QDB 15 = Airlaw

1. The body of ICAO that considers and recommends modification to the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO Council is the Air Navigation Commission 2. The Freedom of the Air exercised by an airline planning a technical stop in a neighboring State is the 2nd freedom 3. Cabotage refers to: Domestic air services 4. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : Develop principles and technique for international aviation 5. Standards defined in the Annexes of Chicago convention are: Binding for the Contracting States unless they have notified ICAO about a national difference 6. The Warsaw convention and the later amendments in the Montreal Convention deal with the: Operator’s liability for loss and damage caused to passengers and goods 7. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention 8. The objectives of ICAO were established and are ratified by the: Chicago convention 1944 9. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit an unlawful act on board the aircraft may: Deliver such person to the competent authorities 10. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed International Civil Aviation Organisation 11. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface 12. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: The Rome Convention 1933/1952 13. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: The Rome Convention 1933/1952 14. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is: The convention of Tokyo 15. The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is The convention of Tokyo 16. The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the liability in case of damage: To third parties on the surface 17. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of: Chicago

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18. The Second Freedom of the air as defined in the International Air Services Transit Agreement is the right for non-scheduled flights to: Land for a technical stop in another State 19. The First Freedom of the air defined in the International Air Services Transit Agreement is the: Right to overfly another State without landing 20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes; Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states 21. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Warsaw Convention 22. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation 23. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? The Council 24. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation 25. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard? The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP 26. Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention? Agreement of Paris 27. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? The Convention of Tokyo 28. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for Aerodromes 29. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air: 2nd freedom 30. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface? The Rome convention 31. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: Security 32. How will a member state withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? By informing ICAO 33. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called: The first freedom of the air 34. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating state for technical reasons is called: The second freedom

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35. 5th freedom of the air is: The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) 36. Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft? The Tokyo Convention 37. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called: 5th freedom rights 38. The JAA is controlled by: The JAA Committee 39. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable? The Montreal Convention 40. What is Cabotage? Domestic air services by an operator within another state 41. What privilege does the first freedom of the air grant? To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state 42. What is Cabotage? Limitation of domestic scheduled air services to a national carrier 43. What does the second freedom of the air permit? To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state 44. The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage: The above convention does not deal with this item 45. What can the commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law? a) land in any country and off-load the offender b) use force to place the person in custody c) deliver the person to the competent authority All of the above 46. Under the terms of the Tokyo Convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state? The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft

47. Any person, who suffers damage on the surface caused by an aircraft in flight, or by any person or thing falling therefore, is entitled to compensation as provided by the: Rome Convention 1933/1952 48. Contracting States have the obligation to inform ICAO about: Differences and/or deviations from the standards with the Annexes to the convention

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49. The Convention defining rules of the parties relating to the carriage of passengers, baggage and cargo and the liability of the carriers and extent of compensation for damage is the: Montreal Convention 1999 50. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect: 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments 51. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from: The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased 52. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: 2 years 53. What flights is protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? All flights 54. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals 55. The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: Over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass 56. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy 57. The loading limitations shall include: All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings 58. Load factors have the following meaning: The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions 59. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: Laws of the State of registry 60. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by: The State of registry 61. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if: It receives permission of the State of Registry 62. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness? The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements 63. For the standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) to be applicable, how many engines must the aircraft have? 2 or more 64. The standards to Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to: Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700 kgs

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65. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? It must be capable of being locked 66. Annex 8 covers the airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness? The authority of the state of registration 67. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness? The name and address of the owner 68. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane? The state of registry

69. The continued validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is based on: The law of the State of Registry 70. From the selection below, choose the most complete answer: Annex 8 contains limitations on Limiting masses, centres of gravity positions, mass distribution and floor loading 71. Validity and renewal of airworthiness certificates shall be subject of the Laws of the State of registry 72. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: The International Civil Aviation Organisation 73. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated: To the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union 74. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: The state of registry or common mark registering authority 75. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example TTT 76. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example PAN 77. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example XXX 78. The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons shall be At least 50 centimetres 79. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be At least 50 centimetres

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80. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be At least 30 centimetres 81. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter: It shall be preceded by a hyphen 82. Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted? SY-PAN 83. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter: It shall be preceded by a hyphen 84. ICAO Annex 7 contains... Standards but no recommended practices 85. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration? The category of aircraft 86. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: Standards only 87. Under certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing Authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations 88. When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the original license 89. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL With a theoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating 90. The validity of the instrument rating aeroplane, IR (A) is: 1 year 91. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 17 years 92. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is: 21 and 59 years 93. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew license to have international validity? Annex 1 94. The holder of a pilot's license should inform the Authority of any illness, which involves incapacity to undertake license related functions for a certain number of days. The number of days is: 21 95. If a license holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that license due to illness, the authority must be informed: After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

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96. The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than : 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license Please refer to the ICAO Annex 1, 2.1.9.2 rules differ from JAR-FCL 97. The minimum age for an applicant for a Commercial Pilot License shall not be less than: 18 years of age 98. The applicant for a Commercial Pilot License shall hold a current: Class I medical assessment 99. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot License aeroplane is to act as Pilot in command on any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation 100. An applicant for a commercial pilot license-aeroplane shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totaling not less than........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) 101. An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) 102. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, the minimum PIC flight time requirements are 250 hours as PIC or not less than 100 hours as PIC and the additional required flight time as co-pilot, performing under the supervision of the PIC the duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the licensing authority 103. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, an applicant shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross-country flight time. How many of these hours shall be PIC time or co-pilot time performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the licensing authority? At least 100 hours PIC flight time and not less than 100 hours supervised co-pilot flight time 104. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, the minimum instrument time requirements are 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time 105. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, the minimum requirements for night flight time are 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot 106. As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours for the issue of the ATPL, up to 100 hours may have been completed in FS or FNPT. Credit for experience on a FNPT or a BITD shall be limited to a maximum of 25 hours 107. For the issue of an instrument rating the holder of a PPL or CPL shall have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority. The minimum required cross country flight hours on aeroplanes is 10 hours 108. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: The medical assessment is issued

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109. When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

110. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses (single pilot operations) aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: 12 months to 6 months 111. There are conditions for the establishment of a type rating. Amongst other conditions type ratings are established for For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority 112. The holder of a pilot license when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit: In full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license

113. For commercial pilot license aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command 114. An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes 115. An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time 116. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: Annex 1 117. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative 118. According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic license remains valid 119. License holder shall without undue delay seek the advice of the Authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: More than 12 hours 120. According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 60 months until age of 40, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months thereafter 121. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: 150 hours of flight time 122. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: One year

