Questions (Asnt Modules)
April 5, 2017 | Author: Mirza Safeer Ahmad | Category: N/A
Short Description
Download Questions (Asnt Modules)...
Description
ADMINISTRATION ASNT MODULE MODULE 1 1. SNT-TC-1A 1992 is applicable to how many NDT methods?
Top of Form
7
8
9
10
Bottom of Form 2. Which of the following statements is true with respect to SNT-TC-1A?
Top of Form
This document specifies the requirements for establishment of qualification and examination program.
This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and certification program.
This document specifies the requirements for establishment of a qualification and certification program.
This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and examination program
Bottom of Form 3. Written testimony of qualification is termed:-
Top of Form
Documentation
Certification
Testimonial
Authentication
Bottom of Form 4. Certifying agency is defined as:-
The Employer
The Outside Agency
The ASNT Level III
Both The Employer and the ASNT Level III
Top of Form
Bottom of Form 5. Which of the following NDT Levels should be qualified to set up and claibrate equipment and to interpret and evaluate results with respect to applicable codes, standards and sepcifications?
Top of Form
Level I
Level II
Level III
Level II and Level III
Bottom of Form 6. To be considered for certification at Level III a candidate should satisfy which of the following criteria?
Top of Form
Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus one years experience in NDT.
Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus two years experience in NDT.
Three years experience as NDT Level II and one years experience as NDT Level I.
Five years experience as NDT Level II.
Bottom of Form 7. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice?
Top of Form
The employer shall establish a written practice.
The written practice should describe levels of responsiblity.
The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability.
The written practice shall be maintained on file.
Bottom of Form 8. The requirement for vision examination are as follows:-
Top of Form
Jaeger J1 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually.
Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 15 inches administered annually.
Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually.
Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered bi-annually.
Bottom of Form 9. The following results were obtained as a result of examination: Practical: 90% General Theory: 68% Specfic Theory: 92% What is the composite grade and has the candidate passed or failed?
Top of Form
83.3% Pass
83.3% Fail
85.5% Pass
85.5% Fail
Bottom of Form 10. The number of questions for Ultrasonic Testing at Level 1 General Theory is:
Top of Form
20
30
35
40
Bottom of Form 11. The number of questions for magnetic particle inspection at Level III specific theory is:
Top of Form
15
20
30
40
Bottom of Form 12. When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III how many check points are necessary to confirm an understanding of NDT variables and the employers procedural requirements?
Top of Form
1
5
10
15
Bottom of Form 13. When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level II the minimum number of samples to be tested is?
Top of Form
1
2
3
4
Bottom of Form 14. A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:-
Top of Form
7 Days
20 Days
30 days
Receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination
30 Days and receove suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination
Bottom of Form 15. A candidate is required to be examined directly to Level II in Penetrant Inspection. How many months experience must the candidate have?
Top of Form
1
2
3
6
Bottom of Form 16. Outside training services must be in accordance with the employers written practice and are the responsibility of:-
Top of Form
NDT Level III
Outside Agency
Employer
Customer
Bottom of Form 17. Colour contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then:-
Top of Form
Annually
At 2 year intervals
At 3 year intervals
At 5 year intervals
Bottom of Form 18. The employers certification shall be deemed ??? when employment is terminated.
Top of Form
Suspended
Annulled
Nullified
Revoked
Bottom of Form 19. How many different techniques are identified in leak testing?
Top of Form
2
3
4
5
Bottom of Form 20. Initial experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the candidate spends a minimum of ??? of work time on each method for which certification is sought.
Top of Form
20%
25%
33%
50%
MODULE 2 1. The code of ethics shall be ??? upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT Level III?
Top of Form
Binding
Optional
Negotiable
Mandatory
Bottom of Form 2. An NDT Level III must be completely ??? in any professional report statement on testimony?
Top of Form
Prejucdiced
Impersonal
Objective
Conventional
Bottom of Form 3. An NDT Level III who accepts gratuities from equipment suppliers for specifying their products may be charged under the code of ethics with?
Top of Form
Improper conduct
Conflict of interest
Unauthorised practice
None of the above
Bottom of Form 4. Conflict of interest with an employer?
Top of Form
Is unacceptable
May be acceptable if agreement on compensation can be made
Shall be disclosed to the employer
Shall not be made known
Bottom of Form 5. The use of employment agencies for securing salaried positions and paying of a commission is considered?
Top of Form
Unacceptable
Acceptable
Open to ruling of the Ethics Committe
A felony
Bottom of Form 6. Which of the following may be grounds for a charge of a violation of the code of ethics?
Top of Form
Conviction of a felony
Revocation of professional engineers licence
Suspension of professional engineers licence
All of the above
Bottom of Form 7. An NDT Level III shall serve which of the following?
Top of Form
Employer
Client
Public
All of the above
Bottom of Form 8. Which of the following statements is true? An NDT Level III shall...
Top of Form
Issue no public statments
Criticise NDT matters conneced with public policy
Issue no public statements which are paid for by an interested party
Express no opinion on NDT matters
Bottom of Form 9. An NDT Level III who reviewed work that was performed by himself on behalf of another employer when an employed public official wold be considered?
Top of Form
Ethical
Improper conduct
Conflict of interest
Unauthorised practice
Bottom of Form 10. An NDT Level III faces a situation where the Health and Safety of the public are not protected. Which of the following actions shall be taken?
Top of Form
Notify the proper authority
Refuse to accept responsibility for the deisgn
If necessary sever relationship with the employer
All of the above
MODULE 3 1. How many levels of qualification are defined in CP 189?
Top of Form
3
4
5
6
Bottom of Form 2. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as part of training of NDT personnel?
