Questions for Basic a&C

TECHNICAL TRAINING CENTER BASIC AIRFRAME AND POWER PLANT ATITA

Prepared by : Engineer AYMAN SAID

Revision june 2005

1. What load is a tie rod designed to accept? (a) Tensile. (b) Torsion. (c) Bending. 2. A member taking a compression load is called a:(a) beam. (b) cable. (c) strut. 3. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called:(a) frames. (b) spars. (c) longerons. 4. Skin panels may be strengthened by:(a) struts. (b) stringers. (c) cleats. 5. The cross-sectional shape of a fuselage is given by:(a) ribs. (b) frames. (c) spars. 6. Which type of ball is of monocoque construction? (a) Golf. (b) Cricket. (c) Table tennis. 7. What is the normal form of construction of a spar? (a) Two booms separated by a web. (b) One boom mounted under a web. (c) Two webs separated by a boom. 8. One purpose of a rib is to:(a) support the bending loads on a fuselage. (b) maintain the correct contour of an aerofoil's covering. (c) form the main lateral member in an aerofoil.

9. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a: (a) bulkhead. (b) frame. (c) cleat. 10. A production break is an American alternative for the British term: (a) manufacturers joint. (b) manufacturers break. (c) production joint. 11. A component in a large aircraft is located at fuselage station number 100. Whereabouts would you look for it? (a) Close to the rear pressure bulkhead. (b) Midway along the passenger saloon. (c) In the nose wheel bay. 12. A crack stopper is fitted:(a) after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation. (b) before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation. (c) before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation. 13. Structural members are designed to carry:(a) side loads. (b) end loads. (c) side loads and end loads. 14. A pylon structural member supports the:(a) empannage. (b) engine. (c) centre section. 15. The structural member that takes the bending loads is the:(a) stringer. (b) frame. (c) longeron.

16. The structural member that is used to give shape to the fuselage construction is the:(a) longeron. (b) stringer. (c) former. 17. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it: (a) is easier to manufacture. (b) shares the loads. (c) takes all the loads in the skin. 18. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in: (a) inches. (b) feet. (c) feet and inches. 19. In a fully monocoque fuselage all the loads are carried by the:(a) longerons. (b) frames. (c) skin. 20. The box beam spar is constructed of two main members with connecting: (a) stringers. (b) frames. (c) bulkheads. 21. Crosspieces that make up the wing framework are called: (a) longerons. (b) stringers. (c) ribs. 22. The removable wing tip is fixed to the wing with: (a) solid rivets. (b) pop rivets. (c) screws.

23. The all metal wing with chemically milled channels can be used for: (a) fuel storage. (b) truss spar construction. (c) plate web spar construction. 24. The spar construction with vertical and diagonal members is called the: (a) plate web spar. (b) truss spar. (c) box beam spar. 25. (a) allow for the expansion and contraction of the panel. (b) allow ease of alignment during fitting. (c) fit the temperature sensors. 26. Typical limit for the depth of a scratch on a transparent panel which is pressurised is:(a) (b) (c) 27.

0.001 inches. 0.010 inches. 0.1 inch.

Stress crazing may be found on the:(a) tension side of a stressed panel. (b) compression side of a stressed panel. (c) tension or compression side of a stressed panel.

28. Windshields are heated to:(a) prevent misting and icing only. (b) maintain strength and toughness only. (c) demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness. 29. If a passenger compartment window is vented to the cabin, the pressure loads are taken by the: (a) inside panel. (b) outside panel. (c) both the inside and outside panels.

30. The internal doors of an aircraft:(a) carry pressure loads. (b) never carry pressure loads. (c) only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude. 31. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is:(a) not fully opened. (b) locked. (c) not locked. 32. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails it may be operated:(a) by alternate actuators. (b) manually by winding. (c) by electrical ground power.

METALS 33. What must be added to iron ore to produce pig iron? (a) magnesium (b) nickel (c) carbon 34. Ball bearings are manufactured from:(a) chromium steel. (b) vanadium steel. (c) tungsten steel. 35. The aluminium alloy that permits further working is: (a) plain alloy. (b) casting alloy. (c) wrought alloy. 36. The alloy Alclad is:(a) aluminium coated in dural. (b) duralumin coated in aluminium. (c) hiduminium coated in aluminium. 37. The alloy hiduminium is as strong as:(a) mild steel. (b) cast iron. (c) chromium steel. 38. Copper is ductile and is able to be drawn out: (a) only when it has been normalised. (b) only when it has been heated. (c) even when it is cold. 39. To soften copper it should be:(a) annealed. (b) solution treated. (c) precipitated. 40. In appearance, titanium is very similar to :(a) beryllium. (b) stainless steel. (c) copper.

41. In terms of elasticity, titanium is between:(a) stainless steel and aluminium. (b) aluminium and copper. (c) copper and stainless steel. 42. Nimonic alloys were specially developed for: (a) rotor blades of gas turbine engines. (b) high speed wing skins. (c) low pressure compressor blades.

WORKSHOP PRACTICES 43. Aircraft are cleaned to:(a) provide a clean working environment. (b) help prevent corrosion. (c) meet the requirements of the manual. 44. Which method of painting would be used on large areas but where dust would be a problem ? (a) Brushing. (b) Spraying. (c) Rolling. 45. Electrolyte spillage from an aircraft battery is:(a) treated with water and then cleaned with wire wool. (b) treated with a neutralising agent and then reprotected. (c) left to vent in normal atmospheric conditions.

SUB STRUCTURES 46. A Tucker rivet is sometimes described as a:(a) 'Pop' rivet. (b) Cherry rivet. (c) Avdel rivet. 47. Which rivet is not a blind rivet? (a) Chobert. (b) Avdel. (c) Tubular. 48. The sealing pins in Chobert rivets increase the shear strength and: (a) tensile strength. (b) prevent the ingress of moisture. (c) resistance to galvanic action. 49. The lubricant on Avdel rivets should:(a) be cleaned off with white spirit. (b) removed with MEK. (c) not be removed before use. 50. Cherry rivets may be made from:(a) copper. (b) monel. (c) titanium. 51. Special fasteners are used instead of: (a) aluminium rivets. (b) L72 rivets. (c) bolts. 52. The purpose of jointing compound is to: (a) provide continuity. (b) bond the mating surfaces. (c) inhibit electrolytic action.

53. Rivnuts are used for floor coverings and: (a) highly stressed structure. (b) other non-structural parts. (c) frame to longeron attachments.

WORKSHOP PRACTICES 54. Solders are available in two forms:(a) Stick solder with a flux core and solder in a wire form having a flux core. (b) Stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a flux core. (c) Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at all. 55. General purpose solders are an alloy of:(a) Rosin, tin and lead. (b) Tin, soft iron and lead. (c) Tin, antimony and lead. 56. General purpose solders are graded by:(a) A colour coding. (b) A letter coding. (c) A numerical coding. 57. Silver solder melts within the range:(a) 200°C - 400°C. (b) 400°C - 550°C. (c) 600°C - 850°C.

NO ANSWERS AVAILABLE

1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(b )

4.

(c )

NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING

GROUND HANDLING 58. The ideal place for jacking an aircraft is: (a) on firm ground outside. (b) inside a hangar. (c) with the aircraft faced into wind. 59. The correct jack for raising the aircraft completely is a: (a) tripod jack. (b) bottle jack. (c) single-base jack. 60. The number of places provided for jacking the aircraft is: (a) five. (b) three. (c) two plus one for a steady. 61. On collar equipped jacks the collar should be kept within: (a) two threads of the cylinder during lifting. (b) ten threads of the cylinder during lifting. (c) up tight against the cylinder during lifting. 62. Equipment used for tiedowns can be: (a) cables or rods. (b) ropes or cables. (c) chains or rods. 63. A qualified person should be in the cockpit of an aircraft to be towed. His function is to:(a) stop the aircraft during normal towing. (b) stop the aircraft, using the brakes, only during an emergency. (c) steer the aircraft as the aircraft is being towed. 64. A tow bar is designed to carry:(a) torsional loads. (b) shear loads. (c) tensile loads.