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123. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours : Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes 124. The Class Rating SEP(L) includes the Single Pilot Engine Piston (A) Class Rating not requiring a Type Rating, plus Touring Motor Glider/TMG 125. According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training 126. The validity of Type Ratings and multi-engine Class Ratings is one year from the date: Of issue 127. The Single Pilot, Single Engine Class Rating is valid for: Two years 128. The successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is one of the conditions required for: The first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes 129. The applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1500 hours of flight time, including 500 hours in multi-pilot operations On aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23 130. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-incommand, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for. A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR 131. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating: On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights 132. According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: FI (A)/TRI (A)/CRI (A)/IRI (A) and SFI authorisation 133. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI (A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A): Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction 134. According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: Not more than three years 135. The classes of Medical certificates in JAR-FCL 3 are: 1 and 2 136. Medical requirements are contained in the following JAR-FCL Part: Part 3 137. "Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the examiner may require" is the definition for a: Proficiency check

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138. May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained by other States than the State of license issue and if yes, by whom are such ratings entered into the license? Yes, ratings may be obtained by any JAA Member State, they will be entered into the license by State of license issue 139. The holder of a license with a night flying qualification that does not include a valid IR (A) and not operating under EU OPS 1 shall not act as a PIC of aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless During the previous 90 days, at least one landing has been carried out at night 140. Which medical certificate is required for a CPL or ATPL and by whom shall the medical checks be carried out. Class 1 medical certificate; the first check has to be carried out by an AMC, the consecutive checks may be carried out by an AME 141. If due to an illness, a pilot is unable to act as a member of a flight crew for a period of 21 days or more, the holder of the license shall Inform the Authority in writing when the period of 21 days has elapsed. Flight duties may only be resumed when the requirements imposed by the Authority have been met 142. Type ratings are established for Each type of multi-pilot aeroplane (MPA) 143. The validity period of a type rating is One year 144. (CPL) Which of the statements concerning the privileges of a holder of a CPL (A) is correct? Act as PIC in commercial air transportation of any single-pilot aeroplane 145. The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least: 21 years 146. (CPL) The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least: 18 years 147. (CPL) An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed at least the following flight time: 150 hours if following an integrated course 148. For which aircraft is MCC required? For multi-crew aeroplanes 149. In accordance with JAR-FCL 1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is: 100% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license 150. For the initial medical examination the validity of the medical assessment shall begin at the date the Medical examination is performed 151. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less than: 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 152. The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the: Pilot in command 153. The flight that has the highest priority for landing is An aircraft that is compelled to land (emergency landing)

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154. An aircraft operating under VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain a distance from cloud of at least: 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km 155. Above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all classes of airspace are: Visibility 8 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical 156. Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by: 5% 157. Unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, an aircraft equipped with transponder, intercepted by another aircraft shall select immediately transponder Mode A Code 7700 158. The crew of an intercepted aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the frequency: 121.5 MHz If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz 159. An intercepting aircraft communicates to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" With an abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft 160. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights 161. The standard phrase used by an intercepting aircraft conveying the meaning "descend for landing" is: DESCEND 162. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall communicate to the intercepting aircraft that he is unable to comply with the instructions by pronouncing the phrase CAN NOT 163. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is unsafe, do not land 164. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: Aircraft taking off or about to take off

165. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding the level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft 166. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left 167. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviats from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

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168. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit 169. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist 170. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, and then advise Air Traffic Services of landing 171. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being 172. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: The aerodrome is being used by gliders and glider flights are being performed 173. A signalman (Marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal: Raising arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of body, then clench fist 174. For flights under IFR within advisory airspace. a flight plan: Shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported 175. An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 176. The provisions for a flight under VFR in Class E airspace are: Services provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required

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177. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds

178. The procedure to be followed after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight under IFR in VMC is: Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious means to the appropriate ATS unit 179. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATC unit has to be informed: When the average TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by plus or minus 5 percent from the TAS given in the flight plan 180. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position 181. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: On the ground when the engines are running

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182. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the signal area indicates that: Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres do not need to be confined to runways or taxiways 183. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions You should: Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft 184. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: Not land because the airport is not available for landing There is a difference between red flashes and red pyrotechnics: Red flashes: aerodrome unsafe, do not land Red pyrotechnic: notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being 185. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means: Return for landing 186. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must vacate the landing area in use 187. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: Cleared to taxi 188. Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL 189. On an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive traffic information from ATC, that a VFR flight is going to cross your flight path from right to left. Who has the right-of-way? The VFR flight has the right-of-way 190. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies: An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off 191. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest? 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route 192. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is: In excess of three minutes 193. If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: Proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expected approach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan

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194. If the instructions received by radio from any sources are in conflict with those given by visual signals from an intercepting aircraft, the intercepted aircraft shall: Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification 195. The minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds on a VFR flight in airspace class C at 9000 ft. AMSL/2500 ft. AGL is: 5 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically 196. For flights into control zones, the following meteorological conditions do not require a special VFR clearance: Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 1500 ft 197. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than 300 m. above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft 198. (IR) Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct: Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 m (2000 ft.) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft 199. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? A parachute flares showing a red light 200. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: Taxi clear of landing area in use 201. A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means: Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only 202. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct? FL 55 203. In areas where a vertical separation of 2000 ft. has to be applied above FL 290, which group of the following flight levels contains odd flight levels only? FL 410, FL 330 204. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to: Mode A, Code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit 205. A red pyrotechnic discharged from aerodrome control to an aircraft in flight means Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being 206. "Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: Engage brakes 207. In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorisation for VFR flight shall not be granted above which flight level? FL 290 208. CTR

A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:

209. (IR) On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds and in unlimited visibility. What should you do? Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATS immediately

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210. IAF

(IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:

211. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to Aircraft taking off or about to take off 212. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone? No 213. Which of the following defines flight visibility? The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight 214. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC 215. On a VFR flight in airspace class B, what is the minimum distance from clouds? 300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally 216. What defines a danger area? Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist 217. Above FL 290 the standard vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is: 4000 ft 218. Above FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be: 2000 ft 219. In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 metres (1000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at: FL 400 220. When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft 221. Aircraft A and B approach each other on converging courses in VMC at approximately the same level in a controlled airspace class D. Aircraft A is flying under IFR, aircraft B is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way? Aircraft B, providing it has A on its left 222. When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each aircraft shall: Alter its heading to the right 223. In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars. The meaning of this signal is: The aircraft is flying in or is about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area. The aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary 224. When displayed in the signal area or at the end of the runway strip in use, a right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates: That in this runway direction turn before landing and after takeoff has to be made to the right

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225. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, flights under VFR shall not take off from an aerodrome within a Control Zone or enter a Control Zone when the Ceiling is lower than 1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km 226. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means Aerodrome unsafe, do not land 227. Over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft 228. Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights may display them: To attract attention to the aircraft 229. At or above FL 290, in RVSM airspace, the Vertical Separation Minimum for controlled traffic flying in the same direction is 2000 feet (600 m) 230. During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: 135 kt 231. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an aeroplane has a climb gradient of: 3.3% with all engines operating 232. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: Ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure 233. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks) 234. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight 235. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: Base turn 236. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to: Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude 237. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Mean sea level 238. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a : Procedure turn

