SAT Practice Test
Short Description
SAT Practice test....
Description
Practice Test The practice tests included with this workbook have been designed to give you the real “game day”-type practice you need to succeed on the SAT. When you take the practice tests, you should try to replicate the conditions of an actual SAT testing situation. Key points to consider are: • •
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Make sure you have a long block of time where you can concentrate on the test without interruption. Use the answer sheets provided in the back of this workbook to get used to filling in your answers. Either tear them out or copy them so you won’t need to flip back and forth. Have at least two sharp #2 pencils-get used to using them to see how many you need to bring on test day. Use the same calculator you plan to use on test day. Don’t forget to use it. It will save you time. Have some scratch paper handy. Use an accurate timer and strictly follow the allotted time for each section. Don’t get in the habit of giving yourself any more time than is allotted. Try to complete the whole test before checking your answers on any section. Don’t flip back to the workbook for help. Struggle through and then go back and review the sections of the workbook and DVDs as needed.
Section 1 Time–20 Minutes 20 Questions
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Notes: 1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers. 2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. 1. If x/16 = 3/4 then x = (A) 15/4 (B) 4 (C) 12 (D) 13 (E) 64/3
Once you have completed a practice test, turn to the answer section and check your answers. Once you’ve checked your answers, go back to the test questions and try to understand what you did wrong on the ones you missed. This type of review will help you understand and correct any trouble areas you have. NOTE: The practice tests included in this workbook do not contain an experimental section.
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2. Triangle ABC above has a perimeter equal to: (A) 24 (B) 36 (C) 38 (D) 40 (E) 44
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Special Right Triangles
The number of degrees od arc in a cirlce is 360 The measure in degrees of a straignt line is 180 The sum of the measure in degrees of the angles in a triangle is 180
SAT Practice Test
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7. If a/b = 1 then a – b = (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) a (E) b
RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y
3. Based on the information in the chart above, Restaurant X sold approximately how many more hamburgers in 1997 than did Restaurant Y? (A) 50,000 (B) 75,000 (C) 100,000 (D) 125,000 (E) 150,000
8. Last week Charlie ran five miles more than Danny did. This week Charlie ran two miles less than Danny did. Which of the following must be true about Charlie’s miles run for the two weeks when compared with Danny’s? (A) Charlie ran twice as far as Danny. (B) Charlie ran 7 miles less than Danny. (C) Charlie ran 3 miles less than Danny. (D) Charlie ran 3 miles more than Danny. (E) Charlie ran 7 miles more than Danny.
4. A certain company issues a test for all potential employees. In order to work for this company, an employee must answer at least 90% of the 40 questions on this test correctly. A minimum of how many questions must be answered correctly to work at this company?
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9. If x2 - 6 = 23, then x2 + 6 = (A) 29 (B) 35 (C) 52 (D) 59 (E) 841
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5. In the figure above, WX=5, YZ=12 and XY = 1/3YZ. What is the volume of this rectangular solid? (A) 21 (C) 240 (D) 276 (E) 420
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10. In isosceles triangle ABC, side AB is equal to side AC and side BC is bisected by line segment AD, not shown. How many points on AD are the same distance from point B as from point C?
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6. For which of the following pairs of (x, y) is x + y > 4 and x – y < -4?
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11. If a, b, and c are positive integers where ab = 10 and bc = 20, which of the following cannot be true? (A) a > c (B) b > c (C) a > b (D) c > b (E) c > a
SAT Practice Test
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16. A certain gym offers its members two types of monthly membership deals.
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How many times would a gym member need to visit the gym in a month for Type 1 to be the cheaper of the two options? (A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 10 (E) 11
12. In the figure above, Line 1 is parallel to Line 2. Which of the following angles must be equal? I. a and g II. e and g III. h and m (A) None (B) I only (C) II and III only (D) I and III only (E) I and II only
17. A line segment has endpoints M and N, and the length of line segment MN is greater than 20 but less than 30. There are five additional points A,B,C,D, and E on line segment MN which are located 2,6,7,12, and 16 respectively from point N. Which of these points could be the bisector of MN?
13. A total of 80 people attended a dinner party. If 30% of the first 30 people ordered chicken, 60% of the next 20 people ordered chicken, and 50% of the final 30 people also ordered chicken, what percent of the 80 people at this party ordered chicken? (A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 45% (D) 90% (E) 140%
18. The difference on a ruler between x and 1/6 is the same asBthe difference between 4/5 and 1. Which of the following could be x?