Top of Form
Metallurgist
Welding engineer
NDT instructor
NDT Level III
Bottom of Form 3. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as?
Top of Form
Evaluation
Interpretation
Assessment
Appraisal
Bottom of Form 4. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined as?
Top of Form
Qualification
Certification
Testimonial
Proficiency
Bottom of Form 5. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind has no academic credentials. How many years of NDT expereince as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the individual have attained?
Top of Form
1 year
3 years
5 years
10 years
Bottom of Form 6. The requirements for near distance vision are as follows?
Top of Form
Jaegar J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
Jaegar J2 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
Jaegar J1 at not less than 15 inches administered annually
Jaegar J1 at not less than 15 inches administered bi-annually
Bottom of Form 7. If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is certified during any consecutive 12 month period his certification shall be?
Top of Form
Revoked
Suspended
Terminated
Invalidated
Bottom of Form 8. NDT Level III perosnnel shall be recertified by the employer every five years by?
Top of Form
Examination
ASNT Level III points systems
Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in each method for which recertification is sought
Written documentation
Bottom of Form 9. Who is responsible for documentation of records of certification?
Top of Form
Outside agency
NDT Level III
NDT Instructor
Employer
Bottom of Form 10. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is?
Top of Form
8
16
24
40
Bottom of Form 11. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level II radiography exam (holds Level I) is?
Top of Form
270
400
800
1200
Bottom of Form 12. The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam is?
Top of Form
15
20
30
40
Bottom of Form 13. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam is?
Top of Form
15
20
30
40
Bottom of Form 14. CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT perosnnel in how many methods?
Top of Form
7
8
9
10
Bottom of Form 15. The use of a mass spectrometer for leak testing is considered to be a?
Top of Form
Test technique
NDT discipline
NDT method
Test method
Bottom of Form 16. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT records?
Top of Form
Academic qualifications
Vision examination
Levels of certification
Record of previous experience
Bottom of Form 17. The employers representative who administers the Level III examinations shall possess?
Top of Form
Written testimony from the employer
A company Level III certificate
An ASNT Level III certification
Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A
Bottom of Form 18. The practical examination at Level II the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of ??? samples?
Top of Form
1
2
4
10
Bottom of Form 19. The employer has deemed an individuals conduct has been unethical and his certification is therefore?
Top of Form
Revoked
Suspended
Terminated
Invalidated
Bottom of Form 20. Reinstatement of suspended certification shall be determined by?
Top of Form
The employer
The NDT Level III
The outside agency
Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct dependant upon the NDT level to be reinstated
ANSWERS MODULE 1
1.
10 2. This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and certification program. 3. Certification 4. The Employer 5. Level II 6. Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus one years experience in NDT. 7. The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability. 8. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually. 9. 83.3% Fail 10. 40 11. 15 12. 10 13. 1 14. 30 Days and receove suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level III before examination 15. 3 16. Employer 17. At 3 year intervals 18. Revoked 19. 4 20. 25%
2. Bottom of Form Bottom of Form Bottom of Form
ANSWERS MODULE 2
1. Binding 2. Objective 3. Conflict of interest 4. Shall be disclosed to the employer 5. Acceptable 6. All of the above 7. All of the above 8. Issue no public statements which are paid for by an interested party 9. Conflict of interest 10. All of the above ANSWERS MODULE 3
1.
5 2. NDT Level III 3. Evaluation 4. Qualification 5. 10 years 6. Jaegar J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually 7. Suspended 8. Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in each method for which recertification is sought 9. Employer 10. 16 11. 1200 12. 40 13. 15 14. 9 15. Test technique 16. Academic qualifications 17. An ASNT Level III certification 18. 2 19. Revoked 20. Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct dependant upon the NDT level to be reinstated
PCN MODULE 1 1. Which of the following describes the PCN vision requirements?
Top of Form
PSL 44
ISO 9712
EN 4179
The Jaegar Eyechart
Bottom of Form 2. What is the date of implementation of this document?
Top of Form
01.02.01
03.10.00
01.04.97
01.01.92
Bottom of Form 3. How many hours training are requested for access to Visual Testing L2 for a candidate holding VT L1?
Top of Form
16
24
40
80
Bottom of Form 4. What is the maximum amount of on the job training which can be claimed against the training requirements in Gen 97?
Top of Form
25% of the time required
30% of the time required
33% of the time required
50% of the time required
Bottom of Form 5. How many hours training are required prior to taking the Basic Radiation Safety exam?
Top of Form
None
8
16
24
Bottom of Form 6. Which of the following documents is PCN accredited against as a Certification Body operating Certification of Personnel?
Top of Form
ISO 9712: 1992
EN 473: 1993
EN 45012: 1989
EN 45013: 1989
Bottom of Form 7. What is the document number of PCN's code of conduct for accredition holders?
Top of Form
GEN 97
ISO 9712
CP 27
PSL 31
Bottom of Form 8. Which Appendix relates to the Welds sector?
Top of Form
A
B
C
D
Bottom of Form 9. To which of the following answers does this definition refer? The procedure for revalidation of certification without examination after the first five year period of validity.
Top of Form
Recertification
Re-examination
Renewal
Validation
Bottom of Form 10. Details of work activities are required for renewal of certification, which PCN document details these requirements?
Top of Form
CP 16
CP 19
CP 27
PSL 32
Bottom of Form 11. The pass mark for all supplementary exams shall be?
Top of Form
80%
75%
70%
Depends on which method is taken
Bottom of Form 12. PCN Test Centres will retain exam results for a period of?
Top of Form
9 years
10 years
11 years
12 years
Bottom of Form 13. A change of employer shall require re-examination?
