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust valve opens when the piston is .....

No. 595

>

A

at BDC on the suction stroke

B

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke

C

jusbefore BDC on the power stroke.

D

at BDC on the compression stroke

In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period of ..................

No. 596

>

A

180 degrees.

B

200 degrees.

C

250 degrees.

D

160 degrees.

What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder?

No. 597

>

A

To facilitate piston overhaul

B

To have good an effective combustion

C

To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder

D

To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it ....

No. 598

>

A

indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.

B

is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.

C

reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil.

D

is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.

An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the .....

No. 599

>

A

non-return valve.

B

pressure regulating valve.

C

fuel rack.

D

plunger.

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke is called .....

No. 600

>

A

expansion.

B

compression.

C

scavenging.

D

cycle.

Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servo-motor to increase or decrease engine speed ?

No. 601

>

A

The linkage to the fuel rack.

B

The sensitivity band.

C

The compensating spring.

D

The dashpot.

What do you call the gauge that measures the concentric position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft in its bearing ?

No. 602

>

A

A bridge gauge.

B

A slip gauge.

C

A shafting gauge.

D

A poker gauge.

What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I Loss of power. II Misfiring. III White exhaust smoke. IV Excessive consumption of lube oil.

No. 603

>

A

II, III and IV

B

I, III and IV

C

I, II and III

D

I, II and IV

In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to complete one cycle which must take place in regular order. The second stroke ................ .

No. 604

>

A

expels the burned gases.

B

draws air into the cylinder.

C

compresses the air.

D

is the power stroke.

The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor makes no correction and refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known as the ..............

No. 605

>

A

speed droop.

B

sensitive band.

C

dead band.

D

isochronous band.

The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the ...........

No. 606

>

A

compression stroke.

B

power stroke.

C

air stroke.

D

expansion stroke.

The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is called the .....

No. 607

>

A

power stroke.

B

air stroke.

C

ignition stroke.

D

compression stroke.

What is pipe No 1 ?

No. 608

>

A

The cooling water outlet

B

The cooling water inlet

C

The lub oil inlet

D

The lub oil outlet

What is component No 5 ?

No. 609

>

A

The lub oil inlet

B

The oil purging valve

C

The fresh water purger

D

The Sediment drain

What is part No 4 ?

No. 610

>

A

The cooling water space.

B

The sacrificial anode.

C

The tubeplate.

D

The tubestack.

What is Part No 7 ?

No. 611

>

A

The sediment tapping valve.

B

The cooling water drain valve.

C

The high pressure Lub oil inlet.

D

The water temperature gauge.

As a rule of thumb, the time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at ..................hours.

No. 612

>

A

1 to 2

B

2 to 4

C

4 to 6

D

6 to 8 Option is correct. The Lubricating oil of trunk type engines becomes dirty rapidly due to its contact with the combustion residue.

In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of .............. .

No. 613

>

A

B

C

cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbon between the piston rings is cleared away.

D

flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into the scavenge space.

A

stainless steel.

B

mild steel.

C

cast iron.

D

tempered steel.

Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified because ..............................

No. 615

>

Option A is correct. The oil film prevents blow-by of gases and at the same time reduces friction between piston, rings and liners.

A diesel engine block is made of ............... and does not permit welding.

No. 614

>

forming a film between liner and rings, acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of combustion gases and reducing friction between parts. ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will not overheat.

A

the ring or groove clearances have worn in excess.

B

the piston crowns have developed hot spots and burning marks over the surface.

C

the piston skirts show marks of burned oil.

D

they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the inside of their grooves.

Option is correct. Although the rings are not visibly broken they can be detected due their lack of elasticity and consequent gas blow-by marks (dark colour).

Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to .................

No. 616

>

A

excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.

B

blocked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box wear rings or sealing rings.

C

slow combustion caused by poor injection.

D

wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine. Option is correct. Poor injection causes after combustion/ incomplete combustion with carbon deposits settling on the scavenge manifold walls.

When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a diesel engine crankcase and hold-down bolt inspection, the quickest and most effective method is ............

No. 617

>

A

checking bold clearances with feeler gauges.

B

tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

C

checking the stress on the locking plates or split pins.

D

checking the tightness using torque spanners. Option is correct. A sharp (high tone) sound indicates tightness of the nut and bolt. A dull (low) sound indicates slack.

Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to analyse ............. .

No. 618

>

A

the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.

B

the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase.

C

the temperature of the oil in the crankcase.

D

fire risk in the crankcase. Option is correct. The concentration of oil vapours increases when there is a temperature rise due to lack of lubrication in any bearing. The oil mist detector has an alarm that warns of dangerous oil vapour concentrations.

The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always .......... .

No. 619

>

A

from top to bottom.

B

from left to right.

C

from bottom to top.

D

from right to left. It always enters the bottom which is the coldest part and gradual heating promotes natural circulation, moreover it prevents cold water reaches the hottest parts first. Option is correct.

On all ships it is possible to cool the propulsion machinery directly by the ............ .

No. 620

>

A

main fire pump.

B

ballast pump.

C

after peak cooling water.

D

salt water pump (main sea water pump). Option D is correct. Salt water cooling connections for direct salt water cooling are provided. Flanges will have to be unblanked and connections freed.

Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by ............. .

No. 621

>

A

losses in oil coolers.

B

malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricating oil system.

C

excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defective piston/scraper rings).

D

any of the other options.

Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the engine load ?

No. 622

>

A

The flywheel.

B

The manoeuvring controller.

C

The vibration damper.

D

The governor. Option is correct. The fuel pumps are controlled by the governor.

Automatic shutdown of the main diesel engine always acts on the .........

No. 623

>

A

governor.

B

control air supply.

C

fuel supply.

D

manoeuvring disc. Option is correct. It is the fuel to the engine that is cut off. This varies from system to system, e.g. fuel pump racks pushed back pneumatically, fuel line solenoid valve etc..... You must be careful to purge the engine and check

Putting additives into diesel engine cooling water is primarily designed to prevent ....

No. 624

>

A

overheating.

B

freezing.

C

leakages.

D

scaling. Option D is correct. The purpose is to prevent scale formation or incrustation of the walls of the cooled areas such as jackets, cylinder heads etc... since these scales would greatly diminish the heat transfer which could cause

If the main engine jacket cooling water expansion tank level drops rapidly, what could this indicate?

No. 625

>

A

There is a leak in the jacket cooling water cooler.

B

There is an internal leak in the engine.

C

There is a leakage in external piping.

D

Any of these.

How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?

No. 626

>

A

In series with the cylinders.

B

In line with the cylinders.

C

In parallel with the cylinders.

D

In tandem with the cylinders.

Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the turbocharger ?

No. 627

>

A

To protect the blower side.

B

To protect the bearings.

C

To protect rotor blades from damage.

D

To protect the exhaust gas economizer.

Your vessel is entering a tropical area and high humidity is expected. What should you do to avoid condensation in the main engine's air cooler ?

No. 628

>

A

Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid of water.

B

Decrease the air temperature so proper draining can be achieved from the air cooler.

C

Increase scavenging air temperature to above dew point.

D

Reduce speed.

When all preparations have been made to ensure that the main engine is operational prior to departure, what will be the final test to be carried out ?

No. 629

>

A

Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators.

B

Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.

C

Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles.

D

Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks.

To avoid the possibility of a scavenge fire what important check is to be carried out every watch and more frequently if a damaged piston ring is suspected?

No. 630

>

A

The cylinder lubrication.

B

The exhaust gas temperature.

C

The scavenge drain flow through.

D

Overhear the cylinder for noise.

The water cooling space on the turbocharger is damaged and you have no spares. The cooling water must be closed. What steps would you take to ensure least possible damage?

No. 631

>

A

Run the engine at lower speed with the turbine drains open.

B

Open turbine drains and tell the duty engineer to pay special attention for abnormalities.

C

Remove rotor assembly and fit the sealing plate.

D

Shut off cooling water and run at reduced rpm.

Paint spraying has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running and the turbocharger was not protected. This could cause which of the following ?

No. 632

>

A

Higher than normal scavenging air pressure.

B

Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

C

Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

D

Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures.

After how many hours would you consider changing the turbocharger bearings, even though all appears to be normal ?

No. 633

>

A

4000 hours.

B

12000 hours.

C

25000 hours.

D

30000 hours.

The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making "whoofing" noises. What might be the cause ?

No. 634

>

A

A strong counter current.

B

Heavy seas from astern.

C

A faulty turbocharger bearing.

D

One or more leaking exhaust valves.

The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by ........... .

No. 635

>

A

the viscosity of the fuel being high.

B

the wind and current being favourable.

C

the wind and current holding the vessel back.

D

poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.

Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger ?

No. 636

>

A

Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.

B

Worn bearings on the turbocharger.

C

Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.

D

Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.

Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead center ?

No. 637

>

A

Combustion clearance.

B

Cylinder clearance.

C

Compression clearance.

D

Any of these.

With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What may be the cause ?

No. 638

>

A

Dirty nozzle ring.

B

The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.

C

The diffuser ring is damaged.

D

Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.

The lubricating oil on the exhaust side of the turbine blower gets dirty after only a few hours in service. What can the reason be ?

No. 639

>

A

The wrong type of oil used.

B

Cooling water leak into oil space..

C

Labrynth seal leaking exhaust gas into the oil.

D

Damaged/worn turbine side bearing.

After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate. What has happened ?

No. 640

>

A

The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose.

B

The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.

C

The inlet filer is partly clogged.

D

The water drain for washing system is clogged.

The charge air pressure is low, what is the most likely cause ?

No. 641

>

A

Dirty scavenge duct.

B

Dirty air inlet filter.

C

Leaking air inlet valves..

D

Cooling water temperature is too high.

If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure on the injector, what should you do ?

No. 642

>

A

Tension the injector spring more.

B

Tension the fuel pump spring more.

C

Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

D

Adjust the fuel pump cam to retard.

If you are going to enter the engine's crankcase, how should you secure the engine after you have closed the main starting air valve?

No. 643

>

A

Close absolutely all valves on the starting air bottle.

B

Engage the turning gear on the engine.

C

Close all starting air valves and post a warning notice on the start air bottle.

D

Keep a man posted in the control room to watch that nobody tries to start the engine.

Inspection of the crank bearing shows the bearing shell was black and hard with patches of black incrustations which had worn grooves in the journal. What could be the cause?

No. 644

>

A

Water in the lubricating oil during service.

B

Dirt in the lubricating oil.

C

The wrong casting of bearing shell.

D

Bearing shell service time exceeded.

When carrying out piston overhaul, why it is important to clean the ring grooves properly?

No. 645

>

A

To make the ring fit in the groove.

B

All rings must be changed to make a perfect sealing.

C

So that the piston rings can move freely in the grooves.

D

To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the piston ring .

During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause ?

No. 646

>

A

Scavenge box fire.

B

High back pressure in the exhaust system.

C

Turbocharger failure.

D

Fuel valve seized in open position.

You are experiencing blow-by on the main engine but, due to operational circumstances, it is impossible to stop and carry out a piston overhaul. What is the correct action to take ?

No. 647

>

A

No action is necessary.

B

Reduce speed and closely monitor exhaust temperature on the affected unit.

C

Increase cylinder oil consumption.

D

Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil supply.

You have installed a new bearing in the main engine. What is the necessary action to take during the running in period ?

No. 648

>

A

No action is required to be taken.

B

Allow for one hour running with appropriate temperature monitoring of the bearing.

C

Allowance must be made for a running in period with reduced speed and careful temperature monitoring.

D

Stop after 30 minutes running and hand feel the bearing.

You are experiencing major surging in the fresh water cooling system. What could be the reason?

No. 649

>

A

The cooling water temperature is too low.

B

You have a cracked liner, or cover.

C

The expansion tank is empty.

D

The fresh water-circulating pump is malfunctioning.

Why is it important to check the timing on the cylinder oil lubricators ?

No. 650

>

A

To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder.

B

To avoid excess lubrication.

C

To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber.

D

To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the correct position.

Why is the tightening of the timing chain important ?

No. 651

>

A

To get the right timing on the chain.

B

To reduce vibration in the chain.

C

To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel teeth and a potential breakdown.

D

To reduce the noise level.

What will the effect be if a fuel injector valve is dripping after completion of injection ?

No. 652

>

A

Better combustion.

B

Damage to piston & liner.

C

Less carbonizing.

D

Greater output of the engine.

How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in a fuel injector valve ?

No. 653

>

A

By length of stroke.

B

By camshaft regulation.

C

By oil pressure.

D

By spring adjustment.

Why blow the engine over on starting air before a start?

No. 654

>

A

To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders.

B

To be sure that no parts are loose, or that the engine is blocked from rotation.

C

To get fresh air into cylinders ensuring a safe start of the engine.

D

To be sure that all indicator cocks are closed and there is no passage into the combustion chamber.

You have a cylinder liner with 8 outlet holes for cylinder lubrication, how many clogged holes can you tolerate ?

No. 655

>

A

0

B

1

C

2

D

3

What do you consider to be the most important task on completion of maintenance work on the piston?

No. 656

B

Starting the auxiliary blower to ventilate the scavenging belt, the cylinder liners, to ensure that the engine has sufficient fresh air to start. Starting the engine to see that it rotates.

C

A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags.

D

Patching up destroyed paintwork on the crankcase doors.

A

>

A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best be detected by .......... .

No. 657

>

A

visual inspection of the filter elements.

B

a decrease in oil viscosity.

C

the pressure drop across the filter.

D

high lube oil temperature.

What can happen with lubrication oil cooled pistons if you stop the lubricating oil pump immediately after you stop the engine?

No. 658

>

A

Nothing will happen.

B

Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.

C

The oil flashpoint will change.

D

You preserve the oil sealings in the piston.

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is high. What will you do ?

No. 659

>

A

Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil.

B

Increase the cooling temperature for the oil.

C

Increase the lubrication oil pressure.

D

Clean the system and change the oil.

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low. What will you do ?

No. 660

>

A

Clean the system and change the oil.

B

Increase the lubrication oil temperature.

C

Start to purify the oil.

D

Decrease the lubrication oil temperature.

What could cause engine oil to turn a "milky" colour?

No. 661

>

A

Overheating.

B

Water contamination.

C

Fuel contamination.

D

The oil is old.

If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, how many clogged holes are acceptable ?

No. 662

>

A

0

B

1

C

2

D

3

Lapping a valve and valve seat together means .............. .

No. 663

>

A

adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves.

B

grinding the valve against the valve seat to obtain a uniform sealing surface.

C

machining the valve in a lathe.

D

repairing by welding.

Why do diesel engine manufacturers recommend grinding the valve seating surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat?

No. 664

>

A

To prevent pitting of the valve seat.

B

To minimize heat transfer between seat and housing.

C

To improve sealing between valve and seat.

D

To avoid sticking between valve and seat during high load operation.

What steps are to be taken in chronological order to stabilise a governor of a diesel engine after overhaul ?

No. 665

>

A

Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating, next differentiating from zero.

B

Set integrating to MAX, then adjust speed (P) and differential D.

C

Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed (P) upward.

D

Set integrating and differentiating to MAX, set speed (P) from zero upwards.

You notice the sump level in an engine has increased and no new oil has been added. What action would you take ?

No. 666

>

A

Drain some oil from the engine.

B

Reduce the load and start the purifier.

C

Stop the engine and check for fuel or water leaks.

D

Check the level regularly.

The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ?

No. 667

>

A

Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.

B

Cause surging of turbocharger.

C

Cause higher air and gas temperatures after the turbocharger.

D

Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.

Why is a slow speed two stroke diesel the most suitable for a single fixed pitch propeller vessel?

No. 668

>

A

Less complicated than medium speed engines

B

More fuel-efficient

C

Affords a better engine layout

D

Easier to reverse and no propulsion gearbox required

What is the best way of preventing scavenge fires in a slow speed two stroke diesel?

No. 669

>

A

Keep scavenge spaces clean.

B

Ensure fuel injectors are maintained.

C

Maintain correct cylinder lubrication.

D

Burn only the specified grade of fuel.

What determines delivery pressure on a Bosch type fuel pump?

No. 670

>

A

The spring setting on the fuel injector.

B

The length of stroke of the fuel pump.

C

The position of the fuel pump control rack.

D

The fuel cam profile.

What is the most likely cause of reduction in Diesel engine compression pressure?

No. 671

>

A

Piston scraper ring wear.

B

Worn valve rocker gear.

C

Leaking exhaust valve.

D

Build-up of carbon deposits.

In a trunk piston Diesel engine how is the piston cooled?

No. 672

>

A

Separate piston cooling oil supply.

B

By a dedicated piston supply line.

C

By jacket cooling water.

D

By the crankcase oil spraying on the underside of the piston.

What is the main purpose of turning gear on a large slow speed diesel engine?

No. 673

>

A

For inspection and overhaul of engine components.

B

To prevent the engine turning.

C

To position the engine for starting.

D

To check ease of turning before starting.

What is the effect on the fuel injector atomisation if the oil temperature is too high?

No. 674

>

A

Carbon forming on the burner tips distorting flame shape.

B

Insufficient excess air.

C

Smoke at uptake.

D

Damage to refractory and overheating.

During regular manned watch keeping in the engine room how often should the daily service tank drain be checked?

No. 675

>

A

At beginning of the watch.

B

At the end of the watch.

C

At beginning of the watch and if water is evident, every hour.

D

Every two hours.

What calibrations are taken to determine piston ring wear on a Diesel engine?

No. 676

>

A

Radial thickness of ring and butt gap in unworn cylinder.

B

Radial and axial thickness of ring.

C

Internal diameter when positioned in unworn cylinder.

D

Ring/groove clearance and butt gap in unworn cylinder.

What operates on an Otto cycle?

No. 677

>

A

Steam power plant.

B

Two stroke diesel engine.

C

Petrol engine.

D

Gas turbine.

On a medium speed four-stroke engine what is an indicator of engine performance?

No. 678

>

A

Peak cylinder pressure.

B

Exhaust temperature.

C

Maximum engine rpm.

D

Compression pressure.

What is an indication of a leaking heat exchanger on the jacket cooling water system?

No. 679

>

A

High jacket water temperature.

B

Inadequate coolant flow.

C

Low alkalinity readings.

D

High chloride readings in the jacket water.

What seal is used between turbo charger turbine and bearings?

No. 680

>

A

Gaco type lip seal.

B

Mechanical seal.

C

Labyrinth with charge air seal.

D

Plain shaft sleeve.

What is meant by the M.E.P. of a Diesel engine?

No. 681

>

A

Maximum cylinder pressure.

B

Mechanical efficiency.

C

Average cylinder pressure.

D

Compression pressure.

An auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head valve guide is shown. Which are the correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizes shown?

No. 682

>

A

00 : 27.00

B

12.00 : 27.04 11.96 : 26.96

C

11.92 : 27.05 11.81 : 27.04

D

11.65 : 27.21 11.60 : 27.23

What would you do if the engine OIL MIST DETECTOR alarm goes off indicating abnormal oil vapour in the crankcase?

No. 683

>

A

Slow down then stop engine and cool down for at least half an hour.

B

Investigate the oil pressure under slow down condition of engine.

C

Feel all crankcase doors and camshaft block for hot spot.

D

Stop engine at once and open crankcase doors to vent vapour.

What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead centre?

No. 684

>

A

The combustion clearance.

B

The cylinder clearance.

C

The compression clearance.

D

The valve clearance.

.\PICTURES AND GRAPHICS\MEO QUESTION-GRAPHICS\Q3 1.2.2.10.JPG

1.2.2.10 Limits and Fits - See sketch

How is the gudgeon pin removed on a trunk piston engine?

No. 685

>

A

Heat the piston with a soft flame.

B

Heat the piston using water or oil.

C

Hammer using brass dolly and supporting piston.

D

Force out with an extractor.

In what area of the scavenge air system is heat converted into mechanical power?

No. 686

>

A

The charge air compressor.

B

In the main engine.

C

The exhaust gas turbine.

D

The scavenge air cooler.

Where will the Diesel engine exhaust temperature be the highest?

No. 687

>

A

Before the turbo blower.

B

At the cylinder head.

C

At the turbo blower outlet.

D

At the exhaust port manifold.

What simple crack test can be applied to bottom end bolts?

No. 688

>

A

Dye penetrant test.

B

Ultra sonic test.

C

Suspend and ring with hammer.

D

Tensile test.

What is the most usual damage caused by a broken timing chain on a Diesel engine?

No. 689

>

A

Broken valve stems.

B

Broken connecting rods.

C

Bent push rods.

D

Broken camshaft.

What is the purpose of the injector leak-off connection?

No. 690

>

A

To relieve excess fuel pressure.

B

For fuel leaking past the delivery valve.

C

For fuel leaking past the injector needle valve.

D

To prevent water-cooling entering the fuel space.

Why must the scavenge air temperature be maintained above a low temperature limit?

No. 691

>

A

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

B

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

C

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

D

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

If jacket water alkalinity keeps dropping what could be the cause?

No. 692

>

A

More chemical additive required.

B

Possible cracked liner/head or leaking head joint.

C

Circulating pump not providing sufficient flow.

D

Jacket water temperature is too high.

For " UMS " classed vessels, how must the HP fuel delivery pipe be constructed?

No. 693

>

A

It is manufactured from Austenitic Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity.

B

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted

C

It needs to be a shielded pipe and in case of rupture the fuel leakage must be contained and the alarm sounded.

D

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture.

When taking a set of Diesel engine crankshaft deflections why are two reading taken at BDC position?

No. 694

>

A

The second is taken to check the accuracy of the first reading.

B

The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.

C

It is not possible to read the dial gauge accurately in one position.

D

During the rotating of the crankshaft the reading may vary.

A ship makes an observed speed of 17 knots. The engine speed is calculated to be 17.5 knots. What is the propeller slip?

No. 695

>

A

28.5 %

B

285 %

C

.0285 %

D

2.85 %

What is the first indication of a broken exhaust valve spring on a Diesel engine?

No. 696

>

A

Low exhaust temperature.

B

Smoking exhaust.

C

Blow back through the turbo charger.

D

High exhaust temperature.

What is the normal material used for Diesel engine cylinder liners?

No. 697

>

A

Cast steel

Cast iron.

B

Mild steel.

Alloy steel.

C

Mild steel.

D

Alloy steel.

What is the main function of the lub oil priming pump on a Diesel engine?

No. 698

>

A

Stand-by lub oil pressure pump.

B

Circulate oil system for starting.

C

Circulate oil after overhaul.

D

Priming lub oil filters after cleaning.

What is referred to as 'masking' of Diesel engine inlet and exhaust valve heads?

No. 699

>

A

When the valve edge becomes very thin.

B

When the valve seat becomes recessed into the head.

C

Build up of carbon on valve seats.

D

Build up of carbon on the valve stems.

What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position on a 4stroke Diesel engine?

No. 700

>

A

To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.

B

To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery.

C

To check the start point of injection

D

To check the tightness of the pump delivery valve.

What can affect the TBN of diesel lub oil?

No. 701

>

A

Wear of bearings

B

Wear of liner and rings

C

Fuel dilution

D

Wear of valves and rocker gear

What determines a Diesel engine's mechanical efficiency?

No. 702

>

A

I.H.P./B.H.P.

B

B.H.P./I.H.P.

C

B.H.P. - I.H.P.

D

I.H.P. - B.H.P.

Why is it so important to maintain air start lines clear of oil?

No. 703

>

A

Air start valves could jam.

B

Air start distributor valve could seize

C

Increased risk of fire in compressed air

D

Joints could be damaged.

In the formula for calculating engine power, P.L.A.N., what does N represent?

No. 704

>

A

Number of power strokes per second

B

Engine revolutions per minute

C

Number of engine cylinders

D

Number of the indicator spring

How is the timing (degrees advance) adjusted on a Bosch type fuel pump?

No. 705

>

A

By the suction valve setting.

B

By the delivery valve setting.

C

By the plunger rotation.

D

By the fuel cam setting.

What is the narrow band of speed variation through which the Diesel engine governor makes no correction to fuel setting?

No. 706

>

A

Speed droop.

B

Sensitive band.

C

Dead band.

D

Isochronous band.

What is the final engine test before starting the main engine for departure?

No. 707

>

A

Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators.

B

Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.

C

Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles

D

Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops?

No. 708

>

A

The level will decrease

B

The level will increase

C

The level will at first decrease but increases again

D

Nothing will happen

On a trunk piston engine how are the connecting rod side thrusts absorbed?

No. 709

>

A

By the gudgeon pin bearing.

B

By the crankpin bearing.

C

By the piston and cylinder liner.

D

By the crosshead bearing.

Why is the charge air cooled after leaving the charger?

No. 710

>

A

To lower the exhaust temperatures.

B

To remove water vapour.

C

To allow more air to enter the combustion space.

D

To prevent overheating of the turbocharger.

In a constant pressure type turbocharger how does the exhaust gas enter the turbo charger?

No. 711

>

A

Via a single, common exhaust gas manifold.

B

Via two or more exhaust manifold groups.

C

A separate manifold for adjacent exhausts.

D

Via separate individual cylinder exhaust pipes.

Where is the fuel injector leak-off connection fed?

No. 712

>

A

Into the oily bilge collection tank.

B

Into the 'in use' daily service tank.

C

Into the fuel bunker tanks.

D

Into the fuel oil separator suction.

Why would a check on Diesel engine cylinder compression pressure be made?

No. 713

>

A

To check the mechanical condition of valves and piston rings.

B

To assess the engine efficiency.

C

To enable the engine power to be calculated.

D

To check the efficiency of the turbo charger.

Why is the ash content of a fuel oil significant?

No. 714

>

A

Indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.

B

Is useful for determining proper atomisation temperatures.

C

Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.

D

Is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.

What is the fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine?

No. 715

>

A

Number of piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution

B

Number of piston strokes required to complete a combustion cycle

C

Number of power strokes each combustion cycle

D

Number of exhaust strokes each combustion cycle

The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of what?

No. 716

>

A

Stability.

B

Sensitivity.

C

Speed droop.

D

Compensation.

What is the largest source of energy loss in a diesel engine?

No. 717

>

A

Mechanical loss in bearings and piston.

B

Heat loss through the cooling water.

C

Heat loss through the exhaust gas.

D

Radiated heat loss from the engine.

What is the purpose of the crosshead bearing?

No. 718

>

A

To transmit piston power more directly to the crankshaft.

B

To prevent con rod side thrust being transmitted to the piston.

C

To assist in lubricating the top end bearing.

D

To prevent lub oil being deposited on the cylinder liner walls.

What could cause jacket water contamination of lub oil in a trunk piston engine?

No. 719

>

A

Cracked cylinder head.

B

Damaged piston rings.

C

Cracked piston.

D

Leaking liner sealing rings.

What is the main advantage of a CP propeller installation?

No. 720

>

A

More efficient propeller coefficient.

B

Engine can be run at constant, uni-directional speed.

C

Higher engine rpm.

D

Less starting air consumption.

When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank drain be checked?

No. 721

>

A

At 0800, 1700 and in the final check round prior to closing for UMS operation.

B

Every 4 hours.

C

Twice a day.

D

As required.

Where is the temperature sensor fitted for the jacket water temperature controller?

No. 722

>

A

Cooler outlet.

B

Engine inlet.

C

Pump outlet.

D

Engine outlet.

What is the simplest method of checking the fuel injection point on a 4 stroke Diesel engine?

No. 723

>

A

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with dial gauge.

B

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with depth gauge.

C

Remove 'D' valve and use spill method.

D

Direct from the fuel pump cam position.

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank?

No. 724

>

A

Collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B

Collecting tank for dirty oil of Main Engine intended for purification.

C

Collecting tank for all non-reusable oils.

D

Drain tank for the piston rod stuffing boxes.

Under what condition is the scavenge air cooled in the scavenge air cooler?

No. 725

>

A

Constant volume (Isochoric condition)

B

Constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

C

Adiabatic condition

D

Isothermal condition

What important contribution does Nitrogen have to the combustion process in a Diesel engine?

No. 726

>

A

Acts as a catalyst to the combining of oxygen and the hydrocarbons.

B

Assists in the cooling process during combustion.

C

Prevents the deposition of damaging elements on valves and seats.

D

Assists in mixing the charge air with the atomised fuel.

What should be the first action on discovering a main engine malfunction?

No. 727

>

A

Inform the Chief Engineer

B

Inform the Bridge watch keeper

C

Stop the engine and attempt to rectify the fault

D

Slow the engine, check pressures & temperatures

How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?

No. 728

>

A

By sliding securing mounts.

B

By sliding section of piping.

C

By the selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.

D

By the fitting of steel bellows pieces.

Where does maximum wear take place on the cylinder liner of a Diesel engine?

No. 729

>

A

Mid position.

B

At the bottom of the piston stroke.

C

At the top where the top ring changes direction.

D

At the top where the scraper ring changes direction.

After work on the fuel system what must be carried out?

No. 730

>

A

Filters renewed.

B

Injectors changed.

C

System bled through at the injectors.

D

System bled through at main filters.

Why is a by-pass fitted to the cooling water line of the charge air cooler?

No. 731

>

A

To prevent the air temperature going too high.

B

To maintain the jacket water temperature.

C

To prevent overcooling of the charge air.

D

To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces.

What does a decreasing scavenging air temperature mean?

No. 732

>

A

An increase in air volume.

B

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

C

A dirty turbine wheel.

D

A decrease in air volume.

How can crankcase overpressure be checked?

No. 733

>

A

Inspecting the crankcase relief valves.

B

Checking the crankcase breather outlet.

C

Checking the crankshaft seals.

D

Checking fuel pump tappet seals.

How is expansion of the Diesel engine cylinder liner allowed for?

No. 734

>

A

Liner and entablature expand together.

B

Liner absorbs stresses caused by expansion.

C

Liner is free to expand at its lower end.

D

Entablature absorbs expansion stresses.

When taking performance figures on a 4 stroke Diesel engine, how is the quantity of fuel delivered by each pump determined?

No. 735

>

A

By the governor position.

B

By the position of each fuel rack.

C

By the position of the fuel control lever.

D

By the cylinder peak pressure.

After fitting a new cylinder liner to a 2 -stroke engine which of the following steps should be taken?

No. 736

>

A

Run the unit on no load for 24 hours.

B

Reduce the cylinder oil flow.

C

Reduce the cylinder load.

D

Bring up to full load as soon as possible.

What does the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level dropping rapidly indicate?

No. 737

>

A

There is a leakage in the jacket cooling water system.

B

Jacket water cooling pump failure.

C

Cracked cylinder liner.

D

Sudden change of engine load.

On a Bosch type fuel injection pump how does the rack adjust the fuel delivery?

No. 738

>

A

By altering the effective stroke of the plunger.

B

By increasing the delivery pressure.

C

By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve.

D

By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam.

In a 4-stroke diesel what is referred to as valve overlap?

No. 739

>

A

The total opening period of inlet and exhaust valves.

B

Period when injection and inlet valve are open together.

C

Period when both inlet and exhaust valves are open together.

D

Period when injection and exhaust valve are open together.

A Main Engine revolution counter reads 69,980 at 0800; at noon the counter reads 90,932, if the clocks are advanced 20 mins. during the watch what was the average rpm during the 8-12 watch?

No. 740

>

A

115.6 rpm

B

87.3 rpm

C

98.4 rpm

D

77.2 rpm

If water is detected in the generator crankcase what is the most likely source?

No. 741

>

A

Leakage from the transfer passage between cylinder block and heads.

B

Leakage from cylinder head outlet connections.

C

Leaking tubes in oil cooler.

D

Leakage from cracked cylinder liner or perished liner sealing rings.

Upon what cycle is the modern diesel engine based?

No. 742

>

A

Rankine.

B

Dual combustion.

C

Ideal cycle.

D

Otto cycle.

What test would indicate turbo blower condition?

No. 743

>

A

Analysis of lub oil sample.

B

Low charge air pressure.

C

High charge air temperature.

D

Turbo run down time after stopping engine.

What is the most likely causeof a low exhaust temperature on one cylinder of a Diesel engine?

No. 744

>

A

A defective fuel valve.

B

Low air pressure.

C

Charge air pressure too high.

D

Cooling water temperature too low.

On a large, slow speed diesel engine what would best describe the bottom end bearings?

No. 745

>

A

Direct lined.

B

Wrapped bushes.

C

Solid insert liner.

D

Thick walled. 1.2.2.13 Bearing - Bottom end bearings are nearly always thick walled where a layer of white metal is bonded to a steel pressing and manufactured in pairs. Machining tolerances allow direct fitting.

How does the turbo-charger improve engine efficiency?

No. 746

>

A

Increasing the charge air pressure

B

Improving the scavenging of the combustion space

C

Deliver more volume of air to the combustion space

D

Utilize exhaust gas energy

What is the term for the volume taken up during piston travel on a 4 stroke Diesel engine?

No. 747

>

A

Compression volume.

B

Piston volume.

C

Swept volume.

D

Scavenge volume.

On a set of crankshaft deflection readings, what would a reading of +4 signify?

No. 748

>

A

The crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre

B

The crank webs have opened up by 4/100 mm

C

The crank webs have closed in by 4/100 mm

D

The main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other

What is specific fuel consumption?

No. 749

>

A

Fuel consumption per hour.

B

Fuel consumption for specific speeds.

C

Fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour.

D

Fuel consumption at specific power.

What is the most likely reason for high exhaust temperatures in all cylinders of a Diesel engine?

No. 750

>

A

A faulty fuel valve.

B

A cracked liner.

C

Rising scavenge air temperature.

D

Broken piston ring.

What fuel contaminant is potentially most damaging to a Diesel engine?

No. 751

>

A

Water.

B

Sludge.

C

Bacterial growth.

D

Suspended solids.

How are starting air valves made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines?

No. 752

>

A

By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.

B

They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed.

C

Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted.

D

A copper gasket is fitted.

If slight water contamination of lub oil is confirmed what action should you take?

No. 753

>

A

Run the purifier, checking the water outlet and submit a further sample for analysis.

B

Locate the water leak and renew the oil charge.

C

Run the purifier continuously.

D

Submit a further sample for analysis after one months running.

What do we determine from the indicator card to calculate IHP of a Diesel engine?

No. 754

>

A

Compression pressure.

B

Firing pressure.

C

Mean effective pressure.

D

Mean height of the diagram.

How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

No. 755

>

A

Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger.

B

Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger.

C

Regulating the sea water inlet valve.

D

Regulating the sea water outlet valve.

What percentage excess air would you expect with good combustion in a Diesel engine?

No. 756

>

A

None.

B

0 - 10%.

C

10 - 20%.

D

30 - 50%.

What would result from high charge air temperatures?

No. 757

>

A

All exhaust temperatures would rise.

B

Charge pressure would increase.

C

Cylinder head relief valves would lift.

D

Jacket water temperature would rise.

Why should anti- friction greases not be used on cylinder head nuts?

No. 758

>

A

Enables them to be over tightened.

B

Contaminates the engine lub oil.

C

Increases the actual pressure exerted at the set torque reading.

