SAT Paper-1

October 3, 2017 | Author: Nilesh Gupta | Category: Circle, Lens (Optics), Mass, Poverty, Poverty & Homelessness
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ALL INDIA NTSE (STAGE-II) TEST SERIES

MOCK TEST # 1 CLASS -X SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT) Time : 1½ Hr.

Max. Marks : 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions from mathamtics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed. 5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. 6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet. 8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

PCCP Head Office : Address : Lakshya, C-8, Nursery Plots, Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 Tel. No. : +0744-2434727,8824078330, Fax : 0744-2427146 | Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : [email protected]

SAT PAPER

SCIENCE 1.

In distance-time graph (A) Distance is taken along the X- axis (C) Straight line indicates uniform motion

(B) Time is taken along the Y-axis (D) Straight line indicates non-uniform motion

2.

A train travels 40 km at a uniform speed of 30 km h–1. Its average speed after travelling another 40 km is 45 km h–1for the whole journey. Its speed in the second half of the journey is (A) 45 km h–1 (B) 90 km h–1 –1 (C) 60 km h (D) 30 km h–1

3.

An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 s. His displacement at the end of 2 minutes will be : (A) 2R (B) 6R (C) 2R (D) zero

4.

Choose any one of the following four responses : (a) If assertion is true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion. (b) If assertion is true and reason is not a correct explanation of assertion. (c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (d) If both assertion and reason are false. Assertion :- Force of friction depends on the actual area of contact. Reason : Larger the area of contact, larger is opposition to motion. (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

5.

A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is fired from a gun weighing 5.0 kg. If the speed of the bullet is 250 m/s, calculate the speed with which the gun recoils : (A) – 0.50 m/s (B) – 0.25 m/s (C) + 0.05 m/s (D) + 0.25 m/s

6.

The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it is taken to the moon, its weight and mass will be about (Take gearth = 10 m/s2) : (A) 120 N, 120 kg (B) 60 N, 12 kg (C) 20 N, 12 kg (D) 720 N, 120 kg

7.

Two solids X and Y float in water. X floats with half of its volume submerged while Y floats with one-third of its volume out of water. The densities of X and Y are in the ratio of : (A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 3

8.

The speed of sound in a certain medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves pass over a certain point in 1 minute, the wavelength is : (A) 2 m

(B) 4 m

(C) 8 m

(D) 16 m

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 1

9.

If the ratio of the kinetic energies of bodies of masses m1 & m2 is 4 : 9. Then the ratio of the speed of the bodies of masses m1 & m2 is : (A) 4 m1 : 9 m2

(B) 2 m 2 : 3 m1

(C) 4 : 9

(D) 16 : 81

10.

A body of mass 10 kg is moving with initial velocity 10 m/sec. to increase its velocity upto 20 m/s, work done will be : (A) 1500 joule (B) 150 joule (C) 250 joule (D) 300 joule

11.

Calculate the equivalent resistance of circuit diagram between A and B shown in the figure.

(A)

12  13

(B)

13  12

(C)

10  12

(D)

14  12

12.

A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting : (A) A high resistance in series with the galvanometer (B) A high resistance in parallel with the galvanometer (C) a low resistance in series with the galvanometer (D) a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer

13.

A linear object of 10 cm length lies along the axis of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm, the nearer end lying 18 cm from their mirror. Find the length of image : (A) 57.2cm (B) 52.7 cmc (C) 54.7 cm (D) 55.7 cm

14.

The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principal focus is a. The magnitude of magnification obtained will be : (A) (f + a)/f

15.

(B) f /a

(C)

f/ a

(D) f2/a2

The direction of magnetic field line in case of a bar magnet at point A & B are : The direction of magnetic field line in case of a bar magnet at point A & B are :

B S (A) at A and at B (C) at A and at B

.A

N

(B) at A and at B (D) at A and at  B

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 2

16.

For which species, Bohr’s theory does not apply ? (A) H

17.

19.

(B) 4/5

Essential constituent of amalgam is (A) an alkali metal (B) silver

(D) Li2+.

(C) 9/8

(D) 1

(C) mercury

(D) iron

In Solvay process the by products obtained from recovery tower are : (A) NH4Cl, CaO, CO2

20.

(C) He+

The ratio of nucleons in O16 and O18 is : (A) 8/9

18.