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(A) 1/6 (B) 1/5 (C) 11/30 (D) 29/30 (E) 6/5
14. Let w♠x♠y♠z be defined as (w – x)(y – z). If a = 5♠3♠7♠4, 70° what is the value of 8♠4♠a♠3? (A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 32 (D) 96 (E) 178
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RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y
15. The product of the integers a and b is 2,500. The units digit of a is 0. If a is divided by 25, the result is equal to b. Which of the following could be a? (A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 100 (D) 125 (E) 250
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E
19. In circle Z above, arc XY is equal to 1/4th of the circle’s circumference. If the radius of the circle is 6, what is the area of triangle XYZ? (A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 9π (E) 36π
SAT Practice Test
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20. Four former United States presidents are to be photographed for the Smithsonian. They will stand side by side in one row, with the tallest President never standing next to the shortest President. If no two Presidents are the same height, how many different arrangements are possible? (A) Four (B) Six (C) Eight (D) Ten (E) Twelve
5. The television program portrayed the decline in aquatic life not as an indicator of wide spread ecological ____, but rather as ____ problem that would fix itself over the next few decades. (A) niche..a typical (B) erudition..a simple (C) turmoil..an arduous (D) disaster..a continuing (E) disruption..a transitory
6. Despite ____ backgrounds and occupations, the members of the two opposing groups were able to find common ground and finalize the plans in a ____ effort.
Section 2 Time–25 Minutes 24 Questions
For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the answer choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. 1. The normally ____ couple surprised their host when they erupted into an argument in the middle of the dinner. (A) combative (B) troublesome (C) appropriate (D) resourceful (E) tranquil
(A) likely..joint (B) disparate..concerted (C) celebrated..coupled (D) diverse..tedious (E) eclectic..deteriorating
7. The goalie had weeks to prepare mentally for the opening game, but he was still ____ by the ____ play of his opponents. (A) apprehensive..anxious (B) persuaded..expeditious (C) bewildered..unorthodox (D) dumfounded..emaciated (E) thwarted..superficial
2. The success of the team’s marketing strategy hinged on its ____; not only were their ideas good, but they appealed to a wide variety of people. (A) patience (B) diversity (C) stamina (D) vagueness (E) precision
8. While most considered him a less ____ orator than the fiery Daniel Webster, John C. Calhoun is remembered as a having a precise mind that could craft highly ____ arguments. (A) impeccable..phonetic (B) animated..sagacious (C) systematic..custodial (D) condensed..ratiocinative (E) subtle..judicious
3. Despite the special promotions that were offered, the ____ for the grand opening was small, much to the disappointment of its owners. (A) staff (B) coverage (C) finance (D) turnout (E) attachment
4. By only showing one half of the known accidents in his graph, Jeff promoted the ____ that there were ____ traffic accidents than expected last year.
9. The personal computer, once thought to be too expensive for the typical American, has become the ____ for how an industry can convince even the ____ that its product is needed in the home. (A) paradigm..impecunious (B) vocation..unpretentious (C) ideal..insalubrious (D) cue..confused (E) story..prototype
(A) idea..worse (B) indiscretion..harsher (C) mirage..dangerous (D) misconception..fewer (E) notion..more
SAT Practice Test
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided. Questions 10 – 18 are based on the following passage. The following passage is taken from an article in a science magazine written for the non-scientist. It concerns a new theory presented by Borge Nodland of the University of Rochester and John P. Ralston of the University of Kansas. [Note: Synchrotron radiation is a highly polarized type of radiation.]
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Faced with the paradox that some stars appear to be older than the universe itself, some scientists have developed a theory that not only resolves this dilemma but also suggests that the universe has a preferred orientation. Observations of gamma-ray bursts have provided the evidence needed to formulate a highly speculative theory that challenges one of the basic principles of physics and astronomy: rotational symmetry. Some of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time, including Newton, Kepler, and Einstein, all assumed that no matter which way a piece of space is oriented, the physical laws within that three-dimensional space will be consistent. In other words, no matter how you turn or rotate the cosmos, when you measure the events within it you will get the same results. Challenging this assertion, Borge Nodland of the University of Rochester and John P. Ralston of the University of Kansas have developed a theory that measurements of light from distant galaxies is altered by the position of the galaxies themselves in the heavens. While many theoretical physicists doubt that this theory will prove to be correct, Nodland and Ralston feel they may have discovered a fundamental flaw in classical astrophysics. They began by studying polarized light coming from remote galaxies. Polarized light generally travels within one plane as opposed to in all directions like the light from a light bulb. Thus, polarized light can be influenced in its travels through space by powerful electromagnetic fields that bend and shape the light in unique ways. The researchers believed that this bending, known as the Faraday Effect, was just one way in which the light was being altered. Their study focused on 160 galaxies that emitted synchrotron radiation.1 Nodland and Ralston then attempted to determine how the polarized light was being influenced above and beyond the twisting inherent in the Faraday effect. Their calculations suggest that there is an excess bending of light from distant galaxies, a bending that can not be attributed to the normal warping characteristic of electromagnetic fields. Because the phenomenon varies with distance, the researchers feel that there is little chance that it is locally produced. The amount of rotation in the polarized light is greatest along a certain axis, which suggests that the universe is not as symmetrical as physicists always believed it to be. Their colleagues, who find fault in their statistical methods, have challenged Nodland and Ralston. Steven Infield from the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics and Chip Rena from Bates College believe that Nodland and Ralston have polluted their data by examining galaxies from specific sections of the sky. But even if their findings turn out to be bogus, Ralston notes that forcing theorists to challenge basic assumptions about the universe is always beneficial. Just as Copernicus challenged the prevailing scientific community of his time by suggesting that the world was round, Nodland and Ralston have suggested a concept just
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as radical. Space, they seem to claim with their findings, is shaped. Perhaps this will provoke another revolution of thought, just as Copernicus’s claim did centuries ago. Perhaps not. But either way, it will probably be decades, perhaps centuries, before the physical laws of the universe are completely codified.