D

Allows them to loosen in use.

What is the purpose of the Main Thrust bearing?

No. 759

>

A

To absorb axial engine thrust.

B

To transmit propeller thrust to the ship's hull.

C

To provide forward and aft location for the propeller shaft.

D

To prevent propeller thrust damaging engine bearings.

What could indicate a cracked cylinder head or liner?

No. 760

>

A

Increased fuel consumption.

B

Increased lub oil consumption.

C

Presence of water in the lub oil.

D

Sudden overheating of the jacket water expansion tank.

What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine?

No. 761

>

A

To allow starting air of 25 bar into the cylinder if applicable.

B

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

C

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

D

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine.

How are bottom end bearing clearances taken on a large Diesel engine?

No. 762

>

A

With feeler gauges.

B

Taking leads.

C

Measure crankpin and bearing diameters.

D

Compare thickness to new bearing.

Which part of the mechanical governor does the servomotor actuate to alter engine speed?

No. 763

>

A

The linkage to the fuel rack.

B

The sensitivity band.

C

The compensating spring.

D

The dashpot.

What is the most important step on detecting a scavenge fire?

No. 764

>

A

Increase coolant flow to engine.

B

Increase cylinder lubrication to affected unit.

C

Stop engine.

D

Reduce engine revs, shut off fuel to affected unit.

During overhaul what two piston ring dimensions are taken?

No. 765

>

A

Butt gap and radial depth.

B

Axial thickness and radial depth.

C

Axial thickness and butt gap.

D

Butt gap and axial clearance.

What formula gives engine efficiency?

No. 766

>

A

P.L.A.N.

B

Engine power/fuel energy.

C

Fuel energy/P.L.A.N.

D

Calorific value/B.H.P.

In an "IMPULSE TYPE" exhaust gas turbocharger, how do the exhaust gases enter the turbine?

No. 767

>

A

Via a spacious, single exhaust gas manifold.

B

From both sides of the turbine.

C

Via manifold groups led directly and separately to the turbine.

D

Via manifolds into a common entry chamber.

What is the original power that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder?

No. 768

>

A

The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.

B

The mechanical force of the fuel cam.

C

The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.

D

The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.

How does the cooling water flow through the engine?

No. 769

>

A

Inlet the lower liner and outlet at the cylinder heads.

B

Inlet at the cylinder heads and out let at the liners.

C

Inlet at the turbo charger and outlet at the cylinder heads.

D

Inlet at the cylinder heads and outlet at the turbo blower.

What is meant by an engine's critical speed?

No. 770

>

A

Maximum allowable engine rpm.

B

Engine rpm at which the engine must not be operated for long periods.

C

Minimum allowable engine rpm.

D

Engine rpm that must be attained before the engine will fire.

What material are Diesel engine cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from?

No. 771

>

A

Fabricated steel.

B

Cast iron.

C

Cast steel.

D

Gunmetal.

What should be carried out before starting a Diesel engine that has been stopped for a period?

No. 772

>

A

Check the reversing mechanism.

B

Turn over on air with indicator cocks open.

C

Check the governor operation.

D

Bar over by hand for several revolutions

What is the most commonly used fuel injection pump on large diesel engines?

No. 773

>

A

An M.A.N. type fuel pump

B

A Ricardo type fuel pump

C

A Bosch type fuel pump

D

A Curtis type fuel pump

How is the fuel injection timing altered on a Diesel engine?

No. 774

>

A

By altering the injector setting.

B

By altering the fuel pump lift.

C

By moving the camshaft position.

D

By adjusting the camshaft drive chain.

In the formula for calculating engine power, P.L.A.N., what does P represent?

No. 775

>

A

Maximum cylinder pressure.

B

Compression pressure.

C

Pressure at mid power stroke.

D

Mean cylinder pressure.

What determines the amount of fuel delivered by a Bosch type fuel pump?

No. 776

>

A

The stroke length of the fuel pump.

B

The fuel cam profile.

C

The rotational position of the fuel pump plunger.

D

The fuel pump plunger top clearance.

For how long is the exhaust valve open in a 4-stroke turbo charged engine?

No. 777

>

A

150 degree

B

280 degree

C

200 degree

D

320 degree

What could indicate a choked heat exchanger on the jacket water system?

No. 778

>

A

Low jacket water flow.

B

High jacket water temperature.

C

High exhaust temperatures.

D

Low seawater pressure.

What could cause the turbo inlet exhaust temperature to be higher than cylinder exhaust temperature?

No. 779

>

A

Poor combustion.

B

Incorrect injection timing.

C

Engine overloaded.

D

This is normal.

What is the most significant effect of fuel oil contamination of the lub oil?

No. 780

>

A

Increases viscosity.

B

Increases flashpoint.

C

Removes additives from the lub oil.

D

Decreases flashpoint.

What type of compression takes place in a 4-stroke diesel engine?

No. 781

>

A

Isothermal

B

Isobaric

C

Adiabatic

D

Polytropic

In a 2 stroke engine what controls the admission of charge air?

No. 782

>

A

Upper edge of piston.

B

Camshaft position.

C

Position of lower piston skirt.

D

Air inlet valve operation.

What percentage of Nitrogen is present in the engine intake air?

No. 783

>

A

75.5%

B

70.5%

C

60.5%

D

65.5%

In a fuel oil service system where would the relief valves discharge?

No. 784

>

A

Re-circulating line or pump suction.

B

Simplex fuel oil strainer.

C

Settling tanks.

D

Slop retention tanks.

What would indicate a cracked cylinder liner or head?

No. 785

>

A

High exhaust temperature.

B

Low exhaust temperature.

C

High lub oil consumption.

D

High jacket water temperature.

Should water be circulated through the main engine during port stay, and if so, why?

No. 786

>

A

No, as this would result in extra water consumption.

B

Yes, as the engine has to be ready to start at any time.

C

Yes, to maintain the engine temperature.

D

No, in case of a leak developing in the system.

What could be the consequence of inadequate valve tappet clearance?

No. 787

>

A

Exhaust valve leaking causing possible damage to seat and valve.

B

Accelerated valve gear wear.

C

High exhaust temperatures.

D

High jacket water temperatures.

What is the purpose of the injection pump delivery valve?

No. 788

>

A

To meter the delivery rate.

B

To adjust the injection pressure.

C

To adjust the injection timing.

D

To maintain injection pressure in the HP fuel line.

What would represent an average specific fuel consumption for a four-stroke diesel?

No. 789

>

A

0.15kg/kW hour.

B

0.30kg/kW hour.

C

0.25kg/kW hour.

D

0.20kg/kW hour.

What is the purpose of the expansion tank in a Diesel engine jacket cooling water system?

No. 790

>

A

To allow for leakage in the system.

B

To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.

C

To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.

D

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

In the case of a serious main engine malfunction what would be your course of action?

No. 791

>

A

Slow down the engine and attempt to rectify the fault.

B

Attempt to rectify the fault.

C

Inform the bridge watch keeper before taking any action.

D

Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause.

What part of the 4-stroke diesel cycle is adiabatic?

No. 792

>

A

Compression stroke.

B

Combustion period.

C

Exhaust stroke.

D

Suction stroke.

What is the maximum allowable for Diesel engine cylinder liner wear?

No. 793

>

A

2% of liner diameter.

B

0.2% of liner diameter.

C

1.5% of liner diameter.

D

0.8% of liner diameter.

What are the main constituents in Diesel engine exhaust gas?

No. 794

>

A

Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen and Sulphur Dioxide.

B

Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide and water vapour.

C

Nitrogen, Carbon Monoxide and Sulphur Dioxide.

D

Carbon Dioxide and un-burnt Oxygen.

For a turbo charger running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump bath temperature on the turbine side?

No. 795

>

A

35 to 45 deg C.

B

45 to 50 deg C.

C

55 to 65 deg C.

D

72 to 82 deg C.

If fuel contamination of lub oil is confirmed what action must you take?

No. 796

>

A

Change the complete lub oil charge.

B

Rectify the fuel leak and purify the oil.

C

Purify the oil and send off another sample for analysis.

D

Rectify the source of contamination and change the oil.

What material are Diesel engine piston rings manufactured from?

No. 797

>

A

Cast iron.

B

Carbon steel.

C

Cast steel.

D

Alloy steel.

What represents the available energy in a fuel?

No. 798

>

A

Flash point.

B

Octane rating.

C

Calorific value.

D

Cetane number.

How should diesel engine exhaust temperatures change?

No. 799

>

A

Remain steady under fluctuating load.

B

Alter according to engine load.

C

Rise as engine rpm rises.

D

All remain the same.

In the formula P.L.A.N. how is 'N' derived for a double acting two stroke?

No. 800

>

A

Eng rpm/60.

B

Eng rpm/30.

C

Eng rpm/120.

D

Eng rpm/240.

What is the effect that describes unstable operation of the engine governor?

No. 801

>

A

Dead band.

B

Insensitivity.

C

Hunting.

D

Oscillation.

Which of the following records the cylinder pressure existing at various positions throughout the engine cycle?

No. 802

>

A

A Timing diagram.

B

An Indicator diagram.

C

A Temperature diagram.

D

A Cycle diagram.

Under what engine conditions are indicator cards taken?

No. 803

>

A

Low power.

B

At normal full load.

C

At 75% full load.

D

At any engine loading.

During a crankcase inspection what check should be made on the lub oil?

No. 804

>

A

The level in the oil sump tank.

B

The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.

C

Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, and gear train.

D

That the oil cooler inlet is clear.

What item is always found on diesel engine lub oil systems?

No. 805

>

A

Low lub oil pressure shutdown.

B

Centrifugal oil filters.

C

Stand-by lub oil pump.

D

Reduced pressure feed to rocker gear.

If lub oil analysis results indicate fuel dilution what should be the first action?

No. 806

>

A

Renew the lub oil charge.

B

Operate the lub oil purifier.

C

Locate and rectify source of contamination.

D

Take another set of samples and send off immediately.

The relief valve is fitted in the position shown to prevent overpressure..............

No. 807

>

A

if the main air start valve jams in the closed position.

B

should the actuating piston leak.

C

if astern is selected when the engine is moving ahead.

D

if the cylinder head air start valve jams in the open position.

A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as "flame failure". Indicate the most likely reason.

No. 808

>

A

The fan motor is faulty.

B

The fuel oil temperature is too high.

C

The flame cell is dirty.

D

The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.

The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few minutes even though the bilge is empty. What action would you take ?

No. 809

>

A

Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board.

B

Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit board for this alarm group.

C

Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps.

D

Start the bilge pump.

What is component number 3 called?

No. 810

>

A

A spring adjuster.

B

A spring tensioning washer.

C

A valve cover.

D

A spring plate.

What is "chatter" in a safety valve ?

No. 811

>

A

The first leakage before the valve opens.

B

A failure of a safety valve to re-seat.

C

A metallic hammering noise.

D

A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.

Which part is the brine cooler ?

No. 812

>

A

D

B

H

C

K

D

C

Should water be circulated through the main engine during a port stay, and if so why ?

No. 813

>

A

No, as this would result in extra water consumption from main engine water leaks.

B

Yes, as this will maintain watertight condition of hoses and connections.

C

Yes, circulating the auxiliary jacket water will maintain the main engine temperature.

D

No, as this will prevent the auxiliary engines attaining the correct temperature.

What is part number 1 called ?

No. 814

>

A

The drainage tank.

B

The expansion tank.

C

The service tank.

D

The settlement tank.

Which part is the heater ?

No. 815

>

A

Number 1.

B

Number 2.

C

Number 3.

D

Number 4.

Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers?

No. 816

>

A

1.

B

2.

C

Neither.

D

Both 1 and 2.

Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?

No. 817

>

A

Area 1.

B

Area 3.

C

Area 4.

D

Area 6.

What is part number 2 called ?

No. 818

>

A

The chamber.

B

The paring disc.

C

The distributor.

D

The bowl hood.

Which part is the paring disc?

No. 819

>

Same picture above

A

Part 2.

B

Part 3.

C

Part 4.

D

Part 6.

same picture above

What is part number 3 called ?

No. 820

>

A

The paring disc for processed oil.

B

The spring support.

C

Disc stack support bearing.

D

The water paring disc.

What is part number 5 called ?

No. 821

>

A

The disk holder.

B

The disc stack.

C

The paring disc.

D

The distributor vanes.

Where is the separation carried out ?

No. 822

>

A

Position number 1.

B

Position number 2.

C

Positioin number 7.

D

Position number 5

same picture above

What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here ?

No. 823

>

A

Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet.

B

Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet.

C

Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet.

D

Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet. The temperature transmitter "TT" is fitted in the outlet, thus the steering value is the outlet temperature. We control thus the outlet. We regulate the inlet by means of the bypass valve BP which is controlled by the temperature transmitter

Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor ?

No. 824

>

A

Forced sea water cooling.

B

Open free flow sea water cooling.

C

Forced fresh water cooling.

D

Free flow fresh water cooling. Fresh water cooling is used as medium. The freshwater itself is in turn cooled in the C.W. cooler. The cooling is forced by the pump "P" attached to the compressor.

What is indicated by position "I" at both of the cylinders ?

No. 825

>

A

Water inlet of Intercoolers.

B

Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers.

C

Water inlet of cylinders.

D

Water inlet of aftercoolers. The intercooling serves also as cylinder liner cooling. Water enters the cylinder liner/intercooler. Option is correct.

Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0 bar. What class of compressor could this be ?

No. 826

>

A

A service air compressor.

B

An instrument air compressor.

C

A working air compressor.

D

A starting air compressor.

Air1a.BMP

Service, Instrument and Working air compressors have delivery air pressures of usually between 7.0 and 8.5 kg/cm2. Starting air compressors for diesel engines have delivery air pressures between 25.0 and 30.0 kg/cm2

What are the units marked "C" fitted on both cylinders ?

No. 827

>

A

Aftercoolers.

B

Intercoolers.

C

Cylinder blocks.

D

Cooling water vessels. The cooling water of the compressors enters the cylinders/intercoolers and leaves the compressor on the aftercooler.

When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler "CW" operated?

No. 828

>

A

During normal running to keep the temperature constant.

B

In the case of a cooler tube leaking.

C

In cold climates to avoid moisture.

D

When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings. The by-pass valve is operated in cold climates only. Usually temperature of Fresh Water is 7 - 10 degrees higher as sea water temperature. If sea water is 20 degrees, FW cooling system is 30 degree on inlet which satisfactory. However by

This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor. After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity ?

No. 829

>

A

7 seconds.

B

12 seconds.

C

14 seconds.

D

Between 7 and 12 seconds. After 12 seconds when both the unloader and drains are closed.

When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed ?

No. 830

>

A

So the pumping action can blow the drains through.

B

To avoid the safety valves blowing.

C

To avoid air blowing in the bilges.

D

To prevent the compressor from tripping. When the unloader is closing pumping action is achieved and the drains can be blown trough.

Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open ?

No. 831

>

A

To hear that it is delivering pressure and the unloader is working.

B

To get rid of all the dirt inside.

C

To blow clear any moisture from the compressor discharge.

D

To avoid overloading the electric motor. Formation of some moisture cannot be avoided and this must be blown off.

On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way ?

No. 832

>

A

It keeps the suction valves open.

B

It keeps the suctions valves closed.

C

It keeps the delivery valves open.

D

It keeps the delivery valves closed. It keeps the suction valves open so that atmospheric air can move freely in and out of the compressor and no pumping action takes place.

What would be the pressure in the air bottle which activates the "PC" and "S" connecting the unloader line with c and a ?

No. 833

>

A

Between 6.5 and 8.5 bar.

B

Between 8.5 and 10.0 bar.

C

Between 0 and 8.5 bar.

D

Between 8.5 and 9.35 bar. This is an unloader of a service air compressor acting on its suction valve. By 6.5 kg/cm2 will the unloader line be connected to c and the suction valve will sit properly on its seat to allow pumping action of the compressor. By 8.5

In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assembly fitted ?

No. 834

>

A

Refrigeration compressor.

B

CO2 compressor.

C

Service air compressor.

D

Oil-free instrument air compressor. Instrument air is required to be oil-free. To achieve this the piston assembly is divided in two parts, the Guide Piston GP which is lubricated in the conventional fashion and the actual pumping piston P which is not lubricated. A stuffing

What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly ?

No. 835

>

A

To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.

B

To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.

C

As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.

D

All of these options. The guide rod GR brings the mechanical movement of the guide piston GR over to the pumping piston P. The guide rod passes the suffing box and further are the pumping and the guiding spaces completely separated. Option

In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping piston "P" made ?

No. 836

>

A

Chrome plated.

B

Slotted chromium.

C

Plain cast iron.

D

Carbon.

Same picture above

The pumping cylinder is oil free, thus self-lubricating carbon piston rings are to be used.

If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?

No. 837

>

A

Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.

B

Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.

C

Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.

D

Drain the service tank at shorter intervals. The backpressure, indicated by manometer M needs to be within given limits. If the capacity to the purifier is increased, the backpressure will increase, thus the BPV needs to be opened till the manometer indication drops to the same

What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P ?

No. 838

>

A

A centrifugal pump.

B

A gear pump or worm pump.

C

A piston pump.

D

A vane pump. The fuel at the pump suction is still at high viscosity due to the settling tank temperature of about 65 degree C and a gear/worm pump is required.

How is pump "P" driven from the purifier ?

No. 839

>

A

By V-belt.

B

By electric motor.

C

By shaft drive with replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase.

D

By direct gear drive from the purifier crankcase.

Same picture above

The pump is driven via replaceable conical link pins also called SHEER PINS, since any excess force would be absorbed by the pump during the starting-up of the purifier due to low temperature/high viscosity fuel in the lines these

What is item "F" ?

No. 840

>

A

A flow meter.

B

A flow control device.

C

A normal mesh filter/strainer

D

A fuel shut-off solenoid.

Same picture above

A common fuel mesh filter / strainer is fitted to keep impurities out of the pump suction.

When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?

No. 841

>

A

30 degree C.

B

40 degree C.

C

60 degree C.

D

85 degree C. No heating would be required for gas oil, a distillate diesel oil would be about 45 degree C and heavy fuel oils 85 degree and above. Marine diesel oils are to be heated up to 50 to 60 degree C.

What is the ideal temperature to maintain the diesel oil daily tank and how is this achieved ?

No. 842

>

A

45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.

B

45 degree C, by application of steam heating.

C

65 degree C, by application of steam heating.

D

65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.

Same picture above

It is recommended to keep the Diesel oil purifier running service tank to service tank after same has been filled up. Purifier inlet heating of 50 -60 degree C might increase the daily tank temperature to an ideal of 45 degree C

When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by ..................... to the purifier.

No. 843

>

A

a plate clutch

B

a magnetic coupling

C

a centrifugal clutch

D

a rotating coupling Friction pads with a special lining are fitted. The AC motor starts on full speed but takes little power since initially these pads are slipping. The purifier speed will accelerate slowly.

Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle is completed and the purification of the oil restarts ?

No. 844

>

A

The overflow alarm.

B

The water seal alarm.

C

The oil high temperature alarm.

D

The oil high pressure alarm. You might find after the purification has resumed that the HIGH TEMPERATURE ALARM ACTIVATES. This is due to the oil remaining in the heater and its latent heat, and now the first slug of excess heated oil is entering the

In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used ?

No. 845

>

A

Steam valve spindles.

B

Refrigerating installations.

C

Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.

D

Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems. In refrigerating, diaphragm packing is used for valves and mechanical seals are used for shafts. The picture shows stuffing box gland packing.

What do you call this device?

No. 846

>

A

A safety lifting valve.

B

An overpressure blow-off valve.

C

A straight non-return valve.

D

A scavenge air valve. This valve will open when an excess of pressure is obtained in a vessel.

What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room ?

No. 847

>

A

From 0 to - 5 degree C.

B

From -20 to - 25 degree C.

C

From -15 to - 20 degree C.

D

From -5 to -10 degree C.

Reefer1a.BMP

Minimum allowable refrigeration temperature is - 15 degree C, never above this limit. Lower freezing is advantageous, but with frequently opened fridge doors on board a "refrigeration" taste will be obtained quicker by lower

What is the required temperature in the ship's dairy room ?

No. 848

>

A

From 0 to +3 degree C.

B

From +3 to +5 degree C.

C

From -2 to +2 degree C.

D

From +5 to +7 degree C. Diary products such as cheese and butter may have a maximum storage temperature of + 5 degree C. No chilling affect (too close to freezing point) is allowed.

What is the required temperature in the ship's vegetable room ?

No. 849

>

A

From +2 to +4 degree C.

B

From +4 to +6 degree C.

C

From +5 to +7 degree C.

D

From +7 to +10 degree C. Fresh vegetables are the most difficult to keep under refrigeration and with the exception of roots, such as onions, carrots, potatoes, turnips. Green vegetables usually are able to be kept up to maximum 21 to 28 days. Rule: the greener

What parameter is controlling the capacity control system of this domestic refrigerating compressor?

No. 850

>

A

The temperature in the refrigerated rooms.

B

The temperature and back-pressure of the condensor.

C

The suction pressure of the compressor.

D

The discharge pressure of the compressor.

Reefer1a.BMP

If the temperature is reached in some refrigerated compartments their solenoids will close, also the expansion valves close. The suction pressure is lowered and the capacity of the compressor reduced. The capacity controller

Freon is being phased out gradually as a refrigerant. Why ?

No. 851

>

A

Because it is too expensive.

B

Because it is being replaced by more efficient refrigerants.

C

Because it has a damaging effect on the Earth's ozone layer.

D

Because under certain conditions it is toxic.

Reefer1a.BMP

The demise of the Ozone layer is blamed on Fluorants by the majority of scientists.

How are the solenoid valves "S" (fitted before the evaporating banks) controlled ?

No. 852

>

A

By the pressure of the evaporating liquid.

B

By the defrost control panel.

C

By the evaporator gas outlet temperature.

D

By the temperature inside the refrigerated compartments.

Reefer1a.BMP

The solenoids are controlled via the THERMOSTAT fitted in each refrigerated compartment. If the desired temperature is reached in a specific room (meat, fish veg.....etc) the thermostat closes the solenoid valve and no refrigerant will

What is the state of the refrigerant which flows from the condenser to the solenoids and the expansion valves ?

No. 853

>

A

It is hot and undercooled.

B

It is under condenser pressure and undercooled.

C

It is below condenser pressure and condensed.

D

It rises above the condenser pressure and decreases in temperature.

Why is there an oil separator "OS" fitted as shown here ?

No. 854

>

The moving force is the pressure of the condenser. The liquid is at condenser pressure. When gas enters the condenser it is superheated. The condenser first takes the superheat away and the gas becomes saturated. The

A

Because Freon absorbs oil and it needs to be separated.

B

To separate the oil dragged with the Freon from the compressor.

C

To separate oil during compressor start-up.

D

To collect the oil before stopping the compressor. It is inevitable that oil is drawn in by the compressor and discharged with the HP refrigerant gas. These oil moisture drops need to be separated since they will otherwise enter the system where they will block the expansion valve and

What is the function of the low pressure cut-out fitted on the same manometer line as manometer "SM" ?

No. 855

>

A

As safety shut-down device. Inspection and reset are required.

B

Purely as cut-in/cut-out device by low capacity. No reset required.

C

As safety power tripping device. Solenoids "S" will also close.

D

As alarm device only without shut-down function. The low pressure cut-out is an operational pressostat with the sole purpose to cut-out (stop) the compressor at low suction pressure, this low pressure is due to the fact that the refrigerated chambers are at their desired temperatures and

What is the function of the high pressure cut-out fitted on the same manometer pipe as manometer "DM" ?

No. 856

>

A

As safety cut-out with additional alarm function . Manual reset required.

B

As operational cut-out when condenser pressurised prolonged.

C

As electrical overload and alarm, auto reset.

D

As alarm device only. This is a fail safe device which cuts out the compressor in the case of high discharge pressure. The cause of this high pressure or the fault needs to be found. The fault may be a valve not open and when starting up the plant or lack of

What is the function of the oil differential pressure cut-out fitted between the manometer pipes of manometers "P" and "SM" ?

No. 857

>

A

As temporary cut-out.

B

As high temperature warning.

C

As warning/cut out due to oil foaming.

D

As a low lub oil pressure cut-out. The oil differential pressure cut out will activate in the case of low lubricating oil pressure in relation to the suction pressure in the crankcase. It is a fail safe condition and the cause of the low lub oil pressure needs to be established

If during your watch the air-conditioning compressor cuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to check immediately ?

No. 858

>

A

If the accommodation vent fan has tripped.

B

The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped.

C

That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser.

D

Ice formation on the evaporating unit. High discharge pressure is caused by too high a back pressure in the condenser. No condensation takes place. Reason is most likely lack of cooling water.

Why is there a receiver fitted below the condenser of an air-conditioning unit unlike on the condenser of the domestic fridge system ?

No. 859

>

A

Because the air-conditioning does not run in winter climates.

B

To store spare Freon.

C

Because there is more chance of leakage and Freon escape.

D

Because the capacity is larger. The capacity is larger and the condenser is preferably not used as dual-purpose, i.e. condensing and storage, instead an additional storage receiver is added (Economy of scale).

You are notified that it is getting hot in the accommodation and the air conditioning is not working. What do you check immediately ?

No. 860

>

A

If the aircon compressor is still running.

B

If suction and discharge pressures on the compressor are normal.

C

If the accomodation vent fans are running.

D

If there is sufficient refrigerant in the system. Of course you will check first of all that the refrigerating compressor is still running. If it has tripped you will have to find the cause somewhere in between options , and . If it is still running

When should the recirculation of air from the accommodation be set to 100 % and the fresh air intake totally closed ?

No. 861

>

A

When outside temperature is more than 30 degree C.

B

During cargo operations or cargo transfer in port or at sea.

C

When outside temperature is more than 36 degree C.

D

When vessel is moored at an oil refinery. Ingress of oil vapours due to cargo operations in port or tank cleaning or oil transfers on tankers at sea is to be avoided. Similarly ingress of coal dust, cement dust etc.. on cargo ships is to be avoided. Option is correct.

What is the most important item of maintenance required to ensure maximum efficiency of the accomodation air conditioning plant?

No. 862

>

A

Clean the central air conditioning fan unit intake suction filters.

B

Ensure always that there is sufficient Freon in the receiver.

C

Ensure the evaporator unit remains ice free.

D

Clean the sea water side of the condenser every 2 months.

What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with Freon liquid or Freon gas and why ?

No. 863

>

A

Chromium, it will overheat.

B

Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the Freon.

C

Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with Freon.

D

Copper, it has a harmful effect on the Freon.

Same picture above

Chemistry. Never use aluminum sealing rings for piping, bottle connections, crankcase door washers etc....

What type of pump is referred to in the drawing as an "H.S. PUMP" ?

No. 864

>

A

Higgins-Simpson pump.

B

Hydraulic solenoid pump.

C

Hele-Shaw pump.

D

High suction pump. The reversible action pumps fitted on a ram-type steering gear are of "HELE-SHAW" type.

What is the function of the valves "PR" fitted between the Port and Starboard cylinders ?

No. 865

>

A

To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.

B

To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped.

C

To be opened to allow emergency steering.

D

To relieve excess pressure, absorbing shock and preventing damage.

When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?

No. 866

>

The safety valves or pressure relief valves are fitted to absorb shock and also to avoid overload if the rudder is exposed to excess outside force such as being hit by strong waves or contact with an outside object (tugboats) etc.. This is to

A

As soon as the electric motor is started.

B

As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge.

C

As soon as point "Z" moves.

D

As soon as the telemotor pump is started. Pumping action in any direction occurs when the command lever C is pushed in any direction and point Z linked to the control shaft pushes the rotors eccentrically in the pump housing. When point Z is in neutral position the rotors are on

When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?

No. 867

>

A

The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated.

B

The valves "PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure.

C

Point "X" will move, in turn moving point "Z", controlling the pump delivery.

D

The hydraulic pumps will start. The command from the telemotor pump moves the command rod C and point X will turn around point Y, thereby moving point Z and the control rod of the pumps will push the rotor in excentric position in the pump housing. At

What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion block of the steering gear ?

No. 868

>

A

To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place.

B

To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y".

C

Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances.

D

To avoid sudden movements and overload. The spring S is a very stiff spring for the purpose not allowing elongation or compression but to absorb vibrations of the system and the trunion block clearances with the control rod thus acting as a flexible linkage.

What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be avoided ?

No. 869

>

A

The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance.

B

The pallister bearing clearance.

C

The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances.

D

The pintle bearing clearances. The clearance between the jumping bars fitted on the rudder and pintle structure is to be less than the clearance of the trunion with the rams. Otherwise if the rudder jumps upwards in bad weather it will the cause a force to act on the

Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?

No. 870

>

A

Pressure to cylinders A and D , return oil from B and C.

B

Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D.

C

Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D.

D

Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D.

same picture above

A torque on the trunion is required as well as closed circuit hydraulic oil flow. Option is correct.

During normal operations, the command rod "C" pushes point "Z" and the control rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the steering gear moves. When will it stop moving ?

No. 871

>

A

When the command rod "C" stops moving.

B

When the command rod "C" moves in opposite direction.

C

When the trunion point "Y" pushes point "Z" back to its original position.

D

When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command. Only when point Z is in the centre and the eccentricity of the rotor in the pump housing ceases to exist will the Hele-Shaw pump stop pumping.

What should you observe when inspecting the steering gear during your watch ?

No. 872

>

A

The oil level in the oil tank, see that there is no oil leakage.

B

The greasing of trunion and Pallister bearing is adequate.

C

No abnormal noise or vibrations, pump power consumption normal.

D

All of these options. All items listed are to be observed.

This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit ?

No. 873

>

A

A Wheatstone Bridge.

B

Two double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids.

C

Two Potentiometers with amplifier relays.

D

A booster aggregate. It consists out of two potentiometers with amplifier relays. One Potentiometer is fitted on the bridge and one potentiometer is fitted in the steering gear room (feedback potentiometer)

The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By what mode might it be actuated?

No. 874

>

A

By hand steering.

B

By push button steering.

C

By automatic steering via the auto-pilot.

D

By any of these steering methods. The first potentiometer, located on the bridge get its command from the STEERING CONSOLE in one of the following steering modes: Hand, push button or Automatic steering. Option is correct

What is the principle in which oil/water separation takes place in this cascade tank ?

No. 875

>

A

By separation frames.

B

By directional change and centrifugal action in triple-action.

C

By acceleration through chambers.

D

By acceleration and gravitation. In each chamber takes directional change place causing in fact centrifugal forces to be active and separate the water. The water which collects at the bottom can be drained off by the water drains (items 3)

This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position, rudder amidship. This means that ......... .

No. 876

>

A

pump "P" is not pumping.

B

the double check valves are blocked.

C

the capacity control is at zero.

D

neither solenoid "S1" or "S2" is energised. If neither solenoid S1 or S2 is energised the plunger of the hydraulic control is in the neutral middle position and the oil pumped by the hydraulic pump will flow back to the tank.

What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?

No. 877

>

A

To keep the rudder locked in the desired position.

B

To maintain the set pressure in the system.

C

To avoid oil blockage and stickiness.

D

To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements. The purpose of the check valves is to maintain the pre-set pressure in the system so that no hydraulic pressure built-up is initially required initially with every movement.

What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?

No. 878

>

A

To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant.

B

To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant.

C

To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption).

D

To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant.

Same picture above

The quantity or capacity of the oil flowing to the telemotor rams need to be kept constant, independent of the pressure changes which are occurring in the system since this capacity and displacement speed of the telemotor rams

How might this steering system be actuated?

No. 879

>

A

By automatic gyro steering.

B

By push-button steering.

C

By hand steering.

D

By any of these.

Same picture above

The telemotor system is in operation under any steering mode. If it is out of order normal steering from the bridge cannot be carried out and emergency steering is required to be carried out.

What type of boilers are fitted (one only shown) to feed this turbine installation ?

No. 880

>

A

Scotch type boilers.

B

Water tube boilers.

C

Cochran type boilers.

D

Exhaust dissipation boilers. You can distinguish the steam drum, water drum and fall piping. It is a water tube boiler.

Item "H' of the drawing indicates ............................ of this turbine installation ?

No. 881

>

A

the distributor.

B

the steam filter.

C

the manoevring stand.

D

the steam reducer.

Same picture above

From the manoeuvring stand the steam be opened either to the Astern or to the Ahead turbines. Indication is clear.

This installation consists of the following turbine combination :

No. 882

>

A

a high pressure and a low pressure turbine.

B

a turbine system with ahead and astern manoevring capability.

C

the H.P and L.P turbine acting in tandem to one reduction gear.

D

All of these options.

Same picture above

Self indicating from drawing

What are items "R" and why are they required ?

No. 883

>

A

Thrust bearings. To catch axial force and propel the ship.

B

Reducing block bearings. As turbine shaft support.

C

Coupling flanges. To allow disassemble of pinion gears.

D

Flexible couplings. To allow flexibility between HP and LP turbines.

Since both H.P and L.P turbine are fitted to the same reduction gear provision is made for flexibility between them if not, the installation would vibrate. This is done using flexible couplings R fitted to the H.P and L.P. shafts.

Why is steam allowed to position - J' - of the turbine "J " ?

No. 884

>

Steam1.BMP

A

It is the steam regenerating line.

B

It is the steam gland feeder line.

C

It is the steam to the astern turbine.

D

It is the parallel reduced steam line. From the manoeuvring stand steam goes either to the HP turbine in AH or ahead manoeuvring and to the Astern turbine, coupled to the LP turbine during astern manoeuvring.

Why are components "S" required ?

No. 885

>

A

To transform rotating power into axial power.

B

To absorb the vibrations on the propeller.

C

To reduce high turbine speed to propeller speed.

D

To enable maximum fuel efficiency of the turbine installation.

Same picture above

Of what is this finned pipe a part ?

No. 886

>

A

Of an exhaust gas boiler steam generator.

B

Of an exhaust gas boiler economiser.

C

Of an exhaust gas boiler superheater.

D

Of any of the other options. These finned pipes are exhaust gas boiler piping. They can also be economizer piping, in which case they are located on the upper part of the boiler as the last bank before the exhaust gases enter the funnel. If they are superheater

What is the purpose of the fins fitted on this steam piping ?

No. 887

>

A

As "Harmonica" piping, to make the piping flexible.

B

To increase the heated surface of the piping.

C

To allow for expansion with temperature differences.

D

To absorb the vibrations existing in the funnel.

Same picture above

It is to increase the piping outer surface which is the heated surface around which the gases flow. The inner surface or inside of piping has forced circulating, thus forced heat exchange by the boiler water circulating pump and the

After sometime, scale build-up is unavoidable in steam generating coils. How is it removed ?

No. 888

>

A

By cleaning with boiler tube brushes.

B

In the drydock by chemical engineers.

C

Bythe circulation of chemicals by small pump in port.

D

By flushing with the boiler water circulation pump.

Same picture above

Although it is a good practice to leave the boiler water circulation pump running for some time after arrival in port to flush out the exhaust gas steam generating coils, this action alone will not get rid of all deposit built-up in the

How is this finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler fastened in the boiler wall ?

