Questions and Answers A320

A. B. C. D.

Questions and Answers 1. Which lights go off when the gear is retracted Nose and Turn Of Turn Of and Wing Nose and Land Logo and Land

A. B. C. D.

2. Which colour code is correct for push button switches? AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch

3. "Below the passenger door window is a red CABIN PRESSURE light which ... A. ... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure." B. ... is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb." C. ... flashes with residual pressure and slides armed." D. ... cannot be seen from outside the aircraft."

"Set on LO, the actual pack flow may be ... ... HI due to APU bleed supplying." ... NORM due to APU bleed supplying." ... HI due to air conditioning temperature demands." ... NORM or HI due to single ack operation."

4.

A. B. C. D.

5. "The MAN V/S CTL switch is ... A. ...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve." B.... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve." C.... operative in the MAN pressurisation mofe: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve." D. ... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."

A. B. C. D.

6. What is displayed on the COND S.D. if the primary channel of the Zone Controller has failed? "ALTN MODE" "PACK REG" Double crosses ( XX ) "TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"

A. B. C. D.

7. What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for? Initial cooling of air after entering the pack. Cooling H.P. air only. Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

A. B. C. D.

8. The Trim Air Valves: Are electrically controlled by the zone controller. Adjusts temperature by adding cold air. Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air. Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

A. B. C. D.

9. With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be? LO or NORM or HI. Always NORM. NORM or HI. NORM or LO.

A. B. C. D.

10. The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND and FLIGHT. When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur? After second engine start. At lift-of. At 100 kts. on the take-of roll. When the thrust is set for take-of.

11. Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true? A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ] B. ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ] C. ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ] D. ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]

12. When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time? A. After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

B. C. D.

After APPR is armed on the FCU. After LOC capture. After G/S capture.

The APU has been switched off, it has not stopped . Why is this? The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run. The Air Intake Flap failing to close. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns. A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

13.

A. B. C. D.

14. "The APU may be started ... A. ... at or below 35,000 feet only." B. ... at or below 25,000 feet only." C. ... at or below 300 knots only."

D.

...throughout the normal flight envelope."

15. What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on? A. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately B The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open. . C. The APU Fuel Pump will operate.

D.

The APU Intake Flap opens.

What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate? APU starter disengagement. APU electrical power can be used. N speed greater than 75% ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

16.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

17. When does the APU starter engage? When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on. When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i. When the MASTER SW is pressed on. When the START SW is pressed on.

A. B. C. D.

18. On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3? The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS. The Captain's ACP has failed. The Captain's loudspeaker has failed. Both RMPs have failed.

19. For the ACP, which is true? A. The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys. B. The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers. C. The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3 D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

20. On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate? A. Failure of the associated transmitter.

B. Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver. C. SELCAL operation only. D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

A. B. C. D.

What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails? Switch it of : use ACP 2 Switch it of : use RMP 3 only. Switch it of : use RMP 3 or RMP 2. Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

A. B. C. D.

22. Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT? It cannot be powered. It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2. It will be powered by the emergency generator.

A. B. C. D.

23. What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF? Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS. GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS. GEN 1 is de-energised. GEN 1 is line contactor opens.

21.

24. What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed? A. The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System. B. The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT. C. The RAT will not deploy. D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate . 25. The aircraft is on the chocks. All sources (Engine, APU and External Power) are ON. Which of the following is true? A. The External Power is supplying the network.

B. If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network. C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network. D. If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.

26. Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate? A Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO . SMOKING switch positions. B Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light . switch is at ARM or ON. C Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light . switch is at ARM. D. If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.

A. B. C. D.

27. What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply? Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude. 20 minutes. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

A. B. C. D.

28. If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions? Close the door and use another exit. Manually open the Air Valve. Recycle the Door Control Handle. Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

A. B. C. D.

29. What will trigger a fire warning? Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine). Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU). Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine). Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).

30. Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?

A. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired. B. SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired. C. SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected. D SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is . depressurised. A. B. C. D.

31. What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration? Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67° Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67° Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67° Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°

A. B. C. D.

32. What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot? Alpha. Altitude. Airspeed. G.

33. In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale? A. Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟꜱ. B. There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft. C. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replacesVʟꜱ. D. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft.

