Caravan's
How to Prepare for Lectureship and Subject Specialist
PSYCHOLOGY MCQs BYHAMID KHALIL Associate Professor of Psychology, Govt. Postgraduate College, Samanabad, Faisalabad.
CARAVAN BOOK HOUSE Kachehri Road, Anarkali Lahore. Phones: 042-37212091, 37122955, 37352296 e-mail:
[email protected] Title:
Caravan's How to Prepare for Lectureship and Subject Specialist PSYCHOLOGY MCQs
Authors:
Hamid Khalil
Published by:
Ch. Ahmad Najib
Printed by:
Bukhari Printing Press Lahore.
Edition:
2015 Rs. 650/-
Price: Disclaimer.Due care and diligence has been taken in compilation and printing of this book, which is being published and sold without any legal and other liability, or responsibility on the part of author / publishers / composer I printers for any mistake, misdescription or omission etc. All rights reserved under the Copyright Act. (ii)
About This Book The motive behind compiling this book is twofold: to meet the demands of a growing trend towards setting MCQs in examinations held across the country for different purposes, and to help the students to tackle the problems they face while preparing for such exams. The examination method based on MCQs is better in the sense that on the one hand it leaves very little room for errors made during the marking of papers and on the other hand the examinee is spared the ills of the examiner's personal likings and dislikings, as well as, the negative repercussions arising from negligence committed during paper evaluation. Rather than being confined to the text of a single book, the contents of this book encompass all the major topics and concepts. However, the statements of questions have been set out in such a way that you may fare well in an MCQ-based examination of any level/any purpose. Though this book consists of more than 3000 MCQs, it cannot be claimed that it contains exactly the same questions as are likely to be asked in the examination you are preparing for. It is because psychology is a very rich subject with concepts galore. Some concepts allow of very few questions couched in beautiful statements and appended with suitable options, while some concepts are such that many questions with one correct answer can be formed from them by giving a twist to the statement of the question. Therefore, it depends on how adept the paper-setter is in juggling with words and how well he can manipulate various concepts to form questions. This book has the quality that it offers many questions constructed out of every important concept, and makes sure that the student is able to find out the correct answer even when the same concept has been presented in different situations. Four complete tests consisting of 100 questions each have been appended for practice at the end of the book. A 2500-word glossary has also been given. Both these appendages will be a great help from examination point of view. If necessary, the glossary can also be used to prepare short answers. Much effort and care has gone into preparing this book and making it error-free. However, composing, proofreading, and preparing Key to questions are such ticklish matters that the chance of an error going unnoticed cannot be ruled out. Hence apologies in advance, should there be any error left uncorrected. Wish you all the best for successful future. Author
14.08.2011
Contents Sr. No. Name........................................................................................................Page No. 1 Introducing Psychology And Research Methods In Psychology....................................1 Correct Answers Ch. 1.................................................................................................30 2 Biological Basis of Behaviour.......................................................................................32
Correct Answers Ch. 2................................................................................................ 59 3 Human Development...................................................................................................61 Correct Answers Ch. 3...................................................... ..........................................94 4 Sensation and Perception............................................................................................96 Correct Answers Ch. 4...............................................................................................131 5 Learning.....................................................................................................................133 Correct Answers Ch. 5...............................................................................................157 6 Memory......................................................................................................................159 Correct Answers Ch. 6..............................................................................................180 7 Higher Mental Abilities...............................................................................................182 Correct Answers Ch. 7…………………………….………………………………………207 8 Motivation..................................................................................................................209 Correct Answers Ch. 8……………………………………………………………………223 9 Emotion.....................................................................................................................224 Correct Answers Ch. 9……………………………………………………………………232 10 Personality...............................................................................................................234 Correct Answers Ch. 10............................................................................................269 11 Psychological Disorders and Psychotherapies........................................................271 Correct Answers Ch. 11...........................................................................................311 12 Social Psychology....................................................................................................313 Correct Answers Ch. 12...........................................................................................326 13 Organizational Psychology......................................................................................328 Correct Answers Ch. 13............................................................................................333 14 Stress and Coping....................................................................................................334 Correct Answers Ch. 14............................................................................................338 15 Statistical Method.....................................................................................................339 Correct Answers Ch. 15...........................................................................................349 Practice Test -1.............................................................................................................351 Correct Answers Practice Test -1.................................................................................360 Practice Test - 2............................................................................................................363 Correct Answers Practice Test - 2................................................................................372
Practice Test - 3............................................................................................................375 Correct Answers Practice Test - 3............................................................................... 383 Practice Test - 4............................................................................................................387 Correct Answers Practice Test - 4.................................................................................395 Glossary....................................................... ................................................................399 Answer Grids................................................................................................................501
(vi)
Chapter 1
Introducing Psychology and Research Methods in Psychology 1. Modern psychology started during the last century in
(a) Germany
(b) Britain
(c) Russia
(d) USA
2. Psychology is concerned with the study of (a) overt behavior only (b) how groups exchange resources (c) mind and behavior (d) how aggregate behavior is specified 3. Psychology is the science of (a) objective introspection (c) inductive reasoning
(b) behavior and mental processes (d) emotions
4. Which of the following statements characterizes the cognitive-structuralist orientation in developmental psychology. (a) the child is a "blank slate" (b) sexual drives play an important role in early development (c) the child is a passive receptor of stimuli (d) the child actively constructs her or his own knowledge 5. The study of psychology is most concerned with which field of scientific inquiry? (a) the science of philosophy (b) the science of behavior and mental processes (c) the science of developmental processes (d) the science of emotional and mental processes 6. The dual-code hypothesis suggests that: (a) abstract information is encoded visually and verbally (b) words which are low in imagery tend to be recalled better than words which are high in imagery (c) concrete .information tends to be recalled better than abstract information (d) feature lists for a category contain both required and typical features of instances in that category 7. An experimenter who has been carefully trained in the techniques of self-observation uses himself as his subject. He attempts to analyze his own immediate experience into its elements. This study would most likely occur in the laboratory of: (a) John Watson (b) Max Wertheimer (c) Hermann von Helmholtz (d) Edward Titchener 8. First experimental lab of Psychology was established in (a) France (b) America (c) Germany (d) Japan 9. if the differential threshold for a standard stimulus of 20 gram is 2 grams, then, according to Weber's law, the differential threshold for a standard stimulus of 50 grams is? (a) 2 grams (b) 3 grams (c) 5 grams (d) 10 grams
10. In an experiment, the control group should be treated in the same Way as the experimental group except for:(a) completing pretest measures (b) completing post-test measures (c) receiving different levels of the independent variable (d) receiving different levels of the confounding variable 11. A behavioral psychologist is interested in behavior that (a) can be observed (b) the organism chooses to perform (c) can be inferred (d) is part of the conscious experience . 12. A researcher wishes to run an experiment, but is concerned that variations in the subjects' intelligence quotients (IQs) might confound the results. All of the following are possible solutions to this problem except for: (a) using a matched-subjects design (b) holding IQ level relatively constant (c) running a double-blind experiment (d) randomly assigning subjects to groups 13. A researcher wants to test the hypothesis that the number of bystanders affects the probability of helping behaviour, she sets up three conditions: one with no bystanders, one with two bystanders, and one with four bystanders. Which of the following is true? (a) there is one independent variable having three levels (b) there are three independent variables having one level each (c) there is one independent variable and three dependent variables (d) there is one independent variable having four levels 14. Ernst Weber introduced the notion of: (a) physiological zero (c) motion parallax
(b) response bias (d) just noticeable difference
15. "Give me a group of infants, and if I could control the world in which they are raised, I could predict which will become doctors and which wili become sculptors." This statement is most likely based on: (a) the utilization of the methods of classical conditioning (b) the Freudian explanation of human behaviour (c) an early behaviourist conception of the nature of human development (d) a functionalists emphasis on the adaptive nature of behaviour Next two questions are referred to the following paragraph. The relationship between fatigue and clerical errors is under investigation. A group of 15 clerks volunteers to proof-read a list of 500 words for spelling errors. The first list is presented to the clerks at 10 A.M., the same group is then asked to proof a comparable, but not identical list at 6 P.M., after the clerks have been working all day. 16. This type of design is known as: (a) matched-pair design
(b) independent-subject design
(c) nested design
(d) within-subjects design
17. The independent variable of interest in this experiment is the: (a) type of word, list (b) hour of the working day (c) number of errors per list (d) number of words per list 18. Which of the following is the defining characteristic of random sampling? (a) the sample is a stratified sample (b) the sample is a miniature version of the population (c) each member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample (d) the sample is representative of the population 19. "Give me a child till that child is five years old, and I will make of him anything you want doctor, lawyer, thief," a likely quote from __________ (a) Thorndike (b) Watson (c) Hull (d) Pavlov 20. For best research control of genetic factors, which of the following should be used in experimentation? (a) siblings (b) identical twins (c) factor analysis (d) longitudinal approach 21. That its findings cannot be checked by other researchers is a criticism frequently leveled at proponents of (a) behaviourism (b) functionalism (c) neo-behaviourism (d) introspectionism 22. An experimenter investigates test anxiety in military academy cadets by utilizing • galvanic skin response measurement. The GSR represents (a) dependent variable and operational definition of anxiety (b) independent variable and operational definition of anxiety (c) intervening variable and operational definition of anxiety (d) only operational definition of anxiety 23. Reviewing existing records to confirm a hypothesis about the behavior of a terrorist is (a) case study (b) survey research (c) archival research (d) field research 24. The function of a theory is to (a) prove a hypothesis (b) establish a law (c) explain and relate observed facts (d) develop the steps to be used in experimentation 25. The life history method is a (a) laboratory method (c) latitudinal method
(b) field study method (d) longitudinal method
26. A researcher sits beside a playground, carefully observing a small group of children. The method being utilized is (a) field study (b) case history (c) survey (d) life history 27. William McDougall (a) criticized the stimulus-response mode of thought (b) criticized the notion of purposive behaviour (c) aligned Himself with the arguments of Thorndike (d) initiated the work that eventually led to Pavlov's theories 28. In a test situation, the examiner wants there to be only one independent variable, the individual being tested. To ensure this, the examiner administers a/an (a) item analysis (b) factor analysis (c) standardized test (d) individual test 29. Which of the following is no longer considered a scientific method appropriate for' psychology? (a) non-parametric (b) introspection (c) field research (d) parametric statistics 30 A between subjects design is less efficient than a within subjects design; because (a) it has more subjects (b) it has less validity (c) it is less reliable (d) it must deal with differences among subjects 31. In order to produce effects in experiments, researchers manipulate (a) subjects (b) dependent variables (c) independent variables (d) test variables 32. Correlational studies (a) indicate causality (b) are more valid than laboratory studies (c) indicate some relationship between two variables (d) involve manipulation of independent variables 33. All of the following choices are advantageous of field research except: (a) "real people" are studies (b) reactions of subjects are more natural (c) behaviour is not influences by the psychologist (d) there is an appropriate control involved 34. The purpose of "Q-technique" is (a) to measure accurate norms of population (b) item analysis in factorial design
(c) to measure correlation between X and Y variables (d) to measure a person's opinion of himself 35. In an experiment studying the effects of different drugs on reaction time, each subject is presented with all of the conditions in the experiment. This is an example of a (a) factorial design (b) within subjects design (c) between subjects design (d) quasi-experimental design 36. Which of the following best describes correlational analysis? (a) a measure of causation X on Y (b) a measure of causation between X and Y (c) a measure of linear association between two characteristics (d) a measure of association between two variables c 37. Abraham Maslow is a chief proponent of the-school of human behaviour (a) behaviourist (b) structuralist (c) humanist (d) functionalist 38. William James, James Cattell, John Dewey and E. L. Thorndike all belonged to which school of thought? (a) Structuralist (b) Behaviourist (c) Gestaltists (d) none of the above 39. In psychology, the concept of motivation was first described in terms of instinctive behaviour. On whose theory was this concept largely based? (a) Hume (b) Descartes (c) Darwin (d) James 40. The double blind technique refers to a method of experimentation (a) where neither the experimental nor control group know the purpose of the study (b) often used in perceptual research (c) where neither the subject nor the experimenter knows whether the subject is in the experimental or control group (d) involving the absence of sight in both eyes 41. Identify the pair which represents an INCORRECT association (a) Wertheimer - trait approach to personality (b) Cattell - factor analysis of personality (c) Johnson - problem solving (d) Osgood - semantic differentials 42. Identify the pair which represents an INCORRECT association (a) Schachter - emotion development (b) Piaget - cognition development (c) Murray - Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) (d) Seligman - social exchange theory
43. Structuralism, the first theoretical school in psychology, evolved primarily from the work of (a) Wundt (b) Kohler (c) Watson (d) Tolman 44. A research design which contains features of both between-subject and within-subject designs is (a) factorial design (b) omnibus design (c) mixed factorial design (d) multiple design 45. Any procedural variable which can cause a subset of the population to be nonrepresentative of the population is a (a) sample error (b) sample bias (c) population error (d) population bias 46. In an experiment, the subject's response is best known as the (a) dependent variable (b) independent variable (c) experimental variable (d) dependent response 47. Ethologists insist that (a) animals be studied under laboratory conditions (b) the natural environment must be included in an analysis of animal behaviour (c) teaching language to chimps is immoral (d) evolution is irrelevant to the study of instincts 48. In ethology, fixed action patterns refer to (a) the way a group of neurons fire (b) limits on an animal's ability to learn (c) instinctive behaviour (d) group behaviour among humans 49. Sports psychology is concerned with (a) instituting fair rules (b) the dangers of injury (c) improving the players' performance (d) making sure that the game is not beyond the capability of the players 50. A parapsychologist would study which of the following phenomena? (a) psycho-kinesis (b) precognition . (c) telepathy (d) all of the above 51. The child as a "Tabula Rasa" was first introduced by (a) Freud (b) Hall (c) Locke (d) Rousseau 52. Belief in the id would be the __________ view, whereas recording the frequency of acts of aggression would represent the ___________ approach. (a) functionalist, structuralist (b) structuralist, a priori (c) structuralist, functionalist (d) gestalt, introspection 53. A psychologist who studies the variables that contribute to effective reading skills is a/an ____________ psychologist.
(a) applied
(b) clinical
(c) industrial
(d) counselling
54. Which of the following areas of applied psychology is largest in terms of the number of psychologists employed? (a) school (b) community (c) clinical (d) industrial / organizational 55. Which individual is correctly matched with their theory? (a) Lewin - field theory (b) James - law of effect theory (c) Wundt-pragmatism theory (d) Freud-personal construct theory 56. Everything under the control of the researcher is known as a/an-variable. The Everything under the control of the researcher is known as a/an behaviour of the subject is the —-— variable. (a) planned,, random (b) dependent, independent (c) dependent, random (d) independent, dependent 57. The ability to move objects with mental concentration is an example of (a) clairvoyance (b) kinethesis (c) psychokinesis (d) precognition 58. The research technique that allows the most control of variables by the experimenter is (a) the survey (b) naturalistic observation (c) the formal experiment (d) the case study 59. Each of the following is an authentic speciality of American Psychiatric Association except (a) industrial and organizational psychology (b) mental retardation (c) astrological psychology (d) test and measurement 60. Which of the following famous people observable behaviour? (a) Sigmund Freud (b)Carl Rogers (c) Harry Stack Sullivan (d) John B. Watson 61. "Driver attention as a function of car radio sound” is a phrase in which the driver attention aspect represents the (a) intervening variable (b) independent variable (c) dependent variable (d) irrelevant variable 62. The structuralist school of psychology viewed consciousness as (a) divided into, three separate layers (b) a flow of ideas without clear boundaries (c) a collective unit passed down genetically (d) a set of discrete sensations 63. A double-blind experimental design is used to minimize
(a) cohort effects (c) the halo effect
(b) experimenter bias (d) reactance
64. Abraham Maslow is wellknown as (a) a forerunner of the humanistic movement in psychology (b) the creator of cognitive-behavioral therapy (c) the creator of client-centered therapy (d) a forerunner of object-relations theory 65. If we want to test our prediction that students who underline chapters as they read retain the information better than those who do not, we would first have to state this prediction that is (a) an experiment (b) a Theory (c) a hypothesis (d) a hunch 66. The four main goals of psychological research are (a) description, experimentation, prediction, and control (b) description, explanation, assessment and manipulation (c) description, prediction, assessment and manipulation (d) description, explanation, control and validity 67. A verifiable scientific finding is one that can be (a) observed in real life (b) proven impossible to test (c) replicated with the same result (d) none of these 68. An independent variable is (a) the only variable of interest (b) a variable that is independently verified (c) a variable whose value depends on that of the dependent variable (d) the variable that is manipulated by experimenter 69. The first task in psychology is to carefully observe and to objectively describe (a) animals (b) behaviour (c) social institution (d) symptoms of abnormality 70. The statement that psychology is empirical means (a) psychology is different from other sciences (b) the methods of psychology are based on controlled experiments and on observations made with great precision and objectivity (c) scientific psychology originated in Greek and Roman ages (d) psychological principles are based on consensus of scientist 71. In psychology, case studies are used to (a) draw conclusions about individual behaviour on the basis of group finding (b) draw general conclusions about behaviour of the client (c) assess heritability of individual (d) show importance of case study
72. Structuralism and functionalism are similar in that both (a) emphasize the analysis of mental structures (b) emphasize the fluid, personal nature of consciousness (c) regard psychology as the science of conscious experience (d) emphasize the observation of behaviour rather than consciousness 73. The school of psychology that argue that nearly all behaviour is a result of conditioning and that the environment shapes behaviours is labeled (a) gestalt, Wertheimer (b) psychoanalytic, Freud (c) behaviourism, Titchener (d) behaviourism, Watson 74. Psychologists, who typically apply psychological principles to diagnose and treat emotional problems, including mental illness and martial and family conflict, are in the subfield called (a) biological (b) clinical and counseling (c) social and personality (d) school and educational 75. The first step in any research project is generating a (a) theory (b) experiment (c) hypothesis
(d) proposition
76. In the early stages of research, the most efficient way of making progress towards explaining a phenomenon is to (a) videotape (b) precisely measure (c) survey (d) observe 77. A scholarly summary of a body of research on some topic is called (a) case history (b) literature review (c) meta-analysis (d) theory 78. The principle governing the eth'cal treatment of human participants in research essentially states that the hazards anticipated in the research project should be not greater than those encountered in daily activities (a) informed consent (b) right to privacy (c) minimal risk (d) informed participants 79. S - R psychology is an approach associated with the "perspective" (a) behavioural (b) psychoanalytic (c) cognitive (d) subjectivist 80. Psychologists who are interested in the perception of the motion, part-whole relationships and in how people judge size were identified with what school of psychology? (a) psychoanalytic (b) gestalt (c) behavioural (d) structural 81. Relating overt behaviour to electrical and chemical events taking place inside the body is characteristic of which contemporary psychological perspective? (a) behavioural (b) subjectivist (c) biological (d) cognitive
82. Consideration of participants in psychological research as ___________ in the researchenterprise is a central principle of ethical research today (a) informed participants (c) willing participants
(b) full partners (d) co-investigators
83. The clinical interview typically includes (a) a follow up evaluation and assessment after therapy is terminated (b) the initial diagnosis of a client's psychological functioning (c) the psycho physiological assessment (d) the client's initial and final evaluation 84. A hypothesis is (a) the independent variable (b) an explanation of a phenomenon (c) a testable prediction derived from a theory (d) the dependent variable 85. The amount of association between two or more variable is (a) correlation (b) naturalistic observation (c) reliability (d) synchronicity 86. Gestalt theory emphasized (a) a flow of consciousness (c) the atoms of thought
(b) our tendency to see patterns (d) none of these
87. The group in experiments which receive no treatment is (a) control group (b) experimental group (c) both of them (d) none of these 88. The cause of abnormal behaviour is only physiological, it is explained by (a) psycho model (b) medical model (c) psychosocial (d) none of these 89. Psychology has been defined by psychologists as (a) the study of behaviour (b) the study of mental activity (c) the science that studies behaviour and mental processes (d) all of these 90. In order to understand the unusual behaviour of an adult client, a clinical psychologist has carefully investigated the client's current life situation and his physical, social and educational history. Which research method has the psychologist employed? (a) the survey (b) the case study (c) experimentation (d) naturalistic observation
91. A person who tries to lessen tension between management and workers is (a) psychiatrist (b) social psychologist (c) educational psychologist (d) industrial psychologist 92. Psychcphysics is the study of the relationships between (a) psychology and physics (b) stimuli and physicalenergies (c) perception and physiological process (d) sensory attributes and physical energy 93. The discipline that deals with sampling data from a population and then drawing inferences about the population from the sample, is: (a) hypothesis testing (b) multivariate experimentation (c) statistics (d) independent sampling 94. When two variables are correlated, variation in one? (a) may possibly cause variation in the Other (b) can only be inferred with social validation (c) can the cause of variation in the other only if the correlation is positive (d) always suggests a casual relationship with the other 95. In psychological research, a ___________ is defined as an entity that can occur with different values: (a) hypothesis (c) theory (b) measurement system (d) experimental group 96. The ability to exercise precise control over a variable is what distinguishes the ____________ method from other methods of scientific observation? (a) randomized selection (b) control group identification (c) experimental (d) hypothesis testing 97.A specification of how a researcher measures a dependent variable is known as a/an (a) hypothesis (b) control condition (c) replication (d) operational definition 98. The first psychology laboratory was established in _________ by _________ (a) Russia; Ivan Pavlov (b) Germany; Wilhelm Wundt (c) Austria; Sigmund Freud (d) The United States; William James 99. Wilhelm Wundt used the research method known as (a) psycholinguistics (b) psychoanalysis (c) introspection (d) massed practice 100. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of (a) conscious and unconscious mental activity (b) observable responses to the environment
(c) behaviour and mental processes (d) thoughts, feelings, and perceptions 101. The biological and behavioural perspectives are most likely to differ with respect to the issue of (a) nature versus nature (b) rationality versus irrationality (c) observation versus introspection (d) basic versus applied research 102. Correlations are useful for (a) explaining attitudes (b) predicting behaviour (c) discovering the causes of behaviour (d) doing all the above 103. Which psychological perspective would be most likely to emphasize that people can learn to discontinue bad habits such as smoking? (a) biological (b) social-cultural (c) behavioural (d) cognitive 104. Which perspective is most concerned with the unique ways in which individuals interpret their own life experiences? (a) cognitive (b) behavioural (c) social-cultural (d)- biological 105. Which psychological perspective is most likely to be concerned with identifying the limits of human reasoning? (a) behavioural (b)cognitive (c) biological (d) social-cultural 106. The psychoanalytic perspective is distinctive because it emphasizes that behaviour is influenced by (a) genetics, nutrition, and blood chemistry (b) environmental forces (c) unconscious desires and unresolved conflicts (d) a conscious understanding of life circumstances 107. Which psychological specialists are most likely to be involved in applied research? (a) industrial/organizational psychologists (b) developmental psychologists (c) personality psychologists (d) biological psychologists 108.Clinical psychologists are most likely to be involved in (a) assessing the linkages between biology and behaviour (b) the experimental study of motivation and emotion (c) the systematic study of how people are influenced by enduring personality traits (d) providing therapy to troubled people
109. Which of the following is first school of psychology (a) structuralism (b) behaviorism (c) gestalt school (d) functionalisms 110. The specialist most likely to prescribe a drug for the treatment of psychological disorder is a (a) developmental psychologist (b) clinical psychologist (c) psychiatrist (d) personality psychologist 111. Psychological theories (a) explain observed facts (c) generate hypotheses
(b) organize scientific observation (d) do all the above
112. A hypothesis is a a/an (a) observable relationship between specific independent and dependent variables (b) set of principles that organizes and explains newly discovered facts (c) testable prediction that gives direction to research (d) un-provable assumption about the unseen processes that underlie psychological functioning 113. The case study is a research method in which (a) a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviours (b) an individual is studied in great detail (c) organisms are carefully observed in their natural environment (d) an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behaviour 114. In which type of research is a representative sample of people asked to answer questions about their behaviours or opinions? (a) experiment (b) the survey (c) the case study (d) naturalistic observation 115. The survey method is most commonly used in (a) correlational studies (b) naturalistic observation (c) case studies (d) experiments 116. Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the religious beliefs of Pakistanis and their attitudes towards terrorism? (a) the survey (b) naturalistic observation (c) the case study (d) experimentation 117. In order to assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her college, Zehra sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the college registrar's alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled student. Zehra employed the technique of (a) random assignment (b) replication (c) correlation (d) random sampling 118. In a psychological experiment, the factor that may be influenced by the manipulated experimental treatment is called the-variable
(a) dependent (c) control
(b) experimental (d) independent
119. After noting that a majority of professional cricketers are from Karachi, selectors concluded that citizens of Karachi are better athletes than members of other cities. Their conclusion best illustrated the danger of (a) replication (b) generalizing from extreme cases (c) the hindsight bias (d) the false consensus effect 120. Psychologists who carefully watch the behaviour of chimpanzees in the jungle are using research method known as (a) the survey (b) experimentation (c) naturalistic observation (d) the case study 121. A statistical measure that indicates the extent to which changes in one factor are accompanied by changes in another is called a/an (a) replication (b) independent variable (c) correlation (d) dependent variable 122. If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than poor people are .this would indicate that wealth and martial satisfaction are (a) causally related (b) negatively correlated (c) independent variables (d) dependent variables 123. The perception of a relationship between two variables that does not actually exist is called (a) the hindsight bias (b) the false consensus effect (c) an illusion of control (d) illusory correlation 124. Which of the following is most helpful for revealing cause-and-effect relationship? (a) the survey (b) the experiment (c) correlations (d) naturalistic observation 125. A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between (a) self-esteem and depression (b) financial poverty and physical health (c) intelligence and academic success (d) school grads and school absences 126. Experimental groups, treatment groups, and control groups represent ways to ____________ outcome variables. (a) manipulate (b) correlate (c) validate (d) generalize 127. In order to study the effect of loud noise on worker's productivity, researcher had one group of research participant’s work in a noisy room and a second group in a quiet room. Those who worked in the quiet room were exposed to the ____________ condition
(a) experimental (c) control
(b) case study (d) dependent variable
128. Research participants are randomly assigned to different conditions in an experiment in order to (a) reduce the likelihood that participants within any condition know each other (b) increase the likelihood that research participants are representative of people in general (c) reduce the likelihood of any preexisting differences between the groups of participants assigned to the different conditions (d) increase the likelihood that the different experimental conditions have the same number of participants , 129. In an experimental study of the effects of anxiety on self-esteem, anxiety would be the ___________ variable (a) experimental (b) independent (c) correlational (d) dependent 130. The most foolproof way of testing the true effectiveness of a newly introduced method of psychological therapy is by means of (a) survey research (b) case study research (c) correlation (d) experimental research 131. A psychologist wants to determine whether the lighting level in a room affects the performance of students on tests. He has one group of students take a test in a brightly lit room, and a comparable group take the same test in dimly lit room. In this experiment, what are the variable? (a) the bright light is the independent variable and the dim light is the dependent variable (b) the level of light is the independent variable and the test score is the dependent variable (c) the test score is the independent variable and the' group of students is the dependent variable (d) the group of students is the independent variable and the test score is the dependent variable 132. An experimental psychology lab was first established in 1879 by (a) Rene Descartes (b) William James (c) Sigmund Freud (d) none of the above 133. An awareness of extensive cultural differences in attitudes and values is most helpful for avoiding (a) replication (b) random sampling (c) the hindsight bias (d) the false consensus effect 134. Psychologists study animals because (a) animal behaviour is just as complex as human behaviour (b) experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical (c) the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines (d) similar processes often underline animal and human behaviour 135. A cross-sectional study is one in which
(a) the same people are retested over a period of years. (b) different age groups are tested at the same time. (c) different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time. (d) the behaviour of a group is assessed by different researchers. 136. A researcher who administers a personality test to the same children every 3 years as they progress through school is conducting a-study. (a) longitudinal (b) sequential (c) cross-sectional (d) chronological 137. Who was the first of the following individuals to emphasize that psychology should be restricted to the scientific study of observable behaviour? (a) Wundt (b) Skinner (c) Bandura (d) Watson 138. Prediction is to-as explanation is to ____________ (a) case study; survey (b) correlation; experimentation (c) random assignment; random sampling (d) independent variable; dependent variable
139. Which of the following statements about psychology best justifies its status as a science? (a) it answers questions based on the systematic collection and logical ^analysis of objectively observable data (b) it produces theories about how the mind functions (c) its foundations are rooted in biology (d) it contains theories about the causes of behaviour, how the mind functions,^ and the interaction between behaviour and the mind 140. Which of the following schools of thought considered psychology as a search for the mind's elementary parts and the Jaws by which they are combined? (a) Structuralism (b) Functionalism (c) both Structuralism and Gestalt psychology (d) both Functionalism and Structuralism 141. if psychology can be defined as the science of behaviour and the mind, why are the data in psychology always drawn from behaviour? (a) behaviour can be influenced by physiology and the mind cannot (b) behaviour can be influenced by the environment and the mind cannot (c) behaviour can be observed and the mind cannot (d) all of the-above 142. Psychology arose in the nineteenth century from development in a number of area, primarily (a) science and culture (b) culture and philosophy (c) science and philosophy (d) philosophy and religion
143. According to the theory of dualism, behaviour is controlled by (a) the mind and the brain (b) the heart and the will (c) the body and the soul (d) the brain and the muscles 144. Which philosophical movement claimed that the human mind consists of elementary ideas that originate from sensory experience? (a) nativism (b) empiricism (c) dualism (d) interactionism 145. In the context of Titchener's search for the most elementary sensory experiences, introspection is a research method involving a detailed verbal report on (a) one's own conscious sensory experience (b) how one's own personality affects one's conscious sensory experience (c) how one's own behaviour affects one's conscious sensory experience (d) all of the above 146. Cause is to effect as ______ is to ________ (a) prediction; explanation (b) correlation; experimentation (c) independent variable; dependent variable (d) control condition; experimental condition 147. What was the significance of evidence published by nineteenth-century scientist Paul Broca that loss of the ability to speak is linked to damage in a specific area of the brain? (a) it refuted the idea that mental processes interact to produce behaviour (b) it supported the idea that only human animals can speak (c) it suggested the idea that natural divisions may exist among mental processes (d) it refuted the idea that nonhuman animals are capable of speech 148. A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between (a) self-esteem and depression (b) financial poverty and physical health (c) intelligence and academic success (d) school grads and school absences 149. Which of the following best characterizes cognitive psychology^ approach to the mind? (a) cognitive psychologists ignore the mind because they cannot observe it directly (b) facts about the mind are used to make inferences about observable behaviour (c) facts about observable behaviour are used to make inferences about the mind (d) the mind is considered identical to the brain and is studied through direct measurement of brain activity 150. In an experiment, the independent variable is the one that the researcher (a) systematically varies (b) hypothesizes to be affected by another variable (c) must measure
(d) b and c 151. Watson argued that all behaviour is composed of reflexive responses to stimuli, but Skinner later argued that behaviour is determined (a) patterns (h) consequences of responses (c) predictability of responses (d) strength of responses 152. The key insight that led Wundt into his specific line research in of experimental psychology, was that (a) specific part of the brain serve specific psychological functions (b) any mental process takes some finite amount of time (c) behavioural processes have come about through a long period of evolution by natural selection (d) through careful training in introspection, people can objectively evaluate their own psychological experience 153. Freud's speculations about the existence of an unconscious mind probably arose primarily as a result of his (a) laboratory observations of human subjects as they dreamed (b) analyses of the relationships between cultural constraints and the behaviour of the individual (c) naturalistic observations of people as they interacted with one another (d) interviews with medical patients whose complaints could not be explained physiologically 154. One of Darwin's key ideas is that, because of natural selection, animals have an inborn tendency to behave in ways that (a) require the lowest energy expenditure (b) they individually select from various natural alternative (c) they learn from their parents (d) help them to survive and reproduce 155. Teacher carefully monitors and records the behaviours of children on school playgrounds in order to track the development of their physical skills. He is most clearly engaged in (a) survey research (b) naturalistic observation (c) experimentation (d) replication 156. In a study of the effects of alcohol consumption, some participants drank a nonalcoholic beverage that actually smelled and tasted like alcohol. This nonalcoholic drink was a (a) replication (b) placebo (c) random sample (d) double blind 157. When cognitive psychologists talk about understanding the mind, they are usually talking about something similar to (a) tracing to wiring of a complicated switchboard (b) understanding the hardware of a computer (c) specifying the steps of a computer programme (d) identifying the responses produced by each of the controls on a car's dashboard, without being concerned about the internal mechanisms that mediate those responses .
158. Which of the following statements best represents Freud's psychoanalytic theory? (a) the split between the conscious and unconscious mind is a serious mental disorder (b) unconscious thoughts and wishes are often unacceptable to the conscious mind (c) the unconscious mind is the blank slate on which the conscious mind takes shape (d) psychoanalysis is an objective means of drawing inferences about the mind from observations of behaviour 159. Which school of thought restricted psychology's subject matter to the observable actions of people and other animals? (a) structuralism (b) physiological psychology (c) behaviorism (d) ethnology 160. A psychologist is testing the effectiveness of a program to help people stop smoking, one group uses a nonprescription drug. A comparable group receives something that is exactly like the drug but lacks the active ingredient. Subjects are asked to record the number of cigarettes smoked daily for three months. What is the dependent variable? (a) whether or not subjects receive the real drug (b) the three-month period that the program lasts (c) average daily number of cigarettes smoked (d) the initial degree of addiction 161. Wiihelm Wundt is credited as the founder of scientific psychology because (a) he invented the term (b) he was the first to conduct psychological research. (c) he published the first textbook that defined psychology as a science and opened the first university-based psychology laboratory (d) he was the first theorist to consider the role of psychology in psychological processes 162. Charles Darwin's concept of natural selection is most important for which of the following general perspectives in psychology? (a) functionalism (b) structuralism (c) reflexology (d) psychoanalysis 163. Which of the following would contemporary psychologists be most likely to choose as the main limitation of introspection as a data-collection technique? (a) its data are not available to an outside observer (b) it requires enormous skill, which few psychologists have mastered (c) its data pertain to the mind and may have nothing to do with behaviour (d) because of its potential dangers, its ethics have been questioned 164. A psychologist strongly influenced by Darwin's theory of evolution would probably tend to be most attracted to (a) Structuralism (b) Gestalt psychology (c) Functionalism (d) Cognitive psychology 165. The major advantage of a laboratory study over a field study is that (a) the laboratory provides an artificial environment
(b) the laboratory provides a controlled environment (c) the laboratory provides a secure environment (d) the laboratory can duplicate the subject's natural environment 166. The German word "Gestalt" means (a) random combination (c) conscious perception .
(b) whole form (d) unconscious illusion
167. For which school of thought was psychology decidedly not the science of the mind? (a) structuralism (b) behaviourism (c) Gestalt psychology (d) psychoanalysis 168. Wundt's search for elementary mental processes that combine to produce complex mental processes led to which of the following schools of thought? (a) functionalism (b) behaviourism (c) psychoanalysis (d) structuralism 169. In an experiment, the variable hypothesize to be the cause is called ______ and the variable hypothesized to be affected is called (a) the independent variable; the dependent variable (b) the dependent variable; the independent variable (c) the experimental variable; 'the independent variable (d) the constant; the variable 170. Which of the following is true Watson's and Skinner's version of behaviourism? (a) both theorists were extremely cautious about the nature and implications of their understanding of behaviour (b) both theorists studied animal behaviour and believed that the S-R relationship held only for nonhuman animals (c) both theorists argued that unobservable events or mediating concepts, such as ideas or needs, are not useful as explanatory constructs in psychology (d) both theorists saw all behaviour as the result of innate reflexes that are lawfully related to environmental stimuli 171. Which branch of psychology is defined as an effort to understand the specific biological mechanisms that control behaviour and psychological experience? (a) ethnology (b) neuropsychology (c) physiological psychology (d) structuralism 172. The study of the role of specific areas of the nervous system in organizing and controlling behaviour that is specifically human is called (a) comparative psychology (b) clinical psychology (c) physiological psychology '(d) neuropsychology 173. What led Sigmund Freud to the ideas that formed the foundation of psychoanalysis?
(a) Freud was a physician who drew his insights from work in the laboratory where he studied the intricacies of the human brain (b) Freud was a physician who treated many patients who seemed to suffer from disturbing, buried memories rather than truly physical ailments (c) Freud was a university professor who produced this insight not on the basis of firsthand experience but rather from broad reading (d) Freud was a university professor who tested a wide range of individuals drawn from Viennese society and was struck by the differences between their public and private selves 174. Which of the following individual were major figures in behaviourism? (a) John B. Watson and B. F. Skinner (b) Jean Piaget and John B. Watson (c) Noam Chomsky and Jean Piaget (d) B. F. Skinner and Noam Chomsky 175 The double-blind procedure is most likely to be utilized in (a) the survey method (b) the case-study method (c) calculating correlations (d) experimental research 176. The most distinctive aspect of Freud's theory of psychoanalysis is the belief that the conscious mind is influenced by (a) innate factors (b) learning and experience (C) external stimuli (d) unconscious thought processes 177. Which of the following assumptions about human nature is not central to the humanistic psychology of Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? (a) authority figures in a child's life play a critical role in the development of the child's self-esteem (b) people engage in creative activity to help themselves satisfy basic needs that humans share with other animals (c) people are innately motivated to engage in activities aimed at improving the happiness and quality of life of themselves and others (d) the origin of many psychological problems lies in a belief that one has no control over one's life and that one is not worthy of respect or love 178. One of the major goals of humanistic therapy is to aid the individual in developing (a) stable family relations (b) unconscious thought processes (c) strong ego defenses (d) positive self-concepts 179. A cognitive psychologist might argue that the structure of basic cognitive processes (such as memory) is similar in all humans, so it is not necessary to compare people from different cultures in order to understand how the mind works. A cultural psychologist might criticize this assertion by pointing out that (a) knowledge accumulates in a society over time and influences thinking (b) through social interaction with adults, children learn to think in ways that adults in their culture think
(c) Language and emotional experience, which vary across cultures, strongly influence cognitive processes (d) all of the above 180. John B. Watson is typically called an S-R psychologist. How does this label not fit B. F. Skinner? (a) skinner postulated the existence of an intervening variable, O (for the characteristics of the organism), between the stimulus, S, and the response, R (b) skinner was not interested in stimuli, but only in responses and their consequences (c) skinner rejected the notion that human behaviour is fundamentally similar to animal behaviour (d) skinner rejected the notion that all behaviour consists of reflexes 181. Social psychology is the study of (a) how the behaviour of individuals is influenced by others (b) how the behaviour of groups is influenced by their cultural heritage (c) how the behaviour of individuals is influenced by their cultural heritage (d) all of the above 182. What is the dominant approach in psychology today? (a) physiological psychology (b) cognitive psychology (c) ethnology (d) behaviourism 183. The term "cognition" means (a) freewill (b) knowledge
(c) observation .
(d) objectivity
184. Freud's most important contribution was (a) his demonstration that human beings are not driven by sexual and aggressive instincts, as had been suggested by Darwin (b) the integration of the concepts of structuralism and functionalism into a single theory (c) his concept of the unconscious mind (d) the development of rigorous experimental procedures to test his theory 185. Noam Chomsky argued that language must be understood not in terms of stimulus-response chains but in terms of mental rules that are in part wired into the brain as a result of evolution. His position is, most explicitly, an attack on (a) cognitive psychology (b) behavioural psychology (c) physiological psychology (d) Gestalt psychology 186. Cognitive psychology should be considered (a) a specialized approach to human psychology that excludes ideas and methods from other disciplines (b) a branch of linguistics rather than a field of psychology (c) a constellation of approaches unified by the attempt to explain behaviour in terms of mental structures and processes (d) the study of conscious mental experience through the technique of introspection
187. Jean Piaget, contributed greatly to cognitive psychology through his accounts of (a) animal behaviour in the natural environment (b) intellectual development in children (c) the mental rules underlying languages use (d) information processing in computers 188. What is the most direct way to test a hypothesis about a cause-effect relationship? (a) a correlational study (b) a descriptive study (c) an experiment (d) a self-report 189. In———, the researcher systematically varies---(a) an experiment; the independent variable (b) an experiment; the dependent variable (c) a correlational study; the independent variable (d) a correlational study; the dependent variable 190. The various groups that participate in an experiment will necessarily differ with respect to their (a) dependent variable (b) independent variable (c) either a or b (d) none of them 191. A psychologist interested in the effect of music on concentration gives three similar groups of subjects a task requiring concentration and has each group listen to a different type of music during the task. The psychologist is conducting (a) an experiment (b) a correlational study (c) a descriptive study (d) a self-report study 192. A researcher has two groups of subjects, one that has been taught a problem-solving technique and one that has not. Both groups are given a set of ten problems to solve in twenty minutes. What is the dependent variable (a) the set of problems that subjects are given (b) the number of correct solutions subjects give to the problems (c) whether or not subjects have been taught the problem-solving technique (d) there is no dependent variable in this study 193. A psychologist is testing the effectiveness of a weight loss program. One group receive a diet and a specific counseling program. Another group receives the same diet and speaks to the counselors regularly but does not receive the specific counseling program. Subjects are weighed weekly for 6 months. What is the independent variable? (a) whether or not the subjects receive the counseling program (b) the 6-month period of the program (c) average weekly weight loss (d) type of counseling program
194. Which development contributed most to the cognitive revolution in psychology in the second half of the twentieth century? (a) increased understanding of the physiology of the brain (b) increased acceptance of Darwin's theory of natural selection (c) increased understanding and use of computers (d) both a and b 195. A study in which the researcher does not manipulate any variable but measures two variables to find relationships between them is (a) a descriptive study (b) an experiment (c) a correlational study (d) a double-blind study 196. Researcher Rukhsana classified families according to the parents' discipline style and measured behavioural characteristics of the children. She then looked for a relationship between the children's behaviour and their parents disciplinary style. This type of research design is (a) an experiment (b) a descriptive study (c) a correlational study (d) a self-report study 197. A psychologist systematically observes and records the behaviour of children on their first trip to a dentist's office. This psychologist is performing (a) an experiment (b) a correlational study (c) a descriptive study (d) a self-report study 198. Which of the following is not an example of naturalistic observation (a) watching workers on an assembly line in a factory (b) increasing the tempo of music played in a bar and observing whether more alcohol is consumed when the tempo is faster (c) determining the relationship between high school S.A.T. scores and college grade-point averages (d) depriving rats of water for six hours and measuring their general level of activity during this period of time 199. Psychological tests cover a wide range, including Rorschach (inkblot) tests, intelligence tests, personality profiles, and animal mazes. The one characteristics typical of all psychological tests is that they (a) involve naturalistic observation (b) measure naturally occurring behaviour (c) measure artificial behaviour (d) present a stimulus to subjects and record the response 200. A laboratory study is best characterized- as a study in which (a) observational rather than self-report data are collected (b) observational as well as inferential statistics are used (c) data are collected from subjects under uniform, controlled conditions (d) one or more independent variables are manipulated by the researcher and one or more dependent measure are taken
201. Information-processing theorists belong to which of the following groups? (a) psychoanalysts (b) behavioural psychologists (c) cognitive psychologists (d) functionalists 202. A psychologist raises young rats either in plain cages with no toys or in cages filled with toys. The psychologist believes rats raised in toy-filled cages will become better learners than rats raised in plain cages. What, do: we call the psychologist's expectation? (a) a research hypothesis (b) an observer-expectancy effect (c) an independent variable (d) an inferential statistic 203. A psychologist conducting an interview study on attitudes towards violence believes that males will have a more positive attitude than females. The psychologist tends to nod slightly at male interviewees when they express approval of specific violent behaviours, but not at female interviewees who do the same. The results of the study will probably reflect: (a) the observer expectancy effect (b) the subject expectancy effect (c) the double blind effect (d) the bias effect 204. While waiting with other subjects for a psychological experiment to begin, someone repeats a rumor that the experiment is designed to assess racist attitudes. During the experiment, these subjects take care not to communicate any racist attitudes. If the rumor is true, the results obtained from this group of subjects will be: (a) invalid because the experiment was not conducted as a double blind (b) biased because of the subject-expectancy effect (c) in error because the sample is no longer random (d) unreliable because the conditions of the experiment were constant 205. A double-blind study protects against (a) placebo effects (c) both a and b
(b) observer-expectancy effects (d) neither a nor b
206. A psychologist studying a sample that is not really representative of the intended population has a (a) nonsignificant sample (b) biased sample (c) partial sample (d) blind sample 207. Suppose, to determine whether college men or women are faster sprinters, you located 15 women at the sports complex and 15 men at the library and asked them all to run a 100-yard dash. Suppose the women run faster than the men and the results were statistically significant. The most justified criticism of this study is that (a) the number of subjects was too small (b) the samples of subjects were biased (c) the race was too short (d) the measure was not reliable
208. A professor wants to draw some conclusions about how her students regarded the value of her course. The professor administers a .questionnaire to students who received an A in the course and bases her conclusion on the results. The most obvious problem with this technique is (a) observer-expectancy effects (b) subject-expectancy effect (c) a biasedsample (d) an unreliable instrument 209. Ethical issues in human psychological research involve all of the following except (a) the person's right to privacy (b) the discomfort or psychological harm that a research procedure might produce (c) the use of deception that characterizes some research designs (d) the use of invalid instruments in data-gathering procedures 210. An experiment is conducted in which different groups of people are given IQ tests under varying conditions of noise. One group takes the test with high noise, one with moderate noise, and one with low noise. The temperature and lighting conditions are the same for each group. In this experiment what is the independent variable? (a) the level of noise (b) the score on the IQ test (c) the temperature (d) the lighting 211. The seventeenth-century philosopher who believed that the mind is blank at birth and that most knowledge comes through sensory experience is (a) Plato (b) Aristotle (c) Descartes (d) Locke 212. Which seventeenth-century philosopher believed that some ideas are innate? (a) Aristotle (b) Plato (c) Descartes (d) Locke 213. Psychologists who study, assess, and treat troubled people are called (a) basic researchers (b) applied psychologists (c) clinical psychologists (d) psychiatrists 214. Today, psychology is a discipline that (a) connects:with a diversity of other fields (b) is largely independent of other disciplines (c) is focused primarily on basic research (d) is focused primarily on applied research 215. The first psychology laboratory was established by_______ in the year ________ (a) Wundt-1879 (b) Freud; 1900 (c) James; 1890 (d) Watson; 1913 216. In an experiment, the dependent variable is the one that the researcher (a) hypothesizes will affect some other variable (b) measures to determine whether it is affected by the independent variable (c) holds constant
(d) systematically varies 217. In psychology, "behaviour" is best defined as (a) anythinga person says does, or feels (b) any action we can observe and record (c) any action, whether observable or not (d) anything we can infer from a person's actions 218. Two historical roots of psychology are the disciplines of (a) philosophy and chemistry (b) physiology and chemistry (c) philosophy and physiology (d) philosophy and physics 219. Which subfield is most directly concerned with studying human behaviour in the workplace? (a) clinical psychology (b) personality psychology (c) industrial/organizational psychology (d) psychiatry 220. Which perspective emphasizes the learning of observable responses? (a) behavioural (b) social-cultural (c) neuroscience (d) cognitive 221. A psychologist who studies how worker productivity might be increased by changing office layout is engaged in __________ research (a) applied (b) basic (c) clinical (d) developmental 222. Introspection technique is based upon (a) survey methodology (b) experimentation (c) self-examination of mental processes (d) the study of observable behaviour 223. To say that "psychology is a science" means that (a) psychologists study only observable behaviours (b) psychologists approach the study of thoughts and actions with careful observation and the rigorous analysis (c) psychological research should be free of value judgments (d) all of the above are true 224. A psychologist asks 3-year-old children to explore a room filled, with toys either with or without their mothers present. The time the children spend exploring is measured. Exploration time is the —-variable and the presence or absence of the mother is the-variable. (a) independent; independent (b) dependent; dependent (c) independent; dependent (d) dependent; independent
225. The psychological perspective that places the most emphasis on how observable responses are learned is the ——— perspective (a) behavioural (b) behaviour genetics (c) cognitive (d) evolutionary 226. After detailed study of a gunshot wound victim a psychologist concludes that the brain region destroyed is likely to be important for memory functions. Which research did the psychologists use to deduce this? (a) case study (b) survey (c) correlational (d) experimental 227. In an experiment to determine the effects of exercise on motivation, exercise is the (a) control condition (b) intervening variable (c) independent variable (d) dependent variable 228. In order to determine the effects of a new drug on memory, one group of subjects is given a pill that contains the drug. A second group is given a sugar pill that does not contain the drug. This second group constitutes the (a) random sample (b) experimental group (c) control group (d) test group 229. Psychologists use experimental research in order to reveal or to understand (a) correlational relationships (b) hypotheses (c) theories (d) cause-and-effect relationship 230. Which of the following is not a basic research strategy used by psychologists? (a) description (b) replication (c) experimentation (d) correlation 231. The group that perceives the treatment of interest in an experiment is the: (a) test condition (b) random sample (c) experimental condition (d) control condition 232. The procedure designed to ensure that the experimental and control groups do not differ in any way that might affect the experiment's results is called (a) variable controlling (b) random assignment (c) representative sampling (d) stratification 233. In generalization from a sample to the population, it is important that (a) the sample be representative (b) the sample be nonrandom (c) all of the above be true (d) the sample not be too large 234. In order to study the effect of lighting on mood, Dr. Cooper had students to fill out questionnaires, in brightly lit or dimly lit rooms. In this study, the independent variable consisted of
(a) the number of subjects assigned to each group (b) the student's responses to the questionnaire (c) the room lighting (d) the subject matter of the questions asked 235. You decide to test your belief that men drink more soft drinks than women by finding out whether more soft drinks are consumed per day in the men's hostel than in the women's hostel. Your belief is a/an —-, and your research prediction is a/an (a) hypothesis; theory (b) theory; hypothesis (c) independent variable; dependent variable (d) dependent variable; independent variable 236. Which theorists believe that the mind and the body are separate entities? (a) the behaviourists (b) the monists (c) the dualists (d) the Freudians 237. The major advantage of a field study over a laboratory study is that (a) the field study is less likely to distort the subject's behaviour (b) the field study is more likely to produce quantifiable data (c) the field study affords the researcher greater control over the variables (d) the field study is less likely to offer uniform conditions 238. To qualify as a science, a discipline must (a) posses an organized body of knowledge and use scientific methodology (b) formulate hypotheses and test theories (c) be concerned with inanimate objects such as chemical reactions (d) be based on the thoughts and theories of great scientists 239. A ___________ is a tentative explanation of a phenomenon that can be tested and then supported or rejected (a) law (b) theory (c) scientific principle (d) hypothesis 240. interactive dualism was founded by (a) Locke (c) Darwin
(b) Descartes (d) von Helmholtz
241. Which of the following approaches in psychology would most likely be associated with this statement, "the whole is more than the sum of its parts?" (a) Humanism (b) Psychoanalysis (c) Gestalt (d) Structuralism 242. The city of Lahore has decided to make its offices "smoke-free'' environments and wants a psychologist to teach smoking cessation classes for its employees. The type of psychologist most likely to do this job is a/an
(a) developmental psychologist (c) clinical psychologist
(b) educational psychologist (d) counseling psychologist
243. A couple having marital difficulties would most likely seek help from a/an (a) health psychologist (b) clinical psychologist (c) counseling psychologist (d) social psychologist 244. The subject matter of psychology is best described as (a) perceptions, behaviour, mental health (b) affect, behaviour, cognition (c) thoughts, feelings, sensations (d) behaviour, cognition, perception 245. An office manager is interested in learning more about the characteristics of her coworkers. In order to build a spirit of team work and cooperation in the office, which of the following psychology specialists would she most likely consult about this problem? (a) personality psychologist (b) clinical psychologist (c) educational psychologist (d) developmental psychologist 246. ____________ psychologists work to improve efficiency of people in business (a) cognitive (b) development (c) industrial/organizational (d) psychological 247. The psychological approach that suggests behaviour influenced by the unconscious is (a) humanism (b) interactive dualism (c) phenomenology (d) psychoanalysis 248. The humanistic approach to psychology was founded by (a) Wundt and James (b) Rogers and Maslow (c) Watson and Skinner (d) Freud and Jung 249. The researcher who studied gorillas in their own environment, is an example of (a) experimentation (b) participant observation (c) case history (d) naturalistic observation 250. As a person' caloric intake increases, their weight gain also increases. This is an example of (a) case history (b) correlation (c) negative correlation (d) positive correlation 251. As study time increases, a student's tendency to make errors on a math exam decreases. This is an example of (a) negative correlation (b) naturalistic observation (c) zero correlation (d) positive correlation 252. The research method responsible for most of our knowledge in the field of psychology is (a) experiment (b) case history
(c) correlation
(d) survey
253. A researcher conducts a study in which he measures the visual development of kittens by their ability to negotiate a visual maze. Some of the kittens have been raised in normal light and some have been light deprived. In this experiment, the various light conditions would be the (a) dependent variables (b) independent variables (c) extraneous variables (d) effect 254. One advantage of using animals for research is that (a) you don't have to worry with ethical considerations (b) they don't cost much (c) it is easy to control extraneous variables (d) baseline measures are easier with animals 255. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics attributed to consciousness by William James (a) stability (b) personal (c) continuous (d) selective 256. Introspection is (a) a scientific method used to study dreams (b) a psychotherapeutic technique where the patient gives a running account of internal dialogues (c) a process used to uncover symbolic representation in dream (d) the analysis of the contends of our own thoughts 257. A significant contribution of the ___________ approach was the emphasis placed on measurable observations (a) humanist (b) gestalt (c) psychoanalytic (d) behaviourist 258. A/an ______ is an educated prediction about the answer to our research question. (a) hypothesis (b) belief (c) assumption (d) guess 259. Galton's major contribution to psychology was his: (a) theory of infantile sexuality (b) focus on individual differences (c) creation of standardized measures of intelligence (d) explanation of the phi-phenomenon 260. An experimenter accepts the null hypothesis when it is false. Which of the following is true? (a) she has made a Type I error (b) she has made a Type II error (c) her results were statistically significant (d) the criterion of significance was too large
261. In a double-blind experiment: (a) neither the subjects nor the researchers interacting with them know which groups received which level of the independent variable (b) nobody knows which groups received which level of the independent variable (c) the subject do not know which groups received which level of the independent variable, but the researchers interacting with them (d) neither the subjects nor the researchers interacting with them know which groups received which level of the dependent variable 262. The procedure of outlining an experimental problem, stating criteria for making observations, describing measuring instruments and their use in observation, and defining procedures to be used in data analysis is (a) operational definition (b) experimental design (c) hypothetical construct (d) logical construct 263. Five hundred undergraduates were asked to report their favorite television show from a list of 100 different shows. What kind of scale can best organize the data? (a) Ordinal (b) Interval (c) F-scale (d) Nominal 264. The objectivity of science lies in (a) the capability of scientists to avoid the prejudices of their society (b) the choice of questions studied (c) its methodology (d) all of these 265. For no apparent reason, Zia has recently begun to feel so tense and anxious that he frequently stays home from work. It would be most beneficial for Zia to contact a a/an ___________ psychologist. (a) industrial/organizational (b) clinical (c) personality (d) biological 266. In which type of research would an investigator manipulate one factor in order to observe its effect on some behaviour? (a) the survey (b) the case study (c) experimentation (d) naturalistic observation 267. Ali has volunteered to participate in an experiment evaluating the effectiveness of aspirin. Neither he nor the experimenters know whether or not the pills he takes during the experiment contain aspirin or are merely placebos. The investigators are apparently making use of (b) the double-blind procedure (d) the false consensus effect (a) random sampling (c) replication
ANSWERS Q.1.(a)
Q.2.
(c)
Q.3.
(b)
Q.4.
(d) Q.7. Q.10. Q.13. Q.16. Q.19. Q.22. Q.25. Q.28. Q.31. Q.34. Q.37. (c) (c) Q.43. Q.46. Q.49. Q.52. Q.55. Q.58. Q.61. Q.64. Q.67. Q.70. Q.73. Q.76. Q.79. Q.82. Q.85. Q.88. Q.91. (a) Q.97. Q.100. Q.103. Q.106. Q.109. Q.112. Q.115. Q.118. Q.121. Q.124. Q.127. Q.130. Q.133. Q.136. Q.139.
Q.5. (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (d)
(a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (a)
(b)
Q.8. (c) Q.11. (a) Q.14. (d) Q.17. (b) Q.20. (b) Q.23. (c) Q.26. (a) Q.29. (b) Q.32. (c) Q.35. (b) Q.38. (d) Q.41. (a) Q.44. (c) Q.47. (b) Q.50. (d) Q.53. (a) Q.56. (d) Q.59. (c) Q.62. (d) Q.65. (c) Q.68. (d) Q.71. (b) Q.74. (b) Q.77. (b) Q.80. (b) Q.83. (b) Q.86. (b) Q.89. (c) Q.92 (a) Q.95. (d) Q.98. (b) Q.101. (a) Q.104. (a) Q.107. (a) Q.110. (c) Q.113. (b) Q.116. (a) Q.119. (b) Q.122. (b) Q.125. (c) Q.128. (c) Q.131. (b) Q.134. (d) Q.137. (d) Q.140. (a)
Q.6.
(c) Q.9. (c) Q.12. (c) Q.15. Q.18. Q.21. Q.24. Q.27. Q.30. (d) Q.33. Q.36. Q.39. (c) Q.42. (d) Q.45. Q.48. Q.51. Q.54. (c) Q.57. Q.60. (d) Q.63. Q.66. Q.69. Q.72. Q.75. Q.78. Q.81 Q.84. Q.87. Q.90. Q.93. (c) Q.96. (c) Q.99. Q.102. Q.105. Q.108. Q.111. Q.114. Q.117. (d) Q.120. Q.123. Q.126. Q.129. Q.132. Q.135. Q.138. Q.141.
(c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c) Q.40. (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) Q.94. (c) (b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c)
Q.142. Q.145. Q.148. Q.151. Q.154. Q.157. Q.160. Q.163. Q.166. Q.169. Q.172. Q.175. Q.178. Q.181. Q.184. Q.187. Q.190. Q.193. Q.196. Q.199. Q.202. Q.205. Q.208. Q.211. Q.214. Q.217. Q.220. Q.223. Q.226. Q.229. Q.232. Q.235. Q.238. Q.241. Q.244. Q.247. Q.250. Q.253. Q.256. Q.259. Q.262. Q.265.
(c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b)
Q.143. Q.146. Q.149. Q.152. Q.155. Q.158. Q.161. Q.164. Q.167. Q.170. Q.173. Q.176. Q.179. Q.182. Q.185. Q.188. Q.191. Q.194. Q.197. Q.200. Q.203. Q.206. Q.209. Q.212. Q.215. Q.218. Q.221. Q.224. Q.227. Q.230. Q.233. Q.236. Q.239. Q.242. Q.245. Q.248. Q.251. Q.254. Q.257. Q.260. Q.263. Q.266.
(c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c)
Q.144. Q.147. Q.150. Q.153. Q.156. Q.159. Q.162. Q.165. Q.168. Q.171. Q.174. Q.177. Q.180. Q.183. Q.186. Q.189. Q.192. Q.195. Q.198. Q.201. Q.204. Q.207. Q.210. Q.213. Q.216. Q.219. Q.222. Q.225. Q.228. Q.231. Q.234. Q.237. Q.240. Q.243. Q.246. Q.249. Q.252. Q.255. Q.258. Q.261. Q.264. Q.267.