65. The shear pin on a tow bar is designed to shear if:(a) towing loads become excessive. (b) the tug stalls. (c) the tug reverses instead of pulling. 66. When towing an aircraft the towing should be:(a) as fast as possible. (b) at a reasonable speed. (c) as slow as possible. 67. Servicing checks are grouped into two categories, They are ramp checks and:(a) major checks. (b) inter-checks. (c) transit checks.

WORKSHOP PRACTICES 68. Where should inflanunable liquids be stored? (a) In a special cupboard in the workshop. (b) Anywhere as long as it is out of the sunlight. (c) in a special store outside the workshop area. 69. What is the main precaution when handling oxygen equipment? (a) Wear goggles. (b) Ensure tools are clean. (c) Keep oil and grease away from threads. 70. When manhandling light aircraft, where should the force be applied? (a) On the leading edges. (b) On the engine mountings. (c) Anywhere as long as it is not fabric skin. 71. The most suitable place to store a complete aircraft is:(a) in a cool dry hangar. (b) in the open air provided it was fully covered. (c) in the open air with tyres, cockpit and engine covers fitted.

3. SHOULD BE REVISED

BAGGAGE 72. What is used to prevent dirt entering the balls on the transfer panels? (a) They are packed with grease. (b) No protection. (c) A wiper ring. 73. Where are fixed load stops fitted? (a) At the ends of the container compartment. (b) At each container position. (c) On the side guide rollers. 74. If the joy stick is moved aft what will happen to the lateral guides? (a) Forward guides erect, aft guides erect. (b) Forward guides erect, aft guides retract. (c) Forward guides retract, aft guides erect. 75. The aft PDU switch position is used:(a) for all container loadings. (b) for fwd bay loading only. (c) for aft bay loading only. 76. When the eight position switch is in the (mid) neutral position the PDUs will:(a) rise ready but will not rotate. (b) retract and not rotate. (c) retract but rotate ready to be raised. 77. Before applying electrical power to the cargo loading system you should ensure that:(a) no mechanical locks are engaged on an electrically powered component. (b) mechanical locks are all secure. (c) all guides are down.

FIRE EXTINGUISHING 78. Which extinguisher is recommended for brake fires? (a) C02. (b) Water/glycol. (c) Dry powder. 79. What is a typical figure for the minimum resistance of a water activated cell? (a) 1 megohm. (b) 5 megohms. (c) 80. Which gas may be used for the inflation of an escape chute? (a) CO2. (b) Oxygen. (c) Helium. 81. What is a typical 'life' for fire installation components? (a) (b) (c)

5 years. 3 years. 1 year.

82. What weight may be found stamped on the neck of an extinguisher? (a) Empty. (b) Charge. (c) Empty plus charge. 83. On a passenger carrying aircraft an obstruction to a door is:(a) never permitted. (b) permitted on internal doors. (c) permitted on outward opening exits.

84. Under which flight conditions over water is it necessary to carry life jackets? (a) For all flights. (b) Those beyond sight of land. (c) Those beyond gliding distance of land. 85. How are defects on a life jacket marked for identification? (a) Blue crayon. (b) Pencil. (c) White chalk.

ELECTRICAL 01. Electronics relates to the science of:(a) electricity. (b) electrons. (c) protons. 02. Electronic circuits are made up from:(a) three basic circuits. (b) two basic circuits. (c) four basic circuits. 03. Rectifier circuits changer(a) a.c. to d.c. (b) a.c. to frequency signals. (c) d.c. to a.c. 04. An amplifier circuit changes:(a) d.c. to a.c. (b) a small frequency to a higher frequency. (c) a small voltage to a higher voltage. 05. The type of circuit most commonly used in electronic equipment is the:(a) oscillator circuit. (b) rectifier circuit. (c) amplifier circuit. 06. The oscillator circuit generates:(a) a.c. voltages at a desired frequency. (b) d.c. voltages at a desired frequency. (c) a.c. and d.c. at a desired frequency.

07. If a rectifier is designed to convert positive and negative cycles into a d.c. output, the process is called: (a) half wave rectification. (b) double wave rectification. (c) full wave rectification. 08. The pulsations of a rectifier output may be smoothed by: (a) capacitive circuit. (b) resistive circuit. (c) filter circuit. 09. The voltage from a power pack may fluctuate due to changes in the: (a) amount of current being drawn from it. (b) internal resistance of the transformer. (c) internal capacitance of the rectifier. 10. Metal rectifier units are constructed to form a: (a) parallel combination only. (b) series combination only. (c) series and/or parallel combination. 11. Stacking rectifier elements in series: (a) increases the current rating. (b) decreases the current rating. (c) increases the voltage rating. 12. Stacking the rectifier elements in parallel: (a) increases the voltage rating. (b) increases the current rating. (c) decreases the current rating.

13. The positive terminal of a selenium rectifier is identified with a: (a) red dot. (b) black dot. (c) white dot. 14. The negative terminal of a selenium rectifier is identified with a: (a) red dot. (b) white dot. (c) black dot. 15. Individual objects contained in a set are known as:(a) subsets. (b) members. (c) parts. 16. A true or false statement is known as a logical:(a) proposition. (b) gate. (c) AND gate. 17. If the word NOT is added to a proposition the operation is known as:(a) stopping. (b) negating. (c) commending. 18. Logical notation deals with statements which are:(a) true only. (b) false only. (c) completely true or false. 19. Where a number of logic variables are being considered, the combinations are written in:(a) the highest numerical order. (b) truth then false order. (c) alphabetical order.

20. The operation of inverting the truth value of a variable is denoted by placing a:(a) dot before the letter. (b) bar above the letter. (c) bar below the letter. 21. The logic representation favoured by most designers is: (a) positive logic (b) positive/negative logic (c) negative logic 22. The flow of information through logic circuits is routed by: (a) diodes. (b) sets. (c) gates. 23. One revolution of a single phase generator will produce: (a) one cycle. (b) two cycles. (c) three cycles. 24. One revolution of a three phase generator will produce: (a) three cycles. (b) two cycles. (c) one cycle. 25. The shape of the output waveform of an a.c. generator is known as a:(a) cosine wave. (b) frequency wave. (c) sine wave. 26. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per:(a) revolution. (b) minute. (c) second.

27. The average value of an a.c. sine wave is found by multiplying the peak value by:(a) (b) (c)

0 .736. 0 . 637. 0 .673

28. The three voltages of a three phase generator are:(a) 90 degrees apart. (b) 120 degrees apart. (c) 180 degrees apart. 29. The three phases of a three phase generator are connected: (a) independently of each other. (b) in series with each other. (c) in parallel with each other. 30. Apparent power is measured in: (a) kilovolts. (b) watts. (c) volt amps. 31. The most common a.c. generator used in modern civil air transports is: (a) three phase. (b) single phase. (c) two phase. 32. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the: (a) efficiency. (b) power factor. (c) power rating. 33. An aircraft a.c. generator has: (a) three phases. (b) two phases. (c) one phase.

34. The specific weight of an a.c. generator is: (a) 10 to 15 lbs per kw. (b) 15 to 20 lbs per kW. (c) 2 to 3 lbs per kW. 35. The controlled frequency of an a.c. generator is:(a) 600 Hz. (b) 400 Hz. (c) 200 Hz. 36. The tolerance of the a.c. generator frequency output is: (a) (b) (c)

20 Hz. 40 Hz. 10 Hz.

37. The transformer rectifier in the a.c. generation power supply system produces: (a) d.c. and a.c. (b) d.c. (c) a.c. 38. From a d.c. power supply, a.c. may be provided by a: (a) TRU. (b) static inverter. (c) load controller. 39. If the quality of an a.c. generator is outside limits, the aircraft busbars will be protected by the :(a) generator control unit. (b) TRU. (c) CSD. 40. Should a generator be tripped by a generator control unit, the generator is said to be:(a) off line. (b) off busbar. (c) load shed.

41. The letters which indicate that a unit is susceptible to electrostatic discharge, and which can be found on warning labels, is: (a) EICAS. (b) ESDS. (c) RCMP. 42. The precautions for working on specific electronic units are found in: (a) CAIPs. (b) BCAR. (c) the appropriate Maintenance Manual. 43. Before removing an electronic unit, the circuit breaker should be: (a) tripped (opened). (b) set (closed). (c) recycled. 44. The power ON test checks that the power supply is: (a) acceptable. (b) available. (c) regulated if it is not within tolerance. 45. The power ON test is carried out on the unit:(a) automatically. (b) only if the Engineer performs the test. (c) frequently during unit operation. 46. Fault ball indications are particularly useful for diagnosing: (a) line defects. (b) transient faults. (c) open circuit faults. 47. Before commencing a maintenance test:(a) minimum warm up time must be allowed to elapse. (b) the aircraft must be bonded to the ground. (c) ground power must be connected.