10. In line 1, “paradox” most nearly means (A) training (B) vision (C) isolation (D) mystery (E) reference
11. Why does the author mention Newton, Kepler, and Einstein in line 9? (A) as examples of authors who have written about rotational symmetry (B) to give credibility to his writing (C) to imply that rotational symmetry is a firmly established belief (D) to question the calculations of Nodland and Ralston (E) to introduce a general study of the cosmos
12. Based on the description of polarized light given in lines 22-29, it may be inferred that (A) synchrotron radiation is extremely dangerous (B) polarized light breaks one of the fundamental laws of the universe (C) polarized light from distant galaxies is strong enough to be measured (D) little research has been conducted on polarized light (E) polarized light does not bend as much as full-spectrum light
13. Which of the following best explains the Faraday Effect mentioned in lines 27-29? (A) the twisting of polarized light by electromagnetic fields (B) the process of astrophysical research (C) the errors inherent in detailed studies of polarized light (D) the inability of the prevailing scientific establishment to accept new data (E) the amount of rotation found in a given piece of cosmos
14. What is the “phenomenon” mentioned in line 36? (A) the calculations of Nodland and Ralston (B) the examination of specific regions of the sky (C) the normal emission of gamma-ray radiation (D) the symmetrical nature of the cosmos (E) the rotation of polarized light from distant galaxies
SAT Practice Test
15. In the fourth paragraph, the author mentions those who disagree with Nodland and Ralston in order to (A) prove that Nodland and Ralston’s theory is wrong (B) clarify that Nodland and Ralston’s theory is not yet accepted (C) show how little attention Nodland and Ralston’s theory has received (D) reveal a crucial flaw in Nodland and Ralston’s logic (E) present an alternative analysis of synchrotron radiation
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16. The author uses the phrase “perhaps not” in line 56 to express (A) passion (B) empathy (C) hopelessness (D) approval (E) uncertainty
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II. Nodland and Ralston III. Newton and Einstein (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III
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45 18. Which of the following physicists mentioned in the passage works at the University of Kansas? (A) John P. Ralston (B) Steven Infield (C) Copernicus (D) Chip Rena (E) Einstein
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19. The passage states, in lines 6-8, that
Questions 19 – 24 are based on the following passage. This passage is an excerpt from the Emancipation Proclamation, issued by President Abraham Lincoln on September 22, 1862.
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and naval authority thereof, will recognize and maintain the freedom of such persons, and will do no act or acts to repress such persons, or any of them, in any efforts they may make for their actual freedom. That the Executive will on the first day of January aforesaid, by proclamation, designate the States and parts of States, if any, in which the people thereof, respectively, shall then be in rebellion against the United States; and the fact that any State, or the people thereof, shall on that day be, in good faith represented in the Congress of the United States by members chosen thereto at elections wherein a majority of the qualified voters of such State that have participated, shall, in the absence of strong countervailing testimony, be deemed conclusive evidence that such State, and the people thereof, are not then in rebellion against the United States. Now, therefore, I, Abraham Lincoln, President of the United States, by virtue of the power in me vested as Commander-In-Chief, of the Army and Navy of the United States in time of actual armed rebellion against the authority and government of the United States, and as a fit and necessary war measure for suppressing said rebellion, do, on this first day of January, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-three, and in accordance with my purpose so to do publicly proclaimed for the full period of one hundred days, from the day first above mentioned, order and designate as the States and parts of States wherein the people thereof respectively, are this day in rebellion against the United States...And by virtue of the power, and for the purpose aforesaid, I do order and declare that all persons held as slaves within said designated States, and parts of States, are, and henceforward shall be free; and that the Executive Government of the United States, including the military and naval authorities thereof, will recognize and maintain the freedom of said persons. And I hereby enjoin upon the people so declared to be free to abstain from all violence, unless in necessary selfdefense; and I recommend to them that, in all cases when allowed, they labor faithfully for reasonable wages. And I further declare and make known, that such persons of suitable condition, will be received into the armed service of the United States to garrison forts, positions, stations, and other places, and to man vessels of all sorts in said service And upon this act, sincerely believed to be an act of justice, warranted by the Constitution, upon military necessity, I invoke the considerate judgment of mankind and the gracious favor of Almighty God.