What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure? SLATS will be inoperative. FLAPS will be inoperative. SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. 34.

A. B. C. D.

35. When will MECH BACK-UP occur? A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder. B. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder. C. Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.

D.

Loss of all hydraulics.

36. What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate On the EWD? A. In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction. B. In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1. C. In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure. D. Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ

37. "VFE NEXT is ... A. ... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight." B. ... the minimum speed for the present configuration." C. ... the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed." D. ... the maximum speed for the present configuration."

A. B. C. D.

38. If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw? Automatic rudder trim. Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing. FAC commands. ELAC turn co-ordination commands.

39. A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD. What causes this and how do you recover? A. Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps. B.Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps. C Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract . the slats. D Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to . retract the slats. 40. In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand? A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. B. Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll. C. Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand. D. A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.

41.

A. B. C. D.

A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1 SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1 SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1 SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1 SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0

A. B. C. D.

42. In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true? High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed. Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled. Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

A. B. C. D.

43. During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of the flap handle, what will happen? The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts. The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts. The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts. An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.

44. If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following statements is true? A. The last pilot to press a button has priority. B. They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally. C. Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight. D. After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

A. B. C. D.

45. On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications. Why is this? To show the tolerances when LAF is operating. To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative. One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop). One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).

46. If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what happens?

A. The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed. B. The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed. C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed. D. The aircraft goes into Alternate law.

47. Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true? A. A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light. B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light. C A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's side of the . glareshield. D. A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.

A. B. C. D.

48. What does "F" speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip? Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3. Minimum speed for present flap setting. Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.

A. B. C. D.

49. What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode? Raw Data from a tuned VOR. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint. Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint. Track and Groundspeed.

A. B. C. D.

50. After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB? When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent. After SLAT retraction. When passing acceleration altitude. When passing thrust reduction altitude.

51. "To join an ILS on an intercept heading, the FPV will be lined up with the ... A. ... glideslope demand." B. ... ILS inbound course."

C. D.

... actual aircraft heading." ... actual aircraft track."

52. Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true? A. The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH NO. at all times. B. On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb. C. Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits. D. An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.

53. What information is given by the speed trend arrow on the PFD? A. The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed. B. The ECON speed range during descent. C. The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration. D. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.

54. If the IAS is a "split" triangle, which of the following statements is correct? A. It may be magenta or blue. B. It indicates a speed constraint. C. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Climb or Managed Descent. D. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only.

A. B. C. D.

55. The ECAM CTL PANEL "WHEEL" pushbutton switch has failed. What must you do to display the WHEEL page? Use the STS button. Use the ALL button. Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL. Use the RECAL button.

56.

A. B. C. D.

SRS means? Speed Retard System. Speed Reference System. Safety Reference System. Stall Reference System.

A. B. C. D.

57. When does the REFUELG memo appear? When the END Light illuminates steady green. When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling. When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL. When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

58. Which is true if both booster pumps in the centre tank fail? A. You must descend to 15000' when gravity feeding becomes necessary. B. The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications. C. The SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications. D. The FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber).

A. B. C. D.

59. What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg? Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg. Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. One transfer valve in each wing will open. The centre tank pumps will stop.

A. B. C. D.

60. With all tanks full and the MODE selector in AUTO, which is correct? The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended. The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended. All pumps will run continuously. The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

61. On the S.D. what signifies an inaccurate quantity indication? A. An amber box round a fuel figure. B. An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure.

C. D.

Double crosses in place of a fuel figure. An amber half-box round a fuel figure.

62. What happens automatically when the aircraft is being refuelled?

A. The transfer valves close. B. The Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero. C. The Cross-feed valve opens. D. The booster pumps stop running.

A. B. C. D.

63. With fuel in the centre tank, but both centre booster pumps failed, what will be indicated on the EWD? FOB quantity indicating amber. FOB quantity indicating pulsing. A full amber box round the FOB indication. A half amber box round the FOB indication.

A. B. C. D.

64. With the BLUE switch at AUTO, when will the pump operate? After the first engine has been started. After the both engines have been started. For 5 minutes after electrical power-up. After engine No. 1 has been started.