48. In the thrust management computer test used as an example in this booklet, the PASS light is: (a) amber. (b) white. (c) green. 49. The three types of circuit board are single layer, multi layer, and: (a) triple layer. (b) multi layer sandwich (c) double sided. 50. On multi layer boards the circuit is transferred from one sideto the other by: (a) tags. (b) plated through hole connections (c) screwed terminals. 51. Circuit board edge connections are sometimes known as: (a) finger contacts. (b) strip contacts. (c) sliding contacts.

(51 should be revised) 52. The base material of a circuit board must be:(a) rigid. (b) conductive. (c) flexible. 53. The base material from which a circuit board is made must be: (a) conductive. (b) non-conductive. (c) semi-conductive. 54. Bonding of copper foil to the base material is achieved by: (a) a hot pressing operation. (b) cold resin gluing. (c) oven curing.

55. The stainless steel separator plates used in the construction of circuit boards are called: (a) cauls. (b) foils. (c) phenolic layers. 56. The solution which becomes soluble when exposed to strong light is known as: (a) etching solution. (b) soluble etching solution. (c) a resist. 57. To prevent electrical interference of other systems, unscreened radio aerial cable should be separated from any other unscreened cable by a distance of: (a) 18 inches. (b) 28 inches. (c) 8 inches. 58. Aircraft cables are placed into:(a) three main groups. (b) two main groups. (c) four main groups. 59. When a designer provides a cable, consideration must be given to the volts drop across it and its: (a) insulation. (b) reactance. (c) rms value. 60. Cable current carrying capacity is now classified by: (a) diameter in inches. (b) diameter in centimetres. (c) American wire gauge.

61. Electrical interference between aerial cables is prevented on modern cables by: (a) bonding. (b) earthing. (c) screening. 62. Phase identification of cables is by coloured:(a) dots. (b) tracers. (c) bands. 63. An a.c. neutral cable is identified by:(a) a coloured tracer cable. (b) not having a coloured tracer cable. (c) a plain tracer. 64. Plug and socket seizure is prevented by:(a) careful alignment. (b) not locking the plug to the socket. (c) lubricating the pins. 65. The chances of plug to socket misconnection are minimised by using: (a) different orientations of adjacent plugs. (b) a colour code. (c) a band code. 66. The solderless terminal connection is also known as: (a) crimped joint. (b) dry joint. (c) stamped joint.

HYDRAULICS 1. What type of delivery system uses an automatic cut-out? (a) A variable pump system. (b) A fixed stroke pump system. (c) All hydraulic pumps require an automatic cut-out valve. 2. The waisted portion of the EDP drive shaft is:(a) needed as this shape fits the gearbox. (b) to protect the pump against further damage. (c) to shear if the engine seizes. 3. A depressurisation solenoid is to:(a) unload the pump. (b) disconnect the pump from the engine. (c) shut the blocking valve to isolate more than one pump. 4. The axial piston type pump on a variable displacement pump uses the control piston to:(a) operate the blocking valve. (b) prime the pump. (c) modulate the swashplate (yoke). 5. A throttling valve is. a:(a) pressure reducing valve. (b) two way restrictor valve. (c) pressure maintaining valve. 6. Which paint should be used in an area subject to chemically based fluid spillage? (a) Oil based. (b) Lacquers. (c) Polyurethane. 7. How is a component designed to be used with fire resistant fluid identified? (a) By fitting a purple band. (b) By a painted red stripe. (c) The type of fluid is written in paint on the component.

8. If different types of hydraulic fluid are mixed within a system, what will be the effect? (a) No effect. (b) Swelling of seals. (c) The pumps will run hotter. 9. Hydraulic reservoirs are used to:~ (a) store fluid for emergency use only. (b) provide a supply of fluid and to accept return fluid from the system. (c) top up leakages from the hydraulic systems. 10. The normal hydraulic system supply in a stack pipe type reservoir comes:(a) through the stack pipe. (b) from either source. (c) below the stack pipe. 11. A pneumatic relief valve incorporated in the air manifold is used to:(a) regulate the pressure. (b) regulate the inlet air pressure. (c) protect against a malfunction of the pressure regulation valve. 12. Before disconnecting pipelines or components the reservoir should be:(a) emptied. (b) depressurised. (c) no precautions necessary. 13. When a standby pump is incorporated in a multiple hydraulic system, how is it switched on? (a) Automatically by a main system loss of pressure. (b) By a member of the crew. (c) Standby system pumps run at all times the aircraft is operational.

14. If the hydraulic system that supplies the undercarriage fails it can be lowered by: (a) gravity drop. (b) cross feeding another system. (c) using a standby system. 15. What does a triple redundancy equipped aircraft in a single hydraulic system failure condition use for primary control? (a) Balance tabs. (b) Standby pump system started by the crew. (c) The remaining hydraulic systems. 16. Pipe runs from the individual pressure supplies are routed differently in case of:(a) hydraulic leakage for detection purposes. (b) structural failures. (c) ease of manufacture. 17. Electrical supplies for the electric pumps come from:(a) the same side's generator. (b) the opposite side's generator. (c) a special battery. 18. Separate reservoirs are used for each hydraulic system:(a) so that if a leak occurs only that particularsystem will be lost. (b) to enable single point replenishment to be carried out. (c) to prevent oil starvation at the hydraulic pumps. 19. Pressure relay valves are fitted:(a) where a fuse is too large. (b) in any position that is convenient. (c) vertically.

20. If an internal leak occurs in the power circuit of a hydraulic system what will the symptoms be? (a) Jerky movement of control surfaces. (b) Slow build up of pressure and rapid drop in pressure when the pump is stopped. (c) There will be no symptoms as the pump will uprate its output. 21. The RAT propeller is of variable pitch to:(a) maintain a constant speed. (b) produce a faster speed relative to aircraft speed. (c) allow the blades to fold for easier stowage. 22. Limit switches are employed on the RAT operating mechanism to:(a) illuminate a light to indicate when the RAT is fully stowed. (b) illuminate a green pressure light. (c) cut the supply to the electric motor when the RAT is fully extended or retracted, and illuminate a RAT deployed light. 23. The lights for speed information from the RAT are powered from:(a) the aircraft's battery. (b) the speed sensing device in the RAT hub. (c) the aircraft generator. 24. The RAT will deploy with the aircraft on jacks if:(a) the engine fuel switches are closed. (b) an airspeed test box is operated on the pitot tubes. (c) the battery switch is turned on. 25. If the RAT is operating successfully in the air, the indication to the crew would be:(a) a green pressure and an unlocked light. (b) a green pressure light only. (c) an unlocked light only.

26. System interconnect valves are: (a) operated to prevent a leaking system operating. (b) are open during all stages of flight. (c) operated when the pressure source is lost on a hydraulic system. 27(1). What is the main advantage of employing electric or air driven pumps over engine driven pumps? (a) They are more reliable. *(b) They can receive their power from more than one source. (c) Their hydraulic flow rate is greater. 28(2). Full time electrically powered hydraulic pumps utilise:(a) 28 volts d.c. (b) 28 volts a.c. fi (c) 115 volts a.c. 29(3). The case drain fluid from the pump is:(a) pressure fluid. (b) pump cooling fluid. (c) supply fluid. 30(4). The angle of the ADP's hydraulic pump swash plate controls the opening of: (a) the modulation valve. (b) the pressure regulation valve. (c) the shut off valve. 31(5). An ADP over speed shut down:(a) is reset by the pilot to retrieve the pump in flight. (b) is automatically reset once the pump speed has decreased. (c) can only be reset on the ground. 32(6). The speed sensor monitors:(a) the speed of the pump drive shaft. (b) the speed of the turbine. (c) the speed of the bob weight governor.