Top of Form
True
False
Bottom of Form 14. Applicants for Level 2 supplementary examinations shall be required to show evidence of the accumulation of points?
Top of Form
True
False
Bottom of Form 15. The procedure for recertification of PCN L3 cetificates is detailed in PCN document?
Top of Form
OP16
CP17
CP19
PSL4
Bottom of Form 16. Calculate the Composite grade for the Basic exam? Part A scored 78% and Part B scored 94%.
Top of Form
78%
80%
85%
86%
Bottom of Form 17. What result do these scores for a Basic L3 exam give? Part A scored 68% and Part B scored 84%.
Top of Form
Fail, retest at Part A allowed
Fail, no retest allowed
Pass
More information is needed to decide
Bottom of Form 18. What result do the following scores give for a PT L2 exam? General 70% Specific 70% Parctical 90%.
Top of Form
Fail, retest of any parts 2 allowed
Fail, no retest allowed
Pass
More information needed to decide
Bottom of Form 19. What result do the following scores give for a VT Level 1 exam? General 90% Specific 68% Practical 90%.
Top of Form
Fail, retest allowed on specific exam
Fail, no retest allowed
Pass
More information needed to decide
Bottom of Form 20. What result do the following scores give for a UT Welds Method Level 3 exam? C1 70% C2 80% C3 80%.
Top of Form
Fail, retest of any 3 parts allowed
Fail, no retest allowed
Pass
More information needed to decide
Bottom of Form 21. In the Level 3 exam which paper covers the understanding of PCN Gen 97?
Top of Form
C2
C3
A1
A2
Bottom of Form 22. How many questions are asked in the ET Level 1 general exam?
Top of Form
30
40
30 + 4 narrative
40 + 4 narrative
Bottom of Form 23. How long is calculated as being allowed for each multiple choice question in a Level 2 exam paper?
Top of Form
2.5 minutes
2 minutes
1.5 minutes
1 minute
Bottom of Form 24. When considering eligibility for Level 3 exams and NOT holding a Level 2 Certificate in that method how much work experience is required - if the candidate does not hold a degree?
Top of Form
12 months
24 months
48 months
72 months
Bottom of Form 25. Which organisation has accredited PCN as an accreditation body?
Top of Form
European Commission
ISO
UKAS
BINDT
Bottom of Form 26. It is possible to be examined as a Level 1 Radiographic Interpreter?
Top of Form
True
False
Bottom of Form 27. Part B of the Basic L3 exam must include questions from the principal method for which L3 Certification is sought?
Top of Form
True
False
Bottom of Form 28. The Basic exam is passed in May 1998 and the Method exam is passed in June 2000 does the examinee qualify for a Level 3 in that method?
Top of Form
Yes
No
Bottom of Form 29. The C2 exam of the Method Level 3 comprises?
Top of Form
40 multichoice questions
30 multichoice questions
30 multichoice questions plus 3 from 5 narrative
20 multichoice questions
Bottom of Form 30. To which of the following does this definition relate? A specific way of utilising an NDT method.
Top of Form
NDT Method
NDT Technique
NDT Instruction
NDT Procedure
ANSWERS PCN MODULE 1 1.
PSL 44 2. 01.04.97 3. 24 4. 33% of the time required 5. 16 6. EN 45013: 1989 7. CP 27 8. C 9. Renewal
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
CP 16 80% 11 years False True CP17 86% Fail, no retest allowed Pass Fail, retest allowed on specific exam Fail, retest of any 3 parts allowed A2 40 1.5 minutes 72 months UKAS False True Yes 20 multichoice questions NDT Technique
Bottom of Form
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 1 1. Products used in load carrying applications require more careful testing because?
Top of Form
Failure can cause loss of life
Failure can cause loss of use of the product
Failure can be expensive
Failure can cause danger to other structures
All the above
Bottom of Form 2. Loads which are most likely to cause failure are?
Top of Form
Single direction
Multi directional
Duo directional
Pahse orientated
Bottom of Form 3. The general term for a local variation in material continuity is called?
Top of Form
A discontinuity
A defect
An indication
A crack
Bottom of Form 4. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in material continuity the term given specifically to this is?
Top of Form
A discontinuity
A flaw
A defect
Any of the above
Bottom of Form 5. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity?
Top of Form
Crack
Change of section
Drilled holed
All the above
Bottom of Form 6. The study and description of a material property related to analytical studies and testing attempts to quantify the toughness of a material is known as?
Top of Form
Fracture mechanics
Acceptance standards
Defect reliability
Defect analysis
Bottom of Form 7. A flaw which is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called?
Top of Form
A discontinuity
A defect
An indication
A blemish
Bottom of Form 8. Which of the following is NOT considered a mode of failure?
Top of Form
Fracture
Plastic deformation
Fatigue
Elastic deformation
Bottom of Form 9. Brittle fracture is most likely to occur?
Top of Form
At high temperatures
At low temperatures
Under cyclic loading
In a corrosive environment
Bottom of Form 10. NDT is generally not carried out on cast irons because?
Top of Form
Cast iron is inherently free from major defects
Due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses
It is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive
The low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT
Bottom of Form 11. To make by hand, machinery or by agency: To produce by labour and usally machinery, defines the?
Top of Form
Manufacturing process
Engineering process
Machinery process
Technology
Bottom of Form 12. Processing is one or more steps that change a Products?
Top of Form
Shape
Properties
Chemical analysis
Shape and Properties
All the above
Bottom of Form 13. Changing a material's shape can be accomplished in which of the following states?
Top of Form
Solid
Liquid
Plastic
Solid and Liquid
All of the above
Bottom of Form 14. Which of the following is an example of reshaping?
