QUIZ

Pharmcology Quiz - I 1. An inflammatory response characterised by chills, tachycardia, syncope and flushing of the face and trunk following rapid bolus administration of vancomycin is termed as: A. Red neck syndrome B. Anaphylactic reaction C. Rabit syndrome D. Idiosyncrasy Answer Key 2. Cyclobenzaprine is a: A. Anticancer drug B. Skeletal muscle relaxant C. Antithyroid drug D. Antiepileptic drug Answer Key 3. Therapeutic serum drug level of theophylline is: A. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL B. 0.8 to 1.2 meq/dL C. 5 to 20 µg/mL D. 50 to 100 µg/mL Answer Key 4. Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral diseases specially in varicella and influenza because of its association with : A. Reye’s syndrome B. Rett’s Syndrme C. Anphylactic reaction D. Hepatotoxicity Answer Key 5. Which one of the following listed drugs has the highest potential for postural hypotension: A. Haloperidol B. Loxapine C. Trifluoperazine D. Chlorpromazine Answer Key 6. What is the usual antidepressant dose of fluoxetine: A. 50-300 mg B. 75 to 200 mg C. 20-80 mg D. 150-600 mg Answer Key 7. The basic pharmacologic action of nitrates is to: A. Decrease venous tone B. Reducing blood return C. Dilation of normal and stenotic epicardial coronary arteries D. All of the above

Answer Key 8. Which one of the following listed drugs is not a calcium channel blocking drug: A. Diltiazem B. Nifidipine C. Propranolol D. Verapramil Answer Key 9. The major difference between cardiovascular effects dopamine and those of dobutamine are related to: A. Dopamine’s ability to elicit systemic vasoconstriction owing to more potent activation of α-receptors B. Dobutamine’s ineffective for stimulation of β-receptors C. Dopamine’s ability to stimulate β-receptors D. None of the above Answer Key 10. Lidocaine is given either intravenously or intramuscularly because: A. The drug undergoes 90% first-pass hepatic metabolism B. The drug causes severe gastric irritation C. The drug is inactivated by gastric acid D. The drug causes severe nausea and vomiting Answer Key 11. Flecainide is a A. Class III antiarrythmic drug B. Antiplatelet aggregator C. Class IC Antiarrythmic drug D. Antihypertensive drug Answer Key 12. Hemodynamically stable patients with supraventricular tachycardia, who are not responding to vagal manoeuvres can be treated with: A. Amiadorone 800-1200 mg/day B. Adenosine 3-13 mg C. Lidocaine D. Betablockers Answer Key 13. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an: A. Anticholinergic drug B. Antihistaminic drug C. Short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor D. Antiparkinsonism drug Answer Key 14. Adenosine has a elimination half life of A. 1-2 days B. 1-6 seconds C. 4-6 hours D. 8-12 hours Answer Key

15. The drug of choice in torsades de pointes is:’ A. Lignocaine B. Procainamide C. Bretlium D. Magnesium Sulphate Answer Key 16. The goal of the heparin therapy in a patient with pulmonary embolism is to prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) to; A. 2 to 3 times the control B. 1 ½ -2 times the control C. To keep same as control D. To keep 1 ½ times below the control Answer Key 17. Over dosage of heparin is treated with: A. Warfarin B. Protamine sulphate 50 mg given IV over 10 minutes C. Ethamsylate D. Vitamin K1 Answer Key 18. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen can act by: A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. B. increasing the production of prostaglandins. C. activating the cyclooxygenase enzymes. D. releasing histaine from the mast cells and basophils. Answer Key 19. Contraindications to aspirin include: A. peptic ulcer disease and GI bleeding B. history of hypersensitivity reactions C. impaired renal function. D. All of the above Answer Key 20. Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative: A. ibuprofen B. diclofenac C. mephanamic acid D. indomethacin Answer Key Answer Key 1. A 11. C