(b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (c) (c) (d) (a) (a) (a) (a) (c) (b)
Chapter 2
Biological Basis of Behaviour 1. The divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the: (a) CNS and PNS (b) somatic and visceral (c) somatic and autonomic (d) visceral and central 2. Which of the following is an endocrine gland controlling growth and stimulating other endocrine glands? (a) pituitary (b) adrenal (c) thyroid (d) parathyroid 3. The brain structure that plays a critical role in "motivated" behaviours such as eating and sexual activity is the: (a) cerebral cortex (b) amygdala (c) corpus collosum (d) hypothalamus 4. Removal of the hippocampus is most likely to lead to: (a) sham rage (b) narcolepsy (c) anterograde amnesia (d) retrograde amnesia 5. A patient walks with a jerky, uncoordinated motion. A good preliminary diagnosis would be damage to the: (a) thalamus (b) amygdala (c) reticular activating system (d) cerebellum 6. One would expect an action potential to travel most quickly in: (a) a long, thick myelinated fiber (b) a long, thin myelinated fiber (c) a short, thick myelinated fiber (d) a short, thin myelinated fiber 7. The dominant hemisphere of the brain: (a) usually controls the non-dominant hand (b) is especially adept at spatial tasks (c) works independently of the non-dominant hemisphere (d) controls the expression and comprehension of language 8. Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted by the: (a) ovaries (b) testes (c) pituitary gland
(d) hypothalamus
9. Damage to the left visual vortex will: (a) impair vision in only the right eye (b) impair vision in only the left eye (c) leave a person with no vision (d) impair vision for images of objects falling on the left half of each eye's retina
10. Which of the following is a principal function of the parietal lobe? (a) visual processing (b) auditory processing (c) long-term planning (d) spatial processing 11. If a patient is diagnosed as having a demyelinizing disease in which myelin degenerates from around the bodies of axons, which of the following is likely to occur? (a) rerouting of nerve impulses (b) slower nerve conduction times (c) cortical brain lesions (d) faster nerve conduction times 12. Occipital lobe is located in (a) the temporal lobe (c) the frontal lobe
(b) the parietal lobe (d) none of these
13. Chemicals that act as messengers between animals are referred to as: (a) hormones (b) pheromones (c) amacrines (d) anachrones 14. Afferent pathways are involved in which of the following sensory systems? (a) visual, tactile, kinesthetic, and auditory only (b) visual, tactile, olfactory, and kinesthetic only (c) kinesthetic and auditory only (d) all sensory systems 15. Damage to the ventromedial region of the hypothalamus would most likely result in which of the following? (a) agnosia (b) apraxia (c) aphasia (d) hyperphagia 16. The "fight or flight" response to a perceived threat is associated with increased activity of: (a) the sympathetic nervous system (b) the para-sympathetic nervous system (c) the cerebral cortex (d) the corpus collosum 17. The action potential "jumps" along an axon. The gaps in a myelinated axon that the action potential "jumps" to are called the: (a) Broca's area (b) Nodes of Ranvier (c) terminal buttons (d) Wernicke's area 18. If a neuron will not fire regardless of the amount of stimulation, it is most likely: (a) at its resting potential (b) in its absolute refractory period (c) an afferent neuron (d) in its relative refractory period 19. Which of the following glands is frequently referred to as the "master gland" since it regulates the activity of many other glands? (a) thyroid (b) adrenal (c) pituitary (d) pineal 20. Which of the following theorists is credited with first inferring the existence of synapses? (a) Johannes Muller (b) Franz Gall (c) William James (d) Charles Sherrington
21. Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in: (a) difficulty understanding language (b) difficulty producing language (c) difficulty encoding new information into long-term memory (d) difficulty processing sensory information 22. Which of the following tools provides the best analogy for DNA? (a) a photographer's camera, which records exactly what occurs (b) a draftsman's template, which identically copies a given number of shapes or symbols (c) a mathematician's compass, which is used for drawing identical forms of various sizes (d) a painter's brush, which is used to put various elements of a composition together on a canvas 23. Which of the following is associated primarily with the non-dominant cerebral hemisphere? (a) Broca's area (b) recognition of faces (c) mathematics (d) logic J 24. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of electrical activity as it passes through a single nerve cell? (a) axon, dendrite, soma, vesicle (b) soma, cell body, dendrite, vesicle (c) soma, vesicle, dendrite, axon (d) dendrite, soma, axon, vesicle 25. Neurons generally cannot fire at rates exceeding 1000 impulses per second. This maximum firing rate can be largely attributed to: (a) spatial summation (b) relative refractory periods (c) absolute refractory periods (d) excitatory postsynaptic potentials 26. Which of the following best characterizes the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? (a) energy expenditure vs energy conservation (b) voluntary movements vs involuntary movements (c) peripheral nervous system vs somatic nervous system (d) sensory neurons vs afferent nerve fibers 27. Which of the following is associated with the hypothalamus? (a) refined body movements (b) spatial perception (c) long-term planning (d) homeostatic regulation 28. Body metabolism is a key function to the: (a) pituitary gland (b) adrenal gland (c) thyroid gland (d) pineal gland 29. Comparatively speaking, which one of the following animals has the most prominent cerebral cortex? (a) alligator (b) pigeon (c) dog (d) rabbit
30. The sympathetic nervous system: (a) is a subdivision of the somatic nervous system (b) is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system (c) parallels the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system (d) preserves the homeostatic model 31. Sensory-motor responses that are rapid and automatic are called: (a) instincts (b) reuptake (c) affective (d) reflexes 32. The cells that respond to changes in their environment and signal these changes to the nervous system are known as: (a) receptor (b) effectors (c) myelin (d) striated Questions 33 to 37 are based on the following diagram. Using the drawing below, mark the number corresponding to the primary area for the following functions. 33. Motor functions: (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
34. Visual functions: (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
35. Auditory functions: (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
36. Somato-sensory functions: (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
37. Maintenance of balance and posture: (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
38. Which one of the following is true of afferent neurons? (a) located in the dorsal column of the spinal cord (b) located in the ventral column of the spinal cord (c) not located in the spinal cord (d) found only in the striated muscles 39. Most sensory information is relayed to the cerebral cortex by the: (a) transducer (b) medulla (c) bipolar cells (d) thalamus 40. A physical stimulus is converted into a neural impulse by a process known as: (a) transposition (b) transduction (c) transition (d) transference 41. The gland of the body serve as: (a) effectors
(b) receptors
(c) afferent nerves
(d) efferent nerves
42. As one moves from external stimulus to motor response, which of the following constitutes an accurate sequential pattern? (a) afferent verve, efferent nerve, neural modulator (b) efferent nerve, interneuron, afferent nerve (c) afferent nerve, interneuron, efferent nerve (d) efferent nerve, afferent nerve, neural modulator 43. Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? (a) acetylcholine (b) serotonin (c) dopamine (d) opioid peptides 44. A neuron does not contain: (a) a cell body (c) myelin sheath
(b) septum (d) dendrites
45. The head-injured patient lost the ability to breathe. Autopsy revealed neural damage in the: (a) medulla (b) midbrain (c) cerebellum (d) pons 46. Not among the major brain division is: (a) frontal (b) cerebellum (c) reticular activating system (d) brain stem 47. ____________ measures brain-wave activity, more specifically, emitted potentials. (a) MRI (b) CAT scan (c) EEG (d) ECT 48. You are a right-handed, split-brain patient. You have just been very briefly show a telephone picture to the left of your center-vision point. You will: (a) immediately say telephone (b) indicate that you saw nothing (c) find yourself becoming dizzy (d) immediately think of your last phone conversation 49. The frontal lobe is to personality as temporal lobe is to (a) hearing (b) executive functioning (c) memory (d) vision 50. ___________ is a neurotransmitter-related brain disorder associated with acetylcholine deficiency: (a) Alzheimer's (b) Parkinson's (c) Schizophrenia (d) Down's syndrome 51. For the diabetic, the basic problem is that the _________ is not producing _________ (a) adrenal medulla, epinephrine (b) adrenal cortex, carbohydrate (c) pituitary, somatotrophin (d) pancreas, insulin
52. Transduction is: (a) the light sourced from the distal stimulus (b) the transfer of energy from proximal stimulus to distal stimulus (c) the psychological experience of a stimulus (d) the conversion process whereby proximal stimulus becomes neural impulse 53.--is the cerebral "alarm clock" which selectively filters incoming stimuli: (a) medulla (b) cerebellum (c) limbic system (d) reticular formation 54. The researcher stimulates the lateral area of the rat's hypothalamus. The resulting behavioural outcome is: (a) overeating (b) sexual arousal (c) hyperactivity (d) onset of sleep 55. When researcher stimulated an animal's limbic system, the net outcome effect was: (a) pleasure (b) aggression (c) maternal behaviour . (d) hyperactivity 56. Incorrectly paired are: (a) spinal cord - a center for reflex behaviour (b) medulla - centers for respiration and cardiac activity (c) ventricular system - glandular hormonal secretions into the blood (d) midbrain - conduction of impulses between higher and lower centers of the nervous system 57. A person who is in the circus because he is nine feet tall and has very large hands and feet and a protruding jaw can attribute his physiological abnormality to an overactive: (a) thyroid gland (b) parathyroid gland (c) adrenal gland (d) pituitary gland 58. The cerebellum functions prominently in which of the following areas? (a) heart activity (b) blood pressure (c) verbal association (d) muscle movement coordination 59. The brain area central to language production is (a) Broca'sarea (b) Sylvain fissure (c) Wernicke's area (d) fissure of Rolando 60. Which of the following mobilizes the body by secreting epinephrine in stressful situations? (a) adrenal cortex (b) pituitary (c) pancreas (d) adrenal medulla 61. Receptors generally referred to as chemical are (a) visual and auditory (b) auditory and temperature (c) gustation and olfaction (d) temperature and pressure
62. A term collectively describing muscles and glands is (a) receptors (b) effectors (c) innervators
(d) affectors
63. Of the following malfunctions, the one not pituitary based is (a) acromegaly (b) dwarfism (c) giantism
(d) cretinism
64. Preparing the body "for fight or flight" is the function of the (a) pituitary gland (b) parathyroid gland (c) adrenal medulla (d) parasympathetic nervous system (b) cerebellum (d) reticular formation 65. Which of the following is a correct statement? (a) whether a neuron is at rest or conducting is determined by the ionic flux of electrically charged particles (ions) (b) an important aspect of excitatory potential is the incremental firing principle (c) excitatory potential is self-propagating (d) neural impulse transmission is completely chemical in nature 66. Striated muscles (a) are synonymous with smooth muscles (b) produce stomach contractions (c) are prominently involved in voluntary muscle activity (d) produce hear-rate change 67. The spinal cord does not (a) relay nerve impulses (c) control primitive emotions
(b) process sensor impulses (d) contain spinal nerves
68. A person comes to the clinic with a speech impairment resulting from brain damage. One can be reasonably certain that damage has occurred in the (a) right cerebral hemisphere (b) left cerebral hemisphere (c) reticular formation (d) corpus collosum 69. Which one of the following is a function of thyroxine? (a) body metabolism - physical growth (b) skeletal growth (c) sexual arousal (d) gamete production 70. The distinctly male sex hormone is (a) estrogen (b) androgen
(c) dextrin
(d) progesterone
71. The neurotransmitters basic to synaptic transmission are stored in (a) vesicles (b) end plates (c) receptors (d) dendrites
72. The myelin sheath serves to (a) break down epinephrine (b) bypass the nodes of Ranvier (c) decrease the speed of neural transmission (d) increase the speed of neural transmission 73. The fact that, during neural transmission, an impulse is sent to the end of the axon without fading or weakening is known as (a) stimulus constancy (b) absolute threshold retention (c) nondecremental property (d) all-or-none property 74. Assuming the analogy of a. doorbell, which aspect of the neuron would most closely approximate the button that a visitor would push? (a) cell body (b) dendrites (c) axon (d) terminal endings 75. Axon : dendrite (a) inhibitory: excitatory (b) sympathetic: parasympathetic (c) transmitting information : receiving information (d) resting potential: action potential 76. In the visual system, sensory transduction (a) accounts for the sum of activity in the receptor cells (b) is the chain of sensory reception, including the cornea, pupil, lens, and retina (c) translates physical information from our environment into electrical information for the brain processes (d) conducts energy from the cone receptor cells to the rod receptor cells 77. The part of the autonomic nervous system that triggers physiological arousal is (a) somatic nervous system (b) central nervous system (c) sympathetic nervous system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 78. The primary sex hormones in human females are (a) testosterone and androgen (b) progesterone and estrogen (c) testosterone and estrogen (d) progesterone and testosterone 79. Neurons are unique among cells in that they (a) cannot conduct impulses (b) cannot reproduce (c) are surrounded by a membrane (d) have a nucleus containing genetic material 80. Spinal nerves belong to the (a) peripheral nervous system (c) antagonistic nervous system 81. The All or None Law refers to
(b) central nervous system (d) residual nervous system
(a) potassium being all inside or all outside the nerve cell (b) sodium being all inside or all outside the nerve cell (c) stimulation of the unmyelinated axons (d) the size of the signal produced in the nerve cell 82. During the relative refractory period (a) the nerve cell will not respond to any new stimulation (b) the nerve cell will respond to chemical changes in sodium (c) the nerve cell requires a stronger stimulus to fire (d) the nerve cell requires an influx of sodium and an efflux of potassium 83. The pituitary gland secretes which of the following hormones? (a) TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) (b) ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone) (c) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) (d) all of the above 84. Which of the following acts as a relay station for information coming from the mid and hindbrains and going to the cortex? (a) parietal lobe (b) cerebellum (c) pons (d) thalamus Questions 85 to 87 refer to the following figure 85. The above diagram pictures a "typical neuron". Which of the following choices identifies the Nodes of Ranvier? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 86 Which of the following choices identifies the synaptic buttons which contain neurotransmitters? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 87. Which of the following choices identifies the dendrites, neural fibers that receive electrical impulses? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 88. Two kinds of change that occur to the cell body of a neuron during an action potential are (a) electrical and chemical (b) spontaneous and stimulated (c) hormonal and mechanical (d) chemical and hormonal 89. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for the transmission of an impulse between neurons? (a) actomyosin (b) acetylcholine (c) acetylcholinesterase (d) luteinizing hormone
90. The vocal apparatus for producing speech sounds (vocal cords, muscle control of lips, throat, tongue, and jaw) are useless unless the organism has which area in its brain developed in order to coordinate these movements? (a) hypothalamus (b) thalamus (c) Broca's area (d) fissure of Rolando 91. The thalamus serves which of the following functions? (a) relay center from spinal cord to cerebrum (b) regulate external expression of emotion (c) relay center for sensory impulses (d) all of the above 92. Which of the following effects does adrenaline have on the human body? (a) constriction of the pupils (b) increased rate of digestion (c) accelerated heart beat (d) increased hormone production 93. 93.A knee jerk is an example of a (a) disynaptic reflex (b) spastic movement
(c) monosynaptic reflex (d) double innervations
94. Which of the following plays an important role in the regulation of respiration? (a) pons (b) hypothalamus (c) thalamus (d) midbrain 95. The "white matter" of the central nervous system is actually (a) nerve fiber pathways (b) cell bodies (c) cell enters (d) cortical tissue 96. Which of the following has direct control over the function of the pituitary gland? (a) pons (b) cerebral cortex (c) hypothalamus (d) midbrain 97. The medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and diencephalon are all parts of the (a) cerebellum (b) cortex (c) brainstem (d) left hemisphere 98. The cerebral cortex receives information from the (a) auditory system (b) visual system (c) motor system (d) all of the above Next five questions refer to the below diagram. 99. This neuron is most appropriately called a/an (a) afferent neuron (b) efferent neuron (c) connector cell (d) spinal neuron
100. Within the neuron, electrochemical messages travel from the (a) axon to the dendrite (b) dendrite to the axon (c) soma to the synapse (d) axon to the synapse 101. The action potential begins in the (a) neuron (b) soma
(c) dendrite
(d) axon hillock
102. If the pictured neuron is stimulated with an electrode, it will (a) hyperpolarize (b) depolarize (c) initiate an action potential (d) both b and c 103. The function of the Nodes of Ranvier is to (a) release neurotransmitters (b) insulate the axon (c) increase sodium uptake (d) propagate the action potential down the axon 104. The frontal lobes are most likely to be highly active during (a) auditory perception (b) abstract problem solving (c) visual perception (d) walking 105. In a right-handed individual, where is Broca's area most likely to be located? (a) right hemisphere (b) limbic system (c) visual cortex (d) left hemisphere 106. Which of the following is not a part of the peripheral nervous system? (a) parasympathetic system (b) limbic systew (c) sympathetic system (d) sensory neurons 107. Which of the following shows the largest ratio of brain size to body mass? (a) chimpanzees (b) humans (c) elephants (d) dolphins 108. The gate control theory of pain perception presumes that pain signals are blocked by (a) non-myelinated neurons (b) myelinated neurons (c) efferent neurons (d) afferent neurons 109. Which brain structure is important in causing, awakening a person from sleep? (a) limbic activating system (b) cerebral activating system (c) reticular activating system (d) thalamic activating system 110. Suppose that psychosurgery is tried to remedy the incontrollable violent behaviour of a convicted serial murderer. Which brain structure should probably be operated on? (a) amygdala (b) cerebellum (c) thalamus (d) medulla
111. The lobes of the brain located in the back of the head are the (a) temporal lobes (b) occipital lobes (c) parietal lobes lobes
(d) frontal
112. The speed that neural impulses travel is (a) 3 to 200 miles an hour (b) the speed of light (c) 600 miles an hour (d) 200 miles a second 113. Which of the following species has brain more anatomically complex than humans? (a) dolphins (b) elephants (c) gorillas (d) chimpanzees 114. Each of the following is a neurotransmitter except (a) serotonin (b) endorphins (c) dopamine (d) insulin 115. The area of the brain where the sense of smell is processed is the (a) frontal lobe (b) pineal gland (c) olfactory bulbs (d) parietal lobe 116. Broca's area and Wernicke's area of the brain are involved in the _______ and _________ of speech respectively. (a) understanding, production (b) comprehension, formulation (c) organization, production (d) production, comprehension 117. Which of the following is not part of brainstem? (a) medulla (b) pons (c) midbrain (d) corpus collosum 118. Hyperactivity through glandular secretion is most directly related to (a) the cerebellum (b) the gonads (c) the thyroid gland (d) the adrenal medulla 119. Which of the following areas in the brain has been shown in experiments to be closely connected to hunger, eating, and satiation? (a) Medulla oblongata (b) Hippocampus (c) Hypothalamus (d) Thalamus 120. Which of the following brain areas is important for speech? (a) Wernicke's area (b) Cerebellum (c) Thalamus (d) Hippocampus 121. Drugs that attempt to impact behavior generally try to (a) hinder or facilitate the transmission of "messages" at the synaptic junction (b) speed up the action potential (c) stimulate the axon hillock
(d) stimulate the nodes of Ranvier 122. An individual with Wernicke's aphasia would have difficulty (a) understanding what is said to him (b) creating a logical sentence (c) spelling (d) uttering words 123. Which of the following is referred to as white matter in the brain and spine? (a) Gyri (b) Nerve fibers made of axons (c) Bone matter (d) Sulci 124. The main regions of brain are the (a) hind brain, forebrain, midbrain (b) cerebral cortex, forebrain, hind brain, and midbrain (c) forebrain, midbrain, and anterior region (d) central hemisphere, and left hemisphere ' 125. Of the three different types of the neurons, sensory neurons are unique in that they (a) carry impulses from the brain and spinal cord to parts of the body that then respond to the impulses (b) receive information from the receptor cells and send this information to the brain or spinal cord (c) reside exclusively in the peripheral nervous system have two functions, to send signals to motor neurons, and to receive signals form receptors. (d) none of these 126. The four parts of the neurons are (a) axon, cell body, myelin sheath and dendrites (b) axon, dendrites, nucleus, and terminal buttons (c) axon, cell body .dendrites, and terminal buttons (d) axon, dendrites, myelin sheath and nodes of ranvier 127. Effectors and receptor cells are different in (a) their composition and speed of conduction (b) the direction in which they carry nerve impulses (c) the corresponding branch of the nervous system to which they belong (d) the effectors never connect with the brain, while receptors receive information from the brain 128. Axon and dendrites are part of a (a) myelin sheath (c) neuron
(b) cell body (d) node
129. Hormones are to endocrine system as ___________ are to the nervous system (a) nerves (b) synapses (c) neurotransmitters (d) action potential 130. Chemicals which are produced in the brain and facilitate communication between nerve cells are called
(a) neurotransmitters (c) syntactic structures
(b) plasmas (d) adrenocorticoids
131. The thyroid gland control (a) glucose absorption (c) metabolism
(b) emotions (d) sexuality
132. The portions of your nervous system which control breathing and digestion is (a) axon (b) autonomic (c) linear circuit (d) none of these 133. Specialized cells of nervous system carry (a) messages (b) reflexes (c) both a and b (d) none of these 134. The junction where the axon of a sending neuron communicates with a receiving neuron is called the (a) reuptake site (b) receptor site (c) synapse (d) axon terminal 135. The autonomic nervous system differs from the somatic nervous system in that its operation is largely (a) involuntary (b) voluntary (c) controlled by the brain (d) controlled by the spinal cord 136. An insufficient supply of Thyroid Hormone can result in (a) increased metabolic rate (b) cretinism (c) increased emotionality (d) none of these 137. The so-called "master gland" which helps control the activities of- various ductless glands is the (a) adrenal medulla (b) thyroid (c) anterior pituitary (d) gonad 138. The peripheral nervous system is made up of (a) axons and dendrites (b) the brain and the spinal cord (c) the autonomic and somatic nervous systems (d) the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems 139. Homeostasis is maintained by the-which also plays an important role in emotions: (a) hypothalamus (b) thalamus (c) limbic system (d) reticular activating system 140. The thalamus can be characterized as:
(a) a regulatory system (b) a relay system (c) a bridge between two cerebral hemisphere (d) the conscious switch of the brain 141. Short fibers that branch out from the cell body and pickup incoming messages are called: (a) axons (b) terminals (c) nerves (d) dendrites 142. The two parts of autonomic nervous system are: (a) voluntary and involuntary (b) cerebrospinal and cortical (c) thalamus and hypothalamus (d) sympathetic and parasympathetic 143. Example of ductless glands are: (a) gonads, salivary glands, adrenals (b) salivary glands, gonads, tear glands (c) adrenals, gonads, thyroid (d) thyroid, pituitary, tear gland 144. Two adrenal hormones which also appear to function as neurotransmitters in the brain are: (a) dopamine and serptonim (b) progesterone and testosterone (c) insulin and toblerone (d) epinephrine and non-epipephrine 145. The person most likely to suggest that the shape of a person's skull indicates the extent to which that individual is argumentative and aggressive would be a (a) neurologist (b) phrenologist (c) psychoanalyst (d) neuropsychologist 146. The cells that serve as the building blocks of the body's information processing system are called (a) neurons (b) neurotransmitters (c) dendrites (d) synapses 147. The function of dendrites is to (a) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons (b) receive incoming signals form sensory receptors or other neurons (c) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system (d) control pain through the release of opiate like chemicals into the brain 148. The longest part of a neuron is likely to be the (a) dendrite (b) axon (c) cell body
(d) synapse
149. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is closed by a/an (a) myelin sheath (b) association area (c) interneuron (d) corpus callosum 150. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the (a) synapse (b) threshold (c) action potential (d) refractory period
151. Neural impulses may travel as rapidly as (a) sound waves (c) 200 miles per hour (b) lightwaves (d) electricity through a wire 152. A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers (a) faster neural impulses (b) more intense neural impulses (c) more frequent neural impulses (d) all the above 153. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called (a) hormones (b) neurotransmitters (c) synapses (d) enzymes 154. The chemicai messenger at every synaptic gap between a motor neuron and a muscle is (a) epinephrine (b) curare (c) dopamine (d) acetylcholine 155. Endorphins are most directly involved in the control of (a) body temperature (b) physical pain (c) muscle contraction (d) attention 156. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and thenervous systems (a) autonomic (b) sympathetic (c) parasympathetic (d) peripheral 157. The central nervous system consists of (a) sensory and motor neurons (b) skeletal and autonomic subsystems (c) the brain and the spinal cord (d) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches 158. Information is carried form the tissues of the body to the central nervous system by (a) interneurons (b) sensory neurons (c) motor neurons (d) efferent neurons 159. The vast majority of cells in the body's information-processing systems are (a) interneurons (b) motor neurons (c) sensory neurons (d) neurotransmitters 160. Information is carried from the central nervous system to the tissues by (a) interneurons (b) sensory neurons (c) motor neurons (d) afferent neurons 161. The skeletal nervous system is a component of the-nervous system (a) peripheral (b) autonomic (c) central (d) sympathetic
162. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your heart muscles by the (a) limbic system (b) skeletal nervous system (c) central nervous system (d) autonomic nervous system 163. You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the (a) skeletal nervous system (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) limbic system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 164. The simplest neural pathways are those that govern our (a) thoughts (b) emotions (c) reflexes
(d) sexual drives
165. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the (a) cerebral cortex (b) endocrine system (c) autonomic nervous system (d) limbic system 166. Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into (a) synaptic gaps (b) the bloodstream (c) the limbic system (d) interneurons 167. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the (a) limbic system (b) sympathetic nervous (c) endocrine system (d) reticular formation 168. If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably release-into your bloodstream. (a) endorphins (b) acetylcholine (c) epinephrine (d) insulin 169. At the age of 22 a body was less than 4 feet. His short stature was probably influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produce by the (a) pancreas (b) thyroid (c) adrenal gland (d) pituitary gland 170. Surgical destruction of brain tissue is called a/an (a) split brain (b) lesion (c) synapse
(d) MRI
171. In terms of brain evolution, the sequence of brain regions from oldest to newest is (a) limbic system; brainstem; cerebral cortex. (b) brainstem; cereal cortex; limbic system. (c) limbic system; cerebral cortex; brainstem. (d) brainstem; limbic system; cerebral cortex. 172. The part of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the (a) cerebellum (b) medulla (c) reticular formation (d) thalamus
173. The reticular formation is located in the (a) brainstem (b) limbic system (c) sensory cortex (d) motor cortex 174. The brainstem is to arousal as the limbic system is to (a) language comprehension (b) muscular coordination (c) respiration (d) emotion 175. Which component of the limbic system plays an essential role in the processing of memories? (a) hypothalamus (b) thalamus (c) hippocampus (d) amygdala 176. The activity of the hypothalamus most directly influences (a) hunger and thirst (b) muscular coordination (c) attention and memory (d) heartbeat and breathing 177. The brain structure that provides a major link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is the (a) cerebellum (b) amygdala (c) reticular formation (d) hypothalamus 178. The motor cortex is located in the _________ lobe. (a) occipital (b) temporal (c) frontal
(d) parietal
179. A laboratory monkey could be made to smile by direct stimulation of the-lobe of its cerebral cortex. (a) temporal (b) occipital (c) frontal (d) parietal 180. In which lobe is the part of the brain that receives the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back? (a) parietal (b) temporal (c) occipital (d) frontal 181. The surgical removal of a large tumor from Javed's occipital lobe resulted in extensive loss of brain tissue. He is most likely to suffer some loss of (a) muscular coordination (b) language comprehension (c) speaking ability (d) visual perception 182. Auditory stimulation is first processed in the-lobes (a) occipital (b) temporal (c) frontal
(d) parietal
183. The occipital lobe is to ____________ as the temporal lobe is to ___________ (a) seeing; sensing touch (b) hearing; sensing movement (c) seeing; hearing (d) sensing pleasure; sensing pain 184. The process of comparing currently experienced visual input with past visual memories takes place with
(a) Broca's area (c) association areas
(b) the sensory cortex (d) the limbic system
185. In which of the following ways does the hypothalamus help to regulate the body's internal environment? (a) influencing the activity of the autonomic nervous system (b) controlling the release of certain hormones (c) influencing drives such as hunger and thirst (d) all of the above 186. The part of the left frontal lobe that directs the muscle movements involved in speech is known as (a) Wernicke's area (b) the angular gyrus (c) the amygdala (d) Broca's area 187. After a road accident, doctors detected damage to his frontal lobe in Broca's area. It is likely that he will have difficulty (a) reading (b) speaking fluently . (c) remembering past events (d) understanding other people when they speak 188. The capacity of one brain area to take over the function of another damaged brain area is known as brain (a) regeneration (b) accommodation (c) aphasia (d) plasticity 189. Damage to the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to reduce a person's ability to (a) recognize faces (b) copy drawings (c) solve arithmetic problems (d) recognize familiar melodies 190. The corpus collosum is a band of neural fibers that (a) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body. (b) transmits information between the cerebral hemisphere. (c) control the glands and muscles of the internal organs. (d) directs the muscle movements involved in speech. 191. An axon is polarized when (a) the inside of the axon is electrically negative with respect to the outside (b) positively charged sodium molecules rush into the axon through special sodium gates (c) the outside of the axon contains more negatively charged chlorine molecules than the inside (d) the inside of the axon contains more positively charged sodium molecules than the outside 192. During depolarization, ________ molecules rush into the axon; during depolarization, ___________ molecules rush out of the axon (a) potassium; chloride (b) chloride; sodium
(c) sodium; potassium
(d) potassium; chloride
193. The process by which a single neuron relays messages to other neurons is called (a) polarization (b) depolarization (c) axonal transmission (d) synaptic transmission 194. The elementary units of the nervous system that carry out the functions of the system are called (a) neurons (b) nerves (c) ganglia (d) glia 195. Under conditions of stress, which of the following prepares the body for possible "fight or flight"? (a) skeletal nervous system (b) spinal reflex system (c) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (d) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system 196. The function of the sensory neurons is to (a) organize and integrate information (b) carry environmental information to the central nervous system (c) transmit messages between motor neurons (d) transmit messages from motor neurons to interneurons 197. Neurons that exist completely within the central nervous system are called (a) motor neurons (b) interneurons (c) sensory neurons (d) nerves 198. The most numerous neurons in the human nervous system are (a) motor neurons, because they control all the skeletal muscles, visceral muscles, and glands (b) interneurons, because they receive, coordinate, and channel all neural messages (c) sensory neurons, because they pick up messages from the external and internal environment (d) none of the above, because the jobs of all three types of neurons are equally complex 199. Neurons that carry messages to muscles and glands are called (a) interneurons (b) motor neurons (c) sensory neurons (d) both b and c 200. The parts of motor neuron or an interneuron that are specialized to receive signals from other neurons are the (a) axon and myelin sheath . (b) dendrites and cell body (c) synaptic vesicles (d) axon terminals 201. The thin, tube-like branches that increase the surface area of the cell body in the motor neuron and interneuron are called (a) axons (b) myelin sheaths (c) glial cells (d) dendrites
202. A chemical substance designed to affect another cell is released by the _________ of a neuron. Which part of the neuron release neurotransmitters onto receiving cells? (a) axon terminals (b) dendrites (c) glia (d) action potentials 203. The fatty material protecting the axon in some neurons is called a/an (a) dendrite (b) myelin sheath (c) ganglion (d) axon terminal 204. Which of the following distinguishes a sensory neuron from a motor neuron or an interneuron? (a) the axon is relatively short (b) the cell body lies within the central nervous system (c) the dendrites protrude from one end of the axon and lodge in the skin (d) the dendrites protrude from the cell body and meet the axon terminals of other neurons 205. The peripheral nervous system is made up of extensions from the central nervous system known as (a) nerves (b) ganglia (c) tracts (d) dendrites 206. A ______ is a bundle of _________ (a) ganglion; axon of sensory and motor neurons (b) nerve; axons of motor and sensory neurons (c) nerve; interneurons (d) ganglion; interneurons 207. When you smile, a-nerve stimulates face muscles. When you prick your toe, the pain travels to the central nervous system by a-nerve (a) spinal; spinal (b) cranial; cranial (c) cranial; spinal (d) spinal; cranial 208. Which division of the nervous system carries neural commands directly to the muscles that produce observable body movements? (a) the central nervous system (b) the skeletal nervous system (c) the autonomic nervous system (d) the parasympathetic nervous system 209. Which division of the nervous system carries neural commands directly to the glands and internal muscular structures such as the heart and intestines? (a) the skeletal nervous system (b) the autonomic nervous system (c) the central nervous system (d) both a and b 210. You raise your hand to answer a question in class. What is the last division of the nervous system to play a part in this action? (a) the central nervous system (b) the skeletal motor system (c) the autonomic motor system (d) the parasympathetic nervous system
211. Our heart begins to pound and your pulse begins to race as you step towards the podium to deliver your speech. The part .of the nervous system that is directly producing this physiological response is the (a) skeletal nervous system (b) spinal reflex system (c) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (d) spinal reflex system 212. If the spinal cord is severed closer to the brain than to the bottom of the spinal column (a) fewer body parts will lose movement and sensation (b) the body parts affected will show less severe deficits in movement and sensation (c) a greater number of body parts will lose movement and sensation (d) paralysis will not be accompanied by sensory loss 213. You accidentally dip your hand into some boiling water, and later realize that you jerked your hand out of the water before you felt pain. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? (a) motor neurons operate more quickly than sensory neurons (b) the hand contains many more neurons than sensory neurons (c) the spinal cord can control some behaviour without input from the brain (d) pain sensations tend to be suppressed in the brain 214. Which of the following is most true of the spinal cord and the brainstem? (a) the spinal cord is the site of entry of motor tracts and the brainstem is the site of entry of sensory tracts (b) both contribute to organizing certain reflexes (c) both contain spinal and cranial nerves (d) all of the above are true 215. Which of the following structures, located at the top of the brainstem and at the middle of the brain, is often described as being the relay station connecting various parts of (a) the hypothalamus (c) the cerebellum (b) the thalamus (d) the limbic system 216. Parkinson's disease, characterized by involuntary muscle tremors and difficulty in starting and stopping deliberate movements, is due to deterioration of neurons running from the brainstem into the (a) basal ganglia (c) frontal lobes (b) thalamus (d) hypothalamus 217. Which of the following pairs are functionally most similar and, in fact, play complementary roles in initiating movement? (a) limbic system and cerebellum (b) basal ganglia and hypothalamus (c) cerebellum and basal ganglia (d) basal ganglia and limbic system
218. Within the limbic system, the two structures that interconnect to from a circuit Wrapped around the thalamus and basal ganglia are the (a) amygdala and cerebellum (b) hippocampus and thalamus (c) thalamus and hypothalamus (d) amygdala and hippocampus the brain? 219. The structure in the limbic system that plays an important role in memory formation is the (a) hypothalamus (b) hippocampus (c) amygdala (d) midbrain 220. A person suffers some brain damage as the result of a car accident. The person can remember things that happened prior to the accident but cannot from new long-term memories. This person is likely to have sustained damage to which of the following areas? (a) the hypothalamus (b) the amygdala (c) the hippocampus (d) the cerebellum 221. Which of the following is the brain structure that regulates the body's internal environment, in part through influences on the autonomic nervous system and hormones (a) hippocampus (b) amygdala (c) medulla (d) hypothalamus 222. In humans, the brain structure that takes up the greatest percentage of total brain volume is the (a) brainstem (b) cerebral cortex (c) limbic system (d) frontal lobes 223. The terms occipital, parietal, temporal, and frontal refer to (a) subcortical structures (b) lobes of the cerebral cortex (c) functional area of the cerebral cortex (d) processes controlled by the cerebral cortex 224. The cerebral cortex is divided into left and right hemispheres, each with four visible lobe, which of the following would not be considered one of the lobes? (a) the parietal lobe (b) the sensory lobe (c) the temporal lobe (d) the occipital lobe 225. In the somato-sensory cortex, the amount of cortical space corresponding to a given part of the body is related to the (a) size of the body part (b) strength of the body part (c) evolution of the body part (d) sensitivity of the body part 226. In the primary motor cortex, the amount of cortical space devoted to a given body part depends on the (a) size of the body part (b) strength of the body part (c) fineness of motor control in the body part
(d) evolutionary emergence of'the body part 227. The frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are critical to (a) visual processing (b) auditory processing (c) somato-sensory processing (d) planning and decision making 228. Which of the following is most likely to be a result of damage to the frontal lobes? (a) impaired ability to extract information from the environment (b) impaired ability to use environmental information effectively to control behaviour (c) impaired ability not only to extract information from the environment but also to use information effectively to control behaviour (d) the effects vary greatly from person to person and at this time no general statement can be made 229. The two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are functionally symmetrical in all of the following except (a) the primary motor area (b) the primary sensory areas (c) the association areas (d) none of the above; the two hemispheres are completely functionally symmetrical 230. Studies of people with brain damage have contributed most to our understanding of which of the following? (a) the localization of function in the cerebral cortex (b) the integration of sensory and motor systems throughout the body (c) the role of the autonomic nervous system in coordinating messages in the brain (d) the role of the brainstem in conducting sensory information to the brain 231. Studies of people with localized brain damage indicate that (a) most people have their language centers in the right hemisphere (b) most people have all their high-level intellectual centers in the left hemisphere (c) mot people have their language centers in the left hemisphere and their spatial pictorial centers in the right hemisphere (d) most people have the speech and spatial/pictorial centers spread over both hemisphere 232. In split-brain patients, it is possible to determine experimentally the capabilities of each hemisphere because sensory and motor information flow (a) between the left side of the body and the right hemisphere of brain (b) between the right side of he body and the left hemisphere of the brain (c) from the left hemisphere of the brain to the right (d) a and b 233. People whose corpus collosum had been severed to treat epilepsy (a) no longer had direct neural communication between the left and right cerebral hemispheres (b) no longer could carry on a conversation or engage in tasks requiring physical coordination (c) suffered a considerable loss in measured IQ (d) generally experienced all of the above
234. What type of charged particle enters the neuron at the beginning of the action potential? (a) potassium ions (b) sodium ions (c) protein molecules (d) chloride ions 235. Communication between neurons or between a neuron and a muscle cell takes place across (a) synapses (b) interneurons (c) nodes (d) axons 236. The axon terminal of one neuron is separated from another neuron by a (a) synaptic node (b) synaptic vesicle (c) synaptic cleft (d) synaptic membrane 237. Within the axon terminals are vesicles that hold (a) intracellular fluid (b) charged particles (c) myelin (d) neuron transmitter molecules 238. The chemical messengers secreted into the blood are called (a) hormones (b) neuron transmitters (c) ions (d) extracellular fluid 239. Which of the following statements regarding hormones is false? (a) they are secreted into the blood by endocrine glands and other organs (b) a given hormone may affect more than one type of target tissue (c) dozens of different hormones have been identified (d) the hormonal system functions independently of neural control 240. The structure of the brain that has the most direct control over the activity of the pituitary gland is the (a) amygdaia (b) cortex (c) thalamus (d) hypothalamus 241. Heartbeat, digestion, and other self-regulating bodily functions are governed by (a) voluntary nervous system (b) autonomic nervous system (c) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (d) skeletal nervous system 242. A strong stimulus can increase: (a) the speed of the impulse the neuron fires (b) the intensity of the impulse the neuron fires (c) the number of times the neuron fires (d) the threshold that must be reached before the neuron fires 243. Though there is no single "control center" for emotions, their regulation is primarily attributed to the brain region known as the (a) limbic system (b) reticular formation
(c) brainstem
(d) cerebral cortex
244. Which is the correct sequence in the transmission of a simple reflex? (a) sensory neuron -» interneuron -> sensory neuron (b) interneuron -> motor neuron -» sensory neuron (c) sensory neuron -» interneuron -» motor neuron (d) interneuron ->sensory neuron -> motor neuron 245. Which of the following is typically controlled by the right hemisphere? (a) language (b) learned voluntary movements (c) arithmetic reasoning (d) perceptual tasks 246. Voluntary movements, such as writing with a pencil, are directed by the (a) skeletal nervous system (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) autonomic nervous system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 247. Which is the correct sequence in the transmission of a neural impulse? (a) axon -» dendrite -» cell body -» synapse (b) dendrite -» axon -> cell body -> synapse (c) synapse -» axon -» dendrite -» cell body (d) dendrite -» cell body -> axon -> synapse 248. Following a head injury, a person has ongoing difficulties staying awake. Most likely, the damage occurred to the (a) thalamus (b) corpus callosum (c) reticular formation (d) cerebellum 249. During an action potential, the electrical state of the axon becomes (a) polarized, as positively charged atoms are admitted (b) polarized, as negatively charged atoms are admitted (c) depolarized, as positively charged atoms are admitted (d) depolarized, as negatively charged atoms are admitted 250. The visual cortex is located in the (a) occipital lobe (c) frontal lobe
(b) temporal lobe (d) parietal lobe
251. Which of the following is typically controlled by the left hemisphere? (a) spatial reasoning (b) arithmetic reasoning (c) the left side of the body (d) perceptual skills 252. When Hira burnt her toe in a tub of hot water, the pain message was carried to her spinal cord by the--nervous system (a) skeletal (b) sympathetic (c) parasympathetic (d) central
253. Which of the following are governed by the simplest neural pathways? (a) emotions (b) reflexes (c) physiological drives, such as hunger (d) movements, such as walking 254. The myelin sheath that is one some neurons (a) increases the speed of neural transmission (b) regulates the release of neurotransmitters (c) slows neural transmission (d) does b and c 255.Each cell of the human body has a total of (a) twenty-three chromosomes (c) forty-six chromosomes (b) twenty-three genes (d) forty-six genes 256.The gland that regulates body growth is the (a) adrenal (c) hypothalamus (b) thyroid (d) pituitary 257. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are _________ that are released by the ___________ gland (a) neurotransmitters; pituitary (b) hormones; pituitary gland
(c) neurotransmitters; adrenal (d) hormones'; adrenal by the
258. Beginning at the front of the brain and working backward then down and around, which of the following is the correct order of the cortical regions? (a) occipital lobe; temporal lobe; parietal lobe; frontal lobe (b) temporal lobe; frontal lobe; parietal lobe; occipital lobe (c) frontal lobe; occipital lobe; temporal lobe; parietal lobe (d) frontal lobe; parietal lobe; occipital lobe; temporal lobe 259. You are able to pull your hand quickly away from hot water before pain is felt because (a) movement of the hand is a reflex that involves intervention of the spinal cord only (b) movement of the hand does not require intervention by the central nervous system (c) the brain reacts quickly to prevent severe injury (d) the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system intervenes to speed contraction of the muscles of the hand 260. A bodybuilder suddenly seems to have grown several inches in height. You suspect that his growth spurt has occurred because he has been using drugs that affect the (a) pituitary gland (b) thalamus (c) adrenal glands (d) cerebellum 261. Cross-sectional studies of intelligence are potentially misleading because
(a) they are typically based on a very-small and unrepresentative sample of people (b) retesting the same people over a period of years allows test performance to be influenced by practice (c) they compare people who are not only different in age, but of different areas, education levels, and affluence (d) of all the above reasons 262. The stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by thegland in response to stimulation by the __________ branch of the nervous system. (a) pituitary; sympathetic (b) pituitary; parasympathetic (c) adrenaline; sympathetic (d) adrenaline; parasympathetic 263. The estimated number of neurons in the human brain is (a) 100 million (b) 100 billion (c) 10 trillion 264. The largest mass of the neuron is the (a) axon (b) nucleus
(c) dendrite
(d) 100 trillion
(d) cell body
265.The function of the dendrites is (a) receiving neural impulses (c) storing neural impulses (b) sending neural impulses (d) unknown 266. Which of the following is a function of myelin? (a) speeds the transmission of neural impulses (b) aids the production of new neurons (c) promotes the regeneration of damaged neurons (d) acts as protective covering for the nucleus of the neuron 267. Neurotransmitters are contained in the (a) vesicles (b) cell body (c) nucleus
(d) axon terminals
268. The role of neurotransmitters is to (a) inhibit the firing of neurons (b) enhance the firing of neurons (c) have no effect on the firing of neurons (d) either enhance or inhibit the firing of neurons 269. The minimum stimulation required to get a neuron to fire is called the (a) action potential (b) resting potential (c) neural threshold (d) ion differential 270. After a neutral impulse, a neuron is ready to fire again after about (a) a few minutes (b) a few thousands of a second (c) several seconds (d) a few hundredths of a second 271. Neurotransmitters are stored in the (a) synapse
(c) vesicles
(b) synaptic cleft
(d) cell body
272. The neurotransmitter which influences normal memory function is/are (a) dopamine (b) acetylcholine (c) norepinephrine (d) endorphins 273. Endorphins are neurotransmitters which affect (a) motor skills (b) level of pain (c) memory function (d) anxiety and arousal 274. The skeletal muscles and sense organs are served primarily by the (a) autonomic nervous system (b) somatic nervous system (c) central nervous system (d) peripheral nervous system 275. The system primarily related to behaviour in the areas of motivation and emotion is the (a) endocrine system (b) central nervous system (c) somatic nervous system (d) peripheral nervous system 276. The most complex of the nervous systems and the one most in control of our behaviour and mental processes is called (a) parasympathetic nervous system (b) central nervous system (c) somatic nervous system (d) peripheral nervous system 277. Aliza is watching a horror movie and has become frightened. Her heart is pounding and she is breathing rapidly. Although she may not be aware of it, her body is producing extra adrenaline. All these changes are in response to the (a) central nervous system (b) sympathetic nervous system (c) endocrine system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 278. Which neurons carry impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the muscles and glands (a) sensory (b) inter (c) motor (d) dorsal 279. Smooth muscle movements such as swinging a baseball bat are controlled by the (a) cerebellum (b) pons (c) medulla (d) cerebrum 280. Which of the following is monitored by the hypothalamus? (a) anger (b) waking up (c) itching
(d) feeling thirsty
281. For most right handed individuals a stroke would be most damaging if it occurs in the (a) right hemisphere (b) left hemisphere (c) cerebellum (d) temporal lobes 282. Reflexes like eye blinks are controlled by the (a) spinal cord (b) medulla (c) pons 283. The fibers connecting the two hemispheres form the
(d) cerebrum
(a) cerebral cortex (c) corpus callosum
(b) cerebral connector (d) synaptic cleft
284. Choose the word that does not belong in the set (a) dendrites (b) bipolar cell (c) myelin sheath (d) axon 285. The work of Paul Broca led him to conclude that: (a) the inability to speak is always psychogenically induces (b) hearing can be explained by his theory of resonance (c) aphasia can have an organic basis (d) extirpation is particularly useful for the study of human subjects 286. The two major division of the autonomic nervous system are: (a) somatic and peripheral (b) brain and spinal cord (c) parietal and occipital (d) sympathetic & parasympathetic
ANSWERS Q.1.(c) (c) Q.7. Q.10. Q.13. Q.16. Q.19. Q.22. Q.25. Q.28. Q.31. Q.34. Q.37. (d) Q.40. Q.43. Q.46. Q.49. Q.52. Q.55. Q.58. Q.61. Q.64. Q.67. Q.70. Q.73. Q.76. Q.79.
Q.2. Q.5. (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b)
(a) (d) Q.8. Q.11. Q.14. Q.17. Q.20. Q.23. Q.26. Q.29. Q.32. Q.35. Q.38. Q.41. Q.44. Q.47. Q.50. Q.53. Q.56. Q.59. Q.62. Q.65. Q.68. Q.71. Q.74. Q.77. Q.80.
Q.3. Q.6. (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (a) (c) (a) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a)
(d) Q.4. (a) Q.9. (d) Q.12. (d) Q.15. (d) Q.18. (b) Q.21. (c) Q.24. (d) Q.27. (d) Q.30. (b) Q.33. (a) Q.36. (c) Q.39. (d) Q.42. (c) Q.45. (a) Q.48. (b) Q.51. (d) Q.54. (a) Q.57. (d) Q.60. (d) Q.63. (d) Q.66. (c) Q.69. (b) Q.72. (d) Q.75. (c) Q.78. (b) Q.81 (d)
Q.82. Q.85. Q.88. Q.91. (a) Q.97. Q.100. Q.103. Q.106. Q.109. Q.112. Q.115. Q.118. Q.121. Q.124. Q.127. Q.130. Q.133. Q.136. Q.139. Q.142. Q.145. Q.148. Q.151. Q.154. Q.157. Q.160. Q.163. Q.166. Q.169. Q.172. Q.175. Q.178. Q.181. Q.184. Q.187. Q.190. Q.193. Q.196. Q.199. Q.202. Q.205. Q.208. Q.211. Q.214. Q.217.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c)
Q.83. (d) Q.86. (a) Q.89. (b) Q.92 (c) Q.95. (a) Q.98. (d) Q.101. (d) Q.104. (b) Q.107. (b) Q.110. (a) Q.113. (a) Q.116. (d) Q.119. (c) Q.122. (b) Q.125. (b) Q.128. (c) Q.131. (c) Q.134. (c) Q.137. (c) Q.140. (d) Q.143. (c) Q.146. (a) Q.149. (a) Q.152. (c) Q.155. (b) Q.158. (b) Q.161. (a) Q.164. (c) Q.167. (c) Q.170. (b) Q.173. (a) Q.176. (a) Q.179. (c) Q.182. (b) Q.185. (d) Q.188. (d) Q.191. (a) Q.194. (a) Q.197. (b) Q.200. (b) Q.203. (b) Q.206. (b) Q.209. (b) Q.212. (c) Q.215. (b) Q.218. (d)
Q.84. Q.87. Q.90. Q.93. (c) Q.96. (c) Q.99. Q.102. Q.105. Q.108. Q.111. Q.114. Q.117. (d) Q.120. Q.123. Q.126. Q.129. Q.132. Q.135. Q.138. Q.141. Q.144. Q.147. Q.150. Q.153. Q.156. Q.159. Q.162. Q.165. Q.168. Q.171. Q.174. Q.177. Q.180. Q.183. Q.186. Q.189. Q.192. Q.195. Q.198. Q.201. Q.204. Q.207. Q.210. Q.213. Q.216. Q.219.
(d) (a) (c) Q.94. (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b)
Q.220. Q.223. Q.226. Q.229. Q.232. Q.235. Q.238. Q.241. Q.244. Q.247. Q.250. Q.253. Q.256. Q.259. Q.262. Q.265. Q.268. Q.271. Q.274. Q.277. Q.280. Q.283. Q.286.
(c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d)
Q.221. Q.224. Q.227. Q.230. Q.233. Q.236. Q.239. Q.242. Q.245. Q.248. Q.251. Q.254. Q.257. Q.260. Q.263. Q.266. Q.269. Q.272. Q.275. Q.278. Q.281. Q.284.
(d) (b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (b)
Q.222. Q.225. Q.228. Q.231. Q.234. Q.237. Q.240. Q.243. Q.246. Q.249. Q.252. Q.255. Q.258. Q.261. Q.264. Q.267. Q.270. Q.273. Q.276. Q.279. Q.282. Q.285.
(b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (c)
Chapter 3
Human Development 1. Which of the following developmental psychologists was noted for covering psychosocial development across an entire lifespan? (a) Jean Piaget (b) Harry Harlow (c) Carol Gilligan . (d) Erik Erikson 2. The sex of a baby, male or female, is determined by (a) the mother (b) the father (c) testosterone (d) hormone balance at conception 3. Which of the following represents a correct sequence (a) zygote, fetus, embryo, neonate, infant (b) zygote, embryo, neonate, neonate, infant (c) embryo, zygote, fetus, neonate, infant (d) zygote, embryo, fetus, neonate, infant 4. What three styles of parenting did Baumrind identify: (a) autocratic, democratic, laissez-faire (b) authoritarian, authoritative, permissive (c) pre-conventional, conventional, post-conventional (d) moving against, moving toward, moving away from 5. When a child acquires the ability to represent the world internally through the use of symbols, he enters which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? (a) sensorimotor (b) secondary circular reactions (c) concrete operational (d) preoperational 6. Assume that if a person has a particular genetic disease, there's a 50 percent chance that his sibling will also have the disease. If an afflicted person has a fraternal twin, what is the chance that the fraternal twin has the disease? (a) 100 percent (b) 50 percent (c) 75 percent (d) 25 percent 7. The method of studying development using groups of people that vary in age and are measured at the same time is called: (a) longitudinal study (b) field study (c) quasi-experiment (d) cross-sectional study 8. An average 10-month old infant will most likely: (a) exhibit stranger anxiety (b) display the Moro reflex (c) have mastered conservation
(d) be entering the zone of proximal development 9. The XO chromosome combination in females is primarily associated with: (a) PKU (b) Klinefelter's (c) Down's syndrome (d) Turner's syndrome 10. According to Piaget, a child who is confident that the quantity of milk in a glass does not change when it is poured into a glass of a different shape is probably: (a) between 3 and 5 years old (b) able to conserve volume (c) in the preoperational stage of cognitive development (d) engaging exclusively in egocentric patterns of play 11. Which of the following theorists most stressed the importance of maturation in development? (a) Jean Piaget (b) John Locke (c) Arnold Gesell (d) Lev Vygostsky 12. If a fetus inherits an X chromosome from its mother and a Y chromosome from its father, but does not produce androgens, it will: (a) have feminine genotype and a masculine phenotype (b) have a masculine genotype and a masculine, phenotype (c) have a masculine genotype and a feminine phenotype (d) have a feminine genotype and a feminine phenotype 13. Extensive studies regarding child behavior have been made, by (a) Arnold, Erickson, & Piaget (b) Freud, Erickson, & William James (c) Arnold & William Wundt (d) Jean Piaget & William James 14. If the gene for blue eyes is recessive and if a child have blue eyes, which of the following must be true? (a) both parents have blue eyes (b) the child's sibling has brown eyes (c) each parent has at least one blue eye gene (d) at least one parent must have blue eyes 15. The tendency of infants to bring all novel objects to their mouths is an example of which of the following Piagetian processes? (a) sublimation (b) accommodation (c) primary circular reaction (d) assimilation 16. Which of the following can be inferred from most twin studies? (a) differences between dizygotic twins are most likely the product of environmental factors (b) differences between monozygotic twins are most likely the product of environmental factors (c) differences between monozygotic and dizygotic twins are most likely the product of environmental factors (d) differences between dizygotic twins are most likely the product of genetic factors
17. According to Piaget, the sensorimotor stage is characterized by: (a) concrete operations (b) formal operations (c) primary and secondary circular reactions (d) conservation 18. Which of the following is commonly referred to as the father of developmental psychology? (a) G. Stanley Hall (b) Sigmund Freud (c) Erik Erikson (d) William James 19. If an individual is facing the psychosocial crisis of identity versus role confusion, according to Erik Erikson's model, that individual is most likely: (a) a preadolescent (b) an adolescent (c) a young adult (d) a middle-aged adult 20. Piaget's concept of a scheme is (a) a mental representation of some aspect of the external world (b) a mental blueprint for an organized pattern of action (c) a deliberate plan of action (d) a set of related experiences 21. Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between genotype and phenotype? (a) the genotype reflects pure hereditary influences while the phenotype reflects those of the environment (b) the genotype is the organism's finite potential which interacts with the environment to form the phenotype (c) phenotype determines genotype (d) genotype determines phenotype 22. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes. A person born with an extra 21st chromosome (47 in all) would have (a) Turner's syndrome (b) Kleinfelter's syndrome (c) Down's syndrome (d) Pickwickian syndrome 23. Fertilization of human eggs normally takes place in the: (a) uterus (b) ovaries (c) cervix
(d) fallopian tubes
24. According to Piaget, the ability to "think like a scientist" is characteristic of which of the following developmental stages? (a) preoperational (b) sensorimotor (c) formal operational (d) post-conventional 25. The children's game of "peek-a-boo" centers around which of the following developmental concepts?
(a) schema (c) formal operational
(b) conservation (d) object permanence
26. According to Piaget, children who can think symbolically about absent objects and can appreciate the stable properties of those objects, but cannot think logically about actions that produce change, are at the _________ stage (a) formal-operational (b) concrete-operational (c) preoperational (d) sensorimotor 27. The process of interpreting new information in terms of an existing schema is termed: (a) assimilation (b) ideation (c) conservation (d) accommodation 28. A researcher is interested in studying the development of creativity in children she develops an appropriate test and gives it to three groups of children: 3-year olds, 4-year olds, and 5-year olds. Once a year for the next five years, she tests the creativity of her original subjects. This study is an example of a: (a) cross-sectional study (b) sequential cohort study (c) longitudinal study (d) case study 29. The term "Peers" refers to (a) school friends (c) persons with different ages (b) persons from same back ground (d) city fellows 30. According to Erikson, which of the following is the central crisis of adolescence? (a) identity vs confusion (b) trust vs mistrust (c) industry vs inferiority (d) intimacy vs isolation 31. A child is shown, two identical balls of clay, sees one of them rolled into a rod shape, and is then asked which ball contains more clay. This child is being tested for an understanding of (a) object permanence (b) conservation of substance (c) the reversibility of actions (d) logical possibilities 32. Harlow's experiments demonstrate that female infant monkeys raised in isolation with a cloth mother: (a) develop normally in all respects (b) develop normally, but are totally inadequate as mothers (c) have unresolved Oedipal conflicts (d) die at an earlier age than monkeys raised normally 33. Piaget contended that the initial forms of thought are (a) early action schemes (b) verbal symbols (c) visual symbols (d) spoken (not mental) verbal symbols 34. Identical twins raised separately and found to have similar IQs are cited as examples of the contribution made to intelligence by:
(a) environment (c) infant stimulation
(b) heredity (d) parental interaction
35. High correlation with premature birth has been found in cases where the mother's behaviour included: (a) depression (b) exposure to radiation (c) smoking (d) alcoholic beverages 36. DNA refers to the: (a) molecular configuration making up chromosomes (b) germ-cell configurations in genes (c) atom structure in genes (d) neural structure in cell bodies 37. Experiments demonstrate that infants register strongest preference for which one of the following visual stimuli? (a) plain, solid colours (b) bright colours (c) likenesses of human faces (d) likenesses of animals and pets 38. In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, internalizing of action schemes is the major task of the _____________ stage (a) sensorimotor (b) preoperational (c) formal-operational (d) concrete-operational 39. The prenatal period during which X-rays and specific drugs can have the most detrimental effect upon development is: (a) the first eight weeks (b) the second to fourth months (c) the sixth to eight months (d) the fifth to seventh months 40. Which one of the following combinations would not be possible in a set of triplets? (a) three fraternal (b) three identical (c) two identical, one fraternal (d) two fraternal, one identical 41. Which one of the following expressions could act as a substitution for "nature-nurture controversy" without changing the basic meaning? (a) heredity-maturation controversy (b) environment-learning controversy (c) achievement-acquisition controversy (d) heredity-environment controversy 42. The processes of growth and development are (a) stop (b) continuous (c) slow (d) both a & c 43. Within the human embryo, activity related to the development of hair and nails is centered in the:
(a) mesoderm
(b) endoderm
(c) exoderm
(d) ectoderm
44. In order to understand that a ball of clay can take a different shape without either losing or gaining substance, which of Piaget's stages must the child have reached? (a) sensorimotor (b) preoperational (c) concrete-operational (d) formal-operational 45. Anoxia is: (a) a disease of the blood cells (b) hyperventilation (c) interruption of the oxygen supply to the brain (d) an oversupply of oxygen to the brain 46. Strong evidence suggests that the newborn: (a) sees only blurred shadows (b) has visual capacity for pattern discrimination (c) sees clearly but hot in colour (d) visual tracks successfully 47. How many stages of cognitive development are associated with Piaget? (a) seven stages (b) six stages (c) two stages (d) four stages 48. When a child modifies an existing cognitive schema to make it compatible with the cognitive aspects of an incoming stimulus, the process is called: (a) assimilation (b) adaptation (c) conservation (d) accommodation 49. Because of the rate of a child's physiological development, parents should: (a) initiate toilet training when the child begins to walk (b) initiate toilet training when the child begins to talk (c) toilet train at the same time as the child is weaned (d) wait until at least age two for toilet training 50. A correct sequential rendering of the prenatal development stages is_. (a) fetal, germinal, embryonic (b) germinal, fetal, embryonic (c) germinal, embryonic, fetal (d) embryonic, germinal, fetal 51. According to Piaget, a child can represent things with words and images but cannot reason with logic during the ____________ stage. (a) concrete operational (b) sensorimotor (c) formal operational (d) preoperational 52. This method of study compares children at various ages simultaneously. It is the ___________ method. (a) longitudinal (b) clinical
(c) naturalistic
(d) cross-sectional
53. Which of the following is an incorrect stage theory pairing? (a) Piaget - cognitive (b) Kohlberg - physiological (c) Freud - psychosexual (d) Erikson - psychosocial 54. You know that even though the toy boat has been placed in the filled aquarium tank, the tank itself still contains the same amount of water. In Piagetian terms this is --conservation. (a) number (b) substance (c) length (d) volume 55. Socially the young child can only attend to one dimension at a time. In cognitive terms this is called: (a) accommodation (b) egocentrism (c) assimilation (d) reversibility 56. ___________ is a continuing function of heredity after birth. (a) transduction (b) maturation (c) learning habituation
(d)
57. A major criticism of stage theories relates to the point that: (a) they ignore developmental norms (b) they fail to account for sudden changes in behaviour (c) they are overly predicable (d) they oversimplify and ignore individual variations . 58. Kohlberg's moral development stages are closely related to: (a) Freud's psychosexual stages (b) Piaget's cognitive development stages (c) Erikson's psychosocial stages (d) Dollard and Miller's learning stages 59. The toy train disappears into a tunnel. From the child's cognitive perspective, the train is gone (in effect, no longer exists). This cognitive experience expresses an absence of ____________ and is characteristic of ____________ (a) object permanence, the sensorimotor stage (b) reversibility, the conservation stage (c) assimilation, the conservation stage (d) accommodation, the concrete operations stage 60. The stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development occurs during adolescence and refers to the ability to reason about abstract concepts and principles and evaluate issues in the broader social environment? (a) formal operational (b) concrete operational (c) sensorimotor (d) preoperational 61. Which of the following is produced by tactile stimulation of a newborn's cheek? (a) Babkin response (b) rooting response (c) Moro response (d) grasping reflex
62. The neonate has well-developed: (a) temperature-regulation mechanisms (b) immunity to various infections (c) pain sensitivity (d) auditory acuteness 63. In Piaget's view, the primary difference between a 9-year-old and a 13-year-old is that the older child can think in terms of (a) possibilities as well as realities (b) cause-and-effect mechanisms (c) concrete operations (d) assimilation and accommodation 64. Innate behaviour patterns develop primarily as a function of: (a) instrumental conditioning (b) maturation (c) learning (d) infant stimulation 65. The newborn: (a) engages in babbling (c) engages smiles socially
(b) vocalizes socially (d) has the capability for basic learning
66. In comparative physical growth curves, females: (a) develop more slowly than males (b) develop more rapidly than males (c) develop at the same rate as males (d) develop more rapidly than males during the first six years and more slowly thereafter , 67. According to Piaget, the process through which a young child relates something he sees to something he already knows is called: (a) accommodation (b) assimilation (c) formal operation (d) concrete operation 68. Kohlberg indicates that at the most primitive level of moral development, morality is decided by (a) reward and punishment (b) individual conscience (c) social approval (d) religious values 69. The earliest emotion evident in the newborn is (a) delight (b) shyness (c) affection
(d) excitement
70. Which of the following represents the correct progression of Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? (a) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations (b) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations (c) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operations, concrete operations (d) preoperational, formal operations, concrete operations, sensorimotor
71. During the third through the eighth week of pregnancy, the developing child can be accurately referred to as the (a) prenate (b) zygote (c) embryo (d) fetus 72. Experiments with children have suggested that the point at which a child begins to walk is primarily a function of (a) learning (b) environment (c) modeling (d) maturation 73. The first two years after birth are critical (a) to self-concept formation (b) to sensory formation (c) to aptitude formation (d) to formation of secondary sexual characteristics 74. The period of the embryo spans the time from the end of (a) first week to end of second month (b) second week to end of second month (c) third week to end of second month (d) first week to end of first month 75. Which of the names listed would be most likely to comment that environment is of central importance? (a) Wundt (b) Dewey (c) Darwin (d) Watson 76. Friends become differentiated from strangers during which of the following young ages? (a) twelve months (b) six to seven months (c) one to two months (d) three to four months 77. In the newborn's second year, the rate of growth (a) is faster than that of the first year (b) is slower than that of the first year (c) parallels that of the first year (d) is faster than that of the fetal period 78. In Piaget's classification system, the child learns language and the logic of classification and numbers during which period? (a) sensorimotor (b) latency (c) formal operations (d) concrete operation 79. A person performing calculus computations has attained which one of the following stages of cognitive development? (a) sensorimotor operation (b) formal operations (c) preoperational (d) concrete operation 80. A change in the structure of a gene that leads to minor of major changes in an organism's physical constitution is (a) mitosis (b) meiosis
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) mutation
81. When mother hides his favourite toy under a blanket, he acts as though it no longer exists and makes no attempt to retrieve it. She is clearly in Piaget's _________ stages. (a) concrete operational (b) formal operational (c) sensorimotor (d) preoperational 82. The relationship between a child's intellectual development and the age at which the child first walks is (a) strong (b) moderate (c) nonexistent (d) lower 83. The brain of the newborn (a) is the least-developed aspect of the child's body (b) will not permit any reflex activity immediately after birth (c) is fully developed (d) will continue to grow in size 84. Which one of the following is characteristic of the fetal period? (a) initial indications of sensitivity to stimulation (b) highest susceptibility to diseases (c) greatest susceptibility to the effects of thalidomide (d) initiation of heartbeat 85. Throughout the first three months after birth, there is (a) an increase in day sleep and a decrease in night sleep (b) a decrease in day sleep and an increase in night sleep (c) no change in sleeping schedule (d) increased day sleep for boys, decreased day sleep for girls 86. Newborns (a) cannot discriminate differences in tonal pitch (b) have good eye-muscle coordination (c) have prominent sphincter-muscle control (d) can detect colour and shape 87. Severe anoxia at birth most likely will result in damage to the (a) brain (b) lungs (c) heart (d) liver 88. One boy has brown eyes. His twin brother has blue eyes. This information enable person to conclude that the two (a) are identical twins (b) are fraternal twins (c) are monozygotic (d) have blue-eyed parents 89. Developmentally, which of the following refers to reduction division? (a) mitosis (b) heterocyst (c) morphosis (d) meioses
90. Which of the following is a correct development sequence? (a) ovum-sperm, blastocyst, zygote (b) blastocyst, ovum-sperm, zygote (c) blastocyst, zygote, ovum-sperm (d) ovum-sperm, zygote, blastocyst 91. During a child's first two years, the child's weight concept is (a) based entirely on stimulus brightness (b) based entirely on stimulus size (c) based entirely on stimulus shape (d) based entirely on stimulus colour 92. At what point could a newborn be expected to have the capacity for visually tracking moving object? (a) immediately after birth (b) within a few days after birth (c) during the second week after birth (d) at the end of the first month after birth 93. Erikson's trust vs mistrust stage occurs during (a) middle childhood (b) early adulthood (c) infancy (d) early childhood 94. Which one of the following would not be expected in the newborn? (a) well developed temperature sensitivity (b) well developed pain sensitivity (c) Mora reflex (d) well developed grasping reflex 95. Genotype : phenotype (a) aptitude : performance (c) heredity : appearance
(b) identical; fraternal (d) prenatal: postnatal
96. Which one of the following is the Moro response of a newborn? (a) sucking (b) grasping reflex (c) toes curling upward arid outward (d) arms and legs stretched outward suddenly 97. In gamete development, the fact that each mature egg or sperm contains only one chromosome from each pair is attributable to a process known as (a) fertilization (b) immunization (c) reduction division (d) zygotic division 98. That the upper part of the body develops earlier than the lower part is termed (a) proximodistal (b) cephalocaudal (c) corticodistal (d) general to specific 99. Mitosis refers to (a) union of sperm and ovum (b) cell division and multiplication
(e) skeletal muscle tissue development (d) nerve tissue development 100. The term congenital means (a) genetic (c) embryonic
(b) present at birth (d) recessive characteristic
101. The basic thesis of Newcomb's theory is that (a) persons with similar orientations are attracted to each other (b) persons with widely differing backgrounds are attracted to each other (c) complementarity is essentially predominant except in courtship and marital relationships (d) cognitive dissonance prevails in interpersonal attraction 102. If one of a set of monozygotic twins is diagnosed as manic depressive, there is a 72% chance the other twin will have manic depression. If one of a set of dizygotic twins is diagnosed as manic depressive, there is a 14% chance the other twin also will have it. From this information you could conclude that (a) environmental factors have a major role in manic depression (b) the percentage difference between monozygotic and dizygotic is no significant (c) genetic factors have a major role in manic depression (d) Seligman's theory has been supported by the data 103. In most social settings, the theory of social attraction of which one of the following appears most applicable? (a) Winch (b) Webster (c) Finch (d) Newcomb 104 Erikson proposed that trust or mistrust develops during the (a) muscular-anal stage (b) latency stage (c) oral-sensory stage (d) maturity stage 105. During the pre-moral stage described by Kohlberg's moral development theory, children (a) think bad behaviour is punished and good behaviour is not punished (b) have no conception of good or bad behaviour (c) are amoral (d) are uncooperative 106. First born child have been shown to (a) be more dependent than later borns (b) be more affiliative when fearful, than later borns (c) be more intelligent than later born children (d) all of the above 107. According to Erikson, a child four to six years of age is in which stage of development? (a) latency stage (b) muscular-anal stage (c) tocomotor-genital stage (d) oral-sensory stage
108. According to Noam Chomsky's theory of transformational grammar, a "Kernel" is (a) the surface structure of a sentence (b) the smallest unit of meaning in a language (c) the deep structure of a sentence (d) the basic declarative thought of the sentence . 109. All of the following are characteristics of the preoperational stage of development except: (a) egocentric thought (b) understanding of conservation (c) static thinking (d) problem solving behaviour 110. The Language Acquisition Device was proposed by (a) Piaget (b) Bruner (c) Kbhler
(d) Chomsky
111. In a particular study, young children were asked to feel two fabrics, either with the same or the opposite hands, and say whether they were the same or different materials. Three-year-olds made 90% more errors with different hands than with the same hand, and five-year olds made only 10% more errors with different hands. A probable reason for this would be that (a) the sense of touch is more developed in five-year-olds (b) the corpus collosum matures between ages three and five (c) the right hemisphere is not sufficiently developed in three-year-olds (d) all of the above are correct 112. Which of the following developmental psychologists most strongly favours a stage theory of development? (a) Maccoby (b) Gellman (c) Piaget (d) Spock 113. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, middle childhood is characterized by (a) hypothetical reasoning (b) deductive thinking (c) concrete operations (d) egocentric thinking 114. The proportion of total variation in a population that is due to genetic variation is (a) phenotype (b) genotype (c) heritability (d) absolute heritability 115. According to Erikson's developmental theory, the maturity stage deals with which of the following crises? (a) initiative vs. guilt (b) autonomy vs. doubt (c) integrity vs. despair (d) intimacy vs. isolation 116. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, the morality of self-accepted principles is characterized by (a) a focus on good and bad behaviour (b) an understanding of individual rights, ideals, and principles (c) premoral behaviour (d) important peer and social relations 117. The Palmar reflex, present in neonates, refers to which behaviour?
(a) sucking (c) hand grasping
(b) startle response (d) head turning
118. Which of the following choice is not characteristic of infantile autism? (a) language problem (b) brain lesions (c) bizarre behaviour (d) extreme aloneness 119. According to Kohlberg, an individual in a stage of conventional morality would be most concerned with (a) gaining rewards (b) gaining approval (c) avoiding punishment (d) achieving fairness 120. During a child's development, if the amount of frustration and anxiety becomes too great concerning movement to the next stage, development may come to a halt. The individual is said to become (a) dependent (b) passive (c) fixated (d) regressive 121. According to Piaget, the child's basic developmental process includes (a) assimilation (b) schemas (c) accommodation (d) all of the above 122. The type of study construction in which different subjects at different developmental levels are compared is a (a) longitudinal study (b) cross-sectional study (c) field study (d) group construction 123. In language, grammar refers to (a) the morphemes used (b) the phonemes used (c) both morphemes and phonemes (d) the rules used to connect phrases 124. Psychologists who specialize in the study of language are called (a) psycho-grammarists (b) psycholinguists (c) psycho-metricians (d) morphemologists 125. Morphology refers to the (a) relationship between sounds and their meanings (b) relationship between different languages (c) origins of words (d) study of infant babbling 126. In which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development will a child realize that when a volume of water is poured from a tall, narrow beaker, to a wide beaker, the volume remains the same even though it reaches a lower level? (a) preoperational (b) sensorimotor (c) concrete operational (d) formal operation
127. Which of the following behaviours is characteristic of infantile autism? (a) social isolation (b) extreme sensitivity to pain (c) stereotyped behaviour (d) both a and c 128. The rationalist approach of Chomsky in explaining language development is also referred to as (a) nativist (b) empiricist (c) cognitive (d) culture-bound 129. Of the following psychologists, who described the identity crisis as a major problem faced by the adolescent? (a) Horney (b) Piaget (c) Erikson (d) Freud 130 Research has shown that children who are reared by strict punishment usually (a) become criminals (b) grow up to be passive (c) enlist in the armed forces (d) grow up to be aggressive 131. Apraxia is characterized by an inability to (a) organize movements in terms of purpose (b) do something when instructed verbally (c) make movements (d) both a and b 132. The belief that humans have innate abilities to use syntax and grammar correctly is ___________ position. (a) the learning theory (b) Chomsky's (c) Broca's (d) B. F. Skinner 133. Stimulation of the cheek will cause a newborn to begin making sucking responses. This illustrates the _________ reflex. (a) Perkinjie (b) Korsakoff (c) startle (d) rooting 134. A person's full set of genes is called the (a) phenotype (b) genotype (c) germ cells (d) polygenes 135. The process through which heredity caused development of bodily functions is called (a) accommodation (b) tracking (c) maturation (d) adaptation 136. Which of the following is not a well-defined stage of language acquisition? (a) babbling (b) three words (c) two words (d) one word 137. Egocentrism is observed in children during the--stage.