Whereas, on the twenty-second day of September, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-two, a proclamation was issued by the President of the United States, containing, among other things, the following, to wit: “That on the first day of January, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-three, all persons held as slaves within any State or designated part of a State, the people whereof shall then be in rebellion against the United States, shall be then, thenceforward, and forever free; and the Executive Government of the United States, including the military
(A) all slaves in the United States shall be granted 40 acres and a mule (B) all persons held as slaves are considered to be in rebellion (C) all persons held as slaves in the rebellious provinces are to be freed immediately (D) all persons held as slaves in any of the rebellious states will be freed in the immediate future (E) the freedom of all persons shall be fully supported by the military and naval authority
SAT Practice Test
Section 3
20. What is the evidence that is necessary to show that a State and its people “are not then in rebellion against the United States”? (line 24)
Time–10 Minutes
(A) The States’ congressional representatives need to make a sworn statement professing loyalty to the Union. (B) Members of Congress need to be chosen in elections by a majority of qualified voters. (C) There can be no countervailing testimony questioning the loyalty of a member of Congress. (D) Citizens of a State must demonstrate their support of the United States by holding rallies. (E) Congressional representatives must present proof that their views are representative of those in their home states.
10 Questions
Directions for Student-Produced Response Questions Each of the 10 questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the ovals in the special grid, as shown in the examples below.
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22. The word “abstain” (line 45) most nearly means (A) insist (B) see through (C) do without (D) beg (E) take command
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0 start your answers in any Note: 0You0 may 1 1 permitting. Columns not 1 1 column, space 2 2 2 2 needed should be left blank.
• Mark no more than one oval in any column. . 6 6 7 • Because the answer sheet will be machine scored, you will receive • • credit • • only if the ovals are filled in correctly. 0 0 0 • 1 Although not required, it is suggested that you write your 1 1 1 2 2 in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in 2 answers 2 3 3 3 3 the ovals accurately. 4 4 4 4 • 5 Some may have more than one correct answer. In such 5 5 5 problems 6 6 6 cases, 6 grid only one answer. 7 7 7 7 • 8 No8 question has a negative answer. 8 8 9 9 9 9 • M 2 1 / 2 ixed numbers such as 2 1/2 must be gridded as 2.5 or 5/2. is gridded, it will be interpreted as 21/2, • • • • not 2 1/2.) 1
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SAT Practice Test
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7. If the area of the shaded region in rectangle ABCD above is 90, what is the area of ∆ EFG?
For example, if you obtainan answer such as 0.6666..., you should record the result as .666 or .667. Less accurate values such as .66 or .67 are not acceptable. Acceptable ways to grid 2/3 = .6666...
(a • 43) + (b • 42) + (c • 4) = 88 8. In the equation above a, b, and c each represent a digit less than 3. What three-digit number do the digits abc represent?
1. Three non-overlapping lines intersect at point P forming 6 equal angles. What is the degree measure of any one of these angles?
2. Dave works 5 days and then takes 2 days off to rest. This ratio of days working to days resting is the same as the ratio of 0.5 to y. What is the value of y? 14 < a < 17
9. Four students are running for positions on student council. The student who receives the most votes will be president, the student with the second most votes will be vice president, the student with the third most votes will be treasurer and the student with the fourth most votes will be the secretary. Assuming there are no ties, how many different combinations are possible for positioning the four students among the four offices?
5 b > a, then b + d is how much greater than a + c?
SAT Practice Test
9. A computer programmer designs a video game in which basketball players who are x feet tall in real life appear as y inches tall on the video screen. How tall, in inches, does a player appear on the video a° screen if he is x +Q(0,b) 1 feet tallR(a,b) in real life? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
x/y x + 1/y y + 1/x P(0,0) y(x + 1)/x y/x + 1
S(a,0)
70°
14. If n > 1 and each of the three integers n, n + 2, and n + 4 is a prime number, then the set of three such numbers is called a “prime B triple.” There are how many prime triples? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three