No. 889

>

A

It is caulked.

B

With a screwed coupling.

C

It is expanded.

D

It is welded. This piping is welded in place by supports of various dimensions. In case replacement required, you will have to replace a section or a bank which you might find as a spare on board, complete with supports and elbows. Connecting

How is the soot which will accumulate between the finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler removed ?

No. 890

>

A

By sand blasting in the drydock.

B

By high pressure water jet washing at 3000 psi.

C

By chemical cleaning with pump in port.

D

Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port.

same picture above

Soot blowing at sea is to be practiced if soot blowers are fitted (practically on all medium/larger sizes exhaust gas boilers). Water washing by water jet from the fire pump is the norm in port. A drain is provided on the boiler to ensure

What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating unit ?

No. 891

>

A

Plug the pipe.

B

Plug the section/ bank.

C

Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.

D

Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.

Same picture above

The pipe alone cannot be plugged, as it is part of a bank, and therefore the entire affected bank needs to be plugged, consisting of 4 - 6 pipes. Plugging is done on inlet header and outlet header. This does not render the entire steam

By which unit is the combustion intensity in this boiler controlled ?

No. 892

>

A

By pressostat controlled fuel admission solenoids.

B

By the regulating valve "R".

C

By the compound regulator.

D

By the position of the air flap. It is the compound regulator which receives a signal from the steam pressure transmitter at any instant and the position of the compound regulator (usually from 1 to 10) corresponds to that of the steam pressure. By increasing the

What kind of burner would be fitted to this boiler ?

No. 893

>

A

A high speed jet burner.

B

A rotating cup burner.

C

A steam assisted burner.

D

A rotating nozzle burner.

Same picture above

It is a rotating cup burner driven by the electric motor via V-belts. The fuel is admitted to a rotating cup which in turn atomizes the fuel. Air is admitted around the cup proportionally to ensure the correct fuel/air ratio.

What is the purpose of "S" fitted in the fuel admission line to the rotating cup burner of this boiler ?

No. 894

>

A

Emergency stop / Boiler failure cut-out for any reason.

B

Fuel admission by operation/ Fuel block by stop/emergency.

C

Keeps fuel to burner open in normal firing mode via photocell.

D

All of these options.

Same picture above

The admission fuel solenoid valve will only open after a flame is detected by the photocell after firing the boiler and it remains open as long as the photocell is energised by the brightness of the flame during NORMAL operation. The fuel

What is the main purpose of the photocell "P" fitted in the burner front casing ?

No. 895

>

A

To energise the fuel solenoid "S" when comustion is satisfactory.

B

To cut-out the boiler if water level is low.

C

To maintain the correct fuel/air ratio.

D

To detect firing of the pilot burner "PB".

Steam19.BMP

The photocell will open the solenoid valve S when it is energised by the light intensity of the flame present, whether or not this flame comes from the main burner or from the pilot burner. By incomplete combustion and darkening of

If the stand-by indicating light is energised on the control panel of this boiler burner, what does it indicate?

No. 896

>

A

That the boiler is ready to be fired and no alarm conditions exist.

B

That an alarm condition extists.

C

That the pilot burner is in operation.

D

That the fuel is circulating and at the temperature ready to fire. It indicates that the boiler is ready to be fired by switching the FIRING SWITCH (operation switch) and that no alarm condition is present (burner swung out / limit switch, low fuel oil temperature or pressure, forced draught air failure, low

What is the function of the "Boiler Firing Switch" fitted on the control panel of this boiler burner ?

No. 897

>

A

To isolate the electric power to the control panel.

B

To open the fuel valve to the burner.

C

To change from stand-by to firing mode and fire-up the boiler.

D

To fire the boiler on manual in emergency.

Same picture above

When the boiler is already on stand-by mode, which means that all pre-conditions to 'fire' are met, no alarm condition exists. The Firing Switch is then activated putting the boiler in operation

What is happening when the "PURGING" indicating light is illuminated on the control panel of the boiler burner ?

No. 898

>

A

Purging air in boiler with flap "F" full open, solenoid "S" and "PB" closed.

B

Pump "P" is purging the fuel over pressure valve "R".

C

Both air and fuel are admitted over "F" and "S" , ignition will start.

D

The boiler starts firing and the photocell will activate. During PURGING the forced draught fan ventilates the furnace so that any hydrocarbon fumes are removed. No fuel is admitted to the boiler. The purging time is usually between 45 to 55 seconds. When the boiler is in stand-by

What burner equipment item operating when the ignition indication light is illuminated on this boiler's control panel ?

No. 899

>

A

The fuel solenoid "S"

B

The recirculating valve "R".

C

The compound regulator "CR"

D

The pilot burner "PB"

same picture above

The pilot burner will operate during the ignition period and when the flame is established solenoid S will open to admit fuel to the main burner. At that time the FIRING or FLAME indicating light will come on to indicate that the boiler is in

The firing or the flame indicating light on the control panel of this boiler burner control panel shows that ............

No. 900

>

A

the pilot burner has fired.

B

ignition is taking place.

C

fuel is admitted to the main burner.

D

the boiler is operating normally. It indicates that the boiler is in normal firing mode and running trouble free.

The flame failure lamp on the control panel of this boiler burner will illuminate when ...................

No. 901

>

A

the pilot burner fails to fire the main burner.

B

the flame is being smothered by water in the fuel.

C

the flame is dark due to incorrect fuel/air ratio.

D

Any of these faults. FLAME FAILURE alarm and cut-out of boiler as well as indication by the Flame Failure Lamp occurs when the photocell cannot detect flame brightness when the flame is supposedly present, this is during igniting and normal

What is the purpose of the restart button which you will find fitted to the control panel of this boiler's burner?

No. 902

>

A

To be pressed after low water cut-out.

B

To be pressed after restarting the feedwater pump.

C

To be pressed after flame failure.

D

To be pressed after the forced draught fan trips.

Same picture above

The restart button is intended to be pressed when the boiler is in stand-by mode for operation but has misfired or the flame has failed due other reasons not affecting the stand-by condition. The firing process, already started by putting the

Which of the following conditions is a lock-out condition which will consequently illuminate the lock-out indicating lamp fitted to the control panel of the boiler burner light up ?

No. 903

>

A

Burner not correctly secured in position.

B

Low fuel oil pressure.

C

Low water level.

D

Any of these faults.

Same picture above

A lock-out condition indicates that the boiler is not ready for operation since one of the operational or safety conditions required is not present. Option is correct

If you fire the boiler and it misfires repeatedly, indicating flame failure, what are you going to check first?

No. 904

>

A

The boiler water level is at the correct level.

B

The fuel oil pressure and temperature are correct.

C

The photocell is clean in sight glass "G".

D

The ignitor rods, clean the ignitor tips if necessary. First check the condition of the flame and the photocell. A dirty photocell will cause the boiler to misfire .

What do you think should be the temperature on thermometer "T" during normal operation of this boiler ?

No. 905

>

A

45 to 50 degree C.

B

60 to 65 degree C.

C

90 to 100 degree C.

D

125 to 130 degree C.

same picture above

The fuel oil viscosity to the boiler burners is slightly higher than to the diesel engines. By consulting the fuel viscosity chart and consulting the instruction book You will find temperatures in range of 90 to 100 degree C.

Prior to carrying out any work on boiler burners, you should isolate them. What is understood by this ?

No. 906

>

A

You must ensure that all electrical power supplies are shut off.

B

You must ensure that all fuel line valves are shut and fuel drained.

C

You must ensure that funnel uptake flap is closed.

D

All of these options.

same picture above

All of the above conditions are to be fulfilled for safety reasons. The flap on the funnel is to be closed to avoid air passing to the boiler and cooling it down rapidly.

What is item "A" in the steam lay-out drawing ?

No. 907

>

A

The main 7.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

B

The 7.0 bar - 3 bar pressure reducing valve.

C

The 7.0 bar steam pressure relief valve.

D

The 3.0 bar steam pressure relief valve. This is the first pressure reducing valve from the main line to the 7.0 kg/cm2 system.

What is item "B" in this steam lay-out drawing ?

No. 908

>

A

The 7.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

B

The 3.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

C

The 7.0 bar manifold safety valve.

D

The 3.0 bar manifold safety valve.

Same picture above

This is the safety valve (pressure relief valve) of the 7.0 kg/cm2 manifold.

What is item "C" in this drawing of the steam lay-out ?

No. 909

>

A

The 7.0 - 3.0 bar steam reducing valve.

B

The main steam reducing valve.

C

The main safety blow-off valve.

D

The 3.0 bar safety blow-off valve.

Same picture above

This is the second reducing valve , or the 7.0 - 3.0 kg/cm2 steam reducing valve.

What is item "D" in this drawing of a steam lay-out ?

No. 910

>

A

A stem pressure reducing valve.

B

A steam balancing valve.

C

A blow-off valve.

D

A safety relief valve for the low pressure manifold.

Steam2.BMP

This indicates clearly the low pressure manifolds safety relief valve (3.0 kg/cm2)

The exhaust steam line of one of the consumers shown in this drawing will not return via the atmospheric condenser but direct via a water trap to the hot well. Which one ?

No. 911

>

A

Viscorator.

B

Purifiers.

C

M.E. heating.

D

Laundry.

Same picture above

Laundry steam is taken from the low pressure 3.0 kg/cm2 manifold and steam traps are places on the end of the exhaust lines.

In a split, reduced steam manifold, one manifold of pressure 7.0 bar, the other 3.0 bar. From which manifold are the returns taken direct to the hotwell?

No. 912

>

A

From the 7.0 bar manifold.

B

From the 3.0 bar manifold.

C

From either the 7.0 bar or the 3.0 bar manifold.

D

Neither. It is the low pressure steam whose condensate can be led, after passing the steam trap, directly to the hot well. This is the purpose of having a 3.0 kg/cm2 manifold.

Why is there an air vent provided on the atmospheric condenser ?

No. 913

>

A

To blow off excess steam.

B

To avoid vacuum and keep atmospheric pressure.

C

To prevent the hotwell from steaming up.

D

To de-airate, to avoid corrosion. Atmospheric conditions need to be kept in the lines after the steam traps , in the condenser and its return of water to the hot well so that the steaming point will be corresponding to 100 degree C. If a vacuum is allowed to be built up, this

What is the purpose of a steam trap, shown as "ST" on thre drawing?

No. 914

>

A

To retain the steam and let the water pass.

B

To retain the water and let the steam pass.

C

To let steam and water pass only under atmospheric pressure.

D

To let water pass only under a vacuum.

Same picture above

Only water (condensate) can pass the steam trap. This means that the steam is FORCED TO CONDENSAT and give off all its latent heat in the heat exchanger fitted before the steam trap.

What is this funnel like pipe fitted below the evaporating surface of the boiler water ?

No. 915

>

A

A feedwater funnel.

B

A blow down funnel.

C

A boiler water sample drain funnel.

D

A skimming plate. This is a skimming plate or a skimming funnel. The purpose is to skim off FLOATING impurities, these float on the surface of the boiler water (like some oils which might also have entered the boiler.) All flotsam is skimmed-off.

When skimming-off, which valve will you fully open first and close last, whilst operating the other valve throttled ?

No. 916

>

A

The inner valve open first full and close last after operation.

B

The inner valve open first, the outer valve close last.

C

The outer valve open first and close last after operation.

D

The outer valve open first and the inner valve close last. The inner valve is opened first as FULL OPEN or ACCESS valve so that the steam pressure/water pressure will act on the OUTER valve with which You can operate by cracking it off the seat and operate in throttled position. Once the

How do you carry out skimming operations on the boiler water ?

No. 917

>

A

Blow the water down until steam gushes out.

B

Slowly with feedwater pumps stopped.

C

Four to five repeated blows of about 5 seconds each.

D

When the boiler steam pressure has been reduced to atmospheric pressure.

In order not to influence the steam pressure or the water level of the boiler whilst in operation is skimming is done for a period of about five seconds only and depending on the size and capacity of the boiler, repeated several times after

Which main air compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles ?

No. 918

>

Same picture above

A

Main air compressor No 1.

B

Main air compressor No 2.

C

Main air compressor No 1 or No 2.

D

Main air compressor No 1 and No 2. TOPPING UP of bottles, this is to fill to the maximum service pressure after which the tank is closed, is done by ONE compressor. Either main compressor No 1 OR no 2 can be used for that purpose.

During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottles are used ?

No. 919

>

A

No 1 Main Air Bottle.

B

No 2 Main Air Bottle.

C

No 1 or No 2 Main Air Bottle.

D

No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle.

.\AIR5A.BMP

Always one bottle is to be in operation only, the second bottle is the reserve bottle and is to be opened only when the air in the bottle which is in service drops to dangerously low pressure .

What are items "NR " fitted after the compressors?

No. 920

>

A

Demisters.

B

Oil separators.

C

Safety valves.

D

Check valves. A non-return check valve is fitted in the delivery line of every air compressor and when the compressor stops pumping the machine is void of any air pressure since the drains of the compressor will be opened. The compressor starts without

What kind of filling valves are fitted on all the air bottles ?

No. 921

>

A

High pressure gate valves.

B

High pressure scew lift valves.

C

High pressure remote-control valves.

D

High pressure S.D. check valves.

Same picture above

The valves are screw-down non-return check valves. In case of a line bursts the air bottles will not blow empty.

What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor (I.A.C.) ?

No. 922

>

A

An oil separator.

B

An automatic drain valve.

C

A moisture separator.

D

A drain valve. Instrument air compressors are oil free compressors, but besides oil free has the air also to be moist free and a moisture separator is fitted in the delivery line from the compressor to the Instrument air Bottle. This is usually of

What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D" fitted on all air bottles ?

No. 923

>

A

To blow the bottles empty if required.

B

To remove dirt from the bottle.

C

To remove water and condensate from the bottle.

D

To remove excessive oil from the bottle.

Same picture above

Air vapour in the air is drawn in by the compressor and will be removed in the form of condensate from the air bottles.

Which of the fittings listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air bottle ?

No. 924

>

A

A thermometer.

B

A pressure gauge.

C

A safety valve.

D

A drain valve.

Same picture above

We work with pressures, not with temperatures. A thermometer is not required.

What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle ?

No. 925

>

A

An air drain.

B

An air safety discharge valve.

C

An air dryer.

D

An air pressure safety device. An AIR DRYER of blow-back silicagel type or of the refrigerated type is fitted in the main air supply line of the Instrument Air.

What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air and Instrument Air supply lines ?

No. 926

>

A

Pressure capacity vessels.

B

Condensate pots.

C

Constant pressure vessels.

D

Pressure relief units.

Same picture above

Condensate pots are fitted in Low Pressure air lines TO COLLECT moisture if any, and to DRAIN IT OFF if required. If moisture is collecting, unit M (moisture separator) and A.D. (air dryer) have to be checked for proper functioning.

Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in excess of 8.5 bar. Which of the causes listed below is NOT a possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve ?

No. 927

>

A

Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position.

B

Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective.

C

Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck.

D

Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers.

same picture above

Even if the air consumption is NIL the control of the Working air compressor supplying the air bottle, or else the pressure reducing valve in case of supply from the main air bottle are to control the pressure to remain constant if these are

In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted ?

No. 928

>

A

Main engine scavenge air manifold.

B

Ventilation air ducts.

C

Air compressors cylinder heads.

D

Auxiliary diesel crankcase door explosion relief valves. Valves of this type are suction or delivery valves fitted in the cylinder head of an air compressor

What is part No. 3 of this valve ?

No. 929

>

A

A valve flexible disc.

B

A feather spring plate.

C

A disc connecting plate.

D

A suction/discharge plate disc.

Same picture above

This is the spring plate, type is "feather spring plate"

How do you to make this valve air tight during overhaul ?

No. 930

>

A

By fitting O-rings on seat plate 5.

B

By machining the seat of valve disc 4 and seat plate 5.

C

By fitting cupper gaskets to the valve body.

D

By lapping and polishing valve disc 4 and seat plate 5.

same picture above

During overhaul periods the valve seat and disc will be lapped, this is ground with carborandum on the grinding plate and finely polished afterwards

How is this type of valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor ?

No. 931

>

A

It is screwed into the valve space of the cylinder head.

B

It is secured to the cylinder head by bolts.

C

It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinder head.

D

It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head

How is the valve shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the compressor ?

No. 932

>

A screw down bolt fitted into the cylinder head top (usually fitted on a removable plate) is tightened on the valve and presses the valve onto its seating. This pressure bolt is secured by a lock nut.

A

No joint, both faces lapped to each other.

B

An O-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat.

C

A general purpose joint is fitted.

D

A copper gasket is fitted.

Same picture above

Since the gas in the cylinder of the compressor is hot before it is sent to the intercooler/after cooler perbunan, Teflon or viton cannot be used. A copper gasket must to be used.

Why is it important that the exhaust gas boiler bypass flap to exhaust is operated when the main engine is running at reduced or manoeuvring speed on Heavy Fuel Oil. ?

No. 933

>

A

To ensure proper firing of the engine.

B

To ensure starting of the engine.

C

To avoid backpressure on the engine at low speed.

D

To avoid corrosion in the exhaust gas boiler. Heavy fuel oil is made up of C.H and S (Carbon, Hydrogen and Sulphur) The hydrogen and the Sulphur components after combustion may not reach the DEW POINT of 125 degree C, since they will combine and form SULPHERIC

If the auxiliary seawater pump "AS" fails, which pump should be used to cool the condensers ?

No. 934

>

A

Fire Pump "FP ".

B

General Service Pump "GSP".

C

Hydrophore Pump "HP".

D

Main Sea Water Pump(s) "MS". A cross-over line exists from the Main Seawater pumps. A second seawater pump can be started if such is required/feasible.

If the reefer condenser pump "PP" fails, which pump would you use to supply cooling water to these reefer condensers ?

No. 935

>

A

Fire Pump "FP'

B

General Service Pump "GSP"

C

Auxiliary SW PUMP "AS"

D

Any of these pumps may be used.

same picture above

There are crossovers from any of the pumps mentioned and the most convenient can be used.

If the auxiliary condenser is not in use for any operation at sea, which pump should be used to cool the atmospheric and dumping condensers?

No. 936

>

A

The General Service Pump "GSP".

B

The Fire Pump "FP".

C

The Reefer Condenser pump "PP".

D

By the Main Seawater Pump "MS".

Same picture above

The cross-over from the main seawater pumps will be opened and water supplied to the dumping and atmospheric condenser since they are located in the engine room and can be circulated by this pump

If the dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will the clean oil be found ?

No. 937

>

A

Item 2 in the bowl.

B

Item 3 in the bowl.

C

Item 4 in the bowl.

D

Between item 2 and item 4. Oil floats on top of water. The oil is also clean since the dirt residues are left behind on the bottom.

What liquid substance is present in chamber 1 of this oilwater separator ?

No. 938

>

A

Clean oil.

B

Water.

C

Dirty oil.

D

Oil/water mixture.

Same picture above

Water is heavier than oil and it stays in the lower part of the separator. Dirt and sludge are found on the bottom.

If a dirty oily/water mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where will the dirt settle ?

No. 939

>

A

With the liquid item 3.

B

On the bottom item 4.

C

With the liquid item 2.

D

On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3.

same picture above

Dirt will settle to the bottom.

Which force is acting to separate water from oil in this separator ?

No. 940

>

A

Centrifugal force.

B

Gravitational force.

C

Kinetic energy.

D

Chemical potential. Gravitational force only. The density (MASS) of oil is lighter.

Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this Sharples separator, shown left ?

No. 941

>

A

On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl.

B

On the oil/water separation plate.

C

On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl.

D

Near separating plate flushed off with water. This is a separator with tangential separation force. The heaviest particles settle farthest from the centre of the cylinder, e.g. on the cylinder wall.

Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?

No. 942

>

A

On the cylindrical surface of the bowl.

B

On the bottom of the bowl.

C

On the top separation plate between oil and water.

D

In between the discs.

Same picture above

The oily water mixture passes through the discs and the dirt is collected between these discs.

The Sharples separator, shown left and the Disc type separator, shown right, both run at high RPM. But which runs at the highest speed ?

No. 943

>

A

Both run at the same RPM.

B

The Sharples runs at a higher RPM.

C

The DISC type runs at a higher RPM.

D

It depends for which kind of oil gravity either is used. The centrifugal force equals as per formula f= mass x Omega in the second power x Radius., in which Omega = 3.14 x RPM : 30 . The SHARP LESS centrifuge has a smaller radius, so in order to develop the same centrifugal

The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing oils between which density ranges ?

No. 944

>

A

0.845 to 0.965.

B

0.78 to 0.98.

C

0.87 to 0.95.

D

0.84 to 0.945. By exchange of gravity disks oils, from the lightest of 0.780 to the heaviest density, usually 0.980 can be processed. The density of the oil has to be below 1 at 15 degree C.

If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect ?

No. 945

>

A

Water will discharge with the clean oil.

B

Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier.

C

The purifier will overflow oil on the water side.

D

The high temperature alarm will activate.

Same picture above

Since the water seal will be broken through by the oil, oil will overflow on the water side.

What should be the thermal efficiency of this kind of tube heat exchanger ?

No. 946

>

A

between 32 and 46 %.

B

between 70 and 78 %.

C

between 86 and 93 %.

D

100 %. Thermal efficiency is 100 % or the total sum of the heat given off in the heater is equal to the total sum of the heat absorbed in the heater

If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess steam supply or insufficient oil flow could cause excessive .................... in the heater.

No. 947

>

A

deformation.

B

pitting.

C

corrosion.

D

carbon formation.

Same picture above

The oil would starting to "BURN" in the heater and carbon deposits will form on the outside piping surface.

Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) required on this starting air compressor ?

No. 948

>

A

To absorb the large torsional forces (2 cylinder).

B

To absorb the vibrations due to high speed (900 - 720 RPM).

C

To accelerate evenly when starting.

D

To avoid stalling when drain and unloaders close. A two-cylinder heavily loaded compressor is exposed to torsional forces. Therefore absorption by a flywheel is necessary.

Suppose the rated delivery pressure of this main air compressor is 25 bar, what would be the delivery pressure of the first stage cylinder ?

No. 949

>

A

12.5 bar.

B

15 bar.

C

8.3 bar.

D

5 bar. The compression ratio of the 1st stage and 2nd stage cylinders is the same. In this case it is 5/1. The 1st stage compresses from 1 atm (1kg/cm2 abt) to 5 kg/cm2 and the 2nd stage compresses from 5 to 25 kg/cm2

Which parts of a refrigeration plant are shown here ?

No. 950

>

A

Compressor, dryer, evaporator.

B

Compressor, oil separator, evaporator.

C

Compressor, collector, condenser.

D

Compressor, oil separator, condenser. Between compressor and condenser on the discharge side the oil separator fitted. The separated oil is led back to the compressor crank case.

What type of condenser is fitted to this refrigeration unit ?

No. 951

>

A

A fin coil air fan cooled type.

B

An air duct cooled type.

C

A sea water cooled type condenser.

D

A fresh water cooled type condenser.

Same picture above

A compact finned coil fitted in front of a cooling fan

To which type of installation would you find these refrigeration components fitted ?

No. 952

>

A

Reefer ship cargo installations.

B

Ships accommodation air conditioning plants.

C

Engine control room air conditioning plants.

D

Small domestic refrigeration units. Larger plants, in particular on board ships, are cooled by water and not by air. The type shown in the drawing is commonly used in domestic type freezers and refrigerators.

How is the capacity of this type of refrigeration installation controlled ?

No. 953

>

A

By the compressor unloader.

B

By the expansion valve.

C

By the solenoid valve.

D

No capacity control is fitted.

Same picture above

There is no capacity control fitted. When the desired temperature in the cooled space is reached, a thermostat will cut- off the power to compressor and cooling fan, restart these when the temperature goes up.

How are the components of this type of refrigeration system joined together ?

No. 954

>

A

By flared piping connections.

B

By screwed piping connections.

C

By flanged piping connections.

D

By soldered piping connections.

Same picture above

All connections are soldered.

What is the correct name of part number 1 shown here ?

No. 955

>

A

A thermo-balanced expansion valve.

B

A thermodynamic expansion valve.

C

A thermostatic expansion valve.

D

A thermo-controlled expansion valve. This is a thermodynamic expansion valve for controlling the superheating degree of the gas at the end of the evaporating coil due to the Freon admittance. It is controlled by the liquid pressure and outlet temperature of

What size of refrigeration installation is shown here?

No. 956

>

A

A large installation (reefer cargo).

B

A medium size installation (accommodation aircon).

C

A smaller size installation(provision rooms, small air conditioning units).

D

A very small cabinet refrigerator unit.

Same picture above

This is a small size refrigeration unit, however, large enough to fit a collector after the condenser.

What kind of medium is found in the line to which safety blow-off valve part No 3 is fitted (red line) ?

No. 957

>

A

Hot superheated gas of high pressure.

B

Hot saturated gas and oil.

C

High pressure wet gas.

D

Resaturated high pressure gas.

Same picture above

The outlet of the compressor delivers superheated gas to the condenser. The gas is further superheated by thermodynamic power absorption from the compressor

What is part No 5 of this refrigerator compressor drawing ?

No. 958

>

A

A cylinder head spaces plate.

B

A valve plate.

C

A distance collar.

D

A cylinder head gasket plate. This is the combined suction and delivery valve plate fitted on top of the cylinder between it and the cylinder head.

What kind of material is NEVER used for the pistons of a refrigeration compressor ?

No. 959

>

A

Cast Iron.

B

Light alloy.

C

Perlite steel.

D

Pure aluminium.

Same picture above

Aluminum is corroded by Freon gases and will dissolve. Light alloys are, however, commonly used.

How is lubrication arranged in this refrigeration compressor?

No. 960

>

A

By attached crankcase lub. oil pump.

B

By splash lubrication.

C

By a cylinder lubricator.

D

By independent lubricating pump.

Same picture above

Splash type lubrication is used and the cylinder liners/piston rings are lubricated by the oil exits via holes in the oil grooves and grooved piston oil rings.

If the suction and delivery valves are closed for test and the compressor is losing gas pressure rapidly (indicating a leak), which part would you suspect first?

No. 961

>

A

The valve plate gaskets.

B

The crankcase door gasket (fitted on block No 1).

C

The flanged pipe gauge connections.

D

The shaft seal (item No 7). The shaft seal is the most common reason for Freon loss from the compressor. The shaft seal needs to be replaced in this case.

What is part No. 7 of this refrigerated compressor ?

No. 962

>

A

A flexible type shaft seal.

B

A carbon ring type shaft seal.

C

A chemical resistant box seal.

D

A spring tensioned bellow seal.

Same picture above

It is a flexible type shaft seal ensuring oil and gas tightness of the shaft protruding from the crankcase.

Which type of suction and delivery valves woul be fitted in this type compressor?

No. 963

>

A

A cylindrical combination suction/delivery valve.

B

Vane type valve plates riveted on valve plate.

C

One each cylindrical suction and delivery valve.

D

Spring controlled poppet valves. Vane type valve plates are riveted on valve plate 5. These are interchangeable and spare vane plate strips are kept as spares on board.

In what capacity range are refrigeration compressors of this type found (shaft input expressed in Kilo Watts) ?

No. 964

>

A

300 W to 1.5 kW.

B

2.5 kW to 7.5 kW.

C

5 kW to 15 kW.

D

25 kW to 65 kW. These type compressors are not domestic or chest type compressors but system compressors of a small type. Larger types would have an integral oil pump.

Is capacity control feasable on this compressor ? If yes, how would it be arranged ?

No. 965

>

A

No, capacity control system cannot be fitted.

B

Yes, capacity control valve acts on the unloader by suction pressure.

C

Yes, by throttling the suction valve.

D

Yes, by setting the expansion valve.

same picture above

One cylinder will be continuous pumping-direct, whilst the 2nd cylinder is activated on the valve plate by an unloader which is activated by the capacity control valve, activated in part by the suction pressure. If the suction pressure drops

What is part No. 3 ?

No. 966

>

A

The sterntube.

B

The stern.

C

The rudder.

D

The transom. This is the stern part of the ship

What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?

No. 967

>

A

The main engine shaft.

B

The stern shaft.

C

The intermediate shaft.

D

The tail shaft.

How is the propeller fitted onto its shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?

No. 968

>

A

It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft.

B

It is locked into slots on the drive shaft.

C

It is keyed onto a tapered shaft.

D

Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller.

A propeller key is fitted.

What part is fitted under the propeller cone ?

No. 969

>

Same picture above

A

The propeller seal.

B

The propeller locking bar.

C

The propeller nut.

D

The rope guard.

Same picture above

The propeller nut is fitted at the rear of the propeller and a protective propeller cone is bolted over it.

What metal is the stern tube usually lined with?

No. 970

>

A

Aluminium brass.

B

Gunmetal.

C

White metal.

D

Phosphor bronze. The lining of the stern tube or stern tube bearing is of white metal.

How would this stern tube bearing be lubricated ?

No. 971

>

A

By grease.

B

By water supply.

C

By a closed lubricating oil system.

D

It is self lubricating.

Same picture above

The propeller shaft turns in the stern tube bearings in between filled by an oil bath.

If refrigerant gauges are calibrated in Absolute Corresponding Temperature, can these gauges be used for any refrigerant in any refrigerating system ?

No. 972

>

A

Can be used for Freon 12 or Freon 22 only.

B

Can be used for any refrigerant.

C

Can be used for any refrigerant except AMMONIA.

D

Are calibrated for only one refrigerant. They can be used for one particular refrigerant only and the temperatures indicated correspond to the pressures for that particular refrigerant. The name of the refrigerant is also marked on this gauge. If the gauge is used for another

What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward and aft) ?

No. 973

>

A

They are flat gaskets between flanges.

B

They are square in form and diagonally cut.

C

They are round in form and in one piece (O-ring type).

D

They are lip seals and in one piece. They are lip seals, the lip bent to the highest pressure side so that by increasing pressure the pressure on the lip end is increased.

Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube?

No. 974

>

A

The cylindrical steel tube aft.

B

The forward and aft plummer blocks.

C

The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners).

D

The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil supply system.

The stern tube bearing supports the shaft forward and aft by its white metal lining. In between is the oil bath.

What is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No. 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?

No. 975

>

Same picture above

A

To remove air from the system.

B

To fill oil in the system.

C

To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample.

D

To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit.

Same picture above

In the normal position the valve connects the return pipe to the header tank. When turned, oil flows from the bearing for a sample or drains the stern tube partially or completely.

Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?

No. 976

>

A

To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal.

B

To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal.

C

To avoid oil being spilled overboard.

D

To avoid sea water entering the stern tube. The density of sea water is 1.025 .Suppose the draft of the vessel is 10 metres. The water pressure on the after seals is 1.025 kg/cm2. THE OIL PRESSURE NEEDS TO BE HIGHER, so that in the case of seal failure no sea water will

Steam produced by a boiler whose temperature is above that corresponding to its pressure is referred to as..............?

No. 977

>

A

dry steam.

B

regenerated steam.

C

bled steam.

D

superheated steam. If the temperature of the steam is corresponding to the pressure it is SATURATED STEAM, if it is higher it is called SUPERHEATED STEAM.

What liquid is present in collecting point 11 at the bottom of the fresh water generator evaporator shell?

No. 978

>

A

Ejector water.

B

Brine.

C

Fresh water.

D

Sea water. Sea water is admitted via valve item 16 to the evaporator, part of the water evaporates and condenses as fresh water in the condenser. What is left behind is BRINE to be drained/ pumped or educted out of the evaporator.

What is the purpose of the sea water pump item No. 13 ?

No. 979

>

A

To supply sea water to the condenser.

B

To drive the air ejector of the evaporator.

C

To supply water to be evaporated.

D

To cool the evaporator. This pump drives the air ejector, creating a vacuum in the fresh water generator. (Depending the type it might at the same time drive the Brine Ejector to eject the brine from the evaporator.)

What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water in this fresh water generator ?

No. 980

>

A

The vacuum and ejector pump item 13.

B

The seawater pump supplying the evaporating water item 14.

C

The ejector pump and seawater pump combined.

D

The waste heat from the main engine.

same picture as above

Waste heat from the main engine discarded by the cooling water is directed to the fresh water generator and used as evaporating heat for the sea water in the evaporator. The pumps are for secondary use only.

How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ?

No. 981

>

A

By the condensing effect in the condenser.

B

By pumping or educting out the brine.

C

By the vapour eductor driven by the ejector pump.

D

By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.

Same picture as above

The vapour ejector or VACUUM eductor creates a vacuum by sucking air and vapour out creating a vacuum inside the shell of the f.w. generator. It is driven by the ejector pump (sea water pump 13)

What is item No 9 shown here fitted between evaporator and condenser of this fresh water generator ?

No. 982

>

A

A desalinator unit.

B

A water filter assembly.

C

A water deflector.

D

A heating cap. This is a water deflecting cap. it deflects water droplets dragged with the evaporation process to return allowing only water vapour to enter the cooling space.

What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water onboard ?

No. 983

>

A

Below 20 ppm.

B

Below 50 ppm.

C

Below 7 ppm.

D

Below 2 ppm.

Same picture as above

Drinking water should have a ppm below 7 ppm. The alarm of the salinometer will sound at that level, on range 0 to 20 ppm.

What is the maximum salinity allowable (in ppm) for water produced by this fresh water generator when it is to be used in medium pressure water tube boilers ?

No. 984

>

A

20 ppm.

B

15 ppm.

C

7 ppm.

D

2ppm.

Same picture as above

The boiler water distillate supply has to have a ppm of not greater than 2 on most types of medium pressure water tube boilers.

If the FW generator is producing water with salinity of 5 ppm and is changed to produce water of 2 ppm, this is mainly achieved by .....................

No. 985

>

A

slowing down production by opening the vacuum breaker valve.

B

decreasing production by lowering fresh water supply from M.E.

C

decreasing sea water cooling to the condenser.

D

throttling sea water feed supply to the evaporator. The vacuum breaker is opened so that the amount of water evaporated is slowed down and drag factor decreased

What should be the level in the sight glass of the accumulated fresh water in the fresh water generator ?

No. 986

>

A

One inch from the bottom.

B

Two inches from the top.

C

Half level.

D

Between one fourth and half level.

Same picture above

The level should be between one fourth and half indicated in the sight glass. If it is lower, a danger exists that all the water is sucked out and the fresh water pump will runs dry. If it is too high the bottom piping of the condenser be covered

What is the ideal temperature difference between inlet and outlet on this evaporator?

No. 987

>

A

2 to 4 degree C.

B

4 to 6 degree C.

C

6 to 8 degree C.

D

8 to 12 degree C.

same picture above

6 to 8 degree C. If it is less, the heat exchange is reduced by fouling of the outer circumference of the piping or if too much water is flowing through the piping cavitations may occur. If higher, not enough water is circulating.

What type of pump is the distillate water pump, item No 7, and at what pressure is it discharging the liquid?

No. 988

>

A

Vane pump, under pressure.