(a) formal operational (c) telegraphic speech
(b) preoperational (d) sensorimotor
138. In Harry Harlow's experiment with surrogate mothers found that baby monkeys (a) preferred eating over interacting with peers (b) preferred interaction with peers over surrogate mothers (c) preferred proximity to wire mothers over interacting with peers (d) preferred proximity to cloth mother over eating 139. Which of the following refers to biological differences between males and females present at birth? (a) gender identity (b) gender role (c) sex (d) genotype 140. During which stage of moral development, according to Kohlberg, are moral judgments based on a need for acceptance from others'? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 141. Which of the following represents the correct order of Piaget's stages or cognitive development? (a) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational (b) sensorimotor; preoperational, preoperational, concrete operational (c) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor (d) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational 142. Suppose a business executive decides it is morally wrong to dump his company's toxic waste in a rural wooded area because the law prohibits it. Kohlberg would say that he is at the ___________ stage of moral development. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 143. Which of the following is a normal consequence of growing old? (a) severe memory loss (b) eccentricity (c) loss of speed of information processing (d) loss of vocabulary 144. The growth of facial hair in an adolescent male is an example of a (a) primary sex characteristic (b) secondary sex characteristic (c) latent stage trait (d) sex-linked trait 145. Maturation refers to (a) how well-adjusted a teenager become as they grow to adulthood (b) the physical problem associated with aging (c) the fact that children are genetically pre-programmed to learn to walk and talk at certain ages (d) how well a person's physical age matches their chronological age
146. The sequence in which infants first attempt to communicate is (a) babbling, cooing, laughing, then consonant speech (b) crying, cooing, babbling, then patterned speech (c) crying, babbling, hand gestures, then simple speech (d) babbling, laughing, simple speech, words 147. A three-year old obeys rules in order to gain rewards and avoid punishment. This child is at Kohlberg's-stage of moral development. (a) social (b) preconventional (c) conventional (d) level six 148. If a child misses the "critical period" for some personal development such as talking or cognitive skills (a) they can make it up if they are provided with remedial training (b) they will develop other comparable skills (c) the skill may never develop or, at best, be severely limited (d) it will not matter, because humans can learn throughout their lives 149. The fact that blind babies begin to smile at about the same time as sighted babies supports the-view of emotional development. (a) cognitive (b) nativist (c) behavioural (d) empirical 150. The phrase "me milk," and "give ball" are example of-speech. (a) semantic (b) syntactic (c) incongruent
(d) telegraphic
151. One of the reflexes found in infants is the rooting reflex. This refers to (a) attempts by the babies to burrow into their blankets (b) the fact that stimulation of the cheek will cause the infant to turn towards the source of stimulation and suck (c) the tendency of infants to spread out their limbs when they are tossed into the air (d) the fact that if something is placed in the palm of the hand, the infant will close its hand tightly 152. Piaget noted that some children will mimic a behaviour or repeat a phrase that they heard a day or so earlier. He called this phenomena (a) modeling (b) delayed flattery (c) deferred imitation (d) retrograde play 153. The last stage in Erikson's theory of psychosocial development wherein a person reflects on their life is (a) productivity vs. stagnation (b) integrity vs. despair (c) competence vs. inferiority (d) pride vs. regret 154. Among the following, the incorrect pairing is (a) fetal period - eighth week until birth (b) germinal period - first two weeks (c) embryonic period-second week until eighth week
(d) embryonic period - rapid neural development 155. Which one of the following accurately describes an aspect of prenatal development? (a) heartbeat begins during the second week. (b) wastes are absorbed through the placental walls into the mother's blood. (c) the fetus has immunity to syphilis (d) the developing child and the mother have completely intermixing, constantly interchanging blood supplies. 156. In toilet training, parents can expect (a) defecation control to precede urination control (b) urination control to precede defecation control (c) simultaneous defecation and urination control (d) the control pattern that was true in the parents' own childhood 157. The term general to specific in child development refers to (a) visual acuity (b) auditory sensitivity (c) motor movements (d) cortex development 158. In developmental terminology, PKU refers to (a) the effect of thalidomide (b) Down's syndrome (c) sickle cell (d) a hereditary enzyme deficiency 159. A brain wave not evident in the newborn is the (a) beta (b) alpha (c) delta
(d) theta
160. At which of the following ages would you expect clock-time concepts to be mastered initially by a child? (a) two years (b) three years (c) four years (d) between five and six years 161. Moderate anxiety in a child (a) is detrimental to all learning (b) is a function of archetype (c) may facilitate learning of simple tasks (d) may facilitate learning of difficult tasks 162. According to Piaget, schemas are (a) fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages. (b) children's way of coming to terms with their sexuality. (c) people's conceptual frameworks for understanding their experience. (d) problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal operational stage. 163. Which one of the following would be most concerned with the development of imagery and verbal systems in the infant, and how they are interwoven? (a) Skinner (b) Bruner (c) Miller (d) Brown
164. Which one of the following is found in newborns? (a) almost immediate emotional response to their mothers (b) partial taste sensitivity (c) fear of strangers (d) babbling 165. According to the Montreal Studies, the original infant emotion upon which all others are based is (a) fear (b) love (c) distress (d) excitement 166. Adjustment to postnatal environment is accomplished (a) more quickly among males than females (b) more quickly among females than males (c) with equal speed and ease by both males and females (d) more quickly among European than Asian 167. Macoby and Jaeklin found support for which of the following gender differences? (a) better mathematical skills in girls (b) better mathematical skills in boys (c) better verbal ability in girls (d) better verbal ability in boys 168. When a child understands that reversible changes in the appearance of an object do not change fundamental properties such as number, width, and volume the child has achieved (a) conservation (b) egocentrism (c) hypothetico-deductive reasoning (d) an understanding of cause-and-effect relations 169. Fertilization of human eggs normally takes place in the (a) uterus (b) ovaries (c) urethra (d) fallopian tubes 170. Vygotsky is best known for his concept of (a) transformational grammar (b)zone of proximal development (c) psychosocial crises (d) strange situation 171. According to Mendelian genetics, which of the following statements is true? (a) if both parents have brown eyes, their offspring must have brown eyes. (b) if one parent has blue eyes and one has brown eyes, their offspring must have brown eyes. (c) if both parents have brown eyes, their offspring could have blue eyes. (d) if both parents have blue eyes, their offspring could have brown eyes. 172. Mr. Farid has no meaningful occupational goals and has changed his college several times. Erikson would have suggested that he lacks. (a) identity (b) initiative (c) trust (d) autonomy
173. Which of the following theorists most strongly stressed the importance of maturation in development? (a) Jean Piaget (b) John Locke (c) Arnold Gesell (d) Lev Vygotsky 174. A child in Piaget's preoperational stage is given a toy and attempts to eat it. This child is demonstrating (a) generalization (b) accommodation (c) assimilation (d) transition 175. A businessman refuses to pay income taxes because his conscience will not allow him to support a government that spends billions of rupees on military weapons. That person's reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg's-stage. (a) postconventional (b) concrete operational (c) preconventional (d) egocentric 176. Noam Chomsky posited that humans have a unique, inborn ability to understand the structure of language and to apply this to language learning. Chomsky called this the (a) innate capability index (b) innate surface structure ability (c) prosody index (d) language acquisition device 177. The Strange Situation is used in order to study (a) infant attachment (b) Hawthorne effect (c) groupthink (d) diffusion of responsibility 178. Kohlberg devised his theory of moral development through the use of (a) naturalistic observations of children (b) verbal responses to hypothetical moral dilemmas (c) themes in mythology (d) objective personality inventories 179. According to Roger Brown and other psycholinguist’s researchers, children refine the way they apply grammatical rules through (a) positive reinforcement from caregivers (b) positive conditioning from caregivers (c) experience and self-correction (d) memorization of what others say 180. Which of the following reflexes might be elicited by stroking the bottom of a baby’s foot? (a) Neo-ped reflex (b) Moro reflex (c) Babinski reflex (d) Palmar reflex 181. As opposed to longitudinal design, a cross-sectional study is able to control for (a) cohort effects (b) demand characteristics (c) experimenter bias (d) the Hawthorne effect
182. Word order in a sentence is determined by which of the following types of rules? (a) Phonological (b) Morphological (c) Prosody (d) Syntax 183. Which of the following groups of theorists offer stage models of development? (a) Piaget, Freud, and Erikson (b) Piaget, Freud, and Kohlberg (c) Freud, Maslow, and Watson (d) Freud, Erikson, and Kohlberg 184. Maccoby and Jacklin found that one of the few true gender differences seems to be (a) better visual ability in girls (b) better spatial ability in boys (c) more compassion in girls (d) better science skills in boys 185. Diana Baumrind found that which parenting style produces the most well-adjusted children? (a) Authoritative (b) Authoritarian (c) Permissive (d) Attached 186. The study of the hereditary transmission of attributes is (a) genetics, genes (b) heritability, biological traits (c) adaptability .dominant and recessive traits (d) mutation, differentiation 187. The material of which chromosomes are composed is called (a) deoxyribonucleic acid (b) genes (c) atoms (d) myelin 188. The experience that has the clearest, most profound effect on intellectual development (a) being enrolled in the Head Start Program (b) growing up in an economically disadvantaged home or neighbourhood (c) being raised in a very neglected home (d) being exposed to very stimulating toys and lessons in infancy 189. During which stage do children understand the world primarily by observing the effects of their own actions on other people, objects and events? (a) concrete operational (b) sensorimotor (c) formal operational (d) preoperational 190. When the development of the same subject is studied over a period of time, the study is called a (a) cross sectional study (b) longitudinal study (c) life-history study (d) sequential study 191. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) genetic influence affects children more than adults (b) even if genetic factors underlie a particular behaviour, it is subjected to change (c) traits such as extroversion and introversion are influenced by genes
(d) intelligence has a genetic basis 192. If characteristic requires only one gene to show itself that characteristic is considered (a) dominant (b) co-dominant (c) incompletely dominant (d) recessive 193. Birth typically occurs after (a) forty weeks conception (c) thirty four weeks conception
(b) thirty eight weeks conception (d) twenty eight weeks conception
194. Longitudinal researches investigate (a) behaviour through times as subjects age (b) behaviour of different ages are compared (c) behaviour of school going children (d) none of these 195. Chromosomal anomalies can be recognized by slanting eyes and flat nose, making children like north-eastern Asia is called as (a) Down's syndrome (b) PKU (c) Langdon Down's syndrome (d) none of these 196. Speech like but meaningless sounds appear between 3 months to one year is termed as (a) syntax (b) babble (c) conversation (d) none of these 197. What are the problems associated with low birth weight? (a) difficulty maintaining body temperature (b) difficulty with breathing, sucking, swallowing and digestion (c) susceptibility infection (d) all of these 198. According to Piaget, the major accomplishment of sensorimotor stage is (a) abstract thinking (b) egocentrism (c) contraction (d) object permanence 199. Child-rearing methods in Pakistan (a) differ little from those in other countries (b) differ from one social class to the next (c) have changed very little over the past fifty years (d) are now pretty much the same form one social class to the next 200. The term "germ cell" when used in genetics refers to (a) somatic cells (b) ova and sperm cells (c) both a and b above (d) none of these 201. As the individual continues his growth after birth, the neural cells in his brain
(a) change in their chemical composition (b) increase in number (c) both a and b above (d) none of these 202. With the onset of puberty, the rate of growth of (a) all bodily organs slows down (b) intellectual development slows down (c) both a and b above are true (d) neither a nor b is true 203. Maturation refers to development that occurs as a result of (a) instinctive processes (b) genetically determined signals (c) homeostatic imbalances (d) an interaction between biology and environment 204. Chromosomal mapping studies have found that (a) schizophrenia does not appear to have genetic component (b) schizophrenia does appear to have a genetic component (c) adoption studies do not reveal anything about schizophrenia (d) none of these 205. A male born with an extra Y chromosome XYY, shows some evidence of increased aggressiveness and typically scores lower than normal in intelligence tests: (a) Turner's syndrome (b) super-male syndrome (c) Klinefelter's syndrome (d) XXX syndrome 206. Maturation refers to: (a) the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development (b) relatively stable changes in an individual's thought and behaviour or a result of biological processes of aging (c) relatively stable changes in an individual's thought and behaviour as a result of accumulating experiences (d) the development of an individual thought and behaviour due to the interactions of biological environment factors 207. Chomsky proposed that children learn a language: (a) one's thought determines the nature of one's language (b) language and thought are separate and independent processes (c) language and thought interact, each influencing the other (d) because they possess an innate language acquisition device 208. A child is creating new schemata to account for new information, Piaget calls this process: (a) accommodation (b) assimilation (c) operations (d) function autonomy
209. In developmental psychology, the term nature refers to ___________ factors that influencedevelopment. (a) environmental (b) physical (c) biological (d) all of these 210. In the study of development, the most important biological factor is _________ thesystematic physical growth of the body, including the nervous system. (a) maturation (b) hormones (c) growth factors (d) environment 211. -is distinguished for major stages of cognitive development, the sensorimotor,the preoperational stage, the concrete operational stage and the formal operational stage. (a) Jean Piaget (b) John Bowlby (c) Sigmund Freud (d) Harry Harlow 212. Kohlberg's theory of moral development was criticized by Gilligan primarily because: (a) the data did not support his conclusion (b) it was based on a study of boys only (c) it was done so long ago (d) his subjects consisted of urban children only 213. The rapid increase in weight and height that occurs around the onset of puberty is known as the: (a) maturation stage (b) physical development stage (c) adolescent growth spurt (d) menarche 214. The stage is characterized by an ability to use abstract concepts: (a) concrete operational (b) formal operational (c) preoperational (d) operational 215. We are more likely to experience which of the following during adolescence than at any other time in our lives? (a) moodiness (b) parent-child conflicts (c) risky behaviour (d) all of them 216. According to Piaget from 2 to 7 years of age, language is developed slowly and gradually, this stage is called: (a) egocentric thought (b) preoperational stage (c) sensorimotor stage (d) formal stage 217. During the stage of concrete operations children: (a) do not yet understand the concept of conservation (b) understand the concept of reversibility (c) are able to solve abstract problems (d) none of these
218. To mark the onset and termination of adolescence: (a) physiological measures are usually used for both boys and girls (b) physiological measures are usually used for girls, but not for boys (c) physiological measures are usually used for the onset but not for the end of adolescence (d) physiological measurements are usually used for boys and girls 219. Development of any skill depends intimately on: (a) muscle facility (b) feedback (c) abstractions (d) kinesthetic stimulation 229. During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a/an _________ and finally develops into a/an __________ (a) embryo; zygote (b) zygote; fetus (c) embryo; fetus (d) zygote; embryo 230. The heart begins to beat and the liver begins to make red blood cells during the --period of prenatal development (a) embryonic (b) fetal (c) zygotic (d) ovular 231. A mother smoked heavily during the entire 9 months of her pregnancy. Her newborn baby will most likely be (a) underweight (b) mentally retarded (c) hyperactive (d) timid and fearful 232. Maturation refers to (a) the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviours (b) any learned behaviour patterns that accompany personal growth and development. (c) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience. . (d) the physical and sexual development of early adolescence. 233. Every day, 6-month-old Musa spends two hours in a walker chair. Compared with other 6-month-old babies who do not have this experience, Musa will probably walk (a) 4 months earlier (b) 2 months earlier (c) at the same age (d) 1 month later 234. Piaget is best known for his interest in the process of ________ development (a) motor (b) social (c) emotional (d) cognitive 235. According to Piaget, children come to understand that the volume of a substance remains constant despite changes in its shape during the __________ stage (a) sensorimotor (b) preoperational (c) concrete operational (d) formal operational 236. According to Piaget, a person first comprehends that division is the reverse of multiplication during the _______ stage (a) preoperational (b) concrete operational
(c) formal operational
(d) sensorimotor
237. According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people begin to (a) reason abstractly (b) adhere to social norms (c) distinguish between good and bad behaviour (d) become aware of the positive and negative consequences of their own behaviours 238. The powerful survival impulse that leads human infants to seek closeness to their parents is called (a) attachment (b) imprinting (c) egocentrism (d) conservation 239. Which of the following is an example of imprinting? (a) a duckling demonstrates attachment to a bouncing ball (b) a 4-year-old boy imitates aggression he sees on television. (c) a 2-year-old poodle approaches a stranger who calls it. (d) a 3-year-old girl is simultaneously learning two different languages. 240. Erik Erikson suggested that children with a very secure attachment to their parents are especially likely to experience (a) stranger anxiety (b) egocentrism (c) basic trust (d) object permanence 241. Compared to children from intact families, the children of divorced parents are more likely to experience (a) academic failures (b) stranger anxiety (c) egocentrism (d) crystallized intelligence 242. Gender identity refers to (a) one's biological sex (b) the sense of being male or female (c) the set of expected behaviours for males and for females (d) how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is 243. Which theory of gender-typing suggests that people understand and classify their own behaviour and personality traits in terms of masculine and feminine categories? (a) social learning theory (b) psychoanalytical theory (c) evolutionary theory (d) gender schema theory 244. Piaget is to cognitive development as Kohlberg is to-:-development (a) emotional (b) physical (c) moral (d) social 245. A person who does not cheat on his income tax because he might get caught and sent to jail is demonstrating Kohlberg's _________ stage of morality. (a) conventional (b) post-conventional
(c) pre-conventional
(d) preoperational
246. According to Erikson, isolation is to intimacy as role confusion is to (a) mistrust (b) guilt (c) inferiority (d) identity 247. Compared with males, females are more likely to base their sense of personal identity on their. (a) gender (b) social relationships (c) educational accomplishments (d) socially distinctive personality traits 248. Erik Erikson maintained that the two basic aspects of life that dominate adulthood are (a) identity and independence (b) intimacy and identity (c) intimacy and generativity (d) independence and generativity 249. Maturation is to education as ______ is to _________ (a) learning; experience (b) nature; nurture (c) imprinting; critical period (d) environment; learning 250. A young child who sees a cow for the first time calls it a "doggie." This illustrates the process of (a) accommodation (b) object permanence (c) conservation (d) assimilation 251. In psychology the nature-nurture debate refers to the relative influences of (a) paternal genes and maternal care (b) genes and environment (c) genotype and phenotype (d) genotype and karyotype 252. Each protein molecule in the body is synthesized under the direction of (a) a zygote (b) a gene (c) an autosome (d) an enzyme 253. Which of the following is true of protein production? (a) DNA serves as a template for producing RNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing protein molecules (b) RNA serves as a template for producing DNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing protein molecules (c) both DNA and RNA serve as templates for producing protein molecules (d) protein molecules serve as templates for producing RNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing DNA 254. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to (a) deal with the discipline of toilet training. (b) seen things from the point of view of another person. (c) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape.
(d) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experience. 255. Genes contribute to behaviour by (a) directing the manufacture of protein molecules that build the body (b) setting up patterns of neural activity in the brain (c) breaking down large protein molecules into their amino acid "building blocks" (d) counteracting environmental influences 256. The portion of a DNA molecule that contain the code for the manufacture of one specific type of protein molecule is called (a) a gene (b) a chromosome (c) an autosome (d) an RNA molecule 257. Which of the following is not true of Down's syndrome? (a) it is the most common chromosomal disorder that does not involves a sex chromosome (b) Down syndrome children can make intellectual gains in the proper environment (c) the incidence of Down's syndrome increases with the age of the mother but is not related to the age of the father (d) people with Alzheimer's disease develop the same kind of brain plaques as do people with Down syndrome, and in both cases these may be due to a single gene 250. A young child who sees a cow for the first time calls it a "doggie." This illustrates the process of (a) accommodation (b) object permanence (c) conservation (d) assimilation 251. In psychology the nature-nurture debate refers to the relative influences of (a) paternal genes and maternal care (b) genes and environment (c) genotype and phenotype (d) genotype and karyotype 252. Each protein molecule in the body is synthesized under the direction of (a) a zygote (b) a gene (c) an autosome (d) an enzyme 253. Which of the following is true of protein production? (a) DNA serves as a template for producing RNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing protein molecules (b) RNA serves as a template for producing DNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing protein molecules (c) both DNA and RNA serve as templates for producing protein molecules (d) protein molecules serve as templates for producing RNA, which in turn serves as a template for producing DNA 254. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to (a) deal with the discipline of toilet training. (b) seen things from the point of view of another person.
(c) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. (d) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experience. 255. Genes contribute to behaviour by (a) directing the manufacture of protein molecules that build the body (b) setting up patterns of neural activity in the brain (c) breaking down large protein molecules into their amino acid "building blocks" (d) counteracting environmental influences 256. The portion of a DNA molecule that contain the code for the manufacture of one specific type of protein molecule is called (a) a gene (b) a chromosome (c) an autosome (d) an RNA molecule 257. Which of the following is not true of Down's syndrome? (a) it is the most common chromosomal disorder that does not involves a sex chromosome (b) Down syndrome children can make intellectual gains in the proper environment (c) the incidence of Down's syndrome increases with the age of the mother but is not related to the age of the father (d) people with Alzheimer's disease develop the same kind of brain plaques as do people with Down syndrome, and in both cases these may be due to a single gene 258. Which of the following is true regarding the relative influence of genes and the environment on behaviour? (a) genes are the primary influence before birth and environment is the primary influence following birth. (b) environment is the primary influence throughout life. (c) genes are the primary influence on the development of psychical structures, and environmental factors are a greater influence on the development of behavioural capacities (d) in no sense can either genes or environment be said to be a greater influence than the other. 259. The term phenotype refers to (a) the observable properties of the body and behavioural traits (b) a photographic representation of chromosomes in a single cell (c) the observable properties of the body and the behavioural traits that are caused by the environment and not by genes (d) the observable properties of the body and the behavioural traits that are caused by genes and not by the environment 260. Which of the following would not be an example of the contribution of environment in development (a) nutrients supplied to the fetus in the womb (b) chemical changes in the body that are the result of activity (c) interactions with other individuals of the same species (d) all the above are appropriate examples
261. Rasheed and Zahid are identical twins. Zahid usually spends several hours a day absorbed in a book. Rasheed can usually be found on the playground. On vocabulary tests, Zahid consistently scores significantly higher than Rasheed. The most likely explanation is that (a) Rasheed and Zahid have genetically different capacities for verbal comprehension (b) there are differences between Rasheed's environment and Zahid's (c) genes play no role in verbal comprehension (d) when their zygote separated, Rasheed got the genes for athletic ability and Zahid got the genes for intellectual ability 262. The DNA containing an individual's genetic information is organized into structure called (a) chromosomes (b) phenotypes (c) genotypes (d) zygotes 263. The normal human karyotype consists of 22 pairs of __________ and one pair of sex chromosomes (a) genotypes (b) genes (c) autosomes (d) XY chromosomes 264. In the normal human male, the sex chromosomes consist of __________ and in the normal human female they consist of ___________ (a) an XY pair; an XX pair (b) an XX pair, an XY pair (c) a YY pair; and XX pair (d) an XX pair, a YY pair 265. Which process results in the faithful duplication of genetic material? (a) genotyping (b) crossing over (c) mitosis (d) meiosis 266. The union of an egg and a sperm produces (a) a phenotype (b) a zygote (c) an allele (d) a clone 267. Which of the following statements regarding twins is false? (a) identical twins originate from a single zygote (b) fraternal twins are not more genetically related than nontwin siblings (c) identical twins are more closely related than fraternal twins (d) fraternal twins originate when one egg is fertilizers by two sperm 268. Two individuals who developed from one zygote are known as (a) heterozygous twins (b) homozygous twins (c) identical twins (d) b and c 269. Dizygotic (fraternal) twins originate from (a) two sperm cells and two egg cells (b) two sperm cells and one egg cell (c) one sperm cell and two egg cells (d) one sperm cell and one egg cell
270. Uzma cut Ali's pizza into eight pieces and Batool's into six pieces. Batool cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much pizza as Ali. Piaget would say that Batool doesn't understand the principle of (a) object permanence (b) object equivalence (c) egocentrism (d) conservation 271. The gene for brown eyes is dominant, whereas that for blue eyes is recessive. Suppose you have a friend with blue eyes. What do you know about your friend's parents? (a) both parents have blue eyes (b) at least one parent has blue eyes (c) both parents have a gene for blue eyes (d) at least one parent is homozygous for brown eyes 272. The two members of a gene pair are called (a) alleles (b) dominant genes (c) clones (d) zygotes 273. Assume that a single gene pair determines flower colour in a particular kind of plant. If you cross a red-flowered plant offspring have pink flowers, which of the following can you conclude? (a) both parent plants are heterozygous for flower colour (b) neither gene for flower colour is dominant (c) the gene for red flowers and the gene for white flowers are not alleles (d) a mutation must have occurred 274. A gene that is expressed in both the homozygous and the heterozygous condition is (a) regressive (b) recessive (c) dominant (d) monozygotic 275. A gene that expresses itself only in the homozygous condition is called (a) dominant (b) crossed (c) backcrossed (d) recessive 276. What does it mean to say that a grandparent and grandchild are 25 percent related? (a) they share 25 percent of their genes (b) the grandchild has inherited 25 percent of the grandparent's genes (c) the grandchild has a 25 percent chance of sharing the grandparent's gene (d) There is a 25 percent chance that if a rare gene exists in the grandparent it will also exist in the grandchild 277. Down's syndrome is caused by (a) a recessive gene (b) a missing sex chromosome (c) an extra autosome or part of one (d) an extra sex chromosome or part of one 278. Overall, adoption studies suggest that schizophrenia (a) runs In families primarily because of the genetic relatedness of family members (b) runs in families primarily because of the environmental: similarities of family members (c) does not run in families and is therefore due to environmental factors (d) is due to purely psychological factors with no underlying genetic component
279. Studies of schizophrenia in twins have show that (a) the heritability of the liability (risk) for schizophrenia is quite high (b) the risk for schizophrenia stems primarily from a single dominant gene (c) environmental factors are more influential than genetic factors in the development of the disorder (d) a and b 280. Natural selection is the process by which (a) a species becomes adapted to its environment (b) nature achieves its long-term goals (c) an individual adapts to its own environment (d) a breeder creates desirable strains of animals 281. Which of the following statements concerning mutations is false? (a) mutations are errors that arise in the course of DNA replication (b) mutations are invariably harmful (c) mutations are the ultimate source of all genetic variation (d) harmful mutations can be removed from the gene pool through natural selection 282. The rate of evolutionary change is (a) randomly varied (b) slow, continuous, and steady (c) slower or faster, depending in part on the rate of environmental change (d) much slower now than in early evolutionary history 283. Individual adaptation refers to beneficial change within _________, while evolutionary adaptation refers to beneficial change within _________ (a) the generation; the culture (b) the organism; the species (d) the culture; the species (c) the generation; the organism 284. According to Piaget, very young infants (below about 5 months of age) are less able than older infants to find hidden objects primarily because the younger infants (a) are unable to think of objects that are not in sight (b) lack concrete operational schemes (c) have poor sensorimotor coordination, which inhibits their ability to search (d) are not interested in the objects used in most tests 285. The typical sequence of developmental changes found in people is called ________, and the difference found among people as they develop is called _________ (a) normative development; individual development (b) individual development; maturation (c) normative development; maturation (d) individual development; normative development
286. If developmental psychologists want to learn about an individual's development, they should use which of the following methods? (a) longitudinal (b) Cross-sectional (c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b 287. A psychologist studies developmental changes in the ability to solve analogy problems by comparing the performance of a group of 5-year-olds with that of a group of 7-year-olds. This researcher is using (a) the cross-sectional method (b) the longitudinal method (c) either a orb (d) neither a nor b 288. The longitudinal method of studying cognitive development is much more useful than the cross-sectional method for (a) making inference about normative development (b) comparing people of different age groups (c) testing stage theories of cognitive development (d) gathering information about individual development 289. When infants who could crawl were placed on the center board of the visual cliff apparatus, those who had never fallen (a) crawled across the deep side without hesitation (b) hesitated and then crawled across the deep side (c) crawled across the deep side only if their mothers called to them from that direction (d) refused to crawl across the deep side 290. Piaget labeled infancy the-stage of development, in which thought takes the form of _______ (a) preoperational; action (b) preoperational; abstract symbols (c) sensorimotor; action (d) sensorimotor; abstract symbols 291. A child whose father has a beard and who uses the word daddy to refer to all men with beards is (a) overextending the word (b) babbling (c) exhibiting development dysphasia (d) exhibiting weak attachment to the father 292. In Erikson's theory, the sense, of integrity achieved in late adulthood refers to the feeling that (a) one is acting ethically (b) one's life has been meaningful (c) one is healthy and not dependent upon others (d) one's life is full of close friendships 293. Which of the following theorists emphasized that social development continued throughout life, not just for the first 5 or 6 years? (a) Sigmund Freud (b) Anna Freud (c) Eric Erikson (d) Jean Piaget
294. Which parenting style usually produces children with the greatest confidence and self-esteem? (a) permissive (b) authoritarian (c) authoritative (d) rejecting-neglecting 295. Cognition is defined as (a) the study of memory (b) the study of how thinking emerges in children (c) mental operations such as mathematical transformations (d) all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, communicating, and remembering 296. The fertilized egg will develop into a boy if, at conception (a) the sperm contributes an X chromosome (b) the sperm contributes a Y chromosome (c) the egg contributes an X chromosome (d) the egg contributes a Y chromosome 297. The nature/nurture controversy considers the degree to which traits and behaviours are determined by (a) genes or experience (b) continuity or stages (c) life-span stability or change (d) maturation or genes 298. Several studies of long-separated identical twins have found that these twins (a) have little in common, due to the different environments in which they were raised (b) have many similarities, in everything from medical histories to personality (c) have similar personalities, but very different likes, dislikes, and life-styles (d) are not more similar than are fraternal twins reared apart 299. Two-year-old Naveed, who has a simple schema for "mom" and calls each new woman with a child he encounters "mom", is demonstrating Piaget's process of (a) accommodation (b) assimilation (c) cognition (d) conservation 300. I am 14 months old and fearful of strangers. I'm in Piaget's-stage ofcognitive development (a) sensorimotor (b) concrete operational (c) preoperational (d) formal operational 301. I am 3 years old, can use language, and have trouble taking another person's perspective. I am in Piaget's ___________ stage of cognitive development (a) sensorimotor (b) preoperational (c) concrete operational (d) formal operational 302. According to Erikson, the central psychological challenges pertaining to adolescence, young adulthood, and middle age, respectively are (a) identity formation; intimacy; generativity (b) intimacy; identity formation; generativity (c) generativity; intimacy; identify formation
(d) intimacy; generativity; identity formation 303. An elderly person who can look back on life with satisfaction and reminisce with a sense of completion has attained Erikson's stage of (a) generativity (b) intimacy (c) isolation (d) integrity 304. Adolescence is marked by the onset of (a) an identity crisis (b) parent-child conflict (c) puberty (d) the concrete operational stage 305. Of the following, which is a possible cause of dementia? (a) stroke (b) brain tumor (c) alcoholism
(d) all of the above
306. After puberty, the self-concept usually becomes (a) more positive in boys (b) more positive in girls (c) more positive in both boys and girls (d) more negative in both boys and girls 307. In Erikson's theory, the achievement of integrity is the primary task of (a) adolescence (b) young adulthood (c) middle adulthood (d) late adulthood 308. Arif, a junior in high school, regularly attends Mosque because his family and friends think he should. Which stage of moral reasoning in Arif in? (a) preconventional (b) conventional (c) postconventional (d) too little information to tell 309. 30-year-old woman tells a friend that she doesn't want to marry because she is afraid of losing her freedom and independence. Erikson would say that she is having difficulty] with the psychosocial task of (a) trust vs. mistrust (b) autonomy vs. doubt (c) intimacy vs. isolation (d) identity vs. role confusion 310. The text defines adolescence as (a) the transition years between biological maturity and social independence (b) the age at which reproductive maturity is attained (c) the years during which the secondary sex characteristics develop (d) the age at which the growth spurt begins 311. Growth is to enlargement as development is to (a) maturation (b) differentiation (c) enhancement (d) maintenance
312. During prenatal development, the baby is most sensitive to environmental influences during the (a) first three months (b) second three months (c) third trimester (d) there is actually no difference, the fetus is equally sensitive throughout the pregnancy 313. Newborn is referred to as a (a) fetus (b) embryo
(c) neonate
(d) baby
314. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely related to the mother's condition at the time of conception? (a) oxygen deprivation during prenatal development (b) fetal alcohol syndrome (c) Down's Syndrome (d) paternal smoking 315. Which of the following is not associated with smoking during pregnancy? (a) mental retardation (b) lower birth weight (c) miscarriage (d) visual defects 316. Which of the following is true of motor development? (a) the sequence is orderly, but the rate is not (b) the rate is orderly but the sequence is not (c) neither the rate nor the sequence is orderly (d) both rate and sequence are irregular 317. Which of the following is true of depth perception in infants? (a) psychologists have been unable to measure it precisely (b) by the time an infant can walk depth perception is developed (c) a baby in cradle doesn't really need depth perception (d) by the time a baby can crawl depth perception is developed 318. A major strength of Erikson's theory is that it (a) gives an opposing view of cognitive development (b) offers a better explanation of childhood cognitive processes (c) deals with social development instead of cognition (d) cover the entire lifespan, dealing with issues of adult development 319. Which of the following is not true of the growth spurt? (a) girls begin the growth spurt earlier than boys (b) boys end the growth spurt with greater strength and size than girls (c) increases in height and weight often occur so rapidly that they are accompanied by actual growing pains (d) the growth spurt affects all parts of the body uniformly
320. According to Piaget, the ability to think logically about visible and tangible objects first develops during the _________ stage. (a) sensorimotor (b) formal operational (c) concrete operational (d) preoperational 321. The concept of the identity crisis faced by adolescents is part of the social development theory of (a) Anna Freud (b) G. Stanley Hall (c) Lawrence Kohlberg (d) Erik Erikson 322. Choosing a marriage partner and deciding whether or not to have children may be related to Erikson's psychosocial stage of (a) trust vs. mistrust (b) generality vs. isolation (c) intimacy vs. isolation (d) integrity vs. despair 323. According to Piaget, cognitive development occurs through a fixed sequence of stages, each distinguished from the prior stage by a (a) larger number of schemes (b) new kind of scheme (c) increasing use of accommodation (d) increasing use of assimilation 324. When a child reacts to a novel experience by changing his behaviour in response to environmental demands, the resulting modification of his mental structures is referred to by Piaget as the process of: (a) accommodation (b) assimilation (c) adaptation (d) organization 325. Down's syndrome is: (a) synonymous with hydrocephaly (b) synonymous with Klinefelter's syndrome (c) caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number 21 (d) caused only by infectious hepatitis during pregnancy 326. In early junior high school, you would expect: (a) boys to be taller than girls (b) girls to be taller than boys . (c) boys and girls to be the same eight (d) boys to excel in finger dexterity tasks
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21.
d d d a c b
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22.
b b b c a c
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23.
d d c d b d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24.
b a c b b c
25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61, 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145. 149. 153. 157. 161. 165. 169. 173. 177. 181. 185. 189. 193. 197. 201. 205.
d a a c d c d b d b b d a b c b d c c a a b c c d a c d b a c b b c c d d c a a a b b c b b
26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166. 170. 174. 178. 182. 186. 190. 194. 198. 202. 206.
c a b a b b c d b d b b b d c d d b b c d d c b b c d b d b b d b d c b b c b d b b a d d b
27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127. 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159. 163. 167. 171. 175. 179. 183. 187. 191. 195. 199. 203. 207.
a b c a d d d b a a c c d b d a b c b d c b c b d d d c c c b b b b b c c a c a a c a b b d
28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108. 112. 116. 120. 124. 128. 132. 136. 140. 144. 148. 152. 156. 160. 164. 168. 172. 176. 180. 184. 188. 192. 196. 200. 204. 208.
b b a d c d d b a a a d b d a b b d b c d c b c b a b b b b c c a d b a a d c b d a b b d a
209. 213. 217. 221. 225. 229. 233. 237. 241. 245. 249. 253. 257. 261. 265. 269. 273. 277. 281. 285. 289. 293. 297. 301. 305. 309. 313. 317. 321. 325.
c c b a c b c a a c b a c b c a b c b a d c a b d c c d d c
210. 214. 218. 222: 226. 230. 234. 238. 242. 246. 250. 254. 258. 262. 266. 270. 274: 278. 282. 286. 290. 294. 298. 302. 306. 310. 314. 318. 322. 326.
b b c c c a d a b d d c d a b d c a c a c c b a c a c d c b
211. 215. 219. 223 227. 231. 235. 239. 243. 247. 251. 255. 259. 263. 267. 271. 275. 279. 283. 287. 291. 295. 299. 303. 307. 311 315. 319 323.
a d a d a a c a d b b a a c d c d a b a a d b d d b d d b
212. 216. 220. 224. 228. 232. 236. 240. 244. 248. 252. 256. 260. 264. 268. 272. 276. 280. 284. 288. 292. 296. 300. 304. 308. 312. 316. 320. 324.
b b a b d c b c c c b a d a d a d a a d b b a c b a a c a
Chapter 4
Sensation and Perception 1. Which of the following is due to the regeneration of rhodospin? (a) lateral inhibition (b) light adaptation (c) dark adaptation (d) simultaneous brightness contrast 2. Which of the following is a physical property of sound? (a) loudness (b) frequency (c) distance (d) timber 3. Which of the following theories challenged Helmholtz's theory of colour vision: (a) frequency theory (b) opponent-process theory (c) isomorphism (d) trichromatic theory 4. Which of the following is used to measure the time it takes to perform various mental processes? (a) bottom-up processing (b) magnetic resonance imaging (c) mental chronometry (d) shadowing 5.Under dim light, a researcher repeatedly displays several objects to a subject, so that each time the image falls on a different area of the subject's retina What is the expected result? (a) object discrimination will be worst in the fovea (b) object discrimination will be best in the fovea (c) colour discrimination will be best in the fovea (d) colour discrimination will be best at the periphery of the retina . 6. The little bumps visible on your tongue are (a) taste buds (b) axon (c) papillae (d) receptors 7. A researcher wants to study the effect of response bias and sensitivity on the perception of changes in frequency. She would most likely use: (a) Weber's law (b) Fechner's law (c) Stevens's law (d) signal detection theory 8. Dichotic listening tasks are used to study: (a) selective attention (b) spontaneous recovery (c) good continuation (d) echoic memory 9. The "blind spot" refers to: (a) the area of the retina that contains only rods and no cones (b) the area of the retina that contains only cones and no rods (c) the area where the optic nerve connects with the retina (d) the area on the cornea where an astigmatism occurs
10. Two pins are placed so close to each other on a subject's finger that they are perceived as a single point. This is because the pins have not reached the: (a) absolute threshold (b) just noticeable difference (c) two-point threshold (d) action potential 11. The appearance of afterimages of different colours than the original stimulus is used as support for: (a) opponent process theory (b) tri-colour theory (c) place theory (d) frequency theory 12. Fechner: (a) disputed the existence of laws which described the relation of matter to consciousness (b) quantified Weber's statement of the relationship between stimulus and sensation (c) challenged Helmholtz's conception of limen (d) published a text called Elements of Physiological Psychology 13. Gibson and Walk used a "visual cliff' experiment to study: (a) figure-ground discrimination (b) depth perception (c) feature detection (d) signal detection theory 14. A stationary point of light when viewed in an otherwise totally dark room appears to move. This is an example of; (a) apparent motion (b) induced motion (c) the autokinetic effect (d) binocular disparity. 15. Which of the following is not one of Gestalt Psychology's five laws of form perception? (a) closure (b) similarity (c) proximity (d) relative size 16. The main difference between the theory of colour vision put forth by Young-Helmholtz and that put forth by Hering is that Hering's theory: (a) emphasizes the importance of the three types of colour receptors: red, blue, and green (b) emphasizes the importance of three opposing pairs of colour receptors: red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white (c) is based more on top-down processing than Young-Helmholtz (d) is based more on bottom-up processing than Young-Helmholtz 17. Giving meaning to sensation refers to (a) perception (b) motivation (c) cognition (d) sensation 18. Two-point discrimination is assessed in the study of: (a) visual acuity (b) auditory thresholds (c) cutaneous sensitivity (d) binocular depth perception 19. Birds have been known to use each of the following to navigate except:
(a) infrasound (c) star compass
(b) magnetic sense (d) echolocation
20. A subject takes longer naming the colour of the ink used when the word green is written in red than when the word button is written in red. This is an example of: (a) automatic processing (b) metacognition (c) the Stroop effect (d) the opponent process theory 21. The tendency to perceive continuous patterns in stimuli is called: (a) good continuation (b) closure (c) proximity (d) linear perspective 22. Which of the following determine perceived size? I. Retinal size II. Pupil size III. Perceived distance (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only
(d) I & III only
23. Staring at a red stimulus for a while leads to a green afterimage. This supports: (a) the duplexity theory (b) Wever's volley principle (c) Hering's opponent-process theory (d) Helmholtz's trichromatic theory 24. Semicircular canals are involved in which sense? (a) auditory (b) kinesthetic (c) olfactory
(d) vestibular
25. As a person views a picture one way, he sees craters. When he turns it 180 degrees, the craters become bumps, the perceptual phenomena are due to: (a) linear perspective (b) convergence (c) light-and shadow (d) relative position 26. Which one of the following name combinations contains two Gestalt psychologists? (a) Koffka, Kohler, Kelman (b) Kohler, Cohen, Kelman (c) Wertheimer, Wundt, Kelman (d) James, Jensen, Kelman 27. Which of the following most accurately defines the function of the middle ear? (a) formation of neural impulse (b) sound-wave amplification (c) sound collection (d) transmission to the brain 28. The fact that hues at the short-wave end of the colour spectrum appear bright at nightfall is a function of: (a) Purkinje effect (b) Zeigarnik effect (c) Young-Helmholtz effect (d) light adaptation 29. For the experience of taste to occur, a substance must be: (a) at least slightly soluble in water (b) highly soluble in butyric acid (c) insoluble in butyric acid (d) in contact with receptors located in the center of the tongue
30. Jestrow illusion involves: (a) parallel straight lines (b) straight lines at right angles (c) geometrical curvatures positioned one above the other (d) geometrical curvatures positioned at right angles to each other 31. Among monocular cues for depth perception is: (a) convergence (b) retinal disparity (c) assimilation (d) interposition 32. The condition under which a person experiences the perceptual phenomenon of closure involves: (a) a circle with approximately one-eighth of its line omitted (b) a triangle with a dot in the middle (c) parallel lines (d) intersecting lines 33. The phi-phenomenon: (a) relates to electrical stimulation of the brain (b) deals with experience common to the state of alpha-wave relaxation (c) occurs in response to sequentially flashing lights (d) occurs in response to a spot of light in a darkened room 34. The fact that a pinpoint down the railroad track is perceived by a person as a diesel engine is an example of: (a) continuity (b) closure (c) size constancy (d) motion parallax 35. One of the earliest and most important colour vision theories was formulated by: (a) Young and Helson (b) Meissner and Middleton (c) Rutherford and Young (d) Young and Helmholtz 36. According to the tenets of the Zeigarnik effect: (a) a completed task is more likely to be remembered than an interrupted one (b) an interrupted task is more likely to be remembered than a completed one (c) a task at the beginning of a sequence is more likely to be remembered than a task in the middle of the sequence (d) a task in the middle of a sequence is more likely to be remembered than a task at the beginning of the sequence 37. The major structure of inner ear is (a) anvil (b) ear canal (c) basilar membrane (d) ear drum
38. In signal-detection research. When no stimulus is presented and the subject reports seeing one, is called: (a) a hit (b) a miss (c) a false alarm (d) a false positive 39. Ali can sense the position of his leg and foot.as he walks. This feed-back comes courtesy of his-sense. (a) vestibular (b) cerebral (c) olfactory (d) kinesthetic 40. Visual depth is due, in part, to: (a) rod vision (c) retinal disparity
(b) accommodation (d) opponent-process
41. Pinna is part of the: (a) outer ear (c) cochlea
(b) oval window (d) ossicles
42. Not a monocular cue for depth is: (a) relative size (c) convergence
(b) linear perspective (d) interposition
43. In closure we tend to: (a) complete figures that have a gap in them (b) prefer differential contours (c) associate the distal and proximal stimuli (d) view on the basis of texture gradient 44. In dichotic listening ________ is presented to __________ (a) the same stimulus, each ear simultaneously (b) a different stimulus, each ear simultaneously (c) a single stimulus, one ear only (d) a single stimulus, randomly to both ears 45. Stationary lights on a neon signblink sequentially and appear to move. This appearance is called the ____________ (a) Ponzo illusion (b) Necker illusion (c) phi-phenomenon (d) induced movement effect 46. Half of a line has arrows or fins pointing outward. The remaining half has arrows or fins pointing inward. The first half looks longer than the second half. This is the ________ illusion. (a) Zollner (b) Wundt (c) Muller-Lyer (d) Poggendroff 47. The rectangular table appears rectangular regardless of the distance or angle at which it is viewed. This is an example of: (a) brightness constancy (b) shape constancy
(c) size constancy
(d) height constancy
48. The major laws of perceptual organization were developed by the: (a) Gestaltists (b) Phenomenologists (c) Cognitivists (d) Transactionalist 49. Top-down processing refers to: (a) activating lower-order units of perception, which influence items of higher order (b) the flow process within a cognitive hierarchy (c) moving from phonemes to morphemes rather than vice versa (d) activating higher-order units of perception, which influence items of lower order 115. The cognitive field theory was developed by: (a) Harlow (b) Tolman (c) Hull (d) Premack 51. In the Stroop effect, we may be asked to remember the word "blue" when the colour of the word itself actually was yellow. Our response tendencies demonstrate: (a) transduction (b) chaining (c) automatization (d) loci 52. An individual who receives normal sight following blindness in the early years of life: (a) cannot achieve the skills of shape discrimination (b) will not develop the size-constancy aspect of perception (c) will adjust to the visual world almost instantly (d) will experience long-term muscle coordination problems because of change in reference points 53. Distinguishing objects from what surrounds them refers to (a) closure (b) figure and ground (c) proximity (d) distance 54. Which of the following was an unexpected finding among subjects in early sensory deprivation experiments? (a) delusions (b) "phantom limb phenomenon" (c) hallucinations (d) experience of motion parallax 55. Gibson's theory of motion perception centers primarily on the: (a) stroboscope effect (b) shape constancy (c) relation of moving object to immobile background (d) relation to phi-phenomenon to immobile background 56. A person thinks that he sees a snake moving stealthily through the weeds on a distant field. As he gets closer, he discovers that it was only a dark piece of rope. This perceptual phenomenon is known as (a) telekinesis (b) delusion
(c) hallucination
(d) illusion
57. In specific hearing test for children, separate tones are presented in a range of frequencies and intensities. The child is given general instructions to press a button whenever she hears a tone. This test is an application of the (a) method of limits (b) difference limen (c) Fechner method (d) differential threshold method 58. Sound vibrations in the ear create neural impulses received in which of the following cortex locations? (a) temporal lobe (b) occipital lobe (c) parietal lobe (d) frontal lobe 59. Pitch is determined by (a) amplitude
(b) complexity
(c) frequency
(d) decibels
60. The autokinetic effect is most common demonstrated with which of the following stimuli? (a) a spot of light in a darkened room (b) light flashing on and off in a patterned sequence (c) lights rotating around a single, central spot of light (d) a colour wheel containing a black-white colour disc 61. Alcohol consumption (a) shortens reactions time (b) lengthens reaction time (c) shortens auditory reaction time while lengthening visual (d) shortens visual reaction time while lengthening auditory 62. Perceptual phenomenon have been most prominently explored within (a) structuralism (b) behaviourism (c) gestalt (d) functionalism 63. Which of the following is not a taste primary? (a) bitter (b) sour (c) sweet
(d) bland
64. The capacity for detecting the direction of incoming sound is (a) prominent among persons with hearing in only ear (b) possible only when hearing exists in both ear (c) explained within the Young-Helmholtz theory of audition (d) frequently termed monaural hearing 65. Not among stimulus cues that can aid perception of depth is (a) texture (b) light and shadow (c) convergence (d) linear perspective 66. Auditory sensations are transformed from "air waves" to nerve impulses by the
(a) vestibular system (c) round window
(b) pinna (d) cochlea
67. The Ames room was specifically designed to test (a) shape constancy (b) size constancy (c) motion parallax (d) interposition 68. One of the commonly demonstrated effects in strong support of the trichromatic theory has been the (a) phi-phenomenon (b) autokinetic effect (c) black-white phenomenon (d) negative afterimage 69. Which of the following would enable you to have Ponzo illusion? (a) two parallel lines (b) three dimensional box (c) set of railroad tracks extending off in the distance (d) horizontal line intersecting a vertical line 70. Accommodation refers to the activity of (a) transmitting binaural sound to the oval window (b) change in lens shape to focus on nearby or distant objects (c) perception of object constancy regardless of retinal image size (d) echolocation 71. Illusion means (a) false sensation (c) false belief
(b) wrong perception (d) both a and b
72. By which of the following properties of near and distant objects does motion parallax enable a person to judge distance? (a) texture gradient (b) relative movement (c) relative closure (d) movement illusion 73. Compared with the use of only a starting gun or command, preparatory instructions-such as "on your mark, get set, go!" (a) have no effect upon reaction time (b) shorten reaction time for the experienced runner while lengthening it for the less-experienced one (c) shorten reaction time (d) lengthen reaction time 74. Visual and thermal reaction time (a) are faster when more sensory space is covered by the stimulus (b) are slower when more sensory space is covered by the stimulus (c) always occur together (d) depend heavily upon circadian rhythm
75. The term low threshold refers to (a) very few cycles per second (b) very low decibel level (c) low level of sensitivity to an incoming stimulus (d) high level of sensitivity to an incoming stimulus 76. The area between the eardrum and the oval window is occupied by the (a) cochlea (b) ossicles (c) round window (d) Organ of Corti 77. Experimental work in perception received its earliest beginnings with (a) Weber (b) Kohler (c) Koffka (d) Wertheimer 78. Prominent among monocular depth cues is (a) texture-density gradient (b) retinal disparity (c) reciprocal innervations (d) retinal polarity 79. When two sense organs are stimulated simultaneously, reaction time is (a) slower than when only one is stimulated (b) faster than when only one is stimulated (c) retarded in the second sensory modality being stimulated (d) retarded in the first sensory modality being stimulated 80. Perceptually, to "wait till Eid-ul-Fitar" would be the longest wait for the (a) elementary school child (b) teenager (c) preschool child (d) college age adult 81. The familiar face-vase picture seen in most introductory and perception sources is an example of (a) parallax (b) closure (c) figure reversibility (d) size constancy 82. If illusion is a misperception of stimulus then hallucination is (a) delusion (b) auto-kinesis (c) response in the absence of external stimulus (d) accurate perception of an external stimulus 83. The "moon illusion" related to the tendency to perceive (a) a quarter moon as a half moon (b) a three quarter moon as a full moon (c) the moon on the horizon as larger than the moon in the sky (d) the moon in the sky as larger than the moon on the horizon
84. Imagine you are watching a fleet of sailboats, as you move from side to side, near boats seem to move back and forth more than distant boats do. This phenomena is known as (a) interposition (b) retinal disparity (c) convergence (d) accommodation 85. Perceptual constancies are primarily a function of (a) reflex (b) convergence (c) learning (d) instinct 86. To utilize the Purkinje effect on a night reconnaissance mission, which of the following] should pilots wear in the lighted briefing session just prior to night takeoff? (a) green goggles (b) blue goggles (c) red goggles (d) yellow goggles 87. The retina (a) is the round opening in the center of the eye through which light passes (b) is the photosensitive curtain of nerve cells located at the back of the eye (c) bends and focuses light rays (d) is the muscle holding the pupil in place 88. In auditory sensation, pitch (a) is the only variable by which we distinguish sounds (b) is closely related to the loudness of sound (c) is closely related to the frequency of sound (d) is closely related to the intensity of sound 1 89. In the auditory system, the cochlear branch (a) is located in the middle ear next to the tympanic membrane (b) is responsible for balance (c) connects the ear canal with the throat (d) is composed of three fluid filled canals, located in the inner ear 90. Weber's Law, well established in perceptual research, states that (a) a stimulus must be increased by equal value to be just noticeably different (b) a stimulus must be increased by twice its amount to be just noticeably different (c) a stimulus must be increased by a constant fraction of its value to be just noticeably different (d) a stimulus must be increased by ten times its amount to be just noticeably different 91. In sensory systems, a minimum difference between two stimuli is required before we can distinguish between them. This -minimum threshold, which can be measured, is called the (a) interstimulus difference (ISD) (b) differential threshold (DL) (c) signal detectability threshold (TSD) (d) comparison stimulus threshold (CST) 92. All of the following are characteristics of light except
(a) photons
(b) waves
(c) intensity
(d) photoreception
93. In perceiving the distance a sound has traveled, a person depends heavily upon (a) loudness and intensity (b) resonance (c) brightness and hue (d) frequency 94. When light changes from bright to dim the iris of the eye (a) dilates (b) constricts (c) thickens (d) remains the same 95. The perception of depth and distance in a 3-dimendional space depends mostly on (a) texture-density gradient (b) interposition (c) binocular vision (d) movement detectors 96. "Hue' can be affected by which of the following? (a) wavelength (b) intensity of light (c) brightness of light (d) all of the above 97. The main function of the vestibular organs is to (a) provide a sense of balance (b) provide the ability to taste (c) provide a sense of touch (d) provide an ability to feel an emotion 98. The greatest concentration of cones occurs in the (a) pupil (b) optic nerve (c) fovea
(d) ganglion
99. Receptor cells that are very sensitive to colour are the (a) rods (b) bipolar cells (c) cones 100. Weber's Law (∆ l/l=K) refers to (a) stimulus thresholds (c) the tricolour theory
(d) ganglion cells
. (b) sensory transduction (d) reinforcement rate matching
101. The coloured portion of the eye is called the (a) lens (b) iris (c) pupil
(d) cornea
102. Historically, gestalt psychologists focused mainly on problems dealing with (a) development (b) learning (c) motivation (d) perception 103. The opponent-process theory of colour perception was proposed by (a) Hering (b) Helmholtz (c) Franklin
(d) Premack
104. When we say that our visual system is 50% crossed, we mean that (a) half of the information from the right visual field is perceived by the left retina (b) half of the fibers from the optic nerve cross over to the opposite side of the brain
(c) half of the visual image strikes the left side of the retina, and the other half strikes the right side of the retina (d) half of the visual image is inverted in the retina 105. The theory of Selective Attention was proposed by (a) Selfridge (b) Bruner (c) Broadbent (d) Lockhart and Craik 106. Auditory processes in humans are sensitive to auditory frequencies ranging from (a) 10 Hz-50,000 Hz (b) 20 Hz - 20,000 Hz (c) 5,000 Hz - 100,000 H2 (d) 5,000 Hz - 50,000 H2 107. The taste buds on the tip of the tongue are most sensitive to (a) salty tastes (b) sour tastes (c) bitter taste (d) sweet taste 108. In contrast to the cones, (a) rods function mainly in night vision (b) rods are concentrated in the fovea (c) rods produce colour images, as well as black and white images (d) rods are connected to bipolar cells in a one-to-one ratio 109. Perception involves (a) selection of the signal (c) organization of signal
(b) interpretation of signals (d) all of the above
110. In any sensory system, the strength of a stimulus may be coded in the-of firing of the individual neuron. (a) frequency (b) pattern (c) strength (d) all of these 111. All of the following are cells of the retina except (a) ganglion cells (b) bipolar cells (c) rod and cones (d) granule cells 112. "Visual Cliff' experiments suggest that (a) tactile perceptions are an important aspect of depth perception (b) depth perception improves with experience in the environment (c) depth perception is innate in certain species (d) a and b are correct 113. The figures represented by A and B are classically known as (a) constancy pattern (b) parallel patterns (c) Muller-Lyer patterns (d) Kohler line equivalents 114. The vibrations of the eardrum are transmitted to -the inner ear-by the (a) cochlea (b) malleus, incus, and stapes
(c) basilar membrane
(d) hair cells
115. Which of the following constitutes monocular depth cues? (a) relative size (b) linear perspective (c) interposition (d) all of the above 116. Our perceptual processes have an ability to maintain a stable internal representation of objects even when the environment is constantly changing. For which of the following stimulus dimensions does this statement hold true? (a) shape (b) size (c) brightness (d) all of these 117. Which of the following is not a Gestalt Law of Organization? (a) closure (b) proximity (c) continuation (d) all of the above are Laws of Organization 118. The wavelength of green is (a) greater than yellow but less than blue (b) greater than either yellow or blue (c) the same wavelength as yellow (d) greater than blue but less than yellow 119. Physical sounds from our environment are translated into electrical messages in the (a) spiral geniculate (b) trapezoid body (c) cochlea (d) spiral ganglion 120. Which part of the eye inverts the image of objects? (a) fovea (b) cornea (c) lens
(d) retina
Next three questions refer to the following paragraph. An early experiment by Kohler, investigating the mentality of chimpanzees, involved placing a banana outside the cage beyond the ape's reach and giving him several short, hollow sticks which would have to be pushed together in order to reach the banana. The brightest ape in the experiment tried at first to get the banana with one stick then he pushed the stick out as far as possible with a second stick without success. Eventually, he saw that the sticks could be connected to form a longer stick, thus perceiving a completely new relationship between the sticks. 121. The result of this experiment were interpreted in terms of (a) trial and error learning (b) gestalt principles (c) behaviourist principles (d) organizational behaviour 122. Kohler's viewpoint was most incompatible with the theories held by (a) Watson (b) Wertheimer (c) Wundt (d) Thorndike 123. According to Kohler, problem solving involves (a) a long process of trial and error (b) restructuring the perceptual field
(c) insight
(d) both b and c
124. In studies of attention, shadowing is used to (a) mask all information from attention (b) differentially mask irrelevant information (c) be sure the subject's attention is concentrated on a single task (d) mediate the subject's attention between 2 or more tasks 125. Visual information travels from the optic nerve to the (a) lateral geniculate nucleus (b) occipital lobe (c) superior colliculus (d) all of the above 126. Which of the following equations expresses Fechner'slaw of psychophysics? (a) ∆I/I=C (b) ∆ l/K=S (c)S=Klogl (d)S=llogK 127. The Gestalt experience of perceiving an array of equally spaced dots as rows and columns is attributed to (a) wholistic functions (b) continuity (c) proximity (d) additive vision 128. The human eye is insensitive to light waves shorter than about ______ and longer than __________ nanometers. (a) 450, 850 (b) 350, 750 (c) 100, 2000 (d) 150, 1050 129. Humans are most sensitive to the taste of __________ and least sensitive to _________ (a) sourness, saltiness (b) bitterness, sourness (c) bitterness, sweetness (d) sourness, sweetness 130. Besides the lens, what other structure is responsible for bringing an image into focus on the retina? (a) cornea (b) iris (c) fovea (d) sclera 131. Which structure is located in the middle ear? (a) basilar membrane (b) incus (c) tympanic membrane (d) ear drum 132. Which of the following is not a Gestalt grouping principle of perception? (a) closure (b) proximity (c) disparity (d) similarity 133. __________ refers to change in the focal length of the eye to bring a retinal image into focus. (a) binocular disparity (b) linear perspective (c) accommodation (d) assimilation 134. One of the pioneers of the psychology of perception was
(a) McDougall
(b) Jung
(c) Skinner
(d) Helmholtz
135. In listening to two conversations simultaneously, it is possible to attend to one and ignore the other if they differ in (a) semantics (b) pragmatics (c) syntax (d) pitch 136. Suppose you stare at a yellow square for two minutes, then shift your gaze to a white piece of paper. You will see a-afterimage as predicted by ______ theory. (a) blue, opponent process (b) red, opponent process (c) blue, trichromatic (d) green, trichromatic 137. Suppose you just stepped off a ride at an amusement park in which you were spinning rapidly. Which part of the sensory system is related to the disorientation you now experience? (a) cochlea (b) eustachian tubes (c) semicircular canals (d) visual cortex 138. A famous study by Eleanor Gibson employed a visual cliff with a checkered pattern. The results suggested that (a) depth perception is learned (b) pattern perception is learned (c) depth perception is innate (d) pattern perception is innate 139. The light sensitive cells on the retina are the (a) bipolar cells and neurons (b) olfactory receptors and cones (c) rods and cones (d) chromo-cells and phototonus 140. Subjects in an experiment are asked to look at a sample line and then pick one of three line lengths that they believe is the same length as the sample line. Many subjects will make an incorrect choice because other people did so before them. These studies by Solomon Ashe demonstrate that (a) people are not good at judging line lengths (b) errors are made when people are nervous (c) people need to obey authority (d) peer pressure will influence our perceptions 141. You are leaving an evening class at 9.00 P.M. The parking lot is dimly lighted all the vehicles look grey but you can see your yellow car. You are experiencing the perceptual phenomena of (a) opponent theory (b) binocular disparity (c) nocturnal chromatic integrity (d) colour constancy 142. Which of the senses foes the majority of hallucinations occur in? (a) sight (b) smell (c) hearing (d) taste 143. There are five recognized senses in human beings. Two other abilities that may be added to the list-include (a) telepathy and precognition (b) psycho-kinesis and kinesthesis (c) balance and kinesthesis (d) psycho-kinesis and clairvoyance
144. Myopia, or near sightedness is caused by (a) a cloudy cornea (b) an elongated eyeball (c) a malfunction of the lens of the eye (d) an eyeball that has become shortened 145. In Wolfgang Kohler's experiments, a chimp is put in a cage containing three boxes and a banana suspended high above the animal's head. After first trying to jump up to reach the banana, the chimp looks around them then stacks the three boxes so it can climb up to the banana. This is an example of (a) trial and error (b) latent learning (c) insight learning (d) shaping 146. The absolute threshold for vision refers to (a) the colours we see best (b) the minimum decibel level required to see (c) the maximum number of colours that we can simultaneously process (d) the minimum amount of light for us to see the stimulus 147. The largest sense organ of the body is /are the (a) eyes (b) ears (c) tongue
(d) skin
148. A string of lights is flashed in sequence. We perceive the situation as a light that moves along the string. This is a demonstration of (a) location constancy (b) brightness constancy (c) the phi phenomenon (d) binocular disparity 149. The sense that humans depend on more than the other four combined is (a) audition (b) taste (c) vision (d) touch 150. Sensory deprivation experiments place a person in an isolated environment where their senses are provided little or no inputs, i.e., they can't see, hear, smell, or taste, and their sense of touch is severely limited. After a short time, the typical reaction of most people is (a) sleep (b) boredom (c) hallucinations (d) a restive content state 151. Other than albinos, most humans said to be colour blind are not. They actually (a) see all the colours but miss-name them (b) see colours intermittently instead of constantly (c) see two of the three major colour groups (d) see all the colours but not as vividly as others see them 152. Dember believes figure reversibility is evidence of the fact that (a) the eyes are highly adaptable (b) cone vision predominates during bright intensity viewing (c) change is essential to the maintenance of perception
(d) figure-ground is an essentially useless perceptual concept 153. Inability to monitor the movements of one's feet and the absence of feedback regarding their position and relationship to the ground would suggest problems with the (a) labyrinthine sensory system (b) kinesthetic sensory system (c) thermal sensory system (d) visceral sensory system 154. Selecting colours for a sign that must show-up prominently at dusk, one might be best advised to choose (a) red (b) yellow (c) violet (d) pink 155. A motion picture depends for its perceptual success upon (a) the physiological limitations of the human visual apparatus (b) the unique capacities of the optic chiasm (c) synesthesia (d) motion parallax 156. Feedback regarding internal organs of the body is obtained through the (a) skin sense (b) somesthetic senses (c) visceral senses (d) striated senses 157. In reaction time settings (a) at levels close to threshold, increasing the strength of a stimulus shortens reaction time (b) at level close to threshold, decreasing duration of a stimulus shortens reaction time (c) at level close to threshold, decreasing the strength of a stimulus shortens reaction time (d) kinesthesis is generally the sensory modality utilized 158. The alpha wave has a frequency of approximately how many cycles per second? (a) five (b) twenty (c) thirty (d) ten 159. Which one of the following statements can be concluded from dream research? (a) dreaming apparently serves a basic organismic need. (b) dreaming is dispensable and unnecessary. (c) most person do not dream. (d) dreaming drops markedly in frequency among the elderly 160. A researcher wants to study the effect of response bias and sensitivity on the perception of changes in frequency. She would most likely use (a) Weber's law (b) Fechner's law (c) Stevens' law (d) signal detection theory 161. A subject in an experiment wears a set of earphones that allow different messages to be given to each ear. The subject is asked to repeat one of the messages aloud as she hears it. This technique is called (a) auditory processing (b) the traveling wave (c) shadowing (d) spreading activation
162. Which of the following methods is most commonly used to study selective attention? (a) Shadowing in a dichotic listening task (b) Presentation of subliminal messages on a screen (c) Presentation of subliminal messages on an audiotape (d) Questionnaires that test the contents of short-term memory 163. Bottom-up information processing is best described as (a) semantically driven (b) phonetically driven (c) schematically driven (d) data driven 164. Which of the following explains why cartoons are not perceived as a series of still frames? (a) Autokinetic effect (b) Motion parallax (c) The Phi phenomenon (d) The Muller-Lyer illusion 165. Weber's law applies to a specific range of intensities in (a) hearing only (b) vision only (c) hearing and vision only (d) all of the senses 166. Hermann von Helmholtz is, in part, famous for his theory of (a) colourblindness (b) colour vision (c) lateral inhibition (d) sensory transduction 167. Which of the following sensory systems involves the ganglion cells and the ciliary muscles? (a) Cutaneous (b) Auditory (c) Visual (d) Olfactory 168. Which of the following sensory system components is said to accommodate? (a) Cornea (b) Lens (c) Retina (d) Tympanic membrane 169. Three dimensional perception of the world is referred to as: (a) stereoposis (b) stroboscopy (c) normal vision (d) multiple perspectives 170. Perceptual constancy refers to (a) perception of an object remaining the same even when our immediate sensation of the object changes (b) perceptual tendency to group objects together on the basis of their similarity (c) perception of an object changing even though the object stays the same (d) tendency of close up, incomplete objects into already existing perceptual shapes 171. Gestalists refer to the fact that we perceive smooth flowing forms more readily than discrete forms as (a) similarity (b) symmetry (c) holistic perception (d) continuity
172. Which of the following is not a characteristic of perception? (a) perception is an active process (b) perception is highly selective (c) perception is unaffected by motivation (d) perception is so automotive that we are not aware of it 173. Some of the fibers form each eye cross over to the opposite brain hemisphere at the (a) optic chiasma (b) optic nerve (c) blind spot (d) fovea 174. Which one of the following is not a dimension of the auditory experience? (a) loudness (b) pitch (c) saturation (d) timbre 175. The best studied perceptual constancies include (a) brightness, focus, angle (b) shape, location, size (c) colour, texture, content (d) size, age, weight 176. Motion pictures are based on (a) the gamma phenomenon (c) the autokinetic illusion
(b) the principle of illusory circle (d) stroboscopic motion
177. A disorder called ___________ results when fluid pressure builds up inside the eye andcauses damage to the optic nerve (a) prosopagnia (b) achromatospia (c) dyslexia (d) glaucoma 178. Optical illusions result from distortion in (a) transudation (b) sensation
(c) perception
(d) adaptation
179. The ability to view the world in 3 dimensions and to perceive distance is (a) depth perception (b) illusion (c) delusion (d) none of these 180. What can occur if a person believes that a connection exists between an act and its consequences when there is no relationship between the two? (a) classical conditioning (b) shaping (c) superstitious behaviour (d) none of these 181. The ability to focus on stimuli in which we are interested while resisting distracting stimuli is called (a) concentrated attending (b) stimulus focusing (c) selective attention (d) structured perceiving 182. The degree of concentration or dilution of a colour is known as its (a) brightness (b) hue (c) volume
(d) saturation
183. Differences in perception among species depends upon (a) Habitual (b) complexity of nervous system (c) receptor mechanism (d) all of the above 184. Convergence of the eyes is controlled primarily by (a) extrinsic muscles of the eye (b) curvature of lens (c) ciliary muscles of eye (d) muscles of iris 185. Which of the following is a dimension of visual experience? (a) Loudness (b) pitch (c) timbre (d) brightness 186. All human senses evolved for the same purpose to (a) increase our ability to enjoy the environment (b) make us more aware of our feelings and internal states (c) provide information that could improve our ability to communicate (d) help us survive 187. The fovea and the blind spot are both features of the (a) cornea (b) lens (c) retina
(d) pupil
188. The ability of the eye to distinguish fine details is called: (a) visual dilation (b) visual acuity (c) visual sensitivity (d) adaptation 189. The process of detecting, translating and transmitting messages from the external environment to the brain is called: (a) sensation (b) perception (c) selective attention (d) adaptation 190. The most fundamental principle of perceptual organization is called: (a) figure and ground (b) law of closure (c) consistency (d) dark adaptation phenomenon 191. When we look at a distant object, we usually judge its size by: (a) object size (b) perceptive size (c) retinal size (d) a compromise between object size and perceptive size 192. The detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects, it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs: (a) cognition (b) sensation . (c) perception (d) adaptation 193. By the perceptual organization of stimuli the person's span of attention is:
(a) increased (c) divided
(b) decreased (d) unaffected
194. Which of the following is not a law of perceptual grouping? (a) proximity (b) similarity (c) constancy (d) continuation 195. The cue of accommodation is especially effective for: (a) long distances (b) short distances (c) moving objects (d) both a and c are correct 196. Perception is the process by which (a) stimulus energies are detected. (b) stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity. (c) sensory input is selected, organized, and interpreted. (d) nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus. 197. Sensation is to-as perception is to _________ (a) encoding; detection (b) detection; interpretation (c) organization; adaptation (d) interpretation; organization 198. A psyche-physicist would be most directly concerned with (a) our psychological reactions to physical stress (b) the relation between the wavelength of light and the experience of the color (c) the automatic effect of bright lights on the contraction of the pupils (d) the effects of physical disease on sensory receptor cells 199. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the (a) difference threshold (b) sensory adaptation threshold (c) subliminal threshold (d) absolute threshold 200. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Zafar could hardly ever detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Zafar's (a) subliminal (b) absolute threshold (c) difference threshold (d) sensory adaptation threshold 201. Which of the following is not an example of perceptual constancy? (a) size (b) shape (c) colour (d) dimension 202. As Sana traveled down the "yellow brick road," if she looked down at her feet, the bricks would appear their normal size. However, if she looked ahead down the road, the bricks would appear to be smaller. This can be explained by the perceptual phenomenon of (a) linear perspective (b) texture gradient (c) interposition (d) relative size
203. One object partially blocks your view of a second object and, therefore, the first object, is seen as being closer to you than the second object. This is an example of: (a) relative size (b) good continuation (c) interposition (d) the Poggendroff illusion 204. The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as (a) Weber's law (b) the opponent-process theory (c) feature detection (d) the difference threshold 205. Failure to realize how hot the bath water really is after you have been sitting in it for ten minutes best illustrates the process of sensory (a) adaptation (b) accommodation (c) continuity (d) threshold 206. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the (a) lens (b) iris (c) retina
(d) optic nerve
207. The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the (a) optic nerve (b) cornea (c) retina (d) iris 208. Hair cells are to audition as _________ are to vision (a) pupils (b) corneas (c) rods and cones (d) bipolar cells 209. Which cells are located closest to the back of the retina? (a) rods and cones (b) bipolar cells (c) ganglion cells (d) feature detectors 210. The blind spot is located in the area of the retina (a) called the cornea (b) that contains rods but no cones (c) where the optic nerve leaves the eye (d) where bipolar cells connect with ganglion cells 211. Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light? (a) rods (b) cones (c) bipolar cells (d) feature detectors 212. Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to blue light is most directly supportive of (a) Weber's law (b) the Young-Helmholtz theory (c) the gate-control theory (d) the opponent-process theory 213. When most people stare first at a blue circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of the circle appears
(a) green
(b) red
(c) yellow
(d) blue
214. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to --light are inhibited by exposure to-light (a) green; red (b) yellow; red (c) green; blue (d) red; blue 215. When there is a conflict between bits of information received by two or more senses, which sense tends to dominate the others? (a) hearing (b) vision (c) smell (d) touch 216. Brightness is to light as __________ is to sound. (a) pitch (b) amplitude (c) frequency
(d) loudness
217. The vibrations of .the eardrum are amplified by three tiny bones located in the (a) auditory canal (d) middle ear (c) cochlea (b) inner ear 218. The cochlea is a (a) fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses. (b) fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of upright body position. (c) fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of body movement. (d) set of three tiny bones that amplify the vibrations of the eardrum. 219. The basilar membrane is lined with (a) hair cells (c) bipolar cells
(b) olfactory receptors (d) feature detectors
220.Cones are to vision as ________ are to audition. (a) eardrums (b) cochleas (c) oval windows (d) hair cells 221. A time lag between left and right auditory stimulation is important for accurately (a) locating sounds (b) detecting pitch (c) determining loudness (d) judging amplitude 222. The opponent-process theory is to our sense of colour as the gate-control theory is to our sense of (a) smell (b) touch (c) kinesthesia (d) pain 223. Your sensitivity to taste will decline if you (a) smoke heavily (b) grow older (c) consume large amounts of alcohol (d) do any of the above 224. Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home? (b) olfactory receptors (d) basilar membrane
(a) vestibular sacs
(c) bipolar cells
225. A Gestalt is best described as a/an (a) binocular cue (c) perceptual adaptation
(b) interposition (d) organized whole
226. Gestalt psychologists emphasized that (a) perception is the same as sensation (b) we learn to perceive the world through experience (c) the whole is more than the sum of its parts (d) sensation has no effect on perception 227. The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called (a) perceptual set (b) selective attention (c) figure-ground perception (d) interposition 228. Figure is to ground as ____ is to ________ (a) form; substance (b) up; down (c) summer; winter (d) moon; sky 229. The Gestalt principles of proximity and continuity refer to ways in which we (a) adapt to perceptual changes (b) activate meaningful perceptual sets (c) decompose whole objects into sensory stimuli (d) organize stimuli into coherent groups 230. Because the two teams wore different-coloured uniforms, Musa perceived the ten basketball players as two distinct groups. This illustrates the principle of (a) proximity (b) colour constancy (c) closure (d) similarity 231. The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ____________ in infants, (a) size constancy (b) depth perception (c) perceptual adaptation (d) figure-ground perception 232. Retinal disparity refers to the (a) tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance (b) somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object (c) tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object (d) extent to which our eyes turn inward when looking at an object 233. Which of the following is a binocular cue for the perception of distance? (a) interposition (b) convergence (c) closure (d) linear perspective
234. If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal image is perceived to be (a) more coarsely textured (b) less hazy (c) more distant (d) closer 235. Which of the following cues do artists us to convey depth on a flat canvas? (a) convergence (b) continuity (c) interposition (d) closure 236. The perceived sized of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived (a) shape (b) colour (c) distance (d) motion 237. A perceptual set is a (a) tendency to fill in gaps so as to perceive a complete, whole object. (b) readiness to perceive an object in a distorted fashion, (c) tendency to group similar elements. (d) mental predisposition that influences what we receive. 238. Although Zehra sees her chemistry professor several times each week, she had difficulty recognizing the professor when she walked pass her in the Anarkali Bazar. This best illustrates the effect of ________ on perception. (a) convergence (b) context (c) proximity (d) closure 239. The conversion of the mechanical energy produced by sound waves into neural impulses occurs in the (a) eardrum (b) middle ear (c) cochlea (d) ear canal 240. As compared to long objects, short objects vibrate _______ and produce sound waves of _______ frequency (a) slower; lower (b) slower; higher (c) faster; lower (d) faster; higher 241. In the Muller-Lyer illusion, the arrowheads at the ends of the lines lead people to misjudge the __________ of the two horizontal lines. (a) continuity (b) relative height (c) length (d) convergence 242. The Ponzo illusion illustrates that people judge the size of perceived (a) shape (b) height (c) distance (d) convergence 243. In the Ponzo Illusion, most people _______ the length of the bar that appears to be more _________ (a) underestimate; distant (b) overestimate; distant (c) underestimate; horizontal (d) overestimate; horizontal
244. In the horizontal/vertical illusion, most people perceive a ________ line as ______ (a) horizontal; longer than an equally long vertical line (b) vertical; less distant than an equally distant horizontal line (c) horizontal, straighter than an equally straight vertical line (d) vertical; longer than an equally long horizontal line 245. In the Poggendroff illusion involving a rectangular post with a line segment protruding from each side, most people fail to correctly align the two lines segments because they (a) underestimate the width of the rectangular post (b) overestimate the width of the rectangular post (c) underestimate the length of the two line segments (d) overestimate the length of the two line segments 246. Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between (a) the physical stimulus and the sensation it produces (b) physical disorders and psychological disorders (c) motivational states and physiological responses (d) the quantity and quality of a stimulus 247. Sea water that feels too cool at first may feel just fine after you've stayed in the water a little while. This is an illustration of (a) sensory adaptation (b) coding (c) transudation (d) masking 248. Which of the following parts of the ear is designed to receive sound and funnel it inward to the structure where transudation occurs? (a) cochlea (b) basilar membrane (c) outer ear (d) auditory nerve 249. The first part of the ear that vibrates in response to incoming sound waves is the (a) ossicles (b) eardrum (c) basilar membrane (d) tactorial membrane 250. The major function of the structures in themiddle ear is to: (a) reduce the pressure that sound waves exert on the inner ear. (b) increase the pressure that sound waves exert on the inner ear. (c) reduce the frequency of sound waves reaching the inner ear. (d) increase the frequency of sound waves reaching the inner ear. 251. The receptors for hearing are located (a) in the cochlea (c) in the inner ear
(b) on the basilar membrane (d) in or on all of the above
252. In the human visual system, light is focused by (a) thecoraea (b) the lens (c) the retina (d) both the cornea and the lens
253. Light activates receptor cells in the (a) iris (b) retina
(c) optic nerve
(d) cornea
254. What is the function of the pupil? (a) it focuses light to create an image on the retina (b) it binds the axons that form the optic nerve (c) it allows light to reach the retina (d) it creates high-acuity, colour vision 255. The muscle fibers of the iris can increase or decrease the amount of light entering the eye by expanding or contracting the (a) lens (b) cornea (c) pupil (d) fovea 256. Compared with cone vision, rod vision is (a) more acute and more sensitive (b) less acute and less sensitive (c) more acute and less sensitive (d) less acute and more sensitive 257. In order tosee with the dim illumination available from moonlight, you have to depend mostly on (a) your rods (b) your cones (c) the fovea (d) photonic vision 258. What is found at the place where the optic nerve leaves the eye? (a) the fovea (b) the blind spot (c) bipolar cells (d) the cornea 259. The process of which your eyes adjust from darkness to bright light is called (a) dark adaptation (b) light adaptation (c) coding of contrast (d) coding of light intensity patterns 260. Light and dark adaptation are mediated mainly by physiological processes that occur in the (a) retina (b) optic nerve (c) visual area of the thalamus (where input from the two eyes first comes together) (d) visual area of the cerebral cortex 261. Which of the following is true of the three types of cones in the human retina? (a) each has a different photochemical that makes it most sensitive to light within particular range of wavelengths (b) blue cones respond only to blue, red cones only to red, and green cones only to green (c) each type of cone responds only to a narrow range of wavelengths (d) one type of cone is involved in colour vision, and the other two provide only black-and-white vision 262. The colour a person sees at any moment depends on
(a) which one of the three types of cones is being stimulated (b) the ratio of activity in each of the three different types of cones (c) which one of the three types of cones is maximally active (d) which one of the three types of photo-pigments breaks down most completely 263. Some people, due to a genetic defect, cannot distinguish between red and green. These people are referred to as (a) monochromats, because they see red and green as the same colour (b) dichromates, because they lack one colour receptor (c) trichromats, because they have only three colour receptors (d) dichromates, because both their red and their green colour receptors are abnormal 264. The absolute threshold is (a) the weakest stimulus of a given type that a subject detects on every trial (b) the weakest stimulus of a given type that a subject-detects in some percentage of trials (c) the strongest stimulus of a given type that a person can be exposed to without neural damage (d) the smallest difference that a subject detects between similar stimuli on every trial 265. The minimum amount of stimulus energy that can reliably be detected is called (a) the difference threshold (b) the absolute threshold (c) the differential threshold (d) aJND 266. Signal detection depends on a person's (a) sensory sensitivity (b) response bias (c) difference threshold (d) both a and b 267 Assuming that Weber's law is correct, if you can just barely distinguish a 93-gram weight from a 90-gram weight, you should be able just barely to distinguish a ___________ weight from a 300-gram weight (a) 303-gram (b) 306-gram (c) 309-gram (d) 310-gram 268. Perception is defined as the (a) registration and coding of various energies impinging on the body's sense organs (b) process of planning and making decisions based on environmental information (c) process of integrating and organizing sensory information in order to make sense out of it (d) conscious awareness and processing of incoming sensory information 269. The perceptual processes that make use of preexisting knowledge to interpret new information are called (a) sensory processes (b) top-down processes (c) bottom-up processes (d) parallel processes 270 The idea that the whole is different from the sum of its parts is most central to (a) Treisman's feature-integration theory of perception (b) Biederman's recognition-by-components theory of perception (e) Helmholtz's unconscious inference theory of perception
(d) the Gestalt theory of perception 271. Gestalt is a __________ word that means organized whole. (a) German (b) French (c) Latin (d) Spanish 272. Gestalt psychologists asserted that the whole is __________ the sum of its parts and is perceived ___________ (a) less meaningful than; after the parts are combined (b) equivalent to; as a set of discrete units (c) more meaningful than; as a set of connected units (d) different from; immediately as a complete entity 273. The Gestalt psychologists claimed that we are innately predisposedto (a) group sensory elements according to certain principles (b) analyze wholes into their individual features (c) use our expectations to figure out what we are seeing (d) look for the distinctive features of stimuli 274. Which of the following is not one of the Gestalt principles of grouping? (a) proximity (b) similarity (c) contrast (d) closure 275. Stimulus elements that are physically like one another tend to be grouped together, while those that are unlike one another are seen as parts of separate objects. This principle of grouping is called (a) good continuation (b) similarity (c) proximity (d) good form 276. Suppose we see an array of identical X's. The horizontal spacing between X's is close than the vertical spacing between X's, which causes us to see them in rows rather than columns. This illustrates the Gestalt principle of (a) proximity (b) closure (c) similarity (d) good form 277. It is easier to see a camouflaged animal when it moves than when it stays still. The illustrates the Gestalt principle of (a) closure (b) proximity (c) similarity (d) common movement 278. A visual scene can be separated into two parts, the ________ which is the object thatcommands our attention, and the ______ which seems to exist continuously behind the object (a) figure; ground (b) good form; good continuation (c) ground; background (d) good form; circumscription 279. What would Gestalt psychologist say is reversing in a reversible figure, such as the vase-faces figure in your textbook? (a) figure-ground relations (b) perception of similarity
(c) good continuation
(d) border and texture
280. Under what circumstances could a subject looking at a reversible figure see both figures simultaneously? (a) when the image contains a fully circumscribed figure (b) when the image contains a partially circumscribed figure (c) when both figures are equally familiar to the subject (d) under no circumstances 281. Our expectations of what we will see can sometimes affect what we actually do see. These expectations are referred to as our (a) principles of grouping (b) model of attention (c) unconscious inferences (d) perceptual set 282. A police officer is a tense and possibly dangerous situation may "see" a hammer in a man's hand as a gun. This mistake could be attributed to the officer's; (a) perceptual set (b) selective viewing (c) stroop interference (d) frame illusion 283. A person identify a word faster if it is part of a meaningful sentence than if it is part of a meaningless string of words. This observation constitutes evidence for the (a) eye-movement readiness theory (b) attenuation theory of attention (c) power of top-down processing (d) power of bottom-up processing 284. Students stand in groups waiting for someone to unlock their classroom. The people in each group are able to attend to the voices in their own conversation group and screen out the voices in others. This is an example of (a) shadowing (b) selective listening (c) parallel processing (d) divided attention 285. The two cues that contribute to the binocular advantage in depth perception are __________ and, more importantly (a) binocular disparity; motion parallax (b) motion parallax; binocular disparity (c) binocular disparity; eye convergence (d) eye convergence; binocular disparity 286. Which of the following is a binocular cue to depth that operates when the object is within a few inches of the eye? (a) motion parallax (b) eye convergence (c) occlusion (d) linear perspective 287. Imagine you are holding your thumb up at arm's length .in front of you. You look at it first with one eye and them with the other. As you switch eyes, you see that your finger obstructs different parts of the visual world. This illustrates (a) motion parallax (b) occlusion
(c) linear perspective
(d) binocular disparity
288. Binocular disparity is a cue for depth because the perceptual system judges an object's distance from oneself primarily by the degree to which the two eyes (a) diverge when looking at the same object (b) differ in the sharpness of their image of the same object (c) see a different view of the same object (d) absorb different wavelengths of light from the same object 289. Three-dimensional movies (such as Avatar) take advantage of which of the following to create the sense of depth? (a) binocular disparity (b) motion parallax (c) texture gradients (d) occlusion 290. As you walk through the environment, your view of nearby objects changes more rapidly than your views of objects farther away. This depth cue is attributable to (a) motion parallax, which can be seen with either eye alone (b) motion parallax, which depends on the ability to combine images from both eyes (c) binocular disparity, which depends on each eye seeing its own side of the object (d) binocular disparity, which depends on each eye seeing the same object from a different angle 291. You see a photograph showing a man, a woman, and a car. The two people appear closer to you than the car does because they obscure part of it. This depth cue is called (a) eye. con mergence (b) linear perspective (c) relative image size of familiar objects (d) occlusion 292. Size constancy refers to our perception of an object's size as the same even though its image on the retina--as the distance between us and the object (a) increases; decreases (b) decreases; increases (c) decreases; decreases (d) a and b 293. Experimental evidence indicates that the ability to judge the size of an unfamiliar object depends on (a) motion cues (b) depth cues (c) time cues (d) all of the above 294. Movement illusions such as the moon-cloud illusion, in which the moon appears to race from cloud to cloud, illustrate the role in visual perception played by (a) binocular disparity (b) a frame of reference (c) a linear perspective (d) bottom-up processing 295. Visual constancies are characteristics, such as size, shape, and lightness, that (a) do not appear to change when viewing conditions change (b) saldom appear to change because we expect them to remain the same
(c) are physically immutable (d) both b and c 296. Which of the following is true? (a) the absolute threshold for any stimulus is a constant (b) the absolute threshold for any stimulus varies somewhat (c) the absolute is defined as the minimum amount of stimulation necessary for a stimulus to be detected 75 percent of the time (d) the absolute threshold is defined as the minimum amount of stimulation necessary for a stimulus to be detected 60 percent of the time 297. The size of the pupil is controlled by the (a) lens (b) retina (c) cornea
(d) iris
298 The process by which the lens changes its curvature is (a) accommodation (b) sensory adaptation (c) focusing (d) transduction 299. The receptor of the eye that functions best in dim light is the (a) fovea (b) ganglion (c) cone (d) rod 300. The Young-Helmholtz theory proposes that (a) there are three different types of colour-sensitive cones (b) retinal cells are excited by one colour and inhibited by its complementary colour (c) there are four different types of cones (d) rod, not cone, vision accounts for our ability to detect fine visual detail 301. The receptors for hearing are located in (a) the outer ear (b) the middle ear (c) the inner ear (d) all parts of the ear 302. The transduction of light energy into nerve impulses takes place in the (a) iris (b) retina (c) lens (d) optic nerve 303. Kinesthesis involves (a) the bones of the middle ear . (b) membranes within the cochlea (c) information from the muscles, tendons, and joints (d) the body's sense of balance 304. Which of the following explains why a rose appears equally red in bright and dim light? (a) the Yong-Helmholtz theory (b) the opponent-process theory (c) feature detection (d) colour constancy 305. The process by which sensory information is converted into neural energy is (a) sensor/adaptation (b) feature, detection
(c) signal detection
(d) transduction
306. Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which light passes after entering the eye? (a) lens, pupil, cornea, retina (b) pupil, cornea, lens, retina (c) pupil, lens, cornea, retina (d) cornea, pupil, lens, retina 307. In the opponent-process theory, the three pairs of processes are (a) red-green, blue-yellow, black-white (b) red-blue, green-yellow, black-white (c) red-yellow, blue-green, black-white (d) dependent upon the individual's past experience 308. Given normal sensory ability, a person can hear a watch ticking in a silent room from 20 feet away. This is a description of hearing's (a) different threshold (b) JND (c) absolute threshold (d) signal detection 309 In shopping for a new stereo system you discover that you cannot differentiate between the sounds of models X and Y. The difference between X and Y is below your (a) absolute threshold (b) signal detection (c) receptor threshold (d) difference threshold 310 In comparing the human eye to a camera, the film would be analogous to the eye's (a) pupil (b) lens (c) cornea (d) retina 311. Which of the following correctly lists the order of structures through which sound travels after entering the ear? (a) auditory canal, eardrum, middle ear, cochlea (b) eardrum, auditory canal, middle ear, cochlea (c) eardrum, auditory canal, middle ear, cochlea, auditor canal (d) cochlea, eardrum, middle ear, auditory canal 312. After staring at a very intense red stimulus for a few minutes, Sabeen shifted her gaze to a beige wall and "saw" the colour _________ Sabeen's experience provides support for the _________ theory. (a) green; trichromatic (b) blue; opponent-process (c) green; opponent-process (d) blue; trichromatic 313 The historical movement associated with thestatement "The whole is greater than the sum of its parts" is (a) parapsychology (b) behavioural psychology (c) functional psychology (d) Gestalt psychology 314. Figures tend to be perceived as whole, complete objects, even if spaces or gaps exist in the representation, thus demonstrating the principle of
(a) connectedness (c) continuity
(b) similarity (d) closure
315 The figure-ground relationship has demonstrated that (a) perception is largely innate (b) perception is largely innate (c) the same stimulus can trigger more than one perception (d) different people see different things when viewing a scene 316. When we stare at an object, each eye receives slightly different image, providing a depth cue known as (a) convergence (b) linear perspective (c) relative motion (d) retinal disparity 317. As we move, viewed objects cast changing shapes on our retinas, although we do not perceive the objects as changing. This is part of the phenomenon of (a) perceptual constancy (b) relative motion (c) linear perspective (d) continuity 318. Which of the following depth cues creates the impression of visual cliff? (a) interposition (b) relative height (c) linear perspective (d) texture gradient 319.Which of the following is not a monocular depth cue? (a) texture gradient (b) relative height (c) retinal disparity (d) relative clarity 320. The moon illusion occurs in part because distance cues at the horizon make the moon seem (a) farther away therefore larger (b) closer therefore larger (c) closer therefore smaller (d) farther away therefore smaller 321. Figure is to ground as _______ is to __________ (a) night; day (b) top; bottom (c) cloud; sky (d) sensation; perception 322. The study of perception is primarily concerned with how we (a) detect slights, sound, and other stimuli (b) sense environmentalstimuli (e) interpret sensory stimuli (d) develop sensitivity to illusions 323. The tendency to organize stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns is called (a) closure (b) continuity (c) similarity (d) proximity 324. Which of the following is a monocular depth cue? (a) relative size (b) convergence
(c) retinal disparity (d) all of the above are monocular depth cues 325. Which of the following statements is consistent with the Gestalt theory of perception? (a) perception develops largely through learning (b) perception is the product of heredity (c) the mind organizes sensations into meaningful perceptions (d) perception results directly from sensation 326. The phenomenon that refers to the ways in which an individual's expectations influence perception is called (a) perceptual set (b) retinal disparity (c) convergence (d) visual capture 327. Psychologists who study ESP are called (a) clairvoyants (b) telepaths (c) parapsychologists (d) levitators 328. The depth cue that occurs when we watch stable objects at different distances as we are moving is (a) convergence (b) interposition (C) relative clarity (d) relative motion 329. Each time you see your car, it projects a different image on the retina as of your eyes, yet you do not perceive it as changing. This is because of (a) perceptual set (b) retinal disparity (c) perceptual constancy (d) convergence 330. All of the following are laws of perceptual organization except (a) proximity (b) closure (c) continuity (d) simplicity 331. Although carpenter perceived a briefly viewed object as a screwdriver, police officer perceived the same object as a knife. This illustrates that perception is guided by (a) linear perspective (b) shape constancy (c) retinal disparity (d) perceptual set 332. When two familiar objects of equal size cast unequal retinal images, the object that casts the smaller retinal image will be perceived as being (a) closer than the other object (b) larger than the other object (c) more distant than the other object (d) smaller than the other object 333. If you slowly bring your finger toward your face until it eventually touches your nose, eye-muscle cues called __________ convey depth information to your brain (a) retinal disparity (b) interposition (c) continuity (d) convergence
334. As her friend Moeen walks toward her, Nida perceives his size as remaining constant because his perceived distance ________ at the same time that her retinal image of him _________ (a) increases; decreases (b) increases; increases (c) decreases; decreases (d) decreases; increases 335. In the absence of perceptual constancy (a) objects would appear to change size as their distance from us changed (b) depth perception would be based exclusively on monocular cues (c) depth perception would be based exclusively on binocular cues (d) depth perception would be impossible 336. An artist paints a tree orchard so that the parallel rows of trees converge at the top of the canvas. Which cue has the artist used to convey distance? (a) interposition (b) relative clarity (c) linear perspective (d) texture gradient 337. Objects higher in our field of vision are perceived as-due to the principle of (a) nearer; relative height (b) farther away; linear perspective (c) nearer; linear perspective (d) farther away; relative height 338. According to the principle of relative brightness, if one of two identical objects reflects more light to your eyes it will be perceived as (a) larger (b) smaller (c) nearer (d) farther away 339. A researcher in psychophysics would be most likely to study (a) perceptual decline in the elderly (b) cognitive aspects of perceptions (c) perceptual variables related to artistic ability (d) sensory thresholds in colourblind subjects 340. Musa hears the so-called "silent" alarm that is present in many institutional buildings. Most people do not hear the frequency pitch. It would be most accurate to say that in regard to hearing, Musa's absolute threshold is (a) lower than that of most people (b) higher than that of most people (c) about the same except for certain frequencies (d) not functioning appropriately 341. Saad works in a hospital. However, he is no longer aware of the offensive smell in the hospital. The best explanation for this is (a) subliminal perception (b) signal detection theory (c) sensory adaptation (d) difference threshold 342. In order for a stimulus to be experienced, its intensity must be (a) above absolute threshold (b) below absolute threshold (c) adapted by our senses (d) available in the environment
343. Applying the principles related to sensory adaptation, the best way to get attention from an audience to whom you are speaking to is by (a) speak louder (b) whisper (c) speak faster (d) all of the above 344. The colour of a light is related to the ——— of the light wave (a) frequency (b) length (c) saturation 345. White light is produced by mixing (a) wavelengths (c) rods and cones
(d) amplitude
(b) wave amplitudes (d) monochromatic lights
346. The theory of colour vision based on the idea that we possess three distinct receptor areas for the three primary colours of light is the (a) primary colour theory (b) signal detection theory (c) opponent process theory (d) trichromatic theory 347. There is no vision in the blind spot because (a) the cornea is too curved to reflect light at that point (b) of disease in the cornea (c) there are no rods and cones there (d) the optic nerve is not connected there 348. The part of the eye where vision is most acute is the (a) fovea (b) iris (c) cornea
(d) retina
349. Kirn is trying to thread a needle, but the light is fairly dim. Due to the lack of light, the part of her eye that will help most in threading the needle is (a) cones (b) rods (c) lens (d) cornea 350. The phenomenon of negative afterimages lends support to the (a) trichromatic colour theory (b) opponent-process theory (c) existence of the blind spot (d) concept of colour blindness 351 People who are colour blind most likely have a problem with their (a) rods (b) fovea (c) iris (d) cones 352. The amplitude of sound is measured in units called (a) frequencies (b) Hertz (c) wavelengths (d) decibels 353. The actual receptor cells for hearing are-contained in the (a) pinna (b) eardrum (c) cochlea
(d) stapes
354. Motion sickness is the result of a disturbance of the ________ sense
(a) kinesthetic (c) visual
(b) vestibular (d) coetaneous
355. The gate-control theory of pain proposes that pain actually occurs (a) at the receptor cite (b) only in the external receptors (c) in the brain (d) only under intense stimulus levels 356. Bold Words in a textbook is an example of (a) a stimulus factor in perception (b) a personal factor in perception (c) a stimulus factor in motivation (d) a Gestalt principle of perception 357. Which of the following is not a personal factor.in perceptual selectivity? (a) motivation (b) past experience (c) size (d) expectation 358. Psychological preparedness to perceive something in a given way is known as (a) mental expectation (b) perceptual set (c) mental set (d) selective expectation 359 Which of the following Gestalt principles would most readily explain camouflage? (a) similarity (b) figure-ground (c) continuity (d) proximity 360. Events that occur close together in space or time are generally perceived as belonging together. Gestalt psychologists refer to this as (a) proximity (b) closure (c) similarity (d) continuity 361. We are able to experience 3-D movies because of the perceptual phenomenon of (a) convergence (b) accommodation (c) similarity (d) retinal disparity 362. You are standing in the middle of way. As you look far ahead, the tracks seem to come together in the distance. This illustrates (a) linear perspective (b) interposition (c) similarity (d) convergence 363 Which of the following pictorial cues first came to the attention of Max Wertheimer during a train ride? (a) relative size (b) motive parallax (c) patterns of shading (d) texture gradient 364. You walk into a dark movie theater wearing a white shirt, and notice that the shirt now looks gray. However, you know that the shirt is still white because of (a) size constancy (b) brightness constancy (c) linear perspective (d) texture gradient
365. If the olfactory sense were eliminated, a blindfolded person tasting a peeled apple and a peeled raw potato would most likely: (a) experience the same tastes as usual (b) be unable to distinguish between the taste of the apple and the taste of the potato (c) taste the potato as more bitter than usual (d) taste the potato as sweeter than usual 366. Both bats and marine mammals use which of the following to perceive their environments? (a) infrasound (b) delta waves (c) stereo-taxis (d) echolocation 367 You have just been presented with a, 1000-cycle-per second tone. As the frequency is slowly increased, you are instructed to tell the experimenter when you notice a difference in pitch. At 1,050 cycle-per second you report noticing a difference. The 50 cycle-per second is your (a) absolute threshold (b) differential threshold (c) minimum threshold (d) criterion threshold 368. As stimulus patterns become increasingly similar, reaction times based on stimulus discrimination: (a) become shorter (b) remain unchanged (c) become longer (d) become shorter for auditory stimuli, longer for visual ones 369. The primaries in subtractive colour mixing are (a) blue, yellow, red (b) blue, green, red (c) green, orange, red (d) green, yellow, red 370. The basilar membrane plays an important role in (a) vision (b) hearing (c) olfaction
(d) taste
371. The opponent process theory of colour vision (a) proposed that there are three types of receptors in the eye (b) stated that there are two kinds of receptors in the eye (c) explains colour vision as the process of mixing the light of different colours (d) contradicted psychophysics theory about the perception of colour thresholds
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29.