65. Which is true with regard to the PTU? A. It is inhibited between engine starts. B. It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start. C. It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow systems. D. It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi. 66. On the HYD overhead panel, which is true of any pump FAULT light? A. It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature. B. It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken. C. It will extinguish when the switch is placed to OFF. D. It is inhibited with engines running.

67. Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why? A. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire. B. G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures. C. All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss. D. All systems; for use by maintenance.

A. B. C. D.

What happens automatically after first engine start? The Blue pump operates. The Blue pump stops until the second engine has been started. The P.T.U. operates until the second engine has been started. The P.T.U. operates continuously.

A. B. C. D.

69. Which of the following correctly completes this statement?"With the Yellow Electric pump not switched ON, it will operate automatically ... ... if the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails." ... if the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 p.s.i.." ... when the Cargo Door is operated." .. when a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed."

68.

70.

A. B. C. D.

When can the RAT be restored? At any time. Below 140 kts. Below 100 kts. On the ground only.

71. Which of the following defines icing conditions? A. Before T/O : OAT 8℃ or below, contaminated runway. B. In flight : TAT 10℃ down to SAT minus 30℃. C. In flight : SAT 10℃ or below. D. Before T/O : OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm.

A. B. C. D.

72. What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine Anti-ice are lost? Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON. Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine anti-ice OFF. Both ON. Both OFF.

73.

Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?

A. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., and engine nacelles. B. Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles. C. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., fin L.E. and engine nacelles. D. All of the wing L.E. and engine nacelles.

A. B. C. D.

74. From where does Engine 1 anti-ice obtain its heat? Directly from its own fan air system. Directly from its own bleed. Directly from its own bleed or engine 2 bleed. Directly from its own bleed or the main bleed system.

75. What do green lines next to the REL indicators show? A. Nothing in flight and brake applications after landing. B. Serviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing. C. Unserviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing. D. Release of brake pressure after landing only if autobrake is selected.

76. Following Gravity Extension which statement is true? A. Brakes and steering will be normal. B. Alternate braking will be operational. C. Braking will be normal and nosewheel steering will be lost. D. Nosewheel steering will be normal and anti-skid will not be available.

77. With the aircraft on the ground, which is true with regard to the gear lever? A. It can be moved, retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression. B. It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression. C. It can be selected up by operating the override trigger. D. It cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised.

78. What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel? A. LGCIU 1 and 2 failure. B. Associated door is not locked / closed.

C. Associated gear leg is in transit. D. Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position.

79. What happens during pushback (inc engine start) with the steering selector in the TOWING position? A. A caution NW STEER FAULT will appear on the EWD B. Green N WHEEL STEERING DISC until steering selector is NORMAL. C. Amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC if at least one engine is running. D. STEERING is displayed (in amber) on the Wheels SD.

A. B. C. D.

80. When does a DECEL light illuminate? With autobrake in use, and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory. With LO autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate. To show that the anti-skid is serviceable.

81. Regarding landing with Autobrake MED selected, which is true? A. Braking starts 2 secs. after both main landing gears are compressed. B. Braking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment. C. Braking starts 4 secs. after mainwheel spin-up. D. During braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes.

82. Pressing the DISC button on the Captain's steering handwheels does what? A. Disconnects the steering system completely. B. Disconnects the Captain's steering handwheels from the system. C. Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system. D. Disconnects the Captain's pedal movement from the steering system.

83. When may the MEMO "N.W. STRG DISC" appear on the EWD? A When the Captain and / or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons on the . steering handle. B. In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start. C. When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to OFF.

D. In amber, during a pushback with an engine running.

84. Regarding Gravity Extension, which of the following is true? A. Only the nosewheel doors remain open. B. Only the mainwheel doors remain open. C. N'wheel steering is not available. D. N'wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.

A. B. C. D.

85. Why may the IRS ALIGN lights flash during a pre-flight check? The IRS is using battery power. Loss of all functions except ATT and HDG. Failure to switch on the associated ADR. The IRS is awaiting a position entry.

A. B. C. D.

86. Which can be tuned by RMP No. 1? Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids. Any radio communication equipment only. Associated radio aids and onside communication equipment. VHF 1 and HF 1 only.