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES 1. The majority of wheels are made from:(a) Steel. (b) Aluminium alloy or magnesium alloy. (c) Manganese steel. 2. The divided wheel consists of:(a) Two wheel halves. (b) One detachable rim and two drum halves. (c) Two detachable rims and one wheel drum. 3. Before removing a serviceable wheel and tyre from an axle, the tyre pressure must be reduced to:(a) 50 psi. (b ) Zero. (c ) 25 psi. 5. The type of bearing used for wheel bearings is a:(a) Roller bearing. (b) Tapered bearing. (c) Tapered roller bearing. 6. The purpose of a fusible plug is to:(a) Indicate a high pressure in the tyre to the ground engineer. (b) Provide a second access for an alternative inflation valve. (c) Release excessive tyre pressure at a safe rate if the wheel overheats. 7. Tyre beads are made from:(a) copper. (b) high tensile steel. (c) rubberised fabric. 8. The treads of some tyres are re-inforced with:(a) apex strips. (b) layers of strengthening fabric. (c) breakers.

9. The maximum creep for tubeless tyres recommended by CAIP is:(a) one inch, (b two inches, (c) three inches. 10. Which number in the code 34 x 9.50 x 18 indicates the bead diameter? (a) 34. (b) 9.50. (c) 18. 11. If a tyre is worn beyond the level of a tie bar, the tyre can:(a) be considered serviceable. (b) not be used. (c) complete ten more landings only. 12. Kept in ideal conditions a tyre will not deteriorate for up to:(a) ten years. (b) seven years. (c) eight years. 13. The tyres on assembled wheels not required for immediate use should be inflated to between:(a) 5 to 10 psi. (b) 5 to 15 psi. (c) 20 to 30 psi. 14. The red line marked on a tube by the manufacturer indicates the:(a) heavy side. (b) light side. (c) vent hole. 15. Tyres are identified for size in inches, for example 32 x 10.75 x 14. The number 10.75 is the dimension of:(a) width of tyre section. (b) overall diameter. (c) bead diameter.

16. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to:(a) absorb increased landing shock. (b) prevent skidding. (c) spread the weight over a large area. 17. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing a:(a) snubber is used. (b) hop damper is used. (c) castoring damper is used. 18. In a hydraulic retraction system, operation in the correct order is achieved by:(a) sequence valves. (b) non-return valves. (c) shuttle valves. 19. A shuttle valve is used for :(a) maintaining fluid pressure when the main system fails. (b) preventing loss of fluid from a leaking union. (c) change over from main to auxiliary system in case of failure. 20. Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure can be checked:(a) at any time. (b) with the system depressurised. (c) with the system pressurised only. 21. What is the purpose of 'split system1 brakes? (a) Greater stopping power. (b) Less wear as only one set work at a time. (c) So that all brakes won't be lost during a hydraulic system failure. 22. In a pneumatic alternate brake system, what prevents gas pressure from entering the brakes? (a) Transfer tube. (b) Position of the pneumatic control valve. (c) Shuttle valves.

23. The rubber tyred drum on an externally mounted maxaret is driven by:(a) the wheel. (b) the brake unit rotors. (c) gears from the axle. 24. The anti-skid control unit contains:(a) the wheel speed transducers. (b) printed circuit cards. (c) brake metering valves. 25. If power is lost on electronic anti-skid systems, they will:(a) fail in the brakes OFF position. (b) fail in the position they were in when power was lost. (c) fail in the brakes ON position. 26. Aquaplaning on a four wheel bogie would occur mainly on:(a) all four wheels simultaneously. (b) the two rear wheels. (c) the two front wheels. 27. Tyre life is increased using an anti-skid system because:(a) tyre pressures can be lower. (b) there is no skidding on rapid decelerations. (c) stopping distances are shorter therefore tyres roll less distance. 28. On a DOWN selection, only two green lights illuminate. What would be the most probable cause? (a) Hydraulic failure to one undercarriage. (b) A bulb on the other leg indicator blown. (c) A selector fault. 29. During a retraction test in the hangar the landing gear warning horn sounds. How can it be silenced? Note that the flaps are UP. (a) Push one throttle forward. (b) Push both throttles forward. (c) Push the horn cancel button.

30. When the landing gear is locked up the flight deck indicator shows:(a) no indication at all. (b) a red light. (c) a green light. 1. If the aircraft is turning right using NWS and the pilot lets go of the tiller, which direction would the nose wheel assume? (a) Continue turning right. (b) Straight ahead. (c) Turn right until commanded in the opposite direction. 2. Restrictor valves in NWS systems provide:(a) damping. (b) an open return flow line. (c) an open pressure line. 3. The towing pin used in some NWS systems is:(a) for straight ahead steering only. (b) to prevent excess turning movement. (c) to allow a free castoring action. 4. NWS pressure normally comes from:(a) the undercarriage up line. (b) the undercarriage down line. (c) a special hydraulic system.

1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(c)

4.

(b)

FLIGHT CONTROL 1. A trim tab is moved by:(a) a spring in the linkage. (b) the pilot's control column or foot pedals. (c) a trim control in the cockpit. 2. Trim tabs may be moved mechanically, or:(a) electrically. (b) hydraulically. (c) by the autopilot. 3. A balance tab is moved:(a) electrically. (b) via a fixed linkage. (c) from the cockpit. 4. An anti-balance tab is moved:(a) via a fixed linkage. (b) when the C.G, changes. (c) hydraulically. 5. Servo tabs are connected directly to:(a) a spring mechanism. (b) the pilot's control column or foot pedals. (c) a control surface by rods.

1.

(c)

2.

(a)

3.

(b)

4.

(a)

5.

(b)

The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the:(a) ailerons. (b) rudder. (c) elevator. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the:(a) rudder. (b) elevator. (c) ailerons. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the:(a) elevator. (b) ailerons. (c) rudder. Aileron drag causes the aircraft:(a) to oppose the turn. (b) pitch to increase. (c) to yaw. Ruddervators when moved, will move:(a) together only. (b) opposite to each other only. (c) either opposite each other or together, depending on selection.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(c ) (a ) (b ) (a ) (c )

1. The stalling of an aerofoil is affected by the:(a) airspeed. (b) angle of attack. (c) transition speed. 2. The main function of a flap is to: (a) lower the stalling speed. (b) raise the stalling speed. (c) increase the take off speed. 3. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is:(a) high. (b) low. (c) high or low. 4. A droop leading edge increases lift by:(a) reducing airflow over the surface of the wing. (b) increasing camber. (c) increasing angle of attack. 5. A split flap increases lift by increasing:(a) the camber of the top surface. (b) the surface area. (c) the angle of attack of the lower hinged portion. 6. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will:(a) pitch nose down. (b) sink. (c) pitch nose up.

1.

(a )

2.

(a )

3.

(a )

4.

(b )

5.

(c )

6.

(a )

1. An inclinometer is used to:(a) check cable tension. (b) check control surface movement. (c) check static friction. 2. Right and left hand pairs of rudder pedals are sometimes linked by: (a) torque tubes. (b) bellcranks. (c) springs. 3. A control cable may be terminated by a:(a) bolt and nut. (b) swaged sleeve and thimble. (c) clevis pin. 4. A control system bellcrank may be used to change:(a) rotary motion to linear motion only. (b) linear motion to rotary motion only. (c) either linear to rotary or rotary to linear motion. 5. The tension in a cable control system is adjusted by:(a) the push-pull rods. (b) the cable stops. (c) the turnbuckles.

6. An American turnbuckle is in safety when:(a) no more than three threads are showing at each end. (b) no threads are showing at each end. (c) the safety holes are covered. 7. Internal cable wear will most often take place:(a) at a fairlead. (b) at a pulley. (c) at a terminal. 8. A duplicate inspection requires:(a) one qualified Engineer and any fitter. (b) Any two Engineers or fitters. (c) Two qualified Engineers. 9. Guards fitted to a pulley should:(a) not be free to rotate about the pulley. (b) be free to rotate about the pulley. (c) be lubricated. 10. Excessive backlash in a•control system can cause:(a) pilot fatigue. (b) control surface flutter. (c) porpoising.