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239. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: 1, 2, 3 240. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance 241. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank 242. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 230 kt IAS 243. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? To the right 244. The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions are: 1 minute 245. The inbound Magnetic Track for the holding is 052°, turns are to the right, the outbound time is 1 minute. The appropriate entry procedure for a flight on Magnetic Track 232° with no wind is: Either offset or parallel 246. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: 1 minute 30 seconds 247. On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: Transition altitude 248. When a transponder code is assigned to an aircraft and two way radio communication is lost without the possibility of reestablishment, the transponder setting to indicate COM failure is: Mode A code 7600 249. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: Shuttle 250. Where an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length 251. The minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure is: 300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft) 252. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Final approach segment 253. FAP

In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

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254. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation between: 300m (984 ft) and 900m (2955 ft) 255. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification surface 256. What does the abbreviation DER mean? Departure end of runway 257. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to: Correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace 258. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure? The terrain surrounding the airport 259. 0 ft

In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

260. In a straight departure the initial track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: 15 degrees 261. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: 1 minute 30 seconds 262. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? Up to 5 263. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? At the IAF 264. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? At least 300m (984 ft) 265. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: 1 minute 266. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: 1 minute 15 seconds 267. ILS obstacle clearance surfaces are established under the assumption that the pilot does not allow the aircraft to deviate from the centreline by more than: Half a scale deflection after being established on the track 268. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than: 6m 269. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases: Initial, intermediate and final 270. 2.5%

Missed approach procedures are normally based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

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271. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the point where the climb is established 272. The procedure describing the visual phase following an instrument approach, brining an aircraft into position for the landing on a runway different from the one for straight-in approach, is called: Visual manoeuvring (circling) 273. For a circling it is permissible to disregard a prominent obstacle in a particular sector outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists 274. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them 275. A circling approach is the extension of an instrument approach procedure: Allowing visual circling prior to landing 276. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: Landing runway 277. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: Heading 278. of: 5°

The three entry sectors in a holding pattern have a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries

279. 5 NM

The buffer area beyond the boundary of the holding area extends to:

280. The height of the transition altitude above the aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: 3000 ft AGL 281. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: As altitude 282. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.25 hPa shall be expressed in terms of: Flight level 283. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes 284. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: Unless otherwise directed by ATC 285. 7600

The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

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286. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall attempt to indicate the situation to ATC by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code 7500 287. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: Requested by ATC 288. To acknowledge mode and code setting instructions, pilots shall: Read back the mode and code to be set 289. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than: Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator 290. Turning departures provide track guidance within: 10 Km 291. In a standard holding pattern turns are made: To the right 292. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? The state 293. A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: 30 degrees or less 294. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of: 25 NM 295. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within: 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line 296. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is: 6,5% 297. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided 298. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least: 984 ft 299. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? When passing the transition level 300. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in term of: Altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude 301. Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as: Altitude in a descent

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302. On a VFR-Flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W? FL 65 303. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken? Initiate a missed approach 304. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? Initiate a missed approach 305. The transition level: Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude 306. The transition level: Is normally an integrated part of the ATIS 307. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: 300 m (984 ft) 308. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: 30 m (98 ft) 309. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is: 50 m (164 ft) 310. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600 311. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft? Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound 312. Transition from altitude to flight level and vice-versa is done: At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent 313. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code: A 7600 Mode C 314. A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... Using bearing, elevation and distance information 315. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: 2.5% 316. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: 25 NM

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317. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: ± 5 NM 318. For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: The Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH) 319. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: 200 ft 320. (IR) Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1? The operator of the aircraft 321. (IR) Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20° from the runway alignment. B) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15° from the runway alignment. C) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10° from the runway alignment. D) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5° from the runway alignment. A and B 322. The abbreviation DER stands for: Departure end of runway 323. (IR) Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance: 300 m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome 324. 3°

(IR) For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle?

325. (IR) Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment? 150 m 326. (IR) During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until: A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained. B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight. C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing. D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC. A, B and C 327. When following an instrument approach, visual contact with the runway is lost on the downwind leg, the procedure to be followed is as follows: Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and initiate the respective missed approach procedure 328. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to: Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors 329. (IR) In a holding pattern, turns are to be made: At a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank 330. (IR) Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? One and one half minute for altitudes above 14'000 ft 331. (IR) Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: MDA

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332. During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude 333. Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they Are requested to do so by ATC 334. (IR) Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? When established in the climb 335. (IR) Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft? 75 m (246 ft) 336. (IR) For non precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be? 19 km (10 nm) 337. (IR) Under what circumstances an ILS glide path in excess of 3° would be used? Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable 338. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start? At the missed approach point 339. (IR) If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the approach be continued? Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with 340. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment? This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted 341. (IR) A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what circumstances is this permitted? The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas 342. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time? No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance 343. FAP

(IR) Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start?

344. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? 2.5 % 345. During a precision approach, what is the maximum scale deflection tolerated according to EU OPS/JAR OPS for the glide slope? 1/2 346. One of the conditions to descend below the MDA on a circling approach is: The required visual references have been established and can be maintained 347. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to comply with the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: Advise ATC as early as possible 348. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to: 1 minute 30 seconds

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349. The names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure are: Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach 350. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot in command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code: 7500 351. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is: 10 minutes 352. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes 353. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes 354. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes 355. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes 356. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed 357. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 20 NM 358. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: Control area 359. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: Control zone 360. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as: Class B 361. Aerodrome traffic is all traffic: On the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome 362. Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers 363. One of the condition required so that an aerodrome may be considered as being controlled is: The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower

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364. The minimum services provided in a Flight Information Region (FIR) are: Flight Information and Alerting Service 365. A Control Area (CTA) is a controlled airspace extending upwards from: A specified limit above ground or water 366. How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made? 5 NM 367. The lower limit of a Control Area is established at a height of not less than: 200 m or 700 ft above ground or water 368. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office 369. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights 370. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic 371. An ATS unit will issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights 372. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights 373. The en-route IFR clearance expires at 0920. What does this mean? If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, a new clearance has to be issued 374. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values 375. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft operating within controlled airspace is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the appropriate alert phases is the responsibility of: Air Traffic Control 376. The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment 377. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase 378. A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance 379. Alert phase is defined as follows: Apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants 380. For a flight under VFR in airspace Class E: Two-way radio communication is not required 381. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit

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382. The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height above the ground or water of not less than: 700 ft/200 m 383. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? Annex 11 384. The maximum IAS in airspace Class E is: For IFR and VFR, 250 kt up to FL 100/10000 ft 385. A first aircraft flies under IFR, in controlled airspace, maintaining FL 150. The pilot requests a descent. A second aircraft flying at FL 140 on the same route requests descent and receives the clearance "descend to FL 70, report passing FL 100". The aircraft at FL 150 can expect to receive a clearance for a descent to FL 140 or below when the aircraft at FL 140: Has left FL 140 386. 3 NM