Top of Form
Casting
Forging
Grinding
All of the above
Bottom of Form 15. The process of solidification during casting can be likened to that of the?
Top of Form
Forging process
Rolling process
Welding process
Extrusion process
Bottom of Form 16. Reshaping of a material whilst in a plastic or semi-solid form is called?
Top of Form
Casting
Rolling
Extrusion
All of the above
Rolling and Extrusion
Bottom of Form 17. Which of the following could be referred to as an engineering material?
Top of Form
Plastic
Concrete
Glass
All of the above
Bottom of Form 18. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection of a certain size beam under known loads?
Top of Form
Tensile strength
Elastic limit
Younges modules
Ductility
Bottom of Form 19. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material for a particular application?
Top of Form
Cost
Loading
Mechanical properties
Inspection costs
Any of the above
Bottom of Form 20. Which of the following could effect the properties of an engineering material?
Top of Form
Composition
Heat treated condition
Crystal structure
Composition and heat treated condition
Composition, heat treated condition and crystal strucure
Bottom of Form 21. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property?
Top of Form
Electrical conductivity
Thermal conductivity
Corrosion resistance
Machine resistance
Bottom of Form 22. Which of the following is classed as a Physical property?
Top of Form
Density
Conductivity
Melting point
All of the above
Bottom of Form 23. A test designed to determine a materials castability would be classified as looking for a?
Top of Form
Mechanical property
Physical property
Processing property
Chemical property
Bottom of Form 24. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are?
Top of Form
Stresses
Pressures
Strain
Fatigues
Bottom of Form 25. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a?
Top of Form
Comprehensive stress
Tensile stress
Normal stress
Shear stress
Bottom of Form 26. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a?
Top of Form
Indirect test
Direct test
Destructive test
Indirect and direct test
Bottom of Form 27. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur?
Top of Form
The material may fracture
The material may be work hardened
The material will show no harmful effects
The material may fracture and the material may be work hardened
Bottom of Form 28. The ultimate strength of material is?
Top of Form
Lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials
Lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials
The same as the breaking strength for brittle materials
None of the above
Bottom of Form 29. The modulus of elasticity is also known as?
Top of Form
Stress's modulus
Young's modulus
Strain's modulus
Resilience
Bottom of Form 30. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile strength?
Top of Form
Cast iron
Concrete
Wood
Concrete and wood
All the above
Bottom of Form 31. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test?
Top of Form
The shear test
The transverse rupture test
The compression test
The endurance test
Bottom of Form 32. Fatigue failure may initiate from?
Top of Form
An area of corrosion
An internal flaw
A surface notch
All the above
Bottom of Form 33. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test?
Top of Form
Tensile impact test
Charphy test
Izod test
Charpy test and izod test
All the above
Bottom of Form 34. Hardness tests can be used to determine material?
Top of Form
Hardness
Composition
Heat treated condition
All the above
Bottom of Form 35. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that?
Top of Form
Only allow very small surface blemishes
Are very ductile
Have very large surface areas
None of the above
Bottom of Form 36. Calculate the factor of safety given that a materials has a working stress of 15, 000 ibs per square inch and an elastic limit of 60, 000 lbs per square inch?
Top of Form
2
4
6
8
Bottom of Form 37. Which of the following is a notched bar test?
Top of Form
Charpy
Creep
Izod
Charpy and Izod
All of the above
Bottom of Form 38. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent?
Top of Form
180 degrees
150 degrees
90 degrees
None of the above
Bottom of Form 39. Which of the following is a hardness test?
Top of Form
Rockwell
Creep
Charpy
Izod
Bottom of Form 40. Stresses that act along or parallel to a plane are known as?
Top of Form
Shear stresses
Tensile stresses
Compressive stresses
All of the above
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 2 1. Electrons in an atom can exist?
Top of Form
Only in exact energy levels
Only in exact energy shells
At random throughout the atom
In Exact energy levels and in exact energy shells
All the above
Bottom of Form 2. A material that has high hardness and good electrical and thermal connectivity is known as?
Top of Form
A plastic material
A ceramic material
A metallic material
A liquid material
Bottom of Form 3. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas?
Top of Form
Crystalisation
Vaporisation
Sublimation
None of the above
Bottom of Form 4. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner and one centrally between them?
Top of Form
Hexagonal close packing
Body centred cubic
Face centred cubic
Body centred tetragonal
Bottom of Form 5. Which of the following materials is Body centred cubic at room temperature?
Top of Form
Copper
Gold
Iron
Nickel
Bottom of Form 6. A property of a fine grain material is that it will?
Top of Form
Machine more easily than corse grain
Case harden more easily than coarse grain
Have higher strength than coarse grain
All the above
Bottom of Form 7. Permanent deformation can occur in which of the following ways?
Top of Form
Static deformation
Twinning deformation
Elastic deformation
All of the above
Bottom of Form 8. Work done to produce plastic deformation below a materials re-crystallisation temperature is known as?
Top of Form
Recovery work
Cold work
Twinning
Plasticity work
Bottom of Form 9. Solution heat treatment requires which of the following?
Top of Form
To dissolve maximum amount of equilibrium preciptant in the solid solution
Very high temperatures
Diffusion times in excess of 24 hours
All of the above
Bottom of Form 10. Preciptation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following materials?
Top of Form
Carbon steel
Lead
Copper
Alluminium
Bottom of Form 11. Altropic changes occur in the?
Top of Form
Liquid state
Solid state
Gaseous state
Liquid or solid state
Bottom of Form 12. Which of the following is an allotropic material?