1 (b ) 2 (a ) 3 (b ) 4 (c ) 5 (c ) 6 (a ) 7 (b ) 8 (c ) 9 (a ) 1o (b )

1. A spring bias in a control system is used to:(a) apply a correcting force in one direction. (b) remove backlash. (c) adjust the friction. 2. The trim tab indicator should read 0° with the tab in the:(a) full down position. (b) full up position. (c) neutral position. 3. When rigging the trim tab system:(a) the trim control system is rigged before the main control. (b) the aircraft must be in the rigging position. (c) the main control is rigged first. 4. The cables used in a trim control system are usually:(a) larger than the main control cables. (b) smaller that the main control cables. (c) the same size as the main control cables. 5. Protection in the event of an electric trim actuator seizing is provided by:(a) a slipping clutch. (b) a disconnect switch. (c) a circuit breaker. 6. The stops in a trim system:(a) prevent the pilot overstressing the system. (b) limit the amount of travel of the trim tab. (c) prevent the tab moving should the cable break. 7. Tab aerodynamic loads are prevented from feeding back into the control system:(a) by the control system stops. (b) by the friction damper. (c) by using a screw type actuator.

8. In a typical trim system the actuator is rigged:(a) before the cable is tensioned. (b) after the cable is tensioned. (c) last of all. 9. In an electrically operated elevator trim system the motor may be controlled by a pilot's switch or:(a) by an elevator cable tension sensor. (b) by an elevator trim cable tension sensor. (c) by a push-pull type circuit breaker. 10. In an electric trim actuator the motor drives the pulley: (a) through a reduction gearbox. (b) by means of a chain. (c) directly.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

(a) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (a)

1. In a preselect electric flap system, full up and full down travel is controlled by: (a) travel limit stops. (b) microswitches on the actuator. (c) microswitches on the follow-up plate. 2. A typical electric flap motor is stopped quickly by: (a) earthing both sides of the motor. (b) an electromechanical brake. (c) the limit stops. 3. In a preselect electric flap system, the follow-up plate is moved:(a) directly by the electric actuator. (b) by the flap interconnect cables. (c) by the follow-up cable. 4. Asymmetric protection in a flap system is provided:(a) to limit the rate of flap extension and retraction. (b) to indicate to the pilot a failure of the drive mechanism. (c) to prevent an uncontrollable roll in the event of failure. 5. The actual flap travel is checked during inspection using:(a) a tensiometer. (b) an inclinometer. (c) the position indicator. 6. In a typical electrical flap system the synchronising tube:(a) maintains the correct relationship between bellcrank and drive pulley. (b) synchronises left and right flaps. (c) aligns the actuator with the drive pulley. 7. A screw type actuator is often used in flap systems in order to:(a) prevent flap loads feeding back into the control system. (b) damp flap system movements. (c) provide an easily reversed system.

8. In a preselect electric flap system, flap position is indicated by: (a) an electrically operated indicator. (b) a pointer on the follow-up plate. (c) a desynn type indicator. 9. Post adjustment inspections of any turnbuckle should include:(a) correct specified length. (b) security of adjusting nuts. (c) safety and locking. 10. In accordance with the requirements of BCAR A5-3 the flap system:(a) does not require a duplicate inspection. (b) requires a duplicate inspection. (c) requires a duplicate inspection if it is power operated.

1.

(b )

2.

(a )

3.

(c )

4.

(c )

5.

(b )

6.

(a )

7.

(a )

8.

(b )

9.

(c )

10 .

(b )

1. In a pneumatic stall warning system, the warning note is produced by:(a) a reed. (b) a whistle. (c) a plenum chamber. 2. The calibration of a pneumatic stall warning system is adjusted by:(a) tuning the reed. (b) adjusting the air flow valve. (c) moving the adjustable plate. 3. In a simple electric stall warning system, the vane:(a) operates a potentiometer. (b) operates a microswitch. (c) controls a transformer. 4. An electric stall warning system is protected against ice by:(a) an alcohol deicer. (b) an electric heater. (c) positioning in a non-icing area. 5. The identification of the horn for the landing gear and the horn for the stall warning is achieved by:(a) pulsing the gear warning horn. (b) using horns of different notes. (c) pulsing the stall warning horn. 6. A stick shaker is activated:(a) at the actual stall. (b) if both sensors indicate a stall. (c) at a predetermined speed above the stall. 7. A stick pusher is activated:(a) at a predetermined speed above the stall. (b) if both transducers indicate a stall. (c) if either transducer indicates a stall.

8. The stick pusher solenoid valves are controlled by: (a) the signal summing units. (b) the transducers. (c) the stick shaker relays.

1.

(a )

2.

(c )

3.

(b )

4.

(b )

5.

(a )

6.

(c )

7.

(b )

8.

(a )

1. An automatic pitch trim system provides a signal to:(a) reposition the elevator. (b) reposition the elevator trim tab. (c) reposition the altitude hold datum. 2. The raw data signals are processed in the:(a) servo units. (b) controller. (c) computer. 3. Pitch and roll displacement signals can be derived from:(a) a rate gyro. (b) an attitude gyro. (c) a horizontal situation indicator. 4. A directional gyro is used to provide a signal proportional to:(a) heading displacement. (b) heading rate of change. (c) roll displacement. 5. An altitude displacement signal is provided by manometric sensor connected to:(a) the static system. (b) the pitot system. (c) the glideslope receiver. 6. Manual control of roll trim may be found on the:(a) attitude gyro. (b) mode selector. (c) controller.

a

7. A feedback potentiometer provides a signal that:(a) keeps servo output proportional to the input signal. (b) prevents too rapid response to the input signal. (c) operates a position indicator for the pilot. 8. In a typical autopilot for a small aircraft with electric actuators the motor is:(a) a.c. reversible. (b) d.c. reversible. (c) d.c. non reversible. 9. In the heading mode manually rotating the DG card clockwise will make the control wheel move:(a) away from the heading bug. (b) anti-clockwise. (c) clockwise. 10. Slack servo cables will cause an autopilot to:(a) adopt a wing low attitude. (b) 'hunt' about a neutral position. (c) respond sharply.

1 (b ) 2 (c ) 3 (b ) 4 (a ) 5 (a ) 6

(c )

7 (a ) 8 (b ) 9 (c ) 10 (b )

1. On a power assisted flight control system the feel required is normally supplied by:(a) stretching springs. (b) “Q” feel. (c) no feel is required. 2. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is supplied by:(a) nulling of the servo valve. (b) air loads on the control surface. (c) the jack ram being attached to structure. 3. 'Q' is a measure of:(a) airspeed. (b) airspeed and air density. (c) airspeed, air density and control surface area. 4. 'Q' feel units use:(a) pitot only. (b) pitot and static. (c) static only. 5. Powered flight control systems are installed in aircraft:(a) because the pilot has too many tasks to perform. (b) because at low level air density is high. (c) due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.

1.

(c)

2.

(a)

3.

(c)

4.

(b)

5.

(c)

1. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed:(a) roll will not occur. (b) pitch trim is not affected. (c) no yaw takes place. 2. Spoiler panels are controlled by:(a) a speed brake lever only. (b) the aileron wheel only. (c) the aileron wheel and speed brake lever. 3. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to:(a) prevent inadvertent operation. (b) lock the speed brakes down during flight. (c) allow ground speed brakes on touchdown. 4. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brakes:(a) to ensure the aircraft is still rolling. (b) to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse for spoiler deployment. (c) to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped. 5. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow? (a) Flap. (b) Slat. (c) Flap and slat.

1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(a )

4.

(b )

5.

(b )

1. Prevention of flap asymmetry will keep to a minimum:(a) pitch changes. (b) roll. (c) stalling speed. 2. The bypass valve:(a) is an electrically operated hydraulic valve. (b) is cable operated by the flap lever. (c) ports fluid to the up or down side of the motor. 3. Load relief when operated:(a) will retract the flaps to the up position, using the airflow to 'blow' them retracted. (b) will operate the flap lever and cable system to retract the flaps. (c) uses an electric actuator to rotate the PDU input cam. 4. The screw jack gimbal is:(a) spun with the screw jack. (b) a universal joint which moves along the screw jack. (c) used because of the buttress thread.

1. 2. 3. 4.

(b) (a) (c) (b)

1. The angle of attack at which a stall occurs:(a) can be varied by increasing the forward speed. (b) can be varied by using flaps and slats. (c) cannot be varied, it is always constant. 2. A stick shaker :(a) is an eccentric weight on a rotary electric motor. (b) is a linear actuator which operates to the elevator system. (c) vibrates the elevators to back drive the column. 3. A lift transducer is normally fitted:(a) to the nose area of the aircraft. (b) on the elevator control system. (c) on the wing leading edges. 4. The stalling speed of an aircraft:(a) is increased when it is heavier. (b) is increased when it is lighter. (c) doesn't change.