c a c b a a c a
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30,
b a c c c d a c
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31.
b d a d d c b d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32.
c a b b c d a a
33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145, 149. 153. 157. 161. 165. 169. 173. 177. 181. 185. 189. 193. 197. 201. 205. 209. 213.
c c a c d b a b c c c d c c d a a b c d c d b d G c c d c c b a c d c a d c d b a b d a a c
34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78 82. 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166. 170. 174. 178. 182. 186 190. 194. 198. 202. 206. 210. 214.
c c c c b d a c d b a a c c c a c d b a b d d c a d c c d. c c d a. a a c c a d b c b b b c a.
35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159 163. 167. 171. 175. 179. 183. 187, 191. 195. 199. 203. 207. 211. 215.
d d a b c b c d b b d b c b b c c a d d d c d c b d c c d c a a d c d c a b c d a d c c b b
36. 40. 44. 48. 52.
b c b a b
60.
a
68.
d
76.
b
84.
b
92.
d
100.
a
108.
a
116.
d
124.
c
132.
e
140.
d
148.
c
156.
c
164.
c
172.
d
180.
c
188.
b
196.
c
204.
a
212.
b
217. 221. 225. 229. 233. 237. 241, 245. 249. 253. 257. 261. 265. 269. 273. 277. 281. 285. 289. 293. 297. 301. 305. 309. 313. 317. 321. 325. 329. 333. 337. 341. 345. 349. 353. 357. 361. 365 369.
b a d d b d c a b b a a b b a d d d a b d c d d d a c c c d d c a b c c d b a
218. 222. 226. 230. 234. 238. 242. 246. 250. 254. 258. 262. 266. 270. 274. 278. 282. 286. 290. 294. 298. 302. 306. 310. 314. 318. 322. 326. 330. 334. 338. 342. 346. 350. 354. 358. 362. 366 370.
a d c d c b c a b c b b d d c a a b a b a b d d d d c a d d c a d b b c a d b
219. 223. 227. 231. 235. 239. 243. 247. 251. 255. 259. 263. 267. 271. 275. 279. 283. 287. 291. 295. 299. 303. 307. 311. 315. 319. 323. 327. 331. 335. 339. 343. 347. 351. 355. 359. 363. 367 371.
a d c b c c b a d c b b d a b a c d d a d c a a c c b c d a d d c d c b b b a
220.
d
228.
d
236.
c
244.
d
252.
d
260.
a
268.
c
276:
a
284.
b
292.
b
300.
a
308.
c
316.
d
324.
a
332.
c
340.
a
348.
a
356.
a
364. 368
b c
56. 64. 72. b 80. c 88. c 96. d 104 112 120 128 136 144 152. c 160. d .168. b 176. d 184. c 192. c 200. b 208. c 216 224 232 240. d 248. c 256 264 272. d 280. d 288 296 304 312 320 dbb db
cbdca 328. d 336. 344. 352. 360.
Chapter 5
Learning 1. The law of effect first formulated by. (a) John Garcia (c) Edward.Thorndike
(b) B. F. Skinner (d) Edward Tolman
2. Studying to avoid a bad grade is an example of: (a) positive reinforcement (b) negative reinforcement (c) punishment (d) escape 3. All of the following increase the probability of a particular response occurring except: (a) positive reinforcement (b) negative reinforcement (c) shaping (d) punishment 4. Every time an alarm clock rings, the subject is hit in the eye with a puff of air from a blow dryer. This causes the subject to blink. After a while, the subject blinds her eyes as soon as the alarm clock rings. The eye blink that is caused by the blow dryer is called: (a) the conditioned stimulus (b) the unconditioned response (c) the unconditioned stimulus (d) the conditioned response 5. You had a car crash; now all cars scare you, it is called __________ (a) extinction (b) discrimination (c) secondary reinforcement (d) generalization 6. An electric shock administered to the paw of a cat will elicit foot withdrawal. Before the shocks are administered, a green light is flashed Eventually, the green light elicits foot withdrawal. The green light would be labeled, (a) the unconditioned response (b) the conditioned response (c) the unconditioned stimulus (d) the conditioned stimulus 7. According to Wolfgang Kohler, when one of his chimps fastened two sticks together to reach a bunch of bananas, it was showing evidence of: (a) trial-and-error learning (b) a fixed-action pattern (c) instinctual drift (d) insight 8. Which of the following is based on the principles of classical conditioning? (a) token economies (b) differential reinforcement (c) contingency management (d) systematic desensitization 9. A child's parents only allow her to play video games after she has completed all of her homework for that night. This reward system is consistent with: (a) the Premack principle (b) the Garcia effect
(c) observational learning
(d) systematic desensitization
10. Albert Bandura claimed that individuals can learn new behaviour by observing other people's behaviour being reinforced. He referred to this phenomenon as: (a) social loafing (b) vicarious reinforcement (c) symptom substitution (d) functional autonomy 11. Which of the following statement is not true of imprinting? (a) it takes place only between members of the same species (b) prenatal perception appears to play a role in some imprinting (c) it has been theorized to be a factor causing aggression in humans (d) more than two siblings may imprint to a mother at the same time 12. If a dog's owner wanted to teach the dog to catch a ball using shaping he might: (a) scold the dog each time it did not chase the ball (b) only give the dog a reinforce when it successfully caught the ball (c) initially reinforce the dog each time it picked up or sniffed the ball (d) pair the sight of the ball with an unconditioned stimulus 13. A fixed-action pattern differs from a conditioned response in that: (a) fixed-action patterns are triggered by a conditioned stimulus (b) fixed-action patterns are triggered by releasing stimuli (c) fixed-action patterns are always aggressive (d) fixed-action patterns are easier to extinguish 14. A dog that had been conditioned to scratch behind its ears by rubbing against a rough surface suddenly returns to scratching behind its ears with its paw. This is an example of: (a) spontaneous recovery (b) instinctual drift (c) homeostasis (d) first-order conditioning 15. Kohler's experiments with chimpanzees demonstrate that chimps are capable of which type of learning? (a) one-trial learning (b) insight learning (c) trial-and-error learning (d) state-dependent learning 16. According to research in observational learning, which of the following statements is most accurate? (a) a child will tend to display similar aggressive behaviour after observing an adult hitting a doll (b) it is not necessary to limit the amount of time school-age children spend watching television (c) children imitate only behaviour displayed by their parents (d) the development of social behaviour in preschool children-is derived primarily from innate tendencies 17. If a teacher wanted to gets an extremely shy student to participate in class even using shaping she might: (a) only reinforce the student for speaking up
(b) initially reinforce the student each time he looked up from his desk (c) write a note to the child's parents (d) utilize a time-out procedure 18. Trial and error learning consists of: (a) trying, failing varying procedure (b) failing repeatedly (c) attaining success without the learner seeing what the condition of successor (d) none of these 19. Responding to a conditioned stimulus in order to avoid electric shock is an example of: (a) avoidance conditioning (b) punishment (c) escape conditioning (d) successive approximation 20. Under which of the following reinforcement schedules is it most important for an organism to learn to estimate time accurately? (a) fixed ratio (b) variable interval (c) variable ratio (d) fixed interval 21. Partial reinforcement: (a) enhances classical conditioning speed and efficiency (b) interferes with classical conditioning (c) interferes with the maintenance of an operantly conditioned response (d) is never used in operant conditioning 22. The law of Effect suggests that: (a) practice alone produces learning (b) in addition to reinforcement there must be reward (c) in addition to practice there must be reinforcement (d) Skinner's view has been superseded by Hull's 23 When a light paired with a bell takes on reinforcing characteristics, the phenomenon is called _______ (a) third-order conditioning (b) anomalous conditioning (c) distinctive conditioning (d) higher-order conditioning 24. Saad receives a salary at the end of each month. His reinforcement schedule is: (a) variable interval (b) fixed interval (c) variable ratio (d) fixed ratio 25. The gambler's disease is a striking and devastating result of (a) variable interval (b) fixed interval (c) variable ratio (d) fixed ratio 26. Classical conditioning is to instrumental conditioning as __________ is to __________ (a) Type R, Type S (b) Type S, respondent
(c) Type R, operant
(d) respondent, operant
27. Which of the following is an accurate learning acquisition (a) drive, cue, response, reinforcement (b) cue, drive, response, reinforcement . (c) cue, response, drive, reinforcement (d) drive, response, cue, reinforcement 28. He walked across a field and a string of tiny goslings followed him. The researcher was ____________ and the demonstrated phenomenon was ________ (a) Harlow, contact comfort (b) Lorenz, imprinting (c) Gesell, physical bonding (d) Skinner, behaviour modification 29. Research into television violence effects upon children makes frequent reference to the classic work of _______ (a) Milgram (b) Sherif (c) Bandura (d) Asch 30. Lorenz has suggested that (a) phonemes are the key factors in child language development (b) language determines thought processes (c) duck imprinting cannot be replicated in humans (d) the general notion of imprinting is not supported by experimental evidence 31. Punishment is most effective as an aid to learning when used (a) at the beginning of a series of trials (b) at the end of a series of trials (c) to extinguish previously rewarded responses (d) in the middle of a series of trials 32. ___________ involves observing and imitating the behavior of others. (a) shaping (b) modeling (c) observing (d) praising 33. Putting animals in puzzle boxes to study their intelligence was initially undertaken by (a) Skinner (b) Pavlov (c) Atkinson (d) Thorndike 34. The definitional, concept of negative reinforcement is most central to which of the following? (a) sitting on a chair following a spanking (b) not receiving the praise expected (c) walking barefoot from hot sand onto cool grass (d) running immediately upon hearing the sound of the school bell. 35. Bandura's developmental research (a) seriously questions the validity of modeling (b) suggests that observation of aggressive models can prompt aggressive behaviour by the observer (c) suggest that love is a function of "contact comfort"
(d) points to the effectiveness of reinforcement in toilet training. 36. Which of the following would be true of instrumental conditioning? (a) there is trace presentation of CS and UCS (b) there is delayed presentation of CS and UCS (c) there is simultaneous presentation of CS and UCS (d) reinforcement increases the frequency of the response associated with it 37. Which of the following would be considered associative - rather than cognitive learning? (a) anxiety when encountering a dangerous situation (b) reading a detailed, intricate novel (c) writing a letter (d) solving a complex maze task 38. For classical conditioning, it is essential that (a) the subject be informed of desired outcome in advance (b) the UCS be inherently rewarding (c) the UCS be originally neutral (d) the CS be originally neutral 39. In which of the following situations would the most classical conditioning be expected? (a) UCS preceding CS by one-half second (b) UCS preceding CS by two seconds (c) CS preceding UCS by one-half second (d) CS preceding UCS by five second 40. The field theorist emphasizes the role of learning in (a) S - R associations (b) drive reduction (c) cognitive processes (d) sensory processes 41. The term most closely associated with the work of Tolman is (a) perceptual learning (b) sensory preconditioning (c) place learning (d) contiguity learning 42. A continuity theory of learning suggests that learning (a) is on an all-or-nothing basis (b) is sudden (c) is a gradual process (d) continues throughout one's life 43. Animal intelligence was a major work written by (a) Hull (b) Thorndike (c) Skinner (d) Watson 44. In Bandura's experimental workwith children, he has demonstrated that (a) imitation learning occurs through reservation (b) mimicking occurs through reinforcement (c) toilet training occurs through modeling
(d) aggression does not appear to be learned 45. Correctional institutions are finding which one of the following to be the most effective rehabilitative device? (a) punishment (b) isolation (c) positive reinforcement (d) negative reinforcement 46. When pilots must learn to fly a new type of passenger plane, their transfer to the new set of controls is facilitated most when the new panel (a) is similar to but has subtle functional differences from the old panel (b) is distinctly different from the old panel in all respects (c) is an exact right-left reverse of the previous panel (d) looks identical but has some functions that are the exact reverse of what they were in the previous setting 47. A primary difference between escape and avoidance conditioning is that (a) in escape conditioning, the aversive stimulus is always received by the subject (b) in escape conditioning, the aversive stimulus is not received by the subject (c) in escape conditioning, successive approximation is used (d) in escape conditioning, successive approximation is not used 48. One effect of anxiety on learning is (a) the removal of mental blocks (b) a reduction in performance on difficult tasks (c) a reduction in the ability to discriminate clearly (d) more interference with familiar material than with new material 49. The type of learning that is unique for human is (a) verbal learning (b) operant conditioning (c) classical conditioning (d) motor task learning 50. All of the following are important factors in the acquisition of motor skills except (a) feedback (b) repetition (c) distribution of practice (d) reflex action 51. In which form of conditioning is the conditioned stimulus (CS) presented after the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) (a) higher order conditioning (b) forward conditioning (c) backward conditioning (d) second order conditioning 52. In our society, money is an example of a (a) primary reinforcer (b) secondary(conditioned) reinforcer (c) negative reinforcer (d) simple operant 53 Similarity is to difference as generalization is to (a) choices (b) discrimination
(c) detectability
(d) distinction
54. Expectancy X Value = Performance is the symbolic representation of which theorist? (a) Hull (b) E. Tolman (c) D. McClelland (d) N. Miller 55. The reinforcement schedule that produces the highest rates of performance is a (a) fixed-interval schedule (b) variable-interval schedule (c) fixed-ratio schedule (d) variable-ratio schedule 56. The first systematic study of operant conditioning was performed in 1938 by (a) E L. Thorndike (b) B. F. Skinner (c) A. Bandura (d) I. Pavlov 57. The reinforcement schedule that yields the lowest performance is the (a) fixed-ratio schedule (b) variable-ratio schedule (c) fixed-interval schedule (d) variable-interval schedule 58. A rat is trained to run through a maze for food. After several days, extinction is begun by removing the food. Eventually, the rat quits running. After a delay of several days, the rat is again placed in the maze (without food) and it runs through the maze again for a while what is this process called? (a) partial extinction (b) renewed response recovery (c) spontaneous recovery (d) generalization 59. According to Bandura and Walters, all of the following processes are involved in observational learning except: (a) attention process (b) motivation process (c) reproduction process (d) chaining process 60. The repeated presentation of the CS without the UCS results in (a) spontaneous recovery (b) inhibition (c) extinction (d) higher-order conditioning 61. Social learning theory was first proposed by (a) B. F. Skinner (b) Bandura and Walters (c) Miller and Dollard (d) J. B. Watson 62. The Law of Effect is concerned with the effects of (a) hormones in behaviour (b) activity states on behaviour (c) internal drive states on behaviour (d) rewards and punishment on behaviour 63. Imprinting is the phenomenon describing (a) visual memory coding in the brain (b) the neural effect of light on the setina (c) Jung's theory of collective unconscious symbols in the mind (d) how the young of many species follow whatever conspicuous object that is first presented to them
64. Another phrase which might be used to describe the concept of instinctive behaviour is (a) innate fixed-action pattern (b) stimulus releaser (c) internal precipitator (d) both a and c 65. A grown man's fear of dogs developed after having been bitten by the neighbor's dog when he was a child. This is an example of (a) forward conditioning (b) backward conditioning (c) stimulus generalization (d) negative reinforcement 66. In the technique of shaping behaviour, which of the following is used? (a) positive reinforcement (b) neutral acknowledgment (c) negative reinforcement (d) differential reinforcement 67. A child who wins a game and gains peer approval is receiving (a) primary reinforcement (b) secondary reinforcement (c) social reinforcement (d) both b and c 68. Another name for the successive method of approximation is (a) reinforcement (b) shaping (c) fixed reinforcement (d) chaining 69. Which of the following behaviour theorists proposed that behaviour may be controlled by internal, symbolic processes? (a) Bandura (b) Watson (c) Skinner (d) Thorndike 70. Slot machine are an example of which type of reinforcement schedule? (a) fixed-interval (b) variable-ratio (c) fixed-ratio (d) variable-interval 7I. Mowrer and Solomon developed what theory to explain the interaction of classical and instrumental learning? (a) stimulus-response theory (b) opponent-process theory (c) two-process theory (d) meditational theory 72. If a person stops practicing a skill, takes a rest, and begins again, he will usually perform better than he did during the first practice period. This is due to a phenomenon called (a) secondary feedback (b) transfer of training (c) reminiscence (d) distribution of practice 73. According to John B. Watson, complex learning was considered to be (a) simultaneous conditioning of responses (b) the chaining of conditioning reflexes (c) simultaneous conditioning of responses (d) second-order conditioning of behaviour
74. Which of the following psychologists studied the tool use of apes? (a) Tolman (b) Wundt (c) Watson (d) Kohler 75. Which of the following types of learning CANNOT be directly observed? (a) operant conditioning (b) response learning (c) verbal learning (d) perceptual learning 76. A little girl with an IQ of 100 would have a mental age that is (a) slightly lower than her chronological age (b) much higher than her chronological age (c) equal to her chronological age (d) slightly higher than her chronological age 77. In negative reinforcement, (a) an aversive stimulus is administered (b) a pleasing stimulus is removed (c) response learning is faster than escape training (d) an aversive stimulus is removed 78. The law of Effect suggests that (a) practice produces learning (b) there must be practice and purpose for learning (c) reinforcement affects behaviour (d) neither practice nor reward are important to learning 79 Which of the following leads to the quickest and easiest learning of the conditioned response (CR)? (a) forward conditioning (b) simultaneous conditioning (c) trace conditioning (d) delay conditioning 80. The routine of replacing one habit with another, rather than simply extinguishing a habit, is called (a) counter-conditioning (b) discrimination (c) higher-order conditioning (d) stimulus control 81 Many time, previous learning can influence learning in new situations. This phenomenon.is known as (a) cognitive learning (b) coherence (c) transfer of training (d) secondary feedback 82. Beyond Freedom of Dignity, a book which deals with the philosophical issues of operant conditioning, was written by (a) John B. Watson (b) E. L. Thorndike (c) A. Bandura (d) B. F. Skinner
83. In studies on learned helplessness, previous exposure to uncontrollable, aversive events results in (a) little or no learning on a subsequent task in which control is possible (b) a moderate level of learning on a subsequent task in which control is possible (c) a high level of learning on a subsequent task in which control is possible (d) sophisticated avoidance skills 84. The technology of biofeedback is based on the principle of (a) backward conditioning (b) punishment (c) positive reinforcement (d) negative reinforcement 85. Which of the following leads to a decrease in the likelihood of a behaviour occurring in the future? (a) shaping (b) omission training (c) negative reinforcement (d) continuous reinforcement 86. Another name for operant conditioning is (a) social learning (b) latent conditioning (c) instrumental conditioning (d) instinctive conditioning 87. Ivan Pavlov is famous for (a) the discovery of the principles of operant conditioning (b) his theories on child development (c) discovering the mechanisms underlying conditioned reflexes (d) proving that animals can learn language 88. The cornerstone of behaviorism is the Law of Effect which states that behaviour that is followed by a positive outcome will occur more often in the future. The person who formulated the law after doing research with cats and puzzle boxes was (a) Harry Harlow (b) Edward Thorndike (c) B. F. Skinner (d) John Watson 89. Within the framework of classical conditioning, which one of the following is an example of a conditioned response? (a) paying for a meal with a credit card (b) a dog responding to verbal commands (c) experiencing fear when the telephone rings at 3.00 AM (d) practicing your tennis serve 90. Running indoors when it starts raining is an example of (a) positive reinforcement (b) escape (c) punishment (d) a primary reinforcer 91. In Pavlov's classic experiment, a dog hears the sound of a bell and then is given food powder. After a few trials, the dog salivates to both the bell and the food powder. The conditioned response is _______ while the unconditioned response is _________
(a) the bell, salivation (c) the bell, the food
(b) salivation, salivation (d) salivation, the bell
92. A rat in a Skinner box has learned that pressing a lever will produce food pellets, but only if the light above the lever is on. The animal consistently presses the lever when the light is on. When it is turned off, the rat immediately walks away from the lever until the light is turned on again. The rat's behaviour is an example of (a) generalization (b) a fear of the dark phobia (c) a discrimination (d) classical conditioning 93. You have learned to type and with experience you have reached your peak speed. No matter how much typing you do, your speed will not increase. In learning curve terms you have reached (a) plateau (b) reminiscence (c) extinction (d) asymptote 94. The pursuit rotor is used in many studies involving (a) intelligence (b) memory (c) motor learning (d) mechanical aptitude 95. The S-shaped curve indicates (a) prior familiarity with the task (b) greatest amount of improvement during the last few trials (c) the representation of the entire learning process (d) greatest amount of improvement in the first few trials 96. Guthrie is most closely associated with which of the following in learning theory? (a) reinforcement (b) habit strength (c) contiguity of S and R (d) S-R connection 97. Continued improvement in the absence of further practice is known as (a) spontaneous recovery (b) platikurtic (c) reminiscence (d) recall 98. Learning how to learn is essentially a process of (a) establishing learning sets (b) operant conditioning (c) stimulus generalization (d) non-reversal shift 99. In Mowrer's two factor theory, avoidance responses continue when no shock is presented because (a) functional autonomy is operating (b) fear is reduces by cessation of the CS (c) fear is reduces by cessation of the UCS (d) higher-order conditioning has occurred 100. According to certain learning theories, introduction of a rest interval after massed practice of a motor skill will most likely produce
(a) spontaneous recovery (c) proactive inhibition
(b) reminiscence (d) retroactive inhibition
101. What is the key distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning? (a) operant conditioning attempts to pair an unrelated stimulus and response, whereas classical conditioning attempts to extinguish such pairings. (b) operant conditioning focuses on rewards, whereas classical conditioning focuses on punishment. (c) operant conditioning attempts to pair an unrelated stimulus and response, whereas classical conditioning underscores the consequences of behaviour. (d) operant conditioning emphasizes the consequences of behaviour, whereas classical conditioning emphasizes the association between stimuli. 102. After moving into a home very near to a hospital, a young child became frightened and upset each time he heard ambulance sirens racing by. With time, the child seemed less bothered by the sirens. Eventually, the child seemed not to notice the sirens at all. This lessened reaction to the sirens is most likely caused by (a) chaining (b) habituation (c) extinction (d) sensitization 103. A pigeon is placed in a "Skinner box" which is outfitted with a key for pecking and a chute that delivers food. Through shaping, the experimenter plans to condition the bird to peck the key in order to obtain food. The experimenter will need to use (a) secondary reinforcement (b) autonomic conditioning (c) differential reinforcement (d) auto shaping 104. To motivate himself to study, a student decides that after learning a chapter of material he will treat himself to a movie. In this situation, seeing a movie is acting as a reinforcement for studying. This situation demonstrates (a) the Premack principle (b) a fixed-interval ratio schedule (c) autoshaping (d) the Garcia effect 105. An experimenter wants to train a dog to bark at a red light. The dog naturally barks at a mouse when it is presented outside the dog's cage, For countless trials, the experimenter presents the mouse and then the red light. The dog never learns to bark at the red light because (a) the UCS and the CS are presented in the wrong order (b) the UCR and the CS are not at all similar (c) the CS is not salient enough (d) the CS precedes the UCS 106. Classical conditioning is a process whereby (a) certain responses result from certain stimulate presentations (b) the CS is always presented before the UCS (c) action that are rewarded tend to be strengthened (d) learning occurs when a stimulus is paired with a certain response
107. Albert's Bandura's social learning theory holds that (a) learning is best in group settings (b) learning can be achieved by observing and modeling another person's behaviour (c) mere exposure to an aggressive scene always later elicits aggressive behaviour (d) social learning takes place at an unconscious level 108. Behaviour according to operant conditioning theory is controlled by (a) its consequences (b) free will (c) knowledge (d) instinct 109. The type of learning associated with Skinner is (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) respondent conditioning (d) observational learning 110 The law of effect states that (a) close temporal contiguity is the key characteristic in forming an association between stimulus and response (b) a response will be strengthened if the organism is rewarded for that response (c) effect is strong if the effect is long lasting (d) response is generalized across similar surroundings 111. Learning refers to (a) the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development (b) changes in an individual's thought or behaviour as a result of biological processes of aging (c) changes in an individual's thought and behaviour as a result of accumulating experience (d) the development of an individual's thought and behaviour due to interactions of biological and environmental factors 112. Which of the following learning mechanism does B.F. Skinner see as being the major means by which behaviour is learned? (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) observational learning (d) insight learning 113. A psychologist explains you that learning can be best defined in terms of underlying thought process. What theory is being stated? (a) social learning (b) cognitive learning (c) trial and error (d) none of these 114. When new acquisitions improve retention of the old, we speak of (a) positive transfer (b) negative transfer (c) reproductive facilitation (d) reproductive interference 115. In operant conditioning (a) continuous reinforcement schedule is least susceptible to extinction (b) negative reinforcement is a type of punishment (c) shaping occurs when responses are coincidently paired to a reinforced
(d) the process is related to trial and error learning 116 Positive reinforcement _________ the rate of responding: negative reinforcement _________ the rate of responding (a) increases : decreases (b) decreases : increases (c) increases : increases (d) decreases : decreases 117. Behaviour is governed by its consequences, describe: (a) supply demand theory (b) operant conditioning (c) the Yerkes Dodson law (d) psychological crisis 118. Which of the following phenomenon was studied by Pavlov? (a) maturation (b) animal cognition (c) operant conditioning (d) classical conditioning 119. The term "reinforcement" refers to the pairing of: (a) CS and US (b) CR and UR (c) US and UR (d) CS and CR 120 In Pavlovian conditioning the learned response is: (a) CS (b) CR (c) UCS
(d) UCR
121. Thorndike's "Law of effect" was an early form of the present day principle of: (a) extinction (b) contiguity (c) reinforcement (d) trial and error 122 According to the text, learning (a) always produces an improvement in behaviour (b) requires the ability to think abstractly (c) enables us to adapt to our environment (d) does not occur in simple animals 123. In Pavlov's experiments, the dog's salivation triggered by the taste of food was a/an (a) conditioned response (b) unconditioned stimulus (c) unconditioned response (d) conditioned stimulus 124. Which of the following is an unconditioned response? (a) playing jump rope (b) shivering in cold weather (c) running through a maze to get a food reward (d) clapping after a thrilling concert performance 125. In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the UCS was (a) a tone (b) salivation to the sound of a tone (c) the presentation of food in the dog's mouth
(d) salivation to the food in the mouth 126. In Pavlov's experiments, the dog's salivation triggered by the sound of the bell was a/an (a) conditioned response (b) unconditioned stimulus (c) unconditioned response (d) conditioned stimulus 127. A child's fear at the sight of a doctor is a/an (a) conditioned response (b) unconditioned stimulus (c) conditioned stimulus (d) unconditioned response 128. If a bell causes a dog to salivate because it has regularly been associated with the presentation of food, the bell is called a/an (a) unconditioned stimulus (b) conditioned stimulus (c) primary reinforcer (d) immediate reinforce 129. A real estate agent showed Badar several pictures of lakeshore property while they were eating a delicious, mouth-watering meal. Later, when Badar was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Badar, the Iakeshore property was a (a) UCS (b) UCR (c) CS (d) CR 130. For the most rapid acquisition of a CR, the CS should be presented (a) shortly after the CR. (b) shortly after the UCS. (c) shortly before the UCS. (d) at the same time as the UCS. 131. An experimenter plans to condition a dog to salivate to a light by pairing the light with food. The dog will learn to salivate to the light most quickly if the experimenter presents the light (a) 5 seconds before the food (b) 1/2 second before the food (c) 1/2 second after the food (d) 5 seconds after the food 132. Extinction occurs when a ________ is no longer paired with a __________ (a) UCR; CR (b) CS; UCR (c) UCS; UCR (d) CS; UCS 133. The occurrence of spontaneous recovery suggests that during extinction the _______ is _________ (a) CS; eliminated (b) CR; eliminated (c) CS; suppressed (d) CR; suppressed 134. Toddlers taught to fear speeding cars may also begin to fear speeding motorcycles. This best illustrates (a) latent learning (b) secondary reinforcement (c) shaping (d) generalization 135. After receiving a painful shot from a female nurse in a white uniform, 3-year-old Abbad experiences fear of any woman wearing a white dress. Abbad's reaction best illustrates (a) latent learning (b) generalization (c) shaping (d) extinction
136. The ability, to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and similar stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus is called (a) shaping (b) acquisition (c) discrimination (d) generalization 137. Noor's thumb-sucking has become habitual because she begins to feel less anxious whenever she sucks her thumb. This best illustrates the process of (a) generalization (b) classical conditioning (c) operant conditioning (d) latent learning 138. Pavlov is to __________ as Skinner is to ____________ (a) operant conditioning; classical conditioning (b) latent learning; observational learning (c) observational learning; operant conditioning (d) respondent behaviour; operant behaviour 139. A Skinner box is a/an (a) soundproofed cubicle in which organisms are classically conditioned in the absence of distracting noise. (b) aversive or punishing event that decreases the occurrence of certain undesirable behaviours. (c) special "slot machine" that is used to study the effects of partial reinforcement on gambling behaviour. (d) chamber containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a reinforcer. 140. The process of reinforcing successively closer approximations to a desired behaviour is called (a) shaping (b) partial reinforcement (c) secondary reinforcement (d) modeling 141. Five-year-old Zain is emotionally disturbed and refuses to communicate with anyone. To get him to speak, his teacher initially gives him candy for any utterance, then only for a clearly spoken word, and finally only for a complete sentence. The teacher has used the method of (a) modeling (b) delayed reinforcement (c) partial reinforcement (d) shaping 142. Saad, an air traffic controller, runs 2 miles every day after work because it reduces his level of stress. Saad's running habit is maintained by a __________ reinforcer. (a) positive (b) negative (c) secondary (d) partial 143. The taste of food and the termination of painful electric shock are both ___________ reinforces (a) positive (b) negative (c) primary (d) secondary 144. Resistance to extinction is most strongly encouraged by _________ reinforcement (a) delayed (b) negative (c) secondary (d) partial
145. A fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a/an (a) specified time period has elapsed (b) unpredictable time period has elapsed (c) specified number of responses have been made (d) unpredictable number of responses have been made 146. On the first day of class Professor Waqar tells his history students that quizzes will be given at unpredictable times throughout the semester. Clearly, studying for Professor Waqar's surprise quizzes will be reinforced on a ___________ schedule. (a) fixed-interval (b) fixed-ratio (c) variable-interval (d) variable-ratio 147. The highest rates of operant responding are associated with the __________ schedule of reinforcement (a) fixed-ratio (b) fixed-interval (c) variable-ratio (d) variable-interval 148. Jamal quit gambling after he lost over a ten thousand rupees betting on horse races. This best illustrates the effects of (a) primary reinforcers (b) secondary reinforcers (c) partial reinforcement (d) punishment 149. According to B. F Skinner, human behaviour is controlled primarily by (a) biological predispositions (b) external influences (c) emotions (d) unconscious motives 150. Who would be most likely to emphasize the importance of observational learning? (a) Watson (b) Bandura (c) Skinner (d) Pavlov 151. Skinner is to shaping as Bandura is to (a) extinguishing (b) discriminating (c) modeling (d) generalizing 152. The fact that abusive parents tend to have aggressive children best illustrates the effects of (a) latent learning (b) classical conditioning (c) modeling (d) delayed reinforcement 153. In the example of classical conditioning in which the child feared the doctor, the CS was (a) fear (b) a painful injection (c) a severe illness (d) the presence of the doctor 154. In the example of the child fearing the doctor, the child's fear of a scientist in a white lab coat illustrates the process of (a) shaping (b) spontaneous recovery (c) latent learning (d) generalization
155. A single acquisition trial may be sufficient for classical conditioning when the (a) CS is a neutral stimulus (b) UCS is presented before the CS (c) UCR quickly follows the UCS (d) UCS is a very powerful stimulus 156. Continuous reinforcement produces-learning and-extinction. (a) fast; slow (b) slow; fast (c) fast; fast (d) slow; slow 157. Which schedule of reinforcement produces the greatest resistance to extinction? (a) fixed ratio (b) fixed interval (c) variable ratio (d) variable interval 158 You have just moved from a quiet street to one with railroad tracks running right behind it. The noise of the trains keeps you awake nights at first, but after several weeks you barely notice it. A learning theorist would refer to this process as (a) acclimation (b) assimilation (c) accommodation (d) habituation 159 Pavlov's initial discovery of what is now called classical conditioning emerged from his earlier studies of (a) mating behaviour in dogs (b) operant behaviours in dogs (c) digestive reflexes in dogs (d) neurological damage in dogs 160. A young child is seated for the first time in a dentist's chair. The first time the drill is turned on the child shows no particular response. Then the drill is applied to the cavity, causing sharp pain and a reflexive tensing of all muscles. From then on, every time the drill comes on the child muscles become tense. This is best described as (a) operant conditioning, with the sound of the drill as the negative reinforcer (b) operant conditioning, with pain as the negative reinforcer (c) classical conditioning, with the sound of the drill as the conditioned stimulus (d) classical conditioning, with pain as the conditioned stimulus 161. An infant becomes quite excited when his mother returns home from work each day. Gradually, the child starts to become excited whenever he hears a key turning in the door lock. In the classical conditioning model, the noise of the key would be (a) an unconditioned stimulus (b) a conditioned stimulus (c) a primary stimulus (d) a discriminative stimulus 162 A mother boils water in a whistling kettle to heat her baby's bottle. Eventually the baby gets excited whenever she hears a similar whistle. In the classical conditioning model, the baby's response to the whistle is (a) an unconditioned response (b) a conditioned response (c) a chained response (d) an operant response 163 In one of Pavlov's experiments, a dog learned to salivate at the sound of a bell. In this case, the bell was-and the salivation it elicited was-
(a) an unconditioned stimulus; a conditioned response (b) a conditioned stimulus; a conditioned response (c) a conditioned stimulus; an unconditioned response (d) a conditioned reflex, a conditioned response 164. In classical conditioning, which element determines what the conditioned response will be? (a) the conditioned stimulus (b) the unconditioned stimulus (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b 165 The basic difference between Pavlov's principle of conditioning and the empiricist philosophers' law of association by contiguity is that (a) Pavlov discovered the brain mechanisms by which association occurs (b) Pavlov, unlike the philosophers, understood that learning is a response to the pairing of two stimuli (c) Pavlov based his conclusion on observable responses, not unobservable mental images (d) all of the above 166. A person will automatically blink in response to a puff of air in the eye. If the word pickle is spoken just before the puff on a number of occasions, the person will eventually blink is response to hearing the word pickle. This is an example of (a) habituation (b) classical conditioning (c) operant conditioning (d) generalization 167. A dog will withdraw its leg in a flexion response if its paw is shocked. If a tone is repeatedly paired with the shock, the dog will eventually withdraw its leg in response to the tone. This is an example of (a) habituation (b) classical conditioning (c) operant conditioning (d) discrimination 168. If, after a conditioned reflex has been learned, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, which of the following is most likely to occur? (a) habituation (b) second-order conditioning (c) discrimination (d) extinction 169. Pavlov and his colleagues found that extinction of a conditioned reflex does not return the animal to its unconditioned state. Which of the following phenomena is evidence that this is so? (a) generalization (b) higher-order conditioning (c) discrimination (d) spontaneous recovery 170. The phenomenon of spontaneous recovery provides evidence that (a) extinction returns the learner to the unconditioned state (b) extinction inhibits but does not destroy the conditioned reflex (c) extinction will not occur in a thoroughly conditioned subject (d) both a and b
171. A dog is classically conditioned to salivate to a tone of a particular pitch. The dog later responds to higher and lower tones that have not been presented previously. This is an illustration of (a) discrimination (b) generalization (c) habituation (d) higher-order conditioning 172. In imitation of his parents, a toddler says "hello" every time he hears the phone ring. He also says "hello" when he hears other bells ring. This phenomenon is referred to as (a) discrimination (b) reutilization (c) generalization (d) habituation 173. After classical conditioning, a learner can be trained not to generalize through a procedure known as (a) higher-order conditioning (b) shaping (c) discrimination training (d) reward contrast 174. Your dog wags his tail whenever he hears your car pull into the driveway, but not when he hears other cars arrive. In the classical conditioning model, this phenomenon would be considered an example of (a) habituation (b) generalization (c) stimulus discrimination (d) shaping 175. A dog salivates at a particular tone and at no others, although evidence suggests that the dog's response to the tone should generalize at least to others close to it in pitch. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? (a) the dog received discrimination training; the chosen tone was always followed by food and other tones never were (b) the dog received discrimination training; because it consistently received food only after the chosen tone was played, the dog learned to hear the difference between that tone and others. (c) a and b (d) none of them 176 Suppose that, after an animal has been classically conditioned to salivate to a tone, a flash of light is paired with the tone. After several trials, the animal came to salivate to the light. What was happened? (a) higher-order conditioning (b) shaping (c) observational learning (d) spontaneous recovery 177. A shy person has agreed to say "hello" to ten people during a day. If these greetings are met with friendly responses, the shy person is more likely to initiate a greeting in the future. This procedure is most accurately categorized as (a) habituation (b) classical conditioned (c) operant conditioning (d) observational learning 178 How did Edward Thorndike study instrumental or operant responses? (a) he used a procedure similar to Pavlov's
(b) he placed animals in boxes from which they learned to escape (c) he placed animals in boxes equipped with a bar which, when pressed, delivered a reward (d) he trained rats to swim through flooded mazes 179. The law of effect formulated by Thorndike states that (a) a stimulus will elicit a conditioned response, if it has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus (b) responses leading to satisfying results become more likely to be repeated and those leading to unpleasant results become less likely to be repeated (c) the effect of experiencing two events contiguously is that they will tend to be associated in the future (d) any response that produces an effect will tend to be repeated in the future 180. B. F. Skinner's laboratory procedures were most clearly modeled on (a) Pavlov's salivation measurement technique (b) Thorndike's puzzle boxes (c) Watson's procedures to condition a fearful response (d) Tolman's maze-learning experiments 181. A consequence of a response that makes the response more likely to occur again is called (a) an operant (b) a discriminative stimulus (c) a reinforcer (d) a shaper 182 Biofeedback training, which can sometimes help subjects to control their own blood pressure and other internal physiological phenomena, is a variation of (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) observational learning (d) imprinting 183. The operant conditioning technique used to control physiological responses of which we are not normally aware is called (a) imprinting (b) behaviour therapy (c) observational learning (d) biofeedback training 184 Behaviour therapists can help people to .overcome such unwanted habits as smoking or overeating through (a) operant conditioning (b) observational learning (c) place learning (d) habituation 185. A teacher wants an unruly child to sit still in the classroom. The teacher might reward the child for sitting for five minutes, then ten minutes, and so on. This strategy uses the technique called (a) shaping (b) generalization (c) extinction (d) chaining 186. In initial training for the acquisition of a response, the most efficient schedule of reinforcement is (a) fixed-ratio reinforcement (b) fixed-interval reinforcement
(c) variable-ratio reinforcement
(d) continuous reinforcement
187. When an operant response-stops occurring because it is no longer reinforced, which of the following has taken place? (a) an avoidance response (b) generalization (c) extinction (d) negative reinforcement 188. A mother has been giving her son ten rupees for every day that his room is clean after several weeks, she decides that her son has learned the value of cleaning up and withdraws the daily reward. He stops cleaning his room. To which of the following is this response most likely to be attributable? (a) an avoidance response (b) generalization (c) extinction (d) negative reinforcement 189. The procedure in which only a portion of correct operant responses are reinforced is called (a) partial reinforcement (b) observational learning (c) extinction (d) negative reinforcement 190. A woodworker is paid for every dozen cabinet doors carved. This worker is operating under a-schedule (a) fixed-interval (b) fixed-ratio (c) variable-interval (d) variable-ratio 191. When viewed in terms of adaptiveness, it makes sense that- schedules produce faster response rates than- schedules (a) ratio; interval (b) interval; ratio (c) variable; fixed (d) fixed, variable 192 What type of reinforcement schedule produces the greatest resistance to extinction? (a) continuous reinforcement (b) partial reinforcement, especially on a fixed schedule (c) partial reinforcement, especially on a variable schedule (d) the schedule of reinforcement is not related to resistance to extinction 193. Which of the following reinforcement schedules in operant conditioning would be best to use if you want to produce behaviour that is very resistant to extinction? (a) continuous (b) fixed ratio (c) variable ratio (d) fixed interval 194 If we reinforce a response in the presence of a particular stimulus and do not reinforce the response in the absence of that stimulus, the stimulus is serving as (a) a schedule of partial reinforcement (b) a reward contrast (c) a discriminative stimulus (d) a token
195. Suppose a rat is reinforced with food pellets for lever pressing but only while a buzzer is sounding. The buzzer is (a) a reward contrast (b) a discriminative stimulus (c) a schedule of partial reinforcement (d) a token 196. Which of the following is most clearly a primary reinforces? (a) praise (b) money (c) food (d) grades 197 A token is (a) a placebo (b) a negative reinforcer (c) a secondary reinforcer that can be exchanged for a primary reinforcer (d) a primary reinforcer in humans and a secondary reinforcer in nonhuman animals 198. Suppose a patient in a mental hospital is given a token each time he makes his bed. When he has a certain number of tokens, he can redeem them for candy. This is an application of (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) biofeedback training (d) observational learning 199. Any process that increases the likelihood that a particular operant response will occur again is called (a) reinforcement (b) punishment (c) discrimination (d) chaining 200. A student who has never studied decides to try it and is delighted to receive a B on the exam rather than the usual D. The student starts studying more regularly as a result of (a) classical conditioning (b) habituation (c) positive reinforcement (d) b and c 201. If the removal of a stimulus following a response increases the likelihood that the response will recur, the stimulus is (a) a positive reinforcer (b) a negative reinforce (c) a discriminative stimulus (d) a secondary reinforcer 202. For most people, personal insults, fines, and headaches serve as (a) negative reinforces (b) positive reinforces (c) either a or b depending on the discriminative stimulus (d) punisher but not reinforcers 203. Which of the following is necessary before an avoidance response can take place? (a) a positive reinforcer (b) a discriminative stimulus (c) punishment (d) shaping
204. One interpretation of Pavlov's conditioned experiments dogs is that the dogs learned to expect food when the conditioned stimulus appeared, and their salivation was a consequence of that expectation. This interpretation fits best with which of the following perspectives on learning? (a) the behavioural perspective (b) the cognitive perspective (c) the ecological perspective (d) none of the above 205. Edward Tolman proposed that through exploration of its environment, an animal acquires; (a) a cognitive map (b) a sequence of simple response (c) no new knowledge (d) an ecological perspective 206. Learning that is not immediately demonstrated in the animal's behaviour is called (a) observational learning (b) imprinting (c) latent learning (d) delayed learning 207. The phenomenon in which young birds follow the first moving object they observe is (a) imprinting (b) bonding (c) assimilation (d) accommodation 208. Learning is best defined as (a) any behaviour emitted by an organism without being elicited (b) a change in the behaviour of an organism (c) a relatively permanent change in the behaviour of an organism due to experience (d) behaviour based on operant rather than respondent conditioning 209. The type of learning associated with Skinner is (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) respondent conditioning (d) observational learning 210. In Pavlov's original experiment with dogs, the meat served as a/an (a) CS (b) CR (c) UCS (d) UCR 211. In Pavlov's original experiment with dogs, the tone was initially a/an-stimulus; after it was paired with meat, it became a/an-stimulus (a) conditioned; neutral (b) neutral; conditioned (c) conditioned; unconditioned (d) unconditioned; conditioned 212. In order to obtain a reward a monkey learns to press a lever when a bell tone is on but not when a Buzzer tone is on. What kind of training is this? (a) extinction (b) generalization (c) spontaneous recovery (d) discrimination 213. Which of the following statements concerning reinforcement is correct? (a) learning is most rapid with partial reinforcement, but continuous reinforcement produces the greatest resistance to extinction (b) learning is most rapid with continuous reinforcement, but partial reinforcement produces the greatest resistance to extinction (c) learning is fastest and resistance to extinction is greatest after continuous reinforcement
(d) learning is fastest and resistance to extinction is greatest following partial reinforcement 214. Cognitive processes are (a) unimportant in classical and operant conditioning (b) important in both classical and operant conditioning (c) more important in classical than in operant conditioning (d) more important in operant than in classical conditioning 215. The highest and most consistent rate of response is produced by a-schedule (a) fixed-ratio (b) variable-ratio (c) fixed-interval (d) variable-interval 216. A response that leads to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus is one being (a) positively reinforced (b) negatively reinforced (c) punished (d) extinguished 217. When a conditioned stimulus is presented without an accompanying, unconditioned stimulus--will soon take place (a) generalization (b) discrimination (c) extinction (d) spontaneous recovery 218. Which of the following is an example of reinforcement? (a) presenting a positive stimulus after a response (b) removing an unpleasant stimulus after a response (c) being told that you have done a good job (d) all of the above are examples 219. Which of the following is a form of associative learning? (a) classical conditioning (b) operant conditioning (c) observational learning (d) all of the above 220. Last evening Mariam ate her first burger at a fast food restaurant. A few hours later she became ill. It can be expected that (a) Mariam will develop an aversion to the sight of a burger (b) Mariam will develop an aversion to the taste of a burger (c) Mariam will not associate her illness with the food she ate (d) Mariam will associate her sickness with something she experienced immediately before she became ill 221. Which of the following is an example of shaping? (a) a dog learns to salivate at the sight of box of dog biscuits (b) a new drive learns to stop at an intersection when the light change to red (c) a parrot is rewarded first for making any sound, then for making a sound similar to "Laila," and then for "speaking" its owner's name. (d) All of them
222. In classical conditioning, the relationship between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response is (a) learned (b) reflexive (c) hereditary (d) conditioned 223. When Pavlov repeatedly presented the conditioned stimulus without pairing it with the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response failed to occur. This is known as (a) conditioning failure (b) recovery (c) extinction (d) habituation 224. Nabeel was in college when a thunder storm struck his community. Although no one was injured, he was terribly frightened. Now, he is afraid of all storms. This is anexample of (a) stimulus generalization (b) stimulus discrimination (c) spontaneous recovery (d) reflexive relationships 225. John Watson's conditioning of Little Albert to fear a white rat was based on (a) little Albert's natural fear of the rat (b) the reflexive relationship between fear and loud noises (c) the child's natural anxiety in the presence of stranger (d) little Albert's ability to generalize fear to many different stimuli 226. Which of the following is the correct order of stimuli and responses during the acquisition stage? (a) UCS-CS-CR (b) UR-UCS-US (c) CS-UCS-UCR (d) CS-UCR-UCS 227. Spontaneous recovery of a classically conditioned response usually occurs immediately following (a) the presentation of the UCS (b) acquisition (c) a rest period (d) extinction 228. Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer? (a) food (b) money (c) paycheck
(d) new clothes
229. During extinction, the _____ is omitted, as a result, the __________ seems to disappear (a) UCS; UCR (b) CS;CR (c) UCS;CR (d) CS; UCR 177. Putting on your coat when it is cold outside is a behaviour that is maintained by (a) discrimination learning (b) negative reinforcement (c) classical conditioning (d) positive reinforcement 231 You teach your dog to fetch the paper by giving him a cookie each time he does so. This is an example of (a) operant conditioning (b) classical conditioning
(c) secondary reinforcement
(d) partial reinforcement
232. Operant conditioning is to _______ as classical conditioning is to ___________ (a) Pavlov; Watson (b) Skinner; Bandura (c) Pavlov; Skinner (d) Skinner; Pavlov 233. A child had a very traumatic water-related experience of almost drowning. Now the child's best friends are standing in the water and are calling to the child to join them. This approach to the child's fear problem would be an example of (a) learning reversal (b) counter-conditioning (c) implosion (d) conditioned aversion 234. Bandura's studies of aggression suggest that: (a) frustration is necessary antecedent condition of aggressive modeling (b) observation of aggressive responses increases the likelihood of aggressive behaviour in children (c) adult models are more influential than peer models in stimulating aggression in children (d) direct expression of hostile feelings is most common in children with high frustration tolerance 235. Kohler's experiment on chimpanzee problem solving demonstrated that: (a) insight can be explained by trial-and-error learning (b) not all learning is trial-and-error (c) chimpanzees used cognitive maps to find the bananas (d) chimpanzees do not learn by trial-and-error
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69.
c d a b b b c c d a c c a b c c c a
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70.
b d b b a c d d c d c b d b c d d b
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71.
d d a b a d a a b c b a c d d d d c
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72.
b d c a d b b b d c a b b b c d b c
73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145. 149. 153. 157. 161. 165. 169. 173. 177. 181. 185. 189. 193. 197. 201. 205. 209. 213. 217. 221. 225. 229. 233.
b d c b c d c d a b b b c c c d c d A b D d b c d c c c a a c c b a b b c c c c b
74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166. 170. 174. 178. 182. 186. . 190. 194. 198. 202. 206. 210. 214. 218. 222. 226. 230. 234.
d c d c b c a b d b c d c a c d d b c b d d b b b c b b d b c b a c c b d a c b b
75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127. 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159. 163. 167. 171. 175. 179. 183. 187. 191. 195. 199. 203. 207. 211. 215. 219. 223. 227. 231. 235.
d b a c b c b c b c d d c a b b d c a c d c b b b a b d c a b a b a b b d c c a c
76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108. 112. 116. 120. 124. 128. 132. 136. 140. 144. 148. 152. 156. 160. 164. 168. 172. 176. 180. 184. 188. 192. 196. 200. 204. 208 212. 216. 220. 224. 228. 232.