Top of Form
Iron
Copper
Lead
Aluminium
Bottom of Form 13. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in solid solution with iron in the gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as?
Top of Form
Spherodizing
Annealing
Austentitization
Normalising
Bottom of Form 14. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve machinability of high carbon steels is called?
Top of Form
Annealing
Austenitization
Spheroidizing
Stress relieving
Bottom of Form 15. A treatment that is used to give minimum hardness and maximum ductility of steel is?
Top of Form
Annealing
Austenitization
Spheroidizing
Normalising
Bottom of Form 16. Localised corrosion causing deep extend holes is known as?
Top of Form
Fisives
Pitting
Worm holes
None of the above
Bottom of Form 17. Which of the following is classed as permanent deformation?
Top of Form
Twinning
Rotational deformation
Slip
Twinning and Slip
All of the above
Bottom of Form 18. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties?
Top of Form
Increase ductility and decrease hardness
Increase ductility and increase hardness
Decrease ductility and increase hardness
Decrease ductility and decrease hardness
Bottom of Form 19. Of the following metals which is most suceptible to corrosion by sea water?
Top of Form
Gold
Copper
Zinc
Lead
Bottom of Form 20. During the hardening of steel which of the following quenching media will produce the severest quench?
Top of Form
Water
Brine
Oil
Air
Bottom of Form 21. Which is the most common metallic element found on earth?
Top of Form
Iron
Titanium
Aluminium
Magnesium
Bottom of Form 22. The product of a blast furnace is known as?
Top of Form
Iron
Steel
Pig iron
A pig
Bottom of Form 23. What is the approproximate carbon content of Pig iron?
Top of Form
1-2%
2-3%
3-4%
4-5%
Bottom of Form 24. When the carbon content of iron is reduced below 2% it is called?
Top of Form
Steel
Gray iron
White iron
Ductile iron
Bottom of Form 25. A Bessemer converter is?
Top of Form
A method of producing cast iron
A method of producing pig iron
A method of producing wrought iron
A method of producing steel
Bottom of Form 26. Practically all steel is made with the use of?
Top of Form
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Helium
Bottom of Form 27. The carbon content of low carbon steel is?
Top of Form
6-25 points of carbon
25-50 points of carbon
0.06%-0.25% of carbon
6-25 points and 0.06%-0.25% of carbon
None of the above
Bottom of Form 28. The carbon content of high carbon steel is?
Top of Form
6-25 points of carbon
25-50 points of carbon
50-160 points of carbon
Over 160 points of carbon
Bottom of Form 29. An alloy steel is a steel containing one or more?
Top of Form
Elements
Atoms
Mixtures
Components
Bottom of Form 30. What do the letters AISI?
Top of Form
American Institute of Steel Industries
American Iron and Steel Industries
American Industries of Steel Institutes
American Iron and Steel Institute
Bottom of Form 31. Which of teh following is a classification of Stainless Steel?
Top of Form
Ferritic
Martensitic
Austenitic
Ferritic and Austenitic
All of the above
Bottom of Form 32. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contain?
Top of Form
18% Chromium 8% Nickel
15% Chromium 10% Nickel
10% Chromium 15% Nickel
8% Chromium 18% Nickel
Bottom of Form 33. Which of the following metals can be magentised?
Top of Form
Martensitic stainless
Ferritic stainless
Austenitic stainless
Martensitic stainless and Ferritic stainless
None of the above
Bottom of Form 34. Which of the following may be used as an alloying element of steel?
Top of Form
Copper
Nickel
Aluminium
None of the above
All the above
Bottom of Form 35. Steel has a carbon content of less than?
Top of Form
4%
3%
2%
1%
Bottom of Form 36. Which is the main alloying element of austenitic stainless steels?
Top of Form
Nickel
Manganese
Molybdenum
Chromium
Bottom of Form 37. Which of the following furnaces is NOT used to produce steel?
Top of Form
Blast furnace
Bessemer converter
Basic oxygen furnace
Open hearth furnace
Bottom of Form 38. Tool and die steels are classed as?
Top of Form
Low carbon steels
Medium carbon steels
High carbon steels
Alloy steels
Bottom of Form 39. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels?
Top of Form
Nickel
Chromium
Manganese
All of the above
Both Chromium and Manganese
Bottom of Form
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 3 1. Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy?
Top of Form
Beryllium base
Zinc base
Tin base
Copper base
Bottom of Form 2. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal?
Top of Form
Copper
Zinc
Tin
Aluminium
Bottom of Form 3. Aluminium cannot be used in most areas where vibrations combine with high stress. There are special care has to be taken to remove all stress raisers. Which below is considered a stress rasier?
Top of Form
A notch
A scratch
A sudden change of section
A notch and a scratch
All of the above
Bottom of Form 4. When applying the term annealed to pure aluminium it is interpreted to mean?
Top of Form
Work hardenning
Re-crsytalisation
Stress releasing
Normalising
Bottom of Form 5. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of aluminium alloys?
Top of Form
UT
MT
RT
ET
Bottom of Form 6. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc?
Top of Form
Copper
Brass
Aluminium
Steel
Bottom of Form 7. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are?
Top of Form
Copper and tin
Copper and zinc
Bronze and tin
Tin and zinc
Bottom of Form 8. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components?
Top of Form
Radiography and penetrant
Radiography and magnetic particle
Ultrasonic and magnetic particle
Ultrasonic and penetrant
Bottom of Form 9. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material is plated with zinc it is known as?
Top of Form
Anodizing
Wrapping
Galvanising
Flashing
Bottom of Form 10. Thermoplasting can be?