A. B. C. D.

87. What does the Captain's ND show when selected to ROSE ILS? ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected. ILS receiver No. 1 signals only. ILS receiver No. 2 signals only. ILS receiver No. 2 signals and the map.

A. B. C. D.

88. When RMP tuning is in operation, which is true. The MCDU's will display the tuned navaids. There will be an amber light on the ACP. ILS SME is not available. The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP's.

A. B. C. D.

89. When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, what is the correct action on the GPWS panel? Switch OFF the SYS switch. Switch ON the G/S MODE switch. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch. Switch ON the FLAP MODE switch.

90. When and how is a rapid alignment carried out? A. On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors. B If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV . within 5 seconds. C If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV after . more than 5 seconds. D. On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF / ON.

EGPWS uses which baro information? Captain's. First Officer's. The lower setting of the Captain's and First Officer's settings. The pilot whose autopilot is engaged. 91.

A. B. C. D.

92.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

If both FMGC's fail, how is VOR 2 tuned? Using ACP 2. It cannot be tuned. Using RMP2 only. Using RMP1 or RMP2.

93. Why is the PLAN mode (ND) used only to check flight plans? Weather radar (only) cannot be displayed. Navaids (only) cannot be displayed. Weather radar and navaids cannot be displayed. It is orientated to MAG. NORTH.

94.

Why is a NAV ACCURACY check carried out?

A By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against "BG and DIST to" on MCDU . PROG page. B By comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against "BG and DIST to" on . MCDU PROG page. C. By checking both MCDUs show HI accuracy. D. By checking NAV ACCURACY UPGRADE is displayed in the MCDU.

A. B. C. D.

95. If the radar on the ND sweeps from the centre outwards, what does it mean? Weather radar picture is ofset due to a fault. Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain. Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain. It is giving a TEST pattern.

A. B. C. D.

96. What would cause a managed climb to revert to an Open Climb. Pushing the heading knob on the FCU. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU. Pushing the altitude knob on the FCU. Pushing the vertical speed knob on the FCU.

A. B. C. D.

97. Which of the following correctly describes the cross-bleed valve operation? In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated. In auto, it is pneumatically operated. In auto, it will open as necessary, to equalise the duct pressures. In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open.

A. B. C. D.

98. If GROUND H.P. AIR is connected, which of the following is true? Do not use the PACKS. Do not mix with ENG. BLEED AIR. Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR. The GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.

99. Which is true of the FADEC system? A. It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives A.C. power. B. It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.

C. It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START. D. It is self-powered above 5% N1.

A. B. C. D.

100. What automatically activates the igniters for take-off? Extending the SLATS whilst taxying. Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying. Selecting FLX or TOGA. Weight of wheels.

A. B. C. D.

101. At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR? ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL. ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power. ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power. ARMED at 80 kts.

102. When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero? A. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only). B. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time). C. During associated engine start. D. Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground.

103. Regarding an Auto Start, which of the following is a correct statement? A. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies start valve closure. B. Engine No.2 normally uses igniter B. C. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence. D. Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve.

A. B. C. D.

104. Which of the following indications may be ignored? Amber EGT during take-of. Red EGT during take-of. Amber N1 during take-of. Amber N2 during take-of.

105. Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true? A. It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START. B. Each FADEC has three channels. C. The FADEC is able to abort a MANUAL START. D. FADEC runs for 10 minutes after the aircraft is electrically powered-up.

A. B. C. D.

106. In flight, how is the crew advised that the engines are spooled-down? "ADVISORY" displayed on the ENG. S.D. Aural alert " SPEED, SPEED, SPEED". Master Caution and Single chime. "IDLE" displayed between the EPR gauges.

A. B. C. D.

107. After Take-Off, when does the ATHR become ACTIVE? 1500 feet above airfield elevation. 1500 feet R.A. Thrust Reduction altitude. Acceleration Altitude.

108. During a manual start, what does the MAN START pushbutton do? A. It controls the FUEL VALVE. B. It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES. C. It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start valve. D. It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically.

A. B. C. D.

109. On the approach to land, what automatically activates the igniters? Selecting Config.1. Selecting Gear Down. Passing 2500' R.A. Selecting Config.2 from Config. 1.

110.

How is an imminent change of trust highlighted?