c a c b c c b a a b a b b b d c a d d C c c b d c c b a c c c c b c d b b a a d
Chapter 6
Memory 1. In reciting the alphabet for a school play, Fatima says the first ten letters in perfect order but then slips up and recites the remaining letters in incorrect order. This is an example of: (a) physical processing (b) selective attention (c) the recency effect (d) the primacy effect 2. Associating a list of items you need to remember with a sequence of specific places is called: (a) encoding specificity (b) chunking (c) the method of Loci (d) cognitive mapping 3. McClelland and Rumelhart developed the idea of: (a) functional fixedness (b) the dual-code hypothesis (c) reconstructive memory (d) parallel distributed processing 4. The tip-of-tongue phenomenon is due to a difficulty in: (a) encoding (b) storage (c) retrieval (d) working memory 5 In his studies of memory, Ebbinghaus used the method of savings to determine the (a) amount of material retained from a prior learning task (b) number of trials taken to relearn old material (c) amount of time taken to unlearn old material and learn something new (d) efficacy of using nonsense syllables to study memory 6. Iconic memory refers to: (a) visual working memory (c) visual short-term memory
(b) auditory working memory (d) visual sensory memory
7. John goes to a party, gets drunk, and is introduced to a coworker. At work the next day, John sees the coworker, but does not remember his name. That night, however, John goes to a party, drinks, sees the coworker, and remembers his name. Which of the following can best explain this sequence of events? (a) retroactive inhibition (b) spreading activation (c) metamemory (d) state-dependent learning 8. Subjects are asked to read two stories: one from their culture and one from an unfamiliar culture. In a surprise recall test, subjects are then asked to retrieve the story from memory. Bartlett's reconstructive theory would predict that: (a) subjects' recall will be better when the story is not from their culture (b) subjects' recall will be better when the story is from their culture
(c) recall will be equally accurate for all stories (d) subjects' will only be able to remember 7 + 2 sentences in the stories 9. The memory that holds information for the shortest period of time is known as (a) sensory memory (b) long term memory (c) short term memory (d) implicit memory 10. George Miller found that short-term memory could contain about how many chunks of information? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 11 11. A researcher presents pictures to subjects for them to memorize. A week later, the researcher shows those pictures, interspersed with several new pictures, to the subjects. The subjects' task is to indicate which pictures they have seen before. The researcher is most likely studying: (a) recall memory (b) recognition memory (c) semantic memory (d) semantic verification 12. The method of Loci is an example of: (a) the primacy effect (c) a mnemonic
(b) the recency effect (d) a heuristic
13. The fact that we remember only the main details in a story and retell it with various "filters" is supportive of which theory? (a) reconstructive (b) reappearance (c) regressive (d) free recall 14. Which type of memory is being tested when you take a multiple-choice test? (a) method of Loci (b) Recognition (c) savings method (d) free recall 15. Which of the following is the best way to present a tone in order to enhance memory of quickly vanishing letters on a tachistoscopic display? (a) just as the letters are vanishing from the screen (b) one second after the letters have vanished from the screen (c) five second after the letters have vanished from the screen (d) with an inhibiting stimulus to create metacontrast 16. Musa made a list of classic movies he wanted to see in no particular order. When asked to reconstruct the list, he successfully listed all the detective movies, then all the comedies, and then all the horror. This is an example of: (a) chunking (b) recency (c) assimilation (d) clustering 1
7. Which of the following theorists invented the concept of the method of savings? (a) Bartlett (b) Chomsky (c) Craik (d) Ebbinghaus 18. Which of the following best illustrates the difference between semantic and episodic memory? (a) remembering how to tie your shoes vs remembering where you bought your last pair of shoes (b) remembering the meaning of phenomenon vs remembering how phenomenon is spelled (c) knowing the meaning of words vs remembering where you went to school (d) remembering where you live vs remembering how to dial a phone 19. Retrograde amnesia is a phenomenon in which a person suffering brain injury in an accident loses memory of: (a) early childhood experiences (b) events immediately after the injury (c) events immediately prior to the injury, with earlier memory being unimpaired (d) middle childhood events, then forgets early childhood events 20. In which method, the subject is required to recognize the original items from among a number of mixed items (a) method of recall (b) method of saving (c) recognition (d) re-arrangement 21. The earliest studies of verbal learning and rote memory were conducted by: (a) Thorndike (b) Pavlov (c) Miller (d) Ebbinghaus 22 Forgetting that occurs solely as a function of the passage of time is called: (a) amnesia (b) decay (c) adaptation (d) interference 23. The process by which a stimulus is attended to, identified, studied, and incorporated into memory is called: (a) storage (b) reasoning (c) encoding (d) retrieval 24. A major distinction between episodic and semantic memory was central to the work of: (a) Miller (b) Tulving (c) Ebbinghaus (d) Skinner 25. When Ebbinghaus set out to study human memory, he had a basic problem to resolve. He needed to:
(a) move beyond the introspection practices of the structuralists (b) find a novel-type stimulus his subjects wouldn't already know (c) mask familiar words in the paired-associates method of presentation (d) find a way to tap long-term rather than short-term memory 26. "One is a bun. Two is a shoe. Three is a tree. Four is a door." This is part of the _________ method of improving memory. (a) Loci (b) visual imagery (c) flashbulb (d) peg-word 27. Zehra has learned something and now has been away from it for several months. A researcher measured how long it took her to learn it initially and now will measure how long it takes her to relearn it. By comparing the difference in the two times required for learning, the researcher has instituted the-method of measuring memory. (a) PQ4R (b) saving (c) sensory (d) maintenance 28. Which of the following will be least effectively retained? Learning to _____ (a) swim (b) ride a bicycle (c) drive a car (d) recite a poem 29. The "magical number 7 plus or minus 2" refers to _______ and ___________ (a) Brown, flashbulb memories (b) Tulving, semantic memory (c) Miller, short-term memory (d) Forester, sensory register memory 30. According to ________ and the _______ we have a tendency to remember the unfinished task. (a) Ziegarnik, Ziegarnik effect (c) Coates, serial position effect (b) Brown, tip-of-the-tongue (d) Tulving, episodic memory effect 31. Laboratory techniques for measuring retention have NOT included: (a) serial-recall (b) recognition (c) memory trace (d) paired-association 32. The fact that a task interrupted prior to completion is remembered better than a completed task is called: (a) proactive facilitation (b) proactive inhibition (c) Zeigarnik effect (d) von Restorff effect 33. An inability to learn new information and form new long-term memories is called: (a) retroactive amnesia (b) proactive amnesia (c) anterograde amnesia (d) implicit amnesia 34. Iconic memory decay in under two seconds from the:
(a) short-term store (c) long-term store
(b) hippocampus (d) sensory register
35 Ghazala remembers a phone number by rehearsing the digits aloud. She is using: (a) an acoustical code (b) a computer code (c) a semantic code (d) a visual code 36. A student has several weeks in which to plan study for an upcoming test. Which of the following time allotment strategies would the student be best advised to use? (a) massing study time in the third week before the test (b) massing study time just before the test (c) distributing study time throughout the several week period (d) studying on every fifth day 37. In contrast to a dissimilar-items list, a similar-items list is (a) more difficult to learn (b) easier to learn (c) learned with equivalent ease (d) more susceptible to the serial position effect 38. Which of the following is not an experimental approach to recall? (a) single-trial, free recall (b) split-half, free recall (c) paired association (d) serial presentation 39. Thinking about the meaning of a word leads to better recall than thinking about the sound or appearance of a word. This is called the (a) level of processing effect (b) serial position effect (c) forgetting cure (d) functional fixedness effect 40 Performance of an earlier task is interfered with by the learning of a second, more recent task in (a) proactive facilitation (b) proactive inhibition (c) retroactive facilitation (d) retroactive inhibition 41. Remembering the name of the first president of Pakistan Remembering the name of your first teacher: Semantic memory: (a) implicit memory (b) episodic memory (c) long-term memory (d) explicit memory 42. Which one of the following is not specifically an aid to retention? (a) chunking (b) over learning (c) meaningfulness (d) knowledge of results 43. The "Saving method" developed by Ebbinghaus to measure memory performance was an early form of measuring (a) encoding specificity (b) semantic memory (c) implicit memory (d) deductive reasoning
44. To remember the order of the seven colour of the spectrum, many people learn "ROY - G BIV" (Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet). This is easier to learn because (a) pictures are easier to remember than words (b) semantic encoding results in better memory than physical encoding (c) the number of chunks to be learned is reduced from 7 to 3 (d) words at the beginning or end of a list are remembered better than words at the middle of a list 45. A woman met a car accident and after recovering, she cannot remember events right before the crash, it is called (a) anterograde amnesia (b) retrograde amnesia (c) anterograde interference (d) retrograde interference 46 Memorizing by rote (i.e. repeating something over and over until it is learned) is also called (a) declarative rehearsal (b) elaborative rehearsal (c) maintenance rehearsal (d) distributed practice 47. After having been away from the following tasks for several years, a person could be expected to return to which one with least practice? (a) a list of nonsense syllables (b) a list of digit spans (c) bicycle riding (d) verbatim recollection of a story 48. Children learning the alphabet is a common form of (a) serial learning (b) repetition (c) pairing
(d) rehearsal
49. A young child tries to recite the alphabet. He begins "A, B, C, D" and ends with "X, Y, Z" but the middle is a scrambled assortment of letters. This is a common example of (a) the associate learning effect (b) the conceptual learning effect (c) the rehearsal effect (d) the serial position effect 50. An important function of rehearsal in verbal learning is (a) mediation (b) acclimation to the meaning of the material (c) transference of material from short term to long term memory (d) both a and b 51. The serial-position curve shows that the most material is learned (a) at the end of a list (b) during all phases of learning (c) at the beginning of a list (d) in the middle of a list 52. The earliest studies on record of verbal learning and memory were conducted by (a) Thorndike (b) Pavlov (c) Skinner (d) Ebbinghaus 53. Echoic code is to auditory system as iconic code is to (a) tactile experience (b) sensory system (c) visual system (d) olfactory system
54. Those items that are most likely to be forgotten are those (a) with the least digits/letters (b) at the beginning of a long list (c) in the middle of a long list (d) at the end of a long list 55. The phenomenon of backward masking provides evidence for (a) long-term memory (b) short-term memory (c) iconic coding (d) latent inhibition 56. Material in long-term memory (a) may be lost if the person is interrupted while retrieving it (b) is hypothesized to involve ongoing electrical processes in the brain rather than changes in the brain cells (c) includes all memory that is not currently active (d) may include information that never passed through short-term memory 57. Remembering precisely where you were, and what you were doing, when you first heard shocking news about a national event or the death of a close relative is characteristic of __________ memory. (a) eidetic (b) iconic (c) echoic (d) flashbulb 58. Which of the following is an example of a recognition task? (a) fill-in-the-blank question (b) essay type question (c) multiple-choice question (d) true-false questions 59. Mnemonics are (a) a characteristic of sound (b) techniques used to improve memory (c) the scientific term for a memory location in the brain (d) the sound produces when two notes an octave apart are played simultaneously 60. Eidetic memory is most often found in (a) adults (c) children
(b) depressed adults (d) mentally-retarded children
61. During an interview a person may focus on the interviewer's remarks and reactions. However, at some future occasion he may be able to remember the visual details of the room in which the interview took place. This ability refers to (a) multiple encoding (b) parallel storage (c) visual memory (d) none of the above 62. Echoic memory refers to (a) visual perception (b) eidetic perception
(c) verbal codes (d) auditory perception
63. Which of the following is true of Short-Term Memory (STM)? (a) it has a storage capacity of ten items
(b) it does not require rehearsals (c) STM is highly susceptible to interference (d) information always travels from STM to Long-Term Memory 64. Which group represents the three ways to measure the amount of long-term memory retention? (a) recognition, recall, and rehearsal (b) recognition, savings, and rate of forgetting (c) recall, recognition, and savings (d) saving, recall, and retrieval 65. We usually recommend a film to friends if it started well and had a terrific ending, even though the middle was slow and boring. The film's producer is taking advantage of the _________ and _________effect (a) primacy, recency (b) cognitive, primacy (c) cognitive, inertial (d) recency, overgeneralization 66. Which of the following is an argument against the use of multiple choice tests? (a) they rarely have predictive validity (b) only creative people do well on multiple choice tests (c) when asked to explain their choices, people give odd and incorrect reason for why they selected the correct choice (d) recognition of the correct answer is often harder than recalling it 67. Which of the following is a theory of forgetting that stresses the similarity of items in memory? (a) decay (b) interference (c) consolidation (d) psychodynamic 68. Which of the following memory stores has a decay time of about 250 milliseconds? (a) short-term memory (b) echoic memory (c) tactile memory (d) iconic memory 69. George Sperling's well known experiment on iconic memory showed that subjects had trouble remembering more than five or so items because of (a) retroactive interference (b) proactive interference (c) rapid decay (d) masking 70. Endel Tulving has proposed three memory systems. They are (a) mnemonic, dichotic, and melodic (b) procedural, semantic, and episodic (c) sensory, short-term, and long-term (d) semantic, syntactic, and pragmatic 71. Based on principles of learning and memory which of the following should be a good study habit? (a) spend considerable amount of time in self-test (b) massive study or cramming the night before a test (c) read each assignment slowly several times from first word to last (d) spend the most study time on the final parts of a reading assignment
72. Which memory holds a large amount of information for about 2 seconds? (a) tactile memory (b) echoic memory (c) iconic memory (d) short-term memory 73. According to decay theory, forgetting is due to a /an (a) consolidation problem (b) availability problem (c) encoding problem (d) retrieval problem 74. The order in which visual information is processed is (a) echoic memory, short-term memory, long-term memory (b) short-term memory, episodic memory, long-term memory (c) iconic memory, short-term memory, long-term memory (d) episodic memory, short-term memory, long-term memory 75. You decide to go up in your roof to set your TV antenna. You get out your ladder and climb up on the roof. As you approach the antenna, you lose your footing and fall off the roof. Twenty minutes later, you wake up on your lawn. You cannot recall anything that occurred during the last 45 minutes, i.e., thinking about the roof, getting out the ladder, climbing it, etc. this is an example of (a) anterograde amnesia (b) post-trauma depression (c) retrograde amnesia (d) a fugue state 76. The area of the brain where short-term memories are transferred to long-term memory is the (a) medulla (b) hippocampus (c) pons (d) hypothalamus 77 A brain tumor in the hippocampus of the brain would impair a person's ability to learn new things while leaving their old memories intact. This condition is known as (a) retroactive inhibition (b) anterograde amnesia (c) proactive inhibition (d) retrograde amnesia 78. A subject in an experiment sits in a chair facing a slide screen. Twenty words are projected on the screen, one at a time. Then the subject is asked to report as many of the twenty words, in any order, that they can remember seeing. This is an example of a ___________ memory experiment. (a) paired association (c) free recall (b) recognition task (d) serial learning 79. The three functions of long-term memory are (a) storage, remembering, and retrieval (b) meaning, emotions, and recall (c) encoding, storage, and retrieval (d) consolidation, organization, and retrieval 80. According to Paivio's dual-code model of memory, the two types of codes used to store long-term memories are (a) visual and auditory (b) semantic and syntactic (c) implicit and explicit (d) verbal and visual
81 General knowledge frameworks that help people interpret and remember events are called (a) chunks (b) prototypes (c) schemas (d) propositions 82. The Von Restorff effect applies to (a) serial position (c) proponent stimulus
(b) task completion (d) memory .span
83. Given a very limited time (only a few hours) during which to study for a test, a person's best bet would be (a) distributed practice (b) massed practice (c) a combination of distributed/massed/distributed (d) a combination of massed/distributed/massed 84. Which one of the following could be expected to enhance performance on a vigilance task? (a) threat of punishment (b) rest periods (c) high pay (d) coworker interaction 85. Which of the following types of learning is measured by a matching item on a test? (a) saving (b) relearning (c) reconstruction (d) recognition 86. "It was last spring. I had studied for the An Approach to Psychology and had done quite well on it." This would be an example of (a) semantic memory (b) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon (c) acoustical encoding (d) episodic memory 87. Which one of the following persons could be expected to have the most lasting command of examination material (assuming equal study time and ability)? (a) one who engaged solely in rote memory (b) one who studies all the material silently (c) one who recited portions of the material periodically (d) one who listened to the material on a cassette recorder/CD player 88. Voters will be heading to the polls tomorrow for an election. Five political candidates will be speaking on a political program this afternoon. One of those candidates by the luck of the draw, can choose the order of presentation. This candidate would be best advised to speak (a) second (b) third (c) fourth (d) fifth 89. The fact that we remember only the main details in a story and retell it with various "fillers" is supportive of which theory? (a) reconstructive (b) reappearance (c) regressive (d) free recall 90. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is due to a difficulty in (a) encoding (b) storage (c) retrieval
(d) working memory
91 Which of the following statements is true of maintenance rehearsal? (a) Maintenance rehearsal keeps material in short-term memory. (b) Maintenance rehearsal keeps materialin long-term memory. (c) Maintenance rehearsal is also called secondary rehearsal. (d) Maintenance rehearsal uses elaboration. 92. According to Craik and Lockhart, which of the following levels of processing would result in the highest recall of information? (a) Phonological (b) Syntactic (c) Semantic (d) Acoustic 93. According to Ebbinghaus' forgetting curve, which pattern of forgetting is likely to take place after learning new material? (a) Forgetting happens gradually and consistently (b) Forgetting happens gradually for 24 hours and then more rapidly (c) Forgetting happens quickly and is then offset by spontaneous recovery (d) Forgetting happens rapidly at first and then gradually 94. Bartlett found that memory is largely (a) procedural (b) episodic
(c) declarative (d) reconstructive
95. Aisha memorized her shopping list. When she got to the store she found, she had forgotten many of the items in the middle of the list. This is an example of (a) inappropriate coding (b) retrograde amnesia (c) proactive interference (d) the serial position effect 96. One of the following is not a method of measuring retention (a) recognition (b) relearning (c) recall
(d) reminiscence
97. Which of the following factors influence the impact of interference on learning? (a) the nature of material being learned (b) the organization and meaningfulness of the information learned (c) the type of activity that follows studying (d) all of the above are correct 98. The SQ3R method emphasizes the importance of (a) experimentation (b) the case study (c) rehearsal (d) replication 99.The three most basic information-processing steps involved in memory are (a) attention, rehearsal, and organization (b) recognition, recall, and relearning (c) reading, reciting, and reviewing (d) encoding, storage, and retrieval
100. The process of encoding refers to (a) the persistence of learning over time (b) the recall of information previously learned (c) getting information into memory (d) a clear memory of an emotionally significant event 101. The process of getting information out of memory storage is called (a) encoding (b) relearning (c) retrieval
(d) rehearsal
102. After finding her friend's phone number. Zehra was able to remember it only "long enough to dial it correctly. In this case, the telephone number was clearly stored in her __________ memory. (a) ionic (b) short-term (c) flashbulb (d) implicit 103. The conscious repetition of information in order to maintain it in memory is called (a) automatic processing (b) rehearsal (c) priming (d) chunking 104. Retrieval cues are to priming as rehearsal is to (a) imagery (b) chunking (c) encoding
(d) repression
105. The impact of over-learning on retention best illustrates the value of (a) the method of loci (b) automatic processing (c) chunking (d) rehearsal 106. Our inability to remember information presented in the seconds just before we fell asleep is most likely due to (a) encoding failure (b) the misinformation effect (c) retroactive interference (d) motivated forgetting 107. The tendency to immediately-recall the first and last items in a list better than the middle items is known as the-effect. (a) next-in-line (b) misinformation (c) serial position (d) spacing 108. Children can better remember ah ancient Latin verse if the definition of each unfamiliar Latin word is carefully explained to them. This best illustrates the value of (a) iconic memory (b) meaning in coding (c) the method of loci (d) automatic processing 109. We are more likely to remember the words "typewriter, cigarette, and fire" than the words "void, process, and inherent, "because the first three words are more likely to be ___________ encoded (a) automatically (b) visually (c) proactively (d) implicitly
110. A mnemonic device is a (a) mental picture (b) test or measure of memory (c) technique for encoding language sounds (d) memory aid 111. As an aid to memorizing lengthy speeches, ancient Greek orators would visualize themselves moving through familiar locations. They were making use of (a) the serial position effect (b) the method of loci (c) implicity memory (d) the next-in-line effect 112. In order to remember to buy sugar, honey, organs, and potatoes the next time he goes grocery shopping, Nabil forms the word "shop" with the first letter of each item. He is using a memory aid known as (a) chunking (b) the spacing effect (c) the serial position effect (d) the method of loci 113. A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli is called--memory. (a) iconic (b) implicit (c) echoic (d) flashbulb 114. Explicit memory is to long-term memory as iconic memory is to-memory (a) flashbulb (b) short-term (c) sensory (d) implicit 115. Echoic memory refers to (a) the encoded meanings of words and events in long-term memory (b) a vivid memory of an emotionally significant event (e) the automatic retention of incidental information about the timing and frequency of events (d) a momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli 116. "The magical number seven, plus or minus two" refers to the storage capacity of ________ memory (a) short-term (b) explicit (c) flashbulb (d) implicit 117. Which type of memory has an essentially unlimited storage capacity? (a) echoic memory (b) short-term memory (c) state-dependent memory (d) long-term memory 118. Remembering how to solve a jigsaw puzzle without any conscious recollection that one can do so best illustrates _________ memory (a) explicit (b) flashbulb (c) sensory (d) implicit 119. Memory of facts is to-- as memory of skills is to ________ (a) brain stem; hippocampus (b) explicit memory; implicit memory (c) automatic processing; effortful processing (d) short term memory; long term memory
120. When an eyewitness to an auto accident is asked to describe what happened, which test of memory is being utilized? (a) recall (b) recognition (c) rehearsal (d) reconstruction 121. Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues? (a) recognition (b) recall (c) relearning (d) rehearsal 122. Words, events, places, and emotions that trigger our memory of the past are called (a) context effects (b) iconic traces (c) retrieval cues (d) schemas 123. The misinformation effect best illustrates the dynamics of (a) memory construction (b) automatic processing (c) repression (d) proactive interference 124. Policed interrogators have been trained to ask less suggestive and more open-ended questions in order to avoid (a) long-term potentiating (b) mood-congruent memory (c) the misinformation effect (d) proactive interference 125. The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information is called (a) state-dependent memory (b) retroactive interference (c) the spacing effect (d) proactive interference 126. Ajwad so easily remembers his old friend's telephone number that he finds it difficult to recall his new friend's number. Ajwad's difficulty best illustrates (a) retroactive interference (b) state-dependent memory (c) proactive interference (d) repression 127. After learning the combination for his new CNIC No. Mahboob is unable to remember the combination for his National Tax Number. Mahboob is experiencing the effects of (a) encoding failure (b) state-dependent memory (c) retroactive interference (d) proactive interference 128. Retroactive interference involves the disruption of (a) encoding (b) storage (c) retrieval
(d) all the above
129. The finding that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than people who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve (a) encoding failure (b) repression (c) implicit memory loss (d) interference 130. Compulsive gamblers frequently recall losing less money than is actually the case. Their memory failure best illustrates (a) proactive interference (b) the serial position effect
(c) the next-in-line effect
(d) motivated forgetting
131. Repression involves a failure in (a) encoding (b) storage
(c) retrieval
132. Memories of traumatic physical abuse are most unlikely to be (a) encoded (b) repressed (c) rehearsed
(d) all the above
(d) retrieved
133. The decay or fading of memory with time is considered to be a failure in (a) encoding (b) storage (c) retrieval (d) Ali of the above 134. The process of interference can lead to a failure in (a) encoding (b) storage (c) retrieval (d) any of the above 135. The greatest interference occurs when old and new material are (a) learned through distributed practice (b) each learned on separate days (c) automatically processed (d) similar to each other 136. The modal of the mind proposes that memory consists of three stores, called the (a) sensory store, pre-attentive store, and long-term store (b) sensory store, short-term store, and long-term store (c) short-term store, working store, and semantic store (d) ionic store, echoic store, and working store 137. Suppose you are concentrating on your work when your father asks you a question. You say "What?", but before the questions is repeated, you "rehear" it. Presumably, you retrieve the memory from your? (a) working store (b) sensory store (c) short-term store (d) long-term store 138. Compared to other memory stores, the sensory store is considered to have (a) low capacity for information and short duration (b) low capacity for information and long duration (c) high capacity for information and short duration (d) high capacity for information and high duration 139. Iconic memory is another name for __________ memory and has been found to last (a) visual sensory; about half a minute (b) visual sensory; less than 1 second (c) auditory sensory; up to 3 seconds (d) auditory sensory; about 1 minute
140. Cognitive psychologists often liken the short-term store of the mind to which part of a computer? (a) the keyboard (b) the printer (c) the central processing unit (d) the monitor 141. The process that controls the flow of information from the sensory store into the short-term store is (a) encoding (b) attention (c) retrieval (d) rehearsal 142. The process that controls the movement of information from the "short-term store into the long-term store is (a) retrieval (b) attention (c) encoding (d) recall 143. New information in the short-term store-pass on to the ________ (a) must; working store (b) may or may not; working store (c) must; long-term store (d) may or may not; long-term store 144. In order to recite a poem you learned in primary school, you must retrieve it from the _________ and put it to use in the __________ (a) echoic store; long-term store (c) long-term store; echoic store (b) long-term store; short-term store (d) pre-attentive store; attentive store 145. Free-recall tests of list learning show that items presented early are recalled (a) poorly, because they have been followed by other items (b) well, because they are rehearsed more than later items and are likely to be encoded into long-term memory (c) poorly, because they are unlikely to be in short-term memory when the test is given (d) poorly, for the reasons given in both a and b 146. In general, the best way to remember information is to (a) repeat it over and over (b) try to understand it (c) look at it once and put it away for a while (d) make your mind blank and meditate on it 147. One of the most effective ways to remember information is to make personal sense of it. This process is called: (a) maintenance (b) repetition (c) elaboration (d) chunking 148. The efficiency of memory can be increased if we organize information so that the amount of information in each unit increases while the number of separate units decreases. This process is called (a) chunking (b) rehearsal (c) encoding (d) retrieval
149. Suppose subjects are asked to listen to the following list of letters and then to repeat them in order: i, n, t, r, o, p, s, y, c, h. Subjects who perform the task most accurately and with least apparent effort probably have (a) chunked the letters into two recognizable word fragments (b) used the key word method of study (c) used maintenance rehearsal (d) taken advantage of the primacy effect 150. Research with digit span has shown that most people can repeat correctly about seven digits and that (a) one individual increased his span to about 80 digits by chunking digits (b) extensive practice can lead to only small increases in digit span (c) heredity plays a large role in digit span (d) people who remember a large number of digits have faster reaction times 151. The term schema refers to (a) a proposition (b) a control process in long-term memory (c) the mental representation of a concept (d) the hierarchical organization of information 152. Suppose your representation of the concept "dog" is based on observations such as "has fur," "has four legs," and "barks." This would be most consistent with the (a) analogue theory (b) prototype theory (c) feature theory (d) both b and c 153. A general mental representation of the sequence of events normally involved in going to a restaurant would be an example of (a) a script (b) a context-dependent memory (c) a proposition (d) an episodic memory 154. Our ability to find information in memory on the basis of colour, function, and many other characteristics indicates that (a) memory is divided into short-term and long-term stores (b) memory is more like a supermarket than a dictionary (c) the mind is capable of organizing information in a vast number of ways (d) retrieving information from long-term memory is a learned skill 155. Aristotle's principle association by contiguity refers to our ability to recall (a) objects commonly associated with a named object (b) the characteristics of a named object (c) events that commonly follow or precede a named event (d) all of the above 156. If you hear the world car, you might think immediately of types, headlights, steering wheel, and other elements of a car. This observation is the basis for
(a) the principle of association by similarity (b) the principle of free association (c) the concept of iconic memory (d) the principle of association by contiguity 157. Hermann Ebbinghaus plotted forgetting curves to-represent his performance at recalling nonsense syllables. He found that (a) forgetting takes place gradually, with about the same amount being forgotten each day over the tested period (b) most forgetting takes place soon after learning, with the rate of forgetting becoming more and more gradual after that (c) the rate of forgetting is quite modest at first, but then gradually increases as time goes on (d) forgetting does not begin to occur until several weeks after original learning, when recall performance declines rapidly 158. Subjects were given a list of nonsense syllables to memorize. Subjects in Group A slept for several hours immediately after studying the list and were tested soon after waking. Subjects in Group B engaged in normal, waking activity for several hours after studying the list, and then were tested. The result was that (a) group A forgot more items than Group B, supporting the decay theory of forgetting (b) group A remembered more items than group B, supporting the interference theory of forgetting (c) group B forgot more items than group A, supporting the primacy effect on memory (d) group B remembered more items than group A, supporting the encoding specificity principle of memory. 159. Suppose you are filling out a credit-card application that asks for your previous and current addresses. You cannot remember your previous address because your new address keeps intruding, a problem known as (a) retroactive interference (b) proactive interference (c) a recency effect (d) the feature theory 160. The effects of memory interference are greatest when the two sets of items are (a) similar in nature (b) dissimilar in nature (c) learned in different contexts (d) unusual 161. Imagine that you plan to give subjects two lists of items to remember. If the first is a list of pets and you want to minimize interference between the lists, which of the following would be the worst topic for the second list (a) common zoo animals (b) other pets (c) farm animals (d) furniture 162. A multiple-choice question like this one tests-, while a fill-in question tests (a) primacy, recency (b) recency; primacy (c) recognition; recall (d) recall; recognition 163. Recall may be more difficult than recognition because it requires people to supply their own
(a) retrieval cues (c) features
(b) prototypes (d) context
164. The encoding-specificity principle suggest that the most effective retrieval cue is (a) one that was prominent at the time an item was encoded (b) one associated with the fewest items in memory (c) one that the subject specifically attempts to use a retrieval cue (d) one that was noted*after the item was encoded 165. People tend to recall better if tested in the same environment in which they originally learned the information. This is known as (a) state-dependent memory (b) verbatim recall (c) context-dependent memory (d) proactive memory 166. In the phenomena of context and state-dependent memories, context and state provide (a) features (b) prototypes (c) levels of processing (d) retrieval cues 167. Hypnosis causes subjects to be more (a) susceptible to misleading information (b) able to concentrate and thus better able to remember (c) careful in separating fact from inference (d) hesitant and less confident about what they remember 168. Recalling childhood birthdays is an example of which type of memory? (a) episodic (b) implicit (c) procedural (d) semantic 169. People's knowledge of their own past experiences is considered---information (a) procedural (b) episodic (c) semantic (d) conceptual 170. Semantic memory and episodic memory are classes of (a) short-term memory (b) iconic memory (c) explicit memory (d) implicit memory 171. The word meanings and other general knowledge stored in a person's memory are considered-information (a) episodic (b) procedural (c) semantic (d) pre-attentive 172. Your knowledge that automobile emissions contribute to air pollution is an example of _________ memory, which is a subclass of ________ memory (a) semantic; implicit (b) semantic; explicit (c) episodic; implicit (d) episodic; explicit 173. When you perform a learned skill or a habitual response, you are calling on_______ memory (a) semantic (b) procedural (c) episodic (d) declarative
174. The knowledge that enables a cricketer to execute powerful sixes would be an example of ___________ information (a) procedural (b) semantic (c) episodic (d) declarative 175. Implicit memories are extremely dependent on (a) the immediate situation (b) primacy and recency effects (c) the availability of adequate attentional resources (d) a carefully constructed retrieval strategy 176. The logical flow of thought depends in large part on ___________ which is a type of (a) conceptual priming; implicit memory (b) conceptual priming; explicit memory (c) perceptual priming; implicit memory (d) perceptual priming; explicit memory 177 In order, the sequence of steps in the PRTR method is (a) preview, review, think actively, read (b) plan, read, take notes, review (c) preview, read, think actively, review (d) plan, review, take notes, read 178. The way the mind processes, stores, and retrieves information is the primary concern of the ___________ perspective (a) evolutionary (b) social-cultural (c) behavioural (d) cognitive 179. A major principle underlying the PRTR study method is that (a) people learn and remember material best when they actively process it (b) many students overestimate their mastery of textbook and lecture material (c) study time should be spaced over time rattier than crammed into one session (d) "overlearning" disrupts efficient retention 180. In an experiment to determine the effects of attention on memory, memory is the (a) control condition (b) intervening variable (c) independent variable (d) dependent variable 181. Dr. Shahneela is studying how memory changes as people get older. She is most likely a/an-psychologist (a) social (b) cognitive (c) development (d) experimental 182. The three steps in memory information processing are (a) input, processing, output (b) input, storage, output (c) input, storage, retrieval (d) encoding, storage, retrieval
183. Visual sensory memory is referred to as (a) iconic memory (c) echoic memory (b) photomemory (d) semantic memory 184. Echoic memories fade after approximately (a) 1 hour (b) 1 minute (c) 30 seconds
(d) 1 second
185. Which of the following is not a measure of retention? (a) recall (b) recognition (c) relearning
(d) retrieval
186. Our short-term memory span is approximately _________ items (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10 187. Memory techniques such as the method of loci, acronyms, and the peg-word system are called (a) consolidation devices (b) imagery techniques (c) encoding strategies (d) mnemonic devices 188. One way to increase the amount of information in memory is to group it into larger, familiar units. This process is referred to as (a) consolidating (b) organization (c) memory construction (d) chunking 189. Kandel and Schwartz have found that when learning occurs, more of the neurotransmitter ______ is released into synapses (a) ACh (b) dopamine (c) serotonin (d) noradrenaline 190. Studies demonstrate that learning causes permanent "neural changes in the _______ of animals neurons (a) myelin (b) cell bodies (c) synapses (d) all the above 191. Memory for skills is called (a) explicit memory (b) declarative memory
(c) episodic memory (d) implicit memory
192. Which of the following best describes the typical forgetting curve? (a) a steady, slow decline in retention over time (b) a steady, rapid decline in retention over time (c) a rapid initial decline in retention becoming stable thereafter (d) a slow initial decline in retention becoming rapid thereafter 193. Which of the following measures of retention is the least sensitive in triggering retrieval? (a) recall (b) relearning (c) recognition (d) deja vu
194. According to the serial position effect, when recalling a list of words you should have the greatest difficulty with those (a) at the beginning of the list (b) at the end of the list (c) at the beginning and end of the list (d) in the middle of the list 195. Craik and Watkins gave subjects a list of words to be recalled. When subjects were tested after a delay, the items that were best recalled were those (a) in the middle of the list (b) at the beginning of the list (c) at the end of the list (d) at the beginning and the end of the list 196. Repression is an example of (a) encoding failure (c) motivated forgetting
(b) memory decay (d) all of the above
197. Which of the following was not recommended as a strategy for improving memory? (a) active rehearsal (b) distributed study (c) speed reading (d) encoding meaningful associations 198. The process of getting information out of memory storage is called (a) encoding (b) retrieval (c) rehearsal (d) storage 199. Amnesic patients typically experience disruption of (a) implicit memories (b) explicit memories (c) iconic memories (d) echoic memories 200. Complete this analogy: "Fill in the blanks test questions are to multiple-choice questions as (a) encoding is to storage (b) storage is to encoding (c) recognition is to recall (d) recall is to recognition 201. Which of the following sequences would be best to follow if you wanted to minimize interference-induced forgetting in order to improve your recall on the psychology midterm? (a) study, eat, test (b) study; sleep, test (c) study, listen to music, test (d) study, exercise, test 202. At your high school reunion you cannot remember the last name of your class teacher. Your failure to remember is most likely the result of (a) encoding failure (b) storage failure (c) retrieval failure (d) state-dependent memory 203. Army personal cannot remember the details of the torture he experienced as a prisoner of war. According to Freud, failure to remember these painful memories is an example of (a) repression (b) retrieval failure (c) state-dependent memory (d) flashbulb memory
204. To help him remember the order of ingredients in difficult recipes, master chef Zakir often associates them with the route he walks to work each day. Zakir is using which mnemonic technique? (a) peg-word system (b) acronyms (c) the method of loci (d) chunking 205. The type of memory with large capacity and brief duration is (a) sensory memory (b) short-term memory (c) working memory (d) long-term memory 206. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for the process of memory (a) encoding-retrieving-storing (b) storing-retrieving-encoding (c) retrieving-storing-encoding (d) encoding-storing-retrieving 207. Which type of memory has both the greatest capacity and the longest duration? (a)sensory memory (b) short-term memory (c) long-term memory (d) working memory 208. Repeating a person's name over and over immediately after being introduced is an example of (a) chunking (b) elaboration (c) a mnemonic device (d) maintenance rehearsal 209. In regard to long-term memory, most psychologist believe that (a) all information stored in long-term memory is there until we die (b) long term memories are largely reconstruction from the original information (c) people don't' remember anything that happened before age three (d) memory failure involves permanent forgetting, not just retrieval failure 210. To store information in long-term memory, one should use (a) attention (b) maintained rehearsal (c) elaborative rehearsal (d) repetition 211. The capacity of short-term memory can be increased through (a) chunking (b) attention (c) rehearsal
(d) selective encoding
212. A person's memory of his wedding would be stored in ________ memory (a) semantic (b) autobiographical (c) metamemory (d) procedural 213. Which of the following is NOT a correct match? (a) fill-in test item-recall (b) essay test item-recognition (c) multiple choice test item-recognition (d) true-false test item-recognition
214. Words like angel, redwood, and vehicle are easier to retrieve than words like political, religious, and betrayal because (a) they are shorter words (b) they are more meaningful words (c) they lend themselves better to the use of mental images (d) they don't require elaborative rehearsal techniques to transfer to long-term memory 215. Which of the following types of memory is most resistant to destruction? (a) episodic memory (b) metamemory (c) semantic memory (d) procedural memory 216. Which of the following is NOT a mnemonic device? (a) method of loci (b) narrative chaining (c) elaborative rehearsal (d) key word method 217. If you prepare for your next psychology exam by studying for several short periods separated by rest periods or breaks, you are using (a) massed practice (b) distributed practice (c) cramming (d) elaborative rehearsal 218. Chess players are able to remember in great detail the positions of chess pieces on a chess board as long as the positions are related to actual chess games. The best explanation for this is their use of (a) massed practice (b) schemas (c) mnemonic devices (d) the encoding specificity principle 219. A student who has studied German in high school, takes a course in French in college and now has trouble remembering the German. This is an example of the effects of (a) retroactive interference (b) proactive interference (c) state-dependent learning (d) encoding specificity 220. Alan Baddeley is one of the leading figures in research on (a) working memory (b) implicit memory (c) semantic memory (d) procedural memory 221. A sixth grade student needs to learn the colours of the rainbow in the correct order for a test. Why would learning "Roy G. Biv" be helpful: (a) it can be more easily visualized (b) it is less susceptible to retroactive inhibition (c) it uses fewer pieces of information (d) it invokes the Zeigarnik effect 222. The Ebbinghaus curve: (a) shows a gradual drop in retention followed by a steep decline (b) shows a steep initial drop in retention followed by a gradual decline (c) shows an S-shaped pattern
(d) shows higher retention for rote learning than for concept learning
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145. 149. 153. 157. 161. 165.
d a a a d d b c d a b b d c d b a c b b c c a d d c d b a d b d d b b b b a a b b c
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166.
c d c b c b d a d b d c c c c d c b c c c d c d c b a d c d c c d d c c b a c b c d
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127. 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159. 163. 167.
d d b b c c b c a a c c c c b c b a c c b c a c d b c b d b a c c d b d c c d a a a
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108. 112. 116. 120. 124. 128. 132. 136. 140. 144. 148. 152. 156. 160. 164. 168.
c b c d c b d c c d c a d c c c d b b d b d c d c c b a a a c c b b c b a c d a a a
169. 173. 177. 173. 185. 189. 193. 197. 201. 205. 209. 213. 217. 221.
b b c b d c a c b a a b b c
170. 174. 178. 174. 186. 190. 194. 198. 202. 206. 210. 214. 218. 222.
c a d a c c d b c d c b b b
171. 175. 179. 175. 187. 191. 195. 199. 203. 207. 211. 215 219.
c a a a d d b b a c a d a
172. 176. 180. 176. 188. 192. 196. 200. 204. 208. 212. 216. 220.
b a d a d c c d G d b c a
Chapter 7
Higher Mental Abilities 1. In considering the nature of intelligence, experts would be most likely to agree that intelligence is a/an (a) inborn ability to perform well on standard intelligence tests (b) capacity for goal-directed adaptive behaviour (c) general trait that underlies success on nearly any task (d) multiple array of completely independent adaptive capacities 2. Impaired language comprehension following a stroke would most probably be diagnosed as: (a) dyslexia (b) aphagia (c) Wernicke's (d) Broca's aphasia 3. In order to solve a particular problem, subjects must use a hammer and a nail as units of measurement. This experiment is most directly concerned with: (a) demand characteristics (b) crystallized intelligence (c) functional fixedness (d) semantic priming 4. The split-half procedure is a method of: (a) sampling groups (c) rejecting the null hypothesis (b) measuring reliability (d) assessing validity 5. A study following the lives of gifted children may be classified as a: (a) longitudinal study (b) true experiment (c) cross-sectional study (d) quasi-experiment 6. A morpheme may best be defined as: (a) an orderly arrangement of words in a syntactical sequence (b) a single word used to convey an complex idea (c) the meaning of a word in any given context (d) the smallest unit of language that conveys a meaning 7. The babbling behaviour of six month old infants: (a) is similar for nearly all children including deaf infants (b) develops more slowly in children born to mute parents (c) is absent if the child is deaf (d) is more frequent and consistent in girls than in boys 8. Syntax is concerned with: (a) how phonemes are combined to make morphemes (b) how morphemes are combined to make words (c) how words are combined to make sentences
(d) how sentences are combined to make paragraphs 9 Chomsky and Berko would be likely to agree that: (a) use of halo phrases represents the first step in language acquisition (b) language is taught by waiting for certain verbalizations to occur and then rewarding them (c) cognitive development is driven by the internalization of interpersonal processes (d) certain innate structures account for acquisition of language and grammar 10. An IQ of 59 on a standard IQ test would be classified as (a) mildly retarded (b) moderately retarded (c) severely retarded (d) profoundly retarded 11. Which of the following psychologists were influential in the development of the intelligence test? (a) Henry Murray and Freud (b) Alfred Adler and Allport __________ (c) Erik Erikson and Kurt Lewin (d) Alfred Binet and David Wechsler 12. According to the theories of Thomas Szasz, (a) IQ is determined mainly by genetic factors (b) neurotic behaviour stems from disordered dearly parent/child relationship (c) schizophrenia usually results from chemical abnormalities (d) mental illness is largely a social and legal problem 13. The statistical method used to elicit information concerning the component parts of intelligence is known as: (a) factor analysis (b) construct validity (c) Spearman's g factor (d) hypothesis testing 14. If reliability is 0.00, which of the following is true? (a) the standard error of measurement is relatively high (b) the standard error of measurement is relatively low (c) the test is to long (d) validity is high 15. The ability to quickly grasp relationships in novel situations and make correct deductions from them requires: (a) crystallized intelligence (b) fluid intelligence (c) parallel processing (d) episodic memory 16. The word "bugs" consists of: (a) one morpheme and three phonemes (b) one. morpheme and four phonemes (c) two morphemes and three phonemes (d) two morphemes and four phonemes 17. The groupthink process is not characterized by:
(a) inhuman solution (c) restricted discussion
(b) critical thinking (d) group cohesiveness
18. A two-sided communication is best defined as a communication: (a) from both a high and low credibility source (b) in which a person argues a position contrary to his own beliefs (c) which includes arguments both for and against a position (d) which includes both the image and sound of the communicator 19. According to a subject's mental set, a hockey stick is used to hit a ball. However, in a problem solving task, the subject uses the hockey stick to prop open a door. This is an example of: (a) functional fixedness (b) divergent thinking (c) inductive reasoning (d) deductive reasoning 20. Having never seen a sparrow before, Iffah identifies the sparrow as a bird because it has wings, and birds have wings. This is an example of: (a) a schema (b) a script (c) an algorithm (d) metacognition 21. Noor has been to Murree on three different weekends, and every time she has been there, it has rained Based on this information, Noor determines that it's always raining in Murree. This is an example of: (a) divergent thinking (b) the availability heuristic (c) perseveration (d) spreading activation 22. According to current psychological thinking, children's earliest sentences are considered telegraphic in the sense that: (a) one utterance follows predictably from the next (b) many words and word endings are missing (c) meaning is often communicated in code-like personal idiom (d) we can infer knowledge of complex syntactic structures from such simple utterances 23. Which of the following is not one of the four basic components of language? (a) phonology (b) semantics (c) syntax (d) morphology 24. Which of the following would probably acquire language the fastest? (a) a girl exposed to only one language (b) a boy exposed to only one language (c) a girl exposed to two languages (d) a boy exposed to two languages 25. Chomsky theorized that human possess an innate ability to acquire language. He referred to this as: (a) a deep structure (b) a language acquisition device (c) a fixed-action pattern (d) a transformational grammar
26. The main advantage of a heuristic over an algorithm is that a heuristic: (a) involves metacognition (b) is faster than an algorithm (c) is an example of divergent thinking (d) avoids functional fixedness 27. Vygotsky is best known for his concept of: (a) transformational grammar (b) zone of proximal development (c) psychosocial crises (d) strange situation 28. Convergent and divergent thinking were first defined by: (a) Herbert Simon (b) J. P. Guilford (c) Martin Seligman (d) Joseph Wolpe 29. Farid refuses to go to costume parties because he knows how people behave at such parties. He has likely developed which of the following about parties? (a) a prototype (b) a heuristic (c) a script (d) a divergence 30. Which of the following terms is associated with Henry Murray and the Thematic Apperception Test? (a) need to achieve (b) authoritarianism (c) locus of control (d) belief in just world 31. Musa is attractive and assertive. He arrives at work on time each day, and never complains. When his coworkers are asked to assess Musa's intelligence, they consistently rate him much higher than his scores on an intelligence test. This is an example of: (a) the mere exposure effect (b) the halo effect (c) the placebo effect (d) the fundamental attribution error 32. The performance of which of the following activities is LEAST likely to be facilitated by the presence of an audience? (a) Running (b) adding numbers (c) taking a final examination (d) memorizing a script 33. For Noam Chomsky, the semantic interpretation of a sentence comes from: (a) surface structure (b) deep structure (c) divergent thinking (d) transformational rules 34. Who hypothesized a general "g" factor to intelligence? (a) Robert Sternberg (b) David Wechsler (c) Louis Thurstone (d) Charles Spearman 35. A researcher has just developed a new test of intelligence and wants to determine whether it is a valid measure. The new test is given to a large group of children and those same children are given a second, will-established IQ test. Scores children attained on each of the two tests are then
compared through correlation. This procedure for determining the validity of the new test is labeled: (a) content validity (b) concurrent validity (c) conjoint validity (d) test-retest validity 36. Which one of the following is not true of the WAIS? (a) used with adults (b) block design (c) digit span (d)MA/CAX100 37. Phonemes are: (a) measurements (b) syllables (c) the smallest units of meaningful sound (d) the smallest units of sound 38. As a person fills in a number series such as 3, 6, 9 ___________ 18, he is engaging in the thinking process known as: (a) extrapolation (b) interpolation (c) structuring (d) modeling 39. Which one of the following was developed by the Army as the first group-administered test of intelligence? (a) Otis (b) Beta (c) Alpha (d) Bender Gestalt 40. According to ___________, there is an inborn competence for language acquisition and a set acquisition pattern that will be followed regard-less of the culture in which one is born. (a) Skinner (b) Mowrer (c) Chomsky (d) Gardner 41. "I am the smallest unit of sound, "p", "d", "k", I am-". (a) a morpheme (b) a subject (c) a proposition (d) a phoneme 42. Language comprehension is associated with _________ area of the brain. (a) Broca's (b) Gage's (c) Forester's (d) Wernicke's 43. All cows are animals. All animals are living. Therefore, all cows are living (a) heuristic (b) syllogism (c) logarithm (d) transformation 44. A young child learns that his father has two legs, spectacles, and is a bit balding. One day on the street, while passing a balding man, the child says, "Daddy". This is a case of: (a) using an algorithm (b) using a semantic logarithm (c) over-generalizing (d) conceptual anomie 45. Thought models do not include: (a) automatization
(b) hierarchical network
(c) spreading activation
(d) parallel distributed processing
46. Which is the last of the pre-linguistic stages in a child's development of speech? (a) phonemes (b) basic cry (c) babbling (d) anagrammatic 47. According to prototype theory, a prototype for a concept: (a) must contain most, but not all, of the features necessary for definition within that class (b) is an eidetic image of a concept (c) must follow the principle advanced by Kohler (d) must follow the principle advanced by Rescorla 48. Not among the elements that Thurstone found comprising intelligence is (a) verbal comprehension (b) memory (c) space visualization (d) creative problem solving 49. In the present intelligence classification system, the former category of moron would now be included within (a) mildly retarded (b) trainable (c) severely retarded (d) profoundly retarded 50. In screening application whose employment would involve winding small electronic coils. Which of the following would be most useful? (a) intelligence tests (b) pursuit rotor (c) finger dexterity test (d) electrical knowledge tests 51. A personnel selection test that requires previous knowledge and mastery of a given body of materials, in effect is, (a) an aptitude test (b) an achievement test (c) an intelligence test (d) a test of creativity 52. Terman's study of gifted children would be considered (a) latitudinal (b) longitudinal (c) laboratory method y (d) representational method 53. Reaction time (a) decreases with age up to approximately thirty years (b) decreases with age up to approximately forty years (c) increases with age up to approximately forty years (d) increases with age up to approximately thirty years 54. When a testing organization includes instructions to be read verbatim to each test-talking group. The organization is concentrating upon (a) dependent variable (b) intervening variables (c) standardization (d) reliability
55. The syllogism is a form appropriate to (a) inductive thinking (c) evaluative thinking
(b) deductive thinking (d) divergent thinking
56. Which of the following is primarily a verbal test? (a) WAIS (b) WISC (c) Blacky
(d) Stanford-Binet
57. In the Guilford model for problem solving, which of the following occurs first? (a) input (b) filtering (c) cognition (d) production 58. An ability that can be expected to continue improving after age of thirty-five is (a) numerical (b) manual (c) spatial reasoning (d) verbal comprehension 59. To decide whether a two-digit number is divisible by 9, add the two digits. If they sum to 9, the number is divisible by 9. This is an example of a/an (a) schema (b) prototype (c) syllogism (d) algorithm 60. Among the following, the most rigorous type of validity is (a) face (b) split-half (c) content
(d) predictive
61. The smallest meaningful units of a language are (a) tacts (b) morphologies (c) morphemes (d) phonemes 62. A rule of thumb for solving problems that is generally correct but may be imperfect is called a/an (a) heuristic (b) syllogism (c) algorithm (d) inference 63. Schemata are (a) basic elements in colour vision (c) plans for conducting experiments
(b) diagrams of the respiratory system (d) cognitive structures in memory
64. Eidetic imagery is (a) a step in mathematical thought (b) a clear visual memory (c) most prominent among elderly persons (d) highly correlated with general intelligence 65. Which one of the following statements about IQ scores is true? (a) The highest validity is found in early IQ test scores (b) there is a negative correlation between early and later test scores (c) the highest reliability and lowest validity are found in. early test scores (d) there is virtually no predictive validity between scores obtained prior to age two and those obtained at a later age
66. Concurrent validity is demonstrated by which one of the following? (a) examining of test content by a panel of experts (b) correlating scores with a test taker's general performance in other areas (c) correlating scores on two halves of the same test (d) correlating a given test with other established tests in the field 67. In contrast to the Stanford-Binet Scale, the Wechsler Scale (a) was developed through intensive child interviews (b) separates verbal from performance IQ (c) has a different standard deviation for each age group (d) utilizes the MA/CA - type computational formula 68. Chomsky includes which one of the following in his explanation of grammar acquisition in children? (a) "programmed" nervous system (b) learned concept of human language (c) learned concept of language specific to one's culture (d) archetypal communication 69. Intelligence tests for infants (a) sample the same abilities tested at later ages (b) provide initial information relating to aptitude (c) are not accurate predictors of later IQ (d) require no standardization 70. Intelligence tests are not considered reliable (a) at any age (b) before 7 years of age (c) before puberty (d) before 20 years of age 71. By obtaining two scores for one subject with just one test, a researcher achieves (a) test-retest reliability (b) alternate reliability (c) split-half reliability (d) parallel reliability 72. Which is an advantage of group test? (a) reduction of cost (b) more reliable norms (c) more objective scoring (d) all of the above 73. Which of the following problems would require divergent thinking? (a) adding a column of numbers (b) repairing a broken typewriter (c) choosing the best move in a card game (d) deciding whether to turn left or right at an intersection 74. The general Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is an example of a/an, (a) aptitude test (b) achievement test (c) intelligence test (d) cross-cultural test
75. Which of the following is the correct formula for a measure of intelligence quotient in children? (a) IQ= CA/MAX 100 (b) IQ=MA/CAX 100 (c) IQ= CA/MAX 110 (d) IOMA/CAX110 76. Item analysis is essential to test construction because it provides (a) feedback on the effectiveness of the test (b) for construct validity in the test (c) for reliability in the test (d) for validity in the test 77. According to Guilford's model of intelligence, how many dimensions of intelligence are there? (a) three dimensions (b) 180 dimensions (c) 120 dimensions (d) 10 dimensions 78. According to Guilford, divergent thinking requires (a) one solution (b) arithmetic reasoning (c) fluency of ideas (d) categorization 79. Conjunctive, disjunctive, and relational concepts refer to (a) simple concepts (b) complex concepts (c) percepts (d) imagery concepts 80. According to Guilford's model of intelligence, which of the following is true? (a) the Stanford-Binet test is wrong to use as a performance measure (b) intelligence consists of a specific set of traits that can be classified (c) intelligence is a unitary characteristic (d) intelligence is a function of experience, not of genetic endowment 81. Problem that have more than one correct solution require (a) divergent thinking (b) symbolic thought (c) disjunctive thinking (d) convergent thinking 82. Alfred Binet is famous for developing the first (a) adult intelligence test (b) child intelligence test (c) fixed alternative test (d) projective test 83. Of the following tests, the most suitable for determining the IQ of most 12-year old is the (a) WISC (b) WAIS (c) WPPSI (d) CPI 84. Which researcher developed the Culture Fair Intelligence Test? (a) Spearman (b) Raven (c) Cattell (d) Rorschach 85. Psychologists and educators have come to realize that creativity and intelligence (a) are synonymous (b) are not synonymous
(c) are negatively correlated
(d) appear as bimodal functions
86. An IQ range of 20 - 35 would indicate what degree of retardation? (a) mild (b) moderate (c) severe (d) profound 87. If a person's score on the WAIS is one standard deviation below the mean, his IQ score would be at about what percentile: (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 34 88. Guilford's model of intelligence is (a) specifically geared toward the learning disabled (b) not based on unique, individual differences (c) a two-factor theory (d) a multiple-factor theory 89. What is the main disadvantage of cross-cultural tests? (a) reliability problem (b) predictive and diagnostic value is lost (c) they compare people of different cultures (d) all of the above 90. In psychology, measurement device must be (a) reliable (b) valid (c) conclusive (d) both a and b 91. Which of the following variables should be taken into account when a psychological test is to be administered? (a) tester's rapport with subjects (b) the subject's amount of anxiety (c) the subject's understanding of test directions (d) all of the above . 92. "The Measurement of Adult Intelligence" was written by (a) Binet (b) Skinner. (c) Guilford
(d) Wechsler
93. A psychological theoretician in the process of developing a theory would be most interested in test measures in terms of their (a) face validity (b) concurrent validity (c) construct validity (d) predictive validity 94. To obtain norms for a testing measure, the test is first administered to a large group of the population on which this test will be used. This group is known as the (a) test group (b) control group (c) construct sample (d) standardization sample
95. In the hierarchical theory of intelligence which of the following is placed at the top of the hierarchy? (a) "s" factor (b) verbal-education (c) Spearmen's "g" factor (d) general reasoning 96. Cattell considered crystallized intelligence to be a/an (a) developmental process (b) ability to deal with new problem (c) inability to deal with new problems (d) repertoire of information, cognitive skills, and strategies 97. A test that measures what a person has already learned in prior training is an (a) aptitude test (b) objective test (c) achievement test (d) intelligence test 98. A newly developed children's intelligence test is reported in the literature to be correlated +.25 with the Wechsler intelligence Scale of Children Revised form (WISC -R). Which of the following statements provide the best assessment of the above information? (a) the new intelligence test has high criterion validity (b) the new intelligence test is relatively content-independent of the WISC - R(c) the new intelligence test has low concurrent validity (d) the new intelligence test has high reliability 99. Which of the following factors would not affect the reliability of a test? (a) test length (b) test-retest interval (c) guessing (d) content of questions 100. A test is termed homogeneous if (a) it is utilized on a homogeneous population (b) scores among heterogeneous populations tested look the same (c) the standard error of measurement indicates 0.0 error (d) one common factor underlies performance on all items in the test 101. Sir Francis Galton greatly contributed to the field of psychology by developing the (a) first laboratory (b) phrenology movement (c) early neuro-anatomy procedures (d) first sensory-motor psychological tests 102. A test of the capacity to learn a particular skill and to learn within a specific area of knowledge is called a/an (a) aptitude test (b) achievement test (c) projective test (d) acquisition test 103. The concept of _______ validity is concerned with tests used for diagnosis of an (a) construct (b) concurrent (c) predictive (d) content
104. The ability of young children to use two-word sentences is referred to as (a) babbling (b) morpheme induction (c) telegraphic speech (d) aphasia, 105. In order to acquire a language, a species must have the following ability (a) latent learning (b) concept formation (c) hearing (d) trial and error learning 106. A personnel department developed a typing test for prospective secretaries. They gave the test to a group of job applicants on two occasions and found that the correlation between typing scores was +.89. From this outcome it should be concluded that the testis (a) valid (b) invalid (c) unreliable (d) reliable 107. Cattell distinguished between two types of intelligence. The type that deals with a person's skill at processing novel problems and relationships is called (a) contextual (b) fluid (c) crystallized (d) componential 108. Gardner has proposed a theory of multiple intelligences. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions in his theory? (a) musical (b) verbal (c) mathematical (d) performance 109. Spearman explained the positive correlation among abilities measured on most intelligence tests in terms of (a) poor validity of test procedures (b) poor reliability of test procedures (c) a common ability, called the Q-factor (d) a common ability, called the c-factor 110. If the questions on a paper-and-pencil test about honesty directly address how a person would react in situations requiring honesty, the test possesses (a) normative validity (b) face validity (c) construct validity (d) predictive validity 111. Test-retest and-are technique for assessing the _______ of a psychological test. (a) split-half, validity (b) split-half, reliability (c) item analysis, reliability (d) item analysis, validity 112. Chomsky distinguished between linguistic ___________ and _______ (a) generativity, grammar (b) competence, performance (c) knowledge, skill (d) grammar, syntax 113. A rule of thumb that sometimes helps one to solve a problem is called a(a) algorithm (b) mnemonic (c) heuristic (d) acronym
114. Suppose that you incorrectly believe that death from a thunder storm is more likely than death from asthma. Which of the following can explain your error, (a) conservative bias (b) minimax strategy (c) availability heuristic (d) means-end analysis 115. According to the atmosphere hypothesis in syllogistic reasoning (a) people usually reason carefully but sometimes make mistakes (b) people fail to reason at all, but jump to conclusion based on the form of syllogism (c) people reason well on invalid syllogisms, but not valid (d) people reason well on valid syllogisms, but not invalid 116. When we think of an extrovert, we automatically think of a person who is outgoing, assertive and talks a great deal. We do so because of (a) conformity (b) attribution bias (c) prototypes (d) prejudice 117. A predisposition to behave in a particular way is called a/an (a) attitude (b) prototype (c) stereotype
(d) orienting reflex
118. When an infant learns to call his father "daddy" and then calls all men "daddy", this is an example of (a) overgeneralization (b) over-discrimination (c) under-generalization (d) telegraphic speech 119. One of the primary difference between an algorithm and a heuristic is (a) algorithms take longer to find a solution (b) heuristics work most, but not all of the time (c) algorithms are used less often than heuristics in artificial intelligence (d) all of the above 120. The average score on an IQ test is 100, and standard deviation is 15. A person who scores a 120 on the test would be considered (a) average (b) above average (c) a genius (d) this score is not possible 121. Many people have trouble solving riddles or other mental puzzles because they can only perceive of certain objects as being useful in only particular ways. This tendency is known as (a) repression (b) functional fixedness (c) visual thinking (d) incubation 122. Which of the following is an example of inductive reasoning? (a) deciding if you can afford a new car (b) planning the seating arrangement for a dinner (c) organizing a mailing list (d) inventing a better screwdriver
123. The branch of psychology that designs tests to assess IQ, aptitude, and other measures of human potential is (a) parapsychology (b) psychometrics (c) measurecology (d) social psychology 124. Artificial intelligence refers to attempts (a) at teaching people to think abstractly (b) to measure intelligence in plants (c) to use genetic engineering to produce more intelligent humans (d) to teach computers to make decisions for which they are not specifically / programmed 125 The study of twins indicates that (a) the environment, has the greatest influence on IQ (b) intelligence is innate and little influenced by environment (c) genetics and environment have equal influence on IQ (d) genetics has more influence for some races 126. A test that produces consistent results each time it is administered is (a) valid (b) valid, but may not be reliable (c) reliable and valid (d) reliable, but may not be valid 127. The Stanford-Binet IQ test actually measures (a) intelligence (b) knowledge of school subjects (c) creativity (d) cooperativeness 128. Which one of the following characteristics does an item need to be eligible for inclusion in the Stanford-Binet? (a) the percentage of test takers getting the item correct is positively correlated with test-taker age. (b) the percentage of test takers getting the item correct is negatively correlated with test-taker age. (c) the percentage of test takers getting the item correct is constant across all ages levels. (d) the item has a standard deviation if less than one. 129. Which one of the following would most directly affect the development of intelligence? (a) diet deficiency in the expectant mother (b) smoking by the expectant mother (c) premature birth (d) alcoholic leverage intake by the expectant mother 130. Which of the following could you legitimately predict for a person with an IQ of 50? (a) need for constant supervision (b) fifth-grade level of learning (c) entire life spent in an institution (d) high-school graduation if given special instruction
131. A person has just flipped a coin six times with heads resulting from each toss. The person now predicts with great certainty that the next toss will produce tails. This individual has just fallen prey, to (a) an algorithm error (b) a reproductive thought error (c) the conjunction or "gambler's fallacy" (d) the deductive error 132. The split-half procedure is a method of (a) sampling groups (b) measuring reliability (c) assessing validity (d) rejecting the null hypothesis 133. If the Psychology Subject Test had a standard error of zero, then a test taker that took the test two times would necessarily receive (a) a score equivalent to a z-score of 1 each time (b) the same score on each test (c) two scores that correlated perfectly with the test taker's aptitude (d) two scores that were above the mean 134. A manager of an advertising company is encouraging her workers to think "outside the box" in order to come up with entirely new angles for advertising. In essence, the manager is asking her employees to think (a) metacognitively (b) divergently (c) fluidly (d) deductively 135. The most common way of studying human cognitive processing is to evaluate (a) semantic shifts (b) EEG readings (c) reaction time (d) rehearsal time 136. Alia does not like to go to parties because she knows how people will conduct themselves. She has likely developed which of the following about parties? (a) A script (b) A deduction (c) A prototype (d) A heuristic 137. In general, people attach concepts and attributes to items and events. This knowledge is used to categorize and understand new stimuli and is best known as a person's (a) algorithm (b) heuristic (c) schema (d) mental set 138. The Stanford-Binet, WAIS-R, and WISC are known to have very high reliability. This means that (a) a pretest has been given to a representative (b) the test yields consistent results, for example-retesting (c) the test measure what it is supposed to measure
(d) the results of the test will be distributed on a bell-shaped curve 139. Norms can best be described as (a) standard and expectations shared by the members of a society (b) rules of law (c) statistically normal behaviour (d) universal rules of conduct 140. Aptitudes are (a) preferences to perform certain activities (b) high levels of achievements in an area of endeavor (c) the abilities of individuals to learn in specific areas of endeavor (d) skills one brings to a given task 141. The combining of responses or ideas in novel ways is called (a) exploration (b) creativity (c) thinking (d) none of these 142. The ability to deal with new problems and encounters is technically called as (a) crystallized Intelligence (b) G or g-factor of intelligence (c) fluid intelligence (d) none of these 143. The triarchic theory of intelligence suggests that there are (a) four components (b) six components (c) three components (d) none of these 144. Guilford's structure of Intellect Model of Intelligence is notable because (a) it separates operations form content and product (b) it rejects the idea of a gender factor (c) it yields 180 unique intellectual factors (d) all of these 145. The most important criterion of whether an individual should be considered retarded is that individual's (a) social competence (b) mental age (c) IQ, (d) ability to learn to speak 146. The prototype of the modern intelligence test for children was first (a) Stanford (b) Terrhan (c) Binet (d) Wechsler 147. The Binet Simon Scale was adapted for American use by: (a) Terman (b) Thurstone (c) Wechsler (d) Binet 148. The English scientist who considered assessing intelligence by measuring head size was (a) Galton (b) Binet (c) Terman (d) Wechsler
149. Which of the following terms refers to a person's accumulated knowledge and verbal skills? (a) fluid intelligence (b) concrete operational intelligence (c) crystallized intelligence (d) formal operational intelligence 150. Fluid intelligence refers most directly to a person's (a) ability to think creatively (b) accumulated knowledge (c) ability to reason speedily and abstractly . (d) ability to assume the perspective of others 151. Explaining why the best work of scientists is often produced in early adulthood while that of novelists often originates during middle adulthood requires a distinction between (a) initiative an Generativity (b) concrete and formal operations (c) fluid and crystallized intelligence (d) conventional and post conventional morality 152. Which psychological specialty is most directly concerned with the systematic study of problem solving, decision making, and concept formation? (a) developmental psychology (b) social psychology (c) clinical psychology (d) cognitive psychology 153. When we use the word "tree" to refer to a category of plants, we are using this word as a/an (a) prototype (b) heuristic (c) concept (d) algorithm 154. A prototype is a (a) best example of a particular category (b) step-by-step procedure for solving problems (c) mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people (d) rule-of-thumb strategy for solving problems efficiently 155. A test that, on the basis of common sense, seems to measure what it is claimed to measure has high (a) face validity (b) criterion validity (c) reliability (d) observer expectancy 156. in the process of classifying objects, people are specially likely to make use of (a) algorithms (b) framing (c) prototypes (d) normal curves 157. With which of the following statements will people typically agree most quickly? (a) a penguin is a bird (b) a goose is a bird (c) a parrot is a bird (d) an ostrich is a bird 158. The chimpanzee Sultan used a short stick to retrieve a long stick, then used the long stick to retrieve a piece of fruit. Sultarf s successful acquisition of the fruit was said to be the result of (a) trial and error (b) a fixation (c) an algorithm (d) insight
159. The inability to take a new perspective on a problem is called a (a) fixation (b) confirmation bias (c) framing effect (d) prototype 160. Some people are unable to arrange six matches to form four equilateral triangles because they fail to consider a three-dimensional arrangement. This best illustrates the hazards of (a) heuristics (b) fixations (c) algorithms (d) framing 161. The tendency to think of objects only in terms of their normal uses is called (a) functional fixedness (b) the availability heuristic (c) confirmation bias (d) belief perseverance 162. The earliest stage of speech development is called the _________ stage. The earliest stage of speech development is called the _______ (a) babbling (b) telegraphic speech (c) one-word (d) semantic 163. Children first begin to use sounds to communicate meaning during the ________ (a) babbling (b) two-word (c) telegraphic (d) one-word stages 164. Telegraphic speech is most closely associated with the ___________ stage of language development (a) one-word (b) babbling (c) two-word (d) phonetic 165. Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during (a) childhood (b) adolescence (c) early adulthood (d) late adulthood 166. The fact that we can think without language, is best illustrated in research on (a) mental imagery (b) functional fixedness (c) the framing effect (d) algorithms 167 Aptitude tests are specifically designed to (a) assess the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas (b) compare an individual's abilities with those of highly successfully people (c) assess learned knowledge or skills (d) predict ability to learn a new skill 168. Maheen has just taken a test of her capacity to learn to be a computer programmer. This is an example of an ___________ test (a) aptitude (b) achievement (c) interest (d) applied intelligence 169. Tests designed to assess what a person has learned are called ________- tests (a) aptitude (b) standardized
(c) achievement
(d) intelligence
170. Aptitudes tests are to ___________ as achievement tests are to ______ (a) current interests; past competence (b) past competence; current interests (c) current competence; future performance (d) future performance; current competence 171. Binet and Simon assumed that intellectually bright children (a) can be identified at a very young age by measuring their physical coordination and sensory skills (b) are as intellectually developed as average children who are older than they (c) are just as likely to have difficulty in regular classes as slow learners (d) have a mental age that is completely unrelated to their chronological age 172. A 12year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average 9-year old was said to have an IQ of (a) 75 (b) 85 (c) 115 (d) 125 173. Eight-year-old Nawal has an IQ of 75 on the original version of the Stanford-Binet. His mental age is (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 174. The original IQ formula would be least appropriate for representing the intelligence test performance of (a) kindergartners (b) grade school students (c) high school students (d) college students 175. Object assembly, picture arrangement, and block design are three subsets of the (a) WAIS-R (b) SAT (c) Stanford-Binet (d) ACT 176. The SAT measures (a) aptitude but not achievement (c) both aptitude and achievement
(b) achievement but no aptitude (d) neither aptitude nor achievement
177. If a test is standardized, this means that (a) it accurately measures what it is intended to measure (b) a person's test performance can be compared with that of a pretested group (c) most test scores will cluster near the average (d) the test will yield consistent results when administered on different occasions . 178. If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of (a) standardization (b) predictive validity (c) reliability (d) content validity
179. Psychologists assess the correlation between scores obtained on two halves of a single test in order to measure the-of a test. (a) validity (b) reliability (c) standardization (d) factor analysis 180. A test has a high degree of validity if it (a) produces a normal distribution of scores. (b) yields consistent results every time it is used. (c) measures or predicts what it is supposed to measure or predict. (d) has been standardized on a representative sample of all those who are likely to take the test. 181. After learning about his low score on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Musa complained, "I don't believe that test is a measure of intelligence at all," Musa's statement is equivalent to saying that the WAIS-R lacks (a) validity (b) reliability (c) standardization (d) norms 182. If both depressed and non-depressed individuals received similar scores on a diagnostic test for depression, it is said that the test (a) has not been standardized (b) is not valid (c) is not reliable (d) has not been factor-analyzed 183. An electronics school administrator is trying to construct an admission test that will accurately predict how well applicants will perform in his school. The administrator is most obviously concerned that the test is (a) standardized (b) valid (c) factor-analyzed (d) reliable 184. A statistical procedure that identifies cluster of test items that seem to tap a common ability is called (a) correctional measurement (b) standardization (c) factor analysis (d) split-half reliability measurement 185. Spearman's g factor refers to (a) the internal consistency of an intelligence test (b) the genetic contribution to intelligence (c) a general intelligence that underlies success on a wide variety of tasks (d) a highly developed skill or talent possessed by an otherwise retarded person 186. Terman observed that children with IQ scores over 135 are likely to be (a) athletically uncoordinated (b) academically successful (c) all the above (d) socially isolated and unpopular 187. A condition involving mental retardation caused by an extra chromosome in one's genetic makeup is known as (a) cretinism (b) autism
(c) Down's syndrome
(d) savant syndrome
188. People who make outstanding creative contributions to the arts or sciences are most likely to (a) be unusually sensitive to criticism of their ideas (b) receive above-average scores on standard tests of intelligence (c) receive only average scores on standard tests of intelligence (d) be strongly motivated to attain fame and fortune 189. The intelligence scores of adopted children are least likely to correlate positively with the intelligence scores of their (a) adoptive parents (b) biological parents (c) biologically related siblings (d) biologically unrelated siblings 190. Most experts would agree that intelligence tests are "biased" in the sense that (a) the heritability of intelligence is 100 percent (b) the reliability of intelligence tests is close to zero (c) test performance is influenced by cultural experiences (d) numerical scores of intelligence serve to dehumanize individuals 191. The major reason for the unreliability of the Rorschach inkblot test is the fact that (a) psychologists often fail to agree on how to score the results of this test (b) the test inhibits individuals from communicating honestly in clinical interviews (c) the test fails to effectively discriminate between those how are suicidal and those who are not (d) the test can be used effectively only with individuals who are severely maladjusted 192. Which of the following cannot be numerically expressed? (a) face validity (b) criterion validity (c) reliability
(d) variability
193. A psychologist uses a paper-and-pencil test to measure the creativity of art students and later correlates the scores on this test with a measure of these students successas professional artists. What aspect of the creativity test is the correlation intended toassess? (a) statistical significance (b) criterion validity (c) reliability (d) sensitivity 194. Alfred Binet developed the IQ test to (a) identify people who have superior intelligence compared to the population average (b) identify geniuses in the school population (c) answer the nature-nurture questions (d) identify children who were not getting as much out of school as they should 195. The Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale used items that had been tested with children and yielded results consistent with(a) teacher's ratings of the children tested (b) other intelligence test scores (c) the measured sensory acuity of the children tested (d) the children's mental age
196. In the Binet and Simon scoring system, an 8-year-old child who performed as well as an average 10-year-old would be assigned a mental age of (a) 1.25 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12.5 197. The first intelligence test commonly used in North America was the _________, which was based on __________ (a) Binet-Simon Scale; David Wechsler's test (b) Stanford-Binet Scaled; the Binet-Simon Scale (c) WISC-R; the Stanford-Binet Scale (d) Scholastic Aptitude Test; the WAIS-R 198. The IQ, as formulated for the Stanford-Binet scoring system, was determined by (a) adding mental age and chronological age (b) dividing mental age by chronological age and multiplying by 100 (c) dividing chronological age by mental age and multiplying by 100 (d) dividing the number of items answered correctly by the total number of items on the intelligence test 199. Terman's formula for IQ is IQ = (MA/CA) x 100. MA refers to (a) mental analogy (b) mental arousal (c) mental aptitude (d) mental age 200. The average IQ score is (a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 95.6
201. In the Binet-Simon method of scoring, a child with a mental age of 12 and a chronological age of 10 would have an IQ of (a) 22 (b) 83 (c) 120 (d) 122 202. If you believe that intelligence is made up of a small set of separate mental abilities, which of the following are you most likely to use to identify these abilities? (a) significance testing (b) reliability testing (c) method of loci (d) factor analysis 203. Charles Superman noted that when a battery of mental tests was administered to a large group of people, the scores did not correlate perfectly with one another. He took this as evidence that (a) a general intelligence, "g" is responsible for test performance (b) clusters of strongly correlated tests indicate the existence of distinct, primary mental abilities (c) each score is affected by a specific ability, "s". (d) the tests lacked sensitivity 204. What kind of reasoning task is typified by the problem 2,4,___________? (a) deductive (b) inductive (c) subliminal (d) concrete 205. Reasoning from specific items or observations to a general rule is the task in
(a) deductive reasoning (c) syllogistic reasoning
(b) inductive reasoning (d) analogical reasoning
206. Reasoning from a general to the specific is the task in (a) deductive reasoning (b) inductive reasoning (c) analogical reasoning (d) both deductive and inductive reasoning 207. The nine dot problem (in which the subject must connect the dots with four straight lines without lifting the pencil from the paper) is a classic illustration of (a) the role of visual imagery in deductive reasoning (b) the inhibiting effect of a mental set on problem solving (c) the value of finding a useful analogy (d) the inhibiting effect of the availability bias 208. Which of the following represents an ill-defined problem (a) how to win a game of chess (b) how to solve a crossword puzzle (c) how to find meaning in life (d) how to improve your grades 209. A procedure that actually measures what it is supposed to measure is (a) unbiased (b) valid (c) reliable (d) sensitive 210 The text defines cognition as (a) all mental activity (b) mental activity associated with processing, understanding, and communicating information (c) logical reasoning (d) problem solving 211. A mental grouping of similar things, events, or people is called a/an (a) prototype (b) concept (c) algorithm (d) mental set 212. When forming a concept, people often develop a best example, or _______, of a category (a) denoter (b) heuristic (c) prototype (d) algorithm 213. Syntax refers to (a) the sounds in a word (b) the overall rules of a language (c) the rules for grouping words into sentences (d) the rules by which meaning is derive from sentences 214. Skinner and other behaviourists have argued that language development is the result of (a) imitation (b) reinforcement (c) association (d) all of the above 215. The basic units of cognition are (a) phonemes (b) concepts (c) prototypes (d) morphemes
216. The rules most directly involved in permitting a person to derive meaning from words and sentences are rules of (a) syntax (b) grammar (c) phonemic structure (d) semantics 217. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between thinking and language? (a) "real" thinking requires the use of language (b) people sometimes think in images rather than in words (c) a thought that cannot be expressed in a particular language cannot occur to speakers of that language (d) all of the above are true 218. A dessert recipe that gives you the ingredients, their amounts, and the steps to follow is an example of a/an (a) prototype (b) algorithm (c) heuristic (d) mental set 219 A 6-year-old child has a mental age of 9. The child's IQ is (a) 96 (b) 100 (c) 125 (d) 150 220. Which of the following is not a requirement of a good test? (a) reliability (b) standardization (c) reification
(d) validity
221. Which of the following statements is true? (a) the predictive validity of intelligence tests is not as high as their reliability (b) the reliability of intelligence tests is not as high as their predictive validity (c) modern intelligence tests have extremely high predictive validity and reliability (d) the predictive validity and reliability of most intelligence tests is very low 222. Before about age-.intelligence tests generally do not predict future scores (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10 223. Which of the following best describes the relationship between creativity and intelligence (a) creativity appears to depend on the ability to think imaginatively and has little if any relationship to intelligence (b) creativity is best understood as a certain kind of intelligence (c) the more intelligent a person is, the greater his or her creativity (d) a certain level of intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for creativity 224. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence of the role of heredity in determining intelligence? (a) the IQ scores of identical twins raised separately are very similar (b) the intelligence scores of fraternal twins are more similar than those of ordinary siblings (c) the intelligence scores of identical twins raised together are more similar than those of identical twins raised apart (d) the intelligence scores of adopted children show relatively weak correlations with scores of adoptive as well as biological parents
225. Suppose I were to test your knowledge of psychology by giving you the mathematics portion of the SAT test. The most justified criticism of the procedure would be that it lacks (a) reliability (b) validity (c) sensitivity (d) a placebo 226. The bell-shaped distribution of intelligence scores in the general population is called a (a) g distribution (b) standardization curve (c) bimodal distribution (d) normal distribution 227. The test created by Alfred Binet was designed specifically to (a) measure inborn intelligence in adults (b) measure inborn intelligence in children (c) predict school performance in children (d) identify mentally retarded children so that they could be institutionalized 228. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence of environment's role in intelligence? (a) adopted children's intelligence scores are more like their adoptive parent's scores than their biological parents' (b) children's intelligence scores are more strongly related to their mothers' scores than to their fathers' (c) children moved from a deprived environment into an intellectually enriched one show gains in intellectual development (d) the intelligence scores of identical twins raised separately are no more alike than those of siblings 229. The formula for the intelligence quotient was devised by (a) Galton (b) Gall (c) Terman
(d) Stern
230. Current intelligence tests compute an individual's intelligence score as (a) the ratio of mental age of chronological age multiplied by 100 (b) the ratio of chronological age to mental age multiplied by 100 (c) the amount by which the test-takers'-performance deviates from the average performance of others the same age (d) the ratio of the test-takers' verbal intelligence score to his or her nonverbal intelligence score 231. The concept of a g factor implies that intelligence (a) is a single overall ability (b) is several specific abilities (c) is both a and c (d) is a dynamic rather than stable phenomenon 232. In his study of children with high intelligence scores, Terman found that (a) the children were more emotional and less healthy than a control group (b) the children were ostracized by classmates (c) the children were healthy and well-adjusted, and did well academically (d) later, as adults, they nearly all achieved great vocational success
233. Most experts views intelligence as a person's (a) ability to perform well on intelligence tests » (b) innate mental capacity (c) capacity for goal-directed adaptive behaviour (d) diverse skills acquired throughout life 234. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the text's position regarding the relative contribution of genes and environment in determining intelligence? (a) except in cases of a neglectful early environment, each individual's basic intelligence is largely the product of heredity (b) with the exception of those with generic disorders such as Down's syndrome, intelligence is primarily the product of environmental experiences (c) both genes and life experiences significantly influence performance on intelligence tests (d) because intelligence tests have such low predictive validity, the question cannot be addressed until psychologists agree on a more valid test of intelligence 235. At age 16, Anita's intelligence score was 110. What will her score probably be at age 32? (a) 105 (b) 110 (c) 115 (d) there is no basis 236. Jamal takes the same test of mechanical reasoning on several different days and gets virtually identical scores. This suggests that the test has (a) high content validity (b) high reliability (c) high predictive (d) been standardized 237. You would not use a test of hearing acuity as an intelligence test because it would lack (a) content reliability (b) predictive reliability (c) predictive validity (d) content validity 238. A high-school psychologist who is looking at a student's intelligence score finds a jump of 30 points between the earliest score at age 2 and the most recent at age 17. The psychologist's knowledge of testing would probably lead her to conclude that such a jump (a) indicates that different tests were used, creating an apparent change in intelligence level, although it actually remained stable (b) signals a significant improvement in the child's environment over this period (c) is unsurprising, since intelligence scores do not become stable until late adolescence (d) is mainly the result of the age at which the first test was taken 239. During which stage of creative problem solving is the actual solution likely to occur? (a) preparation (b) incubation (c) illumination (d) verification 240. Which of the following is not part of the definition of language? (a) rules of combination (b) symbols (c) sounds ( d) language community
241. If you wanted to develop a test of musical aptitude in children of Northern Areas of Pakistan, which would be the appropriate standardization group? (a) children ail over the world (b) children of Northern Areas of Pakistan (c) children of musical parents (d) children with known musical ability 242. According to the text, what can be concluded from early intelligence testing in the United State? (a) most European immigrants were "feebleminded." (b) army recruits of other than West European heritage were intellectually deficient (c) the test were biased against people who did not share the culture assumed by the test (d) both a and b could be concluded 243. If asked to guess the intelligence score of a stranger, your best guess would be (a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 125 (d) "I don't know, intelligence scores vary too widely." 244. Which of the following are barriers to effective problem solving? (a) mental set (b) inability to think divergently (c) functional fixedness (d) all of the above 245. Javed has a problem. He is unemployed. He knows that his goal is to get a job. However, he has no idea how to begin finding employment. We might say that his problem solving skills have broken down at the ________ stage (a) initial (b) goal (c) routs or strategies (d) solutions 246. During which stage of creative problem is the person the least engaged in thinking about the problem (a) preparation (b) incubation (c) illumination (d) verification 247. Psycholinguists might study (a) pragmatics (c) functional fixedness
(b) PKU (d) the WAIS-R
248. Pragmatics involves decisions about language based on (a) the intelligence of the listener (b) the social context of the situation (c) none of the above (d) the vocabulary of the speaker 249. In regard to gender differences in language usage, which of the following statements is true? (a) men are more talkative than women and tend to interrupt more (b) men are shy and talk less about themselves than women (c) men use more qualifiers than women (d) men are more likely to express their feelings than women
250. To qualify as a good psychological test, an instrument should have (a) reliability (b) validity (c) adequate norms (d) all of the above 251. A psychological working in rehabilitation center needs to know the "IQ" of a single adult client. The best test to use would be the (a) WAIS-R (b) WISC-R (c) Stanford-Binet (d) OLSAT 252. Which of the following represents the correct sequence in language acquisition? (a) babbling, telegraphic speech, holophrastic speech (b) telegraphic speech, holophrastic speech, babbling (c) telegraphic speech, babbling, holophrastic speech (d) babbling, holophrastic speech, telegraphic speech 253. A baby's first words are usually produced at about age (a) six months (b) nine months (c) twelvemonths (d) eighteen months 254. A psychological test can measure (a) behaviour (b) aptitudes (c) attitude (d) all of the above . 255. If a test is administered in such a way that all who take the test get the same instructions, the same time limits, and virtually the same testing conditions, we say thatthe test is (a) objective (c) valid (b) Standardized (d) reliable
256. Our most important concern relative to differences in IQ should be (a) determining whether the difference is genetic (b) focusing on gender differences (c) determining whether IQ can be changed (d) discovering which environmental factors are involved 257. If a test designed to indicate which applicants are likely to perform the best on the job fails to do so, the test has (a) low reliability (b) low content (c) low predictive validity (d) not been standardized 258. Comparison of students' GRE scores with their later graduate school grade point averages (GPAs) would probably be used to analyze the GRE's: (a) content validity (b) concurrent validity (c) predictive validity (d) test-retest reliability
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73: 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145. 149. 153. 157. 161. 165. 169.