(B) Be

(B) CaO, Na2CO3, CaCl2 (C) CaCl2 , CO2 , NH3

(D) Na2CO3 , CaCl2 , CO2

Copper metal reacts with nitric acid, according to the reaction 3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(aq)  3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO(g) + 4H2O() If 18.75 g Cu(NO3)2 is eventually obtained, then how many grams of nitric oxide, would have also formed according to the preceeding equation ? (A) 2g

21.

(C) 6g

(D) 8g

2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing (A) 2.16g

22.

(B) 4g

(B) 2.48 g

(C) 2.32 g

(D) 2.64 g

In which of the following arrangements, the order is not correct according to the property indicated against it:

23.

(A) Increasing size

:

Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–.

(B) Increasing I.E.1

:

B < C < N < O.

(C) Increasing E.A.

:

I < Br < F < Cl.

(D) Increasing metallic radius

:

Li < Na < K < Rb.

The IUPAC name ofCH3 – C(CH3) (OH) CH2 – CH(CH3) CH3 is -

24.

25.

(A) 2,4-Dimethylpentan-2-ol

(B) 2,4- Dimethylpentan-4-ol

(C) 2,2-Dimethylbutane

(D) Isopentanol

Which of the following produces four monochloro derivatives on free radical chlorination? (A) 2, 2-dimethylbutane

(B) Pentane

(C) 2, 2 –dimethylpropane

(D) 2-methylbutane

Which of the following compounds contains 10, 20, 30 as well as 40 carbon atoms ? (A) neo-Pentane

(B) 2-Methyl pentane

(C) 2,3-Dimethyl butane

(D) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 3

26.

Photosynthesis is a process in which – (A) CO2 is reduced to carbohydrate (C) ATP is generated

(B) NADH is reduced to NAD (D) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs

27.

The ability of producing concentrated (Hypertonic) urine in vertebrates generally depends on – (A) Area of Bowman's capsule epithelium (B) Length of proximal convulated tubule (C) Length of loop of Henle (D) Capillary network forming glomerulus

28.

A person feels no sensation when he puts his hand over flame, the part of the brain which has damaged (A) Cerebellum (B) Medulla oblongata (C) Cereberum (D) Hypothalamus

29.

Secretion of estrogen is promoted by – (A) HCG (B) FSH

30.

Match the following column Column I (i) Columnar epithelium (ii) Squamous epithelium (iii) Striated muscles (iv) Cardiac muscles (v) Smooth muscles (A) i – d, ii – a, iii – a, iv – e, v – c (C) i – f, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c, v – e

(C) Progesterone

(D) Testosterone

Column II a. Multinucleate and unbranched b. Secretion and absorption c. Uninucleate and branched d. Exchange of material e. Striations are absent f. Lining of oviduct (B) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c, v – e (D) i – d, ii – f, iii – c, iv – e, v – a

31.

Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines because – (A) Virus make use of host machinery (B) Viruses are on border line of living and non-living (C) Viruses have few biochemical mechanisms of their own (D) Viruses have a protein coat

32.

Which of the following statement is correct – I. U.V light can be utilised in photo synthesis II. Opening of stomata is result of endosmosis in guard cells III. Rate of photosynthesis is low in plants such as herbs, herbs which are growing under the canopy of other trees IV. Variegated leaves show no photosynthesis (A) I & II (B) I, II & III (C) I & IV (D) II & III

33.

Consider the following statements – I. Plants having well differentiated plant body II. Marsilea and horsetails have vascular tissue III. Plants do not contain seeds IV. Plants have naked seeds Which of the following statements are true regarding pteridophytes – (A) I & III (B) II & III (C) I, II & III

(D) I & IV

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 4

34.

Identify the A, B & C in given figure –

d

a ti o ific r t i en

n

Nitrogen

A NH3

Animals

B NO–2

Plants Nitrates

(A) Ammonification, Nitrobacter, Nitrosomonas (C) Ammonification, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter

C

(B) Nitrification, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter (D) Ammonification, Nitrification, Assimilation

35.

Which of the following is not a desirable agronomic trait – (A) Increased shelf life in fruits and vegetables (B) Resistance varieties to insects (C) Short plant size for fodder crops (D) Baking quality in wheat

36.

Which of the following vitamins is exclusively find in fish meat – (A) Vit B1 (B) Vit B12 (C) Vit B12 and A

(D) Niacin & Vit A

37.

Marshell and Warren discovered that peptic ulcer is not a chronic disease it can be cured with treatment of antibiotics, why ? (A) Because it was caused by virus (B) Becasue antibiotics inhibit production of HCl (C) Because it was caused by bacteria Helilobacter pylori (D) Because it was caused by staphylococci

38.