B

Centrifugal pump, under vacuum.

C

Centrifugal pump under pressure.

D

Vane pump, under vacuum. It is a centrifugal pump under vacuum.

Prior to starting the distillate pump, item No 7, it is necessary to make sure that ............................ in order to avoid the pump running dry.

No. 989

>

A

water is visible in the sight glass of the evaporator.

B

the discharge valve of the pump is shut.

C

the vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum.

D

the evaporator is full and under presuure. Sufficient distillated water is visible in the sight glass (about half a glass) before starting the pump.

When starting up a fresh water generator it often happens that the distillate pump fails to pump out the produced water. This could be caused by ...............

No. 990

>

A

the vacuum being too high in the fresh water generator.

B

the fresh water generator being too high.

C

an air leak on the shell and grease needs to be applied.

D

the pump is drawing in air through a leaking shaft seal. The gland packing has become dry and therefore slack during standstill and air has entered the pump. Ensure the packing is tight and re-start the pump.

When taking over the watch as duty engineer, what would you check first, before inspecting the plant condition?

No. 991

>

A

The engine room bilges.

B

The log book entries from the previous watch.

C

The fire alarm monitoring equipment.

D

The Chief Engineer's standing orders and special instructions. Prior to taking over the watch and checking the condition of machinery and log books You are first check the standing orders and special instructions of the Chief Engineer relative to the operations of the ships systems and engines. This is

Whilst taking over of the watch, besides verifying standing orders and the actual condition of the plant, tank levels and operations, what other important matter should you verify?

No. 992

>

A

That the bilges of all wells pumped.

B

What is the firefighting equipment in state of readiness.

C

If any workis being performed in the engine room.

D

Where are the leakages in pipes, tanks and equipment. Option , and are plant conditions. Option is correct. You are to verify the work that is being performed in the engine room, inclusive the personnel present in the engine room for that purpose

In reefer installations the cooling effect is produced by lowering the pressure of the refrigerant so that .................

No. 993

>

A

the liquid will be able to absorb heat from the surroundings.

B

the liquid will be able to expand to gas.

C

its boiling point is reached and it will be able to absorb heat.

D

it will be able to be compressed again and give off heat. By lowering the pressure below the corresponding evaporation pressure (or reverse boiling temperature by a given pressure) the boiling effect takes place with evaporation, PROVIDED that the evaporation heat is

In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumatic control system) at what distance away from the nozzle does the flapper need to be moved in order not to have any influence on the NBP (nozzle back pressure) ?

No. 994

>

A

h = 0.4 D.

B

h = 0.25 D.

C

h = 0.5 D.

D

h = D. Passage trough nozzle is phi x diameter in square power divided by four. Passage trough opening nozzle/flapper is phi x diameter x h. Make the equation and you find that h= D divided by four or o.25

What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper assembly ?

No. 995

>

A

Normal Basic Pressure.

B

Nominal Balance Pressure.

C

Nozzle Back Pressure.

D

Nozzle Balance Pressure.

Same picture above

This is the nozzle back pressure. The closer the flapper will be placed to the nozzle, the more shall the nozzle back pressure increase

What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly ?

No. 996

>

A

The nozzle is worn out.

B

The flapper is broken or distorted.

C

Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle.

D

Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP).

Same picture above

The small air passages (max 0.6 mm for D, smaller for R) may get blocked by any impurity incoming from the 20 psi supply line.

If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of NBP become ?

No. 997

A

0 psi.

>

B

C

3 psi.

D

15 psi.

same picture above

20 psi.

The NBP or the nozzle back pressure will be of course 20 psi, same as the supply pressure since no air is bled off.

This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that the normal effective travel of the flapper is only ............... for the full measuring range.

No. 998

>

A

0.005 mm.

B

0.01 mm.

C

0.05 mm.

D

0.10 mm. Travel is only 0.01 mm

What pneumatic control device is shown here?

No. 999

>

A

A pneumatic flapper/nozzle assembly.

B

A pneumatic controller.

C

A pneumatic amplifier.

D

A pneumatic booster aggregate. This is a detail drawing of a pneumatic amplifier. The nozzle/flapper input are shown but not in detail.

No. 1000

>

Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here ?

A

A pressure regulator.

B

An amplifier.

C

An nozzle / flapper assembly.

D

A transmitter. This is a pneumatic amplifier.

No. 1001

>

What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?

A

Gasket No 8 blown.

B

Diaphragma No 7 bursts.

C

Valve stem No 6 defective.

D

Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.

Same as above

The cleanliness of the Instrument Supply Air is of over importance for all pneumatic instruments since we have passages of only fractions of one millimeter. Air that is not oil or moist free will drag impurities from the lines and these No. 1002

>

This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control engineering. It is ...............?

A

a pneumatic transmitter assembly.

B

a totaliser or summator unit.

C

a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier.

D

a pneumatic basic controller unit. This is a nozzle/flapper assembly with Amplifier. It is the heart of any pneumatic instrument, and is fitted as well on transmitters as on controllers and valve positioners.

No. 1003

>

These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic system so they can be easily dismantled, using ...................?

A

clamps with bellow packing.

B

retainer springs and silicon.

C

plugs and O-rings.

D

sleeves and copper gaskets. The piping is easily to disassemble and assemble since they have circular (eye) ends trough which PLUGS with O-RINGS are inserted and pushed into the sockets, after which they are secured by a reating plate with screw.

No. 1004

>

Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?

A

Part No. 2

B

Part No. 3

C

Part No. 4

D

Part No. 5 Part no 2 is the nozzle and the flapper is fitted in front of it. It is fastened in the base by the hollow plug screw on the back.

No. 1005

>

What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item No 6 from flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?

A

Between 2 and 2.75 psi.

B

Between 3 and 15 psi.

C

20 psi.

D

Between 0 and 20 psi.

same picture as above

The output of the nozzle/flapper assembly is between 2 and 2.78 psi only and is to weak a signal to use, therefore is it amplified and the corresponding output of the amplifier is 3 to 15 psi.

No. 1006

>

What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A

7 to 15 psi.

B

3 to 15 psi.

C

15 to 25 psi.

D

3 to 20 psi. Amplifier output pressure is 3 to 15 psi for all pneumatic amplifiers of standard version.

No. 1007

>

What pneumatic device is shown here ?

A

A proportional controller.

B

A proportional transmitter.

C

A feedback amplifier.

D

A feedback controller. This is a simple proportional controller (regulator)

No. 1008

>

What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?

A

Absorbing bellow.

B

Equalising bellow.

C

Feedback bellow.

D

Lifting bellow.

Same picture above

The output of the amplifier is fed back to the control arm "ab"

No. 1009

>

If we shift the nozzle/flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half of length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?

A

Twice the height from level L.

B

Half the height from Level L.

C

1/4th the height from level L.

D

Four times the height from level L.

Pneuc12a.BMP

The original distance in height between level L and level L' or the OFFSET was for proportional band 100%. The Proportional band has now been decreased to 50 % since b = 2 x a. This means that the amplification factor K = 2 and No. 1010

>

What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?

A

The span.

B

The range.

C

The amplification.

D

The offset.

Pneuc12a.BMP

It is called the offset, or variation with reference to the set point or desired value.

No. 1011

>

The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and 15 psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ?

A

Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA.

B

Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 MA.

C

Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA.

D

Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA. Between 0 and 20 mA or between 4 and 20 mA, depending American or European systems.

No. 1012

>

Alternator temperature indicators often giving readings in degrees Fahrenheit. If a reading is 80 degrees F, how many degrees Celsius is this ?

A

23.8.

B

26.6.

C

29.2.

D

32.7. Anybody working in an engine room must know to convert degree C to degree F and vice versa.

No. 1013

>

The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a high throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for ...........................

A

process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by the same percentage.

B

self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the throughput the same.

C

open - close regulation.

D

a stop (zero flow) valve. The valve is obviously an open close valve . At 25 % lift is 100 % throughput obtained.

No. 1014

>

The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are .....................

A

pear shaped valves.

B

flat top valves.

C

linear valves.

D

equi-percentage valves.

Same picture above

These are LINEAR VALVES. Under condition that the liquid pressure is CONSTANT before and after the valve is the valve shape ensuring that for a certain percentage lift the throughput changes by the same percentage.

No. 1015

>

The two valves on the left of this picture are ................., the two valves on the right are ............... valves.

A

flat top, linear.

B

pear shaped, equi-percentage.

C

linear, curved.

D

linear, equi-percentage. The valves on the left are linear valves, the valves on the right are equi-percentage valves

No. 1016

>

A

absolute pressure.

B

absolute corresponding temperature.

C

superheated gas temperature.

D

saturated gas temperature.

No. 1017

>

In addition to pressure, Freon gauges are calibrated in:

In a refrigeration system the method of reducing the capacity without reducing the compressor speed is called:

A

hot gas by-passing.

B

short cycling.

C

hot pressure by-passing.

D

low pressure by-passing.

No. 1018

>

A

an indirect system.

B

a low pressure system.

C

a double evaporator system.

D

a direct system.

No. 1019

>

An abnormally hot suction line in a refrigerating plant may be due to.............

A

insufficient refrigerant.

B

too much refrigerant.

C

too much oil in circulation.

D

high latent heat of evaporation.

No. 1020

>

When the evaporator coils are located directly inside the refrigerated space the system is known as..............

Low alkalininity of boiler water or the presence of free oxygen, or both may result in .............

A

scale.

B

corrosion.

C

foaming.

D

priming.

No. 1021

>

A

It will ignite in the cylinder.

B

condensation occurs.

C

it should be stored in a pressurised tank.

D

flammable vapours form at its surface.

No. 1022

>

Kinetic energy of a body is due to its .............

A

position.

B

temperature.

C

motion.

D

horsepower.

No. 1023

>

Flash point of oil is the temperature at which ............

Which of the following is a unit of work?

A

Pounds per minute.

B

Kilograms per minute.

C

Kilogram meters.

D

Foot-pounds per minute.

No. 1024

>

A

per unit of acceleration.

B

per unit of force.

C

per unit of time.

D

per unit of distance.

No. 1025

>

Power is the work done ..........

Which of the combustible elements of fuel oil is a major source of boiler corrosion?

A

Oxygen.

B

Sulphur.

C

Hydrogen.

D

Carbon. It forms with hydrogen and oxygen SULPHERIC ACID below dew point (125 degr C)

No. 1026

>

A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for ...........

A

sulphates.

B

excess oxygen.

C

phosphates.

D

nitrates.

No. 1027

>

Saturated steam produced by a boiler should be separated from moisture ................

A

by the superheater.

B

by cyclones.

C

by passing through the dry pipe.

D

in the turbine steam trap. The steam is saturated, not superheated. If the moist is not separated, than the steam is WET

No. 1028

>

A

One

B

10 degree F

C

100 degree C

D

greater than 212 degree F

No. 1029

>

The Specific Heat of water is ...........

The unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is ...............

A

PPM.

B

gms per cc.

C

pH.

D

micro-ohm.

No. 1030

>

What do you call the valve that prevents steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working pressure?

A

The safety valve.

B

The steam regulator valve.

C

The steam pressure reducing valve.

D

The main steam stop valve. The safety valve opens above a given SET PRESSURE which corresponds 5 to 7 % above the normal max working pressure.

No. 1031

>

A

recirculating line.

B

simplex fuel oil strainer.

C

settling tanks.

D

slop retention tanks.

No. 1032

>

The relief valves in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump suction or to the ..............

Testing boiling water for chloride content will indicate the amount of ............

A

solids in the water as a result of sea water contamination.

B

phosphate present in the water.

C

dissolved solids in total present in the water.

D

alkalinity level.

No. 1033

>

A

By diverting part of the flow through the desuperheater.

B

By varying the combustion air.

C

By regulating the water supply temperature.

D

By replacing the burners nozzles.

No. 1034

>

Which of the following is the neutral PH value ?

A

0

B

7

C

9

D

7.5

No. 1035

>

Under normal conditions, how is the superheated steam outlet temperature regulated?

Steam which is in physical contact with the boiling water from which it is being generated is called ..................

A

unsaturated steam.

B

pure steam.

C

wet steam.

D

saturated steam. The surface from which steam is generated splashes water droplets out. In fact is the steam WET since the volume is not for 100% occupied by damp. A cyclone or a water retaining frame is fitted above the evaporating surface to

No. 1036

>

A

Bourdon gauge.

B

hygrometer..

C

manometer.

D

barometer.

No. 1037

>

The atmospheric pressure is accurately indicated by a .........

When a fresh water generator condenses water vapour into water it ....................

A

emits latent heat of fusion.

B

emits latent heat of evaporation.

C

absorbs latent heat of fusion.

D

absorbs latent heat of evaporation. The evaporator PRODUCES latent heat for evaporating, the CONDENSER absorbs this heat.

No. 1038

>

The heat used to change a liquid to a vapour is called 'latent heat of ..............'

A

fusion

B

evaporation

C

absorption

D

transmission

No. 1039

>

A

evaporates.

B

condenses.

C

vapourises.

D

boils.

No. 1040

>

A refrigerant gives up heat when it ............

The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigerator system is the temperature of the .........

A

evaporator coil.

B

liquid in the condenser.

C

receiver cooling water temperature.

D

liquid in the evaporator. The evaporator coil absorbs heat. The temperature of the liquid after the expansion valve up to the point where all liquid is evaporated is the coldest in the system. The gas after that point will further absorb heat, become superheated

No. 1041

>

Refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by ..............

A

the pressure change of the refrigerant.

B

the boiling refrigerant changing to a vapour.

C

increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.

D

lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.

No. 1042

>

A

wet and dry.

B

dry and flooded.

C

finned and tube.

D

short and extended.

No. 1043

>

The greatest decrease in the temperature of a refrigerant is at the ...............

A

expansion valve.

B

evaporator.

C

condenser.

D

receiver.

No. 1044

>

The two main types of refrigeration system evaporators are called ............

When Freon is leaking from a refrigerating system, a halide torch flame will turn .....

A

blue.

B

yellow.

C

green.

D

orange.

No. 1045

>

A

separate oil from the refrigerant.

B

store the refrigerant.

C

cool the hot gases.

D

condense the refrigerant.

No. 1046

>

When used with reference to a refriferation or air conditioning system ambient temperature is the ..............

A

temperature of the space being cooled.

B

temperature of the air outside the spce being cooled.

C

temperature difference between the space being cooled and the outside temperature..

D

temperature of the machinery space.

No. 1047

>

A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to ............

The temperature of a refrigerant is highest just before it enters the ..............

A

receiver.

B

condenser.

C

evaporator.

D

king valve.

No. 1048

>

A

low discharge temperature.

B

high suction pressure.

C

high suction temperature.

D

faulty expansion valve.

No. 1049

>

The cooling effect in a refrigeration system is produced by ............

A

lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.

B

increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.

C

boiling the refrigerant.

D

pressure changes to the refrigerant.

No. 1050

>

Moisture in a refrigeration system will cause a .....

Excess refrigerant in a refrigeration system is normally removed from the .........

A

discharge side of the evaporator.

B

suction side of the system.

C

comprssor crackcase.

D

charging connection of the system.

No. 1051

>

A

low head pressure-high suction pressure.

B

Any of these.

C

continuous running.

D

gradual or sudden decrease in capacity.

No. 1052

>

High latent heat is desirable in a refrigerant so that ...........

A

smaller compressors can be used.

B

smaller pipes can be used.

C

it will boil at low temperature.

D

a small amount of refrigerant will absorb a large amount of heat.

No. 1053

>

The indications of a faulty refrigeration compressor valve are ..........

When adjusting compressor V-belts ................

A

make them as tight as possible.

B

allow 12mm slack.

C

make the belt just tight enough to turn the pulley.

D

always replace the belt first.

No. 1054

>

A

It will freeze.

B

It will crystallize.

C

Nothing will happen.

D

It will solidify.

No. 1055

>

In a refrigeration system, a precooler is sometimes installed between the ..............

A

compressor and the condenser.

B

condenser and the expansion valve.

C

expansion valve and the evaporator.

D

evaporator and the compressor.

No. 1056

>

What will happen if brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity ?

Frost appearing at the high pressure side of a thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system is probably caused by ..............

A

the refrigerator box being too cold.

B

a dirty or iced-up expansion valve.

C

the condenser being too cold.

D

the head pressure being high.

No. 1057

>

A

compressor.

B

evaporator.

C

condenser.

D

liquid reservoir.

No. 1058

>

An automatically controlled Freon-12 compressor will stop when the ....................

A

expansion valve closes.

B

expansion valve opens.

C

solenoid valve closes.

D

solenoid valve opens.

No. 1059

>

In all refrigeration installations, the cooling effect is produced in the ..............

If the compressor discharge in a refrigeration system becomes frosted, the probable cause is ...........

A

the expansion valve being improperly set.

B

the refrigerant flooding back.

C

the compressor cuts out too frequently.

D

a faulty king valve.

No. 1060

>

A

the outlet of the expansion valve to the suction of the compressor.

B

the discharge of the compressor to the inlet of the expansion valve.

C

the outlet of the condenser to the inlet of the expansion valve.

D

the outlet of the condenser to the outlet of the expansion valve.

No. 1061

>

When used in operating accomodation air conditioning systems, humidity is a measure of ...............

A

temperature.

B

evaporation.

C

latent heat.

D

water vapour content.

No. 1062

>

In the refrigeration system, the low pressure side would be from ..............

What is the other name of the brine-circulating system of refrigeration?

A

Closed system.

B

Expansion system.

C

Indirect system.

D

Direct system.

No. 1063

>

A

condensing refrigerant.

B

secondary refrigerant.

C

vaporizing refrigerant.

D

primary refrigerant.

No. 1064

>

When ordering an expansion valve for a refrigeration system which of the following information is necessary ?

A

Size and pressure.

B

Size, tonnage, temperature and pressure.

C

Pressure and temperature.

D

Size and tonnage.

No. 1065

>

In a refrigeration system, a fluid that serves only as a heat carrier is called the .........

What is this component ?

A

A pressure reducing valve.

B

A exhaust valve.

C

A safety valve.

D

A non-return valve.

No. 1066

>

A

A shaft.

B

A spring.

C

A spindle.

D

A guide.

No. 1067

>

What is part No. 7 called ?

A

A spring cap.

B

A valve cover.

C

A spring adjuster.

D

A spring retainer.

No. 1068

>

What is part No. 1 called ?

Same picture above

What is part No. 5 called ?

A

A valve disk.

B

A valve disk holder.

C

A valve seat.

D

A spring supporter.

Same picture above

No. 1069

What is part No. 6 called ?

A

The spring retention piece.

B

The spring cover.

C

The valve lid.

D

The spring guide.

>

No. 1070

>

A

First leakage before the valve opens.

B

A metallic hammering noise.

C

A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.

D

A failure of a safety valve to re-seat.

No. 1071

>

What is "simmer" in a safety valve ?

Same picture above

How often should the operation of a boiler safety valve be checked ?

A

At each annual survey.

B

At each dry dock.

C

At regular intervals.

D

Only when the electronic checking system fails.

Same picture above

No. 1072

>

A

The evaporator.

B

The condensor.

C

The pump.

D

The compressor.

No. 1073

>

What is component B called ?

A

The evaporator.

B

The brine tank.

C

The condensor.

D

The suction tank.

No. 1074

>

What is component "A" called ?

Same picture above

What is component C called ?

A

The expansion valve.

B

The suction valve.

C

The pressure regulator.

D

The condensor valve.

Same picture above

No. 1075

>

A

The condensor coil.

B

The expansion coil.

C

The evaporator coil.

D

The superheater coil.

No. 1076

>

What is component G called ?

A

The freon tank.

B

The water tank.

C

The compressor receiver.

D

The liquid receiver.

No. 1077

>

What is component D called ?

Same picture above

What are the four processes in a refrigeration cycle ?

A

Suction / Compression / Expansion / Power.

B

Compression / Condensation / Expansion / Evaporation.

C

Evaporation / Expansion / Implosion / Condensation.

D

Condensation / Evaporation / Cooling / Compression.

Same picture above

No. 1078

>

A

To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator.

B

To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

C

To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

D

To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator and to reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

No. 1079

>

What is the function of the evaporator ?

A

Transferring heat from the substance being cooled.

B

Evaporating humid air in the room or area being cooled.

C

Act as a heat exchanger between the hot refrigerant and the cooling medium.

D

To recycle used refrigerant.

No. 1080

>

What is the function of the expansion valve ?

Same picture above

What is the function of the compressor ?

A

To compress hot air.

B

To pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.

C

To compress the refrigerant.

D

To compress hot air and to pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.

Same picture above

No. 1081

>

A

Part B.

B

Part E.

C

Part G.

D

Part I.

No. 1082

>

What is significant about an indirect refrigeration system ?

A

It measures temperature in directly.

B

It uses a secondary refrigerant like brine to do the cooling.

C

It has an indirect circulation of cooling medium.

D

It uses ammonium instead of Freon as cooling gas.

No. 1083

>

Which part in this diagram is the discharge valve ?

Same picture above

What is the function of the dehydrator in a refrigeration system ?

A

To reduce risk of corrosion in the brine tank.

B

To take away humid sediments in the suction valve.

C

To absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant.

D

To reduce moisture in the compressor house.

Same picture above

No. 1084

>

A

No 1.

B

No 2.

C

No 5.

D

No 6.

No. 1085

>

What part is the diaphragm disc ?

A

Part 6.

B

Part 3.

C

Part 2.

D

Part 4.

No. 1086

>

Which part is the Adjusting bolt ?

same picture above

Which part is the spring house ?

A

Part 3.

B

Part 4.

C

Part 5.

D

Part 6.

same picture above

No. 1087

>

A

The disc.

B

The diaphragm.

C

The plate.

D

The rubber membrane.

No. 1088

>

What is Part No. 7 called ?

When taking over the engine room watch, you should verify that the steering gear is ..............

A

operational and the ship is on course.

B

vibration free operation without oil leaks and that the unit is well greased and lubricated.

C

not running in overload or not overheating.

D

well ventilated. You should check that the lubrication and oil level in the steering gear is correct.

No. 1089

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should verify that the pallister bearing carrying the rudder stock ............

A

is well greased and that no water ingress is noticeable.

B

has no jumping clearance.

C

has no axial clearance.

D

has sufficient clearance on the gland packing and is not scoring the liner or the seat plate.

See that the pallister bearing is well greased, if an automatic grease pot is fitted or oil pots, see that these are filled adequately.

No. 1090

>

A

contain sufficient oil to maintain level during your watch.

B

contain oil to the correct level mark to ensure that there is no oil loss via the stern tube.

C

are changed-over from high to low or vice versa as required.

D

are at the required temperature and if hot, more water should be added to the stern tube.

No. 1091

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube oil gravity tanks .............

You must keep an eye at the oil level in the gravity tank to ensure that there is no oil loss.

When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube seal ...........

A

is supplied with cooling fresh water.

B

is supplied with cooling sea water.

C

is not leaking.

D

has not shifted inside the liner. You are to ensure that the stern tube seal, of whatever make or type is not leaking (oil nor water).

No. 1092

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube shaft is ...........

A

not running hot.

B

exactly "hand warm ".

C

not vibrating and not running hot.

D

not twisted. The slightest vibration of the stern tube shaft should be reported.

No. 1093

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft ..........

A

is polished and that the polishing mats are in place.

B

is adequately greased.

C

is at engine room temperature.

D

is vibration free. The shaft must be vibration free. Inspect the tachometer drive and the current take-off slip rings if fitted.

No. 1094

>

A

at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling water supply is on.

B

not overheating, not leaking oil and that no white metal is spotted.

C

not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty.

D

not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open.

No. 1095

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are ....

When taking over the engine room watch, you should check that the engine room supply fans ............

A

are well greased.

B

are covered by dirt screens.

C

are not overheating.

D

are running vibration and noise free.

Option is correct. Lubrication is to be checked by oil flow between the bearing and shaft, also ensure that the bearing temperature is O.K.. Check the flow of cooling water if applicable.

No. 1096

>

When taking over the engine room watch you should check that the engine room fan's intake grids or intake filters ............

A

are free of dirt or obstacles.

B

are properly bolted in place.

C

are cleaned with oil and grease remover.

D

are secured by wire mesh. Fan intakes suctions must be free of objects which may restrict the air intake flow such as dirty filters, objects caught in the wire mesh, obstacles such as cartons, boxes located in fan rooms or outside fan rooms which restrict the flow of air

No. 1097

>

A

That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.

B

The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle valves are closed.

C

That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles are closed.

D

That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off.

No. 1098

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there ?

A

B

Check the fire alarm is switched on. It may have been switched off during the day. Check if the power to the electrical machinery e.g. milling machine, lathe, drilling column, electric welding transformer etc. is isolated. Oxygen

When taking over the engine room watch, what are you to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water ?

The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer's standing orders and check for any accumulation and its source. Check accumulation source and piping and check when the bilges were last pumped .

C

Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verify whether bilges were pumped.

D

Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were last pumped.

Option is correct. The amount of water or oily water in the bilges is to be checked and where it is coming from. The Chief Engineer's standing orders are to be observed related to pumping the bilges (e.g. not allowed at

No. 1099

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?

A

The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling.

B

The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level ,the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.

C

The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer.

D

The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.

>

No. 1100

>

Option is correct

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers ?

A

That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.

B

That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.

C

The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch

D

The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks. You should verify initially that adequate fuel supply is available for your watch. In order to verify this, You must know the amount in the tanks, the purifier line-up and throughput per hour as well as the total amount of fuel

No. 1101

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in addition to the supply capacity ?

A

Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system.

B

Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off.

C

Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system.

D

The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of water is normal.

Option is correct. You are to verify the temperatures of the tanks. Settling tanks should be ideally 60 degree C, daily tanks 75 degree C. Moisture/water must drained off. This should be little, if not there is an abnormal

No. 1102

>

A

B

Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the back pressure, the bearing temperatures.

D

Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperature and the back pressure.

Option is correct. Lubrication oil purifiers should run on maximum throughput.

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on all engine room fresh water expansion tanks?

A

That the temperatures are normal and the tanks are not steaming up.

B

That the levels of the tanks are normal and if any abnormal additions during previous watches.

C

That the automatic filling or float systems are in good operational order.

D

That the chemical concentration of the water is correct.

No. 1104

>

Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check the overflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure. Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, check whether the alarm is activated.

C

No. 1103

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier ?

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the hot well of the condensate/feedwater system ?

A

Whether correct level, no excess of make-up water being supplied and that there is no steaming up.

B

Whether the cooling water supply is sufficient and that the level is satisfactory.

C

Whether the heating coil is in operation and that the automatic filling valve is working to satisfaction.

D

Whether the filters are cleaned and that the chemical concentration of the water is correct.

Option is correct. The hot well should be on level when the automatic filling valve is operating correctly. The temperature of the feed water is ideally 65 to 75 degree C. Steaming of the hot well indicates faulty steam traps or

No. 1105

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify concerning the sea cooling water supply system ?

A

The suction pressure and the discharge pressures.

B

The cooling water system line setting and the sea water pressures to the different components.

C

The cleanliness of the filters and the correct sea chests are in operation.

D

The sea water temperature and the sea water pressure. You are first to check the system line setting, which pumps are supplying which components, e.g. main sea water pumps, harbour sea water pump, general service pump(s), domestic fridge sea water pump, air-conditioning sea water

No. 1106

>

A

The soot blowers, the economiser and the boiler furnace.

B

The boiler water circulating pumps, the feedwater pumps and the feedwater temperature.

C

The boiler water level, the steam pressure and the exhaust gas change over flap position or coil percentage used.

D

The economiser and superheater temperatures and the steam pressure.

No. 1107

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the operational boilers when the exhaust gas boiler alone is providing the heat supply?

Option is correct. Steam pressure, water level and capacity of boiler are to be verified

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the oil fired boiler if this is in operation ?

A

Steam pressure, water level, flame brightness, cleanliness of the photocell glass plus fuel temperature and pressure.

B

Furnace temperature, uptake gas temperature and smoke indicator.

C

Feedwater temperature, fuel oil pressure, CO2 content of uptake gases and flame brightness.

D

Feedwater temperature, steam pressure, water level, fuel pressure and CO2 content of uptake gases.

Option is correct. If in doubt, clean photocell glass.

No. 1108

>

A

That the valves to the deck air fore and after are open.

B

That the air compressors are in a state of readiness with correct oil level in the crankcase and air bottles are drained.

C

That the branch lines to the working and instrument air are correctly opened and at the desired pressure of 7.5 kg/cm2.

D

That the non-return valves from compressors to bottles are correctly set.

No. 1109

>

Option is correct.

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the fresh water generator ?

A

The vacuum percentage and the sea water temperature.

B

The difference between sea water inlet and outlet on the condenser and the fresh water inlet and outlet on the evaporator.

C

The sea water feed supply pressure, the eductor pressure, the fresh water level in the collector and fresh water pump back pressure.

D

All of the operating parameters and the fresh water production in the last 4 hours.

No. 1110

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the main compressed air system ?

Option is correct.

During your watch you notice that the salinity of the fresh water produced by the fresh water generator has gone up together with the output. You notice too that sea water temperature has dropped. What should you do ?

A

Throttle the sea water flow to the condenser.

B

Throttle the fresh water flow to the evaporator.

C

Increase the flow to the eductors.

D

Increase the opening on the vacuum breaking valve. Option is correct. The indication is that the production has increased because of the lower sea water temperature, so the vacuum % will have increased. Open the vacuum breaker to reduce the vacuum, then production

No. 1111

>

A

B

Insufficient flow to eductors (pump pressure or eductor back pressure), leaking fresh water pump shaft seal, leak on casing or cover. Dirty condenser, fresh water pump impeller wear rings worn, vacuum breaker valve worn.

C

Dirty evaporator, feed reducing valve blocked, by-pass valve of the fresh water to evaporator leaking, vacuum breaker faulty.

D

Reflector plate corroded, feedwater supply pipe blocked, blocked or dirty tubes in evaporator or in the condenser.

No. 1112

>

What are the most common faults resulting in failure to raise adequate vacuum in a fresh water generator ?

Option is correct. Either the capacity to produce the vacuum is not there, or the capacity is there but there is a leak.

What do you think is the most common cause of poor performance of fresh water generators ?

A

Scaled/dirty heat exchangers, in particular the evaporator.

B

Underperformance of ejector and/or fresh water pump(s).

C

Worn brine or vacuum nozzles.

D

Internal corrosion of structural components of housing. Option is correct. Mechanical as well as chemical cleaning should be carried out at regular intervals.

No. 1113

>

Here is a list of activities which amongst other things you will have to perform when starting a fresh water generator. Which list is in the correct order ?

A

Supply fresh water to evaporator, start fresh water pump, start ejector pump, supply coolwater to condenser.

B

Supply coolwater to condenser, supply fresh water to evaporator, start fresh water pump, start ejector pump.

C

Start ejector pump, supply cooling water to the condenser, supply fresh water to the evaporator, start fresh water pump.

D

Start fresh water pump, start ejector pump, supply cooling water to condenser and fresh water to the evaporator.

Option is correct. The ejector pump needs to be started first in order to create a vacuum, hence the cooling water to the condenser can be opened a little. Then put heating to evaporator and when the evaporating/condensing

No. 1114

>

If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change the ..............

A

purifier ball bearings.

B

friction pad linings.

C

gravity disc.

D

O-rings and seal set of the bowl. Option is correct. Worn friction pad linings slip.

No. 1115

>

The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ..............

A

the wrong gravity disc.

B

dirt between purifier plates.

C

water seal broken.

D

ball bearings worn out. Option is correct. A broken water seal will cause the oil to overflow

No. 1116

>

When the density of purified oil has increased, you should ........

A

increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.

B

increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.

C

decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.

D

Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.

Option is correct. The temperature needs to be increased since with heavier gravity oils the viscosity is also increased and the gravity disc inside diameter needs to be decreased.

No. 1117

>

A

The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast.

B

The vibrations on the purifier will increase.

C

The purifier will make a humming noise.

D

The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the starting current.

No. 1118

A

B

>

Option is correct. The ammeter on the purifier starting box should be watched.

Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because ............. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor, various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.

C

static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing explosion within the purifier.

D

purifier bowls revolve at very high speed generating great centrifugal forces, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.

No. 1119

>

During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the required revolutions ?

Option is correct. Large centrifugal forces are created by the bowl due to its high rotating speed. Any part which will give away or becomes loose or causes unbalancing at full operational speed may cause

If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be taken ?

A

Have it repaired on board if it can be done.

B

Send it to a qualified workshop for repair.

C

Order the specific bowl spare part.

D

Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advice only. Since the bowl assembly has been adjusted for balance, repair or replacement of parts is to be avoided, even in the case of the same model and series of purifiers. If in doubt contact the makers for advice.

No. 1120

>

The starting/ accelerating current of a purifier is ............% of the normal operating current.

A

50

B

100

C

150

D

250 Option is correct. Example: normal current 10 Amp, starting / accelerating current 25 to 27 Amp (example is for Self ejector Mitsubishi model SJ25T).

No. 1121

>

The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen correctly. In general the more frequent the interval the better. Howeve too short intervals are inefficient and too long intervals...........

A

will also give bad efficiency.

B

may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.

C

will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.

D

may result in water seal depletion. Option is correct. Adhesion of sludge will occur after prolonged time in the bowl parts and the sticking sludge will be difficult to remove.

No. 1122

>

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil purifiers should be ................ hours.

A

1 to 2

B

2 to 3

C

4 to 5

D

6 to 8 Option is correct.

No. 1123

>

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be ............... hours.

A

1 to 2

B

2 to 4

C

4 to 6

D

6 to 8 Option is correct

No. 1124

>

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be .............. hours.

A

2 to 3

B

1 to 2

C

4 to 6

D

6 to 8 Option is correct

No. 1125

>

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be ................... hours.

A

1 to 2

B

2 to 4

C

4 to 6

D

6 to 8 Option is correct. Little dirt enters a separated crankcase of a crosshead type engine

No. 1126

>

A

the bowl speed, the oil temperature and throughput.

B

the specific gravity of the oil and the oil temperature.

C

the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.

D

the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

No. 1127

>

Option is correct

Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The clarifying operation is referred to as ...........

A

the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil).

B

the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids, as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids.

C

The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil.

D

The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.

No. 1128

>

The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier are ................................

Option C is correct. The clarifier mode of operation uses light liquids only. (no water) Solids are separated from the oils.

The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers to .........

A

two identical machines being put separately from settling tank to daily tank at half the feed rate through each purifier.

B

two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to second purifier, at half the throughput each purifier.

C

two identical purifiers being used for heavy fuel oil as well as for diesel oil, by changing line system and gravity discs.

D

two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the second in line as clarifier with same throughput.

Option is correct. In series operation the first machine work as a purifier (liquid-liquid-solid operation) and the purified liquid (light liquid) flows to the second machine operating as clarifier (liquid-solid operation).

No. 1129

>

A

that the gravity disc inside diameter is too big, or that the oil temperature has dropped, increasing the density of the oil.