b a d a b b b c b d d a a a a c d c c a a b b c c d b c c a b a a b c b c c c c a a c
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50: 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166. 170.
c d a a c b b a d b d c c c d a d b a c b c d d c a d b c a d d b b b b c c a d a a d
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127. 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159. 163. 167. 171.
c a d b b d b b b c b a b b d d b c b b a c d c d b b b b d b b c c a c a c a a d d b
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108. 112. 116. 120. 124. 128. 132. 136. 140. 144. 148. 152. 156. 160. 164. 168. 172.
b c d d a a b d b c c d b d d b a d a b c d d d d c d b c b d a b a a c a d c b c a a
173. 177. 181. 185. 189, 193. 197. 201. 205. 209. 213. 217. 221. 225. 229. 233. 237. 241. 245. 249. 253. 257.
b b a c a b b c b b c b a b d c d b d a c c
174. 178. 182. 186. 190. 194. 198. 202. 206. 210: 214. 218. 222. 226 230. 234. 238. 242. 246. 250. 254. 258.
d c b b c d b d a b d b b d c c d c b d d c
175. 179. 183. 187. 191. 195. 199. 203. 207. 211. 215. 219. 223. 227. 231. 235. 239. 243. 247. 251. 255.
a b b c a a d c b b b d d c a b c b a a b
176. 180. 184. 188. 192. 196. 200. 204. 208. 212. 216. 220. 224. 228. 232. 236. 240. 244. 248. 252. 256.
c c c b a c b b c c d c a c c b c d b d c
Chapter 8
Motivation 1. Which one of the following terms is most appropriately defined by the words "how behaviour gets started, is energized, is sustained, is directed"? (a) emotion (b) aspiration (c) osculation (d) motivation 2 A hungry persons would find food to be a (a) primary reinforcer (b) secondary reinforcer (c) none of these (d) negative reinforcer 3. The drive reduction theory was proposed by (a) Clark Hull (b) B. F. Skinner (c) Erik Erikson (d) Kurt Lewin 4. Harlow's work with monkeys and surrogate mother suggests that: (a) bottle-fed infants are usually less attached to their mothers than breast-fed infants (b) infants are less likely to explore their environments when they can experience maternal comforting instead (c) attachment may not be directly related to the provision of food (d) infants monkeys generally refuse all milk but that of their mother 5 Theory described by Abraham Maslow is known as (a) hierarchy of needs (b) equity theory (c) psychoanalysis (d) cognitive dissonance theory 6. A child enjoys working in the garden. His parents are trying to decide whether they should start paying him for his work. Which of the following most strongly suggests that they ought not to pay their child? (a) source credibility (b) the over-justification effect (c) belief perseverance (d) locus of control theory 7. A program to increase self-esteem in elementary school children could be considered to be an example of: (a) primary prevention (b) secondary prevention (c) hierarchy of needs (d) response prevention 8. Which of the following concepts is most associated with Abraham Maslow? (a) archetype (b) peak shift (c) hierarchy of needs (d) anxiety hierarchy 9 When extremely excited, Zehra has a harder time throwing ball than when she is mildly excited. This behaviour is consistent with which of the following? (a) the Zeigarnik effect (b) the Hawthorne effect
(c) Weber's law
(d) the Yerkes-Dodson law
10. Harry Harlow's experiments with wire and cloth surrogate mothers demonstrated the importance of: (a) insight learning (b) contact comfort (c) kin selection (d) instinctual drift 11. Abraham Maslow is well known for his concept of: (a) object-relations theory (b) cognitive-behavioural theory (c) hierarchy of need (d) learned helplessness 12. According to Baumrind, which parenting style is associated with the most socially and academically competent children? (a) permissive (b) assertive (c) authoritarian (d) authoritative 13. A person with low self-esteem should most likely attribute his success to: (a) stable causes (b) unstable causes (c) internal causes (d) external causes 14. REM sleep is characterized by which of the following? (a) sleepwalking (b) night terrors (c) delta waves
(d) dreams
15. An individual taking caffeine pills to stay awake during an all-night study session finds that he is incapable of writing his term paper effectively. Unable to sleep, he immaculately cleans his apartment. Such performance is best predicted by the: (a) opponent-process theory (b) cocktail party phenomenon (c) Yerkes-Dodson law (d) signal detection theory 16. Not reduces during sleep is the level of: (a) respiration (b) blood pressure (c) body temperature (d) gastric contractions 17. Functional autonomy of motives is associated with the work of: (a) Allport (b) McClelland (c) Atkinson 18. You could expect Maslow's self-actualized person to be: (a) id-dominated (b) ego-dominated (c) thanatos-oriented (d) relatively independent of his culture and environment 19. Increase in motivation and arousal brings increase in emotion: (a) Bowlby (b) Harlow (c) Schachter-Singer (d) Yerkes-Dodson
(d) McDougali
20. Rhesus monkeys that feed on a terry cloth mother are notably better adjusted than those who feed on a wire mother. And, given the option, a monkey will go to the terry cloth mother. The researcher and the principle are _________ and __________ (a) Schachter-Singer, e motional arousal based on context (b) Bowiby, social stimulation (c) Spielberger, State vs trait (d) Harlow, contact comfort 21. The motivation cycle includes (a) driving state (b) behavior (c) emotions (d) none of the above 22. Alpha wave would be most prevalent in which of the following instances? (a) deep sleep (b) REM sleep (c) eyes closed in relaxed, wakeful state (d) solving a multiplication problem in your head 23. In the early, classic experiments of Cannon and Washburn, their subjects were required to swallow balloons. This procedure enabled the experimenters to study: (a) the amount of food intake (b) hormonal secretions (c) gastric contractions of the stomach (d) dietary self-selection 24. According to Atkinson, which of the following would be true? (a) motivation deals with immediate influences on direction, vigor, and persistence of action (b) motivation is synonymous with perception (c) motivation is synonymous with emotion (d) motivation is synonymous with the study of behaviour change 25. REM sleep signals: (a) high GSR (c) stage IV sleep
(b) dreaming (d) stage II sleep
26. A subject placed in an elaborate sensory deprivation setting for remuneration of Rs. 1000/-per day will (a) remain in such a setting indefinitely (b) usually endure such a setting only one to two weeks (c) usually endure such a setting only two to three weeks (d) experience motion parallax 27. The group that contains a term not mentioned within Murray's list of needs is (a) nurturance, autonomy (b) aggression, abasement
(c) dominance, affiliation
(d) passivity, destruction
28. In contrast to children who were low in achievement need. McClelland found that children with high achievement need had a (a) weaker preference for intermediate risk tasks (b) stronger preference for intermediate risk tasks . (c) stronger preference for low risk tasks (d) stronger preference for high risk tasks 29. On the basis of existing research, which one of the following influences is found in the childhood backgrounds of adults with a high achievement need? (a) encouragement of curiosity (b) encouragement of aggression (c) encouragement of creativity (d) encouragement of independence . 30. Among the following, the most important name in achievement motivation research is (a) Miller (b) Bandura (c) Murray (d) Atkinson 31. In the midst of deep sleep, the dominant brain wave is (a) alpha (b) beta (c) gamma
(d) delta
32. Organization theory uses theories of reinforcement to increase worker efficiency and satisfaction. According to reinforcement theory, the best time to reward a worker is (a) at the end of the year in the form of a bonus (b) when he first begins work in the company (c) immediately before a task is performed (d) immediately after a task has been performed 33. According to Herzberg's two factor theory of job satisfaction, which of the following choices are important factors? (a) maintenance and motivator factors (b) job specialization and responsibility (c) management and organizational development (d) authority and decision making 34. All secondary sources of drive are (a) homeostatic (c) self-propelling
(b) goal-seeking (d) learned
35. According to Edward Tolman, Expectation X Value = (a) performance (b) achievement (c) Need for Achievement (d) Activation - Arousal 36. Dollard, Doob, Millar, Mowrer and Sears have suggested that all aggressive acts are caused by (a) confusion (b) poor social learning (c) frustration (d) stress
37. According to Clark Hull, Drive X Habit = (a) performance (b) achievement (c) need for achievement (d) goal 38. REM sleep is also known as (a) paradoxical sleep (c) passive sleep
(b) desynchronized sleep (d) both a and c
39. According to Allport's theory of motivation, people are motivated (a) toward future goals (b) by past and current experience (c) by social reinforcement (d) by current experiences 40. Homeostatic regulation is achieved by the (a) peripheral nervous system (b) autonomic 'nervous system (c) sympathetic nervous system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 41. Achievement motivation (need for achievement) was proposed by (a) Clark Hull (b) David McClelland (c) Abraham Maslow (d) Henry Murray 42. Konrad Lorenz contended that aggression is (a) socially learned (b) the result of prejudice (c) an innate readiness to fight for survival (d) a direct result of personal space 43. The attempts by the body to maintain a certain internal environment in terms of oxygen, sugar levels, temperature, etc., is referred to as (a) encephalic balance (b) bio-inertia (c) psychological consistency (d) homeostasis 44. Which one of the following bodily patterns does not accompany dreaming activity? (a) a distinctive EEG pattern (b) rapid eye movement (c) higher level of cerebral blood flow (d) higher level of general muscle activity 45. On the basis of McClelland's findings, in which one of the following groups could a person expect to find the lowest achievement need? (a) male college graduates with bachelor's degrees (b) female college graduates with bachelor's degrees (c) male high-school graduates with vocational training (d) male and female professional students with Ph. Ds 46. The fact that a person can awaken at a specific hour without alarm clock assistance is attributable to (a) correlation of bodily processes with predictable time passage (b) predisposed response generalization
(c) convergence (d) configuration 47. In the McClelland type ring toss game, which of the following groups of men would be expected to take the most shots from an intermediate distance? (a) those high in test anxiety (b) those high in both test anxiety and achievement need (c) those low in achievement need (d) those high in achievement need and low in test anxiety 48. One of the major reasons that circadian rhythm has become a focus of attention in studying pilots is its relationship to (a) sleeplessness (b) anemia (c) fatigue (d) apraxia 49. The SOC (state of conscious) one passes through going from sleeping to waking is called the (a) twilight zone (b) syntonic state (c) hypnopompic state (d) hypnagogic state 50. Sleep apnea is (a) the technical name for sleepwalking (b) cessation of breathing during sleep (c) non-REM sleep (d) insomnia 51 Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus of an animal produces: (a) blindness (b) taste loss (c) paralysis (d) overeating 52: The term sham feeding refers to experiments in which (a) food is introduced directly into the stomach (b) a brain operation is performed prior to the experiment (c) nonnutritive bulk is fed to the animal (d) food is "eaten" and "swallowed" but does not reach the stomach 53. A lesion of the ventromedial hypothalamus will most likely produce (a) aphasia (b) aphagia (c) adipsia (d) hyperphagia 54. Which of the following is not characteristic of stage 1 sleep? (a) Dreams (b) REM (c) Major muscle twitches (d) Desynchronized EEG patterns 55. Research by Edward Deci has suggested that extrinsic motivators are more effective when they are (a) stated up front so that the individual knows what he or she will be receiving (b) tangible and easily identifiable (c) received immediately before the task is accomplished
(d) intangible, such as verbal praise or smile 56. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation? (a) doing a good job because of sense of satisfaction when you are finished (b) doing a good job in order to get a pay raise (c) working hard because of the pride you take in your work (d) doing a good job because you enjoy your work 57. Which of the following orders of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is correct? (a) safety, physiological, belongingness self-actualization, esteem (b) belongingness, esteem, physiological, safety, self-actualization (c) physiological, belongingness, safety, esteem, self-actualization (d) physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization 58. External stimuli that lead to goal-directed behaviour are called (a) drives (b) needs (c) incentives (d) reciprocals 59. According to Maslow, a person with no jobs, no friends and no house can be self-actualized (a) 100% yes (b) 100% no (c) rarely (d) none of these 60. A need to establish and maintain relationships with other people (a) achievement motivation (b) need for affiliation (c) power motive (d) none of these 61. Term achievement need was introduced by (a) McClelland (b) Jung (c) Maslow
(d) none of these
62. Maintenance of an internal biological balance is called (a) instinct (b) need (c) homeostasis (d) none of these 63. Researches show that poor performance is the result of (a) poor conditions (b) job satisfaction (c) both a and b (d) none of these 64. The body's natural tendency to maintain a state of internal balance or equilibrium is called (a) arousal (b) opponent process (c) homeostasis (d) instinct 65. Concerns with meeting standards of excellence and accomplishing difficult tasks refers to the need for (a) affiliation (b) achievement (c) power (d) apperception 66. Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforce
(a) food
(b) money
(c) paycheck
(d) new clothes
67. Motivation is defined as an inferred process within a person that causes the organisms to move towards (a) a goal (b) all other organisms (c) reinforcement (d) higher levels in the hierarchy of needs 68. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, individuals: (a) may bypass a level in their quest for self-actualization (b) must satisfy self-esteem needs before achieving belongingness and love needs (c) always end their lives self-actualized (d) must satisfy esteem needs before the process of self-actualization 69 Goals can help us motivated by all the following except: (a) focusing our attention (b) encouraging alternative ways-of achieving goals (c) allowing to the freedom to be spontaneous in our activities (d) mobilizing our resources 70. Which of the following conditions are not associated with prolonged sensory deprivation: (a) inability to concentrate (b) a satisfying relaxed feeling (c) hallucinations (d) confusion 71. Deficiency motivation is to abundance motivation as: (a) desire to need (b) innate is to learned (c) need is to desire (d) primary is to secondary 72. The concept of homeostasis most closely associated with the name: (a) Cannon (b) Levin (c) Thorndike (d) Tolman 73. McCielland's method of measuring the achievement motive made use of: (a) self-rating (b) fantasy. (c) activity level (d) all are correct 74. In general children who score well on IQ tests have parents who: (a) pay for tutor and special school (b) have very high IQs (c) spend time with them and actively encourage their development (d) punish them if they fail to do well 75. Motivation is defined by psychologists as (a) an impulse to accomplish something of significance (b) a need or desire that energizes and directs behaviour toward a goal (c) rigidly patterned behavioural urges characteristic of all people (d) the cause of behaviour
76. Fixed patterns of behaviour characteristic of a species and developed without practice are called (a) intrinsic motives (b) drives (c) instincts (d) extrinsic motives 77. Instinctive behaviour is (a) designed to maintain homeostasis (c) extrinsically motivated
(b) triggered by a biological need (d) unlearned
78. Mr. Zahid believes that aggression is an unlearned behaviour characteristic of all children. He obviously believes that aggression is a/an (a) extrinsic motive (b) homeostatic mechanism (c) instinct (d) intrinsic motive 79. An aroused or activated state that is often triggered by deprivation is called a/an (a) instinct (b) need (c) incentive (d) drive 80. For a thirsty person, drinking water serves to reduce (a) homeostasis (b) a drive (c) an instinct (d) extrinsic motivation 81. Food deprivation is to hunger as __________ is to ___________ (a) homeostasis; thirst (b) incentive; instinct (c) need; drive (d) motivation; emotion 82. Homeostasis' refers to (a) An aroused or activated state that is often triggered by deprivation (b) a desire to perform a behaviour for its own sake (c) a state of physical deprivation that usually triggers motivational arousal (d) the body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state 83. For a hungry person, the consumption of food serves to (a) lower the set point (b) arouse needs (c) maintain homeostasis (d) reduce an instinct 84. Which theory most clearly emphasizes the importance of homeostasis in motivation? (a) instinct theory (b) drive-reduction theory (c) arousal theory (d) incentive theory 85. Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behaviour are called (a) needs (b) incentives (c) goals (d) drives 86. Which of the following is clearly not an example of an incentive? (a) threat of punishment (b) lack of bodily fluids (c) the smell of popcorn (d) electric shock
87. On some college football teams, players are rewarded for outstanding performance with a gold star on their helmets. This practice best illustrate the use of (a) set points (b) intrinsic motivation (c) incentives (d) participative management 88 Which theory most clearly emphasizes the importance of learning in motivation? (a) instinct theory (b) drive-reduction theory (c) arousal theory (d) incentive theory 89. The most basic or lowest-level need in Maslow's hierarchy of human motives includes the need for (a) self-esteem (b) love and friendship (c) food and drink (d) achievement 90. According to Maslow, our need for-must be met before we are prompted to satisfy our need for _________ (a) food; love (b) self-esteem; adequate clothing (c) self-actualization; economic security (d) political freedom; economic security 91. Increases in insulin increase hunger indirectly by (a) increasing blood glucose levels (b) decreasing blood glucose levels (c) increasing serotonin levels (d) decreasing serotonin levels 92. Increases in __________ increase hunger, while increases in _________ decrease hunger (a) glucose; insulin (b) insulin; glucose (c) glucose; testosterone (d) serotonin; insulin 93. The set point is (a) the stage of the sexual response cycle that occurs just before orgasm (b) the body temperature of a healthy organism, for example, 98.6 degree F in humans (c) the point at which energy expenditures from exercise and from metabolism are equal (d) the specific body weight maintained automatically by most adults over long periods of times 94. When an organism's weight rises above its set point, the organisms is likely to experience a/an (a) decrease in both hunger and metabolic rate. (b) increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate. (c) decrease in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate. (d) increase in both hunger and metabolic rate. 95. Zia has just eaten a huge meal, but gets the urge to eat when fresh popcorn smells. Psychologists would most likely consider Zia to be (a) an external (b) suffering from anorexia nervosa (c) obese (d) suffering from bulimia nervosa
96. Mansoor is an amateur golfer who has a high "need for achievement. Research suggests that Mansoor most likely prefers playing golf on courses that for him are (a) very easy (b) moderately difficult (c) extremely difficult (d) very easy or very difficult 97. Parents who wish to strengthen their children's achievement motivation should be advised to (a) recognize that young children can't be expected to do things successfully without parental help (b) tell their children that failure in life brings suffering (c) warmly accept and praised their children regardless of whether they succeed or fail (d) encourage children at any early age to handle responsibility without parental help 98. Extrinsic motivation refers to (a) a rigidly patterned behavioural urge characteristics of an entire species (b) a state of physical deprivation that triggers arousal (c) a state of arousal that is triggered by physical deprivation (d) a desire to perform a behaviour in order to obtain promised rewards or avoid threatened punishment 99. Informative rewards __________ motivation and controlling rewards-motivation. (a) increase intrinsic; decrease extrinsic (b) increase extrinsic; decrease intrinsic (c) decrease extrinsic; decrease intrinsic (d) increase intrinsic; decrease intrinsic 100. When asked what is most necessary for a happy and meaningful life, most people first mention the importance of satisfying their _______ needs. (a) achievement (b) belong ingress (c) safety (d) sexual 101. The distinctive brain waves that accompany various stages of sleep are detected by (a) ultrasound recordings (b) magnetic resonance imaging (c) a CAT-scan (d) an electroencephalogram (EEG) 102. Getting only half of a normal night of sleep is likely to cut most deeply into your ______ sleep time. (a) REM (b) Stage 4 (c) Stage 3 (d) Stage 2 103. A changeable internal conditions that orients and individual toward one or another category of goals is called (a) a motivational sate (b) a drive (c) an incentive (d) a and b 104. Hunger is an example of-and food is an example of the corresponding (a) a drive; motivational state (b) an incentive; reinforcer (c) a drive; incentive (d) a motivational state; drive
105. The constancy of internal conditions that the body must actively work to maintain is known as (a) drive reduction (b) homeostasis (c) incentive balance (d) the central drive state 106. Motivational theories based on the idea of homeostasis are attempting to explain drives in terms of (a) tissue needs (b) the arousal response (c) reward and punishment (d) hypothetical mental constructs 107. What Cannon proposed that we can understand drives in terms of the body's need to keep internal conditions __________ for example, oxygen levels _________ within, restricted ranges? He called this process (a) non-regulatory motivation (b) homeostasis (c) satisfaction (d) central drive 108. Which of the following is a regulatory drive? (a) thirst (b) sex (c) curiosity
(d) both a and b
109. Which of the following characteristics of the hypothalamus would suit it to be a hub of many central drive systems? (a) it controls pituitary hormones and the blood-borne chemicals (b) it contains tracts that interconnect many areas of the brain (c) it regenerates if injured (d) all of the above 110. Researchers can use an electrode to (a) create a lesion in the brain (c) do both a and b
(b) stimulate an area of the brain (d) do neither a nor b
111. Your dog suffers a head injury, and you notice that although he used to eat bits of food throughout the day, now he eats all his food at once and looks for more. Which area of his brain is most likely to have been damaged? (a) the hippocampus (b) the amygdala (c) the lateral hypothalamus (d) the ventromedial hypothalamus 112. The set point is the-that an individual finds easiest to maintain (a) level of blood sugar (b) energy expenditure (c) relative proportions of bone, muscle, and fat (d) bodily weight 113. Which of the following is most used as an index of sleep? (a) the EEG (b) steroid levels in the blood (c) the degree of muscle tension in the limbs
(d) the onset of rapid eye movement 114. If a person tries to solve a problem or becomes excited in a waking state, the EEG is most likely to show (a) spindles (b) alpha waves (c) beta waves (d) delta waves 115. The EEG of a person who is awake and relaxed, with closed eyes, thinking of nothing in particular, will generally consist of (a) alpha waves (b) beta waves (c) delta waves (d) spindles 116. During REM sleep, a person's EEG, eye movements, and heart rate are consistent with _______ and the muscles are ________ (a) deep sleep; very tense (b) high arousal; very tense (c) deep sleep; very relaxed (d) high arousal; very relaxed 117. Which of the following best characterizes the difference between REM sleep and the other stages of sleep? (a) dreams occur during REM sleep but not during the other stages (b) the EEG shows, high-amplitude waves during REM sleep and successively faster, lower-amplitude waves during the other stages (c) the muscles are tenser during REM sleep than during the other stages (d) all of the above 118. The most reliable effect of sleep deprivation is (a) sleepiness (b) a loss of physical coordination (c) difficulty in performing intellectually challenging tasks (d) a depression in immune system functioning 119. Suppose your aunt routinely has difficulty falling asleep and as a result feels tired during the day. Your aunt is suffering from (a) insomnia (b) nonsomnia (c) cataplexy (d) dream deprivation 120. Men who suffered spinal cord injuries reported that after their injury the emotions they felt were (a) less intense (b) more intense (c) unchanged in intensity (d) variable in intensity 121. During which stage of sleep does the body experience in increased heart rate, rapid breathing, and genital arousal? (a) stage 2 (b) stage 3 (c) stage 4 (d) REM sleep
122. Although her eyes are closed, her brain is generating bursts of electrical activity in the visual cortex. It is likely that she is (a) under the influence of a depressant (b) under the influence of an opiate (c) in NREM sleep (d) in REM sleep 123. Motivation is best understood as a state that (a) reduce drive (b) energizes an organism to act (c) aims at satisfying a biological need (d) energizes and directs behaviour 124. Which of the following is a difference between a drive and a need? (a) needs are learned; drives are inherited (b) needs are physiological states, drives are psychological states (c) drives are generally stronger than needs (d) needs are generally stronger than drives 125. Increases in insulin will (a) lower blood sugar and trigger hunger (b) raise blood sugar and trigger hunger (c) lower blood sugar and trigger satiety (d) raise blood sugar and trigger satiety 126. Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to (a) begin eating (b) stop eating (c) become obese (d) begin copulating 127. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize ___________ factors in motivation (a) environmental (b) cognitive (c) psychological (d) biological 128. Bulimia nervosa involves (a) binging (b) purging (c) dramatic weight loss (d) a and b 129. The brain area that when stimulated suppresses eating is the (a) lateral hypothalamus (b) ventromedial hypothalamus (c) lateral thalamus (d) ventromedial thalamus 130 According to Maslow's theory (a) the most basic motives are based on physiological needs (b) needs are satisfied in a specified order
(c) the highest motives relate to self-actualization (d) all of the above are true 131. In animals, destruction of the lateral hypothalamus results in _______ whereas destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus results in __________ (a) overeating; loss of hunger (b) loss of hunger; overeating (c) an elevated set point; a lowered set point (d) increased thirst; loss of thirst 132. Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs in the hierarchy described by Maslow? (a) safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment (b) safety; physiological; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment (c) physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment (d) physiological; safety; belongingness and love; self-esteem; self-actualization 133. Zehra decided to take introductory psychology because she has always been interested in human behaviour. Musa enrolled in the same course because he thought it would be easy. Zehra's behaviour was motivated by _________ Musa's by _______ (a) extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation (b) intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation (c) drives; incentives (d) incentives; drives 134. Which of the following is an example of a secondary drive? (a) a baby is crying because it is hungry (b) a toddler goes to the refrigerator and asks for "drink" (c) an adolescent girl tells her mother she needs a new pair of shoes (d) a ten year old has a fever and asks his mother for aspirin 135. Which of the following is not part of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? (a) safety needs (b) love and belongingness (c) affiliation heeds (d) self-actualization 136. The body's center for regulating temperature are both located in the (a) cerebral cortex (b) hypothalamus (c) limbic system (d) parasympathetic nervous system 137. Our most important physiological cues for eating come from (a) stomach contractions (b) the liver and the hypothalamus (c) the sight of food (d) the smell of food
138. Research by David McClelland on his concept of "need to achieve" would predict that someone with a high need for Achievement, if given a choice, would choose a job (a) in which he or she was almost bound to be successful (b) that was challenging, but could be done well with effort (c) that was so difficult that it almost certainly could not be done well (d) in which he or she could succeed, but only at the expense of others 139. The Thematic Apperception Test was developed to measure the need for (a) achievement (b) competence (c) power
(d) affiliation
140. __________ needs are the third level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. (a) Safety (b) Ego (c) Biological (d) Social 141. Under stressful conditions, there is a strong desire to affiliate with _______ (a) anyone (b) experts (c) authority figures (d) others in the same stressful circumstances 142. The theory of early attachment behaviours may be traced to innate psychological tendencies centers on the process of (a) affiliation (b) social facilitation (c) peer group pressure (d) imprinting
ANSWERS 1.
d
2.
a
3.
a
4.
c
5.
a
6.
b
7.
a
8.
c
9.
d
10.
b
11.
c
12.
d
13.
d
14.
d
15.
C
16.
d
17.
a
18.
d
19.
d
20.
d
21.
d
22.
c
23
c
24.
a
25.
c
26.
c
27.
d
28.
b
29.
d
30,
d
31.
d
32.
d
33.
a
34.
d
35.
a
36.
c
37.
a
38.
b
39.
d
40.
b
41.
b
42.
c
43.
d
44.
d
45.
c
46.
a
47.
d
48.
c
49.
c
50.
b
51.
d
52.
d
53.
d
54.
c
55.
a
56.
b
57.
d
58.
c
59.
b
60.
b
61.
a
62.
c
63.
a
64.
c
65.
b
66.
a
67.
a
68.
a
69.
c
70.
b
71.
b
72.
a
73.
c
74.
c
75.
b
76.
c
77.
d
78.
c
79.
d
80.
b
81.
c
82.
d
83.
c
84.
b
85.
b
86.
b
87.
c
88.
d
89.
c
90.
a
91.
b
92.
b
93.
d
94.
c
95.
a
96.
b
97.
d
98.
d
99.
d
100.
b
101.
d
102.
a
103.
a.
104.
c
105.
b
106.
a
107.
b
108.
a
109.
b
110.
c
111.
d
112.
d
113.
a
114.
c
115.
a
116..
d
117.
a
118.
a
119.
a
120.
a
121.
d
122.
d
123.
d
124.
b
125.
a
126.
a
127.
d
128.
d
129.
b
130.
d
131.
b
132.
d
133.
b
134.
c
135.
c
136.
b
137.
b
138.
b
139.
a
140.
d
141.
d
142.
d
Chapter 9
Emotion 1. in their experiments concerning cognitive influences on emotions. Schachter and Singer found that: (a) "informed" subjects, in the presence of the angry confederate, became angry (b) "uninformed" subjects became either angry or euphoric, depending on the confederate's behaviour (c) "informed" and "uninformed" subjects were equally affected by the actions of the confederate (d) "informed" subjects became angry, but not euphoric, in imitation of the confederate; 2. The phrase that "the bodily changes follow directly, the perception of the exciting fact, and _________ our feeling of the same changes as they occur is the emotion" expresses a central aspect of the: (a) Cannon-Bard theory (b) Yerkes-Dodson law (c) James-Lange theory (d) Schacter-Singer theory 3. We see something frightening.--would say we run and then we are scared. ______ would say we are scared and then we run, (a) Solomon, Bernard (b) Selye, Lazarus (c) James, Cannon (d) Turner, Ortony 4. You are in a state of physiological arousal. You look to those around you for cues regarding what you should be feeling. If they're panicky, you panic. If they're depressed, you get depressed. If they're hyper, you feel hyper. Which of the following would say, "I told you so" (a) Cannon-Bard (b) Schachter-Singer (c) James-Lange (d) Shaver-Gore 5. Lindsley's activation theory of emotion centers upon the role of: (a) the limbic system (b) classical conditioning (c) the reticular formation (d) instrumental conditioning 6. The lowest frequency in brain waves occurs within the (a) alpha rhythm (b) beta rhythm (c) delta rhythm rhythm 7. Schachter and Singer's work with epinephrine demonstrated (a) the prevalence of an anger emotion over emotions of happiness (b) the validity of the Yerkes-Dodson law (c) the importance of external cues (d) the predominance of internal cues
(d) theta
8. In contrast with an emotion, a mood is (a) more intense and longer in duration (b) less intense and shorter in duration (c) more intense and shorter in duration (d) less intense and longer in duration 9. GSR measures (a) general synaptic response (c) sweat-gland activity (b) specificity of auditory response (d) kinesthetic reflex 10. The electroencephalogram relies upon (a) signals from a single electrode attached to the forehead (b) signals from several pairs of electrodes attached to various parts of the scalp (c) polygraph rhythms (d) monitoring of rapid eye movements 11. The opponent process theory has been prominent in the field of (a) vision (b) learning (c) neurosis
(d) emotion
12. William James's theory of emotional experience held that (a) emotions are primarily a product of learning (b) the physical reaction causes the emotional response (c) all responses are preceded by cognitive awareness (d) emotional patterns are based upon inherited tendencies 13. Existing research suggests that the sight of a pleasurable object causes which one of the following measurable effects? (a) blurred vision (b) pupil dilation (c) lowered-heart rate (d) lowered blood pressure 14. Watson identified the three distinct emotional responses in the human infant as (a) love, rage, fear (b) love, rage, surprise (c) surprise, rage, fear (d) love, rage, distress 15. Very high anger arousal causes which one of the following bodily responses? (a) lowered blood pressure (b) heightened visual acuity (c) dilation of blood vessels near the skin (d) lower blood sugar 16. The Cannon-Bard theory deals with the (a) thalamus and hypothalamus (b) corpus collosum (c) adrenal cortex (d) pineal gland
17. Physiologically, emotional responses take place (a) in the brain (b) in the sympathetic NS (c) in the autonomic NS (d) in all of the above 18. The "lie detector", or polygraph, is often used to ascertain an individual's guilt in a crime. It does this by measuring (a) brain waves and heart rate (b) brain waves and eye movement (c) heart rate, respiration and galvanic skin response (d) the truthfulness of an individual 19. The arousal theory, stating that emotion precedes overt behaviour and consists mainly of a general state of arousal or activation, is called the (a) Cannon Bard theory (b) James Lange theory (c) general adaptation theory (d) paired arousal theory 20. Choose the word that does not belong in the set (a) ingestion of food (b) constriction of bronchi (c) decrease in heartbeat (d) pupil dilation 21. Cannon and Bard sharply criticized the James-Lange theory on emotion by showing that (a) there were not different physiological patterns for different emotions (b) there were different physiological patterns for different emotions (c) the hypothalamus was not the "set of emotion" (d) we experience the emotion after perceiving the physiological change 22. Bandura's research on aggressive behaviour mostly focused on aggression as (a) an innate, inherited trait (b) a result of modeling (c) an instinctual drive common to most everyone (d) unrelated to rewards and punishments 23. Which one of these psychologists thinks that aggression is an inborn tendency in all animals, including man? (a) Freud (b) Lorenz (c) Bandura (d) both a and b 24. Behavioural deliberately intended to injury or destroy is the psychological definition of (a) sociopathy (b) hostility (c) aggression (d) frustration 25. Stanley Schachter proposed that emotion is a product of ________ and _________ (a) instincts, physical states (b) heredity, environment (c) motivation, learning (d) physiological arousal, cognitive appraisal 26. Who wrote the classical book entitled The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals? (a) James (b) Darwin (c) Lorenz (d) McDougall
27. The social norms concerning the public expression of various emotions are (a) display rules (b) conformity rules (c) stereotypical rules (d) affective rules 28. Suppose you met three strangers from Europe, Africa and Asia. Which of the following would you notice about them? (a) their hand gestures for expressing anger would be the same (b) their body language would in general be the same (c) their facial expression for expressing happiness would be the same (d) their vocal expressions for expressing surprise would be the same 29. Pupil diameter varies as a function of (a) serotonin levels (c) mental effort
(b) hunger (d) tactile perception
30. Which one of the following would be considered an operational definition in GSR lie detection? (a) changes in emotionality result in measureable physiological changes. (b) changes in emotionality result in observable behavioural change. (c) changes in emotionality result in changes of thought (d) changes in emotionality result in brain wave changes. 31. "Stay calm!" this physiological system says. No "fight or flight" preparation here, (a) sympathetic (b) parasympathetic (c) medulla (d) limbic system 32. We like those people who agree with us ________ found this dramatically to be true within his research. (a) Milgram (b) Sherif (c) Festinger (d) Schachter 33. A peculiar, intoxication-type behaviour in which a person loses normal control of his emotions is characteristic of (a) fatigue (b) oxygen starvation (c) thirst (d) hunger 34. When Berkowitz refers to the F-A hypothesis, he means (a) frustration-affection (b) frustration-aggression (c) feeling-affect (d) feeling aggression 35. Someone well versed in kinesics (non-verbal communication) would be studying (a) personal, territorial space (b) the meaning of body movements (c) mass communication (d) brainwashing 36. Which one of the following is an apparent bodily response to the emotions of resentment and hostility? (a) lower heart rate (b) lower blood pressure
(c) lower breathing rate
(d) increased stomach acidity
37. The uncovering and discharge of repressed emotion is called (a) transference (b) abreaction (c) libido (d) projection 38. The victim of a car accident has no physiological feeling in his body. He can, however, think and speak. The man notices that since the injury, his emotions have been practically nonexistent. This situation supports which theory of emotion? (a) James-Lange theory (b) Cannon-Bard theory (c) Sperry theory (d) Post-traumatic stress theory 39. Experts generally agree that the primary emotions include (a) fear, anger, and joy (b) disgust, anger and shame (c) love, joy and sadness (d) none of these 40. A theory that states that emotions are a joint result of non-specific physiological arousal and the interpretation of the arousal is called (a) two-factor theory of emotions (b) James-Lange theory of emotions (c) Bard's theory of emotions (d) none of these 41. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotions emphasize the role of the (a) skeletal muscles (b) thalamus (c). hormonal system (d) all of these 42. Emergency reactions refer to: (a) individuals attempt to cope with an emergency (b) bodily changes accompanying emotions of anger and fear (c) feeling of startle when suddenly stimulated (d) ways that the individual seeks to achieve emotional control 43. The basic components of emotion are (a) sympathetic arousal, parasympathetic inhibition, and cognitive labeling (b) physical gestures, facial expressions, and psychological drives (c) expressive behaviour, physiological arousal, and conscious experience (d) cognition, affect, and behaviour 44. During an emergency, increasing levels of emotional arousal are likely to be accompanied by (a) slowing of digestion (b) decreases in blood sugar levels (c) increases in salivation (d) decreases in respiration 45. A hormone that increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels in times of emergency is (a) epinephrine (b) acetylcholine (c) testosterone (d) insulin
46. As her professor distributed the mathematics test to the class, Fatima's heart started to pound and her palms began sweating. These physiological reactions were activated by her-nervous system. (a) central (b) sympathetic (c) skeletal (d) parasympathetic 47. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system - respiration and salivation (a) increases; increases (b) increases; decreases (c) decreases; decreases (d) decreases; increases 48. Which division of the nervous system calms the body after an emergency passes? (a) skeletal (b) central (c) sympathetic (d) parasympathetic 49. The purposes of lie detection, investigators most commonly make us of a/an (a) electrocardiograph (b) electroencephalograph (c) myograph (d) polygraph 50. People are especially good at quickly detecting facial expression of (a) love (b) anger (c) surprise (d) happiness 51. Research on nonverbal communication indicates that (a) blind children who have never observed others demonstrate normal facial expressions of emotion (b) children learn the facial expression associated with emotion by observing adults (c) the facial expressions of emotion on very young children are very difficult to interpret (d) boys are better than girls at recognizing expressions of emotion 52. In order to effectively manage their emotions, people would be best advised to control their (a) tone of voice (b) facial expressions (c) body posture (d) blood pressure 53. Facial expression of anger are most likely to facilitate (a) autonomic nervous system arousal (b) the catharsis of hostile urges (c) feelings of love (d) empathy 54. Anger is to rage as fear is to (a) guilt (b) shame
(c) disgust
55. The term "catharsis" refers to emotional (a) disturbance (b) inhibition (c) release
(d) terror
(d) adaptation
56. The idea that anger is reduced through aggressive action or fantasy is known as the (a) adaptation-level principle. (b) catharsis hypothesis.
(c) feel-good, do-good phenomenon (d) relative deprivation principle. 57. Experts suggest that an intensely angry person should (a) avoid the offending person so as to alleviate the problem. (b) release the anger through some aggressive action or fantasy. (c) take time to let the anger and emotional arousal subside. (d) mentally rehearse the exact reasons for the anger. 58. The feel-good, do-good phenomenon refers to the fact that when people feel happy they (a) experience a more positive self-image. (b) perceive the world as a safer place. (c) make decisions more effectively. (d) are more willing to help others. 59. Who suggested that "we feel sorry because we cry _________ afraid because we tremble?" (a) Stanley Schachter (b) William James (c) Walter Cannon (d) Philip Bard 60. The James-Lange theory of emotion states that (a) the experience emotion is to be aware of one's physiological responses to an emotion-arousing event. (b) the expression of emotion reduces one's level of physiological arousal. (c) an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers both physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotion. (d) to experience emotion one must be physically aroused and able to cognitively label the emotion. 61. Evidence that neck-level spinal cord injuries reduce the intensity with which people experience certain emotions most directly supports the (a) Cannon-Bard theory (b) adaptation-level principle (c) James-Lange theory (d) catharsis hypothesis 62. The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and the sympathetic nervous system is central to the (a) James-Lange theory (b) two-factor theory (c) Canon-Bard theory (d) catharsis hypothesis 63. You would still be able to experience emotion in the absence of any sympathetic nervous system arousal according to the (a) Cannon-Bard theory (b) James-Lange theory (c) two-factor theory (d) catharsis hypothesis 64. The results of the experiment in which subjects were injected with epinephrine prior to spending time with either a euphoric or an irritated person support the idea that (a) some emotions can be experienced apart from cognition (b) our experience of emotion depends on how we interpret bodily arousal
(c) there are subtle but distinct physiological differences among the emotions (d) happiness is largely a function of prior experience and a comparison with others 65. Our most rapid and automatic emotional responses may result from the routing of sensory input directly to the (a) hippocampus (b) hypothalamus (c) cerebellum (d) amygdala 66. The most important benefit of biofeedback is its capacity to: (a) encourage regular aerobic exercise. (b) reduce the proliferation of lymphocytes. (c) facilitate the relaxation response. (d) elevate blood Cortisol levels. 67. Which division of the nervous system is especially involved in bringing about emotional arousal? (a) skeletal nervous system (b) parasympathetic nervous system (c) peripheral nervous system (d) sympathetic nervous system 68. Concerning emotions and their accompanying body responses, which of the following appears to be true? (a) each emotion has its own body response and underlying brain circuit (b) all emotions involve the same body response as a result of the same underlying brain circuit (c) many emotions involve similar body responses but have different underlying brain circuits (d) all emotions have the same underlying brain circuits but different body responses 69. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that (a) emotions have two ingredients: physical arousal and a cognitive label (b) the conscious experience of an emotion occurs at the same time as the body's physical reaction (c) emotional experiences are based on an awareness of the body's responses to an emotion-arousing stimulus (d) emotional ups and downs tend to balance in the long run 70. Electrical stimulation of which brain region can produce terror or rage in cats? (a) limbic system (b) hypothalamus (c) cortex (d) cerebellum 71. The body's response to danger is triggered by the release of __________ by the _________ glands (a) acetylcholine; adrenal (b) epinephrine and nor-epinephrine; adrenal (c) acetylcholine; pituitary (d) epinephrine and nor-epinephrine; pituitary 72. In the Schachter-Singer experiment, which subjects reported feeling an emotional change in the presence of the experiment's highly emotional confederate?
(a) those receiving epinephrine and expecting to feel physical arousal (b) those receiving a placebo and expecting to feel physical arousal (c) those receiving epinephrine but not expecting to feel physical arousal (d) those receiving a placebo and not expecting to feel physical arousal 73. Catharsis will be most effective in reducing anger toward another person if (a) you wait until you are no longer angry before confronting the person (b) the target of your anger is someone you feel has power over you (c) your anger is directed specifically toward the person who angered you (d) the other person is able to retaliate by also expressing anger 74. Emotions are (a) physiological reactions (c) conscious feelings
(b) behavioural expressions (d) all of the above
75. Which of the following most accurately describes emotional arousal? (a) emotions prepare the body to fight or flee (b) emotions are voluntary reactions to emotion-arousing stimuli (c) because all emotions have the same physiological basis, emotions are primarily psychological events (d) emotional arousal is always accompanied by cognition 76. Schachter's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both (a) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system (b) verbal and nonverbal expression (c) physical arousal and a cognitive label (d) universal and culture-specific aspects 77. Which theory of emotion emphasizes the simultaneous experience of body response and emotional feeling? (a) James-Lange theory (b) Cannon-Bard (c) two-factor theory (d) opponent-process theory 78. Which of the following is true? (a) Gestures are universal; facial expressions, culture-specific (b) Facial expressions are universal; gestures, culture-specific (c) both gestures and facial expressions are universal (d) both gestures and facial expression are culture-specific 79. Which theory of emotion implies that every emotion is associated with a unique physiological reaction? (a) James-Lange theory (b) Cannon-Bard theory (c) two-factor theory (d) opponent-process theory 80. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in (a) increased rate of respiration (b) increased blood sugar
(c) a slowing of digestion
(d) all of the above
81. Most human fears are (a) universal (c) present at birth
(b) biologically determined (d) learned
82. You are on your way to school to take a big exam. Suddenly, on noticing that your pulse is racing and that you are sweating, you feel nervous. With which theory of emotion is experience most consistent? (a) Cannon-Bard theory (b) James-Lange theory (c) opponent-process theory (d) adaptation-level theory 83. When the scientist electrically stimulated one area of a monkey's brain, the monkey became enraged. When another electrode was activated, -the monkey cowered in fear. The electrodes were most likely implanted in the (a) pituitary gland (b) adrenal glands (c) limbic system (d) right hemisphere 84. Expressing anger can be adaptive when you (a) retaliate immediately (b) have mentally rehearsed all the reasons for your anger (c) count to ten, then blow off steam (d) first wait until the anger subsides, then deal with the situation in a civilized manner 85. The part of the brain involved in the cognitive aspect of emotion is the (a) hypothalamus (b) amygdala (c) limbic system (d) cerebral cortex 86. The part of the brain involved in emotional responses for attacking or defending is the (a) cerebral cortex (b) amygdala (c) limbic system (d) hypothalamus
ANSWERS Q.1.(b) (b) Q.7. Q.10. Q.13. Q.16. Q.19. Q.22. Q.25. Q.28. Q.31. Q.34.
Q.2. Q.5. (c) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b)
(c) (a) Q.8. Q.11. Q.14. Q.17. Q.20. Q.23. Q.26. Q.29. Q.32. Q.35.
Q.3. Q.6. (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b)
(c) (c) Q.9. Q.12. Q.15. Q.18. Q.21. Q.24. Q.27. Q.30. Q.33. Q.36.
Q.4. (c) (b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d)
Q37. Q.40. Q.43. Q.46. Q.49. Q.52. Q.55. Q.58. Q.61. Q.64. Q.67. Q.70. Q.73. Q.76. Q.79. Q.82. Q.85.
(b) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d)
Q.38. Q.41. Q.44. Q.47. Q.50. Q.53. Q.56. Q.59. Q.62. Q.65. Q.68. Q.71. Q.74. Q.77. Q.80. Q.83. Q.86.
(a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c)
Q.39. Q.42. Q.45. Q.48. Q.51. Q.54. Q.57. Q.60. Q.63. Q.66. Q.69. Q.72. Q.75. Q.78. Q.81 Q.84.
(d) (a) (a) (d) (a) (d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d)
Chapter 10
Personality 1. Which of the following stages postulated by Erikson corresponds most closely to Freud's oral stage of development: (a) trust vs. mistrust (b) initiative vs. guilt (c) integrity vs. despair (d) incorporation vs. dependence 2. Which of the following concepts is most closely associated with Allport? (a) striving for superiority (b) moving away from others (c) object displacement (d) functional autonomy 3. A person who is impatient, compulsive, and competitive is likely to be diagnosed as having a/an: (a) type A personality (b) type B personality (c) Machiavellian personality (d) external locus of control 4. Resolution of an avoidance - avoidance conflict is most like: (a) choosing between a pay raise and a different job (b) choosing between a pay raise and a longer, vacation (c) choosing between the carrot and the stick (d) choosing the lesser of two evils 5. A commonly used projective personality test is . (a) MMPI (b) BDI (c) Rorschach
(d) GPI
6. Which of the following is the best example of an idiographic approach to personality? (a) a psychologist uses factor analysis to analyze the results of a personality test (b) a psychologist analyzes case studies to determine each person's unique in personality structure. (c) a psychologist analyzes case studies to determine what traits people vary on (d) a psychologist studies normal subjects, not abnormal ones 7. Subjects are presented with one of the following learning experiences: Condition I: Learn A - Learn B - Recall A Condition II: Learn A - Learn B - Recall B If a subject in condition l cannot recall A, it is probably due to: (a) Proactive inhibition (b) interference learning (c) Retroactive inhibition (d) the isolation effect 8. The importance of vicarious learning was most clearly demonstrated by: (a) Carl Jung (b) Raymond Cattell (c) Albert Bandura (d) Keller Breland 9. A School psychologist wishes to test a second-grade student for possible mental retardation. The most appropriate test to use would probably be the:
(a) MMPI (c) WAIS
(b) Stanford-Binet Intelligence test (d) Thematic Apperception Test
10. The approaches of Horney and Adler shared an emphasis on: (a) the importance of biological instincts (b) the role of repressed sexual drives (c) the significance of social relationships in psychological development (d) the coordination between actual and perceived self-images 11. Regions and boundaries are central to the personality theory of: (a) George Kelly (b) Karen Horney (c) John Dollard (d) Kurt Lewin 12. Which of the following is the best example of reactance? (a) a toddler is told that he can only go out to play after he cleans his room (b) a student refuses.40 do homework because the members of his in-group refuse to do homework. (c) two friends continue to go out with each other even though they don't love each other anymore (d) a mother tells her child not to start smoking, so the child goes in back of the garage and smokes 13. Fatima refuses to study for an exam, saying that fate will decide her grade. Which of the following provide plausible explanations for her behaviour? (a) Self-monitoring (b) the placebo effect (c) the halo effect (d) locus of control 14. A subject listens to a tape recording of an ambiguous sound and is asked to describe what he heard. This is most analogous to which of the following tests? (a) CPI (b) Thematic Apperception Test (c) Blacky Pictures (d) Rorschach inkblot test 15. People will tend to stay in a relationship if their rewards outweigh their costs. This is predicted by: (a) social-exchange theory (b) equity theory (c) gain-loss principle (d) social comparison theory 16. A person who is high in both masculinity and femininity is said to be: (a) transsexual (b) mesomorphic (c) androgynous (d) bisexual 17. Which archetype represents the feminine side of men? (a) persona (b) anima (c) animus
(d) shadow
18. Which of the following best describes Kelly's basic approach to personality? (a) behaviour is determined by unconscious forces (b) behaviour is determined by the family structure (c) people have a need to control the environment
(d) people have a hierarchy of needs 19. The main difference between the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) and the California Personality Inventory (CPI) is that: (a) the CPI is more applicable to "normal" groups (b) the MMPI is more applicable to "normal" groups (c) the C PI is a projective test (d) the CPI is based on the DSM-IV 20. One of the principal concepts of a ________ psychologist is that of "unconscious processes (a) humanistic (b) psychoanalytic (c) cognitive (d) behavioral 21. The central difference between Freud's pleasure principle and his reality principle is that: (a) the reality principle is more salient early in life (b) the pleasure principle can only be understood through hypnosis (c) the reality principle responds to demands from the environment by delaying gratification (d) the reality principled only emerges in individuals who are self-actualized 22. According to Julian Rotter, someone who credits her success to luck and fate is exhibiting a personality characteristic known as: (a) belief in a just world (b) extroversion (c) internal locus of control (d) external locus of control 23. C. G. Jung is associated with each of the following except: (a) the collective unconscious (b) extroversion / introversion (c) archetypes (d) peak experiences 24. Which of the following terms refers to an approach to personality that focuses on individual case studies as opposed to groups? (a) individuated (b) field-independent (c) idiographic (d) cardinal 25. Franz Joseph Gall is most closely associated with which of the following? (a) ectomorphism (b) phrenology (c) tabula rasa (d) eugenics 26. According to Freud, the Oedipal conflict is normally resolved during which of the following stages? (a) oral (b) genital (c) phallic (d) anal 27. The admonition that "you shouldn't take more love than you give" is most directly supported by: (a) equity theory (b) the halo effect (c) the mere exposure effect (d) social comparison theory
28. A person gets a good grade on a midterm exam and believes that the good grade was due to an easy test. This statement is most relevant to which of the following theorists? (a) Abraham Maslow (b) Julian Rotter (c) Gordon Allport (d) Raymond Cattell 29. The sociological school of psychoanalysis, as represented by such theorists as Adler and Harney, is different from Freud in its: (a) emphasis on cognitive / rational elements of personality (b) decreased emphasis on the individuality of behaviour (c) institution of the ego with the same instinctual origin as the id (d) increased emphasis on environmental influences on personality 30. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of the ego, according to Freud? (a) the ego is in the service of the id (b) the ego mediates between the id and the superego (c) the ego is governed by the reality principle (d) the ego aims to discharge energy 31. Jung's chief criticism of Freudian theory was mostly directed against Freud's: (a) overemphasis on the defense mechanisms (b) insistence that sexual motives were the basis of neurosis (c) teleological tendencies (d) strong emphasis on ego functioning 32. Adler's individual psychology is associated with all of the following concepts except: (a) superiority strivings (b) inferiority (c) introversion/extroversion (d) fictional finalism 33. Which of the following behavioural theorists is /are most closely associated with psychoanalytic theory? (a) Albert Bandura (b) Raymond Cattell (c) Gordon Allport (d) John Dollard and Neal Miller 34. A seventeen year old girl sits in a corner, weeping continually. This behaviour could be: (a) hypochondria (b) nomadism (c) repression (d) regression 35. Most basic among Freudian defense mechanisms is: (a) rationalization (b) reaction formation (c) identification (d) repression 36. "Make up as dramatic a story as you can. Tell what has led up to the event shown in the picture, describe what is happening at the moment, what the characters are feeling and thinking; and then give the outcome". This constitutes part of the procedure for: (a) MMPI (b) Rorschach (c) TAT (d) Blacky
37. Competitive, aggressive, hostile, impatient _________ finds waiting in lines the absolute pits. This person would be considered ___________ (a) type B personality (b) cyclothymic (c) type A personality (d) avoidant personality 38. Stage theories of personality include: (a) Allport (b) Adler 39. Correctly paired is: (a) Freud - psychodynamic (c) Maslow - logotherapy
(c) Horney
(d) Erikson
(b) Sullivan - interpersonal (d) Mowrer - reciprocal inhibition
40. The 16PF scale is based on the work of ________ (a) Eysenck (b) Allport (c) Sheldon
(d) Cattell
41. The basic theoretical background for the Myers-Briggs test is found in the work of: (a) Jung (b) Erikson (c) Horney (d) Hartmann 42. "This is a story telling test. Tell what has happened before and what is happening now. Say what the people are feeling and thinking and how it will come out". These are instructions associated with the________ in personality. (a) Rorschach test (b) 16 PF (c) Myers-Briggs Test (d) Thematic Apperception Test 43. He is social behaviourist who devised an Internal-External Control Scale, (a) Allport (b) Rotter (c) Harris (d) Maslow 44. According to psychoanalytic theory, defense mechanisms develop as a function of (a) repression (b) reaction formation (c) anxiety (d) depression 45. Which one of the following has said in regard to personality that every child is a scientist, developing and testing his own hypotheses? (a) Freud (b) Kelly (c) Rogers (d) Allport 46. The personality approaches of Cattell and Eysenck rely heavily upon (a) inner forces (b) percept and concept (c) observable action (d) factor analysis 47. Definitionally central to personality as viewed within behaviourism is (a) inner motivation (b) percept and concept (c) observable action (d) reenactment of birth trauma 48. Within Newcomb's A-B-X model, if person A like X, person B likes X, and person A dislikes person B, the triad is said to be (a) cooriented (b) congruent
(c) incoculated
(d) asymmetric
49. In Adler's approach to personality, the presence of an inferiority complex within a person will be followed by (a) heightened sexual activity (b) need for maternal love (c) desire for peace (d) superiority striving 50. According to the Life Change Scale, which of the following events would be most stressful? (a) martial separation (b) retirement (c) marriage (d) son or daughter leaving home 51. According to the expectancy value theory (a) unattractive women are likely to find attractive male partners (b) males and females of equal attractiveness are likely to be matched (c) extrovert personality types are likely to pair with introverts (d) attitudes will change in the direction of one's" behaviour 52. Interest in the genital, coming to terms with Oedipal/Electra conflict, leading to identification with same-sex parent, occurs during (a) anal stage (b) latency period (c) phallic stage (d) genital stage 53. The Oedipal conflict is successfully resolved when the child (a) indentifies with the opposite-sex parent (b) identifies with the same-sex parent (c) achieves satisfactory toilet training (d) has been satisfactorily weaned 54. The socially "good" or "proper" within Freudian theory is conceptually defined as the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego (d) archetype 55. Eysenck's personality framework contains which of the following among its main dimensions? (a) parapraxes - syntaxic (b) depressive - obsessional (c) hysteric - psychopathic (d) introversion - extraversion 56. The soldier who in the heat of battle curls up in a fetal position and cries is demonstrating (a) phobia (b) regression (c) psychosomatic disorder (d) obsessive compulsion 57. "Sour grapes" is an example of the defense mechanism called (a) reaction formation (b) compensation (c) compartmentalization (d) rationalization 58. The most mature view of sex would be evident in which of the following? (a) genital stage (b) phallic stage
(c) anal stage
(d) puberty
59. A person who judges personality on the basis of facial expression is engaging in (a) phrenology (b) physiognomy (c) trait analysis (d) parataxis 60 A factor analysis approach to personality would be most positively received within which of the following groups? (a) Cattell, Eysenck, Goldstein (b) Jung, Freud, Horney (c) Rogers, Kelly, Allport (d) Skinner, Watson, Bandura 61. According to Freud, fixation at which stage of development is associated with sarcasm, criticalness, overeating and nail-biting in adults? (a) oral (b) anal (c) phallic (d) latency 62. Jung cites human infant response to mother-closeness and the adult concept of a power beyond himself as examples of (a) anima (b) animus (c) prototype (d) archetype 63. Which of the following is not directly related to clinical assessment? (a) MMPI (b) Osgood Semantic Differential (c) Rorschach (d) TAT 64. Sara's frustrated desire for closeness with her mother was expressed in painting. This is an example of (a) compensation (b) sublimation (c) rationalization (d) projection 65. The psychopathology of everyday life was a prominent work of (a) Jung (b) Skinner (c) Freud (d) Adler 66. Purposive behaviour in animals and men was the major work written by (a) Skinner (b) Thorndike (c) Pavlov (d) Tolman 67. Which one of the following would be most likely to use the term ergs in discussing personality concepts? (a) Eysenck (b) Cattell (c) Jung (d) Rogers 68. Which one of the following lists does not contain a name associated with need in personality theory? (a) Jung, Murray, Eysenck (b) Eysenck, Maslow, Jung (c) Maslow, Freud, Bandura (d) Freud, Bandura, Jung 69. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect? (a) Mowrer - two factor theory (b) Rogers - contract (c) Jung-shadow (d) Adler - superiority striving 70. To predict vocational interest you would be well advised to turn to which of the following?