2. B 12.B

3. C 13. C

4. A 14. B

5.D 15.D

6. C 16. B

7. D 17. B

8. C 18. A

9.A 19. D

10. A 20. A

Pharmcology Quiz -II 1. Anaphylactic shock or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions are: A. Type I reactions. B. Type II reactions. C. Type III reactions. D. Type IV reactions. Answer Key 2. Among the listed drugs, which has the shortest biological half-life; A. Adenosine B. Dobutamine C. Benzylpenicillin D. Amoxycillin Answer Key 3. Which of the following listed drug has the longest biological half-life; A. Diazepam B. Lorazepam C. Midazolam D. Clonazepam Answer Key 4. When a drug is given at a constant rate, the generally accepted time to reach steady state (plateau) is: A. 1 plasma half-life B. 2 plasma half-life C. 3 plasma half-life D. 5 plasma half-life Answer Key 5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity is important to the integrity of the: A. red blood cells B. white blood cells C. platelets D. mast cells Answer Key 6. Drugs that carry a possible risk of haemolysis in some G6PD deficient individuals inclulde: A. aspirin B. menadione C. quinidine D. all of the above Answer Key 7. Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by: A. sympathomimetics. B. digitalis glycosides C. beta-adrenoceptor blockers. D. aminoglycoside antibiotics. Answer Key

8. Lithium toxicity may result when: A. a thiazide diuretic is co-administered. B. there is sodium depletion. C. there is dehydration D. in all of the above situations. Answer Key 9. A type A adverse reaction is also called: A. Augmented reactions B. Bizarre reactions C. Chronic reactions D. Delayed effects Answer Key 10. Type II allergic/hypersensitivity reactions are also called: A. immediate or anaphylactic type. B. antibody-dependent cytotoxic type. C. immune complex-mediated type. D. lymphocyte-mediated type. Answer Key 11. Zero-order kinetics refers to: A. The rates at which absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of a drug occur are directly proportional to its concentration in the body. B. Processes by which a constant amount of drug is transported/ metabolised in unit time irrespective of its concentration in the body. C. The time in which the biological effect of a drug declines by one half. D. Presystemic elimination of the drug. Answer Key 12. Salivation, lachrymation, abdominal cramps, urinary and faecal incontinence, vomiting, sweating, miosis and muscle fasciculation are charecteristics of: A. Antimuscarinic syndromes B. Cholinergic (muscarinic) syndromes C. Sympathomimetic syndromes D. None of the above . Answer Key 13. Which is a gram negative bacteria: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer Key 14. Which is an anerobic bacteria: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer Key 15. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to diagnose:

A. methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. B. acid-fast tubercle bacilli infection. C. Neisseria meningitidis infection. D. Clostridium perfringens infection. Answer Key ANSWER KEY 1. A

2. A

3. A

4.D

5. A

6. D

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. B

11. B

12. B

13. D

14. C

15. B

1). The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is: A. Physostigmine B. Flumazenil C. Acetyl salicylic acid D. Acetylcysteine Answer Key 2). The drug used as an antodote of anticholinergic poisoning is: A. Atropine B. Pyridoxine C. Physostigmine D. Deferoxamine Answer Key 3). Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of: A. Warfarin B. Heparin C. Anticholinergica D. Insulin Answer Key 4). Severe lead poisoning is treated with: A. Succimer B. Naloxone C. Pyridoxine D. Atropine Answer Key 5). Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with: A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Diphenoxalate D. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 6). Adult dose of naloxone in opioid posoning is: A. IM 1 g q8h PRN B. IV 50–150 mcg/kg C. PO 140 mg/kg D. IV 0.4–2 mg PRN Answer Key 7. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih: A. Flumazenil B. N-Acetylcysteine C. Physostigmine D. Protamine Answer Key 8). Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of: A. Iron B. Calcium gluconate C. Digoxin

D. Beta blockers Answer Key 9). Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to: A. Cholinergics B. Atropine C. Benzodiazepines D. Digoxin Answer Key 10). Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with: A. Pyridoxine B. Atropine C. Diphenhydramine D. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 11). Lithum toxicity happens at serum lithium level of: A. 0.8 mEq/L B. >2 mEq/L C. 0.6 mEq/L D. >0.1 mEq/L Answer Key 12). A therapeutic agent which is some times called the universal antidote: A. Protamine sulphate B. Glucose C. Activated charcoal D. Physostigmine Answer Key 13). Idiosyncrasy refers to: A. a fever associated with administration of a medication. B. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when taken by pregnant women. C. the ability of a substance to cause cancer. D. an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it is given. Answer Key 14). Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with: A. benzatropine B. calcium gluconate C. atropine D. acetylcysteine Answer Key 15). Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning with: A. opioids B. antimuscarinic drugs C. carbon monoxide D. copper, gold, lead and mercury Answer Key