B

that the revolution of the bowl has slowed and the electric motor is in overload.

C

that the amount of closing water for the bowl is insufficient.

D

that the operating water for the bowl has been turned off or the containing tank is empty.

No. 1130

>

Option A is correct. The separation between light and heavy liquid is not properly affected and overflow occurs on the gravity disc. (gravity disc not matching density)

If the oil flows from the sludge outlet on an oil purifier, the most likely reason for this is ...........

A

that the relief valve of the gear-type supply pump is working.

B

that air is being sucked into the suction piping of the lub oil pump.

C

that defects have developed in the vertical shaft parts or otherwise that the rubber plate has hardened.

D

that the bowl has not been closed correctly, there is a fault in main seal ring, pilot valve or water supply for closing the bowl.

No. 1131

>

If the oil flows out on the heavy liquid (water) side of a purifier, the most likely reason is .........

Option D is correct. The bowl is definitely not closed for any one of the reasons given.

When water is found mixed in the light liquid (oil) outlet of an oil purifier, the most likely reason is ..............

A

excessive supply of sealing water, feed rate too high and water outlet of oil clogged.

B

defects in the horizontal shaft parts.

C

water in the gear case.

D

that the relief valve of the oil supply attached pump has been set too high, causing overload.

Option is correct. Too much water is entering and the water cannot get out freely.

No. 1132

>

A

insufficient delivery from the gear pump, the pump's relief valve is passing, a leaking suction pipe or blocked suction filter.

B

that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or the heater is blocked.

C

that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing tank is empty or shut-off.

D

that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is operating in overload.

No. 1133

>

Option A is correct. The purifier is not supplied by its feed pump for one of the reasons mentioned.

If the electric motor on an oil purifier is overloaded or has tripped, the most likely reason is ...............

A

that the rubber plate has hardened causing excessive supply of sealing water.

B

that there are defects in the driving system, clutch, gears or bearings.

C

that the discharge pressure on the light liquid outlet is set too high, or the oil temperature has dropped.

D

that the amount of sealing water is insufficient or the sealing water timer is wrongly adjustment.

No. 1134

>

If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the most likely reason for this is .............

The driving system is overloaded, either by a faulty clutch or bearings or the oil pump driving power absorbed is too great due to low viscosity and non-operation of the relief valve (shear pins may eventually break)

When abnormal vibrations or sounds are noticed from an oil purifier, the most likely cause is ..................

A

that the oil seal for the horizontal shaft is worn or damaged.

B

that the bowl has failed causing contact with non-rotating parts or defects in horizontal or vertical shaft parts have occurred.

C

that the gravity disc is the wrong size and/or oil inlet temperature is too low.

D

that the water outlet of the bowl is blocked causing imbalance in the purifier bowl.

Option is correct. The defect is in the bowl or the driving shaft.

No. 1135

>

When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or that the level of oil has dropped. The most likely reason is ................

A

that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in overload.

B

that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal shaft.

C

that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken.

D

the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring. Option is correct. The oil seal of the horizontal shaft is sealing off the crankcase and this seal must be defective for either water to enter or oil to escape.

No. 1136

>

If during your engine room watch you hear the boiler water level alarm sound and you notice low water level, but the feedwater pressure is normal, what should you do first ?

A

Shut the boiler main steam stop valve.

B

Shut-off the steam heating to the tank consumers.

C

Open the by-pass feedwater check valves.

D

Start another feedwater pump. If the feed water pressure is normal, the amount of feed water should cope with the boiler steam take off. Trouble is most likely in the feed water control and you should open the by-pass check valves for the direct feed.

No. 1137

>

If during your engine room watch the steam supply or steam pressure should fall for some reason, what should you check first ?

A

The fuel oil and lub oil purifiers.

B

The boiler water level.

C

The hotwell level.

D

The viscosity of the heavy fuel oil to consumers. Option D is correct. The viscosity of the heavy fuel used is to be watched closely and if the steam pressure drops further a change over to diesel oil is required.

No. 1138

>

If during your engine room watch, without any previous warning or alarm, the oil fired boiler trips due to "flame failure", what should you check first ?

A

The cleanliness of the photocell.

B

The fuel oil temperature.

C

The fuel oil pressure.

D

The boiler water level. Option A is correct, the photocell may have become dirty.

No. 1139

>

The reason for an oil fired boiler uptake emitting dark smoke could be .............

A

a faulty or dirty boiler nozzle tip or boiler fuel rotating cup.

B

the fuel / air ratio adjustment incorrect.

C

a restriction in the free air supply to the boiler fans, perhaps the engine room vent fans are not running.

D

Any of these. Option is correct

No. 1140

>

Before starting soot blowing operations on boilers, you should ensure that ............

A

the safety valves are set correctly.

B

the boiler water level is at maximum.

C

the bridge is informed.

D

the boiler is manually fired. Option is correct.

No. 1141

>

Boiler water chemical additives should be supplied to the boiler via .............

A

the hotwell.

B

the hotwell through the chemical dosing pump.

C

the boiler circulating water inlet through the chemical dosing pump.

D

the chemical dosing line. Option is correct. The chemical quantity to be supplied is mixed in the dosing pump suction / mixing tank and dosed over 24 hours into the boiler.

No. 1142

>

Why is it dangerous to add chemicals directly into the hotwell ?

A

Danger from splashes on the eyes and skin.

B

It creates "hot spots" of chemical concentration in the feedwater which can cause structural harm.

C

The vapours developed are dangerous when inhaled.

D

The chemical concentration causes harm to the feedpumps. Option is correct. The sudden concentration of chemicals fed into the boiler will attack the boiler.

No. 1143

>

The main danger of feeding cold feedwater into a boiler is ..............

A

that it causes dangerous steam pressure drops.

B

that it causes stress in the vicinity of the inlet piping as well as corrosion.

C

that it can cause implosions.

D

that it causes oxygen depletion in the feedwater filling line.

No. 1144

The use of boiler economisers ................

A

increases the boiler evaporating surface.

B

increases the overall boiler thermal efficiency.

C

decreases the steam consumption.

D

All of these options.

>

Option is correct, this since heat is further extracted.

No. 1145

>

Before swinging-out a boiler burner for maintenance or cleaning, you are to ensure that ...............................

A

the electrical power is switched off.

B

the fuel is isolated.

C

the boiler furnace is well ventilated or blown through.

D

All of these options. Option is correct. Power and fuel need to be isolated, but ensure that prior to opening, the boiler is well ventilated and preferably cooled down.

No. 1146

>

Before raising steam in a boiler, you should ensure that ............

A

the feedwater check valves are open.

B

the boiler water circulation valves are open.

C

the steam main stop valve is open.

D

the air vent cock is open. The air vent cock should be in the open position in order to vent the air out of the boiler (air cushion will be replaced with water vapour). Option is correct.

No. 1147

>

If there is a very sudden and large increase in steam consumption, how will the boiler water level behave ?

A

It will drop drastically.

B

It will increase drastically.

C

It will at first drop suddenly, then increase drastically.

D

It will at first rise suddenly, then drop drastically. Option D is correct. It will at first rise suddenly due to the sudden steam take off. The corresponding pressure drop will cause the water to boil under the surface and the rising steam balls take space and increase the water level,

No. 1148

>

A

Main sea water pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, lub oil pump, injector CW pump.

B

Jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, lub oil pump, main sea water pump.

C

Main lub oil pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, main sea water pump.

D

Injector CW pump, main sea water pump, jacket and piston CW pump.

No. 1149

>

After a total black-out with an automatic power supply system, what is the correct sequence for restarting the essential pumps once the power is restored ?

Option is correct. Reason is that the main sea water pump is the heaviest consumer and will be put on load when the activated stand-by diesel has little load to deliver (heaviest consumers first), to avoid tripping of the

Water whith a pH value of 7 is referred to as .................

A

alkaline.

B

neutral.

C

acid.

D

basic. Option is correct, pH 7 is water neutral.

No. 1150

>

A

Potassium and Iron.

B

Magnesium and Calcium.

C

Sodium and Aluminium.

D

Sulphur and Vanadium.

No. 1151

>

All the ferrous components of a ship will sustain strong corrosive action in the presence of ...........

A

acid waters.

B

alkaline waters.

C

steam.

D

turbulent water.

No. 1152

>

Hardness in feed water is mainly attributed to salts of these metals ...........

The reason why two-stage starting air compressors are used in preference to single stage compression is that .....

A

the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high.

B

the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high.

C

the starting current of a single stage compressor would be too high.

D

the friction in a single stage compressor would be too high. Option is correct. Under polytopic compression the compressed air temperature would be too high with single stage compression. Therefore two-stage compression with a lower compression rate is preferred with intercooling

No. 1153

>

A

From the water space.

B

From the steam space.

C

Lowest part of the boiler drum.

D

From the drain cock.

No. 1154

>

After boiler inspections and surveys, what is the final test carried out by the surveyor in order to accredit the safety valves and boiler mountings ?

A

Check the valves for corrosion.

B

Check the valve spindles for cracks.

C

Check safety valve blow-off pressure with boiler under steam.

D

Check the condition of valves and valve seats.

No. 1155

>

From where should a boiler water sample be taken for testing ?

On resuming normal purification after automatic de-sludging you frequently experience a high temperature alarm. What will you do to avoid reoccurrence ?

A

Increase capacity through the purifier.

B

Lower the set point of the oil temperature.

C

Fit or adjust (increase) time delay on the high temperature alarm.

D

Decrease capacity through the purifier.

No. 1156

>

A

Stop any chemical treatment.

B

Dose the coagulant.

C

Skim and blow down the boiler.

D

Dose the coagulant, skim and blow down the boiler.

No. 1157

>

When an overhaul of a compressor is completed and the compressor is to be started for a test run, it is important to ...........

A

check the direction of rotation.

B

check that an open discharge line exists through to the receiver.

C

check that all air receiver outlets are closed during the test run.

D

check the maximum pressure of the capacity on run-up.

No. 1158

>

If oil is found in the auxiliary boiler water, what action would you take other than isolating the leak ?

How do you test the probes for the 15 ppm monitor ?

A

By immersing in oil.

B

By checking in air and immersing in water.

C

It is only necessary to clean them.

D

They have to be changed, onboard testing is not possible.

No. 1159

>

A

Try to increase the flow.

B

Try to decrease the flow.

C

Check the vibration alarm.

D

Stop the purifier immediately.

No. 1160

>

Why is it important to follow a maintenance schedule for purifiers ?

A

To improve the purifier's efficiency.

B

To prevent serious damage to main components.

C

The only maintenance necessary is cleaning of the bowl.

D

To comply with company regulations.

No. 1161

>

What should you do if a purifier starts to vibrate badly?

What will you do if the plate exchanger leaks when returned to service after cleaning?

A

Tighten more.

B

Close the valves.

C

Dismantle the exchanger, check or renew packings.

D

Reduce pressure.

No. 1162

>

A

Lower the sump oil level.

B

Check the clearance in the bearing.

C

Block off the valve.

D

Overhaul the compressor unit.

No. 1163

>

A leak from the gland of a centrifugal pump is found to be excessive. The correct procedure is to ...............

A

fit over size packing to the stuffing box.

B

tighten the gland as much as possible until the leakage stops.

C

regularly pump out the bilge well to which it is draining.

D

re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packing at the earliest opportunity.

No. 1164

>

On the air compressor crankcase there is a small valve that lets off pressure. What should be done if oil is present with the air?

At what interval should boiler water testing take place ?

A

Every eight hours.

B

Every fortnight.

C

Every day.

D

Every week.

No. 1165

>

A

Fully slacken and remove top ones first, then the middle and then the bottom ones.

B

Fully slacken and remove the middle bolts first, then the top and then the bottom ones.

C

One by one, clockwise.

D

One by one, anti-clockwise.

No. 1166

>

The plate heat exchanger is separated for cleaning, what should you do if the plates are thick with scale or other organic material ?

A

Change the plates.

B

Put the plates in water with cleaning chemicals. Use soft a brush or high pressure cleaner with care.

C

Use a high pressure cleaner with abrasives.

D

Use a wire-brush or metal scraper to clean the plates.

No. 1167

>

When opening a plate cooler for cleaning, how should the bolts be removed ?

For a low pressure boiler, testing shows the water chloride level to be 1000 PPM. What action would you take ?

A

No action needed.

B

Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage.

C

Increase chemical dosage.

D

Decrease chemical dosage.

No. 1168

>

A

The main pressure relief valves lift.

B

The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock.

C

The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators.

D

The telemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulic pressure.

No. 1169

>

If the gauge glass indicates no water level in the boiler what should be your first action?

A

Check the operation of the feed pump.

B

Check the feed tank water level.

C

Shut off all the burners.

D

Blow down the gauge glass.

No. 1170

>

What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea?

When starting an air compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed?

A

So the pumping action can blow the drains through.

B

To avoid the safety valves blowing.

C

To avoid air blowing in the bilges.

D

To prevent the compressor from tripping.

No. 1171

>

A

Flashpoint.

B

Specific Gravity.

C

Viscosity.

D

Ash content.

No. 1172

>

In a provison room refrigeration system what would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?

A

Failure of the expansion valve.

B

Ice formation on the evaporator coils.

C

Overcooling of the evaporator return.

D

Inadequate condenser cooling.

No. 1173

>

Which fuel quality is measured in seconds Redwood?

How is the quality of the distilled water from a fresh water generator improved?

A

Increasing the shell vacuum.

B

Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator.

C

Slowing down the output of the evaporator.

D

Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator.

No. 1174

>

What would be fitted to relieve excess refrigeration compressor pressure?

A

Pressure relief valve to atmosphere.

B

Pressure relief valve to suction line.

C

Bursting disc to compressor suction.

D

Bursting disc to condenser inlet.

No. 1175

How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

A

Welded

B

Expanded

C

Screwed

D

Screwed collar on the outside of the plate

No. 1176

What purpose is the fuel oil settling tank?

>

>

A

To settle out water.

B

To settle out sludge.

C

To settle out suspended solids.

D

To settle out all impurities.

No. 1177

>

A

Damage to furnace refractory.

B

Excess soot deposits on cold tube surfaces.

C

Distortion of the shell due temperature differential.

D

Leaking tubes where expanded into the shell.

No. 1178

>

What action would you take if the boiler water Chloride readings are too high?

A

Add more chemical to the feed water.

B

Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable.

C

Drain and refill the feed water tank.

D

Increase frequency of testing.

No. 1179

>

What damage could be caused to the boiler by raising steam too quickly?

What is the desired salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water onboard?

A

Below 20ppm.

B

Below 50ppm.

C

Below 10ppm.

D

Below 5ppm.

No. 1180

>

A

Expansion during which heat must be added.

B

Expansion at constant temperature.

C

Expansion during which heat is lost.

D

Expansion at constant pressure.

No. 1181

>

Which of the following is the most likely cause of a restriction at the expansion valve?

A

Oil being carried over with the refrigerant..

B

Blockage in the filter/drier unit.

C

Moisture in the system.

D

Insufficient gas charge.

No. 1182

>

What is meant by 'Isothermal' expansion?

Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

A

Freon 12.

B

Freon 22.

C

Ammonia.

D

Carbon Dioxide.

No. 1183

>

A

Leakage through the rivets.

B

Rusting of the rivet heads.

C

Raising steam too quickly.

D

Chloride levels too high.

No. 1184

>

What action should you take in the case of an boiler uptake fire?

A

Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire.

B

Increase air supply to burn fire out.

C

Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply.

D

Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire.

No. 1185

>

What of the following is the most damaging to riveted mountings?

How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

A

Steam supply pressure reduced.

B

Steam inlet valve throttled.

C

Oil flow increased.

D

Steam outlet valve throttled.

No. 1186

What is the usual pressure adjustment method on boiler safety valves?

A

Set bolt and locknut.

B

Removable shim packs.

C

Different rate springs.

D

Set spring pressure with machineable adjustment rings.

No. 1187

What is the function of a Viscotherm in the fuel system?

>

>

A

To control the fuel temperature.

B

To regulate the fuel pressure.

C

To control viscosity by altering temperature.

D

Controlling fuel pressure and temperature.

No. 1188

>

What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached?

A

The steering wheel transmitter.

B

The rudder control receiver unit.

C

The hunting gear feedback signal.

D

The rudder telemotor control.

No. 1189

>

A

Renewing of the electrodes.

B

Overhauling of the shut-off valves.

C

Cleaning of the burner tips.

D

Cleaning and resetting of the air register.

No. 1190

>

What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator?

A

Ejector water.

B

Brine.

C

Fresh water.

D

Sea water.

No. 1191

>

What regular maintenance is required on the boiler burner?

What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors?

A

High pressure, low volume.

B

High pressure, high volume.

C

Low pressure, low volume.

D

Low pressure, high volume.

No. 1192

>

A

Start up the water feed pump.

B

Purge furnace with air.

C

Clean the burner nozzle.

D

Lower the oil pressure.

No. 1193

>

What percentage CO2 in the uptake is present in good combustion?

A

10%

B

12%

C

15%

D

25%

No. 1194

>

What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery pressure?

A

7bar.

B

3bar.

C

10bar.

D

15bar.

No. 1195

>

A

5%

B

12%

C

7%

D

20%

No. 1196

>

What does the sight glass indicate in a refrigerator system?

A

Operation of the expansion valve.

B

Condition of the filter drier unit.

C

Adequate refrigerant charge.

D

Efficiency of the condenser.

No. 1197

>

What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion?

What compressed air supply valve must always remain open?

A

Air to ship's whistle.

B

Air to deck services.

C

Air to starting air lines.

D

Air to workshop service.

No. 1198

>

A

Removal of scum from the feed tank water.

B

Removal of scum from the drains observation tank.

C

Removal of scum from the boiler water surface.

D

Draining the boiler water to the bilge.

No. 1199

>

What best describes the boiler "easing gear"?

A

Remote operation of stop valves.

B

Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves.

C

Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves.

D

Feed control unit.

No. 1200

>

What is the purpose of the scum valves on the auxiliary boiler?

In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls replace?

A

The hunting gear.

B

Hydraulic control valves.

C

Hydraulic telemotor system.

D

Rudder feedback signal.

No. 1201

>

A

1.05

B

1.1

C

1.25

D

1.5

No. 1202

>

What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum?

A

Inspection holes.

B

Drum access holes.

C

Manholes.

D

Furnace inspection panels.

No. 1203

>

What is the correct S. G. for brine used as a secondary refrigerant?

What is the primary purpose of drain valves fitted on all air bottles?

A

To blow the bottles empty if required.

B

To remove dirt from the bottle.

C

To remove water condensate from the bottle.

D

To remove excessive oil from the bottle.

No. 1204

What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes to heat exchanger sea water spaces?

A

PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal.

B

Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate.

C

Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode.

D

Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and Cooler body.

>

No. 1205

>

A

Flame failure.

B

Fuel delivery pump cutting out.

C

Flame impingement and refractory damage.

D

Blocking of fuel filters.

No. 1206

>

What is the effect if the boiler fuel oil temperature is too low?

What boiler mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey?

A

Safety valves.

B

Gauge glass & valve components.

C

Feed water check valves.

D

All boiler mountings.

No. 1207

>

A

Water level too high.

B

Chloride readings too high.

C

Steam pressure too high.

D

PH reading below 7ppm.

No. 1208

>

What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator when it is to be used in water tube medium pressure boilers?

A

20ppm.

B

15ppm.

C

7ppm.

D

2ppm.

No. 1209

>

What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler?

What is the normal maximum starting air pressure?

A

50bar.

B

40bar.

C

30bar.

D

20bar.

No. 1210

>

A

Sulphates.

B

Excess oxygen.

C

Phosphates.

D

Nitrates.

No. 1211

>

Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

A

For extra strength.

B

To facilitate gas flow.

C

To give a greater heating area.

D

To reduce scale formation.

No. 1212

>

A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for............

How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator?

A

By the condensing effect in the condenser.

B

By pumping or ejecting out the brine.

C

By the vapour ejector driven by the ejector pump.

D

By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.

No. 1213

>

A

The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve.

B

On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection.

C

On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link.

D

On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves.

No. 1214

>

What is the purpose of the automatic unloading valve when fitted to the air start compressor?

A

Prevent the pressure relief valves from lifting.

B

Prevent damage to the valves when starting.

C

Avoid the first stage relief valves lifting when starting.

D

Avoid high starting current on the motor.

No. 1215

>

Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given?

What equipment Operates on a Rankine Cycle?

A

Diesel engine.

B

Petrol engine.

C

Gas turbine.

D

Steam power plant.

No. 1216

>

A

Between condenser and expansion valve.

B

Between expansion valve and evaporator.

C

On the compressor discharge line.

D

At the evaporator inlet.

No. 1217

>

In the formula P.L.A.N. what is 'N' for a 4 stroke diesel engine?

A

RPM.

B

RPM/120.

C

RPM/30.

D

RPM/60.

No. 1218

>

Where is the filter/drier unit fitted in the refirgerant line?

What is a telemotor system?

A

Hydraulic actuation of steering rams.

B

Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear.

C

Hand actuation of steering gear.

D

Steering gear feedback system.

No. 1219

>

A

Main steering motor control voltage.

B

Hydraulic operating pressure.

C

Speed of rudder movement.

D

Hydraulic pump delivery.

No. 1220

>

What is the most dangerous effect on the boiler burner of water in the fuel?

A

Poor combustion.

B

Extinguishing of burner flame.

C

Damage to furnace refractory.

D

Loss of boiler efficiency.

No. 1221

>

What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

Where on the main starting air receiver would a fusible plug be fitted?

A

On the underside.

B

Adjacent to the filling valve.

C

Next to the relief valves.

D

On the manhole door.

No. 1222

>

A

It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open.

B

It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed.

C

It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open.

D

It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed.

No. 1223

>

What is the function of the relief valves fitted between main hydraulic cylinders?

A

To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.

B

To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped.

C

To be opened to allow emergency steering.

D

To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage.

No. 1224

>

On what part of the air compressor does the unloader act and in what way?

What is always fitted in instrument air supply lines?

A

An oil separator.

B

An automatic drain valve.

C

A moisture separator.

D

A drain valve.

No. 1225

>

A

Prior to leaving port.

B

When you are warned by the bridge of bad weather.

C

After completion of every job.

D

At all times.

No. 1226

>

What would be a normal operating pressure of an auxiliary boiler?

A

6 - 9bar.

B

Below 5bar.

C

15 - 20bar.

D

Above 20bar.

No. 1227

>

When should you make sure that loose gear in machinery space is properly secured?

What is the most important purpose of the auxiliary boiler on a modern diesel engine vessel?

A

Domestic water heating.

B

Accommodation heating.

C

Heating of heavy fuel oil.

D

Fresh water generation.

No. 1228

>

A

To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser.

B

To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

C

To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

D

To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator.

No. 1229

>

What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater?

A

Deformation of tubes.

B

Eroding of tube ends.

C

Corrosion of tubeplates.

D

Carbon formation on tubes.

No. 1230

>

What is the function of the expansion valve in the refrigeration circuit?

In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take?

A

Honeycombed radiator.

B

Vertical flattened pipes.

C

Finned circular pipes.

D

Horizontal box section pipes.

No. 1231

>

A

To expel air when raising steam.

B

To expel air when filling the boiler.

C

To vent the boiler when shut down.

D

To check when steam is being produced.

No. 1232

>

In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering motor?

A

Hydraulic power pack.

B

Electrical supply from a local motor/generator.

C

Mains electrical supply.

D

Hydraulic power delivered by the main steering motors.

No. 1233

>

What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell?

What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination in the boiler feed water?

A

Feed water tank.

B

Fuel heater.

C

Drains cooler.

D

Accommodation heating.

No. 1234

>

A

45 seconds.

B

2 minutes.

C

3 minutes.

D

5 minutes.

No. 1235

>

How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded?

A

By holding open the discharge valves.

B

By throttling the suction valves.

C

By holding open the suction valves.

D

By throttling the suction valves.

No. 1236

>

In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected for the steering system within what time?

In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the rudder?

A

With the vessel stationary.

B

With vessel moving astern.

C

Vessel full ahead at service speed.

D

With vessel moving slowly ahead.

No. 1237

>

A

Dissolved oxygen.

B

Dissolved nitrogen.

C

Chloride content.

D

Sulphite content.

No. 1238

>

What is the state of refrigerant leaving the evaporator?

A

Low-pressure liquid.

B

High pressure gas/liquid mixture.

C

Gas at high pressure.

D

Gas at low pressure.

No. 1239

>

What daily test should be carried out on boiler water?

What does the term volumetric efficiency refer to?

A

Mechanical efficiency.

B

Pumping efficiency.

C

Thermal efficiency.

D

Overall efficiency.

No. 1240

>

A

To cool the vapour.

B

To prevent carry over of brine.

C

To maintain the vacuum inside the shell.

D

To maintain the evaporator temperature.

No. 1241

>

What is the most dangerous effect of scale build up in the boiler water space?

A

Loss of boiler efficiency.

B

Overheating and deformation of furnace.

C

Damage to feed water valves.

D

Flame impingement on the furnace walls.

No. 1242

>

On the fresh water generator why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser?

Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines?

A

It may carbon up and choke the lines.

B

The high oxygen content makes it very explosive.

C

It may cause sticking of the air start valves.

D

It could affect the operation of the relief valves.

No. 1243

>

A

High pressure gate valves.

B

High pressure butterfly valves.

C

High pressure remote-control valves.

D

High pressure S.D. check valves.

No. 1244

>

What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler?

A

Feed pump cutting out.

B

Carry-over of the boiler water.

C

Insufficient steam generation.

D

Boiler shutting down.

No. 1245

>

What type of filling valve is fitted on all air bottles?

What does wheel movement control in an entirely electric steering system?

A

Hydraulic transmitter.

B

Current supplied directly to the electric steering motor.

C

The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor rheostats. .

D

Current to the steering gear motor/generator.

No. 1246

>

A

Main hydraulic system header tank.

B

Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage.

C

Reservoir for the telemotor system.

D

Header tank for the auto pilot control system.

No. 1247

>

What provides power to the hydraulic emergency steering system.

A

Battery power to the entire steering system.

B

Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps.

C

Manual operation of main pumps.

D

Accumulators in the hydraulic system.

No. 1248

>

What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal?

Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically?

A

Graduated stepper motors.

B

Ward Leonard System.

C

AC-DC rectification.

D

Compass repeater motors.

No. 1249

>

A

Solids in the water from sea water contamination.

B

Phosphate present in the water.

C

Total dissolved solids present in the water.

D

Alkalinity level.

No. 1250

>

What is the main advantage of vacuum production of fresh water in the fresh water generator?

A

Less possibility of contamination.

B

Low cost of distillation equipment.

C

Simpler to operate.

D

Utilizes waste heat from the main engine.

No. 1251

>

When testing boiler water for chlorides, what does the test indicate?

How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines?

A

Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam.

B

Open line valves as quickly as possible.

C

Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly.

D

Leave main stops and line valves open when shutting down the boiler.

No. 1252

In a hydraulic telemotor steering system movement of the wheel.........

A

transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves.

B

controls the main hydraulic pumps.

C

controls movement of the transmitter electric motor.

D

controls movement of the transmitter pistons.

>

No. 1253

>

A

Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps.

B

Telemotor is vane type operation.

C

Rudder movement is via vanes mounted onto rudderstock.

D

Steering is via rotating propulsion unit.

No. 1254

>

What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

When commencing operation of the fresh water generator, what must you ensure before starting the distillate pump?

A

Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser.

B

The discharge valve of the pump is shut.

C

The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum.

D

The pump is primed via the priming line.

No. 1255

>

A

Out of balance.

B

Bowl incorrectly assembled.

C

Motor running too slow.

D

Drive clutch slipping.

No. 1256

>

Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape?

A

Increased water capacity.

B

Better accommodates the furnace.

C

Stronger than flat plates.

D

Easier access to manhole doors.

No. 1257

>

If purifier does not attain full speed what could be the likely cause?

What is the plate material used in sea- water, plate heat exchangers?

A

Stainless steel.

B

Cupro Nickel.

C

Titanium.

D

Bronze.

No. 1258

>

A

Starting air compressor.

B

Emergency air compressor.

C

Diesel engine charge air compressor.

D

Control air compressor.

No. 1259

>

How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to produce drinking water?

A

20 miles.

B

5 miles.

C

30 miles.

D

12 miles.

No. 1260

>

Which of the following is a rotary compressor?

What maintenance is required for an 'Auto-Kleen' knife type filter?

A

Remove element and hand clean.

B

Periodically remove sludge from the filter base.

C

Remove element and renew.

D

Back flush the filter.

No. 1261

>

A

Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.

B

Executing of orders from the bridge.

C

Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.

D

Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.

No. 1262

>

What is the state of the refrigerant at the condenser outlet?

A

High-pressure gas.

B

High pressure liquid.

C

Low pressure liquid.

D

Gas/liquid mixture at evaporator pressure.

No. 1263

>

What is the most important aspect of communication with the Bridge?

What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors?

A

High air pressure.

B

Low first stage pressure.

C

Over speed.

D

High delivery temperature.

No. 1264

>

A

Ease of handling.

B

Ease of stowage.

C

Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums.

D

Only small quantities are required.

No. 1265

>

Why is it necessary to produce fresh water from seawater?

A

To save cost.

B

To ensure purity.

C

Limited shipboard storage.

D

To make use of waste engine heat.

No. 1266

>

Why should refrigerator compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums?

What factors influence the vacuum inside the shell of a fresh water generator?

A

The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator.

B

The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser.

C

The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector.

D

All of the given options.

No. 1267

>

A

Feed water tank level.

B

Steam demand.

C

Water level controll of feed pump delivery.

D

Water level control of feed water inlet valve.

No. 1268

>

In a refrigeration system what effect has the solenoid stop valve?

A

Electrically shuts down the compressor.

B

Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line.

C

Operates the stop valve on the compressor discharge line.

D

Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator.

No. 1269

>

What controls the boiler feed water delivery?

When used as secondary refrigerant what determines the brine S.G. required?

A

Amount of brine in circulation.

B

Carrying temperature of the cargo.

C

Type of primary refrigerant in use.

D

Capacity of refrigerant compressors. .

No. 1270

>

A

Flame impingement.

B

Furnace distortion.

C

Combustion air imbalance.

D

Unequal firing.

No. 1271

>

If fuel is dripping from the water outlet of the purifier what could be the cause?

A

Delivery pump not functioning correctly.

B

Discharge pump not functioning correctly.

C

Purifier needs cleaning.

D

Gravity ring is of the wrong size for the fuel being purified.

No. 1272

>

What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the boiler furnace?

Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor.

A

Compressor on load followed by drain valve closing.

B

Drain valve closes before compressor starts delivering.

C

Drain valve only operates on shutdown.

D

Drain closing and compressor starts delivering together.

No. 1273

>

A

Plate or disc valves.

B

Poppet valves.

C

Slide valves.

D

Piston controlled ports.

No. 1274

>

Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers?

A

To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and valves.

B

To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates.

C

To afford corrosion protection to the sea water side of the heat exchanger.

D

To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces.

No. 1275

>

What type of valves are normally found in air compressors?

What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers?

A

Main feed water check valves.

B

Boiler blow down valves.

C

Safety valve easing gear.

D

Water level indicators.

No. 1276

>

A

No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock.

B

Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked.

C

Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water.

D

Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced.

No. 1277

>

What would your first action be if the boiler feed pump stopped?

A

Shut down the boiler burners.

B

Change over to the auxiliary feed pump.

C

Check the gauge glass readings.

D

Shut the main stop valves.

No. 1278

>

Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes, how?

Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level?

A

Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal.

B

Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal.

C

To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube.

D

To avoid sea water entering the stern tube.

No. 1279

>

A

High grade Molybdenum steel.

B

High tensile steel.

C

Good quality low carbon steel

D

High carbon steel.

No. 1280

>

.

When would both steering gear motors be run together?

A

When manoeuvring in confined areas.

B

When at anchor in a confined anchorage.

C

When on passage to minimise wear.

D

In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity.

No. 1281

>

What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

What is the function of the boiler Low Level alarm?

A

Increase the feed water supply.

B

Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner.

C

Sound low level alarm.

D

Reduce the oil supply to the boiler burner.

No. 1282

>

A

Mercury.

B

Alcohol.

C

Inert gas.

D

Pentane.

No. 1283

>

What is the purpose of hunting gear when referring to a hydraulic steering system?

A

To transmit hydraulic pressure.

B

To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement.

C

Provides feedback to the pump control.

D

Limits the speed of the rudder movement.

No. 1284

>

What liquid is used in thermometers for extremely low temperatures?

Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest?

A

At the expansion valve.

B

At the compressor discharge.

C

At the condenser outlet.

D

At the compressor suction.

No. 1285

>

A

Easier to clean.

B

Cheaper to install.

C

More efficient and take up less space.

D

Require less maintenance.

No. 1286

>

Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

A

No, this should never be carried out.

B

Only in an extreme emergency.

C

Yes but steam pressure should be maintained.

D

Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass.

No. 1287

>

What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers?

Suppose the delivery air pressure of a compressor is 30.0bar. Which service could this compressor be supplying?

A

A service air compressor.

B

An instrument air compressor.

C

A working air compressor.

D

A starting air compressor.

No. 1288

>

A

The condenser.

B

The turbine.

C

The boiler.

D

The economiser.

No. 1289

>

Which of the following would indicate the steam trap in the drawing was operating correctly?

A

Inlet warm and drain hot.

B

Inlet and drain hot are both hot.

C

Inlet and drain are both cold.

D

Inlet hot and drain warm.

No. 1290

>

In steam power plant what supplies the energy input?

Swirlyflo tubes would be used in which application?

A

Waste heat economiser tubes.

B

Auxiliary boiler smoke tubes.

C

Heat exchanger tubes.

D

Refrigerant condenser tubes.

No. 1291

>

A

From B to A.

B

From A to B.

C

In either direction.

D

From A to C.

No. 1292

>

What is part number 4 ?

A

A cover securing screw.

B

A pressure adjuster.

C

A vent screw.

D

A drain screw.

No. 1293

>

Which way will fluid pass through this valve ?

What is part number 5 ?

A

The pump shaft.

B

The motor shaft.

C

The pressure outlet

D

An air seal.

same picture above

No. 1294

>

A

A pressure adjusting scew.

B

A drain plug.

C

An inspection plug.

D

A sacrificial anode.

No. 1295

>

What part number is the pump shaft ?

A

Number 2.

B

Number 1.

C

Number 5.

D

Number 4.

No. 1296

>

What is part number 6 ?

What is part number 1 ?

A

The fresh water pump.

B

The fresh water generator.

C

The salt water generator.

D

The thermostat pump.

same picture above

No. 1297

>

A

The purifier.

B

The primary pump

C

The clarifier.

D

The suction filter.

No. 1298

>

What is part number 3?

What type of pump is the pump "P" ?

A

A centrifugal pump.

B

A piston pump.

C

A gear or worm wheel pump.