Top of Form
Melted down and re-used without loss of properties
Softened by heat
Will char when heated
Melted down and re-used without loss of properties and softened by heat
Bottom of Form 11. Thermosetting plastics are?
Top of Form
Rigid
Deteriorated by heat
Charred by heat
All of the above
Bottom of Form 12. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is classed as a light alloy?
Top of Form
Beryllium base
Zinc base
Tin base
All of the above
Bottom of Form 13. Which of the metals listed below has the highest strength to weight ratio?
Top of Form
Beryllium
Titanium
Aluminium
Zinc
Bottom of Form 14. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is?
Top of Form
Poor corrosion resistance
Notch sensitivity
High density
More expensive than using beryllium which exhibits similar properties
Bottom of Form 15. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast?
Top of Form
Aluminium
Copper
Magnesium
Zinc
Bottom of Form 16. Cobalt is used as an alloying constituent in?
Top of Form
Bearing alloys
Solders
Permanent magnets
Dental alloys
Bottom of Form 17. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the ??? of a bulk material?
Top of Form
Designing
Production
Shape changing
Casting
Bottom of Form 18. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process?
Top of Form
Casting
Welding
Machining
Rolling
All of the above
Bottom of Form 19. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of producing complex shapes?
Top of Form
Casting
Forging
Rolling
Welding
Bottom of Form 20. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are considered?
Top of Form
Markets
Product life
Design
Manufacturing process
All of the above
Bottom of Form 21. Which of the following is required when making a sand casting?
Top of Form
A mold
A pattern
A flask
All of the above
Bottom of Form 22. Shrinkage within a casting can occur in which of the following states?
Top of Form
Liquid state
Solidification
Solid state
Solidification and solid state
All of the above
Bottom of Form 23. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in?
Top of Form
Liquid state of casting
Solidification state of casting
Solid state of casting
All of the above
Bottom of Form 24. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best design results?
Top of Form
Sudden section change
Small radii
Large radii
All of the above
Bottom of Form 25. Metal is fed into the casting cavity through a ??? system?
Top of Form
Flow system
Gating system
Pouring system
Riser system
Bottom of Form 26. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for?
Top of Form
Gas evolution
Sand erosion
Shrinkage
Airlocks
Bottom of Form 27. Directional solidification in Castings is helped by the use of?
Top of Form
Cores
Feederheaders
Chills
Chaplets
Bottom of Form 28. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a ??? is used in the modling stage?
Top of Form
Chill
Ingate
Riser
Core
Bottom of Form 29. Green sand is a mixture of sand and?
Top of Form
Clay
Silicon
Water
Clay and water
All of the above
Bottom of Form 30. The upper half of a flask is called?
Top of Form
A drag
A cope
A draft
A mould
Bottom of Form 31. Small metal supports which become part of the casting during pouring are called?
Top of Form
Chills
Chaplets
Cores
Risers
Bottom of Form 32. Which of the following casting processes is best used for small intricate casting - upto 2kg - requiring close tolerances?
Top of Form
Centrifugal casting
Investment casting
Continuous casting
Permanent mold casting
Bottom of Form 33. The casting process which gives improved material density towrads the outside of teh mold is?
Top of Form
Centrifugal casting
Investment casting
Continuous casting
Permanent mold casting
Bottom of Form 34. The casting process which produces bar is known as?
Top of Form
Centrifugal casting
Last wax process
Continuous casting
Plaster mold casting
Bottom of Form 35. Splashed metal entrapped by molten metal that does not re-fuse is called?
Top of Form
Hot tear
Chill
Inclusion
Cold shut
Bottom of Form 36. The bottom part of the flask is known as the?
Top of Form
Cope
Bottom board
Drag
Runner
Bottom of Form 37. Which of the following is used to give preferential solidification of castings?
Top of Form
Chills
Chaplets
Cores
None of the above
Bottom of Form 38. In the casting process what name is given to the part which is used to represent the finished item?
Top of Form
The mould
The spruce
The pattern
The shell
Bottom of Form 39. The crystal structure of a casting adjacent to the mould wall will be?
Top of Form
Fine equiaxed grains
Core equiaxed grains
Columnar grains
Dendritic
Bottom of Form 40. Shrinkage occuring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages?
Top of Form
1
2
3
4
Bottom of Form
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 4 1. Which of the following is required - in theory - for two perfectly matched faces?
Top of Form
Atomic cleanliness
Atomic closeness
Pressure
Atomic cleanliness and atomic pressure
All the above
Bottom of Form 2. Fusion bonding creates a metallurgical effect similar to?
Top of Form
Rolling
Forging
Casting
Sintering
Bottom of Form 3. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is?
Top of Form
Fusion bonding
Pressure bonding
Flow bonding
Atomic bonding
Bottom of Form 4. A bonding process where only very small amounts of the base metal is used is called?
Top of Form
Fusion bonding
Pressure bonding
Flow bonding
Cold bonding
Bottom of Form 5. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a flow bond?
Top of Form
Fusion welding
Braze welding
Metal arc welding
None of the above
Bottom of Form 6. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds?
Top of Form
Porosity
Slag
Cracks
All of the above
Bottom of Form 7. That portion of the base metal affected by the welding process is known as?
Top of Form
The weld zone
The heat input zone
The weld affect zone
The heat affected zone
Bottom of Form 8. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to offset this problem?
Top of Form
Use different alloy rods to control temperature
Using a pre-heat
Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat
Nothing can be done to offset the problem
Bottom of Form 9. Angular distortionmay occur in a weld when?
Top of Form
Restraints are used
Multipass welds are used
Single pass welds are used
Multiple welds and single pass welds are used
Bottom of Form 10. Longitudinal stresses in a weld are at a maximum?