1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(c)

4.

(a)

1. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system the spoiler panels would:(a) remain where they are. (b) go to down if any are not already down. (c) go to full up. 2. The follow up transducer is fitted to:(a) the pilot's input. (b) the computer or controller. (c) the hydraulic jack. 3. The signal/s used by the auto pilot controller from the gyros is/are the:(a) rate signal. (b) deviation signal. (c) rate and deviation signal. 4. The direction of control operation on a constant run servo is done by:(a) stopping or starting the electric motor. (b) 2 directional clutches. (c) a gear system.

1.

(b)

2

(c)

3.

(c)

4.

(b)

PNEUMATIC SYSTEM 1. 8th stage air cannot pressurise the 13th stage of the compressor because:(a) of check valves. (b) of the HPSOV. (c) HP stage is higher pressure than LP stage air. 2. The isolation valve%(a) remains closed unless a crossfeed of bleed air is required. (b) will automatically open if a bleed air overheat occurs. (c) is operated through air/ground sense. 3. A leaking pneumatic duct:(a) will cause overheating of adjacent structure. (b) will cause pressure to drop so the HPSOV will open. (c) will cause the engine to increase in rpm to make up loss of pressure. 4. Overpressure is usually caused by: (a) engine rpm too high. (b) excessive bleeds switched on. (c) HPSOV seized open.

1.

(c )

2.

(a )

3.

(a )

4.

(c )

1. If the heat exchanger flow valve is closed the bleed air temperature is:(a) too hot. (b) too cool. (c) at the correct temperature. 2. The pneumatic bleed air thermostat controls:(a) the heat exchanger flow valve. (b) the bleed valve. (c) the HPSOV. 3. A PRSOV is:(a) a shut off valve and regulator combined. (b) a shut off valve with high pressure regulator combined. (c) a shut off valve only. 4. On a dual needle pneumatic pressure gauge:(a) one needle measures HP stage and one LP stage. (b) one needle is a back up for the other. (c) one needle measures the left system the other needle measured the right system.

1.

(b)

2.

(c)

3.

(a)

4.

(c)

1. What material are the engine bleed air ducts made from? (a) Titanium. (b) Stainless Steel. (c) Aluminium. 2. If a flexible ball joint was found to be leaking, what would be your first action? (a) Change the duct section. (b) Replace the bearing nut. (c) Dismantle, measure the gap and replace the seal, then carry out a leak check. 3. If Skydrol comes in contact with hot titanium bleed air ducts the results would be:(a) brittleness and corrosion to the duct. (b) no appreciable damage. (c) the ducts will crack at the welds. 4. If the pressure regulation system on a ground cart malfunctions how will a rise in duct pressure be contained? (a) Weak sections in the duct will relieve the pressure. (b) A relief valve fitted to the ground cart will function. (c) The pressure regulation system of the bleed air system will regulate the pressure.

AIR CONDITIONING 1. The purpose of the turbine in the cold air unit is to:(a) reduce the air temperature. (b) increase the air temperature. (c) provide additional cooling for the heat exchanger. 2. In the air cycle cooling system an increase in charge air temperature is provided by the:(a) turbine. (b) intercooler. (c) compressor. 3. Air leaving the turbine of the cold air unit flows to the:(a) intercooler. (b) cabin. (c) compressor. 4. In the cold air unit, the turbine rotates within a:(a) nozzle ring. (b) diffuser ring. (c) pressure ring. 5. In a brake turbine cold air unit, the compressor is subjected to:(a) ram air. (b) ambient air. (c) charge air. 6. The cooling medium for heat conversion through the heat exchangers is:(a) ram air. (b) charge air. (c) ambient air.

1.

(a )

2.

(c )

3.

(b )

4 .

(a )

5.

(b )

6.

(a )

1. The water extractor is normally located:(a) before the cold air unit. (b) between the cold air unit and the outlet to the cabin. (c) between the cold air unit compressor and turbine. 2. An air to air heat exchanger is provided to:(a) reduce the air supply temperature. (b) increase the air supply temperature. (c) provide an emergency ram air supply. 3. The most common method by which cabin humidity is increased is torfa) inject water into the cabin blower. (b) use an atomising spray of water into the conditioned air as it enters the cabin. (c) use a venturi humidifier. 4. A pre-cooler unit is normally a:(a) heat exchanger. (b) mechanical refrigeration device. (c) cooling fan within the system.

5. A water separator should be installed in a pressurisation system to :(a) collect any rain accompanying the ram air. (b) extract water from the cabin before it is discharged to atmosphere. (c) extract surplus water from the charge air. 6. Secondary heat exchangers are located:(a) between the compressor of the cold air unit and the aircraft engine compressor. (b) between cold air unit compressor outlet and turbine inlet. (c) after the water separator.

1.

(b

2.

(a

3.

(b

4.

(a

5.

(c

6.

(b

1. In a typical duct leakage protection system sensor, an increase in temperature will cause :(a) an increase in resistance. (b) a decrease in resistance. (c) no effect upon the sensing element. 2. The function of the pack flow control valve when- the recirculation fan is running is to:(a) reduce the amount of air from the engine compressor. Co) open the fan air valve 50%. (c) increase the amount of air being drawn from the engine compressor. 3. To ensure the correct mixing of the conditioned air, the mixing chamber has:(a) jet pumps. (b) baffles. (c) swirl devices. 4. When installing overheat sensors, the recommended minimum radii for bends is:(a) 3 inches. (b) h inch. (c) 6 inches. Recirculation system filters are located:(a) before the recirculation fan. (b) after the recirculation fan. (c) on the outlet of the manifold duct.

(b ) (a ) (c ) (c ) (a )

1. The control of ventilating and pressurising air being released from the aircraft is achieved by the:(a) pressure controller/discharge valve combination. (b) pressure controller/dump valve combination. (c) discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination. 2. In a pneumatic pressurisation system, positive pressure signals from the controller will cause:(a) the discharge valve to move towards closed. (b) the discharge valve to move towards open. (c) an excessive rate of cabin air discharge. 3. In an electrically operated pressurisation system, air pressure signals entering the controller are converted to electrical signals by:~ (a) an AUTO/MANUAL switch on the control panel. (b) a transducer. (c) a potentiometer. 4. Electrically driven discharge valves are usually equipped with more than one motor. The reason for this is : (a) to provide the extra power needed to drive large valves against the high mass of air used in large jets. (b) that more motors provide for finer adjustment of the valve position. (c) to provide a means of back up if a particular motor or its electrical supply fails.

1.

(a )

2.

(a )

3.

(b )

4.

(c )

1. Inward relief valves will operate when:(a) depressurising the aircraft after descent. (b) cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. (c) aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude. 2. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between:(a) 8,000 ft and sea level. (b) ISA conditions and aircraft altitude. (c) cabin pressure and ambient pressure. 3. During a normal pressurised climb following take-off:(a) the cabin ROC is less than the aircraft's ROC. (b) the cabin ROC is more than the aircraft's ROC. (c) The ROC is constant. 4. Failure of the normal Max. Diff. control is catered for by fitting:(a) safety relief valves. (b) inward relief valves. (c) altitude selector valves. 5. Cabin altitude during pressurised flight is:(a) the altitude at which cabin altitude equals ambient pressure. (b) the pressure altitude of the cabin corrected to mean sea level conditions. (c) the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude of the aircraft.

1.

(b)

2.

(c)

3.

(a)

4.

(a)

5.

(c)

1. A ditching control is used to:(a) close all valves and inlets. (b) rapidly inflate flotation bags. (c) rapidly depressurise the cabin. 2. A dump valve may be used to:(a) close the discharge valves when ditching. (b) rapidly reduce cabin altitude. (c) clear the cabin of smoke or fumes. 3. If the dump valve was inadvertently left open, the cabin would:(a) fail to pressurise. (b) be pressurised to a lower altitude. (c) be pressurised to a higher altitude. 4. In an electrically controlled pressurisation system, manual operation of the discharge valves is achieved:(a) mechanically. (b) electrically. (c) pneumatically. 5. Manual control of the pressurisation system is provided to:(a) allow for ground pressure tests. (b) cater for failure of the system to operate automatically. (c) minimise inaccuracies which occur during automatic operation.