x
2
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C
2
RESTAURANT X RESTAURANT Y
15. If a and b are integers and a + b = 3a + 5, which of the following must be true?
10. If 4a = b, in terms of a, which of the following equals 16b? (A) 42/a (B) 4a (C) 42 + a (D) 43 + a (E) 64a
I. a is odd II. b is odd III. b – a is odd
11. Seven distinct points lie in a plane such that four of the points are on line s and four of the points are on a different line, t. What is the total number of lines that can be drawn so that each line passes through exactly two of these seven points? (A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11 (E) 15
A E D
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Note: Figures not drawn to scale
12. If the ratio of j to k is 3 to 4, which of the following could be true? (A) j = 0, k = (B) j = 3/2, k = 2 (C) j = 4, k = 5 (D) j = 12, k = 9 (E) j = 9, k = 16
16. In the figure above, the radius of the circle with center G is three times the radius of the circle with center D, and the measure of angle IGH is three times that of angle FDE. If the area of the shaded region of circle D is 2, what is the area of the shaded region of circle G? (A) 54 (B) 18 (C) 6 (D) 2 (E) 2/3
1 ,3, 2, -1,... 13. The first four numbers of a sequence are shown above. After the second number, each number can be obtained by subtracting from the preceding number the number preceding that. For example, the fourth number can be obtained by subtracting the second number from the third number. What is the sum of the first 52 numbers of the sequence? (A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 30 (E) 46
(A) None (B) I only (C) II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
Section 6 Time–25 Minutes 35 Questions
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
SAT Practice Test
13
In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English; pay attention to grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentence–clear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity. Example: My brother learned to drive and he was 20 years old then. (A) and he was 20 years old then. (B) when he was 20 years old. (C) at the age of 20 years old. (D) upon reaching his age of 20 years. (E) and the time was when he was 20. 1. However one’s opinion of her films, Rachel’s brilliant talent must be recognized. (A) However one’s opinion of her films (B) Whatever one’s opinion of her films (C) Despite one’s opinion of her films (D) Although one’s opinion of her films (E) Whether one’s opinion of her films 2. Increasing understanding among teammates is a proven method for building team loyalty. (A) Increasing understanding among teammates is a proven method for building team loyalty. (B) Increasing understanding among teammates is a proved method for building team loyalty. (C) Increased understanding among teammates are a proven method for building team loyalty. (D) Increasing understanding for teammates are a proven method for building team loyalty. (E) Increasing understanding for teammates is a proved method for building team loyalty. 3. In this year’s election, more students cast votes for Carlos than Julian. (A) more students cast votes for Carlos than Julian (B) more students voted for Carlos than Julian (C) more students cast votes for Carlos than cast votes for Julian (D) more students cast votes for Carlos than for Julian (E) more students votes for Carlos than those who voted for Julian 4. You can improve your community not only by being a good citizen but it can also help to volunteer. (A) but it can also help to volunteer (B) but also by becoming a volunteer (C) but by volunteering (D) as well as volunteering (E) but also through being a volunteer.
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5. Jones enjoyed starting a new project, and it was choosing a deadline that he believed was his favorite part of the process. (A) and it was choosing a deadline that he believed was his favorite part of the process (B) and of which he believed choosing a deadline was his favorite part of the process (C) and getting to choose a deadline was his favorite part of the process (D) and his favorite part of the process was getting to choose a deadline (E) and choosing a deadline was his favorite part of the process 6. Jillian woke up early and that was how it was discovered by her a squirrel in her kitchen. (A) that was how it was discovered by her (B) then she discovered (C) and she then discovered (D) discovered (E) discovered then 7. In most societies, protection of civil liberties are important to most of its citizens. (A) are important to most of its citizens (B) are important to most of their citizens (C) are important to most citizens (D) is important to most of its citizens (E) is important to most citizens 8. At the special conference, the chefs were eating exotic foods, were teaching each other recipes, and reading eclectic cookbooks. (A) the chefs were eating exotic foods, were teaching each other recipes, and reading eclectic cookbooks (B) the chefs were eating exotic foods, teaching each other recipes, and were reading eclectic cookbooks (C) the chefs ate exotic foods, taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks (D) the chefs ate exotic foods, and taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks (E) the chefs had eaten exotic foods, had taught each other recipes, and read eclectic cookbooks 9. Despite our previous experiences, even Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time. (A) even Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time (B) even Hector and I believe the bus would arrive on time (C) even me and Hector believed the bus would arrive on time (D) yet Hector and me believed the bus would arrive on time (E) even Hector and I believed the bus would arrive on time
SAT Practice Test
10. The search-and-rescue team thinks that improving equipment offers better chance for survival than do increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain. (A) than do increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (B) than does increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (C) than increasing the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (D) than an increase of the amount of rescue stations on the mountain (E) than does an increase in the amount of rescue stations on the mountain 11. Because the play is to be performed tomorrow night, many cast members are extremely focused. (A) Because the play is to be performed tomorrow night (B) While the play is to be performed tomorrow night (C) Because the play is yet to be performed tomorrow night (D) Even though play is to be performed tomorrow night (E) Considering that the play is to be performed tomorrow night
15. For we members, excelling in group competitions was far more A B important than receiving high grades from our teacher. No error C D E 16. After Deandra had sung her time-tested song, she learned that A B C she would be performing at Carnegie Hall the next month. No error D E 17. Though I had never enjoyed participating in extreme sports, A I could deny neither their popular appeal or their spirited B C D competition. No error E 18. Few of the failures of Thomas and Bernard as scientists A B have the least to do with their lack of personal observation C D of experiments. No error E
12. Survey work entails tasks where attention to detail is a must. (A) where attention to detail is a must (B) demanding attention to detail (C) where you must pay attention to detail (D) during which attention to detail is a must (E) where they must pay attention to detail