Top of Form
Along the weld centre line
On the weld fusion face
At the heat affected zone
Lomgitudinal stresses are uniform across teh weld
Bottom of Form 11. What is required to form a fusion bond?
Top of Form
Melting of parent metals
A filler rod
Pressure
All of the above
Bottom of Form 12. Flow bonding is a term used in the welding process which of the following would be classed as flow bonding?
Top of Form
Brazing
Braze welding
Soldering
All of the above
Bottom of Form 13. To join two metals which of teh following is essential?
Top of Form
Atomic closeness
Atomic cleanliness
Melting
Atomic closeness and cleanliness
All the above
Bottom of Form 14. In order to produce a fully homgenous material afetr welding which of the following is required?
Top of Form
Preheat
Post heat treatment
Low heat input welding
Fillers of different composition
Bottom of Form 15. In electric arc welding, a metal rod is one electrode, the other is?
Top of Form
The work material
The rod flux
The earth
The work material and the rod flux
Bottom of Form 16. Stud welding is used primarily to?
Top of Form
Bond two dissimilar metals
Attach threaded fasteners to plates
Rivot plates together
Fuse bar ends together
Bottom of Form 17. A welding electrode coatings provides?
Top of Form
A shield for the arc against the atmosphere
Added heat input
Additional stresses to the weld
None of the above
Bottom of Form 18. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is commonly?
Top of Form
Argon
Helium
Hydrogen
Argon and Helium
All of the above
Bottom of Form 19. When using gas metal arc welding what range of filler wire diameter is available?
Top of Form
0.1-0.5mm
0.5-3mm
0.1-30mm
0.5-10mm
Bottom of Form 20. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as?
Top of Form
TIG welding
Manual metal arc welding
Submerged arc welding
Stick welding
Bottom of Form 21. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications?
Top of Form
Car manufacturing
Seam welding
Shipbuilding
Fabrication yards
Bottom of Form 22. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum?
Top of Form
Plasma arc welding
Electron beam welding
Friction welding
Explosion welding
Bottom of Form 23. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or tubes?
Top of Form
Ultrasonic welding
Electroslag welding
Plasma arc welding
Friction welding
Bottom of Form 24. Explosion welding is generally used to join?
Top of Form
Two or more metals of different composition
Butt welds
Very think titanium sheeting
Plastics
Bottom of Form 25. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked one illustrates a?
Top of Form
Bevel groove
Fillet
J Groove
Vee Groove
Bottom of Form 26. The drawing symbol at the bottom of the page marked two illustrates a?
Top of Form
Vee Groove
J Groove
U Groove
Bevel Groove
Bottom of Form 27. AWS categorise weld defects into three classes which below is a dimensional defect?
Top of Form
Slag
Warping
Lack of fusion
Porosity
Bottom of Form 28. Which of the following is classed as a structural defect?
Top of Form
Undercut
Slag
Incomplete fusion
Slag and incomplete fusion
All of the above
Bottom of Form 29. Which of the following defects occur in the base metal?
Top of Form
Lamination
Slag inclusion
Lack of fusion
Lack of penetration
Bottom of Form 30. Welds without preheat are said to have?
Top of Form
Very low thermal gradients
Low thermal gradients
Medium thermal gradients
High thermal gradients
Bottom of Form 31. Why is it advisable to leave final inspection of a weld until well after welding has finished?
Top of Form
Because the welds will be too hot to test
Due to the possibility of distortion
Due to the possibility of post weld cracking
All of the above
Bottom of Form 32. What is the approximate arc column temperature in an electric arc weld?
Top of Form
6000 degrees celsius
5000 degrees celsius
4000 degrees celsius
3000 degrees celsius
Bottom of Form 33. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas?
Top of Form
Hydrogen
Helium
Oxygen
All of the above
Hydrogen and helium only
Bottom of Form 34. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode?
Top of Form
Manual metal arc
Metal inert gas
Tungsten inert gas
Manual metal arc and metal inert gas
Bottom of Form 35. The weld symbol ยต is used to symbolise a?
Top of Form
Fillet weld
U-Groove
Bevel groove
None of the above
Bottom of Form 36. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant testing?
Top of Form
LPT
FPT
PT
RPT
Bottom of Form 37. hich of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene equipment?
Top of Form
Flame cutting
Brazing
Soldering
Brazing and Soldering
All of the above
Bottom of Form 38. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation?
Top of Form
Flux powders
Welding rod coatings
Inert gases
Welding rod coatings and inert gases
All of the above
Bottom of Form 39. The ease with which a solid union may be made between two parts by welding is known as?
Top of Form
Weldability
Joining
Buttering
Soldering
Bottom of Form 40. A typical temperature range to stress relieve ferritic steel is?
Top of Form
100-150 degrees celsius
250-300 degrees celsius
600-650 degrees celsius
900-950 degrees celsius
Bottom of Form
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY MODULE 5 1. Which of the following metals has very little ductility?
Top of Form
Copper
Steel
Iron
Aluminium
Bottom of Form 2. Mechanical properties are generally improved?
Top of Form
In the direction of rolling
30 degrees to the direction of rolling
45 degrees to the direction of rolling
90 degrees to the direction of rolling
Bottom of Form 3. Grain refinement for metals existing in one crystalline form can be accomplished by?
Top of Form
Hot working
Cold working
Recrystallisation
Hot working and recrystallisation
All the above
Bottom of Form 4. For steels hot working is performed at temperatures of?
500-750 degrees celsius
750-950 degrees celsius
Top of Form
950-1300 degrees celsius
1300-1500 degrees celsius
Bottom of Form 5. How generally is a decarburised layer removed?