The shortest distance in the landing sequence between a 'HEAVY' and a preceding 'LIGHT' aircraft is:

387. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: Not applicable 388. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS 389. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS

390. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is: Not applicable 391. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: C to G (inclusive) 392. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are: Below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is higher 393. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable therein: Do not have to be identical with those established for the flight information region below

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394. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

395. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 396. Flights under VFR, operating inside controlled airspace Class C at or above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL have to maintain the following minima: Flight visibility 8 km, distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 300 m vertical 397. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted Air Traffic Control Service: all flights Separation: IFR from IFR, IFR from VFR, VFR from IFR Traffic information: in respect of other VFR flights Airspace Class C 398. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as Airspace B

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399. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: Airspace D 400. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted Air Traffic Control Service: IFR flights Separation: IFR from IFR Traffic information: for all flights as far as practicable Airspace Class E 401. ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified Airspace F 402. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted Air Traffic Control Service: none Separation: not provided Information: Flight Information Service if requested Airspace G 403. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of: 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 404. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis 405. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 406. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 30 seconds 407. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated Immediately a significant change occurs 408. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of The air traffic services 409. ATIS broadcast Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS 410. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus 30 seconds of UTC at all times 411. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is AIRMET information

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412. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of 60 NM or more 413. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements 414. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: C, D, E, F, and G 415. An air traffic control unit: May ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs 416. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: By agreement with the receiving unit 417. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information (AFIS): It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services 418. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: Air traffic control and flight information centers 419. Which of the following objectives is not an objective of air traffic services? Provide advice and information for the safe and efficient preparation of flights 420. The purpose of the issue of clearances by an Air Traffic Control Unit is: To prevent collision between aircraft under its control and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of traffic 421. At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region? Flight information service and alerting service 422. The abbreviation RNP means: Required navigation performance 423. B, C

In which airspace classes has separation between IFR flights and VFR flights to be provided by ATC?

424. For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes. B, C, D 425. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes? Each State for ATS routes over their territory

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426. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference? ALERFA 427. The additional letter Z in the designator of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning: RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM 428. On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain? A) The Pilot. B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar. C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation. D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR. Combination of A and B 429. When may ATC assign a level previously occupied by another aircraft? After the aircraft has reported vacating this level 430. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? The ATIS is updated immediately when a significant change occurs 431. The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS: A) The ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers. B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS. C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in cruise. D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft. A and D 432. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least: 10 nm 433. When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC, the following shall apply: A) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during climb or descent. B) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during cruise, climb or descent. C) A pilot may be required by ATC to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC if no other means for the provision of separation are available. D) The procedure may be applied during the hours of daylight only. A and D 434. "Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated there from by the minima set forth" is called: Essential traffic 435. For an aerodrome in Controlled Airspace Class C: ATC provides separation between flights under IFR and IFR/VFR. ATC does not provide separation between flights under VFR 436. Which is the minimum longitudinal separation for two aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt higher than the succeeding aircraft? 5 minutes 437. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level? 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more

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438. ATIS messages shall: Not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS 439. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the: Rescue Co-ordination Centre RCC 440. In airspace Class C below 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL the maximum speed for flights under IFR is: Not restricted 441. What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes? Terminal Control Area (TMA) 442. What is defined as: "A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with navigation aids"? An airway 443. The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows: Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg 444. The minimum separation of a MEDIUM aircraft taking-off from the same runway behind a HEAVY aircraft is: 2 minutes 445. One condition to initiate the distress phase is: The aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance 446. In airspace Class C below 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL the maximum speed for flights under VFR is: 250 kt IAS 447. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted Air Traffic Control Service: all flights Separation: IFR from IFR Traffic information: IFR receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights, VFR receive traffic information in respect of all other flights Airspace Class D 448. Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted Air Traffic Advisory Service: all participating IFR flights Traffic information: if requested for all flights Airspace Class F 449. RNP means a statement of: The navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace 450. RNP types shall be determined on the basis of: Communication, navigation and air traffic services provided in the airspace concerned 451. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft using the same cruising level, may be reduced, provided: Navigation aids permit frequent determination of the aircraft position and the speed of the preceding aircraft is higher than the one of the following aircraft

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452. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR of Airspace Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less than: 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 453. The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the: Pilot in command

454. The flight that has the highest priority for landing is An aircraft that is compelled to land (emergency landing) 455. An aircraft operating under VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain a distance from cloud of at least: 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km 456. Above 3050 m/10000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all classes of airspace are: Visibility 8 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical 457. Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by: 5% 458. Unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, an aircraft equipped with transponder, intercepted by another aircraft shall select immediately transponder Mode A Code 7700 459. The crew of an intercepted aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the frequency: 121.5 MHz if no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz 460. An intercepting aircraft communicates to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" With an abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft 461. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights 462. The standard phrase used by an intercepting aircraft conveying the meaning "descend for landing" is: DESCEND 463. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall communicate to the intercepting aircraft that he is unable to comply with the instructions by pronouncing the phrase CAN NOT 464. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is unsafe, do not land 465. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: Aircraft taking off or about to take off 466. According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m up to but not including 65 m

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467. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span 468. The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 2B 469. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 1 800 m and over 470. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off runs available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off 471. Acceleration Stop Distance Available/ASDA is the length of the: Take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) 472. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding the level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometers of the estimated position of the aircraft 473. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left 474. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable 475. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit 476. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist 477. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advice Air Traffic Services of landing 478. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being 479. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: 135 kt 480. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an aeroplane has a climb gradient of: 3.3% with all engines operating 481. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: Ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure

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482. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks) 483. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight 484. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: Base turn 485. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to: Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude 486. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Mean sea level 487. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: Procedure turn 488. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: 1, 2, 3 489. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance 490. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank 491. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 230 kt IAS 492. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? To the right 493. The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air a condition is: 1 minute 494. The inbound Magnetic Track for the holding is 052°, turns are to the right, and the outbound time is 1 minute. The appropriate entry procedure for a flight on Magnetic Track 232° with no wind is: Either offset or parallel 495. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: 1 minute 30 seconds 496. On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: Transition altitude

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497. When a transponder code is assigned to an aircraft and two way radio communication is lost without the possibility of reestablishment, the transponder setting to indicate COM failure is: Mode A code 7600 498. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? GEN 499. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refueling services? AD 500. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? ENR 501. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) 502. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: An AIRAC 503. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: Integrated Aeronautical Information Package 504. Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as: Instrument runways 505. "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: 18 m 506. "TODA" is the length of the: Take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided) 507. "Clearway" is a defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height 508. Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? Code letter "C" 509. 2

On final approach, on a normal glide path the numbers of red lights visible of a PAPI are:

510. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway are fixed lights showing: Green 511. "3-BAR AVASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when in the flare attitude, not exceeding: Approximately 16 m

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512. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are fixed lights, showing variable intensity in the following colour: White 513. The acronym PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Indicator 514. The "PAPI" shall consist of: A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced 515. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: On or close to the approach slope 516. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R” 517. Blue

Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing:

518. Red

The colour of the fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:

519. Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway 520. Runway edge lights shall consist of at least: Fixed lights showing variable white 521. Runway threshold identification lights are: Flashing white lights 522. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: Green colour identification given by Morse Code 523. 4

In the "VASIS”, how many light units are in each wing bar?

524. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: 300m 525. High intensity obstacle lights are: Flashing white 526. Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with emergency or security shall be: Flashing yellow 527. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are: Fixed red 528. The runway edge lights shall be: White 529. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: The aerodrome is being used by gliders and glider flights are being performed

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530. The aerodrome category determining the rescue and fire fighting equipment is based on the: Over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width 531. When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and: At least 30 minute prior to land 532. The correct statement about the obligation of a carrier to carry away any non-admitted person from the territory of a Contracting State is: The obligation of the operator shall terminate, when such a person has been legally admitted for entry into a State 533. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are: Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres 534. After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft sustains structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case. 535. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is: 10 minutes 536. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes 537. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes 538. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes 539. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes 540. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed 541. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 20 NM 542. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft

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543. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: Control area 544. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: Control zone 545. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as: Class B 546. Aerodrome traffic is all traffic: On the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome 547. Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers 548. One of the condition required so that an aerodrome may be considered as being controlled is: The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower 549. The minimum services provided in a Flight Information Region (FIR) are: Flight Information and Alerting Service 550. A Control Area (CTA) is a controlled airspace extending upwards from: A specified limit above ground or water 551. How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made? 5 NM 552. The lower limit of a Control Area is established at a height of not less than: 200 m or 700 ft above ground or water 553. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office 554. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights 555. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic 556. An ATS unit will issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights 557. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights 558. The en-route IFR clearance expires at 0920. What does this mean? If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, a new clearance has to be issued 559. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

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560. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft operating within controlled airspace is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the appropriate alert phases is the responsibility of: Air Traffic Control 561. The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment 562. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase

563. A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance 564. Alert phase is defined as follows: Apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants 565. The rule governing flight over water for a single engine aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails 566. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CFMU (Central Flow Management Unit): Is 15 minutes 567. Essential traffic information is provided to: Controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima 568. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 60 minutes prior to departure 569. If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit blind indicating important details required 2 times. 570. When, in air space where VFR is permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must informs the control unit ("cancel IFR") 2 He must request and obtain clearance. 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is: 1 and 4 571. A signalman (Marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal: Raising arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of body then clench fist 572. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks 573. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance 574. A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

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575. The general responsibility for an ATC clearance to be safe with respect to terrain clearance is with the: Pilot in command 576. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? Z 577. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? Y 578. An uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted is delayed. The ATS flight plan shall be amended or a new ATS flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, if the delay exceeds the original Estimated off block time by 60 minutes 579. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation 580. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failures? Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable 581. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility 582. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix 583. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance 584. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state over flown 585. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller, have to be executed as: Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC 586. The separation methods applied by ATC for controlled traffic are: Vertical and horizontal separation 587. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed 588. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? Annex 11 589. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: +/- 300 ft of the assigned level 590. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radarcontrolled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: +/- 20 kt

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591. Poor

A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

592. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so requests 593. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 10 NM 594. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of: 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 595. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis 596. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 597. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed 30 seconds 598. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated Immediately a significant change occurs 599. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of The air traffic services 600. ATIS broadcast Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS 601. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus 30 seconds of UTC at all times 602. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is An AIRMET information 603. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of 60 NM or more 604. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements 605. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: C, D, E, F, and G

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606. Which of the following objectives is not an objective of air traffic services? Provide advice and information for the safe and efficient preparation of flights 607. At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region? Flight information service and alerting service 608. The abbreviation RNP means: Required navigation performance 609. B, C

In which airspace classes has separation between IFR flights and VFR flights to be provided by ATC?

610. For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes. B, C, D 611. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes? Each State for ATS routes over their territory 612. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference? ALERFA 613. The additional letter Z in the designator of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning: RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM 614. On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain? A) The Pilot. B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar. C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation. D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR. Combination of A and B 615. "A surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate" is the definition for: Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) 616. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival. Heavy aircraft 617. When may ATC assign a level previously occupied by another aircraft? After the aircraft has reported vacating this level 618. The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS: A) The ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers. B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS. C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in cruise. D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft. A and D

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619. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least: 10 nm 620. When IFR flights are cleared to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC, the following shall apply: A) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during climb or descent. B) The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight at or below 10'000 ft., during cruise, climb or descent. C) A pilot may be required by ATC to fly maintaining own separation while in VMC if no other means for the provision of separation are available. D) The procedure may be applied during the hours of daylight only. A and D 621. "Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated therefrom by the minima set forth" is called: Essential traffic 622. For visual approaches, the following shall apply: A) A visual approach may only be requested when the reported ceiling is at or above the initial approach altitude/level. B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach. C) When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrome traffic. D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approach and other arriving and departing aircraft. D only 623. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure? If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach 624. The expression "Expected approach time (EAT)" is defined as follows: The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing 625. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a HEAVY aircraft and a succeeding MEDIUM aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight? 5 nm 626. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is: That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s) 627. Which is the minimum longitudinal separation for two aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt higher than the succeeding aircraft? 5 minutes 628. Approach Control has the following duties: Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes 629. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level? 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more 630. What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC, required to do prior to providing an aircraft with ATC based on radar information? Radar identifies the aircraft and inform the pilot 631. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk? A5678

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632. A MEDIUM wake turbulence aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft on a radar vectored approach to land. What is the radar separation minimum to be applied? Normal radar separation of 5 nm 633. Which of the following defines a visual approach? When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained 634. What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes? Terminal Control Area (TMA)

635. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic? All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome 636. What is defined as: "A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with navigation aids"? An airway 637. The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows: Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg 638. The minimum separation of a MEDIUM aircraft taking-off from the same runway behind a HEAVY aircraft is: 2 minutes 639. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? GEN 640. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refueling facilities and limitations on refueling services? AD 641. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? ENR 642. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) 643. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: An AIRAC 644. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: Integrated Aeronautical Information Package 645. GEN

In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"?

646. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement

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647. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts Visibility minima 648. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP? Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate 649. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries 650. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures 651. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer 652. Temporary AIP changes of "long duration" published in AIP supplements are changes that last for at least: Three months 653. Operationally significant changes to the AIP published at a specific date are called: AIRAC 654. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: Not more than one month 655. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: Not more than one month 656. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is RED 657. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes) 658. GEN

Information about SIGMET can be found in the AIP part:

659. The information concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP GEN 660. ENR

The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP

661. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indication of which meteorological office is responsible, is in the following part of the AIP AD 662. An AIRAC is: An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures

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663. A special NOTAM series notifying a possible important change for the aircraft operation due to volcano activity, eruption or ash cloud by means of a specific format is called: ASHTAM 664. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: AIRAC 665. The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as: AIP Supplements 666. "A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation" is the definition of: Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) 667. An AIP shall contain the following parts: GEN, ENR, AD 668. Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and importance of aeronautical information and flight data? The introduction of RNAV, RNP and computer systems 669. 42

At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information is distributed?

670. What is an ASHTAM used for? Volcanic activity 671. GEN

Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?

672. The ASHTAM provides information about the status of activity of a volcano by publishing a: Colour code 673. According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m up to but not including 65 m 674. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span 675. The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 2B An answer "4F" might be presented at the examination, together with "2B". 4F" would also be correct, considering the certification of certain airports for the A380, i.e., wingspan of 65 metres or more. Should this be the case, we recommend that you verify the answers with the invigilator during the exam 676. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 1 800 m and over 677. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off

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678. Acceleration Stop Distance Available/ASDA is the length of the: Take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) 679. Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as: Instrument runways 680. "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: 18 m 681. "TODA" is the length of the: Take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided) 682. "Clearway" is a defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height 683. Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? Code letter "C" 684. 2

On final approach, on a normal glide path the number of red lights visible of a PAPI are:

685. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway are fixed lights showing: Green 686. "3-BAR AVASIS", "PAPI" and "T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when in the flare attitude, not exceeding: Approximately 16 m 687. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are fixed lights, showing variable intensity in the following colour: White 688. The acronym PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Indicator 689. The "PAPI" shall consist of: A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced 690. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: On or close to the approach slope 691. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R" 692. Blue

Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing:

693. Red

The colour of the fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:

694. Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway 695. Runway edge lights shall consist of at least: Fixed lights showing variable white

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696. Runway threshold identification lights are: Flashing white lights 697. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: Green colour identification given by Morse code 698. 4

In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?

699. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: 300 m 700. High intensity obstacle lights are: Flashing white 701. Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with emergency or security shall be: Flashing yellow 702. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are: Fixed red 703. The runway edge lights shall be: White 704. The aerodrome category determining the rescue and firefighting equipment is based on the: Over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width 705. The length of an approach lighting system for a precision approach runway CAT II is: 900 m 706. A "barrette" consists of: Three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights 707. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: A RVR of not less than 350 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft 708. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at : 300 m from threshold 709. Runway-lead-in lighting shall consist of: Groups of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway 710. Information signs other than location signs consist of: Black inscriptions on yellow background 711. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Annex 14 712. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? 45 metres

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713. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? 900 metres 714. Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit 715. A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off is called: Stopway 716. "An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for: Runway end safety area 717. Wet

When the surface of a runway is soaked but there is no standing water, the correct term is:

718. The colour of a runway designation marking on a paved runway shall be White 719. Where no barrettes are used, each centre line light position of a category I precision approach lighting system shall consist of: A single light source in the innermost 300 m, two light sources in the central 300 m and three light sources in the outer 300 m 720. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator: A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so 721. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, they shall have the following colours on the last 900 m: Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end 722. Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively green and yellow installed? From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centre line to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area 723. Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: White inscription on a red background 724. Which of the following lights is a high intensity obstacle light: Flashing white light 725. 45 m

The width of a runway for an aerodrome with code number 4/D should not be less than:

726. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC? Snow, ice and slush 727. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? It must be clearly visible from the air 728. Blue

What colour is taxiway edge lighting?

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729. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? A displaced threshold 730. What colour are apron markings? A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings 731. Do all runways require centreline markings? No, only paved runways 732. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists of two elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to? Take-off distance required for an aeroplane 733. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of a runway is a "runway vacated" sign positioned? At the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area 734. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft, marked? By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold 735. What colour are runway edge lights? White 736. When a threshold is displaced, the colour of the lights in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold are: Red 737. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights? Fixed; uni-directional; red 738. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off, which of the following can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the end to the displaced threshold? Approach lighting (such that it does not dazzle the pilot taking-off) 739. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided? They are positioned at all runway-holding positions for runways used when RVR is less than 350 m 740. What is/are required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is intended to be used in RVR conditions less than 550 m? Runway guard lights 741. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time? Rapid exit taxiway 742. Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways seen from the direction of the approach? 29L, 29C, 29R 743. The length of a clearway should not exceed: 1/2 TORA

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744. The basic holding position shown in the figure will be used: At an intersection of a taxiway and a non-instrument, non-precision approach or takeoff runway

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745. Figure 5 indicates: A runway intersection sign

746. Sign 4 is a: Information sign 747. On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows: In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right 748. For a full Calvert CAT I approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is the configuration of the centerline? 5 bar and distance-coded centerline increasing from the threshold 749. A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called: Clearway 750. How does a pilot see the PAPI wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope? All the four units are steady white 751. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be: Green 752. A precision approach Category I lighting system shall consists of a row of lights on the extended runway centre line over a distance of: 900 m with a row of lights forming a crossbar 30 m in length at a distance of 300 m from the runway threshold 753. The complete CAT I/Calvert type of approach light system (with additional crossbars) consists of: A centre line with 5 crossbars 754. The principal composition of a precision approach Category I lighting system is: A row of lights on the extended centre line over a distance of 900 m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at 300 m from the threshold

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755. When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and: At least 30 minute prior to land 756. The correct statement about the obligation of a carrier to carry away any non-admitted person from the territory of a Contracting State is: The obligation of the operator shall terminate, when such a person has been legally admitted for entry into a State 757. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) : The air waybill number; the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods 758. Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are: 3 of each 759. In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received: At least 2 hours in advance of arrival 760. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty. For a period to be established by that State 761. Which one of the statements is correct? Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew 762. In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states Shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consulates or operators prior to initiate the flight 763. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator Shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator 764. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: Accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo 765. Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed: In the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union 766. Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when The passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival

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767. Subject to the technology available documents for entry and departure of aircraft: Are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink 768. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: Shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility 769. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is: Annex 9 770. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is : Annex 9 771. (CPL) The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting State for identification purposes: a) Together with a valid passport. b) Together with a valid flight crew license. c) Together with a visa if required. None of the above 772. (CPL) When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting State as a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes: A CMC 773. (CPL) What is the purpose of a CMC? To provide identification of aircrew 774. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are: Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres 775. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment 776. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Yellow for blankets and protective clothing 777. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Blue for food and water 778. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Black for miscellaneous equipment 779. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than: 90 minutes at cruising speed 780. A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt. Life jackets must be available for all occupants