A. B. C. D.

A pulsing EPR gauge. TLA movements on the N1 gauge. A blue arc on the EPR gauge. A magenta arc on the N1 gauge.

111. Regarding an AUTO START, which of the following is correct statement? A. Putting the Master Switch ON starts IGN immediately. B. The start sequence ends at 40% N2. C. If the start is aborted, the pilot must select CRANK on the mode selector. D. Igniter operation alternates A/B at each start.

A. B. C. D.

112. What does FADEC do if there is no ignition during an automatic start cycle? Show an ECAM message : the crew must perform a dry crank. If no EGT after 30 seconds, it will activate the other igniter. Abort the start, then attempt another start using the other igniter. Abort the start and perform a dry crank.

113.

A. B. C. D.

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take-off. 29 (gusting 38) knots. 33 (gusting 38) knots. 29 (gusting 33) knots. 34 knots.

What is the maximum wind speed for door operation? 70 knots. 65 knots. 55 knots(gusting 60 knots). 52 knots.

114.

A. B. C. D.

115.

A. B. C.

What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down? 220 kt. 250 kt. 260 kt.

D.

Green Dot.

116.

A. B. C. D.

What is the maximum runway slope? +/-1% +1% / -2% +/-2% +2% / -1%

A. B. C. D.

117. What are the maximum acceleration (G) limits? Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g. Slats and flaps extended, 0g to 2.5g. Clean -1g to +2.5g and flaps extended -1g to +2g. Clean, and slats extended, -1g to +2.5g.

A. B. C. D.

118. What are the Power Plant Starter limitations? The maximum speed for starter engagement is 20% N1. The maximum speed for starter engagement is 30% N2. After 3 failed start attempts, maintenance action is necessary. After 3 failed start attempts, allow 30 minutes cooling.

119.

A. B. C. D.

120.

A. B. C. D.

What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust? 50 kt. 60 kt. 70 kt. 75 kt.

What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3? 177 kts. 185 kts. 200 kts. 205 kts.

A. B. C. D.

121. What is the maximum cabin pressure differential? Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi. Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

A. B. C. D.

122. What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve? Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft. Cabin diferential pressure at or below 1 psi. Aircraft must be on ground. Aircraft must be fully depressurised.

123.

A. B. C. D.

What is the maximum EPR with the park brake ON? 1.05 1.15 1.18 1.25

A. B. C. D.

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing? 33 (Gusting 38) knots. 33 (Gusting 37) knots. 29 (Gusting 33) knots. 34 (Gusting 33) knots.

A. B. C. D.

125. What is the maximum speed for flight with the side window open? 200 kts. 230 kts. Green Dot. 250 kts.

124.

126.

What is the limiting speed with the gear down locked?

A. B. C. D.

250 kts. 280 kts. 300 kts. Green Dot

127.

A. B. C. D.

128.

A. B. C. D.

129.

A. B. C. D.

What is the limiting altitude for use of APU bleed? 15,000 feet. 20,000 feet. 25,000 feet. 39,100 feet.

What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries only? 15,000 feet. 20,000 feet. 25,000 feet. 39,000 feet.

What is the maximum EGT at TOGA THR? 710℃ 950℃ 765℃ 690℃

130. Which of the following is a correct starter limitation? A. The max speed for starter engagement is 20% N2, (recommended 10%) B. After 3 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling. C. After 4 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling. D. Maximum continuous cranking is 3 minutes.

131.

A. B.

What is the max. speed for FLAP FULL? 177 kts. 185 kts.

C. D.

200 kts. 205 kts.

132.

A. B. C. D.

133.

A. B. C. D.

What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers? Green Dot. 230 kts. 240 kts. 250 kts.

What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres? 185 kts. 190 kts. 195 kts. 198 kts.

What is the minimum fuel for take-off? 2000 kg. 1800 kg. 1500 kg. 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed.

134.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

135. In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, what is signified by (0)? Aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification. A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew. A procedure to be carried out by maintenance. Dispatch is not allowed.

A. B. C. D.

136. In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, what is signified by an (*)? A crew operational procedure. Maintenance action is required. Inoperative equipment must have a placard. Aircraft may operate back to base.