ANSWER KEY 1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. D

7. A

8. A

9. D

10. A

11. B

12. C

13. D

14. A

15. D

Pharmcology Quiz: Penicillins -1). The penicillins act by : Answer Key A. inhibition of protien synthesis B. interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis. C. inhibition of neuclic acid synthesis D. phagocytic action. 2). The most important side-effect of the penicillins is: Answer Key A. gastrointestinal disturbances. B. ototoxicity. C. hypersensitivity reactions D. hepatotoxicity. 3). A penicillin preparation which is suitable for oral administration is: Answer Key A. Benzathine Penicillin B. Benzylpenicillin C. Procaine benzylpenicillin D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin 4). Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include: Answer Key A. benzylpenicillin B. phenoxymethylpenicillin C. cloxacillin D. ampicillin 5). Co-amoxiclav is a: Answer Key A. penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations B. penicillin active against gram negative bacteria. C. carbapenem group of antibiotic. D. narrow spectrum penicillin. 6). Which statement about penicillins is FALSE: Answer Key A. Penicillins cross CSF if the meninges are inflamed. B. Benzylpenicillin is highly active against Streptococcus pneumoniae . C. Procaine penicillin, given i.m. only. D. penicillins do not cause neutropenia in high does given for longer than 10 days. 7). Which statement abot penicillins is TRUE: Answer Key A. Penicillins on high doses cause convulsions. B. Benzylpenicillin is not effective for infections due to normal strains of Neisseria meningitidis C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is not resistant to gastric acid. D. Penicillins are not effective against normal strains of gram positive bacteria. 8). Identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients indicates:

Answer Key A. the organisms are sensitive to flucloxacillin and cloxacillin B. the organisms are sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics C. the organisns are resistant to flucloxacillin, cloxacillin, and other beta-lactam antibiotics D. usual infection-control measures are satisfactory to manage the infections. 9). Which statement about ampicillin is FALSE: Answer Key A. Ampicillin cause diarrhoea on oral administration. B. Ampicillin may cause maculopapular rashes C. Amoxycillin is better absorbed from gut than ampicillin. D. Ampicillin is a cephalosporin group of antibiotic. 10). Ureidopenicillins are: Answer Key A. adapted from the ampicillin molecule, and effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. carboxypenicillins . C. monobactam antibiotics. D. beta-lactamase resistant penicillins. ANSWER KEY

1. A. B. C. D. 2. A. B. C. D. 3. A. B. C. D. 4. A. B. C. D. 5. A.

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. C

5. A.

6. D

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. A

Mechanism of action of Methenamine: Inhibits the replication of bacterial DNA Decomposes in to amonia and fomaldehyde and denatures bacterial protein Decreases bladder muscle spasms Relaxes smooth muscles of the urinary tract Normal Adult dose of Nalidxi acid is: 1 to 4 gms 4 times a day for 1 week 500 mg at bedtime for 5 days 250 mg bid for 7 days 100 mg tid for 2 weeks Normal adult dose of Bethanechol ranges from: 10 to 50 mg 3-4 times per day 50 to 100 mg 2 times a day 100 mg 6 times a day 1 gm single dose dail Injectable form of Bethanechol is administered through: Intravenously Intradermaly Intramuscularly Subcutaneosly The most significant adverse effect of epoitin alfa is: Hypotension

B. Hypertension C. Diarrhoea D. headache 6. Therapeutic effect of epoitin alfa can be expected in: A. Immediatly B. With in 3 days C. With in 2 weeks D. After 1 month 7. Aluminium hydroxide is admistered: A. With meals B. After Meals C. 30 minutes before meals D. At bedtime 8. Most common side effect of aluminium hydroxide is: A. Diarrea B. Constipation C. Headache D. Muscle weakness 9. Common side effect of ferrus sulphate: A. Weakness B. Headache C. Constipation D. Fatigue 10. Tacrolimus ia an alternative drug to: A. Cyclosporine B. Erythromycin C. Fluconazole D. Phenytoin ANSWERS: 1B,2A,3A,4D,5B,6C,7A,8B,9C,10A.