(a ) (c ) (a ) (b ) (b )

1. Hollow section pressurised area door seals are usually inflated by:(a) a small nitrogen gas cylinder fitted to each door. (b) the difference in pressure between cabin and ambient. (c) using the aircraft's pneumatic system. 2. Leakage of cabin pressure through a damaged door or hatch seal has a noticeable effect on aircraft performance, particularly if the door is located:(a) near the front of the aircraft. (b) at the rear of the aircraft. (c) immediately behind the wing areas. 3. Pressurisation loads on the door are transmitted to the fuselage structure:(a) via the door seal. (b) through the door latches or pins. (c) only on doors of the plug type. 4. Door unsafe warnings are usually only operated when:(a) the cabin is pressurised. (b) the cabin is unpressurised. (c) the door locking mechanism is not fully locked. 5. Door pressure locks are usually fitted to:~ (a) prevent the door from being opened whenever the cabin is pressurised. (b) automatically lock the doors when the cabin is pressurised. (c) automatically unlock the doors when the cabin is depressurised. 1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(b)

4.

(c)

5.

(a)

OXYGEN 1. The quantity of oxygen that the cylinders are capable of carrying depends on:(a) how long the aircraft can remain airborne. (b) how many passengers and crew can be carried. (c) the maximum altitude the aircraft is designed to fly at. 2. Supply lines in the cabin distribution ring main are made from:(a) stainless steel. (b) brass. (c) light alloy. 3. Oxygen is available at the passenger drop down masks:(a) as soon as the masks have dropped. (b) when the crew switch the oxygen on. (c) when the mask is pulled after drop down. 4. The colour coded tape for oxygen pipelines has:(a) black rectangles and green colour band. (b) black diamonds and green colour band. (c) green rectangles and black colour band. 5. What is the purpose of the cylinder shut off valve? (a) To prevent overcharging. (b) To prevent leakage when changing a bottle. (c) To prevent leakage during parking of the aircraft. 6. PSUs are automatically opened when cabin altitude exceeds:(a) 10,000 ft. (b) 34,000 ft. (c) 14,000 ft. 1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(c )

4.

(a )

5.

(b )

6.

(c )

1. Why can't medical oxygen be used to replenish an aircraft system? (a) It is not pure enough. (b) It contains too much moisture. (c) It contains additives. 2. Permanent brain damage can occur through lack of oxygen. This condition is called: (a) hypoxia. (b) asphyxia. (c) anoxia. 3. What is meant by the minimum dispatch pressure? (a) The least oxygen needed for the number of passengers and crew for the duration of the flight. (b) The minimum oxygen content the aircraft can contain. (c) The amount of oxygen that must be left in a cylinder to prevent water ingress. 4. Aviation oxygen is:(a) 100% pure. (b) 90% pure. (c) 99.5% pure. 5. Purging oxygen systems is carried out to:(a) purify the system and rid it of moisture. (b) ensure correct operation of the oxygen system. (c) remove water from the cylinders. 6. If grease were found on an oxygen valve you were about to fit, you should:(a) clean the grease off with a clean lint-free rag. (b) use a rag dipped in methylated spirits and allow the valve to dry thoroughly. (c) reject the valve.

1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(a )

4.

(c )

5.

(a )

6.

(c )

1. In order to isolate bottles it is normal to incorporate a:(a) non return valve. (b) ON/OFF manual valve. (c) a pressure regulator valve. 2. Oxygen masks are left plugged into the regulator:(a) to prevent leaks from the regulator. (b) for storage requirements. (c) to enable the mask to operate as soon as it is fitted. 3. Reservoir bags on passenger masks are for:(a) storing an immediate supply of oxygen. (b) to take exhaled air from the users mouth. (c) to make up the loss of oxygen due to the poorly fitted mask. 4. The smoke set can be used in cases of decompression due to:(a) the full face mask. (b) its portability. (c) automatic altitude compensation regulator. 5. How is oxygen prevented from escaping into the flight deck when the normal/100% lever on the regulator is at normal? (a) The normal/100% lever covers the air hole. (b) By a screw blank. (c) By a NRV. 6. Oxygen is supplied to the mask only when the user breathes in by the action of:(a) a diaphragm deflected by reduction of pressure. (b) a check valve in the mask. (c) the operation of the ON/OFF switch.

1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(a )

4.

(c )

5.

(c )

6.

(a )

WASTE WATER 1. What material is used for toilet bowls? (a) Teflon. (b) Aluminium. (c) Stainless Steel. 2. What is the purpose of the knife blade on a wet flush toilet's basket? (a) Filtering the waste. (b) Keeping the basket's surface clear. (c) Acts as a seal to prevent fluids entering the basket. 3. What is the purpose of the safety plug? (a) To act as a second seal and prevent inadvertant drainage. (b) To prevent the panel being closed if the cap is not secure. (c) To act as an air seal against odours. 4 . At what altitude will the vacuum blowers run? (a) On the ground only. (b) Above 16,000 feet. (c) Below 16,000 feet. 5. What is the purpose of the vacuum breaker? (a) To allow the flush valve to open. (b) Prevents water from the flush ring going back to the water tank. (c) Holds a store of vacuum for toilet operation. 6. Overheating of the flush motor could occur if the:(a) toilet is operated with no precharge liquid in the tank. (b) toilet is continuously flushed.

1.

(c )

2.

(b )

3.

(a )

4.

(c )

5.

(b )

6.

(a )

1. Which pipeline in the water tank has a stack pipe? (a) The fill/vent pipeline. (b) The drain line. (c) The overflow pipeline. 2. What is the normal source of tank pressurisation? (a) A compressor. (b) A pneumatic system. (c) An external charging point on the service panel. 3. What material is the airline filter commonly made from? (a) Charcoal. (b) Sintered bronze. (c) Paper. 4. What is the purpose of the riser loop? (a) To stop water entering the compressor. (b) To give a head of water for supply purposes, (c) To ensure water enters the supply line. 5. If the light was illumined on the water heater this would indicate that:(a) an overheat had occurred. (b) the heater is operating normally. (c) the cycling switched had closed. 6. On a quantity indication system using lights, if the push button when pressed illuminated no lights this would indicate that:(a) the tank is empty. (b) the tank is full. (c) there is no power to the indicator. 7. What waste water is not jettisoned overboard? (a) The galley waste, (b) The toilet waste, (c) The washing water.

1.

(c )

2.

(b )

3.

(c )

4.

(a )

5.

(b )

6.

(c )

7.

(b )

1. Thermal anti-ice systems work on the principle of:(a) pumping air through tubes to change the shape of the aerofoil to break off the ice. (b) heating the leading edge surfaces to raise their temperature to prevent the formation of ice. (c) heating the boundary layer to blow warm air over all the lift surfaces. 2. The most common source of hot air for TAI is:(a) a gas turbine compressor bleed. (b) an electric heating element in the leading edge. (c) heated de-icing fluid sprayed over the leading edge. 3. Auto/manual systems are:(a) used by the ground crew prior to take off. (b) set by the pilot when icing conditions are met. (c) used by a flight engineer. 4. On a ground test of a TAI system an overheat of the leading edge surfaces is prevented by:(a) vigilance by the engineer carrying out the run. (b) temperature switches which will close the TAI valves. (c) cool air being blown over the surfaces to act as airflow.

1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(c)

4.

(b)

ICE/RAIN PROTECTION 1. The temperature at which ice formation is likely to occur is:(a) at freezing point. (b) below +10°C. (c) below +10°F. 2. The hot rod ice detector lamp on the flight deck illuminates when:(a) ice is detected. (b) when visible moisture is present. (c) the pilot selects it. 3. Heating elements in ice detectors are used:(a) to clear the mast enabling further monitoring to take place. (b) to keep the mast clear of ice at all times. (c) to prevent the blockage of pressure holes by ice. 4. The operation of the serrated rotor detector relies upon:(a) a speed sensing switch. (b) a torque sensing switch. (c) a pressure sensing switch.

1.

(b )

2.

(c )

3.

(a )

4.