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781. 2

Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have found all personnel" is :

782. What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors? Require medical assistance

783. The ground - air visual code illustrated means: Require assistance

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784. Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is: 2

785. What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units? Operation completed

786. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency? 2430 KHz 787. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X". This indicates: "Need medical assistance" 788. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must: Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice 789. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre -aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter The command of the situation is the responsibility of; (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3). 790. Ground-air signals code for survivors: What is the meaning of an X displayed on the ground? Require medical assistance 791. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: In each search and rescue region

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792. COSPAS-SARSAT is: a) A space system for the search of vessels in distress. b) A communication system linking major airports. c) A SAR satellite-aided tracking system. a and c 793. Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall: a) Record the position of the craft in distress if given. b) Enter into a holding pattern and wait for an SAR aircraft to arrive. c) If possible take a bearing on the transmission. a and c 794. When a PIC observes that either another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress he shall, unless he is unable, or in the circumstances of the case considers it unreasonable or unnecessary: a) Keep in sight of the craft in distress until such time as his presence is no longer necessary. b) Report to the rescue co-ordination centre or the air traffic services as much information as possible. c) Act as instructed by the rescue co-ordination centre or the air traffic services unit. All of the above 795. "A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants" is the definition for: Alert phase 796. N

The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "NEGATIVE" is:

797. Y

The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "AFFIRMATIVE" is:

798. is: 1

Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"

799. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground indicating "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is : X

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800. An aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') in non RVSM airspace. The pilot is forced to divert from the cleared track and/or cruising level without being able to communicate this to ATS. He shall try to: Precede at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in that area by 1000 ft above FL 290 or 500 ft below FL 290 801. The national civil aviation security programme is established by: Each Contracting State 802. Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority: Shall be specified to ICAO 803. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken The statement above question is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed 804. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft 805. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state 806. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon: Prior notification by the state of embarkation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft 807. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below: Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody 808. For the boarding of potentially disruptive passengers supplementary safeguards are to be observing such as: Boarding the potentially disruptive passenger prior to all passengers 809. The movement area of an aerodrome, the adjacent lands and buildings or portions thereof with controlled access is called: Airside 810. Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said: The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives

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811. Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures... And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference 812. Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate Authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the aviation security services to be available: At each airport serving international civil aviation 813. The ICAO Annex 17 comprises rules in order to establish security measures for passengers: Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design 814. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO 815. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes: Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land 816. A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, Until their journey can be continued 817. "The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof, access to which is controlled" is the definition for: Air side 818. The aim of aviation security is the following: Safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference 819. An airport security programme shall be established by each State for: Each airport serving international civil aviation 820. (CPL) If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each Contracting State shall: a) Detain the aircraft on ground. b) Deliver food and water but turn down requests for fuel. c) Let the aircraft depart if it is necessary to protect human life. a and c 821. Where a parking bay is not provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays? 100 m 822. Security measures apply to: Airport design 823. After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft sustains structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case

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824. The responsibility for the initiation of an accident investigation in a Contracting State is with: The Authority of the State in which the accident occurred 825. Upon receipt of the notification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurrence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft : Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg 826. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: Prevention of accidents or incidents 827. Which of the following, according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accredited representative to participate in the investigation? Any State which, on request, provides information, facilities or experts to the State conducting the investigation 828. The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to the ICAO, in: One of the working languages of ICAO 829. The responsibility to institute an investigation into the circumstances of an accident rests with: The State of Occurrence 830. The purpose of an aircraft accident investigation shall be: The prevention of accidents 831. The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated by the State of Occurrence, in whole or in part, to: Another State by mutual agreement and consent 832. The State conducting an accident investigation shall: Publish a final report according to ICAO Standards 833. An aeroplane exits the runway and the aeroplane becomes stuck in the mud. What kind of occurrence are it and what action should be taken by the Commander? It is an incident. The Commander must inform the operator using the normal procedure 834. The aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircraft, one of the passengers walks into the trailing edge of the wing and gets seriously injured: This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case 835. During the climb-out phase of a flight the pilot in command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing? This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident

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836. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility 837. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is: 80 NM 838. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: E airspace 839. A minimum separation of at least 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft taking off behind, using parallel runways: Separated by less than 760 m 840. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft 841. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails 842. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CFMU (Central Flow Management Unit): Is 15 minutes 843. Essential traffic information is provided to: Controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima 844. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 60 minutes prior to departure 845. If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit blind indicating important details required 2 times 846. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR") 2 He must request and obtain clearance. 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is: 1 and 4 847. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks 848. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance

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849. A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point 850. The general responsibility for an ATC clearance to be safe with respect to terrain clearance is with the: Pilot in command 851. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? Z 852. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? Y 853. An uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted is delayed. The ATS flight plan shall be amended or a new ATS flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, if the delay exceeds the original Estimated off block time by 60 minutes 854. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation 855. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failures? Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable 856. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility 857. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix 858. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance 859. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown 860. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller, have to be executed as: Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC 861. The separation methods applied by ATC for controlled traffic are: Vertical and horizontal separation 862. Below FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum between controlled opposite traffic is: 1000 feet (300 m) 863. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is: 2000 feet (600 m) 864. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility

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865. The pilot requests to pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track. He has to expect instructions: Allowing minimum longitudinal separation based on time 866. Above FL 290, flights operated under IFR in non-RVSM airspace, proceeding in the same direction are separated by: 4000 feet 867. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300 m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. The circle has a radius of: 25 NM 868. "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time 869. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control: When advised by Tower 870. When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: 50 metres 871. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: Provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units 872. Alerting service shall be provided: For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS 873. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase means that: You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation 874. Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent terrain collisions: When a flight under IFR is vectored by radar 875. Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? Code 7700 876. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To conduct surveillance radar approaches 877. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar separation 878. When radar identification of an aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall: Inform the pilot 879. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To conduct precision radar approach (PAR)

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880. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 2 NM 881. When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON" 882. When "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, the pilot may be requested by ATC to execute one or more heading changes for radar identification. The requested changes to be expected are in the order of: 30 degrees or more 883. Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? Code 7500 884. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated 885. What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment 886. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is: 80 NM 887. as: B

A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified

888. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: 45° immediately after take-off 889. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft 890. When an aircraft is vectored by radar to the localiser course, the angle between the interception course and the localiser course is normally 30 degrees. In accordance with DOC 4444 this angle shall not be greater than: 45 degrees 891. The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: 3 NM 892. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course 893. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: +/- 300 ft 894. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: 5.0 NM

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895. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): +/- 300 ft 896. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: +/- 300 ft of the assigned level 897. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: More than 300 ft 898. When radar capabilities so permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be reduced, but shall not be less than: 3.0 NM 899. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: 8 NM 900. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: 2 NM 901. When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: 2 NM from touchdown 902. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radarcontrolled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: +/- 20 kt 903. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 4 NM from the threshold on final approach 904. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold 905. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft 906. When ATC is equipped with and using PSR, at what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified? 1NM 907. When an aircraft enters the traffic circuit without proper authorisation, it shall: Be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires

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908. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced to half of the standard value is called: Composite separation 909. When the transponder is unserviceable and repair is not possible at the aerodrome of departure, then: The pilot will only be allowed to proceed to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected 910. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed by a flight under IFR: When either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain 911. An approaching aircraft may descend below the MSA provided: All conditions detailed in the other three answers are fulfilled 912. A pilot receives an EAT as soon as practicable, when the expected approach delay is: 10 minutes or more 913. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than: 2,5 NM 914. Under Radar control, a pilot receives missed approach instructions from Radar when the tower has not issued the clearance to land by the time the aircraft reaches a distance from touchdown of: 2 NM 915. Which statement is correct? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C): ATC will apply separation with other traffic 916. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in : A position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time 917. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic: Before take-off and landing 918. The expression "radar contact" in RT phraseology means: The radar identity of the aircraft has been established 919. The Vertical Separation Minima (VSM) between opposite aircraft flying under IFR, within controlled airspace below FL 290 is: 1000 feet (300 m) 920. A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable when VFR is permitted in that airspace and when: The change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight" 921. Poor

A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

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922. Within controlled airspace, IFR cruising levels shall be given as flight level (FL): Above the transition level 923. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible If the commander so requests 924. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: When the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight 925. An aircraft approaches an aerodrome located in controlled airspace. When a pilot reports that he has the "field in sight", a clearance for "visual approach" may be given under condition that the: Air traffic controller is able to separate this aircraft to other controlled traffic 926. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 10 NM 927. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway 928. When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of from touchdown of: 4 NM 929. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each Half NM 930. A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the aircraft reaches a distance from touchdown of: 2 NM 931. A pilot may expect instructions for a missed approach from Radar when the controller has not issued the landing clearance at the moment the aircraft is: 2 NM from the touchdown 932. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the : Last 2 NM of the approach 933. The request for a speed adjustment that a pilot may expect on intermediate and/or final approach should not exceed plus/minus: 20 kt IAS 934. A pilot may expect that lights on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome may be turned off, on condition that they can be brought back into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at least: One hour 935. A significant change in the mean surface wind direction is reported to the pilot when the mean crosswind component changes by more than: 5 kt/9 km/h

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936. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is: 2 KT 937. A significant change in the mean surface wind direction is reported to the pilot when the mean headwind component changes by more than: 10 kt/19 km/h 938. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by : Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700 939. When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is: 80 NM 940. Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is : 20 NM 941. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 3 minutes 942. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 5 minutes 943. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be 10 minutes 944. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and: On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days 945. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway? 2 minutes 946. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: E airspace 947. The minimum wake turbulence separation for landing to be applied between a MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft is: 2 minutes

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948. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: 300 m (1000 ft) 949. A minimum separation of at least 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft taking off behind, using parallel runways: Separated by less than 760 m 950. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for takeoff, this minimum is : 2 minutes 951. For independent approaches, the minimum radar separation provided until the aircraft is established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track is: 3.0 NM 952. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 953. Independent parallel approaches are being conducted with vectoring to the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. The final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localiser or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than: 30 degrees 954. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 955. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for : At least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle 956. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by : At least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 957. The minimum wake turbulence separation to be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft, taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft using the same runway is: 2 minutes 958. A strayed aircraft is an aircraft: Which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost 959. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: True air speed (TAS).

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960. The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport 961. The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 3-5 962. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: 030° magnetic 963. The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: 7 000 kg 964. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport 965. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft will: Arrive overhead the initial approach fix 966. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: The approach controller 967. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: 30 minutes of the estimated off block time 968. "A surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate" is the definition for: Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) 969. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival. Heavy aircraft 970. For visual approaches, the following shall apply: A) A visual approach may only be requested when the reported ceiling is at or above the initial approach altitude/level. B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach. C) When cleared for a visual approach; the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrome traffic. D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approach and other arriving and departing aircraft. D only

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971. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure? If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach 972. The expression "Expected approach time (EAT)" is defined as follows: The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing 973. The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course, disregarding additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence, shall be: 2.5 NM 974. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a HEAVY aircraft and a succeeding MEDIUM aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight? 5 nm 975. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is: That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s) 976. Approach Control has the following duties: Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes 977. What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide ATC, required to do prior to providing an aircraft with ATC based on radar information? Radar identifies the aircraft and inform the pilot 978. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk? A5678 979. When radar capabilities at a given location so permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be reduced, but shall not be less than: 3.0 NM 980. A MEDIUM wake turbulence aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft on a radar vectored approach to land. What is the radar separation minima to be applied? Normal radar separation of 5 nm 981. Which of the following defines a visual approach? When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained 982. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic? All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome 983. A request for a "clearance to maintain own separation while in VMC" may be granted by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be agreed by the pilot of other involved aircraft. 984. Conditions are: Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight

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985. A flight is operating in IMC under IFR, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC the radar controller gives the following instruction: "Turn to heading 050, maintain heading 050 until further advised". This message is acknowledged. At 18:37 UTC a two way communication failure occurs. Radio communication cannot be re-established. The procedure to be followed is: Return to the current flight plan route 986. To expedite the approach, an aircraft may be asked to: Pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time 987. An Expected Approach Time (EAT) will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it has to hold: For 30 minutes or more 988. A change from IFR to VFR takes place: On the initiative of the pilot in command of an aircraft 989. The pilot in command of an aircraft: May depart from air regulations for safety reasons only 990. A Special Air Report shall be made: When experiencing severe icing or severe turbulence 991. A change from IFR to VFR is initiated by: The pilot in command 992. What is the minimum separation between a LIGHT or HEAVY aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft taking off on parallel runways, separated by less than 760 m/2500 ft? 2 minutes 993. The purpose of the NTZ is to: Protect aircraft that are carrying out independent parallel approaches

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994. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: Not land because the airport is not available for landing 995. The registration mark shall be assigned by State of Registry or a common mark registering Authority 996. A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO: Annex 14 997. Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission and adoption? The Air Navigation Commission 998. If a state finds that is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard 999. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers? Yes, but only on scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights) 1000. 6th Freedom of the Air is: A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B) 1001. The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is: Annex 7 1002. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services. 1003. In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play? Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe 1004. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law: May deliver such person to the competent authorities 1005. Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes? Annex 9 1006. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that caused the damage: Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking 1007. According to Annex 6 Part I, "flight time" is defined as the total time from the moment an aeroplane: First moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight 1008. According to EU OPS, the pre-flight fuel calculation for a VFR flight for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines must include a final reserve to fly for: 45 minutes

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1009. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: 3 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 1010. The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is: Annex 18

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