(a) 19-PF (b) Rorschach (c) Strong-Campbell Vocational Interest Blank (d) Allport-Vernon-Lindzey 71. In the Freudian system, defense mechanisms protect against which one of the following? (a) repression (b) superego (c) id (d) ego 72. In the psychoanalytic view, childhood negativism can be expected during which one of the following stages? (a) oral (b) anal (c) phallic (d) latent 73. In psychoanalysis, the castration fear appears (a) within both sexes during the genital stage (b) among boys during the genital stage (c) among girls during the anal sadistic stage (d) among boys during the phallic stage 74. A woman who is angry with her husband yells at her son and sends him out of her room. This might be an example of (a) repression (b) regression (c) displacement (d) projection 75. The id draws its psychic energy from (a) outer energy (c) the ego
(b) bodily instincts (d) the superego
76. According to Carl Jung's personality theory, the terms "anima" and "animus" refer to (a) the collective unconscious (b) the personal unconscious (c) feminine and masculine archetypes (d) the animal instincts in man's unconscious 77. According to Freud, a developmental halt due to frustration and anxiety is referred to as (a) depression (b) fixation (c) regression (d) learned helplessness 78. Defense mechanisms are created by the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego
(d) persona
79. The Interpretation of Dreams was written by (a) Carl Jung (b) Sigmund Freud (c) Ernest Jones (d) Alfred Adler 80. Freud believed that the primary force in an individual's life was (a) the superego (b) psychosexual development (c) sexual urge (d) bodily function
81. "The aim of all life is death". This quote from Sigmund Freud's work refers to (a) Thanatos (b) Eros (c) the death instinct (d) the struggle between Eros and Thanatos 82. Sublimation is an example of (a) a personality mechanism (c) the primary personality process
(b) a defense mechanism (d) the secondary personality process
83. A man continues to hunt animals even though he does not need them for food. According to Gordon Allport, this is an example of (a) functional autonomy (b) ego autonomy (c) motivational autonomy (d) self-reinforcement 84. The Yerkes-Dodson Law is most closely related to (a) Skinner's learning model of personality (b) Roger's humanistic model of personality (c) Eysenck's biological model of personality (d) Sheldon's somatotype model of personality 85. When the superego becomes a major force in a developing child's personality, the child soon develops (a) anxieties (b) a moral sense (c) neurotic conflicts (d) hedonism 86. According to Carl Rogers, the structure of the personality is based upon (a) being and non-being (b) introversion and extroversion (c) the organism and the self (d) expectations and reality 87. According to Alfred Adler, man is striving for (a) self-actualization (b) power (c) superiority and goals (d) leadership 88. The field theory of behaviour was proposed by (a) John Watson (b) Ivan Pavlov (c) WilhelmWundt (d) KurtLewin 89. The Thematic Apperception Test is an example of a /an (a) intelligence test (b) projective test (c) cross-cultural test (d) achievement test 90. Which of the following is not characteristic of the MMPI? (a) it consists of ten clinical scales (b) it contains validity scales (c) it was developed within a specific theoretical framework (d) it employs a self-report method of answering questions
91. A unique combination of traits is called (a) motivation (b) personality (c) lifecycle (d) attitude 92. In Jungian theory, the "shadow" represents (a) unconscious drives (b) the animus (c) the anima (d) the persona 93. According to Carl Rogers, the structure of personality is based on (a) ego and superego (b) organism and self (c) inferiority and superiority (d) introversion and extroversion 94. The theory that we all experience a series of psychosocial crises throughout our lives was proposed by (a) Freud (b) Erikson (c) Sheldon (d) Adler 95. Analytical psychology was developed by (a) Franklin (b) Jung (c) Adler 96. The MMPI is to psychopathology as the CPI is to (a) IQ (b) childhood (c) normalcy
(d) Freud
(d) projectivity
97. Rotter's Locus of Control Scale attempts to measure (a) independence - dependence (b) internality - externality (c) rationality - irrationality (d) masculine-feminine characteristics 98. Which of these tests did McClelland first use to measure the need for achievement? (a) Bayley Scale (b) Wechsler Adult intelligence Scale (c) Thematic Apperception Test (d) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 99. According to Carl Rogers, human motivation is based on the need to (a) express one's sexuality and aggressive nature (b) actualize and enhance the self through experiences (c) find meaning in life (d) struggle between being and not being in the world 100. The Thematic Apperception Test supposedly reflects (a) how one organizes ambiguous stimuli (b) one's overall level of introversion - extroversion (c) interpersonal conflicts and needs (d) one's relative ranking on several trait scales 101. Which of the following psychoanalytic theorists proposed the need to move toward people, move against people, and move away from people? (a) Sullivan (b) Homey (c) Anderson (d) Adler
102 According to Freud, memories and drives that can be easily recalled are not within consciousness at the moment are in the (a) personal unconscious (b) collective unconscious (c) preconscious (d) unconscious 103. A hostile person comes to believe that other people are "out to get" him. According to Freudian theory, this man is (a) sublimating (b) identifying (c) projecting (d) rationalizing 104. Because the id seeks to gratify its desires without delay, it operates on the (a) satisfaction principle (b) pleasure principle (c) unconscious desires (d) super ego 105. An obese person refuses to diet and insists that dieting is unhealthy and that he needs to eat as much as he does to sustain his energy level. According to Freud, this person is (a) sublimating (b) identifying (c) rationalizing (d) projecting 106. Which of the following psychologists places special emphasis on the need for positive regard and the need for self-regard? (a) Maslow (b) Rogers (c) Sheldon (d) Franklin 107. According to Allport, which of the following are the two important components of behaviour? (a) ego body and superego components (b) adaptive and expressive components (c) personal conscious and collective conscious (d) introversion and extroversion components 108. The "Oedipus Complex" is to "Electra Complex" as (a) girl is to boy (b) girl is to mother (c) boy is to girl (d) boy is to father 109. The "persona" is the mask of conscious intentions behind which an individual hides. This personality construct was proposed by (a) A. Bandura (b) C. Jung (c) G. Allport (d) C. Rogers 110. Which of the following is not a projective test? (a) TAT (b) DAP (c) Rorschach
(d) WAIS
111. From the Freudian perspective, making fun of someone at a social function just to be humorous and make others laugh is (a) an attempt to just be humorous (b) indicative of a sexual desire for the person (c) camouflaged aggression (d) a mask for an inferiority complex
112. Intellectualization is a defense mechanism that is also known as (a) reaction formation (b) rationalization (c) compensation (d) projection 113. Responses on the Rorschach Inkblot Test are evaluated in terms of (a) location (b) determinants (c) content (d) all of the above 114. The first stage of ego development is considered to be (a) id, ego, superego conflicts (b) ego boundary setting (c) autonomous ego function (d) primary identification with the mother 115. According to Adler's theory of personality, the Oedipus Complex involves (a) strivings to escape the father (b) mainly a sexual phenomenon (c) striving to become superior to the father (d) striving to become superior to the mother 116. According to Jung, Anima is (a) the developmental phase of mid-life (b) a male's unconscious feminine characteristics (c) the dark side of the personal unconscious (d) a female's unconscious male characteristics 117. Freud developed the concept of Eros, which is the (a) death instinct (b) life instinct (c) third developmental stage (d) regressive potential 118. In Karen Horney's psychoanalytic theory, the fundamental concept is (a) basic anxiety (b) need to love (c) self actualization (d) need to be loved 119. Anna Freud continued her father's work by making contributions to our understanding of (a) Eros and Thanatos (b) ego-defense mechanisms (c) the id (d) the phallic stage 120. The California Psychological Inventory differs from the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory in that it is used (a) with children (b) on more clinically deviant group (c) with adolescents (d) on less clinically deviant groups 121. Word association tests and sentence completion tests are example of (a) verbal techniques (b) verbal projective tests (c) projective techniques (d) subjective tests
122. The Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank is a/an (a) objective testing technique (b) intelligence test (c) projective test (d) internality/externality assessment scale 123. According to psychoanalytic thinking, the personality structure consists of (a) habits (b) self (c) drives (d) id, ego & superego 124. According to Erich Fromm, a truly healthy person manifests a/an (a) receptive orientation (b) exploitative orientation (c) productive orientation (d) marketing orientation 125. Freud pointed out that an important influence upon behaviour is (a) unconscious dissonance (b) level of aspiration (c) cognitive dissonance (d) unconscious motivation 126. An unathletic man becomes a career sportswriter. This situation is an example of what defense mechanism? (a) sublimation (b) identification (c) compensation (d) displacement 127. The "Kent-Rosenoff Test is a/an (a) projective test (c) word association test
(b) factor analysis test (d) intelligence test
128. The theoretical constructs of phenotypic and genotypic basis of personality were developed by (a) Rogers (b) Jung (c) Eysenck (d) Pearls 129. The Yerkes-Dodson Law is most closely related to which of the following personality theories? (a) Freud's psychosexual stages (b) Roger's self-actualization stages (c) Eysenck's phenotypic/genotypic personality (d) Jung's introversion and extroversion types 130. According to Sheldon's somatotype theory, a person who is strong, muscular, active, and aggressive is probably (a) endomorphic (b) ectomorphic (c) mesomorphic (d) daomorphic 131. According tc Adler, the central core of personality functioning is a /an (a) perceived sense of inferiority for which the person attempts to compensate (b) autonomous functioning ego (c) actualizing self (d) both b and c
132. The personality test that is used mainly as a diagnostic instrument to differentiate between normal people and those with psychiatric problems is the (a) CPI (b) TAT (c) MMPI (d) Q-technique 133. Conscience and morality are conceptually defined within the Freudian theory as the (a) conscious (b) preconscious (c) ego (d) superego 134. Freud referred to libido energy invested in the ego as (a) instinct (b) object libido (c) regressive libido (d) narcissistic libido 135. Erich Fromm's concept of the "hoarding orientation" refers most closely to (a) a person's need for profit (b) the need to save and possess (c) a person's style of taking from others (d) the need for submission and dependence 136. Which of the following was particularly interested in the effect of birth order on personality? (a) Rogers (b) Adler (c) Sullivan (d) Sheldon 137. Interpretation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is usually (a) factor analysis (b) content analysis (c) quantitative analysis (d) qualitative analysis 138. A theory formulated by Freud which supports aggression as a means of releasing inner tension is known as (a) congruity theory (b) catharsis theory (c) instrumental aggression (d) frustration-aggression theory 139 The Draw-a-Person Test (DAP) is a/an (a) diagnostic test for individual children (b) intelligence test for nonverbal children (c) expressive, projective test (d) intelligence test for pre-linguistic children 140. According to Freud, there is one defense mechanism that leads to socially adapt behaviour. Which of the following is it? (a) displacement (b) rationalization (c) sublimation (d) projection 141. Defense mechanism are defensive in that they (a) defend against external stressors (b) guard against conflicts between the id and superego (c) protect the ego from the instincts (d) protect individuals from anxiety that they, might not be able to tolerate
142. The "hero" in the Thematic Apperception Test is (a) the subject taking the test (b) the subject's idealized self (c) the subject's identified self (d) the figure in the picture around whom the subject thinks the action revolves 143 Among the findings on Rotter's Locus of Control Scale is the fact that (a) individuals with low achievement motivation are more internal in their dispositions (b) individuals with high achievement motivation are more internal in their dispositions (c) females are less external than males (d) locus of control is an innate characteristic 144 Which of the following psychologists is a proponent of the phenomenological model of psychopathology? (a) Dollard (b) Maslow (c) Bandura (d) Szasz 145. The fundamental attribution error states that we credit success to ——— causes, and failures to-causes. (a) social, emotional (b) emotional, social (c) external, internal (d) internal, external 146. Which personality theorist placed emphasis on the importance of a person's cognitive interpretation of the world, called personal constructs? (a) Albert Bandura (b) Carl Rogers (c) George Kelly (d) Abraham Maslow 147 Suppose that a young woman is anxious about the fact that she no longer loves her husband. She copes by telling him: "You don't love me anymore". Which defense mechanism is she using? (a) denial (b) reaction formation (c) transference (d) projection 148. In Freud's theory, which stage occurs after the phallic stage of development? (a) anal (b) latent (c) oral (d) self-actualization 149. Suppose that a young woman is anxious about the fact that she no longer loves her husband. She copes by telling him: "I love you". Which defense mechanism is she using? (a) rationalization (b) denial (c) reaction formation (d) intellectualization 150. Which of the following concepts are most closely related? (a) denial - self fulfilling prophecy (b) primacy - recognition (c) repression - motivated forgetting (d) delay of reinforcement - transfer of training
151. Freud postulated that a child enters the-stage of psychosexual development at about age two. (a) latent (b) phallic (c) anal (d) oral 152. Either too much or too little gratification at a particular stage of development, thought Freud, leads to __________ (a) identity complex (b) regression (c) denial (d) fixation 153. Which of the following is a key difference between Freud and Erikson's theories of development? (a) only Freud saw that development might be arrested (b) only Erikson saw that development might be arrested (c) only Erikson saw development .as a lifelong process (d) only Freud saw development as a lifelong process 154. Which of the following concepts are most closely related? (a) id - gamma types (b) archetypes - superego (c) collective unconscious - archetypes (d) prototypes - collective unconscious 155. Self-efficacy is a key concept in which theory of personality? (a) personal construct (b) social learning (c) humanistic (d) behaviourist 156. Freud understood aggression in terms of (a) repression (b) Thanatos (c) Eros
(d) projection
157. Masiow and-both emphasized the concept of self-actualization. (a) Keliy (b) James (c) Rogers (d) Sullivan 158. Freud would probably criticize behavioural therapies on which of the following grounds? (a) they are not client-centered (b) they overemphasize ego control (c) they treat symptoms but not underlying causes (d) they take too long to help the patient 159. Cardinal, central, and secondary traits of personality are most closely connected with (a) Rogers (b) Fromm (c) Allport (d) Jung 160. One valid criticism of using the MMPI as a screening tool for measuring the personality of job applications is that it (a) was designed to detect psychopathology only (b) consists of only three personality scales (c) does not assess social introversion (d) cannot detect lying
161. The correct order of the stages of Freud's theory of development is (a) oral, phallic, latency, anal, and genital (b) oral, latency, genital, phallic, and anal (c) oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital (d) sensorimotor, concrete operation, trust, oedipal, and genital 162. Long term studies indicate that personality (a) is constantly changing as a result of experience (b) remains fairly consistent after the first seven years (c) is predominantly innate and little influenced by environment (d) is too complex a subject to systematically study 163. According to Freud's Oedipus complex, a ______ lusts for _______ (a) young girl, her father (b) man, his wife (c) young boy, his mother (d) brother, his sister 164. Carl Jung believed that (a) sex and aggression were the basic components of human personality (b) reward and punishment shape personality (c) we unconsciously carry the memories of our ancestors (d) fantasies are unhealthy 165. The ego defense mechanism that children rely on to reduce fear of their same sex parent during the latency period of development is (a) identification (b) reaction formation (c) projection (d) denial 166. An example of a conjunction fallacy is believing that (a) stress leads to heart attacks (b) smoking leads to lung cancer (c) constantly pushing the elevator button makes it come sooner (d) alcohol can cause birth defects 167. The nativist explanation of the fact that one week old babies already exhibit different personality traits would be (a) personality is already being shaped by the environment (b) an easy or difficult delivery makes the differences (c) personality is predominantly genetically inherited (d) temperament is a matter of glandular function so it varies from baby to baby 168. Which one of the following people had a son or daughter who became a famous psychologist? (a) B. F. Skinner (b) John Watson (c) Ivan Pavlov (d) Sigmund Freud
169. The reason why Freud's theories are not called Freud's laws is because (a) not enough people believe in them (b) they have not been proven (c) they have been totally discredited (d) a theory must stand for a century before it is considered as a law 170. The psychologist who is considered one of the pioneers in the humanistic approach claimed that a person's personality developed in order to allow them to satisfy a hierarchy of needs. This hierarchy was frequently depicted as a pyramid with physical needs at the bottom and self-actualization at the top. The psychologist was. (a) Sigmund Freud (b) Neal Miller (c) Carl Rogers (d) Abraham Maslow 171. According to _________ the Oedipus complex occurs between the ________ and __________ stages. (a) Freud, oral, genital (b) Freud, Phallic, latency (c) Freud, anal, genital (d) Jung, preconscious, post-conscious 172. The term most closely associated with the name Eysenck is (a) autonomic reactivity (b) parapraxes (c) reintegration (d) shadow 173. The concept of family constellation is most evident in the works of which one of the following? (a) Jung (b) Freud (c) Rogers (d) Adler 174. The personality theorist who developed the Internal-External Control Scale was (a) B. F. Skinner (b) Alfred Adler (c) Julian Rotter (d) John Watson 175. According to the tenets of family constellation, which one of the following would be most eager for physical demonstrations of attention? (a) first-born children (b) middle children (c) last-born children (d) youngest children 176. The most broadly used personality assessment instrument among the following is the (a) TAT (b) MMPI (c) Rorschach (d) Draw-a-Man 177. Which one of the following pairs contains unrelated terms? (a) thanatos - eras (b) script - contract (c) endomorph - ectomorph (d) parapraxes - anima 178. A correct sequential or development order is represented by
(a) ego, superego, id (b) anal, oral, phallic (c) inferiority feeling, superiority striving (d) autonomy vs shame and doubt; trust vs mistrust 179. Which one of the following name sequences contains no mental hospital reformers? (a) Clifford Beers, Sigmund Freud (b) Eric Fromm, Carl Rogers (c) William Tuke, Hans Hartmann (d) Dorothea Dix, Alfred Adler 180. In Freudian theory, which one of the following is reality oriented? (a) id (b) ego (c) superego (d) repression 181. According to William Sheldon's system of somatotypes, which of the following body types would correspond to an inhibited, intellectual personality? (a) somatomorph (b) mesomorph (c) endomorph (d) ectomorph 182. If an individual is facing the psychosocial crisis of identity versus role confusion, according to Erik Erikson's model, that individual is most likely (a) a preadolescent (b) an adolescent (c) a young adult (d) a middle-aged adult 183. Stability and introversion are two major dimensions of personality hypothesized by (a) Abraham Maslow (b) Hans Eysenck (c) Erik Erikson (d) Sigmund Freud 184. The phenomenological view of personality asserts that type theory neglects the (a) superego (b) self (c) supernatural (d) proprium 185. Two major dimensions of personality hypothesized by Hans Eysenck are (a) stability and introversion (b) masculinity and femininity (c) stability and masculinity (d) extraversion and repression 186. According to Erik Erikson, a young adult would be most concerned with which of the following issues? (a) identity (b) sex-typed behaviour (c) achievement (d) intimacy 187. Erikson's developmental theory centered around (a) biological forces (b) cognitive changes (c) moral development (d) psychosocial crises 188. Trait theory in personality has been most criticized for (a) not addressing heredity (b) haying contradictory dimensions
(c) attempting to quantify the impossible (d) assuming that people behave consistently in various situations 189. An individual sternly gives orders in his own home and obediently follows orders at work. This person might score particularly high on the (a) TAT (b) Rotter Locus of Control Scale (c) CPI (d) F-scale 190. Gordon Allport is known for what type of approach to understanding personality? (a) Personal construct (b) Nomothetic (c) Ideographic (d) Factor analysis 191. Which of the following theorists has been recognized for creating a developmental theory that covers the entire life span? (a) Abraham Maslow (b) Lawrence Kohlberg (c) Erik Erikson (d) Jean Piaget 192. According to Freud, the Oedipus complex in boys and the Electra complex in girls are resolved through (a) moving into the latency stage (b) identification with the opposite-sex parent (c) identification with the same-sex parent (d) the emergence of death instinct 193. Which of the following tests allows unconscious motivation, particularly the need for achievement, to be expressed? (a) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) (b) Goodenough Draw-A-Person Test (c) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) (d) California Personality Inventory (CPI) 194. Which of the following is associated with Jung's analytical therapy? (a) Dream analysis (b) Transference (c) Focus on libido (d) Hypnosis 195. Which of the following figures pioneered the concept of the inferiority complex? (a) Harry Stack Sullivan (b) Carl Rogers (c) Abraham Maslow (d) Alfred Adler 196. According to Freudian, dream terminology, condensation refers to (a) repressed urges that find disguised outlets for expression (b) the bizarre, irrational quality of dreams (c) the process whereby unacceptable thoughts or impulses are combined into a single dream image
(d) the process whereby one thing may stand for another in dream interpretation 197. A gambler lost 1000 rupees at a racetrack but he was not upset. He said, "I would have spent the money on any other thing anyway? Which defense mechanism does his statements involve? (a) reaction formation (b) undoing (c) denial (d) rationalization 198. The process of excluding form the consciousness the ideas and feelings which cause guilt and shame. The process is known as (a) projection (b) repression (c) reaction formation (d) regression 199. The centers of Freud's theory is the thoughts, impulses, wishes and motivations of which we are unaware (a) conditioning concept (b) unconsciousness (c) multivariate construct (d) biological motivation proposition 200. The research method used by Freud was (a) correctional method (b) naturalistic observation (c) survey research (d) case study method 201. Repression refers to (a) primary defense mechanism (c) frustration
(b) regression (d) none of these
202. The part of personality that provides a buffer between the inside and the outside world is (a) super-ego (b) ego (c) ego-ideal (d) none of these 203. In essence the defense mechanisms are (a) defenses against anxiety (b) ways of convincing others of one's Tightness (c) escape reactions (d) conscious self-deceptions 204 In Freud's theory of personality (a) the ego obeys the reality principle (b) the id operates by secondary process thinking (c) the superego obeys the pleasure principle (d) the ego operates by primary process thinking 205. Personality inventories are (a) subjectively scored (c) always scored on a prior basis
(b) objectively scored (d) always scored on an empirical basis
206. The concept of "introversion and extroversion" was advanced by (a) Springer (b) Festinger (c) Jung (d) Adler
207. Many of the neo-Freudians have modified Freud's original theory of personality to give more emphasis to (a) childhood sexuality (b) social and culture factors (c) difference between the sexes (d) unconscious forces 208. Which of the following identified universal symbolic images that appear in myths, art, dreams and other expressions of the collective unconscious? (a) Freud (b) Adler (c) Jung (d) Horney 209. Perfection is a problem that is most associated with the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego (d) ego and super ego 210. Which of the following tests is likely to have the highest reliability (a) the TAT (b) the MMPI (c) the Rorschach (d) none of these 211. One hallmark of projective tests is that they (a) are multiphase (b) are criterion referenced (c) require responses to ambiguous stimuli (d) measure only one trait 212. According to Freud, most of the things, we do, think and feel are caused by: (a) conditioned response to our surroundings (b) unconscious forces of which we are not aware (c) the beliefs and ideas we have about the world (d) a strong desire to grow and develop 213. One of the factors Alfred Adler believed to be important in shaping personality is: (a) difficulty in toilet training (b) birth order within the family (c) the collective unconscious (d) unconditioned positive regard 214. According to Alfred Adler, helplessness of the infant accounts for: (a) feelings of inferiority (b) a need to strive for superiority (c) compensatory strivings (d) all of these 215. Autonomous functions of the ego include all of the following except: (a) perception (b) repression (c) language (d) intelligence 216. According to Alfred Adler the prime motivating force in a person's life is: (a) physical gratification (b) existential anxiety (c) striving for superiority (d) the need for power 217. Which of the following approaches to personality is least deterministic?
(a) the humanistic approach (c) Skinner's approach
(b) the psychoanalytic approach (d) the behavioural approach
218. Which of the following did Carl Rogers believe fosters a congruent self-concept? (a) conditional love (b) appropriate role models (c) unconditional love (d) immediate need gratification 219. Enduring dimensions of personality characteristics differentiating people from another is called: (a) trait (b) factor analysis (c) determinism (d) none of these 220. Dependence, passivity and greediness are regarded as traits found in the so-called: (a) anal character (b) oral character (c) phallic stage (d) genital stage 221. Endomorphy is to ectomorphy as: (a) social inhibition is to love of comfort (b) love of comfort is to social inhibition (c) love of comfort is to need for action (d) need for action is to social inhibition 222. The difficulty with type theories of personality is that they are: (a) too simple (b) too contradictory (c) too arbitrary (d) all are correct 223. Central traits: (a) were suggested by a behaviourist to explain behaviour (b) organize and control behaviour across many situations (c) are more situations specific than are secondary traits (d) are seen in growth-oriented individuals 224. Raymond B. Cattle advanced the study of personality traits by using a statistical method called: (a) locus of control (b) identification (c) factor analysis (d) phrenology 225. In Maslow's theory of personality the main concept is that of: (a) functional autonomy (b) acquired drives (e) self-actualization (d) interpersonal relations 226. According to Erikson's theory, the struggle during adolescence is: (a) intimacy vs. isolation (b) initiative vs. guilt (c) identity vs. confusion (d) competence vs. inferiority 227. Disagreeing with Freud, Erikson emphasized more on: (a) conflict (b) racial memory (c) adulthood
(d) early habits
228. Primary process is to reality principle as: (a) ego is to id (b) id is to ego (c) superego is to id (d) primitive is to infantile 229. Freud in his study of personality and unconscious focused around: (a) dreams (b) psychopathology of everyday life (c) wit and humor (d) all of them 230. Psychodynamic determination refers to: (a) id impulses that will forever remain unfulfilled (b) behaviour that is preconscious in origin (c) the delimiting characteristics of the superego (d) behaviour that is ruled by forces over which we have no control 231 Consciousness is (a) our ability to solve problems, reason, and remember (b) our awareness of ourselves and our environment (c) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. (d) effortless encoding of incidental information into memory 232. Who is the best example of a Type-A personality? (a) Ali, a competitive, hard-driving corporation president (b) Saad, a relaxed, easy-going mailman (c) Sabeeha, a self-confident, intelligent journalists (d) Irshad, an introverted, inhibited mental patient 233. Who is the best example of a Type B personality? (a) Irfan, a self-confident, time-conscious mail carrier (b) Khalid, a relax, easy-going dentist (c) Saeed, an irritable, impatient college professor (d) Rahim, a fun-loving, hard-driving cooperation president 234. Type A is to _________ as Type B is to _________ (a) realistic; idealistic (b) introverted; extraverted (c) bright; dull (d) hard-driving; easygoing 235. A psychotherapist instructs Zahid to relax, close his eyes, and state aloud whatever thoughts come to mind no matter how trivial or absurd. The therapist is using a technique known as (a) sublimation (b) free association (c) reaction formation (d) projection 236. Forgotten memories that we can easily recall were said by Freud to be (a) sublimated (b) preconscious (c) projected (d) unconscious 237. According to Freud, the unconscious is
(a) the part of human personality that lacks a sense of right and Wrong (b) a set of universal concepts acquired by all humans from our common past (c) a collection of thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories, of which we are largely unaware (d) the reservoir of deeply repressed memories that does not affect behaviour 238. Freud believed that _________ are the "royal rod to the unconscious." (a) protective tests (b) dreams (c) sublimations (d) hypnotic trances 239. According to psychoanalytic theory, the part of the personality that strives for immediate gratification of basic drives is the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego (d) collective unconscious 240. Ego is to id as _____ is to _______ (a) personality; collective unconscious (b) reality principle; pleasure principle (c) morality; biology (d) life instinct; death instinct 241. According to Freud, the personality system that represents our sense of right and wrong and our ideal standards is the (a) collective unconscious (b) ego (c) superego (d) id 242. No matter how long and hard Samreen studies. She always feels she hasn't studied as much as she should have. A Freudian psychologist would suggest that Samreen shows signs of a (a) weak ego (b) weak superego (c) strong ego (d) strong superego 243. Two-year-old Ali derives immense pleasure from going to the "adult's bathroom" on his own. Freud would have suggested that Ali is going through the —— stage of development (a) phallic (b) anal (c) genital (d) latency 244. According to Freud, boys are most likely to experience the Oedipus complex during the ———stage (a) anal (b) phallic (c) oral (d) latency 245. Freud suggested that the superego develops through the process of (a) self-actualization (b) fixation (c) sublimation (d) identification 246. An excessive fixation is most likely to contribute to (a) reaction formation (b) projection (c) regression (d) sublimation
247. Four-year-old Iffah has not wet her bed for over a year. However, she starts bed-wetting again soon after her brother is born. Iffah’s behaviour is most likely an example of (a) reaction formation (b) regression (c) projection (d) sublimation 248. Which defense mechanism involves the conscious expression of feelings that are the opposite of unconscious feelings? (a) repression (b) projection (c) sublimation (d) reaction formation 249. Parents who disguise hostility toward their children by becoming overly protective of them are very likely using the defense mechanism of (a) projection (b) regression (c) rationalization (d) reaction formation 250. Projection refers to the process by which people (a) consciously express feelings that are the Opposite of underlying unconscious impulses (b) disguise unacceptable, unconscious impulses by attributing them to others (c) retreat to behaviour patterns characteristics of an earlier stage of development (d) rechanneled unacceptable impulses into socially approved activities 251. Ali mistakenly believes that his classmates at school are unusually hostile. In fact, Ali is the most quarrelsome and aggressive child in the school. According to psychoanalytic theory, Ali's belief that his classmates are hostile is a (a) projection (b) regression (c) sublimation (d) reaction formation 252. The defense mechanism in which self-justifying explanations replace the real, unconscious reasons for actions is (a) projection (b) reaction formation (c) sublimation (d) rationalization 253. Shahnaz is unconsciously fearful that her husband is a better cook than she. Recently, she refused his offer to prepare dinner because, she said, "You could better spend the time playing with our kids." Shahnaz's comment is an example of (a) projection (b) rationalization (c) displacement (d) reaction formation 254 While Professor Shahid was going through a painful divorce, he tended to create unnecessarily difficult tests and gave his students unusually low grades. A psychoanalyst would be most likely to view the professor's treatment of (a) reaction formation (b) rationalization (c) displacement (d) projection
255. Freud suggested that Leonardo da Vinci's paintings of Madonna's could be traced back to his desire for intimacy with his own mother. According to Freud, da Vinci's artistry provides an example of (a) displacement (b) projection (c) sublimation (d) regression 256. Carl Jung emphasized the importance of ________ in personality functioning (a) Social interest (b) inferiority feelings (c) psychosexual stages (d) the collective unconscious 257. Projective tests are most closely associated with the __________ perspective (a) social-cognitive (b) psychoanalytic (c) humanistic (d) trait 258. Mr. Eesa was asked by his psychotherapist to look at some ambiguous pictures and make up a story about each. Mr. Eesa was most likely taking the (a) TAT (b) MMPI-2 (c) Rorschach test (d) Personal Orientation Inventory 259. Freud is to the psychoanalytic perspective as Allport is to the _______ perspective (a) behavioural (b) humanistic (c) social-cognitive (d) trait 260. Characteristic patterns of behaviour and conscious motives are called (a) aptitudes (b) fixations (c) projections (d) traits 261. Factor analysis has been used to identify the most basic (a) personality traits (b) defense mechanism (c) self-serving biases (d) psychosexual stages 262. Rubina is quiet, pessimistic, anxious, and moody. In terms of the Eysencks' basic personality dimensions she would be classified as (a) unstable-introverted (b) internal-impulsive (c) manic-depressive (d) external-dependent 263. The Big Five were identified by means of (a) factor analysis (b) projective tests (c) free association (d) clinical intuition 264. Freud's term for the process by which the ego keeps anxiety-provoking wishes or memories out of the conscious mind is (a) sublimation (b) repression (c) displacement (d) reaction formation 265. Which of the following Big Five trait dimensions is most closely related to one's level of creativity?
(a) extraversion (c) emotional stability
(b) openness (d) agreeableness
266. Which of the following tests was empirically derived? (a) TAT (b) Rorschach Inkblot Test (c) MMPI-2 (d) HTP 267. Dr. Badar wants to assess the extent to which a client is suffering from depression, delusions, and other symptoms of psychological disorder. Which personality inventory would be most helpful for this purpose? (a) MMPI-2 (b) Rorschach (c) TAT (d) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator 268. The humanistic perspective emphasizes the importance of (a) free association (b) self-determination (c) reciprocal determinism (d) personality inventories 269. Self-actualized people, as described by Maslow, are most likely to (a) have a strong ego (b) be self-centered (c) experience an external locus of control (d) lack of strong sense of gender identity 270. Carl Rogers suggested that the-is a central feature of personality (a) collective unconscious (b) Oedipus complex (c) self-concept (d) persona 271. In order to assess a client's personal growth, Carl Rogers measure the correspondence between ________ and _________ (a) locus of control; self-actualization (b) ideal self; actual self (c) self-esteem; locus of control (d) the client's values; the therapist's values 272. An individual who perceives an internal locus of control would most likely show signs of a (a) weak id (b) strong id (c) weak ego (d) strong ego 273. Which of the following types of personality theories are generally based on psychometric research? (a) humanistic theories (b) trait theories (c) social cognitive theories (d) psychodynamic theories 274 Freud's theory of psychoanalysis is referred to as a psychodynamic theory because (a) of the way in which data are collected (b) it is also a type of psychotherapy (c) of its emphasis on mental forces (d) of the importance it gives to early child hood experiences
275. The most basic idea in Freud's theory is that of (a) defense mechanisms (b) the oedipal crisis (c) unconscious motivation (d) the ego 276. According to Freud, the most powerful sources of unconscious motivation are (a) the sex drive and aggression (b) fear and insecurity (c) hunger and the sex drive (d) anxiety and guilt 277. Freud posited and instinctive force that powers the sex drive but can be redirected into behaviours that are not overfly sexual. His name for this force was (a) ego (b) anxiety (c) libido (d) id 278. In Freud's view, a great deal of human behaviour really consist of disguised forms of (a) sex and aggression (b) fear and insecurity (c) anger and guilt (d) hunger and thirst 279. If you let your thoughts flow freely, without concern for conventional logic, and record every image and idea that enters your awareness, you would be engaging in something similar to the technique Freud called (a) psychoanalysis (b) secondary process (c) projection (d) free association 280. To learn about the unconscious mind, Freud drew inferences from his patients' free association, dreams, and various "mistakes" because they are (a) strongly influenced by conscious thought (b) illogical and therefore revealing of unconscious material (c) controlled by the ego (d) free ofjnfluence from the libido 281. In interpreting a dream, the analyst's job is (a) to use the overt or manifest content as a clue to the unconscious or latent content (b) to determine whether or not the dream is a true reflection of the unconscious mind (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b 282. Which of the following types of clues did Freud use to learn about the contents of a patient's unconscious mind? (a) dreams (b) slips of the tongue (c) free association (d) all of the above 283. In Freudian theory, the entire set of drives with which a person is born is called the _________ and its only goal is to gratify those drives (a) ego (b) id (c) superego (d) primary process 284. Freud theorized that the ego is an outgrowth of the ______and operates according to the ______ principle
(a) id; pleasure (c) superego; pleasure
(b) id; reality (d) superego; reality
285. Apposing the gratification of drives when their gratification would violate morality is the job of; (a) the id (b) the ego (c) the superego (d) both the ego and the superego 286. In Freud's model of the mind. (a) the id and the ego are unconscious, whereas the superego is conscious (b) the id is unconscious, whereas the ego and superego are conscious (c) the id and the ego are each partly unconscious and partly conscious (d) the id is unconscious, whereas the ego and superego are each partly conscious and partly unconscious 287. In Freudian theory, the fear a person would feel at the sight of a gun pointed at him or her would be classified as (a) realistic anxiety (b) neurotic anxiety (c) a defense mechanism (d) reaction formation 288. The ego's fear of the irrational wishes of the id is called (a) latent anxiety (b) neurotic anxiety (c) moral anxiety (d) reality anxiety 289. What type of need does Maslow's hierarchy of needs, add to those already emphasized by psychodynamic theorists? (a) esteem needs (b) needs for sex and aggression (c) self-actualization (d) need for safety 290. Self-deceptions used by the ego to reduce anxiety are called (a) primary-process thoughts (b) secondary-process thoughts (c) defense mechanisms (d) rationalizations 291. The defense mechanism that provides the basis for most others is (a) displacement (b) reaction formation (c) repression (d) projection 292. In Freudian theory, displacements directed toward activities particularly valued by society, such as artistic, scientific, or humanitarian endeavors, are called (a) reaction formations (b) sublimations (c) projections (d) rationalizations 293. Kim unconsciously hates her sister, but keenly follows her sister's successful career and provides devoted support for her whenever she seems to need it. Kirn is apparently employing the mechanism known as (a) displacement (b) projections
(c) rationalization
(d) reaction formation
294. The student who shouts at his roommate when he is actually with his girlfriend is using the defense mechanism called (a) displacement (b) projection (c) reaction formation (d) repression 295. Competitive sports may provide an opportunity for individuals to-:-their feelings of aggression (a) sublimate (b) deny (c) rationalize (d) project 296. An individual who unconsciously is homosexual consciously feels that others are homosexual. This pattern reflects the defense mechanism of (a) displacement (b) projection (c) repression (d) reaction formation 297. An individual who goes through life bent on acquiring knowledge, love, or money is showing behaviour that would be characteristic of a/an ________ fixation (a) oral (b) anal (c) phallic (d) genital 298. Tahir thinks his father is rigid and stingy, and it makes him angry that his father is always telling him to clean up his room, pick up his belongings, or tuck in his shirt. After learning a little about Freudian psychology, Tahir has decided that his father (a) has not resolved his oedipal crisis (b) is anally fixated (c) is orally fixated (d) is deficient in self-esteem 299. Freud hypothesized that boys go through an oedipal crisis during the _______ stage of psychosexual development (a) genital (b) oral (c) anal (d) phallic 300. Freud, believed that the oedipal crisis is resolved through the boy's (a) identification with other males his own age (b) rejection of his mother as an object of sexual desire (c) identification with his father (d) primary-process gratification from his mother 301. According to Freud, the healthy adult is someone who (a) finds pleasure in love and work (b) does not need ego defense mechanisms (c) is not fixated, to any extent, at any stage of development (d) has finally conquered the id 302. Karen Horney's theory of personality focused on the need for (a) sexual gratification (b) intellectual stimulation (c) conformity (d) security
303. Which post-Freudian psychodynamic theorist proposed that different ego-social needs predominate at different stages of development (a) Erik Erikson (b) Karen Homey (c) Carl Jung (d) Alfred Alder 304. Post-Freudian psychodynamic theorists tend to place more emphasis than Freud did on the role of ________ in personality development (a) anxiety (b) aggression (c) social needs (d) sexual needs 305. Humanistic psychologists point out that, in order to understand someone's feelings and behaviour we must understand how they interpret objects and events. This aspect of humanistic psychology is called (a) phenomenology (b) reductionism (c) holism (d) self-actualization 306. Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs moves upward from deficiency needs to (a) safety needs (b) bonding needs (c) esteem needs (d) self-actualization needs 307. Which of the following correctly represents Maslow's hierarchy of needs (from lowest to highest)? (a) safety, love, esteem, actualizing, intersectional (b) actualizing, physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem (c) physiological, safety, belongingness and love, esteem, actualizing (d) safety, physiological, belongingness and love, actualizing, esteem 308. The notion that personality can be defined as the entire set of one's cognitive constructs is most consistent with ________ theories of personality (a) psychodynamic (b) social learning (c) psychometrically based (d) trait 309. Albert Bandura refers to people's beliefs about whether or not they can successfully perform specific tasks as (a) the self-concept (b) self-esteem (c) self-efficacy (d) self-determination 310. A person who feels very competent, but who believes that competence is not rewarded, could be said to have an _______ locus of control and ________ self-efficiency (a) internal; high (b) internal; low (c) external; high (d) external; low 311. Which of the following theories places most emphasis on identifying individual differences and is least concerned with explaining all of human behaviour? (a) humanistic (b) social cognitive (c) trait (d) post-Freudian psychodynamic
312. Reliance on the psychometric method is a hallmark of _________ theories of personality (a) psychodynamic (b) trait (c) social cognitive (d) humanistic 313. Trait theorists generally believe that a given personality trait (a) remains consistent as the person moves from one environment to another (b) is developed through early childhood learning (c) is a fairly temporary characteristic of an individual (d) is either present or absent from an individual's personality 314. Cattell's sixteen-dimensional trait theory was based on (a) in-depth interviews with psychologically healthy subjects (b) ratings of the individuals he was studying made by people who knew them well (c) questionnaire data from the individuals he was studying (d) both b and c 315. Eysenck found fewer source traits than Cattell. The main reason for this difference was that Eysenck (a) chose to observe fewer behaviours (b) used a different factor-analytic procedure (c) used a biased sample (d) did not vary the questionnaires 316. Which of the following is not a personality dimension identified by Eysenck in his factor-analytic studies? (a) introversion-extroversion (b) stability-instability (c) dominance-submission (d) both a and b 317. In longitudinal studies, which of the following traits showed most stability over time? (a) introversion or extroversion (b) stability or neuroticism (c) sensitivity or insensitivity (d) both a and b 318. Longitudinal research on personality traits generally suggests that (a) extroverts become more introverted later in life (b) neuroticism generally increases over one's lifetime (c) there is considerable variability in most central personality traits over an individual's lifetime (d) there is considerable stability in central personality traits over an individuals lifetime 319. Trait theories have been criticized for their (a) lack of objective observation of behaviour (b) tendency to overlook biological determinants of personality (c) complexity of analysis (d) all of the above 320. Which of the following groups tends to daydream the most? (a) elderly men (b) middle-aged
(c) middle-aged men
(d) young adults
321. "Consciousness” is defined as (a) mental life (b) information processing (c) selective attention to ongoing perceptions, thoughts, and feelings (d) our awareness of ourselves and our environment 322. The text defines personality as (a) the set of personal attitudes that characterizes a person (b) an individual's characteristics pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting (c) a predictable set of responses to environmental stimuli (d) an unpredictable set of responses to environmental stimuli 323. Which of the following places the greatest emphasis on the unconscious mind? (a) the humanistic perspective (b) the social-cognitive perspective (c) the trait perspective (d) the psychoanalytic perspective 324. Which of the following is the correct order of psychosexual stages proposed by Freud (a) oral; anal; phallic; latency; genital (b) anal; oral; phallic; latency; genital (c) oral; anal; genital; latency; phallic (d) anal; oral; genital; latency; phallic 325. Neo-Freudians such as Adler and Homey believed that (a) Freud placed too great an emphasis on the conscious mind (b) Freud placed too great an emphasis on sexual and aggressive instincts (c) the years of childhood were more important in the formation of personality than Freud had indicated (d) Freud's ideas about the id, ego, and superego as personality structures were incorrect 326. Which two dimensions of personality have the Eysenck emphasized? (a) extraversion-introversion and emotional stability-instability (b) internal-external locus of control and extraversion-introversion (c) Internal-external locus of control and emotional stability-instability (d) melancholic-phlegmatic and choleric-sanguine 327. With regard to personality, it appears that (a) there is little consistency of behaviour from one situation to the next and little consistency of traits over the life span (b) there is little consistency of behaviour from one situation to the next but Significant consistency of traits over the life span (c) there is significant consistency of behaviour from one situation to the next but little consistency of traits over the life span (d) there is significant consistency of behaviour from one situation to the next and significant consistency of traits over the life span 328. According to Maslow, people can be truly creative only when
(a) they haven't been able to satisfy a basic need for sex (b) they haven't been able to satisfy a basic need for love (c) their more basic needs are relatively satisfied (d) they have successfully renounced the need for self-esteem 329. According to Rogers, three conditions are necessary to promote growth in personality. These are (a) honesty, sincerity, and empathy (b) high self-esteem; honesty, and empathy (c) high self-esteem, genuineness, and acceptance (d) genuineness, acceptance, and empathy 330. Projective tests such as the Rorschach inkblot test have been criticized because (a) their scoring system is too rigid and. leads to unfair labelling (b) they were standardized with unrepresentative samples (c) they have low reliability and low validity (d) it is easy-for people to fake answers in order to appear healthy 331. A major criticism of trait theory is that it (a) places too great an emphasis on early childhood experiences (b) overestimates the consistency of behaviour in different situations (c) underestimates the importance of heredity in personality development (d) places too great an emphasis on positive traits 332. According to Freud's theory, personality arises in response to conflicts between (a) our unacceptable urges and Our tendency to become self-actualized (b) the process of identification and the ego's defense mechanisms (c) the collective unconscious and our individual desires (d) our biological impulses and the social restraints against them 333. Seligman has found that humans and animals that are exposed to aversive events they cannot escape may develop (a) an internal locus of control (b) a reaction formation (c) learned helplessness (d) neurotic anxiety 334. The Oedipus and Electra complexes have their roots in the (a) anal stage (b) oral stage (c) latency stage (d) phallic stage 335. The big five personality factors are (a) emotional stability, openness, introversion, sociability, locus of control (b) neuroticism extraversion, openness, emotional stability, sensitivity (c) neuroticism, gregariousness, extraversion, impulsiveness, conscientiousness (d) emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, conscientiousness
336. According to Freud, ______ is the process by which children incorporate their parents' values into their __________ (a) reaction formation; egos (b) reaction formation; superegos (c) identification; superegos (d) identification; egos 337. Bilal is muscular and physically strong. Sheldon would classify him as a/an (a) endomorphic type (b) mesomorphic type (c) ectomorphic type (d) dystrophic type 338. A psychoanalyst would characterize a person who is impulsive and self-indulgent as possessing a strong _______ and a weak ___________ (a) id and ego; superego (b) id; ego and superego (c) ego; superego (d) id; superego 339. Jamila has a biting, sarcastic manner. According to Freud, she is (a) projecting her anxiety onto others (b) fixated in the oral stage of development (c) fixated in the anal stage of development (d) displacing her anxiety onto others 340. Ali is sober and reserved; Rashid is fun-loving and affectionate. The Eysenck would say that Ali _____ and Rashid _______ (a) has an internal locus of control; has an external locus of control (b) has an external locus of control; has an internal locus of control' (c) is an extrovert; is an introvert (d) is an introvert; is an extrovert 341. The school psychologist believes that having a positive self-concept is necessary before students can achieve their potential. Evidently, the school psychologist is working within the-perspective. (a) psychoanalytic (b) trait (c) humanistic (d) social-cognitive 342. One of the big debates among personality psychologists has been the extent to which one's personality leads one to behave (a) criminally (b) consistently (c) maturely (d) appropriately 343. At times, Fareeha contemplates suicide. Which of the following terms would best describe in Freudian terms what motivates those thoughts? (a) basic instincts (b) the preconscious (c) Eros (d) Thanatos 344. The Freudian personality structure that is considered to be innate is the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego (d) libidinal
345. Freud proposed that defense mechanism develop unconsciously to help us cope with (a) depression (b) thoughts of suicide (c) biological (d) anxiety 346. Directing one's motives at some substitute person or object rather than expressing it directly is a defense mechanism referred to as (a) repression (b) projection (c) displacement (d) fantasy 347: Sammy's parents refuse to believe that he has cancer and continue to tell their friends that he has had surgery to remove a "cyst". They are practicing the defense mechanism of (a) denial (b) displacement (c) fantasy (d) rationalization 348. Muzamma! is almost three years old, and insist that he must "go to the potty" every time the family gets in the car to go for an outing. Muzammal is likely in the _______ stage of psychosexual development. (a) oral (b) anal (c) phallic (d) genital 349. Freud's notion of penis envy occurred during the ________ stage of psychosexual development (a) oral (b) anal (c) phallic (d) latency 350. Alfred Adler developed the idea of the (a) Inferiority complex (b) defense mechanism (c) collective unconscious (d) phenomenological approach 351. The neo-Freudian who theorized that people have three ways of interacting _________ moving away, moving toward, and moving against other people _______ was (a) Alfred Alder (b) Carl Jung (c) Karen Homey (d) Anna Freud 352. Alfred Alder, Carl Jung, and Karen Horney all have in common the fact that they (a) had their beginnings in the psychoanalytic theory (b) offered alternate ideas to psychoanalytic theory (c) were neo-Freudians (d) all of the above 353. Which of the following is not a behaviourist? (a) Skinner (b) Maslow (c) Watson
(d) Dollard
354. Watson and his followers emphasized the role of ________ in the determination of one's behaviours. (a) personality (b) environment (c) heredity (d) motivation 355. Which of the following personality theories was criticized for relying too heavily on the notion of biological drives and concepts that are un- testable?
(a) psychoanalytic approach (c) behaviourist approach
(b) trait theory (d) humanism
356. A distinction of trait theories is that they focus more on (a) the influence of heredity (b) explaining personality (c) describing personality (d) refuting the influence of environmental factors 357. Which of the following is not one of the "Big Five" dimensions of personality in the recently developed "Five-Factor Model"? (a) extroversion-introversion (b) agreeableness (c) conscientiousness (d) stability-instability 358. Which of the following would be the least valid reason for personality assessment? (a) theory construction (b) genetic planning (c) clinical diagnosis (d) predicting other behaviours. 359. If you meet someone new at a party, what personality assessment technique are you likely to use to evaluate that person? (a) interview (b) paper and pencil test (c) behavioural observation (d) both a and c 360.Which of the following is the most commonly used personality inventory? (a) the California Personality Inventory (b) the 16 PF (c) theMMPI (d) the TAT 361. Which of the following personality inventories is not multiphasic? (a) the Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale (b) the California Personality Inventory (c) the 16 PF (d) theMMPI 362. Which of the following is not a projective technique? (a) word association (b) MMPI (c) Rorschach (d) Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank 363. The TAT was originally designed to measure (a) depression (b) personality disorders (c) personality traits (d) achievement motivation 364. Aisha got the highest score in her class on her final exam. She attributes her success to lucky guesses and a lot of easy questions. She is demonstrating: (a) an internal locus of control (b) an external locus of control
(c) a need for acceptance
(d) a need for achievement
365. The human struggle between being and nonbeing is an important theme is which theory of psychology? (a) Freudian theory (b) existential theory (c) humanistic theory (d) social psychology theory 366. Which person is correctly linked with his area of interest? (a) Jung - collective unconscious (b) Dollard and Miller - field theory (c) Breuer - fictional finalism (d) Witkin - need for achievement 367. Jung's archetypes include all of the following except: (a) persona (b) shadow (c) animus
(d) superego
368. Which of the following makes the most prominent use of statistics in its scoring procedures? (a) Rorschach Test (b) TAT (c) Blacky Test (d) MMPI 369. Which of the following makes an accurate distinction between the Strong-Campbell Vocational Interest Blank and the Kuder Preference Record? (a) success vs. failure (b) differences in administration (c) occupation emphasis vs. broad-area emphasis (d) male-female distinction vs. unified format 370. Phrenology encompasses (a) free association (b) desensitization (c) a primitive, "bumps-on-the-head" approach to personality determination (d) systematic behavioural observation
ANSWERS Q.1.(a) (d) Q.7. Q.10. Q.13. Q.16. Q.19. Q.22. Q.25. Q.28. Q.31.
Q.2. Q.5. (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (b)
(d) (c) Q.8. Q.11. Q.14. Q.17. Q.20. Q.23. Q.26. Q.29. Q.32.
Q.3. Q.6. (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c)
(a) (b) Q.9. Q.12. Q.15. Q.18. Q.21. Q.24. Q.27. Q.30. Q.33.
Q.4. (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d)
Q.34. Q37. Q.40. Q.43. Q.46. Q.49. Q.52. Q.55. Q.58. Q.61. Q.64. Q.67. Q.70. Q.73. Q.76. Q.79. Q.82. Q.85. Q.88. Q.91. Q.94. Q.97. Q.100. Q.103. Q.106. Q.109. Q.112. Q.115. Q.118. Q.121. Q.124. Q.127. Q.130. Q.133. Q.136. Q.139. Q.142. Q.145. Q.148. Q.151. Q.154. Q.157. Q.160. Q.163. Q.166. Q.169.
(d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b)
Q.35. Q.38. Q.41. Q.44. Q.47. Q.50. Q.53. Q.56. Q.59. Q.62. Q.65. Q.68. Q.71. Q.74. Q.77. Q.80. Q.83. Q.86. Q.89. Q.92 Q.95. Q.98. Q.101. Q.104. Q.107. Q.110. Q.113. Q.116. Q.119. Q.122. Q.125. Q.128. Q.131. Q.134. Q.137. Q.140. Q.143. Q.146. Q.149. Q.152. Q.155. Q.158. Q.161. Q.164. Q.167. Q.170.
(d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d)
Q.36. Q.39. Q.42. Q.45. Q.48. Q.51. Q.54. Q.57. Q.60. Q.63. Q.66. Q.69. Q.72. Q.75. Q.78. Q.81 Q.84. Q.87. Q.90. Q.93. Q.96. Q.99. Q.102. Q.105. Q.108. Q.111. Q.114. Q.117. (b) Q.120. Q.123. Q.126. Q.129. Q.132. Q.135. Q.138. Q.141. Q.144. Q.147. Q.150. Q.153. Q.156. Q.159. Q.162. Q.165. Q.168. Q.171.
(c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (a) (d) (b)
Q.172. Q.175. Q.178. Q.181. Q.184. Q.187. Q.190. Q.193. Q.196. Q.199. Q.202. Q.205. Q.208. Q.211. Q.214. Q.217. Q.220. Q.223. Q.226. Q.229. Q.232. Q.235. Q.238. Q.241. Q.244. Q.247. Q.250. Q.253. Q.256. Q.259. Q.262. Q.265. Q.268. Q.271. Q.274. Q.277. Q.280. Q.283. Q.286. Q.289. Q.292. Q.295. Q.298. Q.301. Q.304. Q.307.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c)
Q.173. Q.176. Q.179. Q.182. Q.185. Q.188. Q.191. Q.194. Q.197. Q.200. Q.203. Q.206. Q.209. Q.212. Q.215. Q.218. Q.221. Q.224. Q.227. Q.230. Q.233. Q.236. Q.239. Q.242. Q.245. Q.248. Q.251. Q.254. Q.257. Q.260. Q.263. Q.266. Q.269. Q.272. Q.275. Q.278. Q.281. Q.284. Q.287. Q.290. Q.293. Q.296. Q.299. Q.302. Q.305. Q.308.
(d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b)
Q.174. Q.177. Q.180. Q.183. Q.186. Q.189. Q.192. Q.195. Q.198. Q.201. Q.204. Q.207. Q.210. Q.213. Q.216. Q.219. Q.222. Q.225. Q.228. Q.231. Q.234. Q.237. Q.240. Q.243. Q.246. Q.249. Q.252. Q.255. Q.258. Q.261. Q.264. Q.267. Q.270. Q.273. Q.276. Q.279. Q.282. Q.285. Q.288. Q.291. Q.294. Q.297. Q.300. Q.303. Q.306. Q.309.
(c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c)
Q.310. Q.313. Q.316. Q.319. Q.322. Q.325. Q.328. Q.331. Q.334. Q.337. Q.340. Q.343. Q.346. Q.349. Q.352. Q.355. Q.358. Q.361. Q.364. Q.367. Q.370.
(c) (a) (c) (a) (b) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Q.311. Q.314. Q.317. Q.320. Q.323. Q.326. Q.329. Q.332. Q.335. Q.338. Q.341. Q.344. Q.347. Q.350. Q.353. Q.356. Q.359. Q.362. Q.365. Q.368.
(c) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d)
Q.312. Q.315. Q.318. Q.321. Q.324. Q.327. Q.330. Q.333. Q.336. Q.339. Q.342. Q.345. Q.348. Q.351. Q.354. Q.357. Q.360. Q.363. Q.366. Q.369.
(b) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c)
Chapter 11
Psychological Disorders and Psychotherapies 1. Systematic desensitization is a form of therapy most closely associated with the work of: (a) Joseph Wolpe (b) Carl Rogers (c) Albert Ellis (d) Jacob Moreno 2. The primary feature of catatonic schizophrenia is: (a) motor abnormalities (b) auditory hallucination (c) inappropriate effect (d) paranoia 3. The technique used to extinguish fear by forcing the patient to remain in the anxiety-arousing situation is called: (a) inhibition (b) flooding (c) desensitization (d) implosion 4. The client-centered therapy of Carl Rogers differs from Freudian therapy most substantially in that the Rogerian therapist: (a) refers to the patient as a "client"
(b) is more directive (c) does not emphasize tracing the development of her client's personality from its earliest beginnings (d) does not attempt to be as observant as a psychoanalyst 5. The wife of Mr. A, an extremely hard-working man with a stressful occupation, reports to the police that he has been missing for two days. Investigation reveals that Mr. A, is now living in a different city under a new name and cannot recall his former identity. Mr. A, is most likely suffering from: (a) dissociative fugue (b) identity disorder (c) dysthymic disorder (d) obsessive-compulsive disorder 6. Which of the following concepts is least directly related to psychotherapeutic technique? (a) systematic desensitization (b) retroactive inhibition (c) flooding (d) implosion 7. Phobias are usually treated most successfully through the technique of: (a) psychoanalysis (b) systematic desensitization (c) transactional analysis (d) client-centered psychotherapy 8. The unconscious process most closely associated with the phenomenon of transference is: (a) displacement (b) sublimation (c) reaction-formation (d) fixation 9. In contrast to bulimia, anorexia is characterized by: (a) binge-eating (b) a fear of gaining weight (c) repeated purging (d) a refusal to maintain a minimal normal body weight 10. Which of these illnesses is related to abnormality in the dopaminergic system? (a) schizophrenia only (b) Parkinson's disease only (c) Alzheimer's disease only (d) Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia 11. Which neurotransmitter is inhibitory? (a) epinephrine (b) dopamine
(c) serotonin
(d) GABA
12. A key feature of the DSM-IV TR is its: (a) focus on the etiology of mental disorders (b) multiaxial system of assessment (c) focus on theoretical issues (d) behaviourist outlook 13. The most severe forms of mental retardation tend to be associated with: (a) low socioeconomic status (b) physiological damage to the brain (c) malnutrition (d) cultural-familial retardation
14. Which of the following statements about neurosis is true? (a) it is not a category of mental disorder in the DSM-IV TR (b) the term was originally coined by Emil Kraepelin (c) general paresis is a type of neurosis (d) ECT was originally used by Von Meduna to treat neurosis 15. A man comes to a clinic complaining of persistent worrisome thoughts and nervousness that interfere with his work, the condition is known as (a) dissociative Disorders (b) generalized anxiety disorders (c) schizophrenic disorders (d) obsessive compulsive disorders 16. The fundamental rule of psychoanalysis is that the patient is to say whatever comes into her mind, no matter how embarrassing or trivial it might appears to be. This best describes: (a) transference (b) counter-transference (c) free association (d) projection 17. Solomon Asch conducted a classic experiment in which he asked a group of college students to decide which one of three lines was equal in length to a standard line. What was Asch studying? (a) the mere exposure effect (b) conformity (c) social facilitation (d) reference groups 18. Solomon Asch conducted a classic experiment in which he asked a group of college students to decide which one of three lines was equal in length to a standard line, What was Asch studying? (a) the mere exposure effect (b) conformity (c) social facilitation (d) reference groups 19. According to Carl Rogers, the goal of therapy is to achieve: (a) self-actualization (b) internal locus of control (c) congruence (d) self-satisfaction 20. Axis II of the DSM-IV TR is used for: (a) clinical disorders and other conditions (b) personality disorders and mental retardation (c) general medical conditions (d) global assessment of functioning 21. Which of the following personality disorders is associated with a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression? (a) schizoid (b) narcissistic (c) histrionic (d) antisocial 22. Which of the following is not an example of primary prevention of mental illness: (a) prenatal health care (b) Narcotics Anonymous (c) genetic screening (d) drug abuse resistance education
23. Which of the following is not categorized as a dissociative disorder according to the DSM IV TR? (a) amnesia (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) fugue (d) identity disorder 24. The primary deficit in anterograde amnesia is: (a) impaired long-term learning (b) faster forgetting than normal subjects (c) a frequently reversible storage deficit (d) difficulty remembering past events 25. Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy (RET) is an example of: (a) psychoanalytic therapy (b) humanistic therapy (c) existential therapy (d) cognitive-behavioural therapy 26. A therapist feels she can no longer treat a hypochondriacally patient because the secondary gain is too great to overcome. This means that: (a) the symptom is reducing the tension or conflict (b) the advantages derived from the illness outweigh the discomfort created by the illness (c) the ongoing mentation is directly related to the id and characteristic of unconscious mental activity (d) the ongoing mentation is primarily related to the functions of the ego and preconscious thought 27. All of the following terms are associated with client-centered therapy except: (a) empathy (b) unconditioned positive regard (c) will to power (d) positive, trusting environment 28. A man was picked up by the police 100 miles from his home, reporting to be someone other than who his identification named. A mental-status examination showed him to be quite confused. The most likely diagnosis would be: (a) catatonic schizophrenia (b) identity disorder (c) psychogenic amnesia (d) psychogenic fugue 29. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? (a) perceptual hallucinations (b) delusions (c) flat affect (d) disorganized speech 30. Which of the following is not a technique used in Freudian therapy? (a) free association (b) free recall (c) dream interpretation (d) analysis of transference 31. The term reaction formation is most likely to be encountered in descriptions of: (a) group therapy (b) behaviour modification (c) psychoanalysis (d) psychodrama
32. In a psychoanalytic case study, Tayyab criticizes his brother Sami's tendency to steal things when in fact Tayyab, not Sami, has been caught shoplifting on several occasions. According to psychoanalytic theory, Tayyab is most likely displaying which of the following defense mechanisms? (a) repression (b) compensation (c) rationalization (d) projection 33. Delusions are major symptoms of (a), somatoform disorders (c) substance related disorders
(b) personality disorders (d) schizophrenic disorders
34. According to Freud, resolution of the Oedipal complex: (a) has no analogous process in girls (b) depends on the antipathy of the child toward the father (c) is a sign of emergent genital sexuality (d) is marked by a sublimation of libidinal energy 35. Disturbances in nerve tracts for certain neurotransmitters have been linked with various psychiatric disorders and degenerative diseases. Which of the following pairing is not correct: (a) Dopamine and schizophrenia (b) Serotonin and mania (c) GABA and Parkinson's disease (d) Nor-epinephrine and depression 36. Dysthymic disorder are: (a) mood disorders (c) somatoform disorder
(b) sexual disorders (d) schizophrenic disorder
37. Current trends in mental health do not include: (a) stepped up emphasis on outpatient care (b) greater emphasis on community mental health centers (c) construction of larger stare hospitals (d) group therapy 38. "It treats symptom rather than cause!" This is a criticism commonly leveled at: (a) psychoanalysis (b) implosive therapy (c) behavioural therapy (d) transactional analysis 39. Among first admissions to public mental hospitals, which one of the following diagnoses is most prevalent? (a) schizophrenic reaction (b) alcoholic addiction (c) somatoform disorder (d) cerebral arteriosclerosis 40. The veterans' hospital plans to implement a technique known as "flooding." Within this approach the veterans will vividly re-live and re-experience the traumatic events they went through during combat. "Flooding" would be technically described as: (a) client-centered therapy (b) systematic desensitization (c) implosive therapy (d) counter-conditioning
41. Which form of schizophrenia contains delusions of grandeur or persecution? (a) residual (b) disorganized (c) catatonic (d) paranoid 42. Which of the following could lead to psychopathology? (a) fear of failure (b) self-actualization (c) self-confidence (d) self-direction 43. The detective was in constant danger. One day his head was slightly creased by a bullet, and he indicated immediately afterward that he was blind. Hospital observation indicated no physiological cause for the blindness. This is a case of: (a) paranoid-type schizophrenia (b) obsessive compulsion disorder (c) conversion disorder (d) anxiety disorder 44. Enuresis (bed wetting) (a) has a poor prognosis (b) is most common among adults (c) is more common among women than men (d) can result from faulty parental discipline 45. A man walking to work counts the cracks in the sidewalk. Although he is almost to his office, he fears that he has miscounted and so returns to the wagon terminal to begin counting again. This behaviour is known as: (a) schizophrenic reaction (b) sociopathic disorder (c) conversion disorder (d) obsessive compulsive disorder 46. DSM-IV refers to: (a) Drug and Shock for Mental Depression, 4th ed. (b) Developmental and Social Manual of Mental Development, 4th ed. (c) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorder, 4th ed. (d) Diagnostic and Schematic Manual of Mental Deficiencies, 4th ed. 47. Using the dynamic model of psychopathology, the theoretical cause of emotional disturbance would be: (a) faulty learning (b) lack of responsibility (c) faulty morality (d) unconscious conflicts 48. The primary problem encountered in treating drug addicts, alcoholics and sociopaths is: (a) their preference for their present life style (b) the expense of therapy (c) the fact that more want help than can be treated (d) the side effects of aversive conditioning
49. The man went off on a fishing trip and lost all the memory of who he was. Years later his original family, who had presumed him dead, read a newspaper article about a citizen award he had received in another community. This is a case of: (a) fugue (b) identity disorder (c) amnesia (d) personality disorder 50. DSM-IV is organized along _________ axes. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5
51. Javaid is dreadfully fearful of heights. His fear is formally describes as: (a) acrophobia (b) agoraphobia (c) claustrophobia (d) mysophobia 52. DSM's Axis II encompasses ________ personality disorders. (a) borderline (b) narcissistic (c) avoidant (d) all of the preceding 53. Because mentally disturbed individuals were believed to be possessed by evil spirits, early treatments included _______ (a) flogging (b) starving (c) burning (d) all of them 54. Within the current diagnostic system (DSM-IV), posttraumatic stress Disorder (PTSD) is classified as a/an ________ disorder. (a) mood (b) anxiety (c) delusional (d) dissociative 55. When we speak of "Down syndrome" or some other syndrome, the term refers to: (a) a substance-related disorder (b) a teratogenic disorder (c) a state of mental confusion (d) a set of symptoms generally occurring together 56. According to cross-cultural studies, the incidence of schizophrenia is most prevalent within the _________ classes. (a) upper (b) upper-middle (c) lower (d) lower-middle 57. Sleep walking and talking: (a) occur primarily during the dreaming periods (b) signify hypnagogic activity (c) correlate strongly with the incidence of alexia (d) occur for more frequently among women than among men 58. Research indicates the Alzheimer's disease may be related to deficiency in: (a) dopamine (b) serotonin (c) acetylcholine (d) epinephrine 59. The learned helplessness theory of depression has been the work of (a) Rotter (b) Seligman (c) Maslow (d) Bandura
60. Freud first became familiar with the concept of "talking cure" through an association with (a) Charcot (b) Breuer (c) Benrtett (d) Selye 61. The person smokes a cigarette and, because of earlier drug administration, becomes nauseous in a technique known as (a) chaining (b) extinction (c) aversive conditioning (d) reciprocal inhibition 62. Which of the following would most accurately describe the delusional situation in which a person believes others are talking about him/her? (a) delusions of sin and guilt (b) hypochondriacally delusions (c) delusions of grandeur (d) delusions of reference 63. Elevators seem to "close in" and small rooms create feelings of fear that seem unbearable in (a) anxiety reaction (b) acrophobia (c) ochlophobia (d) claustrophobia 64. A person is completely unresponsive, stares blankly into space, and never move. He shows symptoms related to (a) paranoia (b) schizoaffective (c) catatonic schizophrenia (d) residual type schizophrenia 65. In Bandura's behavioural psychotherapy, a withdrawn child in a kindergarten room would be reinforced for (a) remaining alone (b) joining the group (c) drawing a picture (d) writing his name 66. In which of the following would spontaneous recovery be most likely? (a) paranoid state (b) narcissistic personality disorder (c) stuttering (d) antisocial personality disorder 67 Psychodram a is a form of which of the following managerial training techniques? (a) incident (b) sensitivity (c) role playing (d) free association 68. The least likely treatment procedure, virtually extinct in today's psychiatric facilities, is (a) electroconvulsive shock therapy (b) chemotherapy (c) individual psychotherapy (d) prefrontal lobotomy 69. A therapeutic technique present in the work of Wolpe and not evident within Skinner's method is (a) positive reinforcement (b) negative reinforcement (c) discriminative stimulus (d) logo-therapy 70. Transvestism would be classified among
(a) sexual and gender identity disorders (b) anxiety disorders (c) personality disorders (d) somatoform disorders 71. Sixteen different, self-contained personalities within the same individual, manifesting themselves at different times, is a form of (a) anxiety disorder (b) catatonic schizophrenia (c) dysthymic disorder (d) dissociative disorder 72. Which of the following distinguishes anxiety from fear? (a) realistic environmental danger (b) strength of emotion (c) galvanic skin response (d) blood pressure 73. A characteristic of schizophrenia is (a) heightened awareness of reality (b) eidetic imagery (c) withdrawal from interpersonal relationships (d) psychological "paralysis" in a portion of the body 74. Intense fear of open places is known as (a) ochlophobia (b) acrophobia (c) claustrophobia (d) agoraphobia 75. Transference and resistance are most common in (a) psychoanalysis (b) group therapy (c) behaviour therapy (d) client-centered therapy 76. Depression is mild and includes within it no distortions of reality in (a) sleep disorder (b) organic disorder (c) mood disorder (d) personality disorder 77. Which of the following is believed to have an important role in mood disorders? (a) nor-epinephrine (b) estrogen (c) progesterone (d) acetylcholine 78. Emotional problems are treated through role-playing technique in (a) psychodrama (b) client-centered therapy (c) implosive therapy (d) logotherapy 79. Researchers find the highest incidence of schizophrenia (a) between fraternal twins (b) between identical twins (c) between siblings (d) in urban areas 80. A form of group therapy in which the therapist lectures and leads discussions is (a) inspirational (b) didactic
(c) nondirective
(d) abreaction
81. Long-term follow-up studies of patients treated through behaviour modification technique indicate (a) high rates of relapse among practically all patients (b) high rates of relapse among neurotic patients (c) high rates of relapse among hypochondriacally patient (d) few relapses 82. A person expressing functional blindness could be experiencing a/an (a) dissociative disorder (b) somatoform disorder (c) anxiety disorder (d) cyclothymic disorder 83. Make pair as," Repression : suppression (a) classical: instrumental (b) fixation : regression (c) involuntary : voluntary (d) frustration : conflict 84. Which of the following is the most common disorder? (a) somatoform disorder (b) dissociative disorder (c) anxiety disorder (d) personality disorder 85. Given limited funds and a limited time period, which of the following methods might be recommended for dealing with a phobic reaction? (a) psychoanalysis (b) transcendental meditation (c) systematic desensitization (d) logo-therapy 86. The psychoanalyst becomes the recipient of affection that the patient felt earlier in her life toward her father in (a) transference (b) connotation (c) reaction formation (d) Oedipus complex 87. Which of the following does not express a dissociative disorder? (a) identity disorder (b) fugue (c) somatoform (d) depersonalization 88. In psychiatric team, which one of the following would be the exclusive responsibility of the psychiatrist? (a) behaviour modification (b) electroconvulsive shock therapy (c) psychodiagnosis (d) group therapy 89. Which of the following techniques places greatest emphasis upon the goal of making a client aware of the totality of his behaviour? (a) implosive therapy (b) logotherapy (c) Gestalt therapy (d) ego analysis 90. The major affective disorders are characterized by
(a) extreme and inappropriate emotional responses (b) with drawl and emotional distortion (c) severe depression (d) chronic experience of depression 91. A key component of paranoia is usually (a) an organized delusional system with jealous content (b) the presence of tactile hallucinations (c) the experiencing of vivid auditory hallucination (d) The presence of a dual personality 92. Modeling is a technique used in (a) behaviour therapy (b) client-centered therapy (c) rational-emotive therapy (d) psychoanalysis 93. Choose the word that does not belong in the set (a) amnesia (b) fugue (c) identity disorder (d) schizoaffective disorders 94. Someone who repeatedly washes his hands even when they are not dirty may be said to be suffering from (a) a conversion reaction (b) an obsession (c) a compulsion (d) a phobia 95. The behavioural modification technique that uses repeated. exposure to aversive stimuli or disturbing scenes to extinguish the emotional responses associated with those stimuli is (a) systematic desensitization (b) implosive therapy (c) reciprocal inhibition (d) token economy system 96. Psychodrama, a form of group therapy in which participants act out their feelings as if they were actors, was introduced by (a) Frankl (b) Jung (c) Erikson (d) Moreno 97. A genetic defect known as Klinefelter's syndrome typically produces a tall, thin, sterile male with underdeveloped testes and breast development. This sex chromosome make up is (a) XXY (b) XY (c) XX (d) XYY 98. Phenylketonuria or PKU refers to a/an (a) neurotransmitter (b) severe form of mental retardation (c) inner ear membrane (d) part of the eye 99. Aversion therapy would be used for which of the following problems? (a) alcoholism (b) paranoia (c) anxiety (d) phobias
100. Free association is the cornerstone of the __________ approach to therapy? (a) humanistic (b) psychoanalytic (c) neurobiological (d) behaviouristic 101. Which of the following is not one of the categories of dissociative disorders according toDSMIV? (a) psychogenic amnesia (b) identity disorder (c) catatonic schizophrenia (d) psychogenic fugue 102. Parkinson's disease is a gradual degeneration of a particular path of (a) serotonin-containing axons (b) dopamine-containing axons (c) motor neuron (d) acetylcholine-containing axons 103. All of the following are often psychosomatic disorders except: (a) hypertension (b) gastrointestinal disorder (c) paranoia (d) migraines 104. In children, the presence of bizarre and repetitive activities, a fascination withunusual objects, and on obsession with maintaining the sameness of their environment are signs of (a) hyperactivity (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) autism (d) mania 105. An individual who goes "blind" suddenly yet seems unconcerned about this dramatic loss and shows no underlying organic reason for the loss is probably suffering from (a) dissociative disorder (b) conversion disorder (c) occipital phobia (d) post-traumatic stress syndrome 106. A behaviourist would contend that depression is caused by (a) unconscious conflicts (b) failure to become self-actualized (c) failure to learn the proper way to behave (d) society labeling people as abnormal 107. Which of the following is not an anxiety disorder? (a) social phobia (b) panic disorder (c) manic depression (d) agoraphobia 108. Which of the following is a common symptom of anxiety disorders? (a) hallucinations (b) illusion (c) delusions (d) bodily complaints 109. Which of the following concepts are most closely related? (a) thought disorder - schizophrenia (b) identity disorder - schizophrenia (c) hallucination - depression (d) amnesia-catatonia
110. Which of the following is not a characteristic of schizophrenia? (a) hallucinations (b) delusions (c) aberrant speech (d) extreme mood swings 111. Suppose that a housewife comes to a therapist complaining of extreme fear about leaving her home. Based only on this information, what would the therapist's preliminary diagnosis be? (a) free floating anxiety (b) agoraphobia (c) social phobia (d) depression 112. Which of the following concepts are most closely related? (a) client centered therapy - psychoanalysis (b) aversion therapy - insight therapy (c) implosion - catharsis (d) token economy - positive reinforcement 113. For unknown reasons some mental patients improve without receiving any treatment. This is called a _____ effect. (a) placebo (b) spontaneous recovery (c) self-fulfilling prophecy (d) halo 114. According to DSM-IV, all mental disorders are characterized by either distress or _____ (a) depression (b) anxiety (c) hallucination (d) disability 115. Suppose a 18-year old boy has been repeatedly suspended from school, frequently fights his peers, cannot keep a job, and several times has stolen money from his parents. How would a psychologist probably label him. (a) manic disorder (b) juvenile delinquent (c) schizoid personality type (d) antisocial personality disorder 116. The man who inadvertently discovered hypnotism and tried to make a living from it was (a) Benjamin Spock (b) Anton Mesmer (c) Fritz Perls (d) Sigmund Freud 117. Establishing a fear hierarchy list is the first step in (a) psychoanalysis (b) client-centeredtherapy (c) rational-emotive therapy (d) systematic desensitization therapy 118. The only illness that electroconvulsive therapy (shock treatments) has been successful in treating is (a) compulsive gambling (b) depression (c) mania (d) schizophrenia 119. Client-centered therapy is the cornerstone of the ________ approach to therapy. (a) behavioural (b) cognitive (c) humanistic (d) psychoanalysis
120. The most radical form of therapy ever provided for people is (a) systematic desensitization (b) client-centered therapy (c) psychosurgery (d) primal scream therapy 121. Most psychotherapists use ______ approach. (a) the psychoanalytic (b) a behavioural (c) an eclectic (d) a humanistic 122. Washing your hands 50 times a day is an example of _______ behaviour. (a) obsessive (b) phobic (c) dissociative (d) compulsive 123. The only type of psychotherapist that can prescribe drugs is a (a) clinical psychologist (b) psychiatric nurse (c) psychiatrist (d) psychiatric social worker 124. A girl is desperately afraid of gaining Weight, thinks that she's fat, and is actually 20% below the average weight for a woman of her height and age. Which disorder does she have? (a) encopresis (b) bulimia (c) anorexia (d) Hypochondriasis 125. Which of the following is within the psychotomimetic (hallucinogens) drug classification? (a) aspirin (b) LSD (c) nicotine (d) chlorpromazine 126. If Psychotherapist informed persons that they had just attained high scores on the F-scale, they could accurately conclude that (a) their scores were significant beyond the .05 level (b) they had scored high on authoritarianism (c) there was strong likelihood that they were not very superstitious (d) they had high flexibility and openness in their attitude formation and change 127. Safia is suffering from depression. She most likely is taking which of the following: (a) Haldol (b) Zoloft (c) Resperdol (d) Thorazine 128. Bi-polar disorders are (a) mood related (c) delusional
(b) anxiety related (d) substance related
129. As you were walking down the hall, three people standing there were talking about you. You are sure of it. (a) schizophrenic (b) delusional (c) dissociative (d) somatoform 130. They are serotonin reuptake blockers, a "second generation" of drugs to treat (a) anxiety disorders (b) somatoform disorders (c) mood disorders (d) sleep disorder
131. You strike someone without provocation. You misbehave the police officer to his face. All of these are symptomatic of (a) somatoform (b) eating disorder (c) impulse control disorders (d) mood disorders 132. Sobia lacks any affection or interpersonal bonds. She's highly manipulative without guilt. Her symptoms are consistent with those of __________ personality disorder. (a) dependent (b) antisocial (c) paranoid (d) histrionic 133. "What is your finger doing now? What is your hand doing now?" With this focus on bodily movements as expressions of one's feelings, you would expect to be seated in the presence of a _______ therapist. (a) behaviour (b) cognitive (c) Gestalt (d) psychodynamic 134. Tahir is taking a prescribed drug, Thorazine (chlorpromazine). From your knowledge of medical treatments you conclude that he needed an ______ medication. (a) anti-depressant (b) anti-manic (c) anti-anxiety (d) anti-psychotic 135. In the history of mental health movement, which of the following had a major impact in changing the way emotionally disturbed people were treated? (a) Hippocrates (b) Beers (c) Pinel (d) all of them 136. Early fears are to enzyme deficiency as ______ is to ________ (a) sociogenic, androgenic (b) psychogenic, somatogenic (c) behaviouristic, perceptual (d) psychoanalytic, behavioural 137. Dr. Najma is treating Farid for depression. She notes Farid's depression related behaviours and sets up a series of reinforcement schedules for change. The therapy Dr. Najma is utilizing is within the _______ model. (a) cognitive (b) learning (c) medical (d) psychodynamic 138. Global amnesia results in a striking disruption of (a) procedural memory (b) explicit memory (c) implicit memory (d) short term memory 139. The terms script and contract are prominent within which of the following approaches? (a) psychoanalysis (b) systematic desensitization (c) implosive therapy (d) transactional analysis 140. Within DSM-IV, Huntington's disease would be categorized as which type of disorder? (a) schizophrenic (b) dissociative (c) delirium/dementia (d) factitious 141. Abreaction would be most common as a result of (a) psychosurgery (b) psychotherapy
(c) LSD therapy
(d) electroconvulsive shock therapy
142. Which of the following distinguishes a sedative from a tranquilizer? (a) drowsiness inducing characteristics (b) speed with which it takes effect (c) anxiety reducing capacity (d) mood elevation properties 143. A tranquilizer widely used in the treatment of schizophrenia is (a) tubocurarine (b) chlorpromazine (c) LSD
(d) mescaline
144. The effect of psychotomimetic drugs resemble which one of the following reactions? (a) depressive (b) hypermanic (c) schizophrenic (d) delirium 145. Haroon has been diagnosed as schizophrenic. Which of the following most likely will be prescribed for him to take? (a) haloperidol (b) amphetamines (c) atropine (d) mescaline 146. The moron-imbecile-idiot classification of the mentally retarded was changed because (a) the categories were not sufficiently inclusive (b) unfortunate stereotyped had occurred (c) five categories were needed instead of three (d) four categories were needed instead of three 147. Cannabis sativa is most commonly known as (a) LSD (b) heroin (c) opium
(d) marijuana
148. Relaxation followed by successive approximation to objects formerly feared is (a) aversive conditioning (b) fear conditioning (c) implosive therapy (d) systematic desensitization 149. Which one of the following constitutes a distinction between conversion disorder and hypochondriasis disorder? (b) learning disability (c) brain damage (d) delusions 150 Enhancing the action of dopamine receptors has what effect on schizophrenic symptoms? Blocking these receptors has what effect on schizophrenic symptoms? (a) Increases/increases (b) decreases/decreases (c) increases/decreases (d) decrees/increases 151. Within the current classification system (DSM-IV), hypochondriasis would be considered what type of disorder?