Erythroblastosis foetalis is seen in (A) Rh – mother & Rh + father (B) Rh – mother & Rh – father (C) Rh + mother & Rh – father (D) All of the above

39.

Which of the following of evolutionary mechanisms act to slow or prevent the evolution of reproductive isolation – (A) Natural Selection (B) Gene Flow (C) Mutation (D) Genetic drift

40.

The folds of plasma membrane in bacterial cells are known as (A) episomes (B) mesosomes (C) spherosomes

(D) acrosomes

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 5

MATHEMATICS 41.

When a two digit number is subtracted from the other two digit number which consists of the same digits but in reverse order, then the difference comes out to be a one digit perfect square. If the difference of the digits is an integer then find the number : (A) 26 (B) 54 (C) 45 (D) None of these

42.

If x2 + 2x + c = 0 and x2 + 4x – 5 = 0 have a common root, then the value of ‘c’ is : (A) 3 (B) – 3 (C) 5 (D) – 5

43.

If m arithmetic means are inserted between 1 and 31, so that the ratio of the 7th and (m – 1)th means is 5 : 9, then the value of m is : (A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) None of these

44.

If AD =

1 BD, then the value of sin is : 2

A

y

D

C

x

(A)

45.

9y 2  5x 2

x

B

2x

(B)

9y 2  5x 2

x

(C)

3y 2  5x 2

2x

(D)

3y 2  4x 2

In the figure shown, the bigger circle has radius 1 unit. Therefore, the radius of smaller circle must be :

(A)

2 +1

(B)

1 2

(C)

1 2

(D)

1 2 1

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 6

46.

The area enclosed within the curve | x | + | y | = 1, is : (A) 1 sq. units

47.

(B) 2 sq. units

(C) 3 sq. units

(D) 4 sq. units.

In the figure AE : EB = 1: 2 and BD : DC = 5 : 3. Find EG : GC. A E G B

(A) 5 : 9 48.

D

(B) 2 : 3

C

(C) 3 : 2

(D) Cannot be determined

The first term of a G.P. is 7, the last term is 567 and sum of terms is 847. Find the common ratio of the G.P. (A) 3

49.

50.

(B) 2 2 3 x

(C) 4

(D) 6

(C) 1,– 8

(D) 1, 8

1 3 x

 – 2  0 are The roots of the equation (A) 1,4 (B) 1,– 4

Let ,  be the roots of the equation x 2 – px + r = 0 and

 , 2 be the roots of the equation 2

x 2 – qx + r = 0. Then the value of r is : (A)

2 (p – q) (2q – p) 9

(B)

2 (q – 2p) (2p – q) 9

(C)

2 (q – 2p) (2q –p) 9

(D)

2 (2p – q) (2q – p) 9

51.

The number of triplets (a, b, c) of the positive integer, which satisfy simultaneous equation ab + bc = 44 & ac + bc = 23 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) Infinite solutions

52.

How many pairs of positive integer (n, m) with n  m which satisfy the equation mn = 4(n + m), is : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 7

53.

Let  =

=

tan2 A – sin2 A tan 2 A  sin2 A

and

cot 2 A – cos 2 A

, (A is acute angle) are the roots of the quadratic equation whose discriminant is ‘D’, cot 2 A  cos 2 A then the most appropriate choice, is (A) D > 0 (B) D  0 (C) D = 0 (D) D < 0 54.

Let ‘a’ denotes the value of sec 60º. ‘b’ denotes the value of q such that p +

1

=

25 where p, q, r are 19

1 r 2 positive integer. ‘c’ denotes the value of cot 30º + cosec30º and ‘d’ denotes the length of side PQ in the figure show, given the perimeter of PQR is 20, that of PRS is 19 and PS = 9. The value of a + b + c  d is equal to : q

P xº yº





S

R

Q

(A) 1 55.

(B)

7 2

(C)

9 2

(D)

11 2

Two parallel lines are one unit apart. A circle of radius 2 touches one of the lines and cuts the other line. The area of the circular cap between the two parallel lines can be written in from of (a + b) of the two integers a and b equal to : (A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 5

a – b 3 . The sum 3

(D) 6

56.

Three parallel lines 1, 2 and 3 are drawn through the vertices A, B and C of a square ABCD. If the distance between 1 and 2 is 7 and between 2 and 3 is 12, then the area of the square ABCD is : (A) 193 (B) 169 (C) 196 (D) 225

57.