D

A vane pump. Since this system is a lubricating oil system is it obvious that for this medium a gear or worm wheel pump is used.

No. 1299

>

What do you call the tanks in which heavy fuel oil is stored on board ?

A

Heavy fuel oil tanks.

B

Heavy fuel oil daily tanks.

C

Heavy fuel oil settling tanks.

D

Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks. Fuel is STORED in BUNKER tanks. Daily tanks, settling tanks and bunker tanks are all Fuel Oil tanks.

No. 1300

>

What do you call the gate valves "MP", "MS", "AP", "AS" located on deck ?

A

Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves.

B

Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.

C

Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves.

D

Heavy fuel oil tank valves.

Fuel1.BMP

These are the bunker valves on the manifolds midships portside and starboard and after portside and starboard.

No. 1301

>

How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?

A

Via suction valve "S", the transfer pump, to discharge valve "D".

B

Via main bunker valve "B.V." to transfer pump "Tp".

C

Via own pumps "P1" and "P2", the main bunker valve "BV" to valve "D".

D

Via own pumps "P1" and "P2" to transfer pump "Tp". The deep tank has its own transfer pumps P1 and P2 with separate suction valves for each pump. Bunker manifold valves are to be in the closed position and Main Bunker Valve BV is to be opened. Fuel discharge valve D is to be

No. 1302

>

What is the name and function of the gate valve "BV" ?

A

Main bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from Engine Room.

B

Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold.

C

Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank.

D

Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks.

Same picture above

The Main Bunker valve separates the bunker manifolds from the Engine Room suction and discharge manifolds.

No. 1303

>

How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external temperature drops below it's pour point ?

A

By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank.

B

By circulating it with the transfer pump.

C

By heating the oil with steam via steam coils or steam banks.

D

By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered. The bunker tanks are provided with steam coils and steam heating is opened when the temperature of the fuel drops below it's pour point.

No. 1304

>

Which valve in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?

A

The settling tank valve.

B

Valve "BV".

C

Valve "S".

D

Valve "D".

Same picture above

Main bunker valve BV must be closed if the main fuel line on deck is not in use for either bunkering or transfer from the deep tanks. No. 1305

>

What type of pump would normally be fitted at position "P" ?

A

A piston pump.

B

A centrifugal pump.

C

A vane pump.

D

A gear or screw displacement pump. This is a lubricating oil transfer system. The viscosity of lubricants is high and gear or worm wheel pumps are required.

No. 1306

>

What are items "V" ?

A

Straight bilge gate valves.

B

Non-return screw down valves.

C

Vacuum suction boxes.

D

Vacuum flap valves. These are the bilge well suction valves and are NON RETURN screw-down valves (non-return for safety ).

No. 1307

>

What are items "S" and what is their purpose ?

A

Suction valves to pump the wells.

B

Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system.

C

Suction boxes to retain priming water.

D

Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping.

Same picture above

The bilge well suction pipes have strainers fitted before the non-return valves in order to restrain any dirt from entering the bilge piping. Also before the pump a strainer fitted to prevent dirt from entering the bilge pump. No. 1308

>

What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?

A

A gear pump.

B

A piston pump.

C

A vane pump.

D

A worm wheel pump.

Same picture above

To obtain good suction easily a piston pump is the most suitable.

No. 1309

>

If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ?

A

Check that bilge well valves "B","C" and "D" are properly closed.

B

Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking.

C

Prime the pump with sea water.

D

All of these options.

Bilge1a.BMP

Check that no air ingress into the bilge system occurs as per options and and also the air to be removed by priming as per option . All actions are correct, thus OPTION . No. 1310

>

What are items "W" ?

A

Ballast water tanks.

B

Hold deep wells.

C

Side water tanks.

D

Cargo hold bilge wells.

Bilge2a.BMP

The picture shows bilge suction lines from cargo holds via non-return valves to the bilge pump. Item W are the cargo holds bilge wells No. 1311

>

What is item "S" ?

A

A mesh type strainer.

B

The sea suction valve of the pump.

C

A shut-off valve.

D

The automatic 15 ppm shut-down valve.

Bilge2a.BMP

A mesh type strainer is fitted before the bilge pump to prevent any solid entering the pump

No. 1312

>

What is shown here ?

A

A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.

B

A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.

C

A seawater, basket suction strainer.

D

A centrifugal filter. The shape of the filter body and flow direction of inner admittance of fluid indicate clearly that this is a suction strainer in which the liquid is drawn. Filter material of this type of strainer is perforated plate or wire mesh

No. 1313

>

Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?

A

1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body.

B

1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing.

C

1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body.

D

1 = Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body.

Same picture above

We have as main parts of the filter the cover, the element and the body. Special purpose elements for a particular fluid or purpose, in particular, if it is non-reusable (disposable) they are called cartridges (for oils and fuels No. 1314

>

What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the filter body (3) ?

A

The vacuum created in the filter.

B

The clamp on top of the filter cover.

C

The filter's gasket.

D

The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp.

Same picture above

Self explanatory.

No. 1315

>

What type of filter is shown here ?

A

A cartridge type pressure line filter.

B

A suction wire mesh filter.

C

A rotating filter.

D

A magnetic filter. The pressure is applied on the outside of the filter element on the cartridge.

No. 1316

>

What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ?

A

1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing.

B

1 = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed filter cartridge, 3 = Filter body.

C

1 = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body.

D

1 = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body.

Same picture above

Option gives the correct nomenclature. We can see that the cartridge of this pressurised filter is ribbed. (used for fuels and Lub. Oils) No. 1317

>

What kind of valve is this ?

A

A screw-down non-return valve.

B

A fixed non-return valve or check valve.

C

A high pressure control valve.

D

A high pressure stop valve. The lift of this non-return valve is non-adjustable or fixed. Its lifting height is one quarter of its diameter minimum. It is also called a check valve

No. 1318

>

If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on it's inner seat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ?

A

20 mm.

B

15 mm.

C

12.5 mm.

D

10 mm. Relationship of circular surface passage to circular mantle passage is : D = H;4, or the lift height is one quart of the valve seat diameter or 15 mm

No. 1319

>

What is the purpose of the screw cap (1) in the picture ?

A

To adjust the valve lift.

B

To access the valve.

C

To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging.

D

To manually close the valve.

Same picture above

The valve lift is to be adjusted back to original 1/4 of the valve seat diameter after overhauls.

No. 1320

>

Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if: 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging.?

A

1, 3 and 5.

B

2, 3 and 4.

C

1, 2 and 3.

D

2, 3 and 5. The contents of this tank can be measured by the float reading with indicating strip besides the tank, by sounding tape and also by the sight glass.

No. 1321

>

What are parts 1 and 4 and what ensures the seal between them ?

A

Part 1 = top plate, part 4 = casing, an O-ring.

B

Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket.

C

Part 1 = valve plate, part 4 = cast body, a seal.

D

Part 1 = top cover, part 4 = valve casing, a joint. Self explanatory. Proper nomenclature of technical items.

No. 1322

>

What type of valve is shown here ?

A

A gate valve.

B

A non-return valve.

C

A check valve.

D

A screw-lift valve.

Same picture above

This is obviously a screw down valve.

No. 1323

>

What is this unit called ?

A

A shaft seal gland and packing.

B

A mechanical shaft seal.

C

A segmented seal unit.

D

A flexible type rotating packing assembly. The packing sits in the suffing box and it is pressed by the stuffing box gland in order to tighten the shaft or spindle.

No. 1324

>

What type of valve is shown here ?

A

A 90 degree gate valve.

B

An angle screw lift valve.

C

An angle screw-down valve (non return).

D

A 90 degree check stop valve.

Piping6a.BMP

This is obviously the picture of an angle screw down valve.

No. 1325

>

Where are you most likely to find this kind of valve fitted ?

A

On ballast lines.

B

In diesel engine starting air lines.

C

On refrigerating machinery.

D

On sea chests. Angle screw down valves are bolted on top of sea chests.

No. 1326

>

What kind of valve is this ?

A

A manually operated butterfly valve.

B

A gear operated butterfly valve.

C

A gear operated gate valve.

D

A worm wheel operated gate valve. This is a manual operated butterfly valve. It is manually operated by the wheel and the force is transmitted by a worm wheel to the valve.

No. 1327

>

How is the sealing ring (2) fitted on the butterfly valve plate ?

A

It is kept in place by a retaining ring secured by countersunks.

B

It is bolted on and secured by wiring.

C

It is glued on a separate removable ring.

D

It sits in a grooved bolted-on section. A retaining ring with counter sunken screws is used for reason that the countersunks do not need any additional space. The sealing ring is easily replaceable and its securing does not take extra place.

No. 1328

>

Where is this type of valve usually found ?

A

In piping with large flow but low pressure.

B

In piping of high pressure and large flow.

C

In piping of low pressure and low flow.

D

In piping of high pressure but limited flow.

Same picture above

A butterfly valve could not withstand a high differential pressure on its valve plate. It is thus a low pressure valve. It offers practically no resistance at all to large flows with valve plating pointing in flow direction. It is thus used in pipelines No. 1329

>

In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ?

A

In fuel oil piping.

B

In sea water piping.

C

In starting air piping.

D

In bilge piping.

Same picture above

In fuel oil piping. In particular from the daily tanks and settling tank to the booster pumps/machinery . Some moisture and impurities might be present in the fuel. Due to change of direction these collect in the bottom of the filter

No. 1330

>

What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this filter ?

A

To drain the dirt out of the filter basket.

B

To take samples of the liquid.

C

To drain out the collected water.

D

To drain the filter before cleaning. Water is collected in the bottom of the filter due to directional change. These filters are used usually as Heavy fuel Oil Filters. This water is drained off.

No. 1331

>

What are items No. 2 and No. 6 called ?

A

Bearing sleeves.

B

Water throwing seals.

C

Impeller wear rings.

D

Impeller support rings. They are impeller wear rings. They are fitted between the impeller and casing and take the forces of erosion and cavitations. They are easily replaced and wear of this part is preferred to wear on the impeller casing which would

No. 1332

>

This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?

A

The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload.

B

The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output.

C

The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur.

D

The housing will be attacked by cavitation.

Same picture above

If the wear ring has excess clearance water will flow from the high pressure side back to the suction side under the impeller. The pumping efficiency deteriorates.

No. 1333

>

What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ?

A

Multi-stage, medium speed.

B

Floating, self balancing, single stage.

C

Self priming, single stage, high speed.

D

Single stage, high speed. Impeller passage is very narrow in relation to impeller mouth, indicating high speed impeller. The pump is single stage. These pumps are also called turbine-type pumps (notwithstanding that the pump is driven by electric motor

No. 1334

>

What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ?

A

About 2300 RPM.

B

About 1500 RPM.

C

About 1150 RPM.

D

About 870 RPM. This is a high speed pump as clearly visible by the narrow passage between impeller in relation to mouth ring, also called a turbine type pump. It runs at high speed.

No. 1335

>

What would happen if the cooling water is shut off the atmospheric condenser?

A

Steam will blow from the air vent.

B

The hot well will steam up.

C

Overpressure will occur in the condenser.

D

All of the given options. Since re-vaporization takes place after the pressurised water traps, this pressure will be released as well as the heat if it is not cooled down or partly re condensed by the condenser. All of the phenomena mentioned will occur.

No. 1336

When are the high sea chests used ?

A

When the ship is deeply laden at sea.

B

When the ship is in shallow water.

C

When the ship is in ballast condition.

D

When the ship is in polluted waters.

>

The high sea chests are operated in shallow water when danger exists that dirt would be sucked in from the low sea chests. No. 1337

>

What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?

A

Perforated plate filters.

B

Mesh wire filters.

C

Ball flush filters.

D

Backflow filters.

Seawtr1a.BMP

Same picture above

The filters are basket filters made of perforated plating. Size 5 mm to 7 mm holes.

No. 1338

>

Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump would be the Fire and Ballast Pump ?

A

410 m3/hour x 20 metres.

B

110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres.

C

140 m3/hour x 30 metres.

D

40 m3/hour x 55 metres.

Same picture above

The fire and ballast pump is a dual purpose pump. On "Ballast" mode it supplies a high capacity with low pressure (410 M3/h) and on "Fire" it delivers a higher pressure (7.0 kg/cm2 or 70 metres height)

No. 1339

>

Here are some capacities of engine room water pumps. Which one would be the Fresh Water Hydrophore Pump ?

A

5 m3/hour x 50 metres.

B

0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres.

C

5 m3/hour x 25 metres.

D

40 m3/hour x 55 metres. The hydrophore pressure is usually about 4.0 to 4.5 kg/cm2 pressurised, this means that the pumping height of the pump should be above that, thus 50 metres will do. Option and are disqualified. The capacity on

No. 1340

>

What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

A

A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger.

B

A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger.

C

A finned bank block heat exchanger.

D

A plate battery heat exchanger. This is a double flow heat exchanger (loop flow) inlet and outlet are on the front cover and are divided by a separation frame.

No. 1341

>

If you find a leak on one of the tubes of this heat exchanger, what should you do ?

A

Weld the tube tight.

B

Put the heater out of commission.

C

Seal off the tube with plugs hammered in both tube ends.

D

Machine plugs and weld in place.

Same picture above

Alloy tubes are difficult to welded and the equipment needs to be kept in use.

No. 1342

>

What is the purpose of item No4, fitted to this pump ?

A

It is a filter.

B

It is a balance valve.

C

It is a bleed-off valve.

D

It is a delivery control valve. The pressure opens the high pressure chamber suction valve. This will control the output capacity of the pump since part of the volume pumped by the worm wheels will be by-passed internally. Hence the capacity is controlled.

No. 1343

>

When pumping cold oil with this pump, what precaution would you take?

A

Start/stop the pump frequently.

B

Throttle the discharge valve.

C

Scew back the spring pressure on the pressure regulating valve.

D

Throttle the suction valve.

Same picture above

You are first to release the tension of the spring of valve 4, so that no abnormal high pressure builds up in the pump causing damage. Keep a close eye on the pump if such a situation should arise. No. 1344

>

What are items No. 2 of this pump ?

A

The driven end bearings.

B

The shaft seals.

C

Shaft collars.

D

The shaft locating collars.

Same picture above

These are the ball bearings on the driven end (coupling end) of the pump. On smaller pumps they would be bearing bushes or sleeves.

No. 1345

>

What are items No. 6 on this pump ?

A

The thrust plates.

B

The shaft bearings.

C

The shaft plates.

D

The axial plummer pads. These are the rear bearings of the pump, fitted on the rear end or the opposite end to the coupling end. (Thrust plates are fitted behind these bearings)

No. 1346

>

What is part No. 1 of this pump ?

A

A metallic type mechanical seal.

B

Main shaft locating bush.

C

Main shaft bearing.

D

The shaft locking collar.

Same picture above

This is clearly the SHAFT SEAL, and commonly a mechanical seal of metallic type is used.

No. 1347

>

What is item No. 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?

A

The pump coupling unit.

B

The pump shafting system.

C

The pump driving arrangement.

D

The intermediate shaft assembly. This pump has an intermediate shaft fitted, item No 1 is the intermediate shaft assembly.

No. 1348

>

What is item No. 4 on this pump assembly ?

A

The outer casing.

B

The reinforcement frame.

C

The motor stool.

D

The pump top casing assembly. This is the frame on which the electric motor driving the pump is fitted., or the motor stool.

No. 1349

>

How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing adjusted ?

A

By adjusting distance/ height by screwed connection 2 on shaft.

B

By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft.

C

By fitting shims on pump impeller.

D

By fitting shims in coupled part, item No 2 on shaft.

same picture above

The pump is hanging on the shaft assembly, and the impeller position/height is adjusted by screwed assembly part 2. No. 1350

>

Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No. 3 ?

A

Mechanical seal, O-ring and water thrower.

B

Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal.

C

Mechanical seal and ball bearing.

D

Shaft sleeve and ball bearing.

Same picture above

No. 1351

>

A

Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange.

B

Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete..

C

Remove pump casing half, release coupling and take out pump assembly.

D

Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out pump assembly.

No. 1352

>

If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ?

The construction of these pumps is that you can work on the pump itself without having to remove the motor or intermediate shaft. Loosen the pump shaft coupling, take out the pump casing half and You can remove the actual

When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with ..............

A

the suction valve closed.

B

the discharge valve closed.

C

throttled suction valve.

D

throttled discharge valves.

Same picture above

The discharge valve is to be closed. Factors influencing power absorption are QUANTITY (m3 per second multiplied by height of water column corresponding to the discharge pressure. The product of these is the power. If the discharge No. 1353

>

If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason could be................

A

that the pump is not bled off properly.

B

there is insufficient liquid supply to the pump.

C

misalignment of the shaft.

D

an obstruction on the discharge side.

Same picture above

The cause of overheating bearing is shaft misalignment, which prevents the shaft of the pump from moving concentrically causing the shaft support point, which are the bearings, to over heat.

No. 1354

>

On a reciprocating pump piston, the rings are made of material with low elastic limit such as hard rubber, Bakelite etc. In order to be able to fit them in the piston grooves you will need to ..............

A

use a special sliding tool.

B

apply grease or vaseline to slide the rings on.

C

heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes.

D

put them on top of the boiler casing to warm up. This way the rings are softened and can be fitted without breaking.

No. 1355

>

In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass?

A

Lube oil pump discharge lines.

B

Tank overflow lines.

C

Fresh water return piping and condensate line.

D

Sea water lines to overboard. The bulls eye may be fitted in overflow piping on oil and fuel tanks but is to be fitted near the tank top so that the bulls eye is not pressurised. Bulls eyes are not fitted any longer as means of indicating overflows on recently built

No. 1356

>

What is the component shown here ?

A

A centrifugal pump.

B

A rotor screw pump.

C

A piston pump.

D

A screw compressor.

No. 1357

>

A

A seal ring.

B

The pump shaft.

C

A ball bearing.

D

An end cover.

No. 1358

>

What is part number 2 in this drawing ?

A

The pump shaft.

B

The cam shaft.

C

The distance piece.

D

The connecting rod.

No. 1359

>

What is part number 1 in this drawing ?

Same picture above

What is part number 3 in this drawing ?

A

The gland packing.

B

The stuffing box.

C

A bearing.

D

A cooling pipe.

Same picture above

No. 1360

>

A

The connecting rod.

B

The pump rotor.

C

The pump body.

D

A cooling pipe.

No. 1361

>

What is part number 5 in this drawing ?

A

The bearing holder.

B

The end cover.

C

The shaft seal.

D

The pressure relief valve.

No. 1362

>

What is part number 4 in this drawing ?

What is shown here?

A

A Non return valve.

B

A Two way valve.

C

A Triple flushing valve.

D

A Dynamic valve.

Same picture above

No. 1363

>

A

The pump bearing.

B

The mechanical seal.

C

The water throw ring.

D

Shaft locking ring.

No. 1364

>

What is part No. 2 ?

A

The shaft key.

B

The shaft securing nut.

C

Impeller locking ring.

D

The shaft taper section.

No. 1365

>

What is part No. 1 ?

Same picture above

What is part No. 3 ?

A

The propeller.

B

The housing.

C

The diffuser.

D

The impeller.

Same picture above

No. 1366

>

A

A compressor and an electric motor.

B

An electric motor and a screw pump.

C

A hydraulic motor and a pump.

D

A centrifugal pump and an electric motor.

No. 1367

>

What type of pump is shown here?

A

A piston pump.

B

A screw pump.

C

A centrifugal pump.

D

A vane pump.

No. 1368

>

What are the two main items in this drawing ?

Same picture above

What is part No. 3 ?

A

The lower shaft seal.

B

The lower shaft bush.

C

The Impeller securing washer.

D

The impeller securing nut.

Same picture above

No. 1369

>

A

To prevent liquid moving upward.

B

To hold the impeller and connect the motor.

C

To support the shaft.

D

To support the impeller.

No. 1370

>

What is Part No. 6 ?

A

The impeller wear ring.

B

The diffuser vanes.

C

The impeller blade.

D

The thrust washer.

No. 1371

>

What is the purpose of Part No. 4 ?

Same picture above

What is shown in this drawing ?

A

A screw pump.

B

A centrifugal compressor.

C

A vane pump.

D

A centrifugal pump.

Same picture above

No. 1372

>

A

A.

B

B.

C

C.

D

D.

No. 1373

>

Which is the outlet ?

A

A.

B

B.

C

C.

D

D.

No. 1374

>

Which is the inlet ?

What is the component shown here ?

A

A Defector.

B

A Constructor.

C

An Injector.

D

An Ejector.

same picture above

No. 1375

>

A

The diffusor.

B

The ejector.

C

The nozzle.

D

The sprayer.

No. 1376

>

Which part is the diffusor ?

A

Part 1.

B

Part 2.

C

Part 3.

D

Part 4.

No. 1377

>

What is Part No. 1 called ?

same picture above

What is Part No. 5 called ?

A

The drain screw.

B

The volute chamber.

C

The nozzle securing screw.

D

The flange ring.

Same picture above

No. 1378

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you look for on all operating worm wheel or gear type pumps ?

A

The pump casing temperature.

B

The pressure relief valve setting.

C

Vibration and noise free operation.

D

Free movement of the by-pass valve. Option is correct. If the pump is vibrating the suction might be clogged or the viscosity of the liquid might be too high. Check immediately and observe the power absorption.

No. 1379

>

A

the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from water) and is called a two-phase operation.

B

the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.

C

the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is called a two-phase operation.

D

a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt).

No. 1380

>

Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The purifying operation is referred to as..........

Which of the following is the correct name for a void space between two tanks carrying different liquids ?

A

A bilge.

B

A drain tank.

C

A deep tank.

D

A cofferdam.

Option D is correct. It is a 3-phase operation and the most frequently used. Separation of light liquid from heavy liquid (oil from water) and solids from heavy and light liquids (dirt) is achieved. The purification operation is also referred to as

No. 1381

>

A

By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief valve.

B

By throttling the suction valve.

C

By throttling the discharge valve.

D

By fitting an orifice in the discharge line.

No. 1382

>

Why is an isolating valve fitted on the fire main from the engine room?

A

To isolate the pump for repairs.

B

To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.

C

In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room.

D

To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running.

No. 1383

>

What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?

What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump?

A

Suction strainer blocked.

B

Bilge empty.

C

Pump impeller choked.

D

Discharge valve closed.

No. 1384

>

A

Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.

B

Leaking piston rod gland.

C

Debris holding suction or delivery valves open.

D

Malfunctioning priming pump.

No. 1385

>

On a centrifugal pump what would happen if the priming pump float valve stuck in the closed position?

A

Pump would not prime.

B

Pump would not deliver pressure.

C

Priming pump would run hot.

D

Pump would run hot.

No. 1386

>

What is the most common cause of failure of reciprocating bilge pumps?

What item is essential to be fitted to a gear pump?

A

Pressure relief valve.

B

Pressure adjusting valve.

C

Non-return suction valve.

D

Non-return discharge valve.

No. 1387

>

A

Mechanical garter spring seals.

B

Machineable sealing rings.

C

Neoprene lip seals.

D

Labyrinth seals.

No. 1388

>

What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?

A

Where liquids are not excessively viscous.

B

Where liquids are extremely viscous.

C

Where there is a high air content.

D

Where the liquid has a high temperature.

No. 1389

>

In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated?

Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?

A

In an engine lub oil system.

B

In a fuel oil system.

C

In an engine jacket water cooling system.

D

In hydraulic ring main supply system.

No. 1390

>

A

Priming pump malfunction.

B

Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.

C

Leaking suction/delivery valves.

D

Leaking piston rod gland.

No. 1391

>

In a reciprocating pump what would NOT cause of loss of vacuum?

What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?

A

No oil content is permissable.

B

15ppm.

C

25ppm.

D

50ppm.

No. 1392

If when in port there is an urgent requirement to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do?

A

Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily water separator.

B

Lower the bilges only during night time.

C

Pump the bilges only to a shore or barge reception facility.

D

Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook.

>

No. 1393

>

A

By steel grid plates bolted in place.

B

By very fine mesh grids.

C

By perforated plating.

D

There is no covering.

No. 1394

>

What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?

A

Gate valves.

B

Non-return screw down valves.

C

Butterfly valves.

D

Screw lift valves.

No. 1395

>

How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?

How does a 'quick closing' valve operate?

A

An independent mechanism closes the valve.

B

The valve bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the valve to close.

C

A retaining collar is released allowing the valve to close.

D

The valve can only be opened and closed hydraulically.

No. 1396

>

A

In fuel oil piping.

B

In sea water piping.

C

In starting air piping.

D

In bilge piping.

No. 1397

>

If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why?

A

The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.

B

The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence.

C

The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.

D

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.

No. 1398

>

Where would you find a duplex filter unit?

What would happen if a centrifugal pump priming pump had no water?

A

Pump would run hot.

B

Pump would not prime.

C

Pump would not maintain a vacuum when running.

D

Delivery pressure would be low.

No. 1399

>

A

1000ppm.

B

500ppm.

C

100ppm.

D

50ppm.

No. 1400

>

If the centrifugal pump delivery pressure is low which would NOT be the cause?

A

Excessive neck bush/shaft clearance.

B

Choked impeller.

C

Worn impeller.

D

Excessive impeller/wear ring clearance.

No. 1401

>

What maximum oil content must oil/water separators generally discharge?

What material are large tube, heat exchanger covers manufactured from?

A

Cast steel.

B

Cast iron.

C

Alloy steel.

D

Bronze.

No. 1402

>

A

To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.

B

As an emergency storage space for bilge water.

C

As a collection space for leaking pipe work.

D

As a watertight barrier.

No. 1403

>

Before loosening pump covers how should the pressure be checked?

A

Checking the pressure gauge.

B

Open and check vents are clear.

C

Remove drain plug.

D

Remove cover slowly.

No. 1404

>

What is the purpose of a cofferdam?

What capacity would you consider most suitable for a ballast pump?

A

25 to 50 cubic metres/hour.

B

10 to 15 cubic metres/hour.

C

20 to 30 cubic metres/hour.

D

100 to 150 cubic metres/hour.

No. 1405

>

A

Ship's sanitary system.

B

Circulating fresh water tanks.

C

Ballast pumps.

D

Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.

No. 1406

>

If the priming pump was not working how could a vacuum be raised on a centrifugal pump?

A

Starting the pump with the discharge valve open.

B

Filling the pump by hand.

C

Starting the pump with the sea suction valve open.

D

Starting the pump with the suction valve closed.

No. 1407

>

What generator cooling is sometimes used during dry-docking?

What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?

A

Malfunction of the electrical motor.

B

Pump no longer pumping liquid.

C

Malfunction of the pump.

D

Tank being transferred into is full.

No. 1408

>

A

They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.

B

Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded.

C

Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.

D

Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging.

No. 1409

>

Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?

A

Bilge and ballast.

B

Fuel oil transfer.

C

Boiler feed pump.

D

Hydraulic winch power pack.

No. 1410

>

Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?

Where can wear most affect efficiency in a gear pump?

A

In the gear shaft bearings.

B

Casing/end gear clearance.

C

Gear backlash.

D

Shaft wear at gland.

No. 1411

>

A

The pump is not bled off properly.

B

Insufficient liquid supply to the pump.

C

Tightness of the shaft.

D

Obstruction on the discharge side.

No. 1412

>

When assembling an "Endless Screw" type pump what results from insufficient axial or radial clearance?

A

Pump will draw more load and quickly overheat.

B

The pump will not pump.

C

The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

D

The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.

No. 1413

>

What could cause overheating after pump overhaul if it is verified that assembly is correct?

When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial load?

A

The suction valve closed.

B

The discharge valve closed.

C

The suction valve throttled.

D

Suction and discharge valves closed.

No. 1414

>

A

Fluid that remains unchanged through a working cycle.

B

An inert gas.

C

A fluid that cannot be compressed.

D

Fluid that exhibits similar characteristics to fuel/air mixture.

No. 1415

>

Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?

A

Liquids mixed with solids.

B

Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

C

Liquids having high air content.

D

Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.

No. 1416

>

In thermodynamic terms what is a 'perfect fluid'.

What is the main advantage of a central sea water cooler system?

A

Cheaper to install.

B

Ease of cleaning.

C

More efficient cooling.

D

Simple and short cooling water pipelines.

No. 1417

>

A

The rounded and the bellow gear.

B

The driving and driven shaft gears.

C

The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.

D

The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

No. 1418

>

What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?

A

To record quantity of fuel onboard.

B

To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.

C

To record fuel consumption.

D

To record oily bilge levels.

No. 1419

>

Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?

When would the main sea circulating system high sea suction valves be used?

A

When the ship is deeply laden at sea.

B

When the ship is in shallow water.

C

When the ship is in ballast condition.

D

When the ship is in polluted waters.

No. 1420

>

A

The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

B

A visible alarm.

C

An audible alarm.

D

The discharge is dumped to the bilge.

No. 1421

>

Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?

A

When proceeding Full Ahead.

B

During the hours of darkness.

C

Only in a case of emergency.

D

If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.

No. 1422

>

What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?

Why does the fluid pass through the valve from beneath the valve lid?

A

The valve is easier to open.

B

With the valve closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

C

There is less restriction to flow in this direction.

D

There is less scouring of the valve seat at partial openings.

No. 1423

>

A

Clean the oil/water separator.

B

Inspect pump internals for wear.

C

Open the sea suction valve to prime pump.

D

Check suction strainers and valves.

No. 1424

>

What would you do on first starting a gear pump if pumping cold oil?

A

Start/stop the pump frequently.

B

Start the pump with valves closed and gradually open.

C

Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.

D

Throttle the suction valve.

No. 1425

>

What is the first check if difficulty is encountered when pumping bilges if the suction gauge reading is high?

For which service would a gear pump be most suitable?

A

Bilge pumping.

B

Engine lub oil pressure supply.

C

Engine cooling water circulating.

D

Boiler feed water supply.

No. 1426

>

A

No flow obstruction when fully open.

B

Positive closing action.

C

Low maintenance.

D

Can be throttled.

No. 1427

>

What are gauze element filters designed to remove?

A

Fine non-metallic solids.

B

Metallic particles.

C

Water and sludge.

D

Coarse solids.

No. 1428

>

What advantage does the gate valve have over globe valves?

What is the most commonly used packing for valve spindle glands?

A

Mechanical shaft seal.

B

Soft gland packing.

C

Preformed lip seals

D

Carbon sealing rings.

No. 1429

>

A

Pressurised at all times.

B

Sea suction and fire main discharge valves open ready to pressurise the main when the fire pump is started.

C

Drained and empty to prevent leakage at hydrants.

D

All pump and isolating valves closed.

No. 1430

>

If the valve wheel of an extended spindle valve is free, but the valve does not seem to be not moving, what would you check first?

A

Whether the valve is dirty.

B

To see if the valve spindle is being turned.

C

To see if there is excess pressure on the valve.

D

To check that the valve is not broken.

No. 1431

>

When on passage, what should be the condition of the fire main?

What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess?

A

Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate.

B

MCA pollution certificate.

C

IOPP certificate.

D

Safety Construction certificate.

No. 1432

>

A

All pumps in the engine room are duplicated.

B

All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility.

C

Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.

D

A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately.

No. 1433

>

What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance deteriorating over time?

A

Cavitation of the impeller.

B

Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

C

Wear of the gland neck bush.

D

Wear of the pump housing.

No. 1434

>

According to regulations, on board ships it is necessary to have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?

From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh water system?

A

5 m3/hour x 50 metres.

B

0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres.

C

20 m3/hour x 25 metres.

D

40 m3/hour x 55 metres.

No. 1435

>

A

A water seal line to the packing gland.

B

Special packing in the stuffing box.

C

An air seal line from the compressed airline.

D

The air pump fitted to the pump.

No. 1436

>

Where is it necessary to use Screw Lift Valves?

A

Fuel tank valves.

B

Ballast tank valves.

C

Bilge line valves.

D

Main sea suction valves.

No. 1437

>

How is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?

If a centrifugal pump does NOT pull a vacuum what is the most likely cause?

A

Impeller vanes choked.

B

Impeller/wear ring clearance excessive.

C

Neck bush/shaft clearance excessive.

D

Priming pump not functioning correctly.

No. 1438

>

A

As ballast tank valves.

B

As fire main isolating valves.

C

As bilge suction valves.

D

As fuel tank valves.

No. 1439

>

After gear pump re-assembly what must be checked?

A

Suction valve is open.

B

Direction of rotation is correct.

C

Gland is not tight.

D

Discharge valve is open.

No. 1440

>

Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?

In the pump illustrated what separates the suction and discharge pressures?

A

The mouth ring.

B

The mechanical seal.

C

The pump body seal.

D

The pump body cover seal.

.\MR 1.4.12-05 COOLING WATER PUMP (DAIHATSU PS-26H).JPG

No. 1441

>

A

Pressure relief valve.

B

Non return discharge valve.

C

Manual by-pass valve.

D

Leak-off connection to cool the shaft gland.

No. 1442

>

How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor?

A

By switching all three connections on the motor terminal.

B

By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal.

C

The direction of rotation cannot be changed.

D

By reversing the frequency.

No. 1443

>

What must be fitted to the discharge of the pump in the drawing?

A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show ?

A

100 Amps.

B

33.3 Amps.

C

0 Amps.

D

110 Amps.

No. 1444

>

A

The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.

B

The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.

C

A connection box has been filled with salt water.

D

The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water.

No. 1445

>

What type of equipment is this symbol showing?

A

A DC series motor.

B

An AC shunt motor.

C

A DC shunt motor.

D

A DC combined shunt and series motor.

No. 1446

>

The ship's insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause.

What type of equipment is represented by this symbol?

A

A DC series motor.

B

A DC combined series and shunt motor.

C

A compound motor.

D

A shunt motor.

No. 1447

What is the purpose of a " Y/Delta " starter ?

A

To start either a D or an Y connected motor.

B

To regulate large AC motors.

C

To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.

D

To reduce the start time for an AC motor.

>

No. 1448

>

A

The relay coil A will activate as long at the button is pressed.

B

The switch T will cause the coil to de-activate.

C

The bulb L will give a pulsating light.

D

The relay coil A will activate and remain activated even after the button 2 has been released.

No. 1449

>

What will happen when push-button 2 is pressed?

What is the purpose of a Tacho generator ?

A

To measure impedance.

B

To measure revolutions per minute (RPM).

C

To measure the direction of shaft rotation.

D

To measure the relationship between impedance and frequency.

circ13.bmp

No. 1450

>

A

Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level.

B

Adjust the speed of one generator.

C

Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output.

D

Adjust the speed of both generators.

No. 1451

>

What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor ?

A

At the rated current.

B

At 5-15% over the rated current.

C

At 200% of the rated current.

D

At 10% below the rated current.

No. 1452

>

Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ?

A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions would you take ?

A

Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test.

B

Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger.

C

Disconnect all cables to the motor.

D

Use an 'AVO' meter instead of a 'Megger' for the test.

No. 1453

>

A

Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay.

B

Replace the "over current" relay.

C

Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.

D

Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.

No. 1454

>

When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit breaker be closed ?

A

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly anti-clockwise and at 11 o'clock position.