137. What do we do if the brakes fail during an RTO? A Brake pedals PUSH, reverse max, brakes RELEASE, A/SKID & N/W STRG SW of, . brakes use max 1000 psi. B. Reverse max, recycle A/SKID & N/W STRG, brakes use as normal. C.Brake pedals PUSH and hold, A/SKID & N/W STR SW of, brakes use as normal. D Reverse max, brake pedals release, A/SKID & N/W STRG of, brakes use max 1000 . psi.

138. After donning oxygen, what are the initial actions required in order to start an emergency descent following rapid decompression (structural failure)? A FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : SPD - PULL : . MACH / SPD adjust target. B FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : MACH / SPD . change over switch PUSH. C FCU:ALT - Select lower and PUSH : HDG - turn left or right and PULL when IAS . increasing, select FULL speedbrake. D FCU:ALT - Select lower and EXPEDITE : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : THR . levers to IDLE : select half speedbrake.

A. B. C. D.

139. Following a TCAS "CLIMB" message, what are the initial actions? A/P OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. V/S SELECT +1500 : CLM power.

A. B. C. D.

140. Immediate actions with unreliable IAS on take-of before SLAT retraction? AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move. AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move. FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule. AP OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.

141. Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert including "PULL UP"? A. AP ON : TOGA power : Select V/S 3000 ft/min. B. AP OFF : TOGA power : Select 17° pitch-up. C. AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power.

D. AP OFF : TOGA power : follow pitch demands on FD. 142. " In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should ... A. ... leave via a sliding window, using its associated escape rope only." B. ... leave via a sliding window only, using either escape rope." C. ... kick out the panel in the cockpit door." D. ... leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door in either direction."

A. B. C. D.

143. Initial actions in event of a rejected Take-Off at more than 72 kts.? Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Maximum foot brakes. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Reverse idle by 80 kts. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX :SPD BRAKES FULL. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX .

A. B. C. D.

144. Initial actions when airborne after a "WINDSHEAR" warning? TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand. TOGA PWR : ignore FD - pitch to 17.5° TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand : raise landing gear. TOGA PWR : sidestick fully back : maintain gear / flap config.

145. What are the initial actions, after selecting MAX REVERSE, in event of loss of braking when Autobrake is selected OFF? A. Recycle A/SKID & NW STEERING switch : use brakes normal. B. Apply Parking Brake intermittently max 1000 psi. C. Switch to ALTN BRAKING, brakes use max 1000 psi. D. Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING of, brakes max 1000 psi.

146. What is the sequence of actions, on the FCU, in order to start an emergency descent (structural failure)? A Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob : . PULL : MACH / SPEED target adjust. B PULL and select lower ALT : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : MACH / SPEED . changeover button - PRESS. C Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob : . PULL and descend at Mᴍᴏ/Vᴍᴏ minus 10 kts. D Select lower ALT and PUSH : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob :

. PULL : MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.

147. Following a TCAS "Descend, descend now", what are the initial actions? A. Follow Flight Director commands. B. A/P OFF : ATHR OFF : increase rate of descent from present value. C. A/P OFF : Both FD's OFF : set vertical speed to Green area. D. A/P OFF : THR LVRS idle : set vertical speed to Green area. 148. Immediate actions with speed indications unreliable above THR RED ALT? A. AP of, F/D of, A/T of, Flaps maintain config, speedbrakes retract. B. Set CLB THR : above FL 100, set pitch +5° : below FL 100 set pitch + 10°. C. Maintain present pitch attitude and set CLB THR. D. Set TOGA THR : set pitch +5°.

A. B. C. D.

149. Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert which includes "PULL UP"? Set TOGA THR : set pitch + 17 ½°. Set TOGA THR : climb aircraft at alpha prot. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : A/P OFF. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : then follow FD commands.

150. "In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should ... A. ... force the cockpit door open by pulling it." B. ... lock the sliding window fully open using the locking pin." C. ... leave via a sliding window using associated escape rope only." D. ... leave via a sliding window using either escape rope."

151. After calling "STOP", what are the next actions in event of an RTO? A. THR IDLE : Select G.D. SPOILERS FULL : REV MAX.

B. REV MAX : foot braking max. pedal deflection. C. REV MAX : if all DECEL lights not illuminated, foot braking max. D REVERSE THR. MAX : if brake response not appropriate for runway conditions, FULL . MAN braking applied an maintained.