19. Even though one loves to pick flowers in bloom, you cannot A B neglect the fact that they should be left for all to enjoy. No error C D E
The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. Example: The other members and him quickly chose the next president of the A B C D council. No error E The correct answer is B. 13. Archaeological research expeditions shows indisputable evidence A of their advanced civilization and prove their cultural resiliency. B C D No error E 14. Eating more vegetables is one way to stay healthy; to exercise A B C more frequently is another. No error D E
20. Expertise in sleight-of-hand techniques are essential in the A B C successful fooling of audiences of all sizes. No error D E 21. Never one to shy away from a challenge or to reject a new A B opinion—examples of supreme tenacity— Bettina was constantly C D stimulated by the environment in the laboratory. No error E 22. In extreme pain, the mountain climber—desperate to get back A B to base camp—chose a previously unknown trail down the high cliff C D wall. No error E 23. Albert was joined with a colleague whose chosen field was that A B C D of insect biology. No error E 24. Elderly residents enjoy the performers, because they, who the A B visits are planned for, identify with the humor portrayed. No error C D E
SAT Practice Test
15
25. Climbing a tree, untying his knapsack, Ahmet whistling while he A B C awaited his friends arrival at the clubhouse. No error D E 26. The latest magazines, thousands of books, and comfortable seats are all cited as reasons of why the library is chosen as their favorite A B C spot by students from all over school. No error D E 27. The towns utilities department is unaware of the problems A B resulting from the recent unexpected flooding. No error C D E 28. Even including Hester, her fellow patients and her had often A B written kind letters to Dr. Keegan, whose medical prowess was well C respected throughout the medical community. No error D E 29. The donkeys were inexperienced in canyon climbing; however, A each of them carried twice their weight in gold on the way to the top. B C D No error E Directions: The following passage is a draft paper. Some of its writing and organization can be improved. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences; some questions ask you to consider organization and development. Questions 30 –35 are based on the following passage. Note: Aesthetics is a branch of philosophy that deals with beauty and the arts. (1) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (2) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (3) Plato was concerned with an accurate conception of beauty and the formation of an ideal and esoteric state, while Aristotle was concerned with the empirical effects of art in the real world. (4) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosopher’s theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements concerning the whole of their philosophical systems. (5) While both of their theories of aesthetics began with the similar ideal that art is an imitation of reality, each philosopher reached different conclusions as to the impact and the significance of the artistic endeavor.
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30. Which of the following is the best version of the underlined portion of sentence 6 (reproduced below)? In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (A) (As is) (B) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than have Plato and his first student Aristotle. (C) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student, Aristotle. (D) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals had shown more influence or innovation than Plato and his first student Aristotle. (E) In the history of aesthetics, no two individuals have shown more influence or innovation than have Plato and his first student, Aristotle. 31. Of the following, the author’s main reason for writing this passage is to: (A) Demonstrate that Plato was an idealist and that Aristotle was a realist. (B) Present an overview of Plato’s and Aristotle’s philosophies. (C) Outline the major distinctions between Plato’s views on aesthetics and Aristotle’s views (D) Show how Plato taught Aristotle aesthetics, which lead to the latter’s improvement of the philosophy (E) Demonstrate how the two philosophers came to the same conclusion about aesthetics despite their starting with different assumptions. 32. To improve this essay, the writer should do which of the following to sentence 2 (reproduced below)? While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (A) (As is) (B) Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy; it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (C) Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle that was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (D) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, Aristotle was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. (E) While Plato tended to generalize on beauty and art in terms of his own ethical philosophy, it was Aristotle who was concerned with a complete systemization of the field. 33. Of the following, which is the best location with the essay for sentence 5? (A) Where it is (B) Before sentence 1 (C) Between sentence 1 and sentence 2 (D) between sentence 2 and 3 (E) between sentence 3 and 4
SAT Practice Test
34. The primary point of sentence 3 is to (A) Provide a concrete example of the differences between the philosopher’s conceptions of aesthetics (B) Show how Plato’s view on aesthetics influenced Aristotle’s views (C) Provide a transitory bridge between the essay’s thesis and its conclusion (D) Offer a framework for how the two philosophers would view a particular piece of art (E) Prove that Aristotle’s empiricism measures up to Plato’s idealism 35. Of the following, what is the best way to rewrite sentence 4 (reproduced below)? These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosopher’s theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements in regards to their whole systems of philosophy. (A) (As is) (B) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosopher’s theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements of their whole systems of philosophy. (C) The approaches of these two, best symbolized in each philosopher’s theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements of their whole systems of philosophy. (D) The most accurate statements in regards to these philosopher’s whole systems of philosophy is these two approaches symbolized in their theory of aesthetics. (E) These two approaches, best symbolized in each philosopher’s theory of aesthetics, are also accurate statements concerning the whole of their philosophical systems.
ESSAY Time–25 Minutes The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Use your own paper to write the essay. (An answer sheet will be given to you on the day of the test.) Make certain your handwriting is legible. You have 25 minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. Do not write on another topic. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and assignment below. “Let me assert my firm belief that the only thing we have to fear is fear itself.” (Adapted from President Franklin Delano Roosevelt’s First Inaugural Speech.) Assignment: Is fear itself the only thing to fear, or are there actual things that should be feared? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples from your reading, experience, or observations.