B

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position.

C

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11 o'clock position.

D

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position.

No. 1455

>

An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the "over current" relay, What action would you take ?

A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm. What will the speed of the motor be at half load?

A

1900 rpm.

B

475 rpm.

C

1000 rpm.

D

975 rpm.

No. 1456

>

A

Its speed, frequency and number of poles.

B

Its voltage, current and impedance.

C

Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.

D

Its rotor emf, current and power factor.

No. 1457

>

Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ?

A

Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor.

B

Because the bus bars will be short circuited.

C

Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage.

D

Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate.

No. 1458

>

The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following?

Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do ?

A

Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.

B

Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.

C

Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.

D

All of these options.

No. 1459

>

A

armature.

B

brushes.

C

commutator.

D

field poles.

No. 1460

>

Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by..........

A

current overload.

B

the wrong types of brushes.

C

the strength of the field.

D

any of these.

No. 1461

>

Complete the sentence. A series-wound generator has the field windings in series with its ..........

The voltage in a 60Hz AC generator is adjusted by.........

A

the number of poles.

B

the speed of the engine of the generator.

C

the magnetic field strength.

D

the number of series conductors.

No. 1462

>

A

KwA.

B

HP.

C

KVA.

D

KW.

No. 1463

>

AC generators are rated in ....

A

KVA.

B

KwA.

C

Kw.

D

HP.

No. 1464

>

DC generators are rated in .............

What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel ?

A

To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.

B

To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.

C

To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.

D

To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.

No. 1465

>

A

A tripped bus circuit breaker.

B

Excessive prime mover speed.

C

Failure of the exciter.

D

The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated.

No. 1466

>

What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with other generators?

A

Trip off the generator from the switchboard.

B

Remove the load from the generator to be stopped.

C

Switch off all connected loads.

D

Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line.

No. 1467

>

The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:

What units are used to measure back E.M.F.?

A

Volts.

B

Ohms.

C

Ampere.

D

Farads.

No. 1468

>

A

circuit breaker.

B

shunt field.

C

metal frame work.

D

fuse.

No. 1469

>

What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator ?

A

To prevent main circuit overload.

B

To prevent over speeding.

C

To maintain good load sharing.

D

To prevent the generator being run as a motor.

No. 1470

>

An earth fault on an electrical motor can be defined as an electrical connection between its wiring and its .........

What type of instrument can be used to locate an earthed field coil in a synchronous motor ?

A

A voltmeter.

B

A frequency meter.

C

A wheatstone bridge.

D

An ohmeter.

No. 1471

>

A

To assist the motor cooling.

B

Ventilation slots.

C

To assist induction currents.

D

To dispense with the cooling fan.

No. 1472

>

What is the purpose of the part circled in red ?

A

To access the windings.

B

To show the markings of the motor.

C

The air cooling inlet.

D

To house the terminals.

No. 1473

>

What is the purpose of the parts circled in red ?

What is the purpose of the component number 5 ?

A

To ensure smooth speed pick-up.

B

Motor cooling.

C

To absorb vibration.

D

To balance the motor

No. 1474

>

A

The permanent magnet.

B

The starter winding.

C

The stator winding.

D

The rotor winding.

No. 1475

>

What is the function of component number 6 ?

A

To ensure correct balancing of the rotor.

B

To seal the motor internals.

C

To provide ventilation.

D

To locate the bearing.

No. 1476

>

What is component number 2 ?

For what type of load would a star/delta starter be employed?

A

A centrifugal pump.

B

A small compressor.

C

An air start compressor.

D

For very heavy loads composed of resistors.

Same picture above

No. 1477

>

What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time ?

A

The lights may be a dimmed a little.

B

The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.

C

The generator may trip on overload.

D

Nothing special.

No. 1478

Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralelled with another?

A

If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected.

B

Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.

C

If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.

D

The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.

>

No. 1479

>

Can the speed of an asynchronous motor be regulated ?

A

No, because the windings are not designed for that.

B

Yes, if a thyristor regulator is used.

C

Yes, using resistors in series with the stator winding.

D

No, because speed can only be regulated by adjusting the voltage of the rotor winding.

No. 1480

>

A

Circuit 1.

B

Circuit 2.

C

They have the same voltage.

D

Voltage will remain the same bu the current will vary.

No. 1481

>

In these circuits current I1 and I2 are the same and all resistors R have the same value. In which circuit will the voltage be greater ?

What are items F indicating in this starting box drawing ?

A

The phase terminals.

B

The fuses.

C

The front switch.

D

The front connectors. These are the fuses.

No. 1482

>

What do items C represent in this starter diagram ?

A

Contacts.

B

Relays.

C

Overloads.

D

Transformers.

Same picture above

These are the auxiliary relays .

No. 1483

>

What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram ?

A

A pressostat.

B

A thermostat.

C

A level switch.

D

Any of the these.

Same picture above

This is the automatic control switch of the process, which could be any of the process induced switches.

No. 1484

>

When will the left hand lamp 'L' illuminate ? (Assume there is no defect in the installation)

A

When the engine is stopped.

B

When the engine is running.

C

When the main breaker is switched on.

D

When an overload/trip occurs.

Same picture above

This lamp is switched parallel to the control transformer directly and will illuminate as soon as the power is ON by operating the main switch. No. 1485

>

What are items 'E' in this starting circuit diagram ?

A

A low voltage relay.

B

A short-circuit trip.

C

An overload relay / stop button.

D

A reverse current trip.

Same picture above

This is the overload relay unit. The actual contact of the relay is shown in the control voltage part - relay contact E.

No. 1486

>

What are the items marked 'PM' in this electric starter diagram ?

A

Start position switches.

B

Start push buttons.

C

Stop push buttons.

D

Stop position switches. These are the start push buttons

No. 1487

>

What are the items 'PP' indicated in this electric starting diagram ?

A

Start relays.

B

Stop relays.

C

Start push buttons.

D

Stop push buttons.

Same picture above

These are the stop push buttons.

No. 1488

>

What does item 'C' indicate in this electrical starting circuit ?

A

The main contactor.

B

The auxiliary contactor.

C

A thermal relay.

D

The overload.

Same picture above

This is the main contactor.

No. 1489

>

What does item 'RT' represent in this schematic electrical starting diagram ?

A

The time relay.

B

The overload relay.

C

The measuring relay.

D

The signalling relay.

Same picture above

The overload relay which is a thermal relay.

No. 1490

>

What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship ?

A

440 Volt and 220 Volt.

B

Electric motors and lighting circuits.

C

2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.

D

4 x alternators, 2 x transformers. The type of drivers of the alternators and purpose is named when mentioning the power suppliers. Example: 2 motor generators, 1 turbo generator, 1 motor emergency generator. (instead of motor also use diesel, instead of turbo also use

No. 1491

>

What is the meaning of item 'CP' in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A

Control panel.

B

Switch panel.

C

Main switchboard.

D

Control room.

Same picture above

Item CP represents the main switch board, divided in 440 V and 220 V sections.

No. 1492

>

What does item 'CE' stands for in this ship's electric plant drawing ?

A

Control equipment power.

B

Central emergency station.

C

Common energy lighting distributor.

D

Emergency Switchboard.

Electc4a.BMP

This is the emergency switch board, divided in 440 V and 220 V sections.

No. 1493

>

Where is the shore power supply line to be connected to supply this ship's electric plant ?

A

On CP.

B

On CE.

C

On TT.

D

On T.

Electc5a.BMP

The shore power supply is fed to the Main Switch Board item CP via the connecting box for shore supply TT

No. 1494

>

What are the items 'CD' shown in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A

Distribution panels.

B

Transformers.

C

Control desks.

D

Starting boxes.

Electc5a.BMP

These are the different distribution panels from which several consumer groups are fed.

No. 1495

>

A

1) Supply by main diesel engines. 2) Supply by emergency diesel.

B

1) Supply by main switchboard. 2) Supply by emergency diesel.

C

1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by main switchboard.

D

1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by main switchboard.

No. 1496

>

What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the Emergency Switchboard.

What are items 'T' shown in this ships electric plant schematic diagram ?

A

Terminal boxes.

B

Transit line connector units.

C

Transformers.

D

Thyristor converters.

Electc5a.BMP

The power supply to the Emergency switchboard is either from the Main Switchboard or in case of power failure on this board, from the Emergency Diesel Electc5a.BMP

These are the 440/220 Volt down step transformers for the Main and Emergency Switchboard consumers

No. 1497

>

The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is ............

A

generated as distributed.

B

fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes.

C

monitored and supplied via distributors.

D

fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

Electc5a.BMP

The electric power is fed into the main switchboard by the generators via the Main Breakers, the power is monitored, and is fed via breakers to the electric power consumers.

No. 1498

>

In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ?

A

In the excitator.

B

In the sliprings.

C

In the rotor.

D

In the stator. Excitation current is sent into the rotor and power is produced by the stator.

No. 1499

>

How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ?

A

By the alternator speed.

B

By the excitation current in the rotor.

C

By the excitation current in the stator.

D

By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard. The excitation current steered into the rotor will determine the power output.

No. 1500

>

How many sliprings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator ?

A

Two.

B

Four.

C

Three.

D

Six. There are two (2) slip rings with carbon brushes fitted for the DC excitation current positive and negative connections.

No. 1501

>

If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got ?

A

Two.

B

Four.

C

Six.

D

Eight. The alternator runs 900 RPM or 15 revolutions per second. With one pole pair the frequency would be 15 Hz, with two pole pairs, the frequency would be 30 Hz, with 4 pole pairs the frequency is 60 Hz

No. 1502

>

The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to ...........................

A

the speed of the alternator.

B

the output current of the alternator.

C

the output voltage of the alternator.

D

the output voltage and the output current of the alternator. The AVR produces and excitation current proportional to the OUTPUT VOLTAGE as well as the OUTPUT CURRENT of the alternator

No. 1503

>

When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each alternator (kVAR) ?

A

The power throttle of the driving units.

B

The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator.

C

The excitation current.

D

The temperature of the windings due to load distribution. The excitation current determines the reactive output in kVAR of each paralleled alternator.

No. 1504

>

Name the three conditions which must prevail to parallel one alternator with another?

A

Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency.

B

Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase.

C

Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.

D

Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal. The voltage and the frequency of both alternators must be same, and prior paralleling have the alternators to be brought in phase by the control governors of the driving machines.

No. 1505

>

Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line to the distributors should fail and the insulation break through ?

A

The undervoltage relay.

B

The short circuit protection.

C

The reverse current trip.

D

The high/low frequency trip. If the insulation breaks trough the cable is in short circuit and the short circuit protection will trip the main breaker. ?

No. 1506

>

If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switch breaker ?

A

The overload trip.

B

The reverse current trip.

C

The undervoltage/overvoltage trip.

D

The high/low frequency trip. If the speed governor fails, the alternator speed will fluctuate and high or low frequency will result . The High/Low frequency trip will activate.

No. 1507

>

A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor frame is called ..............

A

an insulation breakdown.

B

an earth.

C

a winding breakdown.

D

a short circuit. Insulation breakdown between winding and armature (earth) is called EARTHING or an EARTH

No. 1508

>

The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or more coils inside an electric motor is called .................

A

an earth.

B

a winding break.

C

a short circuit.

D

an insulation breakdown. An insulation breakdown is a breakdown between the windings internally as opposed to an earth where the insulation between windings and the armature has failed.

No. 1509

>

If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the windings of an electric motor it is called ..............

A

an earth fault.

B

a winding break.

C

an insulation breakdown.

D

a short circuit. Earth faults and insulation breakdowns are failures of the insulation so that the wires are short circuited to the earth or to another internal winding respectively. A winding break indicates a broken electrical conductor or an open circuit

No. 1510

>

What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power factor load, example induction motors ?

A

The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt.

B

The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt.

C

The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt.

D

The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt. By lagging power factor will the voltage drop below 440 Volt

No. 1511

>

Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation possible ?

A

Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor and flux.

B

Current to induce flux, rotary movement.

C

Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate.

D

Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux. The presence of a magnetic flux is required. This may be remnant magnetism, a permanent magnet or current induced. When there is conductor motion cutting this flux is power generation affected.

No. 1512

>

What happens to the characteristics of a 3 phase inductor motor if the applied voltage is slightly reduced ?

A

Current and speed decrease, torque remains constant.

B

Current and torque decrease , speed remains constant.

C

Speed and torque decrease, current remains constant.

D

Speed decreases, current and torque remain constant. The current and the torque will decrease proportional, the speed will remain constant.

No. 1513

>

How can the direction of a three phase induction motor can be reversed ?

A

Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST.

B

Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.

C

Change the capacitor connection to another line.

D

Reverse the polarity of the armature. The position of two out of the three entry leads has to be reversed. Any two leads of the three will do.

No. 1514

>

A

extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation.

B

isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over.

C

control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc.

D

confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling.

No. 1515

>

Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs in air because they ..............

Arc chutes confine the arc within a restricted space, and by providing magnetic control the movement of the arc is controlled. It provides rapid cooling so that de-ionization of gases is affected rapidly.

What information would you find on the name plate of any electric motor ?

A

Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed, impedance.

B

Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM.

C

Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity.

D

Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, speed. Info on name plate is: 1/ MAKER: manufacturer. 2/ VOLTAGE: AC or DC, volts, 3/ CURRENT: full load current. 4/ POWER: indicated in HP or kWatt., 5/ FREQUENCY: in Hz. 6/ PHASES: no of phases and connection star or delta.

No. 1516

>

What information would you find on the name plate of any industrial transformer.

A

Power, current, horsepower, ampereage.

B

Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance.

C

Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker.

D

kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity. 1/ kVAR: Power is indicated in kVAR, not in kWatt (cos phi) 2/ Voltage rating in/out. 3/ Impedance: Z = LW2, 4/ BIL rating, 5/ Polarity marked.

No. 1517

>

Three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are fed by an unidentified feeder. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder current carrying capacity ?

A

Approx 134 Amps.

B

Approx 175 Amps.

C

Approx 235 Amps.

D

Approx 350 Amps. We are asking the CAPACITY, not the FUSE protection. A capacity of 120 Ampere is sufficient. (15 + 40 + 52 = 117)

No. 1518

>

A split-phase motor is an induction motor where the magnetic fields are produced by ......... that causes the motor to rotate.

A

two permanent magnets

B

the shunt and the series windings

C

the main and the auxiliary windings

D

the three stator windings The split-phase motor has two stator windings, the main and the auxiliary winding which each produce magnetic fields that act together and cause the motor to rotate.

No. 1519

>

A

720 Watts.

B

746 Watts.

C

760 Watts.

D

860 Watts.

No. 1520

>

How many watts are there in one horsepower ?

At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motors with service factor 1.15 ?

A

115 %.

B

140 %.

C

165 %.

D

180 %. The overload factor is 15 %, setting 115 % name plate.

No. 1521

>

What should be the minimum current carrying capacity of branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor ?

A

110 % of the full motor name plate rating.

B

125 % of the full laoad current name plate rating.

C

140 % of the full motor name plate rating.

D

200 % of the full motor name plate rating. Conventional standards 125 %

No. 1522

>

What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading power factor load ?

A

It fluctuates.

B

It remains steady.

C

It rises.

D

It falls. The terminal voltage will be rising when it supplies with leading power factor.

No. 1523

>

In a Star-connected 3-phase motor ....................

A

the line voltage equal to the phase voltage.

B

the line current is equal to the Phase current.

C

the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage.

D

the phase current higher than the line current. The Line Current is equal to the Phase current in star connected motors (make sketch, You will find out)

No. 1524

>

The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage ?

A

254.34 Volt.

B

230 Volt.

C

147 Volt.

D

440 Volt. The Line Voltage is the Phase voltage x sq.root of 3 (1.73) = 254.34 x 1.73 = 440 Volt in case of STAR connection

No. 1525

>

It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur ?

A

Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs.

B

Where two generators are running in parallel.

C

Where three generators are running in parallel.

D

When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input. This phenomena can occur by ANY parallel operation of alternators due the fact that the prime mover of one of the paralleled alternators delivers insufficient power so that the other paralleled alternators take the total load + start

No. 1526

>

Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test ?

A

Megger test each phase separately to earth.

B

Megger test each phase to phase separately.

C

Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase.

D

All of these options. By carrying each test as per , and out separately y will check the motor for earthing, shorting and wire break.

No. 1527

>

Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in parallel ?

A

Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA.

B

The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not.

C

No common earth is available.

D

Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship. The reason is that there is NO COMMON EARTH FITTED.

No. 1528

>

When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run ................ and it may be operating ......................

A

faster..........in overload.

B

slower.........at too high a voltage.

C

faster...........at overspeed.

D

slower.........with too high a current.. The motor will run FASTER, the chance is there that at higher speed, depending the characteristic of the driven equipment (pump or compressor) the motor will operate in overload.

No. 1529

>

Typically, how many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current ?

A

2 - 3 times.

B

5 - 7 times.

C

3 - 5 times.

D

7 - 9 times. Although the starting current is 5 to 7 times higher is this a very momentary current since the motor will start and run instantly. This initial current has no time to heat the fuses and burn it, so that the rating of the fuses can be lower than

No. 1530

>

If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) in an electric motor, you should ................

A

not replace the fuses if they are not blown.

B

replace one fuse if only one is found blown.

C

replace two fuses if only two are found blown.

D

replace all three fuses, blown or not. You are at any rate to replace the fuses after a fault has occurred on a motor, for the fuses might have been affected by 'change of texture' due to heat generation.

No. 1531

>

What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to short circuit protection ?

A

It is less dangerous since there are no arcs.

B

It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts.

C

The broken fuse is easier to locate.

D

Its very high speed breaking operation. Advantage is the very high speed breaking operation (milli-seconds) far faster than any kind of circuit breaker.

No. 1532

>

For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current how long compared to tripping a circuit breaker would a fuse take to blow ?

A

Very much longer.

B

Longer.

C

Lesser.

D

No difference. For 25 % over current rate it will take a fuse longer time to interrupt the circuit compared to a circuit breaker.

No. 1533

>

For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usually set ?

A

125 %

B

120 %

C

115 %

D

110 % Setting is 110 %. This is the maximum allowable and the tripping is to occur instantly.

No. 1534

>

How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working ?

A

By lowering the generator frequency.

B

By raising the generator frequency.

C

By raising the alternator voltage.

D

By lowering the alternator voltage. By lowering the alternator frequency. The flux/current is the voltage over the frequency. The device will thus activate.

No. 1535

>

What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit on the generator circuit breaker?

A

It trips the alternator by under voltage.

B

It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage.

C

It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage.

D

All of these options. All reasons given under options , and are true. Option is correct.

No. 1536

>

If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ?

A

The preferential trip.

B

The low frequency trip.

C

The overspeed trip.

D

The under voltage trip. By total short circuit would the voltage of a 3 phase alternator dip severely and the under voltage trip will activate as first back-up safety.

No. 1537

>

A generator's Reverse Power protection relay is fitted between ...........................

A

the breaker connecting bars.

B

the breaker and the consumers.

C

the generator and the consumers.

D

the generator and the bus bars. A reverse Power Relay monitors the DIRECTION of the power flowing between generator and bush bar. It trips the breaker if power flows from BUSH BAR TO GENERATOR

No. 1538

>

How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates ?

A

1 - 2 seconds.

B

3 - 5 seconds.

C

5 - 7 seconds.

D

7 - 8 seconds. The time delay is set between 3 to 5 seconds for all generators irrespective which prime mover is used.

No. 1539

>

How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ?

A

By fitting a voltmeter over one phase.

B

By fitting lamps over the three phases.

C

By fitting lamps crossed over two phases.

D

By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases. By fitting a voltmeter across the phase of one breaker. Synchronise the incoming alternator until Your Voltmeter increases slowly from 0 to maximum Volt and back. Close the breaker when the Voltmeter indicates Zero Volt.

No. 1540

>

A

B

That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel.

D

That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel.

The first point to check is the actual power supply situation , i.e. the power requirements (normal sea load only, additional deck load required when, how much...) and the number of diesels running. If two diesels are running in

When two diesel generator sets are running in parallel during your engine room watch, what should you periodically check ?

A

That both diesels are running at the same speed.

B

That both diesels have the same voltage and the same frequency.

C

That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR, same amperage.

D

That both diesels have exactly a 50 % share of the active load in kWatt.

No. 1542

>

That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer's standing orders, number of of generators on load. That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptable.

C

No. 1541

>

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply ?

The active as well as the reactive load of both diesels should be the same, in which case the amperage and the voltage will be the same. Active load can be regulated by increasing or decreasing the governor load, reactive load

When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify on the electrical main switch board ?

A

The alternator on load, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency.

B

The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the condition of the transformers, the non-essential consumers.

C

The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of the overload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available.

D

Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems.

Option is correct. First verify the Power Supply. (one or two diesels running, load sharing %, voltage, frequency, reactive power, amperage) Hence check distribution system 440 V and secondary system 110/220 V.

No. 1543

A

B

>

That the battery charger is not accidentally kept in ON position, that the door of the generator room is always closed behind you.

D

Radiator fresh water level, oil level in sump tank, preheating temperature of cylinders, charging level of batteries, diesel in stand-by mode.

Option is correct. Check that the diesel is ready in STAND-BY mode and ready to operate. You should note that if due to extreme cold weather outside the preheating temperature has dropped it may be necessary to open the

When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence of activities ?

A

Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored.

B

Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 sec: the power is restored.

C

Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored.

D

Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. + 45 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored.

No. 1545

>

That the voltage and the frequency displayed on the emergency switch board is the same as on the main switch board. That the steam heater or electrical heater in the emergency diesel room is switched on.

C

No. 1544

>

When you make a visit to the emergency diesel generator during your engine room watch, what should you look out for?

Option is correct. The time of the black-out = TIME ZERO, the diesel starts and will be running at normal operational speed with its generator producing voltage and frequency as required after 5 to 8 seconds. TIME ZERO + 7

The best way of testing the "stand-by" function of the emergency diesel alternator is by ..............................

A

switching on the 'test run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

B

starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies.

C

causing a total black-out on the ship, for example in drydock or when time is available in port.

D

by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.

Option is correct. By switching off the supply breaker to the emergency switch board a BLACK OUT is simulated and the sensing systems for the diesel and alternator are tested. Likewise you stop the diesel by

No. 1546

>

A

110 Amps.

B

105 Amps.

C

100 Amps.

D

95 Amps.

No. 1547

>

Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminated form?

A

For ease of manufacture.

B

Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents.

C

Prevent distortion due to temperature variation.

D

Makes adjustment of stator weight easier.

No. 1548

>

In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5 Amps. What is the load current of the generator?

Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?

A

Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor.

B

Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor.

C

Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.

D

All of these options.

No. 1549

>

A

The overload trip.

B

The short circuit protection.

C

The reverse current trip.

D

The high/low frequency trip.

No. 1550

>

What is the purpose of the preference load tripping system?

A

Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage.

B

Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout.

C

To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.

D

To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine.

No. 1551

>

If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip will operate?

In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again?

A

Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80º C and change bearings.

B

Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

C

Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.

D

Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

No. 1552

>

A

Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST.

B

Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.

C

Change the capacitor connection to another line.

D

Reverse the polarity of the armature.

No. 1553

>

In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance?

A

90% - 110%.

B

85% - 120%.

C

75% - 125%.

D

70% - 130%.

No. 1554

>

How is the direction of a three-phase induction motor reversed?

Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the phase voltage?

A

440 Volt.

B

220 Volt.

C

254.33 Volt.

D

311.13 Volt.

No. 1555

>

A

By carrying out a Megger test.

B

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test).

C

By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter).

D

By carrying out a Phase balance test.

No. 1556

>

What determines the speed in a squirrel cage AC motor?

A

The supply current and Voltage.

B

The supply current cycles/second.

C

The number of poles built into the motor.

D

The supply current cycles/second and the number of poles built into the motor.

No. 1557

>

How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?

The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What is the phase current?

A

28.0 Amps.

B

22.72 Amps.

C

16.18 Amps.

D

48.44 Amps.

No. 1558

>

A

Switchboard breaker.

B

Commutator and brushes.

C

Bearings.

D

Main field windings.

No. 1559

>

How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates?

A

1 - 3 seconds.

B

3 - 5 seconds.

C

5 - 7 seconds.

D

7 - 8 seconds.

No. 1560

>

Which area of the DC generator requires the most maintenance?

Where is a generator's Reverse Power protection relay fitted?

A

Between the breaker connecting bars.

B

Between the breaker and the consumers.

C

Between the generator and the consumers.

D

Between the generator and the bus bars.

No. 1561

>

A

A tripped bus circuit breaker.

B

Excessive prime mover speed.

C

Failure of the exciter generator.

D

The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated.

No. 1562

>

How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase alternator?

A

Two.

B

Four.

C

Three.

D

Six.

No. 1563

>

The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:

What is required to generate 50Hertz using a slow speed prime mover?

A

Greater excitation current.

B

Reduced number of poles.

C

Increased number of poles.

D

Gearbox to increase the generator speed.

No. 1564

>

A

Current overload.

B

Wrong types of brushes.

C

The strength of the field.

D

Any of the other options.

No. 1565

>

What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator?

A

Hot after stopping.

B

Cooled down to hand-warm.

C

Cooled down to ambient temperature.

D

Running.

No. 1566

>

What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor?

When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected?

A

Increases to max.

B

Falls to zero.

C

Remains constant.

D

Drops slightly.

No. 1567

>

A

The speed of the alternator.

B

The output current of the alternator.

C

The output voltage of the alternator.

D

The output voltage and the output current of the alternator.

No. 1568

>

What determines the output voltage of an AC alternator?

A

Number of poles.

B

Strength of magnetic field.

C

RPM of the prime mover.

D

Number of rotor windings.

No. 1569

>

The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to what?

What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or alternator?

A

Hot after stopping.

B

Cooled down to hand-warm.

C

Cooled down to ambient temperature.

D

Running.

No. 1570

>

A

Automatic voltage regulator.

B

Automatic voltage regulator & flywheel.

C

Flywheel & governor.

D

Governor & automatic voltage regulator.

No. 1571

>

What units is the output of DC generators rated in?

A

KwA.

B

HP.

C

KVA.

D

KW.

No. 1572

>

With large load change what maintains steady voltage?

When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor?

A

When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature.

B

When the motor has cooled down after use.

C

When the motor has been warmed up 5ºC above normal operating temperature.

D

When the motor has been carefully cleaned.

No. 1573

>

A

Both generators are running at synchronous speed.

B

The cycles are the same on the bus bars and incoming generator.

C

Voltage is the same on both generators.

D

The incoming generator is running faster than the generator on load.

No. 1574

>

What is the main disadvantage with main shaft driven alternators?

A

Limited power output.

B

Engine speed variation.

C

Only available at sea.

D

Low speed limits voltage output.

No. 1575

>

When synchronising a generator what does clockwise movement of the synchronising dial indicate?

What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC motors?

A

Star-Delta motor starter.

B

Auto transformer.

C

Line resistance starter.

D

Any of these options.

No. 1576

>

A

To enable the same size generator to carry more load.

B

To prevent shaft magnetism.

C

To counter field distortion.

D

To prevent burning of the brushes.

No. 1577

>

In an alternator what effect does increasing the excitation have?

A

Increases the voltage produced in the conductor.

B

Increases the cycles/second of the current.

C

Increases the amperage produced.

D

Decreases the voltage produced.

No. 1578

>

Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators?

In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again?

A

Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80ºC and change bearings.

B

Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

C

Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.

D

Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

No. 1579

>

A

It will run faster and be overloaded.

B

It will run slower and at too high a voltage.

C

It will run faster and overspeed.

D

It will run slower with too high a current.

No. 1580

>

In an alternator, what controls the generated Voltage?

A

Generator speed.

B

Number of poles.

C

Excitation current.

D

Size of the stator windings.

No. 1581

>

What is the result if a motor runs at a frequency higher than its designed operating frequency?

An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "?

A

120 Amps.

B

175 Amps.

C

235 Amps.

D

350 Amps.

No. 1582

>

A

Voltage variation.

B

Inability of the generator to carry full load.

C

Arcing at the brushes.

D

Breakdown of the mica insulation.

No. 1583

>

A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?

A

0 Amps.

B

2400 Amps.

C

240 Amps.

D

20 Amps.

No. 1584

>

In DC generators what effect can be caused by 'armature reaction'?

What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motor windings?

A

Prevent over-speeding.

B

Protect from overheating.

C

Short circuit protection.

D

Prevent high starting current.

No. 1585

>

A

Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the surface is bright and burnished copper.

B

Change the brushes.

C

Change the brush springs.

D

None, this is hoe it should appear.

No. 1586

>

What determines cycles per second in an AC alternator?

A

The generator speed.

B

The number of poles.

C

The number of conductors.

D

The generator speed and number of poles.

No. 1587

>

The commutator of a DC generator is examined and is found to have a smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take?

The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200 kVAR. What is the Power Factor?

A

0.766

B

0.799

C

0.832

D

0.864

No. 1588

>

A

Galley.

B

General Service pump.

C

Steering pumps.

D

Seawater circulating pumps.

No. 1589

>

What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars?

A

No volt trip.

B

Low cycle trip.

C

Reverse power trip.

D

Overload trip.

No. 1590

>

What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential trip?

Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test?

A

Megger test each phase separately to earth.

B

Megger test each phase to phase separately.

C

Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase.

D

All of these options.

No. 1591

>

A

By lowering the generator frequency.

B

By raising the generator frequency.

C

By raising the alternator voltage.

D

By lowering the alternator voltage.

No. 1592

>

How would you test the insulation on an AC motor?

A

By carrying out a Megger test.

B

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test).

C

By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter).

D

By carrying out a Phase balance test.

No. 1593

>

How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working?

What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC motor?

A

Copper embedded in the brushes.

B

Copper drag on the commutator.

C

High mica segments.

D

Brushes improperly positioned.

No. 1594

>

A

At the rated current.

B

At 5-15% over the rated current.

C

At 33-50% of the rated current.

D

At 100% of the rated current.

No. 1595

>

In a DC generator, where is the current generated?

A

In the armature windings.

B

In the field windings.

C

In the commutator.

D

In the shunt windings.

No. 1596

>

What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor?

For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usually set?

A

125 %

B

120 %

C

115%

D

110 %

No. 1597

>

A

73.32 Amps.

B

127 Amps.

C

153.52 Amps.

D

219.97 Amps.

No. 1598

>

If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm?

A

15 metres.

B

20 metres.

C

25 metres.

D

30 metres.

No. 1599

>

The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current?

How is the power output of an alternator controlled?

A

By the alternator speed.

B

By the excitation current in the rotor.

C

By the excitation current in the stator.

D

By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.

No. 1600

>

A

Generated from within the rotor.

B

Via a commutator and brushes.

C

Via slip rings and brushes.

D

Via the tacho generator.

No. 1601

>

How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current?

A

2 - 3 times.

B

5 - 7 times.

C

3 - 5 times.

D

7 - 9 times.

No. 1602

>

How is the excitation current transmitted to the rotor?

If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker?

A

The overload trip.

B

The reverse current trip.

C

The under voltage trip.

D

The high/low frequency trip.

No. 1603

>

A

The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.

B

The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip.

C

No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.

D

The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload.

No. 1604

>

How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting direct on-line?

A

2 to 3 times.

B

5 to 7 times.

C

9 to 12 times.

D

12 to 15 times.

No. 1605

>

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system?

What units measure counter electromotive force or back EMF?

A

Volts.

B

Ohms.

C

Ampere.

D

Farads.

No. 1606

>

A

The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage.

B

The line current is equal to the phase current.

C

The phase voltage is higher than the line voltage.

D

The phase current is higher than the line current.

No. 1607

>

Which of the following groups of motors are all DC motors?

A

Series and induction.

B

Synchronous and compound.

C

Induction and synchronous.

D

Shunt, series and compound.

No. 1608

>

Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor?

When a DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current?

A

There is no limit.

B

The generator's internal resistance (ER).

C

When the cables start melting.

D

The mechanical size of the switch.

No. 1609

>

A

The motor will stop.

B

The motor will over speed and run out of control.

C

The motor will slow down.

D

The motor will continue to run at its original speed.

No. 1610

>

In a 'shunt' DC motor how are the pole windings connected?

A

In series with the armature.

B

In parallel with the armature.

C

Both parallel and in series.

D

Separately from the armature output.

No. 1611

>

A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if the belt breaks?

In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature currents?

A

Series connected.

B

Shunt connected.

C

No connection.

D

Parallel connection.

No. 1612

>

A

To store extra water.

B

To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.

C

To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.

D

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

No. 1613

>

What is the purpose of the expansion tank ?

Re-conditioning part 4 and part 7 of this valve using carborundum paste is called .........?

A

burnishing.

B

re-packing.

C

finishing.

D

grinding.

P70902a.BMP

Piping2a.BMP

Valve seat and valve cone are lapped in order to ensure tightness.

No. 1614

>

If the valve wheel (5) is moving very freely, but you suspect that the valve is neither opening nor closing, what are you going to check first ?

A

Remove the complete valve assembly for overhaul.

B

Open gear box (4) and check if the sheer pin is broken.

C

Open gear box (4) and check if the valve is greased.

D

Open the valve wheel spindle and check that it is not broken.

Piping8a.BMP

If the valve wheel is moving very freely but it is evident that the butterfly valve does not move with it, check first the sheer pins of the worm wheel.

No. 1615

>

Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given ?

A

On the spring tension of spring "S".

B

On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection "Y".

C

On the distance the command rod "C" moves point "X".

D

On the hydraulic pressure setting of the valves "PR".

Steer1a.BMP

Depending on the command from the bridge is the telemotor moving command rod C and thus point X over a GIVEN DISTANCE DEPENDING THAT COMMAND. (Change in rudder angle on the bridge, Port 10, port 20, Starboard No. 1616

>

What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?

A

An integrator assembly.

B

A differentiator assembly.

C

An amplifier.

D

A nozzle/flapper assembly.

Pneucn1a.BMP

This is a nozzle/flapper assembly

No. 1617

>

By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly controlled ?

A

By spring tension in S.

B

By the stand of the valves V and B.

C

By the restriction R.

D

By slight fluctuation of supply pressure.

Pneucn3a.BMP

Depending the stand of valves V and B linked to one another shall either the supply pressure be more admitted or else the venting off to the atmosphere be more affected. Depending of the force of the Nozzle Back Pressure acting

No. 1618

>

What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?

A

It will not have any effect.

B

It would increase the output pressure Pu.

C

It would decrease the output pressure Pu.

D

It will destabilise the amplifier.

Pneucn3a.BMP

It would increase the pressure for the ball valve would be pushed more open for a given membrane pressure. Today's spring materials (feather spring/blade springs) are of very high quality and guaranteed to last. No. 1619

>

Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic transmitter ?

A

Air passage 12.

B

Air passage 13.

C

Air passage 14.

D

Air passage 15.

Pneucn5a.BMP

Air venting or exhaust valve item 7 gives out to the air vent or exhaust passage item 15

No. 1620

>

For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A

To adjust the valve stem distance.