152. When airborne, what are the initial actions after selecting TOGA following a

"WINDSHEAR" warning? A. Follow FD pitch demand. B. Sidestick fully aft : raise gear, (if down). C. Follow FD and raise Slats / Flaps if above S speed / F speed respectfully. D. Sidestick fully aft : maintain config. until clear of windshear.

153.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

What are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto-land? DH 100 ft & RVR 500 m. DH 121 ft & RVR 400 m. DH 141 ft & RVR 450 m. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m.

154. What are the minimum visual refs required at DH for CAT IIIa approach? Five consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights. Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights. Any combination of two centre line / runway edge / TDZ lights. One centre line or touch down zone light.

155. After clearing the runway, you are clear of the "sensitive" area when : A. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become green only. B. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become blue. C. You pass a red stop bar. D. You pass the normal holding point.

A. B. C. D.

156. What is the optimum flap setting to use for landing? Maximum - in order to reduce the approach speed. Maximum - in order to increase the visual segment. Minimum - in order to increase the visual segment. Minimum - in order to improve forward vision.

157. During taxi you observe flashing yellow lights each side of the taxiway. A. You are about to enter an active runway. B. You must stop and ask ATC for instructions.

C. You are approaching a taxiway intersection. D. You have reached the CAT III Holding Point.

158. You commence an approach with RVR above minima and inside the FAF/OM ATC report an RVR below minima. What is the correct action? A. Make an immediate Go-around. B. Continue to descend to Alert Height. C. Continue to CAT I DH and then decide whether to go-around. D. Continue to DH and go-around if visual reference is not established.

159. Runway centre lighting is ... A. White until 900m remaining, red and white until 300m and then red. B. White for the first 900m, red and white until 600m remains, then red. C. White until 300m remains, then red. D. White until 900m remains, then red and white until the runway ends.

A. B. C. D.

160. In a fail-operational flight control system, following a failure of any component on final approach, which is true? An immediate go-around must be executed. The crew should reset the DH to 100feet above the normal DH. Below alert altitude a manual lading can be executed (if visual). Below alert height, the aircraft will execute an auto-land.

161.

A. B. C. D.

What are the authorised lowest minima for a CAT IIIa Approach? DH 100 ft & RVR 200m. DH 100 ft & RVR 100m. DH 50 ft & RVR 200m. DH 50 ft & RVR 100m.

162. For CAT III operations with no DH what are the minimum visual references? A. At least one centre line and one edge light each side should be visible. B. There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway. C. Either three centre line lights (assuming 15m spacing). D. Two centre line lights (assuming 30m spacing).

163. TDZ RVR non available, but crew assessment is. When is take-off allowed? A. Take-of is not allowed. B. Take-of is allowed only if the Mid Point RVR is in limits. C. Take-of is allowed if the Mid Point RVR or Stop End RVR is in limits. D. When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR's are in limits.

A. B. C. D.

How is the optimum touchdown point marked on the runway? Red barrettes. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface. Yellow edge lights. Green centreline lights.

A. B. C. D.

165. What are the restrictions on ATC reports to an aircraft on finals? Inside the O.M. - radio silence. Inside the O.M. - RVR reports only. Less than 3nm to touchdown - ILS failures only. Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence.

164.

166. Clearing the runway, you are clear of the "obstacle-free" zone when ... A. You pass the normal holding point. B. You pass a double yellow bar on the taxiway. C. You pass a special notice identifying the edge of the obstacle-free zone. D. You pass yellow flashing lights (each side of the taxiway).

A. B. C. D.

167. The weather is above CAT I limits, but ATC report LVP's are in force. Which of the following statements is true? You may carry out a CAT I approach unrestricted. You must follow Low Visibility Procedures. You may carry out a CAT I approach if you advise ATC. You may carry out a CAT I approach only if authorised by ATC.

168. In a fail-passive flight control system, following a failure of any component, which of the

following statements is true? A. The pilot need not take any action. B. The aircraft may be out of trim nose-up but the pilot can control it. C There is no significant out of trim condition or flight path deviation and the pilot can . monitor the approach provided no other failures occur. D There is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path, but the pilot . must fly the aircraft manually after the failure. 169. If the ECAM Upper DU fails, how can an SD/Status page be displayed? A On the Captain's left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel an the ECAM . Control Panel. B On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control . Panel push-button switch. C On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control . Panel push-button switch. D. By use of the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM Control Panel.