Circles with centres O, O’ and P each tangent of the line L and also mutually tangent. If the radii of circle O and circle O’ are equal and the radius of the cricle P is 6, then the radius of the larger circle is :

O'

O P

(A) 22

(B) 23

L

(C) 24

(D) 25

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 8

58.

ABCD (in order) is a rectangle with AB = CD =

12 and BC = DA = 5. Point P is taken on AD such that 5

BPC = 90º. The value of (BP + PC) is equal to : (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 59.

A conical vessel of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm is completely filled with water. A metal sphere is now lowered into the water. The size of the sphere is such that when it touches the inner surface, it just gets immersed.The fraction of water that overflows from the conical vessel is : (A)

60.

(D) 8

3 8

(B)

If a + b + c = 0, then

5 8

(C)

a4  b4  c 4 a 2b 2  b 2 c 2  c 2a 2

(A) 1

(B) 2

7 8

(D)

5 16

has the value equal to (C) 3

(D) 4

SOCIAL SCIENCE 61.

62.

63.

Match the following – A 1. John Locke 2. Rousseau 3. Montesquieu 4. Abbe Sieyes

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

B The Social Contract The Spirit of the Laws What is the third Estate April Thesis Two Treatises of Government

(A) 1–e, 2–b, 3–a, 4–d (C) 1–e, 2–a, 3–c, 4–b

(B) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (D) 1–c, 2–b, 3–e, 4–a

A Tripartite pact was signed between – (A) Germany, France & United Kingdom (C) Germany, Italy & Japan

(B) France, UK & USA (D) Italy, Japan & UK

Assertion Reason

(A) : (R) :

Liberals were not Democrats They do not believe in Universal Adult Franchise. They felt men of property should have the vote (A) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (C) A is true R is false (D) A is false R is true Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 9

64.

Which of the following economic and political situations were created in India due to First World War ? (1) Forced recruitment (2) Extreme hardship for common people (3) Increased defence expenditure (4) Income tax was introduced Which one is correct ? (A) 1, 4

65.

(B) 1, 3, 4

Assertion

(A) :

Reason

(R) :

(C) 1, 2, 3

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

All social groups were not moved by the abstract concept of Swaraj. Untouchables was one such group The Congress had ignored the dalits, for fear of offending the sanatanis, the conservative high-caste Hindus.

(A) both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (C) A is true R is false (D) A is false R is true 66.

The main demands of Baba Ramchandra in Awadh for peasants were – (1) Reduction of Revenue (2) Abolition of Begar (3) Social Byocott of oppressive landlords (4) Forest rights for the villagers Which one is correct ? (A) 1, 2

67.

(B) 3, 4

The idea of Garden city was developed by – (A) Ebenezer Howard (B) Barry Parker

(C) 1, 2, 3

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

(C) Willian Hornky

(D) Raymond Unwin

68.

“Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one” The statement of which social reformer – (A) Luther (B) Karl Marx (C) Lenin (D) None of these

69.

When did John Gutenberg developed first printing press – (A) 1430 (B) 1550 (C) 1330

70.

Match the following – A 1. Samuel Richardson 2. Henry Fielding 3. Charles Dickens 4. Emile Zola (A) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(b) (C) 1–(a), 2–(c), 3–(b), 4–(d)

B (a) (b) (c) (d)

(D) none of these

Hard Times Germinal Pamela Tom Jones (B) 1–(b), 2–(a), 3–(c), 4–(d) (D) 1–(d), 2–(b), 3–(c), 4–(a) Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 10

71.

Read the following statement and find out which one of these are incorrect ? (A) Constitution of India deliberated for 114 days (B) Constitution of India complied in 12 bulky volumes (C) Committee which framed constitution had 299 members (D) Election to the constituents assembly were held in 1948 (A) A, B, C, D

72.

(B) only A

(C) only C

(D) only D

Consider the following statement – (A) The supervision, direction and control of Elections are under the Central Government (B) Election Commission consists of Chief Election Commission and some other members (C) All the members of Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India (D) Tenure of Election Commssioner is of 6 years Which of the following are correct – (A) A, B, C, D

(B) B, C, D

(C) B & C

(D) C & D

73.

Assertion Reason

(A) : (B) :

Parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country This task of law making or legislation is so crucial that these assemblies are called legislatures Considered which one is the best possible option for the above mentioned statement (A) Both are correct and B is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both are correct but they are not interrelated (C) Only A is correct (D) none of them are correct and interrelated

74.