(b )

1. Glass is always used as the outer layer of a heated windscreen to:(a) give the window strength. (b) resist bird strikes. (c) prevent scratching. 2. On an air ducted system with a forward duct this duct is used to: (a) heat the screen. (b) disperse rain. (c) anti-ice the forward part of the aircraft's nose. 3. If the conductive coating is close to the outer pane, the main function of the coating is to:(a) plasticise. (b) demist. (c) de-ice. 4. Windscreen heat assists impact resistance by:(a) making the vinyl more flexible. (b) making the glass more flexible. (c) allowing the aircraft to fly at higher altitudes.

1.

(c)

2.

(b)

3.

(c)

4.

(a)

1. Heating elements are fitted on pitot probes to the:(a) pitot head. (b) pitot mast. (c) pitot head and mast. 2. A green indicator light on the crew panel indicates :(a) that power is on the pitot heater. (b) the heater is being thermostatically controlled. (c) there is no heat at the pitot heater. 3. Static plates are usually unheated because:(a) they are not as necessary as pitot probes. (b) they do not project into the airstream. (c) holes are used instead of slots. 4. Drain mast heaters are powered:(a) on the ground only. (b) when the heaters are switched on. (c) all the time the aircraft's electrical system is powered.

1.

(c)

2.

(a)

3.

(b)

4.

(c)

FUEL SYSTEMS 1. There are three types of fuel tank. These are:(a) fuselage, wing and saddle tanks. (b) rigid, semi-rigid and flexible. (c) rigid, flexible and integral. 2. An integral tank is:(a) a specific fuel tank fitted in a fuselage. (b) a sealed compartment of an aircraft structure. (c) a permanently fitted external tank. 3. Baffle plates are fitted in fuel tanks to:(a) strengthen the internal structure. (b) attach a rigid tank to the aircraft structure. (c) prevent surging of the fuel during abnormal manoeuvres. 4. How are flexible tanks supported within their compartments? (a) With rivets. (b) With studs or cord. (c) No support is required as they are wet assembled during manufacture. 5. When fitting flexible tanks it is important that any protruding material is:(a) removed. (b) smoothed flat with files. (c) covered with tape or rubber. 5. A wet tank is:(a) an integral tank. (b) a flexible tank. (c) a ricjid tank.

1.

(c )

2.

(b )

3.

(c )

4.

(b )

5.

(c )

6.

(a )

1. Fuel tanks are vented so that:(a) excess fuel can drain away rapidly after overfilling. (b) fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency. (c) a vacuum will not form as fuel is used. 2. The international marking symbol for fuel is:(a) a black four pointed star. (b) a black circle. (c) a red triangle. 3. The normal maximum pressure for pressure refueling is:(a) 55 psi, (b) 50 psi. (c) 70 psi. 4. Fuel tanks are electrically bonded to:(a) prevent a build up of static electricity. (b) ensure a power source is available to operate refuel valves. (c) vent the fuel tank.

1.

(c )

2.

(a )

3.

(b )

4.

(a )

1. In an auto sumping jet pump scavenging system, the motive force is provided by:(a) boost pump pressure. (b) refuelling pressure. (c) jet pump pressure. 2. Microbiological organisms are identified by:(a) a blue slime. (b) a black slime. (c) a cloudy fuel mixture. 3. Sump drain valves are positioned at:(a) the highest point of the tank. (b) in the refuel manifold. (c) the lowest point of the tank.

1.

(a)

2.

(b)

3.

(c)

1. Where are boost pumps usually located on large aircraft? (a) Under the wing. (b) In the refuel panel. (c) In the refuel manifold. 2. What is the purpose of a float valve? (a) To de-energise a fuel shut-off valve. (b) To de-energise a refuel valve. (c) To vent air to and from a fuel tank. 3. What is the purpose of a fuel boost pump? (a) To pump fuel to the engines. (b) To assist in venting of the fuel tanks. (c) To assist in refuelling of the aircraft. 4. State the purpose of a float switch. (a) To close off fuel to and from tanks during fuel transfer. (b) To de-energise a refuel valve. (c) To operate low pressure warning lights on the flight deck.

1.

(a )

2.

(c )

3.

(a )

4.

(b )

1. Turbine fuels are normally manufactured from:(a) crude oil. (b) shale oil. (c) petroleum spirits. 2. JET A-l turbine fuel is used:(a) for high altitude operations. (b) only in hot climates. (c) in low temperatures. 3. Micro-organism growth within fuel tanks can be identified by:(a) blue slime. (b) black slime. (c) yellow slime. 4. Micro-organism growth can be eliminated by:(a) the addition of additives in the fuel. (b) by heating the fuel. (c) by cooling the fuel. 5. What type of liquid supports microbiological growth within fuel tanks:(a) gasolene. (b) water. (c) biofor.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) (c) (b) (a) (b)

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT 1. The load compressor is driven by the: (a) turbine, (b) accessory gearbox. (c) combustion chamber exhaust gas. 2. As well as providing electrical power, the APU provides pneumatic power to: (a) drive the hydraulic pump. (b) provide an engine start function. (c) provide equipment cooling. 3. The aircraft structure and components are protected from exhaust duct temperature by: (a) wrapping the duct in an insulating blanket. (b) directing cooling air into the exhaust duct. (c) nothing. There is no requirement for structural protection because of the APU bay size. 4. Once the APU inlet door is open, a signal is sent from the control box to: (a) operate the load compressor. (b) turn the fuel supply on. (c) turn the starter motor.

1.

(a)

2.

(b)

3.

(a)

4.

(c)

1. The by-pass valve (acceleration limiterj senses air pressure from the: (a) exhaust duct. (b) compressor air. (c) turbine. 2. During an over temperature condition, the thermostat will bleed air from the: (a) by-pass valve (acceleration limiter). (b) exhaust duct. (c) speed governor. 3. The APU speed is controlled by the:(a) thermostat. (b) governor. (c) acceleration limiter. 4. The operation of the flow divider is controlled by the: (a) air pressure. (b) thermostat. (c) fuel pressure.

1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(b)

4.

(c)

1. The bleed control valves are:(a) pneumatically operated, electrically controlled. (b) hydraulically operated, pneumatically controlled. (c) pneumatically operated, pneumatically controlled. 2. The control thermostat bleeds air from the:(a) compressor. (b) inlet guide vane actuator. (c) bleed control valve. 3. The switcher valve controls the pressure air to the:(a) inlet guide vane actuator. (b) bleed control valve, (c) control thermostat. 4. In the event of a failure of the control thermostat to operate, the bleed system is protected from over temperature by the: (a) bleed valve opening. (b) IGV actuator moving the vanes to the open position. (c) immersion thermocouple interrupting power to the bleed valve. 5. The movement of the IGV actuator is controlled by the: (a) bleed switch. (b) control thermostat. (c) auxiliary power control unit.

1.

(a)

2.

(c)

3.

(b)

4.

(c)

5.

(c)

1. The cooling fan on an APU is driven by the:(a) turbine. (b) compressor. (c) gearbox. 2. The cooling fan shut-off valve is controlled by the: (a) compressor discharge pressure. (b) turbine exhaust pressure. (c) compressor inlet pressure. 3. What component is fitted to protect the APU compartment from differential pressures? (a) A pressure switch in the pneumatic duct. (b) A 'blow in' door assembly. (c) A bleed valve fitted in the pneumatic duct. 4. Which APU indicating gauge will give an indication of the condition of the APU? (a) The EGT gauge. (b) The bleed air duct pressure gauge. (c) The rpm gauge.

1.

(c)

2.

(a)

3.

(b)

4.

(a)

1. For the typical APU start sequence described in this booklet, the APU starter will dropout at:(a) 7 % rpm. (b) 50 % rpm. (c) 95 % rpm. 2. How can we ascertain that the extinguishant has been discharged from the APU fire bottle:(a) by a bottle discharge light. (b) by a red light on the APU fire handle. (c) by a master warning light illuminating. 3. APU electrical generators are designed to run at: (a) 12,000 rpm. (b) 42,000 rpm. (c) 8,00 0 rpm. 4. During an APU start sequence the APU 'load' light will illuminate at:(a) 50%. (b) 100%. (c) 95%.

1.

(b)

2.

(a)

3.

(a)

4.

(c)

GAS TUBINE EHGINES Thrust Calculations (g = 32.2ft/sec/sec) 1. The thrust produced by an engine or propeller can be calculated from the following formula, thrust equals:(a) W x