B

To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially.

C

To control the nozzle back pressure.

D

To control the rate of amplification response.

Pneucn6a.BMP

This screw adjusts the tension of the spring plates and is initially to be adjusted to obtain correct output pressure.

No. 1621

>

Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is removed. Where is this filter fitted ?

A

In front of the nozzle item No 2.

B

In the main supply line to each individual instrument.

C

In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4.

D

In air connecting line, plug No 5.

Pneucn7a.BMP

A filter plug is fitted in the base of the amplifier unit. This is a filter plug which is easily to be removed by screwdriver and cleaned. No. 1622

>

What important periodical maintenance checks are required on nozzle/flapper assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?

A

Redrilling of the nozzle.

B

Exchange of nozzle and flapper.

C

Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper.

D

Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper.

Pneucn8a.BMP

The nozzle and flapper assemble must be thoroughly cleaned and any deposit removed, this includes the drilled air passage of the nozzle No. 1623

>

What is the correct name of item No. 2 shown here ?

A

Restrictor nozzle.

B

Flapper nozzle.

C

Filter plug.

D

Connecting plug.

Pneucn8a.BMP

This is a standard connecting plug for the pneumatic control equipment component pipe connections. ?

No. 1624

>

Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Sv (set value or desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?

A

Between 0 and 20 psi.

B

Between 2 and 2.75 psi.

C

Between 3 and 15 psi.

D

Between 0 and 15 psi.

Pneuc14a.BMP

The same pressure can be set on the Sv bellow as is obtained in the Mv bellow which receives its input from the amplifier of the pneumatic transmitter. This pressure is between 3 to 15 psi No. 1625

>

Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier. What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ?

A

Resistor R1.

B

Resistor R2.

C

Voltage U1.

D

Voltage U2.

Pneuc17a.BMP

Resistor R1 takes the place of the air restrictor used by the pneumatic unit.

No. 1626

>

What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A

Resistance R1.

B

Resistance R2.

C

Voltage U1.

D

Voltage U2.

Pneuc17a.BMP

Supply voltage is U1

No. 1627

>

What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A

Resistor R1.

B

Resistor R2.

C

Voltage U1.

D

Voltage U2.

Pneuc17a.BMP

Voltage U2 is the output voltage which takes the place of the output pressure, and is variable as function of the resistor R2 which takes the place of the nozzle/flapper unit. No. 1628

>

What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the top articulated line shown here)

A

A process line.

B

A steering line.

C

A measuring line.

D

An instrument line.

Comcon1a.BMP

An articulated line (a thick line) indicates part of the process that is being controlled or measured, such as the fuel oil system ,the jacket cooling water system, the compressed air system etc, or any PROCESS that is being controlled or No. 1629

>

What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the second line from top shown here)

A

An instrument line.

B

A pneumatic line.

C

A steering line.

D

A measuring line.

Comcon1a.BMP

The broken lines indicate STEERING lines in the drawing. Steering lines are pneumatic lines with steering pressure between 3 and 15 psi or else electric lines with steering currents between 0 and 20 or 4 and 20 mA.

No. 1630

>

What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic drawing ? (the third line from top shown here)

A

An electric steering line.

B

A pneumatic steering line.

C

A measuring line.

D

An instrument line.

Comcon1a.BMP

This is the symbol of a MEASURING LINE. The measuring line is tapped from the process line and on this line is an instrument fitted that has a MEASURING FUNCTION , such as a pressure indicator, pressure controller, level transmitter, No. 1631

>

What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle) indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?

A

An instrument.

B

A transmitter.

C

An indicator.

D

A controller.

Comcon1a.BMP

It indicates that an instrument is fitted at a specific location but it does not specify the working function nor the measuring function of this instrument (circle is blank) No. 1632

>

What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a horizontal line through it) of the drawing indicated an automation schematic diagram ?

A

A pneumatic instrument.

B

An electronic instrument.

C

An instrument fitted in a central panel.

D

An instrument fitted in the main control console.

Comcon1a.BMP

This indicates an instrument fitted in a central panel where more instruments or equipment are placed together. (not necessary in the main control console)

No. 1633

>

What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing ?

A

First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function.

B

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling.

C

First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering.

D

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function.

Comcon1a.BMP

The first letter indicates the MEASURING FUNCTION of the instrument These are: P = pressure, T = temperature, L = level , F = flow. The second letter indicates the WORKING FUNCTION. These are: T = transmitting, C = controlling, I = No. 1634

>

As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ?

A

A thermometer.

B

A manometer.

C

A temperature controller.

D

A temperature transmitter.

Comcon2a.BMP

The first letter shows as measuring function T= temperature, the second letter shows as working function I = indicating. A temperature indicator is fitted, of which structure is unimportant, as long as the temperature can be read on this No. 1635

>

As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ?

A

A line capacitor.

B

A level controller.

C

A Low Pressure cut-out.

D

A limit control switch.

Comcon2a.BMP

The first letter indicating the Measuring function indicates L = level, the second letter indicating the working function indicates C= controlling. The instrument is a level controller.

No. 1636

>

What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ?

A

An electric motor driven control valve.

B

A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close.

C

A pneumatic control valve, air to close.

D

An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open.

Comcon2a.BMP

This valve symbol indicates a pneumatic control valve, air pressure to close.

No. 1637

>

What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System are shown here ?

A

Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve.

B

Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.

C

Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve.

D

Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve.

Comcon3a.BMP

The control system consists out of a temperature transmitter TT, with steering line to the temperature controller TC which steers a pneumatic control by pass valve, air pressure to close No. 1638

>

The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass valves are ................

A

electronic controlled valves working in tandem.

B

electronic controlled valves working in opposition.

C

pneumatic controlled valves working in opposition.

D

pneumatic controlled valves working in reverse.

Comcon4a.BMP

They are pneumatic controlled valves working in OPPOSITION. The valve stand is opposite by same signal from the controller LC. One valve is air to open, the other is air to close. When one valve is open shall the other be

No. 1639

>

This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is called the ..................

A

measured value.

B

proportional point.

C

set point.

D

set level.

Circts1a.BMP

The desired value which we wish to obtain for any level, temperature, pressure or flow is called the SET POINT. The function of the controller is to maintain this set point or a value close to the set point. No. 1640

>

Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float is pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the .....................

A

actual value.

B

increased value.

C

level value.

D

measured value.

Circts1a.BMP

The actual value obtained of a flow, temperature, pressure or level and which is sensed and transmitted (in this case by the float) is the MEASURED VALUE No. 1641

>

The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level L') is called .......................

A

the measuring fault.

B

the differential value.

C

the offset.

D

the inclination.

Circts1a.BMP

The desired value is the SET POINT. A variation obtained in the control process identical to this process (the level has first to increase before the float opens valve 2 in order to lower the level) so that the actual MEASURED value is

No. 1642

>

In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ..................

A

the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor.

B

the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.

C

the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.

D

the current increases over time.

Dcon1a.BMP

In a pneumatic integrator fills the bellow up over a restricting valve, in an electrical integrating circuit does a capacitor load up over a resistance No. 1643

>

Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills up with air ?

A

They have both the same function.

B

They perform opposite functions.

C

The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator.

D

The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator.

Icon1a.BMP

They have the same function and the same formula's are applicable for both bellow and capacitor. The current or air flow is i = delta Q/ dt and i = C delta U / dt. I = dQ/dt, I = C x U d/dt d/dt = The OPERATOR = P, or I = C x U x P, U/I No. 1644

>

The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a ................

A

nozzle system.

B

capillary tube.

C

oriface plate.

D

a right-angled nozzle system.

Flwmet1a.BMP

The differential pressure transmitter is fitted over a MEASURING FLANGE. This is a flange with calibrated opening, so that by a certain flow velocity the corresponding pressure drop is known.

No. 1645

>

To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic temperature transmitter fitted ?

A

Channel 10.

B

Bellow 8.

C

Channel 5.

D

Channel 8.

Eltran4a.BMP

The nitrogen filled bellow is indicated to enter the channel under ITEM 3 and acts on the Thermal Bellow item 2.

No. 1646

>

What is item No. 1 of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ?

A

The pneumatic amplifier.

B

The compensator.

C

The equaliser block.

D

The range control setting.

Eltran4a.BMP

This is the pneumatic amplifier.

No. 1647

>

Which is the filter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?

A

Item No 1.

B

Item No 2.

C

Item No 3.

D

Item No 4.

Pneuc10a.BMP

The filter is inserted by a screw type fastening in the back of the amplifier plate.

No. 1648

>

On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?

A

Part No. 1.

B

Part No. 2.

C

Part No. 3.

D

Part No. 4.

Pneuc10a.BMP

Part 4 is the pneumatic amplifier

No. 1649

>

What is part No. 11 on this transmitter drawing ?

A

The transmitter bellow.

B

The feedback bellow.

C

The balance arm tensioner.

D

The regulating bellow.

Trnsmt1a.BMP

It is the feedback bellow. The amplifier output acts on this bellow and brings the balancing arm in equilibrium

No. 1650

>

Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?

A

Part No. 7.

B

Part No. 8.

C

Part No. 9.

D

Part No. 10.

Trnsmt1a.BMP

Part no 10 is the proportional band adjusting screw against which the balancing arm is pivoting. The proportional force of the feedback bellow is set by turning this adjusting screw up or down

No. 1651

>

On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process (steam, oil, water) act ?

A

Item No. 1.

B

Item No. 2.

C

Item No. 3.

D

Item No. 4.

Trnsmt1a.BMP

Item no 2 is the diaphragm, large in diameter so that the force (kg/cm2) is accurately brought over to the balance arm. The balance arm is connected on one end to this measuring diaphragma. No. 1652

>

The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning ................

A

part No 10.

B

part No 11.

C

part No 9.

D

part No 15.

Trnsmt1a.BMP

Part No 10 is the adjusting wheel tensioning the span.

No. 1653

>

Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ?

A

In the Engine Control Room.

B

In the Boiler Control Panel.

C

In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel.

D

Near the fuel, lubricating oil or water piping.

Eltran3a.BMP

This temperature transmitter has a short capillary measuring tube and is fitted near the process of which the temperature is to be measured which may be fuel , oil or water temperature. It is never fitted in a remote place

No. 1654

>

How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ?

A

By item No. 1.

B

By item No. 2.

C

By item No. 3.

D

By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3.

Eltran3a.BMP

By adjusting the tension of the spring by zero-set screw item no 1. (Item no 2 is the RANGE adjustment, item no 3 is the compensation bellow) No. 1655

>

How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?

A

With item No. 1.

B

With item No. 2.

C

With item No. 3.

D

With items 1, 2 and 3.

Eltran3a.BMP

The range of this temperature transmitter is calibrated by the range adjustment item no 2. (Item no 1 is the zero setting and item no 3 is the compensation bellow) No. 1656

>

This is a ...................

A

temperature compensation system.

B

Wheatstone bridge.

C

rectifier bridge.

D

temperature calibration system.

Tmeas3a.BMP

This is a Wheatstone Bridge. The resistance box with 10000 and 4000 Ohm resistances in series with the Galvanometer are fitted in order not to damage the galvanometer.

No. 1657

>

A

the current is calibrated by a compensation system.

B

between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.

C

thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated for.

D

minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated for by a regulator/compensator.

No. 1658

>

Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have as characteristics that ....................

Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or hydraulically operated. What kind of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it used ?

A

Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required.

B

Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required.

C

Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required.

D

Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.

Thrmoc2a.BMP

Option is correct and no thermocouple exists on points C or D. The thermocouples that exist on points E and F are measured and compensated by a regulator/compensator. Conval1a.BMP

This valve actuator is controlled by its sliding controller and it is part of a hydraulic system. Hydraulic control of valves is practiced when a big force or torque is required. No. 1659

>

The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .................. type valves.

A

flat shaped.

B

stop flow.

C

linear.

D

equi-percentage.

Conval2a.BMP

Equi-percentage valves are used in processes where the liquid pressure before and after the valve is variable and the valve has exponential characteristics ensuring small corrections for small flows and big corrections for big flows. It

No. 1660

>

The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted will be ..............

A

air to open (bottom connection).

B

air to close (top connection).

C

pressure to open (positive manometer reading).

D

vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).

Conval4a.BMP

The spring pushes the valve close. By increasing air pressure (above 3 psi) shall the valve open and will be fully open by 15 psi pressure. The function of the valve is " Air to Open" No. 1661

>

This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two valve motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working ranges. This is called ................... control.

A

feedback.

B

diverted.

C

split range.

D

separated range.

Valpos2a.BMP

This system is called split range control (the 3 to 9 psi band is used for the steam heating, the 9-15 psi band is used for cooling) Ay 9 psi is neither cooling nor heating supplied and is the temperature exactly 70 degree C. No. 1662

>

The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of part........(..............) is to be in balance with the force of the controller pressure which acts on part........... (.............).

A

4 (relays), 12 (membrane)

B

9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)

C

12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)

D

9 (spring), 18 (membrane)

Valpos3a.BMP

Option is correct, follow drawing.

No. 1663

>

Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?

A

Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure.

B

Because of the variation on the output pressure.

C

Because of the variation of the output capacity.

D

Because of the characteristic of the spring.

Reduce1a.BMP

The membrane movement (and spring compression ) is according to variation of input pressure as well. Therefore follows the output pressure variation the input pressure variation. No. 1664

>

A pressure reducing valve works according to the principle of balance of forces, in this case the force P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of the ...................

A

inlet pressure P1.

B

the ball valve spring.

C

the ball valve.

D

the membrane spring.

Reduce2a.BMP

Study drawing and you'll come to conclusion.

No. 1665

>

This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?

A

The LSU's.

B

The LAD's.

C

The CPU.

D

The MAD.

Autocn1a.BMP

The CPU is the Central Processing Unit on which the DD or the Digital Display is fitted. This central processing unit requests constantly information from the LSU's or Local Scanning Units and compares it with the set value. If a

No. 1666

>

Which part of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from instruments and transducers ?

A

The LSU's.

B

The CPU.

C

The MAD.

D

The TWM.

Autocn1a.BMP

The LSU's or Local Scanning Units receive the SIGNALS from the instruments and transducers of 20 to 40 measuring points and feeds this info to the CPU as requested. No. 1667

>

If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will .....................

A

activate the MAD (main Alarm Display) and Visible and Audible alarms will be activated.

B

activate the LAD in operation and its visible and audible alarm will set off.

C

activate the TWM (Type Writer Monitor) and print out the obtained error value, measuring point number and time.

D

activates all of these.

Autocn1a.BMP

All activities as per option A, B and C will be initiated by the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Option D is correct.

No. 1668

>

The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow, level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?

A

A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV.

B

A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog tranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi.

C

A digital transducer works on AC voltage.

D

A Digital Transducer gives a direct " on " or " off " signal and involve logic transducers.

Autocn2a.BMP

Option is correct. In case of this scanner they give a 0 - 5 Volt ON or OFF signal. It are LOGIC TRANSDUCERS.

No. 1669

>

The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest analysis. This is called ..................

A

wear down and breakdown prediction.

B

material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.

C

trend analysis and maintenance prediction.

D

wear down and maintenance scheduling.

Autocn3a.BMP

In order to make a plan for future maintenance do we need to determine the expected future condition development. This is done by TREND ANALYSIS carried out by the computer when all data are fed and compared with previous No. 1670

>

If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate this fault is by .......................

A

calling the electrician.

B

checking the fuses.

C

checking the input voltage.

D

checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.

Fltfd1a.BMP

You are to consult the Trouble Shooting Chart if available for this type of problem. For automated systems detailed trouble shooting charts are available. The trouble shooting chart of this AC Power Supply Schema is given by drawing No. 1671

>

On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the range ?

A

With item No. 1.

B

With item No. 2.

C

With item No. 5.

D

With item No. 7.

Eltran2a.BMP

Screw adjustment of item no 7 at the end of the range lever bar is used for this adjustment

No. 1672

>

How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure transmitter?

A

By item No. 1.

B

By item No. 2.

C

By item No. 5.

D

By item No. 7.

Eltran2a.BMP

The zero setting spring/screw is located at the end (lower part) of the range lever and which sets the original distance of the lamelled core from the magnet and thus the original magnetic field. No. 1673

>

hich important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning hydraulic tools to ensure their continuous safe use ?

A

Renew the hydraulic oil after every use.

B

Replace the O-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularly after frequent use.

C

Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals or in the oil.

D

Clean the hydraulic filter.

Diesel9a.BMP

The O-rings give way after frequented use and should be replaced at regular intervals. Someone needs to take care of the maintenance and upkeep of this stressing tool. Do not find out in an emergency that the stressing tool is No. 1674

>

In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is controlled is called:

A

the control plant station (CPS).

B

the power plant station control station (PPCS).

C

the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).

D

the engineering control room (ECR). The COMS consists of the remote operations control system , the central machine monitoring system and the central alarm monitoring system. These can be very basic automated and remote control systems or otherwise

No. 1675

>

A

the demand display unit.

B

the comparing unit.

C

the scanning unit.

D

the loop back system.

No. 1676

>

In automation, RTD & CV stands for:

A

return time delay.

B

resistance temperature drop & control event.

C

resistance temperature detector and control valve.

D

None of these.

No. 1677

>

The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature, pressure etc. is called:

Zinc rods in a refrigeration system are found in the ..........

A

compressor crankcase.

B

salt water side of the condenser.

C

gas side of the condenser.

D

evaporator.

No. 1678

What is part No. 1 ?

A

The Pressure knob.

B

The Differentiator.

C

The Measuring scale.

D

The Adjusting knob.

No. 1679

What is Part No. 5 ?

>

>

A

The Spring holder.

B

The Pressure adjuster.

C

The Pressure bearing.

D

The Differential adjusting nut.

No. 1680

>

P381ABCD.BMP

P381ABCD.BMP

A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of ................. type output signals ?

A

binary

B

impulse

C

analog

D

digital Option is correct. They generate ON or OFF signals or 0 - 1 signals.

No. 1681

>

A

flow.

B

temperature.

C

pressure.

D

length.

No. 1682

>

What is a normal front clearance angle when cylindrical turning?

A

0-3°

B

3-5°

C

5-7°

D

7-10°

No. 1683

>

Bimetallic strips can be used in the measurement of ................

What is the sensing device in a pressure gauge using the Bourdon Principle?

A

Diaphragm.

B

Metal tube.

C

Corrugated cylinder.

D

Differential pressure cell.

No. 1684

>

A

From the front of the tool.

B

From the angle apex of the tool.

C

From the leading edge of the tool.

D

Tool rake should not be used.

No. 1685

>

On a centre lathe how is the work piece secured to the faceplate?

A

Tee bolts into the faceplate and dogs.

B

Adjustable jaws.

C

Bolts screwed into the faceplate.

D

Centre bolt and securing plate.

No. 1686

>

When thread cutting on the centre lathe where is the top rake tool angle?

What cross section is the front saddleway on a centre lathe?

A

Flat.

B

Stepped.

C

'V' shape.

D

Inverted 'V' shape.

No. 1687

>

A

To the clapper box.

B

To the ram vertical head.

C

To the head slide.

D

To the back block.

No. 1688

>

What is the usual method of checking the tool height on a centre lathe?

A

Using a rule from the bedplate.

B

By eye against the work piece.

C

Against the tailstock centre.

D

Against a mark on the chuck.

No. 1689

>

On a shaping machine where is the tool post fitted?

On a centre lathe how can the chuck jaws be prevented from damaging the work piece?

A

Using softer strips under the jaw grippers.

B

Wrapping the work piece with protective tape.

C

Using a sleeve over the work piece.

D

Using special soft jaws.

No. 1690

>

A

Cutting speed increased.

B

Cutting speed decreased.

C

Feed rate increased.

D

Feed rate decreased.

No. 1691

>

What does the indexing dial indicate on a centre lathe?

A

Position of the cross slide.

B

Position of saddle/lead screw.

C

Speed of the lead screw.

D

Pitch of thread being cut.

No. 1692

>

What change is made for finish turning in a centre lathe?

When using a milling machine to reduce the thickness of a parallel key how is the material marked?

A

Using a special fine, indelible marker.

B

Using a scribed line on a chalked surface.

C

Using a scribed line and centre punch marks.

D

Using Engineer's blue.

No. 1693

>

A

Ram lead screw.

B

Table vertical slide.

C

Head slide.

D

Table cross slide.

No. 1694

>

Why would the stroke length be adjusted on a shaping machine?

A

This is not necessary.

B

To increase the feed rate.

C

To accommodate varying lengths of work piece.

D

To alter cutting speed.

No. 1695

>

What provides auto feed on a shaping machine?

Which machine tool would be used to cut an internal keyway in a gearwheel?

A

Vertical milling machine.

B

Horizontal milling machine.

C

Centre lathe.

D

Slotting machine.

No. 1696

>

A

To alter the cutting speed of the tool when facing.

B

To alter the cutting speed of the tool when cylindrical turning.

C

To alter the chuck speed.

D

To alter the feed rate of the saddle.

No. 1697

>

Which machine tool uses a magnetic bedplate?

A

Cylindrical grinder.

B

Surface grinder.

C

Horizontal milling machine.

D

Vertical milling machine.

No. 1698

>

Why is the speed of rotation of the lead screw adjustable on a centre lathe?

When using a centre lathe why should short sleeves or close fitting sleeves be worn?

A

To avoid sleeves being snagged on gear change levers.

B

To prevent sleeves being caught on the tool post.

C

To avoid displacing loose equipment on the lathe saddle.

D

To prevent sleeves being caught up on work piece or chuck.

No. 1699

>

A

Both are the same.

B

Different TPI but same thread angle.

C

Different thread angle but same TPI.

D

Different thread angle and TPI.

No. 1700

>

How is a parallel surface achieved on a shaping machine?

A

Bolting work piece straight to table.

B

Dial gauge against the head slide.

C

Dial gauge attached to the tool post.

D

Dial gauge attached to the work piece.

No. 1701

>

What is the difference between American pipe thread and BSP?

How could an internal keyway be cut on a centre lathe?

A

This is not possible.

B

Using a milling tool.

C

Drilling and finishing with a file.

D

Locking the chuck and using the main slide in hand

No. 1702

>

A

Provides better cutting angle.

B

Easier access to work piece.

C

Prevents tool from digging in.

D

Increases rake angle.

No. 1703

>

What is the normal test for leaking heat exchanger tubes?

A

Fluorescent dye and ultra violet lamp.

B

Hydrostatic test.

C

Air pressure test and soap solution.

D

Fluorescent dye and halogen lamp.

No. 1704

>

What is the advantage of the swan neck design of a shaping machine cutting tool?

What instrument uses a Venturi?

A

Pressure gauge.

B

Vacuum gauge.

C

Flow meter.

D

Differential pressure gauge.

No. 1705

>

A

Condition of tubes

B

Water box for corrosion

C

Zinc anodes

D

Tube plate for damage

No. 1706

>

What type of cutter would be used on a vertical milling machine?

A

End mill.

B

Toothed cutting wheel.

C

Shanked single point tool.

D

Profiled milling wheel.

No. 1707

>

What item must be regularly inspected in SW heat exchangers?

How is the cutting tool ground when thread cutting on the centre lathe?

A

With the cutting face at the thread angle.

B

With both faces at the thread angles.

C

With the cutting face at half the thread angle.

D

The tool matching the thread shape exactly.

No. 1708

>

A

40°

B

35°

C

25°

D

45°

No. 1709

>

How would a large flat area be cut on a vertical milling machine?

A

Using the largest available end mill.

B

Using repeated cuts across the work piece.

C

Using a 'fly cutter'.

D

Using repeated cuts along the work piece.

No. 1710

>

What top rake angle would be used for turning Aluminium in the centre lathe?

What is a normal front clearance angle when boring?

A

8°

B

10°

C

12°

D

Any of these options depending on internal diameter.

No. 1711

>

A

Shaft axial clearance.

B

Impeller diameter.

C

Impeller/wear ring clearance.

D

Neck bush/shaft clearance.

No. 1712

>

Why are there several tool positions on a centre lathe tool post?

A

To accommodate different tools for different jobs.

B

For use when thread cutting.

C

To provide a fresh tool when one wears.

D

To carry out more than one operation at a time.

No. 1713

>

What is the most important measurement to check when overhauling centrifugal pumps?

How is the work piece centred in a cantre lathe four-jaw chuck?

A

Using feeler gauges against the tool post.

B

By eye using the tool point.

C

Using a dial gauge against the work piece.

D

By measuring from the lathe bed.

No. 1714

>

A

Wear in the lead screw.

B

Wear in bearings and guides.

C

Wear in the cross screw.

D

Wear in the headstock gears.

No. 1715

>

Which machine tool would be used to machine large flat surfaces?

A

Horizontal milling machine.

B

Shaping machine.

C

Centre lathe.

D

Planing machine.

No. 1716

>

What accounts for most inaccuracies in older centre lathes?

On a centre lathe there is a drive shaft with keyway alongside the lead screw, what is its purpose?

A

Controlling the tool feed rate.

B

Thread cutting.

C

Auto feed operation of the cross slide screw.

D

Auto feed operation of the compound slide screw.

No. 1717

>

A

Gap in the bed at the headstock.

B

Gap in the bed at the tailstock.

C

Gap between the beds.

D

Gap in the cross slide bed.

No. 1718

>

Which component of a general service air compressor requires most maintenance?

A

Piston and rings.

B

Bearings.

C

Delivery valves.

D

Suction valves.

No. 1719

>

What is a gap bed lathe?

Which of these spanners is it preferable to use?

A

Adjustable.

B

Open Jaw.

C

Box.

D

Ring.

No. 1720

>

A

When carrying out boring operations.

B

When using a standard diameter material.

C

When parting off.

D

During drilling.

No. 1721

>

When boring on the centre lathe, what is the most usual cause of chatter?

A

Incorrect tool angles.

B

Lack of rigidity afforded by the boring bar.

C

Incorrect cutting speed.

D

Incorrect feed rate.

No. 1722

>

When would a collet chuck be used on a centre lathe?

Which machine tool would be used to machine the bore on a multi cylinder block?

A

Radial drilling machine.

B

Vertical boring machine.

C

Horizontal milling machine.

D

Horizontal boring machine.

No. 1723

>

A

Radial drilling machine.

B

Horizontal milling machine.

C

Centre lathe.

D

Horizontal boring machine.

No. 1724

>

How is the tool height adjusted on a centre lathe?

A

With the tool post securing screws.

B

By shimming under the tool.

C

Adjusting the saddle height.

D

Shimming under the tool post.

No. 1725

>

Which machine tool would be used to drill and tap the end of a shaft?

What is measured with a pyrometer?

A

Pressure

B

Engine RPM

C

Temperature

D

Salinity

No. 1726

>

A

Never.

B

For removing sharp edges.

C

To improve the finish.

D

Producing chamfers.

No. 1727

>

Which of the following could be carried out in the shaping machine?

A

External shaft keyway.

B

Internal keyway.

C

Reducing shaft diameters.

D

Cutting a 'T' slot.

No. 1728

>

When is it permissible to use a hand file on a lathe?

Which of these requires the lowest cutting speed?

A

Stainless steel

B

Low carbon steel

C

Aluminium

D

Brass

No. 1729

>

A

Cutting head.

B

Tool post.

C

Arbour.

D

Cutting shaft.

No. 1730

>

Vibration testing is an integral part of what type of maintenance?

A

Breakdown maintenance .

B

Planned maintenance.

C

Condition monitoring.

D

Intrinsic surveillance.

No. 1731

>

What is the name of the tool-mounting shaft on a horizontal milling machine?

How is the shaping machine head slide checked to be square to the table?

A

Dial gauge against the table.

B

Engineers square on the table.

C

Dial gauge against the head slide.

D

Dial gauge attached to the tool post.

No. 1732

>

A

By using a cutting fluid.

B

By using a very slow speed.

C

Using a slipping clutch chuck.

D

By advancing the tap very slowly.

No. 1733

>

When could a magnetic chuck be used on a centre lathe?

A

Never.

B

When facing.

C

When setting up the work piece.

D

When using the lathe for drilling.

No. 1734

>

When tapping holes on the radial drill, how is the tap prevented from breaking?

At what temperatures would a pyrometer be used?

A

In excess of 500°C.

B

In excess of 400°C.

C

In excess of 200°C.

D

In excess of 100°C.

No. 1735

>

A

Ease of replacing the tubes.

B

Allow for expansion of the tubes.

C

To simplify assembly.

D

Tubes can easily be repacked if leaking.

No. 1736

>

What is a Grub Screw used for?

A

Fastening flanges.

B

Securing split cams.

C

Securing components to a shaft.

D

Clamping machined parts.

No. 1737

>

Why is one tube end a packed gland in tube coolers?

How is the surface gauge secured to the bed of a centre lathe?

A

Bolted down.

B

Not secured.

C

Magnetic base.

D

Flat base to sit on the bed.

No. 1738

>

A

Morse taper.

B

Parallel shank and collet.

C

Left hand screw thread.

D

Adjustable jaws.

No. 1739

>

How is an angled face cut on the shaper?

A

Setting head angle.

B

Altering stroke position.

C

Setting tool angle.

D

Setting table angle.

No. 1740

>

How is an end mill secured in the chuck?

On the centre lathe what is a collet chuck most suitable for?

A

Gripping large diameters.

B

Gripping uneven surfaces.

C

Gripping non-symmetrical work pieces.

D

Gripping small diameters.

No. 1741

>

A

33°

B

36°

C

24°

D

27°

No. 1742

>

When using a straight tool on the shaping machine what effect does tool deflection have?

A

No effect.

B

Decreases cut depth.

C

Decreases tool clearance angle.

D

Increases depth of cut.

No. 1743

>

What top rake angle would be used for turning Mild steel?

What adjusts the stroke length on a shaping machine?

A

Locking handle.

B

Ram lead screw.

C

Block slide.

D

Table slide.

No. 1744

>

A

When carrying out facing operations.

B

When boring an irregular shaped work piece.

C

Cylindrical turning an irregular shaped work piece.

D

Carrying out most operations on an irregular shaped work piece.

No. 1745

>

Which of the following would a simple dividing head be used for when using a milling machine?

A

Cutting a gear wheel.

B

Cutting threads.

C

Cutting a single keyway.

D

Cutting a flat on a shaft.

No. 1746

>

When would a faceplate be used on a centre lathe?

What is the most suitable tool for machining cast iron?

A

Carbon steel.

B

High-speed steel.

C

Ceramic tip tool.

D

Carbide tip tool.

No. 1747

>

A

When turning a long work piece.

B

When taking large roughing cuts.

C

When turning a long taper with the tailstock offset.

D

When a fine finish is required.

No. 1748

>

Which of these is NOT a positive locking device?

A

Spring washer.

B

Castellated nut and split pin.

C

Tab washer.

D

Locking wire.

No. 1749

>

On a centre lathe when must turning between centres be employed?

When change gears are fitted to the back of the centre lathe headstock what are these for?

A

Changing the chuck speed.

B

Changing the tool feed rate.

C

When thread cutting.

D

Change the speed of the lead screw.

No. 1750

>

A

Cylindrical grinding machine.

B

Vertical boring machine.

C

Radial drilling machine.

D

Vertical milling machine.

No. 1751

>

Which machine would be used to cut a blind keyway in a shaft?

A

Vertical milling machine.

B

Horizontal milling machine.

C

Centre lathe.

D

Shaping machine.

No. 1752

>

Which machine tool would be used to finish machine crankpins?

Which is the correct method for removing intact engineers studs?

A

Stud box.

B

Drill and use stud remover.

C

Pipe wrench.

D

Self grip wrench.

No. 1753

>

A

143 teeth.

B

117 teeth.

C

127 teeth.

D

254 teeth.

No. 1754

>

What is meant by a 6" Centre Lathe?

A

6" between centres.

B

6" diameter chuck.

C

6" swing for the work piece.

D

6" from bed to centre.

No. 1755

>

If cutting a mm thread on a non-metric centre lathe what gear wheel is required?

What is the purpose of the clapper box on a shaping machine?

A

To relieve the tool cutting edge on the return stroke.

B

To securely hold the tool.

C

To adjust tool position.

D

To angle tool position.

No. 1756

>

A

Horizontal milling machine.

B

Vertical milling machine.

C

Vertical boring machine.

D

Centre lathe.

No. 1757

>

What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?

A

Solid copper joints.

B

General purpose asbestos joints.

C

Wire reinforced asbestos joints.

D

Preformed neoprene joints

No. 1758

>

Which machine tool would be used to cut straight gears?

If a leak is suspected in a tube heat exchanger what should be checked first?

A

Tube plates for cracking.

B

Tightness of packed tube end.

C

Tubes for damage.

D

Fixed tube end for security in tube plate.

No. 1759

>

A

Mount the work piece at an angle using horizontal arbour.

B

Using an end mill and setting the head at the appropriate angle.

C

Using an end mill with the work mounted at an angle.

D

Using a specially shaped cutter.

No. 1760

>

How is the radius put on thread crests?

A

Grinding the threading tool to the correct shape.

B

Using a hand-chasing tool.

C

Using a hand file.

D

Using a separate, correctly ground tool.

No. 1761

>

How would a "V" slot best be cut on a Universal milling machine?

Which machine tool would be used to drill and tap an irregular casting?

A

Centre lathe.

B

Radial arm drilling machine.

C

Boring machine.

D

Shaping machine.

No. 1762

>

A

To avoid catching on the tool post.

B

To avoid medallions getting caught on the work piece.

C

To prevent swarf chips flying inside the overall.

D

All of these options.

No. 1763

>

What effect has setting the tool too high on a centre lathe?

A

Increased front clearance.

B

Reduced top rake angle.

C

Reduced front clearance angle.

D

Increased relief angle.

No. 1764

>

Why must a close fitting, buttoned up overall be worn when using a lathe?

What method does a Pneumercator gauge use?

A

Compressed air.

B

Capacitor.

C

Diaphragm.

D

Pressure transducer.

No. 1765

>

A

Vertical milling machine.

B

Horizontal milling machine.

C

Centre lathe.

D

Boring machine.

No. 1766

>

Why is the centre lathe the most popular onboard machine tool?

A

Easy to install

B

Easy to operate

C

Easy to maintain

D

Most versatile

No. 1767

>

Which machine tool would be used to cut male threads?

How can vice jaws be checked for parallel on a shaping machine?

A

Dial gauge attached to tool post.

B

Engineer's square on the table.

C

Engineer's square against the head slide.

D

Engineer's square against the vertical table slide.

No. 1768

>

A

Small clearance angle.

B

Too large clearance angle.

C

Unequal length edges.

D

Unequal drill point angle.

No. 1769

>

What is the main safety consideration when using the shaper?

A

Removal of the stroke-adjusting handle.

B

Projection of the ram slide behind the machine.

C

Flying swarf chips.

D

Dislodging work piece.

No. 1770

>

When drilling what could account for an enlarged hole diameter?

When using a parting tool in the centre lathe what prevents it from binding?

A

Increasing front clearance.

B

Providing side and body clearance.

C

Tool slightly angled to work piece.

D

Increasing top rake angle.