A. B. C. D.

170. On the E/WD, when does magenta LDG INHIBIT appear automatically? Below 800 feet radio altitude. Below 2000 feet radio altitude. With selection of FLAP2 on the approach. With selection of GEAR DOWN.

171. "Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch ... A. ... displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM." B. ... continuously scrolls through all the System Displays." C. ... for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS." D. ... displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D."

172. On the SYSTEM DISPLAY, what has occurred if the ELECTRICS page appears automatically with no other caution or warning indications? A. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing. B. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be amber. C. An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred. D. A PRIMARY failure has occurred.

A. B. C. D.

173. What happens if EMER CANC button on the ECAM control panel is pressed? EWD Red Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight. If pressed for more than 3 seconds, cautions will be suppressed.

174. Regarding ECAM, which of the following statements is true? A. Amber messages on EWD are always accompanied by Master Cautions. B. Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD. C. Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them. D. Independent failures are identified by a star (*) against them.

175. What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach? A. The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display. B. The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display. C The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction . showing on the STS page. D. The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates.

176.

A. B. C. D.

Where can you see metric altitude? EWD SD PFD ND

177. The Captain's left EFIS has failed, so what must be done to display the PFD? A. Push the button on the Captain's panel (outboard of the EFIS screens). B. Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen. C. Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch. D. Nothing. It cannot be displayed on the Captain's right EFIS.

178. On the ECAM E/WD, when does the "TO INHIBIT" memo disappear automatically after take-off?

A. B. C. D.

800 ft. 2000 ft. Radio Altitude. On flap retraction. 1500 ft. or 2 minutes after lift of.

A. B. C. D.

179. How are the secondary failures identified? They are in amber on the STS page. They are displayed on the bottom left of the EWD. They are in white at the bottom left of the STS page. They have a star (*) against them.

A. B. C. D.

180. What does the green arrow on the EWD at bottom centre signify? Refer to the S.D. for more information. There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button. There is more information. To access it, press the STS button. You should press the emergency cancel button.

181. How can cancelled cautions be returned to the system? A. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel). B. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel) for more that 3 secs. C. Press the ALL button for more that 3 secs. D. Press the CLR button 3 times.

A. B. C. D.

182. To review the procedure at the end of ECAM, what should you do? Press the RCL button for less than three seconds. Press the RCL button for more than three seconds. Press the CLR button. Press the STS button.

183. If the upper ECAM screen fails, now can you view the WHEEL S.D.? A. Select the DMC switch to CAPT 3, then press the WHEEL button. B. Scroll through the systems using the ALL button. C. Push and hold the WHEEL button.

D. Push the WHEEL button momentarily to display the SD for 30 secs.

184.

A. B. C. D.

What SD is displayed during the T/O roll? Cruise. Wheel. Engine. Flight Controls.

185. During an approach, in managed speed, the speed bug automatically goes to a speed higher than Vᴀᴘᴘ indicated on the MCDU PERF page. Why? A The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a smaller headwind component than that entered in . the PERF page. B The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the . PERF page. C. The flaps are not in the configuration sown on the MCDU PERF page. D. A sudden tailwind component has been encountered.

A. B. C. D.

186. What will the FMA (lateral) immediately show in the event of a Go-Around? G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power). G/A TRK (The initial track of the G/A procedure). NAV (Managed navigation for the go-around). RWY HDG (The runway heading).

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altitude at which the APU may be started using the batteriesonly? a)15, 000 ftb) 3 0, 000 ft c) 25, 00 0 ftd) 39, 000 ft3) Can APU be used for Wing

Anti Ice? a ) N o b)Yes but only below FL150 c) Yes but only when one pack is OFFd)Yes can be used without any

restrictions.4)In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilatio n systemcontrols the temperature of the cooling air by:a) Adding air

conditioned air to the flowb) Extracting air overboardc) Passi ng air through a skin heat exchangerd)

None of the above. 5) What is the Max negative Differential pressure for the cabin?a ) 0

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