Read the following statement and pick out the incorrect option – (A) Social diversity cannot take different forms in different societies (B) All social differences are based on accident of birth (C) People belonging to different social groups share differences and similarities (D) Every social difference does not lead to social division, social differences divided similar people from one another (A) A, B, C, D (B) A & B (C) B, C, D (D) C & D

75.

Which one of the following considered as one of the major forms of power sharing in Democracies ? (A) Horizontal division of power (B) Vertical division of power (C) Checks and Balance (D) All of the above

76.

Consider the statement is terms of Gender division. Which of the following are correct – (A) It is a hierarchical social division (B) It tends to be understood as natural and unchangeable (C) It is based on biological expectation (D) It is based on social expectation and stereotypes (A) A, B, C, D

(B) B & C

(C) C & D

(D) A & B

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 11

77.

Read the following statement and find out which one of the following in not related to the Belgium with reference to the Power sharing – (A) 59% of Dutch speakers lives in Wallonia region (B) 40% of French speakers lives in Flemish regions (C) Area of Belgium is Bigger than Haryana (D) Belgium Borders touches with Scotland, Norway (A) All are correct (C) A, B, C are correct

(B) All are false (D) B, C, D are correct

78.

Which of the following charactersitics do not fall under the holding together federalism ? (A) When a large country decides to divide its power between the constitutent states and the National Government (B) India, Spain and Belgium are examples of holding together (C) Constituents Units of federation have unequal power and some units are granted special powers (D) All of the above

79.

Read the statement and considered that which one of the following are true – (a) Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in April 2006. (b) The movement was aimed at restoring democracy (A) Both of them are true (C) Only (b) is true

80.

(B) Only (a) is true (D) Both (a) & (b) are false

Read the statement in context of Sri Lanka – (A) 74% population belongs to Sinhala speakers (B) 18% are belong Tamil speakers (C) 13% are belong Sri Lankan Tamils (D) 7% are Christians, who are both Tamils & Sinhala Which of the above are true – (A) A, B, C

(B) B, C

(C) A, B, C, D

(D) C, D

81.

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding growing importance of road transport in comparison to rail transport ? (A) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines (B) Rail transport is economical in transportation of few persons & relating smaller amount of goods over short distances. (C) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes (D) Road transport act as a feeder to other modes of transportation

82.

Read the following statements (a) It is considerd as indigenous plant to India. (b) India is the 3 largest producer of this crop. (c) It is a kharif crop (d) It requires 6 to 8 months to mature. The above statement indicates about which crop ? (A) Sugarcane

(B) Cotton

(C) Jute

(D) Wheat

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 12

83.

“This soil are made up of extremely fine clayey material and have high capacity to hold moisture. They are rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime and poor in phosphoric content”. The above statment indicate about which type of soil ? (A) Arid (B) Laterite (C) Red

(D) Black

84.

Bamboos, Sal, Sandal Wood, Teak are the commercially important species of which type of forest ? (A) Alpine Tundra Vegetation (B) Tropical rain forests (C) Tropical Deciduous forests (D) Temperate forests

85.

Iron and steel comes under __________industry (1) Mineral (2) Consumer (A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 3, 2

(3) Heavy (C) 3, 4, 2

(4) Public sector (D) 1, 3, 4

The Nepal Himalayas lies between – (A) Indus & Satluj (B) Satluj & Kali

(C) Kali & Tista

(D) Tista & Dihang

86.

87.

Which hills turned the direction of the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon ? (A) Aravallis (B) Nilgiris (C) Arakan (D) Rajmahal Hills

88.

Read the following statement – (1) The smaller occurance of minerals are called veins (2) The larger occurance of minerals are called lodes (3) In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in leads or layers (4) Sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt & sodium salt Which of the following statements is/are correct (A) 1, 3, 4

89.

(B)1, 2, 3

(D), 1 ,2 ,3, 4

Which of the following is incorrectly matched – A (River) B (Dam) 1. Tungabhadra (a) Ramagundam 2. Krishna (b) Nagarjuna 3. Mahanadi (c) Hirakud 4. Son (d) Rihand (A) only (1)

90.

(C) 1, 3, 4

(B) both (2) & (3)

(C) both (3) & (4)

(D) all of them

Match the following – A (Animals/Plants) 1. Brow anter deer 2. Himalayan Brown Bear 3. Wild Pig 4. Blue Sheep

B (Species) (a) Rare (b) Endemic (c) Vulnerable (d) Extinct (e) Endangered

(A) 1 – (e), 2 – (d), 3 – (b), 4 – (c) (C) 1 – (e), 2 – (a), 3 – (b), 4 – (c)

(B) 1 – (d), 2 – (a), 3 – (c), 4 – (b) (D) 1 – (c), 2 – (d), 3 – (b), 4 – (a)

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 13

91.