Top of Form
Heat treatment
Surface removal
Stress relief
Annealing
All of the above
Bottom of Form 6. Improved properties can be achieved by?
Top of Form
Cold rolling
Hot rolling
Extrusion
All of the above
Bottom of Form 7. Most materials used in Mill work start out as?
Top of Form
Cast ingots
Slabs
Billets
Blooms
Bottom of Form 8. Which listed below have approximately square cross sections?
Top of Form
Slab
Bloom
Billet
Bloom and Billet
All of the above
Bottom of Form 9. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot?
Top of Form
Hot rolling
Continuous casting
Extrusion
None of the above
Bottom of Form 10. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill?
Top of Form
Sheet
Plate
Strip
Sheet and Strip
All of the above
Bottom of Form 11. Mill work covers many products. Which below would be classed as a mill product?
Top of Form
Pipe
Tube
Casting
Pipe and tube
None of the above
Bottom of Form 12. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique?
Top of Form
Extruding
Rolling
Resistance welding
Extruding and Rolling
All of the above
Bottom of Form 13. One type of forging operation uses?
Top of Form
Rolling
Casting
Open dies
Extrusion
Bottom of Form 14. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is?
Top of Form
UT
RT
ET
MT
Bottom of Form 15. Impact forging is more commonly known as?
Top of Form
Open die forging
Drop forging
Closed die
Rotary swaging
Bottom of Form 16. The term used in powder metallurgy for the bonding of the solid particles is?
Top of Form
Pressing
Blending
Sintering
Mixing
Bottom of Form 17. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is?
Top of Form
Cutting tools
Castings for human implants
Extrusion of thin sections
Metal fabrication of minute welds
Bottom of Form 18. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section?
Top of Form
Bar
Bloom
Slab
Billet
Bottom of Form 19. Which of the following is an advantage of the continuous casting process?
Top of Form
Removes the requirement for ingots
Reduces wastage of material
Can produce intricate cross sections
Removes the requirement for ingots and reduces wastage of material
All of the above
Bottom of Form 20. Sheets of metal before it is rolled into pipe using a welding bell is called?
Top of Form
Strip stock
Skelp
Pipe stock
Tube stock
Bottom of Form 21. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build ups of friction container and billet?
Top of Form
Direct hot working
Indirect cold working
Indirect hot working
Direct cold working
Bottom of Form 22. Powder metallurgy is used to shape produce refractory metals. Which of the following is classed as a refractory material?
Top of Form
Inconel
Magnesium
Tungsten
Beryllium
Bottom of Form 23. The shearing operation has many forms - names - of those listed below which is a shearing operation?
Top of Form
Bending
Drawing
Forming
Parting
Bottom of Form 24. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material?
Top of Form
Compressive
Shear
Tensile
Compressive and Tenisle
All of the above
Bottom of Form 25. In explosive forming?
Top of Form
Gun powder is used
High explosive is used
Slow buring propellants are used
High explosive and slow buring propellants are used
Bottom of Form 26. Which of the following is a hole making operation?
Top of Form
Splitting
Parting
Blanking
Notching 27. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of?
Top of Form
Swarf
Chips
Fillings
Turnings
Bottom of Form 28. High speed steels are generally used for which type of cutting tool?
Top of Form
Grinders
Drills
Files
Abrasives
Bottom of Form 29. The letters N/C in machine work stand for?
Top of Form
Numerical control
Number cycle
Numerical cutting
Number counting
Bottom of Form 30. Which of the following may be used as a cutting tool material?
Top of Form
Diamonds
Cast iron
Cemented carbides
Both diamonds and cemented carbides
Bottom of Form 31. What material is usually used in injection molding?
Top of Form
Thermosetting plastics
Thermoplastics
Ceramics
Powder metals
Bottom of Form 32. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding?
Top of Form
Filler
Resin
Wood Shavings
Filler and Resin
All of the above
Bottom of Form 33. Laminates are a composite form which below would be classed as a laminate?
Top of Form
Fibreglass
Honeycomb
Ceramics
Fibreglass and Honeycomb
Bottom of Form 34. The letters EDM stands for?
Top of Form
Electronic digital meter
Electro discharge motor
Electrical discharge machinery
Electro dispensing machine
Bottom of Form 35. The common term used to denote the 'light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation' is?
Top of Form
Laser
Cathode ray tube
Photon Gun
Optical microscope
Bottom of Form 36. Composites may be made up of which of the following material combinations?
Top of Form
Combinations of different metals
Combinations of different metals and non metals
Combinations of different non metals
All of the above
Bottom of Form 37. Case hardening is accomplished by?
Top of Form
Carburizing
Heat treating
Flame hardening
Carburizing and flame hardening
Bottom of Form 38. With which NDT method is surface cleanliness most important?
Top of Form
UT
PT
MT
RT
Bottom of Form 39. Abrasive finishing could be classified by which of the following methods?
Top of Form
Wire brush
Polishing
Buffing
All of the above
Bottom of Form 40. Electro plated surfaces are ususally quite thin. Which common NDT methd is used to measure the plate thickness?
Top of Form
MT
UT
ET
PT
Bottom of Form 41. Which materials can best be anodised?
Top of Form
Steel
Copper
Aluminium
Brass
Bottom of Form 42. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening?
Top of Form
Spheroidising
Carburing
Flame hardening
Nitriding
Bottom of Form 43. Which of the following is a measuring device?
Top of Form
Micrometer
Vernier
Steel rule
All of the above
Bottom of Form 44. Fixed guages are used?
Top of Form
Only on single purpose applications
To measure internal bores
Shape relationships
All of the above
Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form
View more...
Comments