SAT Practice Test
17
2.
First 4 letters of Last name
Your Name: (Print)
First
Last
First Mid. init. init. Signature: Home Address:
A
A
A
A
A
B
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B
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State
Zip Code
City
State
Center Number
3. Date Of Birth
Month
K
M
W
(Print)
J
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K
Center:
I
I
(Copy and grid as on back of test book.)
Number and Street
(Print)
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May June July Aug. Sept. Oct. Nov. Dec.
8. Form Code
Date:
(Print)
A
IMPORTANT: please fill in items 8 and 9 exactly as shown on the back cover of your test book
Day
4. Social Security Number
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6. Registration Number
Male
7. Test Book Serial Number (Copy from front of test book.)
DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA.
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FOR ETS USE ONLY
1. Your Name
9. Test Form
(Copy from front of test book.)
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
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33 A
B
C
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34 A
B
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D
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35 A
B
C
D
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B
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37 A
B
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D
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B
C C
D
E
B B
C
31 A
34
36 A
37 A 38 A 39 A
30 A
B
C
D
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40 A
21 A 22 A
B
C
D
E
B
31 A
C
D
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B
C
D
E
24 A
B
C
D
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25 A
B
C
D
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B
C
D
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26 A
27 A 28 A
29 A 30 A
B
C
D
E
B
C C
D
E
B
D
E
B
C
D
E
36 A
38 A 39 A 40 A
D
E
D
E
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
1 2 3
SECTION
3
4 5 6 7
A
B
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D
E
A
B
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E
A
B
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A
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16 A 17 A
18 A
19 A 20 A
A
B
C
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10 A
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D D
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8 9
12 A
13 A
14 A 15 A
21 A
22 A 23 A
24 A 25 A 26 A
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28 A
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30 A
B
C
D
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27 A
29 A
B
C
D
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32 A
34 A
31 A
B
C
D
E
33 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
35 A
B
C
E
36 A
D
B
C
D
E
38 A 39 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
37 A
40 A
B
C
B
C
D
E
D
E
If section 3 of your test book contains math questions that are not mulitiple-choice, continue to item 16 below. Otherwise, continue to item 16 above. ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE OVALS IN EACH GRID AREA WILL BE SCORED YOU WILL NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE OVALS. /
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BE SURE TO ERASE ANY ERRORS OR STRYA MARKS COMPLETELY.
PLEASE PRINT YOUR INITIALS
First
Middle Last
Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra spaces blank.
1
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
10 A
B
C
D
E
A
D
E
B
C
D
E
19 A 20 A
1
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
11 A
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
2
SECTION
5
3 4 5 6 7 8 9
2
SECTION
6
3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A
B
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
A
10 A
B
C
B
C
D
E
D
E
11 A 12 A
13 A
14 A 15 A
16 A
17 A 18 A
12 A
13 A
14 A 15 A
16 A
17 A 18 A 19 A 20 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
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C
D
E
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C
D
E
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C C
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E
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C
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C
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C
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B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
B
C
B
C
D
E
D
E
21 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
23 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
25 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
22 A
24 A 26 A
27 A
B
C
D
E
32 A
B
C
D
E
33 A
B
C
D
E
34 A
B
C
D
E
35 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
37 A
B
C
D
E
B
C C
D
E
B
31 A
36 A
B
C
D
E
B
C C
D
E
B
E
30 A
D
B
C
D
E
40 A
B
21 A
B
C
D
E
B
31 A
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
28 A
29 A
22 A
23 A 24 A
B
C
D
E
26 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
28 A
B
C
E
B
C
D
30 A
B
C
25 A
27 A 29 A
D
E
D
E
38 A 39 A
D
E
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
32 A
34 A
B
C
D
E
33 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
35 A
B
C
E
36 A
D
B
C
D
E
38 A 39 A
B
C
D
E
B
C
D
E
37 A
40 A
B
C
B
C
D
E
D
E
CERTIFICATION STATEMENT Copy in long hand the statement below and sign your name as you would an official document. DO NOT PRINT. I hereby agree to the conditions set forth in the Registration Bulletin and certify that I am the person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.
SIGNATURE:
DATE:
Practice Test Answers
Section 5
MATH
1.
B
Section 1
2.
A
3.
C
1.
C
4.
A
2.
B
5.
E
3.
B
6.
D
4.
E
7.
D
5.
C
8.
C
6.
C
9.
D
7.
A
10.
C
8.
D
11.
B
9.
B
12.
B
10.
E
13.
B
11.
A
14.
B
12.
E
15.
C
13.
C
16.
14.
B
15.
E
16.
E
17
D
18.
C
19.
B
20.
E
# Correct =
A
# Correct =
_______
# Incorrect =
_______
CRITICAL READING _______
Section 2 1.
E
2.
B
3.
D
Section 3
4.
D
5.
E
Student-Produced
# Incorrect =
_______
6.
B
Response-Questions
7.
C
1. 60
8.
B
2. 0.2 or 1/5
9.