Match the following – A B 1. Tenth Five Year Plant focused on an increase in (a) health and eduction 2. A situation where more number of people are (b) non-market activities employed than required is known as (c) enrollement in higher education 3. The quality of population in an economy depends (d) disguised unemployment upon the structure of 4. The kind of activities performed for self consumption are (A) 1 – (c), 2 – (d), 3 – (a), 4 – (b) (C) 1 – (d), 2 – (a), 3 – (c), 4 – (b)

92.

(B) 1 – (a), 2 – (b), 3 – (d), 4 – (c) (D) 1 – (b), 2 – (c), 3 – (d), 4 – (a)

Read the following and state that which is / are incorrect. (a) Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms. (b) Poverty declined substantially in China and South-East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resource development (c) The social group most vulnerable to poverty is lower middle class (d) One of the main reason for poverty prevailing is India is improper implementation of policies (A) both (a) & (b) (C) (b), (c) & (d)

93.

(B) (a), (b) & (d) (D) only (c)

Match the following – A 1. The rising minimum support prices have incrased the cost of 2. The function of Academy of development Sciences (ADS) in Maharashtra is 3. Seasonal hunger is prevalent in rural areas because 4. The Co-operative society responsible for white revlution in India is (A) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (C) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a

94.

Match the following – ‘A’ 1. Net Attendance Ratio 2. Life expectancy at Birth 3. Human Development 4. Developing countries (A) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a (C) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–d

B (a) Amul Dairy (b) Agricultural activities depend on natural factors (c) Facilitating network for setting up grain banks in different regions (d) Agricultural production (B) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c (D) 1–c, 2–b, 3–a, 4–d

(a) (b) (c) (d)

‘B’ Countries having per capita income less than $825 per annum Development of a person according to his fuller capacity Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth Total number children of age group 6–10 attending school as a percentage of total number children in the same age group (B) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (D) 1–b, 2–d, 3–a, 4–c

Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 14

95.

In the context of GDP which statement is / are correct ? (a) The total value of all goods and services produced during a particular year (b) The total value of all intermediate goods and services produced during a particular year (c) The total value of all intermediate and final goods and services produced during a particular year (d) The total value of all final goods and services produced during a particular year (A) Only (d)

96.

(B) (a), (b) & (c)

Match the following – A 1. Private enterprise 2. Underemployment 3. ‘Right to Work’ is reffered as 4. Public enterprise

(C) Both (a) & (d)

B a. MTNL b. NREGA c. Disguised unemployment d. Sahara Airlines

(A) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a (C) 1–c, 2–a, 3–d, 4–b 97.

(B) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (D) 1–b, 2–c, 3–a, 4–d

Match the following – A 1. Source of formal sector loan 2. Demand Deposit 3. Members in SHG normally 4. Source of informal sector loan

(a) (b) (c) (d)

B Money lenders 15 – 20 Banks Deposits with bank which can be withdrawn on demand

(A) 1–b, 2–c, 3–a, 4–d (C) 1–d, 2–a, 3–b, 4–c 98.

(B) 1–c, 2–d, 3–b, 4–a (D) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d

Match the following – A 1. Banks in India hold about 2. Members in Krishak Cooperative are 3. Credit Card 4. RBI issues notes on behalf of the

B (a) Government (b) Also known as plastic money can be used as subsitute of cheque (c) 15% cash (d) 2300

(A) 1–c, 2–d, 3–b, 4–a (C) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c 99.

(D) All of them

(B) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (D) 1–d, 2–b, 3–a, 4–c

Which of the following statement is / are related to WTO – (a) Its aim is to liberalise international trade (b) It establishes rules regarding international trade and sees that these rules are obeyed (c) It support only the least developed countries (d) It keeps watch on trade of less developing countries Which of the following are correct – (A) both (a) & (c)

100.

(B) (b), (c) & (d)

Match the following – A 1. Shock from an electric item 2. The right against unfair trade practices 3. MRP of the product 4. Consumer Movement was a result of (A) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (C) 1–b, 2–a, 3–c, 4–d

(C) both (a) & (b)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(D) both (c) & (d)

B Dissatisfaction of consumers Right to safety Right to seek redressal Right to be informed (B) 1–b, 2–c, 3–d, 4–a (D) 1–d, 2–b, 3–a, 4–c

SAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-1_PAGE # 15

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