A
3. 7, 8, 9 or 10
10.
D
4. 22
11.
C
5. 6.5 or 13/2
12.
C
6. 1
13.
A
7. 66
14.
E
8. 112
15.
B
9. 24
16.
E
10. 101
17.
D
18.
A
19.
D
# Correct =
_______
# Incorrect =
_______
SAT Practice Test Answer Key
21
20.
B
21.
B
22.
C
23.
B
24.
E
20.
D
21.
B
22.
E
23.
D
24.
A
WRITING Section 6
# Correct =
_______
# Incorrect =
_______
Section 4 1.
D
2.
B
3.
A
4.
D
5.
C
6.
B
7.
E
8.
C
9.
B
10.
A
11.
A
12.
B
13.
C
14.
D
15.
E
16.
D
17.
C
18.
B
19.
B
# Correct =
_______
# Incorrect =
_______
22
1.
B
2.
A
3.
D
4.
B
5.
E
6.
D
7.
E
8.
C
9.
E
10.
B
11.
A
12.
B
13.
A
14.
C
15.
A
16.
E
17.
C
18.
E
19.
B
20.
B
21.
E
22.
E
23.
A
24.
B
25.
C
26.
B
27.
A
28.
B
29.
C
30.
E
31.
C
32.
D
33.
C
34.
A
35.
E
SAT Practice Test Answer Key
Scoring Your Practice Test
Writing
To score your practice test, follow these steps:
Section 6 # Correct ______ – # Incorrect ÷ 4 ______ = ________
1. Mark your correct and incorrect responses in each section. 2. Count the number of correct and incorrect responses for each section. 3. Fill in the scoring matrix below for your test and compute the totals.
Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded = ________
4. There are no penalties for incorrect responses on the studentproduced response questions. 5. To compute your rounded score, round the unrounded score to the nearest whole number. 6. The rounded total for each part makes up your raw score.
Critical Reading Section 2 # Correct ______ – # Incorrect ÷ 4 ______ = ________ Section 4 # Correct ______ – # Incorrect ÷ 4 ______ = ________ Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded = ________
Math Section 1 # Correct ______ –
# Incorrect ÷ 4 ______ = _______
Section 3 # Correct ______ = ________ Section 5 # Correct ______ – # Incorrect ÷ 4 ______ = ________ Total Unrounded = ________ Total Rounded
= ________
SAT Practice Test Answer Key
23
Critical Reading Conversion Table Raw Score
Scaled Score
Raw Score
Scaled Score
43
800 19
440-500
42
770-800 18
430-490
41
740-780 17
420-480
40
730-770 16
410-470
39
720-760 15
400-460
38
710-750 14
390-450
37
690-740 13
370-440
36
680-730 12
360-430
35
670-720 11
350-420
34
660-700 10
330-410
33
650-690
9
320-400
32
640-680
8
300-390
31
630-670
7
280-380
30
620-660
6
310-370
29
600-650
5
300-360
28
580-640
4
290-350
27
560-620
3
270-340
26
540-600
2
250-320
25
520-580 1
220-300
24
500-550
0
200-290
23
480-540
-1
200-250
22
470-530
-2
200-230
21
460-520
-3
200-210
20
450-510
-4 and below
200
Math Conversion Table Raw Score
Scaled Score
Raw Score
46
800
20
45
770-800 19
430-480
44
740-780 18
420-470
43
730-770 17
410-460
42
720-760 16
400-450
41
710-750 15
390-450
40
690-740 14
380-440
39
680-730 13
370-440
38
670-720 12
360-430
37
660-700 11
350-420
36
650-690 10
330-410
35
640-680
9
320-400
34
630-670
8
300-390
24
Scaled Score
SAT Practice Test Answer Key
33
620-660
7
280-380
32
600-650
6
310-370
31
580-640
5
300-360
30
560-620
4
290-350
29
540-600
3
270-340
28
520-580
2
250-320
27
500-550 1
220-300
26
490-540
0
200-290
25
480-530
-1
200-250
24
470-520
-2
200-230
23
460-510
-3
200-210
22
450-500
-4 and below
200
21
440-490
Writing Conversion Table Multiple-Choice Questions Raw Score
Scaled Score
Raw Score
Scaled Score
35
770-800 15
440-560
34
760-800 14
420-550
33
750-800 13
410-530
32
740-800 12
400-510
31
720-780 11
390-500
30
700-760 10
370-480
29
680-740
9
350-460
28
660-730
8
330-440
27
640-720
7
320-420
26
620-700
6
300-400
25
600-690
5
290-380
24
580-680
4
280-360
23
560-670
3
260-340
22
540-660
2
240-320
21
520-640 1
220-300
20
500-620
0
200-290
19
480-600
-1
200-250
18
470-590
-2
200-230
17
460-580
-3
200-210
16
450-570
-4 and below
200
Note: Your score on the multiple-choice questions will be integrated with your score on the essay to determine your final Writing Section Score.
SAT Practice Test Answer Key
25
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