(a) psychosexual
(b) dissociative
(c) affective
(d) somatoform
152. Which one of the following would not be categorized among personality disorders? (a) paranoid (b) schizoid (c) antisocial (d) neuroleptic 153. Behaviourist would not consider maladaptive counter-conditioning an appropriate therapeutic technique for (a) anxiety reaction (b) chronic tensions (c) transvestism (d) phobias 154. Which of the following would be considered the least important factor in a therapist's success rate? (a) personality theory orientation (b) amount of experience (c) capacity of empathy (d) genuineness 155. The individual is opiate-addicted. The individual is most likely taking which of the following? (a) cocaine (b) morphine (c) clozapine (d) Phenobarbital 156. Lovaas utilizes behaviour modification techniques in the treatment of (a) autism (b) aphasia (c) acute depression (d) drug addiction 157. Superstition would be most evident within which of the following personality terms? (a) prototaxic (b) intuiting mode (c) syntaxic (d) parataxic 158 This person is taking Librium (chlordiazepoxide). The disorder being treated is most likely ________ related. (a) depression (b) manic (c) anxiety (d) psychotic 159. Which of the following drug classifications would include cocaine? (a) stimulants (b) sedative-hypnotics (c) antipsychotic agents (d) opiates 160. Frotteurism is a disorder that involves (a) acute depression (c) rubbing against (b) cyclothymia (d) pyromania 161. Which of the following has not been used in the treatment of alcoholism? (a) hospital setting (b) chlorpromazine (c) Synanon (d) family support 162. Which one of the following disorders is most likely to lead a person to cover a sizable amount of geographical territory? (a) amnesia (b) dysthymia (c) fugue (d) anxiety
163. A therapeutic technique in which the patient enacts a life situation or experience demonstrating his conflict is called (a) psychodrama (b) socio-drama (c) release therapy (d) nondirective therapy 164. The term psychosomatic refers to (a) the imagined discomforts of hypochondriacs (b) the unique symptoms displayed by psychotics (c) a continuous emergency reaction and the resulting tissue damage (d) a physical disorder complicated by a neurosis 165. Among the following, the most serious phase of alcoholism is (a) crucial (b) occasional (c) chronic (d) critical 166. In electroconvulsive shock therapy (a) a muscle relaxant is used to reduce the dangers of the seizure (b) the resultant seizure lasts for five to ten minutes (c) consciousness is retained throughout (d) LSD is often administered 167. An IQ of 40 is associated with the classification known as (a) non-trainable (b) mildly retarded (c) severely retarded (d) moderately retarded 168. Which of the following is not categorized as a personality disorder according to the DSM-IV? (a) narcissistic (b) antisocial (c) impulsive (d) borderline 169. According to the DSM-IV, each of the following is a category of mental disorders except (a) substance-related disorders (b) personality disorders (c) mood disorders (d) memory disorders 170. A psychiatrist would include his client's Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) in which of the following? (a) theMMPI (b) the DSM-IV (c) the Myers-Briggs (d) the Stanford-Binet 171. Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy (RET) is an example of (a) psychoanalytic therapy (b) humanistic therapy (c) existential therapy (d) cognitive-behavioural therapy 172. Schizophrenia was formerly known as (a) Huntington's disease (b) dementia praecox (c) Pick's disease (d) cretinism 173. Lithium salts have been found to be an effective treatment for (a) Tourette's syndrome (b) Down's syndrome
(c) bipolar disorder
(d) schizophrenia
174. A 17-year-old subject with a family history of schizophrenia exhibited no symptoms of schizophrenia prior to the death of his mother. Soon after his mother's death, psychotic symptoms begin to appear and he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. This scenario is most consistent with which of the following? (a) Dopamine hypothesis (b) Diathesis-stress model (c) Weber's Law (d) Yerkes-Dodson Law 175. Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) has been found to be an effective intervention for (a) eating disorders (b) anxiety disorders (c) schizophrenia (d) severe depression 176. A patient is given a diagnosis of social phobia after an intake evaluation. The most likely presenting complaint was fear of (a) closed spaces (b) high places (c) going crazy (d) being embarrassed or scrutinized by others 177. Which of the following treatment modalities would be most useful in enhancing the skills of patients with severe mental retardation? (a) token economy (b) psychoanalysis (c) cognitive therapy (d) systematic desensitization 178. Which type of drug is indicated for the treatment of depression? (a) Thorazine (b) Tricyclics (c) Haldol (d) Chlorpromazine 179. Which of the following drugs would most likely be used to treat an acute schizophrenic episode? (a) Diphenylhydantoin (b) MAO inhibitor (c) chlorpromazine (d) Diazepam 180. Which of the following is a natural "painkiller"? (a) GABA (b) Dopamine (c) Prozac
(d) Endorphins
181. The most severe forms of mental retardation tend to be associated with (a) low socioeconomic status (b) cultural-familial retardation (c) physiological damage to the brain (d) a deprivation of environmental stimulation during infancy 182. In the DMS-IV, identity disorder is categorized as a/n (a) schizophrenic disorder (b) dissociative disorder (c) anxiety disorder (d) somatoform disorder 183. Early diagnosis offers hope of avoiding the effects of
(a) schizophrenia (c) Down's syndrome
(b) senile dementia (d) PKU (Phenylketonuria)
184. Which of the following statements about neurosis is true? (a) it was used by Freud to indicate disorders where reality testing was impaired. (b) The term was originally coined by Emil Kraepelin. (c) ECT was originally used by Von Meduna to treat neurosis. (d) it is not a category of mental disorder in the DSM-IV. 185. Dorothea Dix is most noted as (a) an important precursor to psychoanalysis (b) an early follower of Jean Charcot (c) the founder of structuralism (d) an important 19th century crusader for the improvement of mental hospitals 186. The hypothesis that mood disorder is caused by an interaction between a genetic disturbance and separation from loved ones would be most relevant to which of the following? (a) psychoanalysis (b) behaviourism (c) diathesis-stress (d) humanism 187. Bipolar disorder is (a) a severe form of disorder (b) best treated by Valium (c) characterized by episodes of depression and mania (d) a most recent term for cyclothymic disorder 188. Which of the following is one of the sixteen major diagnostic categories used in the DSM-IV? (a) borderline disorder (b) paranoid disorder (c) factitious disorder (d) obsessive compulsive disorder 189. Sonia has experienced feelings of worthlessness, low energy, and a loss of interest in life for most of the days of the past three years. She would most likely be diagnosed with (a) major depressive disorder (b) dysthymic disorder (c) severe melancholia (d) existential neurosis 190. The DSM-IV presents a scheme for assessment called multiaxial assessment. It is called multiaxial because it employs five different axes for evaluation in order to create a complete picture of the client. Which of the following is not one of the five axes used? (a) general medical conditions (b) clinical disorder (c) dreams (d) personality disorders 191. Long-term use of a dopamine-blocking neuroleptic would probably improve the condition of (a) tardive dyskinesia (b) Parkinson's disease (c) schizophrenia (d) Wernicke's syndrome
192. A therapist listens to the choices of his client with unconditional positive regard. The goal of this therapy is most likely (a) a sense of meaningfulness (b) congruence for the self (c) decreased inferiority (d) development of effective beliefs 193. Which of the following disorders is the modern name for hysteria? (a) Paresis (b) Hypochondriasis (c) Conversion disorder (d) Factitious disorder 194. The APA was founded by (a) John Watson (c) Stanley Hall
(b) William James (d) Wilhelm Wundt
195. Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by excessive emotion and attention seeking? (a) Histrionic (b) Antisocial (c) Dependent (d) Schizotypal 196. An individual with Korsakoff s syndrome might engage in (a) neologisms (b) echolalia (c) echopraxia (d) confabulations 197. Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate for an individual who suffered from strong feelings of meaninglessness and who hoped to find more meaning in life? (a) Client-centered therapy (b) Psychoanalytic therapy (c) Existential therapy (d) Individual therapy 198. Benzodiazepines work to relieve anxiety by enhancing the effects of (a) GABA (b) glutamate (c) serotonin (d) endorphins 199. Which of the following is not a dissociative disorder? (a) Amnesia (b) Schizophrenia (c) Identity disorder (d) Fugue 200. Behaviour therapy would be most useful in treating (a) a childhood disorder (b) paranoid schizophrenia (c) depression (d) Tardive dyskinesia 201. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? (a) Delusions (b) Flat affect (c) Hallucinations (d) Neologisms 202. Anxiety disorders may be characterized by (a) psychotic symptoms (b) telegraphic thoughts (c) somatic symptoms (d) none of these 203. A therapist who encourages clients to relate their dreams and searches its roots is (a) psychoanalysis (b) humanistic therapy
(c) person-centered therapy
(d) cognitive therapy
204. If a person washes his hands 50 times a day, the behaviour will be labeled disordered because it is (a) an atypical behaviour (b) unjustified and maladaptive (c) not explained by the medical model (d) harmful and disturbing to others 205. Amnesia, fugues and identity disorder involve gaps in awareness for example, sudden loss of memory or change of identify. These psychological disorders are called (a) anxiety disorder (b) dissociative disorders (c) mood disorders (d) memory disorder 206. Many of the neo-Freudians have modified Freud's original theory of personality to give more emphasis to (a) child sexuality (b) social and cultural factors (c) difference between the sexes (d) unconscious forces 207. Which of the following statements applied to the unconscious? (a) its elements are inaccessible to the conscious (b) it is closely related to pleasure principle (c) all of these (d) it is closely related to instincts 208. Fixed false belief based on incorrect inferences about external reality is called (a) delusion (b) obsession (c) overvalued idea (d) phobia 209. A simple schizophrenia is characterized by (a) an insidious loss of drive and ambition (b) persistent delusions (c) persistent hallucination (d) all of these 210. A therapist who encourages clients to relate their dreams and searches for the unconscious roots of their problems is drawn from (a) psychoanalysis (b) humanistic therapies (c) person-centered therapy (d) cognitive therapy 211. Which of the following is not true regarding people with a mental illness? (a) they frequently are in considerable distress (b) society views such people as in need of help (c) they usually pose a danger to themselves or others . (d) they usually have behaviour that is in some way different
212. Dementia is a condition that is characterized by (a) general paresis (b) physical ailments (c) a general intellectual decline (d) the loss of contact with reality 213. The ancient Greek physicians characterized hysteria as (a) euphoric behaviour (b) uncontrollable sobbing (c) an inability to control emotional, responses (d) a physical ailment without any physical cause 214. A feeling of apprehension or tension is (a) frustration (b) panic (c) anxiety
(d) none of these
215. Main functions of stimulants are (a) to alleviate tension (b) to provide energy and alertness (c) prescribed for insomnia (d) none of these 216. Behaviour therapists believe that insight is (a) non-sufficient for behaviour change (b) not necessary for behaviour change (c) a worthwhile goal (d) all of these 217. The suggested cause of abnormal behaviour, from the cognitive perspective is (a) faulty learning (b) early childhood experiences (c) faulty thinking (d) unconscious, unresolved conflicts 218. The most frequently occurring major psychological disorder is (a) phobia (b) Schizophrenia (c) depression (d) bipolar 219. Person-centered therapy is best described as (a) confrontive (b) structured (c) non directive (d) objective 220. Systematic desensitization is used in treatment of (a) Schizophrenia (b) mood disorders (c) phobias (d) somatoform disorders 221. Psychosomatic disorder are best illustrated by (a) asthma caused by anxiety (b) neurotic anxiety (c) insomnia (d) over-eating
222. The assessment tools upon which clinicians depend and gather information about their clients belong in which of the following categories? (a) interviews (b) tests (c) observations (d) all of these 223. The best definition of psychotherapy includes (a) a sufferer a healer and a systematic interaction between the two (b) a healer that uncovers unconscious conflicts and heals the personality (c) the removal of symptoms about which the patient complains (d) the use of taking and drugs to change behaviour 224. Therapists who focus on altering faulty thought processes are (a) cognitive therapist (b) biological therapist (c) humanistic therapists (d) none of these 225. Two example of mood disorders are: (a) major depression and generalized anxiety disorder (b) obsessive compulsive disorder and manic depressive disorder (c) major depression and bipolar disorder (d) major depression and obsessive compulsive disorder 226. A type of schizophrenia characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and diffuse psychological organization is referred to as: (a) undifferentiated (b) disorganized (c) residual (d) fragmented 227. Which symptomsis not typically characteristic of an autistic child? (a) hyperactivity (b) impairment in communication (c) social isolation (d) restricted range of interest 228. An approach that seeks to alleviate poverty and other stresses that put people at high risk for developing psychological disorder is: (a) biomedical therapy (b) the humanistic approach (c) preventive mental health (d) empathy and active listening 229. An episode of intense dread, which is typically accompanied by feelings of terror and dizziness, chest pain, etc., is called. (a) a social phobia (b) generalized or chronic anxiety (c) a panic attack (d) an obsessive fear 230. The most frequently cited characteristic among children with ADHD is: (a) perceptual - motor impairment (b) disorder of memory and thinking (c) disorder of memory and hearing (d) hyperactivity 231. Axis III in DSM IV addresses:
(a) the major abnormal disorder (c) physical disorder (b) primary personality disorder (d) none of these 232. An individual who is identified as having a borderline personality disorder shows: (a) persecutory thoughts (b) exhibitionistic tendencies (c) instability in mood and social relations (d) apathy and indifference to opinions of others 233.Two explicitly directive psychotherapeutic approaches are: (a) behaviour therapy and psychodynamic therapy (b) behaviour therapy and humanistic therapy (c) humanistic therapy and existential therapy (d) cognitive therapy and behaviour therapy 234. Compared to psychoanalytic therapists, humanistic therapists are more likely to emphasize: (a) hidden or repressed feelings (c) psychological disorders (b) childhood experience (d) self-fulfillment and growth 235. Behaviour therapies apply learning principles to: (a) identify and treat the underlying causes of dysfunction (b) improve learning and insight (c) eliminate the unwanted behaviour (d) improve communication and social sensitivity 236. An example of cognitive therapy is rational emotive therapy, which is developed by: (a) Carl Rogers (b) Joseph Wolpe (c) Albert Ellis (d) Allen Bergin 237. The explicit and implicit rules that a society establishes to govern conduct are referred to as: (a) culture (b) norms (c) morality (d) conventions 238. The violation of a society's explicit and implicit norms can be viewed as not normal in the sense that the violation is: (a) deviant (b) distressful (c) dysfunctional (d) danger to one's self or to others 239. Which aspect of thedefinition of abnormality includes unhappiness? (a) deviance (b) distress (c) dysfunction (d) danger to oneself or others 240. What model of mental illness did most people hold during the middle ages? (a) the moral model (b) the medical model (c) the psychogenic model (d) the supernatural model
241. Traits theory has been criticized on the ground that: (a) traits may be highly dependent on the situation (b) moderator variable are often very influential (c) they often do not specify how traits are organized within the personality (d) all of these are true 242. According to Erikson's theory the struggle during adolescence is: (a) intimacy vs. isolation (b) initiative vs. guilt (c) identity vs. role confusion (d) competence vs. inferiority 243. A major defining characteristic of personality disorders is that they: (a) are pathological, more from society's view than from that of the persons who have them (b) reflect a lack of contact with reality (c) are comparatively easy to treat (d) are frequently reactive, i.e. short term responses to stress 244. The behavioural interpretation of depression relates it to "learned helplessness". The major obvious symptom of this condition is: (a) passivity (b) increased appetite (c) excessive counter aggressiveness when threatened (d) an increase in random maladaptive behaviour 245. Norms are influenced by: (a) the surrounding culture (c) the context of the situation
(b) the surrounding subculture (d) none of these
246. Psycho dynamic therapists believe that maladaptive behaviour stems from; (a) disturbed thought patterns (b) inappropriate learning pattern (c) emotional trauma experienced in childhood (d) a failure to live up to one's full potential 247. Client-centered therapy is most consistent with the: (a) behavioural approach (b) cognitive approach (c) psycho-dynamic approach (d) humanistic approach 248. Illness that seem to result from an interaction of physical and psychological factors are called: (a) depression (b) psychosomatic (c) conversion disorders (d) phobia 249. The essential feature of Client-centered therapy is: (a) the giving of reassurance to the client (b) the facilitating the client to arrive at his own insight about his problems (c) it's emphasis upon searching for deep unconscious aspects of the problem
(d) it's directive character 250. Psychodrama is one of the psychotherapeutic technique which basically involves situations representing: (a) ego blocking (b) super ego blocking (c) primary ego (d) all of the above are correct 251. The non-directive approach characterizes: (a) psychoanalysis (b) behaviour modification (c) hypnosis (d) client-centered therapy 252. Two years after being brutally beaten and raped, Fozia still experiences anxiety and has trouble sleeping and vivid flashbacks of her assault. Fozia is most clearly showing signs of (a) Hypochondriasis (b) psycho-physiological illness (c) the general adaptation syndrome (d) post-traumatic stress disorder 253. Psychologists are most likely to define maladaptive behaviour as disordered if it is (a) unloving and prejudicial (b) biologically based and habitual (c) unconsciously motivated (d) unusual and socially unacceptable 254. According to the medical model, psychological disorders are (a) purely imaginary symptoms of distress (b) maladaptive responses to a troubling environment (c) sicknesses that need to be diagnosed and cured (d) learned habits that need to be extinguished 255. DSM-IV is a widely used system for (a) identifying the causes of psychological abnormality (b) distinguishing sanity from insanity (c) treating depression (d) classifying psychological disorders 256. In order to facilitate diagnostic reliability, the DSM-IV typically bases diagnoses on (a) chemical analyses of blood and urine samples (b) physiological measures of blood pressure, perspiration, and muscle tension (c) observable patterns of behaviour (d) all the above 257. A generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by (a) the misinterpretation of normal physical sensation as sings of a disease (b) offensive of unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person (c) a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system arousal (d) hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of emotion
258 Shani, a college student, complains that he feels apprehensive and fearful most of the time but doesn't know why. Without warning, his heart begins to pound, his hands get icy, and he breaks out in a cold sweat. Shani’s symptoms suggest a/an _______ disorder (a) somatoform (b) obsessive-compulsive (c) generalized anxiety (d) phobic 259. Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is (a) cyclical (b) free-floating (c) psychosomatic (d) completely outside of conscious awareness 260. Which of the following is characterized by a persistent, irrational fear of a specific object or situation? (a) hypochondriasis (b) conversion disorder (c) amnesia (d) phobic disorder 261. Agoraphobia is an abnormal fear of (a) heights (c) public places
(b) darkness (d) enclosed spaces
262. Mrs. Nadeem is alarmed by her own persistent and irrational thoughts of murdering her young children. Her experience best illustrates the agitating effects of a/an (a) delusion (b) phobia (c) obsession (d) hallucination 263. Repeatedly washing your hands is to _______ as repeatedly thinking about your own death is to _______ (a) somatoform disorder; schizophrenia disorder (b) mania; depression (c) compulsion; obsession (d) phobic disorder; hypochondriasis 264. Most young children are fearful of bees, even though they have never been stung by one. This best illustrates that fear (a) is a maladaptive response (b) is genetically determined (c) can be learned through observation (d) results from relative deprivation 265. Learning theorists have suggested that obsessive-compulsive disorders are (a) habitual defenses against unconscious impulses (b) reinforced by anxiety reduction (c) classically conditioned habits (d) conditioned reactions to childhood sexual abuse 266. A conversion disorder is most likely to be characterized by (a) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism (b) a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system arousal
(c) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person (d) specific physical symptoms that have no apparent physiological basis 267. Bipolar disorder is to mood disorders as _______ is to somatoform disorders (a) schizophrenia (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) panic attack (d) conversion disorder 268. Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of ———disorders. (a) bipolar (b) personality (c) dissociative (d) somatoform 269. A sense of being separated from your body and watching yourself with a sense of detachment is a symptom of (a) bipolar disorder (b) hypochondriasis (c) generalized anxiety (d) dissociation 270. Although she knew very little about her therapist, Ameena thought she was falling in love with him. A psychoanalyst would consider Ameena's feelings to be an example of (a) reaction formation (b) unconditional positive regard (c) transference (d) sublimation 271. Khalid, an airplane pilot, is unable to remember anything of a bombing raid in which his plane was severely damaged and two crew members were killed. Khalid probably is a victim of a/an _______ disorder (a) anxiety (b) dissociative (c) conversion (d) somatoform 272. Phobic disorder is to anxiety disorders as fugue is to ________ disorders. (a) dissociative (b) somatoform (c) mood (d) schizophrenic 273. Rashida, a young married woman, has wandered from her home to a distant city where she has completely forgotten her family and her identity. Which term best characterize Rashida's behaviour? (a) identity disorder (b) antisocial personality (c) conversion disorder (d) fugue 274. Major depression is most likely to be characterized by (a) delusions of persecution (b) a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness (c) a persistent irrational fear of other people (d) feelings of personal worthlessness 275. A bipolar disorder is most likely to be characterized by (a) a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness (b) the simultaneous experience of delusions of persecution and delusions of grandeur (c) offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently intrude into conscious awareness (d) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism
276. A condition in which an individual is overexcited, hyperactive, and wildly optimistic is known as (a) fugue (b) paranoia (c) mania (d) panic attack 277. In which type of disorder is a person's speech likely to be so full of unrelated words and phrases that it could be characterized as a "word salad"? (a) schizophrenia (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) hypochondriasis (d) dissociative disorder 278. Delusions of persecution are most common among those with _____ schizophrenia (a) catatonic (b) disorganized (c) residual (d) paranoid 279. Although Mrs. Rizwana usually sits passively in a motionless stupor, she sometimes repetitiously shakes her head or waves her arms. She most likely is exhibiting (a) hypochondriasis (b) a bipolar disorder (c) major depressive disorder (d) catatonia 280. One of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia is (a) an expressionless face (b) loud and meaningless talking (c) inappropriate laughter (d) uncontrollable temper tantrums 281. People are more likely to recover from ________ schizophrenia than from _________ schizophrenia. (a) acute; chronic (b) process; reactive (c) reactive; acute (d) chronic; process 282. Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of receptors for (a) norepinephrine (b) dopamine (c) serotonin (d) acetylcholine 283. Research on the causes of schizophrenia strongly suggests that (a) there is a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia. (b) almost anybody will develop schizophrenia if exposed to extensive environmental stress. (c) schizophrenia patients suffer from a deficiency of the neurotransmitter serotonin. (d) all the above are true. 284. An eclectic therapist is one who: (a) prescribes the use of drugs as part of psychotherapy. (b) emphasizes that active listening is the major technique in all effective therapies. (c) prefers to engage in therapy in a group setting. (d) uses a variety of psychological theories and therapeutic approaches.
285. Dr. Farooqi is a clinical psychologist who often uses operant conditioning techniques to treat her clients. She also encourages them to modify their attributional patterns, and on occasion she interprets their transference behaviours. Dr. Farooqi's therapeutic approach would best be described as (a) person-centered (b) psychoanalytic (c) behavioural (d) eclectic 286. Mr. Sohail's therapist wants to help him become aware of his conflicting childhood feelings of love and hate for his parents. The therapist's goal best reflects a primary aim of (a) person-centered therapy (b) rational-emotive therapy (c) systematic desensitization (d) psychoanalysis 287. A central therapeutic technique of psychoanalysis is (a) sublimation (b) systematic desensitization (c) free association (d) active listening 288. Prior to his use of free association, Freud had encouraged patients to retrieve their forgotten memories by means of (a) hypnosis (b) projective tests (c) psychoactive drugs (d) systematic desensitization 289. When the therapist encouraged Zafar to talk about his resentment toward his wife, Zafar quickly changed the subject by telling a joke. To a psychoanalyst, Zafar's behaviour illustrate (a) resistance (b) transference (c) fixation (d) free association 290. Which of the following therapists would most likely try to understand and adult's psychological disorder by exploring that person's childhood experiences? (a) a psychoanalyst (b) a behaviour therapist (c) a person-centered therapist (d) a rational-emotive therapist 291. Transference refers to a client's (a) conversion of psychological conflicts into physical and behavioural disorders (b) replacement of self-centeredness with a genuine concern for others (c) expression toward a therapist of feelings linked with earlier life relationships (d) translation of threatening dream content into nonthreatening manifest symbols 292. Psychoanalysts are most likely to view patient transference as (a) a form of therapeutic resistance (b) a helpful aid to the process of therapy (c) a sign of healthy personality development (d) evidence that no further therapy is needed 293. Humanistic therapists are likely to teach clients to (a) focus more on other people's feelings than on their own. (b) adapt more readily to social norms and expectations.
(c) imitate the behaviour of others who are happy and successful. (d) take more responsibility for their own feelings and actions. 294 Which therapeutic approach relies most heavily upon clients discovering their own ways of effectively dealing with their difficulties? (a) psychoanalysis (b) rational-emotive therapy (c) systematic desensitization (d) person-centered therapy 295. An important feature of person-centered therapy is (a) interpretation (b) transference (c) free association (d) active listening 296. Psychological research on the principles of learning has most directly influenced the development of (a) biomedical therapy (b) behaviour therapy (c) person-centered therapy (d) rational-emotive therapy 297. Treatment programs in which alcoholic clients consume alcohol that contains a nausea-producing drug are using a technique known as (a) operant conditioning (b) free association (c) systematic desensitization (d) aversive conditioning 298. Whenever 2-year-old Teena runs into the street in front of her house, her mother immediately spanks her. The mother's technique most closely resembles the procedure known as (a) systematic desensitization (b) electroconvulsive therapy (c) aversive conditioning (d) transference 299. The approach that has helped retarded children learn to care for themselves involves (a) operant conditioning (b) systematic desensitization (c) family therapy (d) aversive conditioning 300. A token economy represents an application of the principles of (a) operant conditioning (b) systematic desensitization (c) humanistic therapy (d) classical conditioning 301. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes that people are often disturbed because they mistakenly believe they must please everyone and be successful at everything? (a) person-centered therapy (b) operant conditioning therapy (c) systematic desensitization (d) rational-emotive therapy 302. "For you to think you are worthless because your parents criticize you is absurd! You're worthless only if you think you are." This statement would most likely be made to client by a _____ therapist (a) rational-emotive (b) psychoanalytic (c) person-centered (d) behaviour
303. Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce hallucinations? (a) heroin (b) nicotine (c) LSD (d) alcohol 304. Psychotherapy is likely to be most effective when a client's problem is (a) clear-cut and specific (b) the result of unconscious conflicts (c) longstanding and habitual (d) self-inflicted 305. Haroon is a 22-year-old mechanic who suffers from claustrophobia. The most effective way to treat Haroon's problem would involve ______ therapy. (a) rational-emotive (b) psychoanalytic (c) person-centered (d) behaviour 306. Psychopharmacology involves the study of how (a) diseases influence psychological well-being (b) exercise alleviates depression (c) drugs affect mental functioning and behaviour (d) physical relaxation reduces anxiety 307. Zakia's feelings of unhappiness, low self-esteem, and hopelessness have become so extreme that she has attempted suicide. Which of the following treatments is likely to provide her with the quickest relief from her misery? (a) electroconvulsive therapy (b) drug therapy (c) psychoanalysis (d) systematic desensitization 308. Various experts emphasize that there is no evidence that schizophrenia is caused by (a) environmental influences. (b) genetic influences. (c) disturbances in the chemistry of the brain. (d) disturbances in the neural circuitry of the brain. 309. A pattern of interrelated symptoms manifested by a given individual is referred to as (a) a syndrome (b) a disorder (c) a phenomenon (d) an impairment 310. A woman who has previously shown evidence of a mental disorder develops clinical depression following the loss of her job. This event would be considered the _______ causes of her depression (a) predisposing (b) precipitating (c) maintaining (d) psychodynamic 311. In the field of mental disorders, DMS refers to (a) a neurotransmitter system thought to underlie depression (b) a type of scan for brain area involved in mental disorders (c) a standardized system for labeling and diagnosing mental disorders (d) the genetic condition that predisposes some individuals to schizophrenia 312. An intense, irrational fear that is clearly related to a particular category of object or event is called _________the most common form of which is _________
(a) phobia; a social phobia (c) mania paranoia
(b) phobia; a simple phobia (d) panic; paranoia
313. A disturbing thought that intrudes repeatedly on a person's consciousness even though the person recognize it as irrational is called (a) a phobia (b) a compulsion (c) an obsession (d) a dissociation 314. A repetitive action, usually performed in response to a disturbing thought, that repeatedly intrudes on a person's consciousness is called (a) an obsession (b) a phobia (c) a fugue (d) a compulsion 315. An individual chronically experiencing moderate depressive symptoms over a two-year or longer period would bediagnosed as suffering from (a) major depression (b) dysthymic (c) cyclothymia (d) double depression 316. The general class of disorders in which an individual experiences bodily ailments in the absence of any physical disease that could cause them are called (a) mpod disorders (b) dissociative disorders (c) somatoform disorders (d) anxiety disorders 317. Nimra who normally has no health complaints, has been experiencing numbness in her legs, which has prevented-her from competing as a runner. Physicians have found no physical cause. She is probably suffering from (a) hypochondriasis (b) conversion disorder (c) major depression (d) generalized anxiety disorder. 318. The disorders that are most likely to involve states similar to hypnosis are (a) somatoform disorder (b) anxiety disorders (c) dissociative disorders (d) sleep disorders 319. The mental disorder in which a person manifests two or more distinct identities at different times, switching back and forth from one identity to another, is called (a) schizophrenia (b) identity disorder (c) major depression (d) cyclothymia 320. Schizophrenia usually appears for the first time in the affected individuals'. (a) early childhood, but it can appear as late as adolescence (b) middle childhood, but it can appear as late as young adulthood (c) adolescence or young adulthood, but it can appear later (d) adolescence, and virtually never appears later 321. Which of the following is not a symptom of schizophrenia? , (a) delusions (b) dissociation
(c) formal thought disturbance
(d) social withdrawal
322. False beliefs held in the face of compelling evidence to the contrary are called ______ and are among the symptoms that most distinguish ________ from other disorders (a) delusions; schizophrenia (b) hallucinations; schizophrenia (c) delusions; identity disorder (d) hallucinations; identity disorder 323. Saima believes that she hears spies asking her to carry out a mission for them. From which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia does this belief suggest she is suffering? (a) hallucination and delusion (b) formal thought disturbance (c) paraplegic (d) flattened affect 324. An example of a negative symptom is schizophrenia would be (a) emotion-lessness (b) delusions (c) hallucinations (d) bizarre motor movements 325. According to the dopamine theory of schizophrenia (a) schizophrenic symptoms are associated with over-activity at synapses where dopamine is the neurotransmitter (b) drugs such as cocaine and amphetamines increase the activity of dopamine in the brain and can induce schizophrenia-like symptoms in people without the disorder (c) the drug that reduces schizophrenic symptoms most dramatically is a selective dopamine blocker that has no effect on other neurotransmitter systems (d) a and b 326. Schizophrenia is associated with (a) an unusually high susceptibility to hypnosis (b) a breakdown in defenses against anxiety (c) poor selective attention or concentration (d) learned, pessimistic patterns of thinking 327. In Europe during the Middle Ages and into the seventeenth century, people with serious mental disorders were generally considered be (a) physically ill beyond treatment (b) in league with the devil (c) faking their symptoms (d) divinely inspired and thus to be revered 328: In the United States, Dorothea Dix spearheaded the moral-treatment movement for the mentally disordered. This movement led to (a) the attempt to deinstitutionalize people with mental disorders (b) the building of large state-supported asylums for people with mental disorders (c) the effort to separate children from abusive parents (d) the utilization of humanistic therapies in place of psychoanalytic treatment 329. The community-based mental health movement that began in the United States in the 1960s intended to (a) expand hospital facilities for the care of the mentally ill
(b) provide behaviour therapy rather than psychotherapy (c) relocate institutionalized patients to farms where they could be productive (d) provide transitional homes and outpatient care so that mental patients could be reintegrated into society 330. Which type of mental health professional is the only one permitted to prescribe drugs? (a) psychiatrists (b) clinical psychologists (c) counseling psychologists (d) both a and b 331. Compared to a counseling psychologist, a clinical psychologist is likely to have (a) more training and involvement in research (b) more patients whose problems are not diagnosable as mental disorders (c) more training in social work (d) a degree in medicine 332. The standardization of mental-health information that is useful for clinical research or comparison of one client to another is best supplied by (a) projective tests (b) objective questionnaires (c) assessment interviews (d) free association 333. The psychometric personality test most commonly used for clinical assessment is (a) Cattell's 16 PF Questionnaire (b) Eysenck's Personality Inventory (c) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) (d) the Thematic Apperception Test 334. The original purpose of the MMPI was to (a) provide an objective means of diagnosing mental disorders (b) measure correlations between mental disorder and particular personality traits (c) uncover unconscious thoughts and desires undisguised by defense (d) determine whether brain damage underlies certain patterns of mental disorder 335. If you were treating a client who wanted to overcome shyness, you might suggest a technique that would not only, enhance the client's awareness of his or her behaviour but perhaps motivate change. The most likely technique would be' (a) the Halstead-Reitan battery (b) theMMPI (c) self-monitoring (d) a structural interview 336. Which of the following includes tests of motor control, perception, and cognition, and is designed to provide clues about possible brain damage? (a) TAT (b) Rorschach (c) MMPI (d) Halstead-Reitan battery 337. Any therapy based on the premise that psychological problems are manifestations of mental conflicts and that conscious awareness of those conflicts is the key to recovery is referred to as (a) psychoanalysis (b) a psychodynamic therapy
(c) client-centered therapy
(d) a cognitive therapy
338. Freud's principal technique for obtaining clues about a patient's unconscious memories was to give the patient specific cues and analyze the responses (a) hypnosis (b) catharsis (c) free association (d) regression 339. Razia has been in psychoanalysis for 6 months. Lately, she has missed two appointments, which she says she simply forgot. When she has come for sessions, has spent in inordinate amount of time arguing with her analyst about trivial matters According to psychoanalytic theory, Razia is probably experiencing (a) transference (b) resistance (c) catharsis (d) counter-conditioning 340. According to Freud, patients often consciously experience strong feelings toward the therapist that are really feelings toward other significant people in their lives. Freud called this phenomenon ________ and considered it a ______ (a) catharsis; nuisance (b) transference; nuisance (c) catharsis; route to an awareness of the origins of those feelings (d) transference; route to an awareness of the origins of those feelings 341. The role of a psychoanalyst is most analogous to that of (a) a detective searching for clues and fitting them together (b) a friend providing unconditional warmth and acceptance (c) an engineer finding the optimal solution to a specific problem (d) a debater challenging irrational beliefs and assumptions 342. The therapist's role is that of a compassionate, professional sounding board for the client's own ideas and emotions in (a) rational-emotive therapy (b) client-centered therapy (c) behaviour therapy (d) both a and b 343. In order to be helpful, the therapist must manifest empathy, positive regard, and genuineness, according to (a) Ellis's rational-emotive therapy (b) Freud's psychoanalytic therapy (c) Beck's cognitive therapy (d) Roger's client-centered therapy 344. In client-centered therapy, the therapist's attempt to understand what the client is saying or feeling at any given moment from the client's point of view is called _______ and is expressed by _______ (a) sympathy; a warm and welcoming demeanor (b) empathy; reflecting back the client's expressed thoughts (c) positive regard; overt compliments (d) transference; role playing 345. In client-centered therapy, positive regard refers to the therapist's expression of
(a) control over the client (b) friendliness toward the client (c) approval for what the client says and does (d) faith in the client's capacity to make good decisions 346. Humanistic and cognitive therapy are most clearly similar in that both (a) are problem centered more than person centered (b) are holistic approaches (c) focus on conscious mental experience (d) use a businesslike approach to the patient 347. Which of the following is best characterized in terms of a teacher-student relationship in that the therapist helps the client to recognize and correct faulty reasoning? (a) psychoanalysis (b) client-centered therapy (c) cognitive therapy (d) non-Freudian psychodynamic therapies 348. Humanistic and cognitive therapy differ in that humanistic therapy is ______ whereascognitive therapy is ________ (a) problem Centered; client centered (b) based on research findings; based on observations (c) client centered; problem centered (d) not based on research findings; based on research findings 349. The notion that people's irrational interpretations of their experience, rather than the objective experiences themselves, cause their negative emotions is the basic premise of (a) rational-emotive therapy (b) psychoanalysis (c) behaviour therapy (d) client-centered therapy 350. In recent times, behaviour therapy has become most closely merged with (a) psychoanalysis (b) cognitive therapy (c) humanistic therapy (d) drug therapy 351. Behaviour therapy has proven especially successful in treating (a) simple phobias (b) depression (c) schizophrenia (d) conversion disorders 352. Repeated exposure to a stimulus until the fear that accompanies-it is no longer provoked is called ________, which is a technique in _______ (a) counter-conditioning; behaviour therapy (b) flooding; behaviour therapy (c) counter-conditioning; rational-emotive therapy (d) flooding; rational-emotive therapy 353. Flooding, counter-conditioning, and systematic desensitization can be classed together in the category of _________ treatments (a) cognitive (b) exposure (c) placebo (d) milieu
354. A behaviour therapist would be most likely to treat a phobia by using (a) contingency contracting (b) transference (c) systematic desensitization (d) resistance 355. Systematic desensitization is classified as a type of (a) counter-conditioning (b) aversion treatment (c) exposure treatment (d) both a and c 356. The application of a painful or unpleasant stimulus immediately after the unwanted response or after cues that would normally bring on the response is a therapy technique called (a) flooding (b) a contingency contract (c) resistance (d) aversion treatment 357. Zia has been trying to stop smoking. His therapist asks him to repeatedly reach for a cigarette and each time he does so, he is given a mild shock to the hand. Zia's therapist is using (a) systematic desensitization (b) aversion treatment (c) extinction (d) counter-conditioning 358. The therapeutic technique that has generated the most controversy over its effectiveness and ethics is (a) systematic desensitization (b) assertiveness and social skill training (c) aversion treatment (d) rational-emotive therapy 359. A token economy is a technique in _______ that involves the application of principles of ________ (a) behaviour therapy; operant conditioning (b) milieu therapy; social learning (c) behaviour therapy; classical conditioning (d) group therapy; self-sufficiency and independence 360. Albert Bandura has shown that people can overcome snake or spider phobias by watching other people handle the feared creature before trying it themselves. This illustrates the effectiveness of (a) social skills training (b) assertiveness (c) aversion treatment (d) modeling 361. Antipsychotic drugs work by ______ the activity of the neurotransmitter _______ in the brain (a) increasing; dopamine (b) decreasing; dopamine (c) increasing; serotonin (d) decreasing; serotonin 362. Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT), now administered in a way that is painless and safe, is generally reserved for ________ that has not responded to other therapies (a) major depression (b) schizophrenia (c) generalized anxiety disorder (d) obsessive-compulsive disorder
363. Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) can treat depression effectively and produce very little loss of conscious verbal memories if shock is applied (a) bilaterally (b) to the parietal lobes only (c) unilaterally to the left hemisphere (d) unilaterally to the right hemisphere 364. The modern discovery of hypnosis is generally attributed to (a) Freud (b) Mesmer (c) Spanos (d) Hilgard 365. According to Freud, dreams are (a) a symbolic fulfillment of erotic wishes (b) the result of random neural activity in the brainstem (c) the brain's mechanism for self-stimulation (d) transparent representations of the individual's conflicts 366 According to Hilgard, hypnosis is . . (a) no different from a state of heightened motivation (b) a dissociation between different levels of consciousness (c) the same as dreaming (d) a hoax perpetrated by frauds 367. Amnesia, fugue, and identity disorder are all examples of __________ disorders (a) anxiety (b) mood (c) dissociative (d) personality 368. The criteria for classifying behaviour as psychologically disordered (a) vary from time to time (b) vary from culture to culture (c) are characterized by both a and b (d) have remained largely unchanged over the course of history 369. Most mental health workers today take the view that disordered behaviours (a) are usually genetically triggered (b) arise from the interaction of nature and nurture (c) are organic diseases (d) are the product of learning 370. The effect of drugs that block receptors for dopamine is to (a) alleviate schizophrenia symptoms (b) increase schizophrenia symptoms (c) alleviate depression (d) increase depression 371. Phobias and obsessive-compulsive behaviours are classified as (a) anxiety disorders (b) mood disorders (c) dissociative disorders (d) personality disorders
372. According to the social-cognitive perspective, a person who experiences unexpected aversive events may develop helplessness and manifest a/an (a) dissociative disorder (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) personality disorder (d) mood disorder 373. Most of the hallucinations of schizophrenia patients involve the sense of (a) smell (b) vision (c) hearing (d) touch 374. In treating depression, a psychiatrist would probably prescribe a drug that would (a) increase levels of acetylcholine (b) decrease levels of dopamine (c) increase levels of norepinephrine (d) decrease levels of serotonin 375. Our early ancestors commonly attributed disordered behaviour to (a) "bad blood" (b) evil spirits (c) brain injury (d) laziness 376. Which of the following is not a symptom of schizophrenia? (a) inappropriate emotions (b) disturbed perceptions (c) panic attacks (d) disorganized 377. Among the following, which is generally accepted as a possible cause of schizophrenia? (a) an excess of endorphins in the brain (b) being a twin (c) a genetic predisposition (d) extensive learned helplessness 378. Asim has never been able to keep a job. He's been in and out of jail for charges such as theft, sexual assault, and spousal abuse. Asim would most likely be diagnosed as having . (a) major depressive disorder (b) a dissociative identity disorders (c) schizophrenia (d) an antisocial personality 379. Ali is so preoccupied with staying clean that he showers as many as ten times each day Ali would be diagnosed as suffering from a/an (a) dissociative disorder (b) generalized anxiety disorder (c) personality disorder (d) obsessive-compulsive disorder 380. Rubina occasionally experiences unpredictable episodes of intense dread accompanied by chest pains and a sensation of smothering. Since her symptoms have no apparent cause, they would probably be classified as indicative of (a) schizophrenia (b) dissociative fugue (c) panic attack (d) post-traumatic stress disorder 381. In many movies, soap operas, and novels, the hero or heroine, who is under great stress, experiences a sudden loss of memory without leaving home or establishing a new identity. This is an example of (a) a dissociative disorder (b) dissociative fugue (c) dissociative amnesia (d) an anxiety disorder
382. Of the following categories of psychotherapy, which is known for its nondirective nature? (a) psychoanalysis (b) humanistic therapy (c) behaviour therapy (d) cognitive therapy 383. Which of the following types of therapy does not belong with the others (a) rational-emotive therapy (b) family therapy (c) self-help group (d) support group 384. The operant conditioning technique in which desired behaviours are rewarded with points or poker chips that can later be exchanged for various rewards is called (a) counter-conditioning (b) systematic desensitization (c) a token economy (d) rational-emotive therapy 385. A person can derive benefits from psychotherapy simply by believing in it. This illustrates the importance of (a) spontaneous remission (b) the placebo effect (c) the transference effect (d) interpretation 386. Carl Rogers was a ________ therapist who was the creator of-therapy (a) behaviour, desensitization (b) psychoanalytic; insight (c) humanistic; person-centered (d) cognitive; rational-emotive 387. Using technique of classical conditioning to develop an association between unwanted behaviour and an unpleasant experience is known as (a) aversive conditioning (b) systematic desensitization (c) transference (d) electroconvulsive therapy 388. Which type of psychotherapy focuses on changing unwanted behaviours rather than on discovering their underlying causes? (a) behaviour therapy (b) cognitive therapy (c) humanistic therapy (d) psychoanalysis 389. In which of the following does the client learn to associate a relaxed state with a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing situation? (a) rational-emotive therapy (b) aversive conditioning (c) counter-conditioning (d) systematic desensitization 390. Which type of therapy focuses on eliminating irrational thinking? (a) Gestalt therapy (b) person-centered therapy (c) rational-emotive therapy (d) behaviour therapy 391. Which form of therapy is most likely to be successful in treating depression? (a) behaviour therapy (b) psychoanalysis (c) cognitive therapy (d) humanistic therapy
392. During a session with his psychoanalyst, Jamal hesitates while describing a highly embarrassing thought. In the psychoanalytic framework, this is an example of (a) transference (b) insight (c) mental repression (d) resistance 393. During psychoanalysis, Sonia has developed strong feeling of hatred for her therapist. The analyst interprets Sonia's behaviour in terms of a ______ of her feelings toward her father (a) projection (b) regression (c) resistance (d) transference 394. Given that Momina's therapist attempts to help her by offering genuineness, acceptance, and empathy, she is probably practicing (a) behaviour therapy (b) Gestalt therapy (c) cognitive therapy (d) person-centered therapy 395. For which of the following phobias is a person most likely to see treatment? (a) fear of diseases (b) fear of spiders (c) fear of heights (d) fear of open places 396. Nazia has sudden, unpredictable, unprovoked attacks of intense anxiety. She is most likely suffering from (a) panic disorder (b) agoraphobia (c) hypochondriasis (d) generalized anxiety disorder 397. The difference between compulsive behaviour such as gambling or eating, and the compulsions associated with OCD is that (a) compulsive gambler feel more anxiety (b) the individual has more ability to control or decrease eating or gambling behaviour (c) the compulsive gambler or eater experiences pleasure associated with the compulsive behaviour (d) the compulsive eater or gambler feels more intense guilt about the behaviour 398. The underlying theme of dissociative disorders (a) escape from an aspect of life that causes distress or anxiety (b) a break from reality (c) irrational fears that cause intense anxiety (d) mood swings that create abnormal affective responses 399. Personality disorders can be distinguished from other disorders on many grounds, but which of the following enables us to differentiate personality disorders from anxiety-based disorders? As opposed to anxiety-based disorders, personality disorders (a) are more commonly a reaction to frustration and stress (b) involve a long-standing history of symptoms (c) are usually identified by adolescence (d) involve some degree of loss of contact with reality
400. Which of the following statements concerning schizophrenic patients is true? (a) they are usually colourless, socially withdrawn, and not at all dangerous (b) they usually exhibit wild, crazed behaviour, and may be violent (c) even though they may be having delusions, they are usually able to communicate clearly (d) the most common effect is extreme moods, either mania or depression 401. Factors such as an excess of dopamine, normal brain configuration, severe disruptions early in family life and a relatively good response to treatment are correlated to _______ schizophrenia (a) reactive (b) process (c) positive (d) negative 402. Everythjng else being equal, which person will have the greatest chance of being diagnosed with schizophrenia? (a) someone who knows and interacts with many schizophrenics on a regular basis (b) someone who has an identical twin diagnosed as having the disorder (c) someone with abnormally large ventricles in their cerebral cortex (d) someone whose mother is generally cold, aloof, and unaffectionate 403. The ________ type of schizophrenia is characterized by absurd, illogical, and changeable delusion, often accompanied by hallucinations resulting in severe impairment of judgement (a) undifferentiated (b) residual (c) catatonic (d) paranoid 404. The ________ type of schizophrenia usually involves the most severe disintegration of personality (a) catatonic (b) paranoid (c) disorganized (d) undifferentiated 405. _______ is the neurotransmitter associated with schizophrenia (a) dopamine (b) acetylcholine (c) epinephrine
(d) amphetamine
406. Which of the following therapists may also be a psychoanalyst? (a) clinical social worker (b) licensed professional counselor (c) psychiatrist (d) pastoral counselor 407. The frequency of the use of ECT has been reduced due to (a) the development of drug therapies (b) legal restrictions (c) the negative reputation of side effects (d) its general ineffectiveness 408. Which of the following therapies is associated with unconditional positive regard and a nondirective approach by the therapist (a) psychoanalysis (b) client-centered therapy (c) rational-emotive therapy (d) cognitive therapy 409. Which of the following is not associated with Freudian psychoanalysis
(a) free association (c) manifest dream content
(b) empathy (d) transference
410. Which of the following therapies was made popular by Albert Ellis? (a) psychoanalysis (b) client-centered therapy (c) rational-emotive therapy (d) cognitive therapy 411. Ruby's father wants to help him get over his fear of the water, so he takes him to the local pool and gets into the water with him and will not let him out. This is an example If __________ of (a) systematic desensitization (b) flooding (c) aversion therapy (d) parent training 412. Zia went to a smoking cessation clinic where they had him chain smoke until he became ill. This would be an example of (a) systematic desensitization (b) flooding (c) aversion therapy (d) parent training 413. Albert Bandura is associated with the behaviour therapy approach known as (a) contingency management (b) flooding (c) implosive therapy (d) modeling 414. Two related assumptions guide the course of much family therapy. One assumption views each family member as a part of a system, while the other assumption stresses (a) an even distribution of power and control (b) mutual attempts at reinforcing appropriate behaviours (c) the extent to which one's happiness depends on the other members of the family group (d) a concern for improved, open, and honest communication among family members 415. One advantage of group therapy is saving (a) money (b) time (c) energy
(d) research
416. Which of the following is not a correct match? (a) Freud-psychoanalysis (b) Rogers-client-centered therapy (c) Bandura-modeling (d) Beck-rational-emotive therapy 417. Which of the following defense mechanisms relates to the analyst's feelings towards the patient? (a) sublimation (b) projection (c) transference (d) counter-transference 418. Bipolar disorder is: (a) a severe form of depression (b) best treated by Valium (c) characterized by episodes of depression and mania (d) a more recent term for depression
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97. 101. 105. 109. 113. 117. 121. 125. 129. 133. 137. 141. 145. 149. 153. 157. 161. 165. 169.
a a d b b a d c d c d d a d d c b b c a d c c d a c b a b d c b b c b b a a c d c c d
2 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110. 114. 118. 122. 126. 130. 134. 138. 142. 146. 150. 154. 158. 162. 166. 170.
a b d a b b b b d c a c d b d d a a d a b a a c b b c d d b d b c d b a b c a c c a b
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111. 115. 119. 123. 127. 131. 135. 139. 143. 147. 151. 155. 159. 163. 167. 171.
b b d b c b c c c a c d a d b d c d a b c c a d a c c b d c c b c d d b d d b a a d d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108. 112: 116. 120. 124. 128. 132. 136. 140. 144. 148. 152. 156. 160. 164. 168. 172.
c a b c b a d d a c d a d C b c d a c b c b a d b c d d b c c a b b c c d d a c c c b
173. 177. 181. 185. 189. 193. 197. 201. 205. 209. 213. 217. 221. 225. 229. 233. 237. 241. 245. 249. 253. 257. 261. 265, 269. 273. 277. 281. 285. 289. 293. 297. 301. 305. 309. 313. 317. 321. 325. 329. 333. 337. 341. 345. 349. 353.
c a c d b c c b b a d c a c c a b c a b d c c b d d a a d a d d d d a c b b d d c b a d a b
174. 178. 182. 186. 190. 194. 198. 202. 206. 210. 214. 218. 222. 226. 230. 234. 238. 242. 246. 250. 254. 258. 262. 266. 270. 274. 278. 282. 286. 290. 294. 298. 302, 306. 310. 314. 318. 322. 326. 330. 334. 338. 342. 346. 350. 354.
b b b c c c a d b a c c d b d d a c c d c c c d c d d b d a d c a c b d c a c a a c b c b c
175. 179. 183. 187. 191. 195. 199. 203. 207. 211. 215. 219. 223. 227. 231. 235. 239. 243. 247. 251. 255. 259. 263. 267. 271. 275. 279. 283. 287. 291. 295: 299. 303. 307. 311. 315. 319. 323. 327. 331. 335. 339. 343.' 347. 351. 355.
d c d c c a b a a a b c c a d c b a d d d b c d b d d a c c d a c a c b b a b a c b d c a d
176. 180. 184. 188. 192. 196. 200. 204. 208. 212. 216. 220. 224. 228. 232. 236. 240. 244. 248. 252. 256. 260. 264. 268. 272. 276. 280. 284. 288. 292. 296. 300. 304. 308. 312. 316. 320. 324. 328. 332. 336. 340. 344. 348. 352. 356.
d d d c b d a b a c a c a c c c d a b d c d c c a c a d a b b a a a b c c a b b d d b c b d
357. 361. 365. 369. 373. 377. 381. 385. 389. 393. 397. 401. 405. 409. 413 417.
b b a b c c c b d d c c a b d d
358. 362. 366. 370. 374. 378. 382. 386. 390. 394. 398. 402. 406. 410. 414. 418.
c a b a c d b c c d a b c c d c
359. 363. 367. 371. 375. 379. 383. 387. 391. 395. 399. 403. 407. 411. 415.
a d c a b d a a c d c d a b a
360. 364. 368. 372. 376. 380. 384. 388. 392. 396. 400. 404. 408. 412. 416.
d b c d c c c a d a a c b c d
Chapter 12
Social Psychology 1. The field theory was developed by: (a) Solomon Asch (b) Leon Festinger (c) Fritz Heider (d) Kurt Lewin 2. Stanley Milgram's classic experiment in social psychology is most closely associated with: (a) persuasion (b) altruism (c) leadership (d) conformity 3. The method of summated ratings refers to which of the following scales? (a) Thurston (b) Likert (c) Guttmann (d) Bogardus 4. Which of the following pairs is correct? (a) Festinger - attribution theory (b) Pearson - depth perception (c) Milgram-cognitive dissonance theory (d) Bandura - social learning theory 5. An athlete who has never run a mile in less than four minutes during solitary training runs a mile race in a time of 3.56 before a large crowd at a track meet. This, most clearly exemplifies the theory of: (a) social influence (b) imitation (c) social facilitation (d) overcompensation
6. Zainab, who is moderately critical of the present government, gets involved in heated political discussions with her college classmates. On her next visit home, her parents notice how much more critical of the government she has become. Which of the following is the LEAST likely explanation for her attitude change? (a) Group polarization (b) the mere exposure effect (c) Social facilitation (d) conformity 7. During the first few months at a new school, a student feels lonely and becomes withdrawn can be called (a) statistical Infrequency (b) deviation from social norms (c) antisocial behavior (d) maladaptive behavior 8.Investigations into the influence of group pressure on perceptual judgments reveal that: (a) many people obey orders even though they object strongly to what they are doing (b) the less ambiguous the stimulus, the more likely it is that the subject will conform to group pressure (c) the more ambiguous the stimulus, the more likely it is that the subject will conform to group pressure (d) a pressure group is more effective in getting a subject to conform if group opinion is not unanimous. 9. The best scale of aggression which a social scientist may employ to claim that "Ali is twice as aggressive as Musa," would be a/an: (a) ordinal scale (b) interval scale (c) ratio scale (d) logarithmic scale 10. Attribution theory: (a) is concerned with the cognitive bases upon which actions are performed (b) is rarely accurate (c) is responsible for breakthroughs in attitude measurement (d) is concerned with the ways in which people organize behaviour and make it meaningful 11. Milgram's experiments on obedience demonstrated that: (a) most subjects refused to give extremely painful electric shocks to an innocent victim (b) most subjects did obey the command to give extremely painful electric shocks to an innocent victim (c) only subjects scoring high on a measure of authoritarian personality agreed to shock an innocent victim (d) the subject's moral values were more important than the tendency to obey an authority figure's command 12. Zajonc's research has shown that in the presence of others: (a) performance of dominant responses deteriorates, while performance. of non-dominant responses improves (b) performance of dominant responses improves, while performance of non-dominant responses deteriorates
(c) performance of all types of responses improves (d) performance of all types of responses deteriorates 13. Negative behavior toward or negative treatment of members of a particular group is known as (a) in group-out-group bias (b) stereotyping (c) self-fulfilling prophecy (d) discrimination 14. A telemarketer calls customers and asks them few questions about their long-distance service. She then asks them to change their long-distance carrier. The telemarketer is attempting to take advantage of the: (a) inoculation theory (b) foot-in-the-door effect (c) door-in-the-face effect (d) sleeper effect 15. Which leadership style tends to produce the most satisfied members? (a) autocratic (b) authoritative (c) authoritarian (d) democratic 16. A researcher finds that the same individuals are rated as less attractive when they are identified as criminals than when they are not so identified. This best illustrates: (a) reactance (b) the halo effect (c) the mere exposure effect (d) belief perseverance 17. The door-in-the-face effect describes a process in which: (a) a person who complies with a small request is more likely to comply with a larger request (b) a person who complies with a small request is less likely to comply with a larger request (c) a person who complies with an initial large request is less likely to comply with a second large request (d) a person who refuses a large request is more likely to. comply with a smaller request 18. Lewin and his colleagues in their study of leadership styles found that: (a) the productivity of the democratic groups was greater than that of autocratic groups (b) autocratic leaders were better liked than democratic leaders (c) autocratic leaders created more hostility than democratic leaders (d) the personality traits of a leader had a greater effect than his leadership style 19. A high school teacher walks around the room more and speaks more clearly when being observed by her principal. This is an example of: (a) the placebo effect (b) the Hawthorne effect (c) the availability heuristic (d) a double-blind experiment 20. A woman asks her friend for a loan of Rs.1000/. After her friend refuses, she asks for a loan of Rs. 200/-and her friend agrees. This is an example of: (a) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon (b) the door-in-the-face phenomenon (c) social facilitation (d) balance theory
21. Despite working fewer hours than his coworkers, Saad receives a promotion and a raise. Instead of feeling happy, Saad feels guilty. This is best explained by: (a) social-exchange theory (b) gain-loss theory (c) equity theory (d) foot-in-the-door phenomenon 22. An experimenter wants to study cooperation and competition in adolescents. Which of the following would be most useful to this study? (a) the Heinz dilemma . (b) the prisoner's dilemma (c) the autokinetic effect (d) the phi-phenomenon 23. Maheen is learning to swim. She finds that when she swims in a group, she performs better than when she swims alone, this is consistent with: (a) social comparison theory (b) social facilitation (c) social influence (d) equity theory 24. According to the Zimbardo study, wearing uniform has been found to promote: (a) depression (b) social loafing (c) reactance (d) deindividuation 25. Zehra has been playing solitaire on her computer for months. She believes that she has become a good player, and seeks out other solitaire players to determine exactly how good she is. This behaviour is consistent with: (a) inoculation theory (b) social loafing (c) social comparison theory (d) social facilitation 26. The term "schizophrenia" comes from the Greek word meaning (a) splitting of the mind (b) splitting of the body (c) splitting of souls (d) in search of 27. Researchers have found correlations between juvenile delinquency and such background aspects as: (a) father acceptance and mother submissiveness (b) broken homes and parental absenteeism . (c) strong religious background (d) warm, permissive family setting 28. Which one of the following sayings would social-attraction research find most generally acceptable? (a) "misery loves company" (b) "familiarity breeds contempt" (c) "lides repel, opposites attract" (d) "birds of a feather flock together" 29. The foot-in-the-door technique suggests that a person is most likely to gain consumer cooperation on a sizable purchase or a large favour if he or she: (a) is open about the large purchase or favour in initial contact (b) is the first salesman to come to the consumer's door (c) represents a reputable company
(d) can successfully make a small sale or first gain the consumer's cooperation on a small favour 30. Proximity as a factor in social attraction: (a) proves least important in apartment-building settings (b) is generally unimportant (c) proves to be of primary importance (d) is less important than occupation 31. "Checkmark the statements you agree with" would be an instruction found in a /an _______ scale (a) Li.kert (b) Osgood (c) Kuder (d) Thurstone 32. This scale is developed on the premise that if an individual's statement does not correlate positively with the overall score on the scale, it needs to be deleted. (a) Thurston (b) Bogardus (c) Guttmann (d) Likert 33. Interpersonal attraction based on rewards and costs is a prominent aspect of the (a) theory of similarity (b) theory of complementarity (c) social exchange theory (d) theory of cognitive dissonance 34. Which of the following experimenters developed a test in which black and white dolls are presented to black and white children with the question. "Which one looks like you"? (a) Ammons (b) Pettigrew (c) McCandless (d) Clark. 35. A political gathering precedes election night by two months. Given a choice of speaking positions on the program, a political candidate would be wise to choose to be (a) the first speaker (b) the middle speaker (c) the last speaker (d) either the first or the last speaker 36. Loftus and her colleagues have found that eyewitness testimony is affected by I. Bias in question wording II. False information injected into questions III. Inferences made to fill memory gaps (a) I only (b) III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III 37. Which of the following developed the "overload theory" of crowding? (a) Lorenz (b) Milgram (c) Schachter
(d) Aronson
38. A major attempt is being launched to change, household attitudes toward the use of beef liver as a regular mealtime food. The approach is to have the most influential member of each household (a person who currently dislikes beef liver) design and deliver a talk on the prominent advantages of having beef liver as a regular mealtime food. The theory underlying this approach to attitude change would be (a) cognitive dissonance (b) behaviour exchange (c) complementarity (d) vulnerability
39. The Generalized Thurstone Scales were developed by (a) Likert (b) Bogardus (c) Remmers 40. Formulation of dissonance theory was initiated by (a) Aronson (b) Thurstone (c) Festinger
(d) Osgood
(d) Newcomb
41. A company has a screening test that involves responding to letters, memoranda, telephone messages, and other items typical of the contents of an executive's in-basket. This is an example of (a) an aptitude test (b) an intelligence test (c) an achievement test (d) a sociability measure 42. Crowd behavior and mob mentality and racial discrimination are popular topics in (a) applied psychology (b) social psychology (c) child psychology (d) clinical psychology 43. Which one of the following combinations is included in Allport's psychodynamic view of prejudice? (a) frustration, regression (b) instinctive, scapegoating (c) regression, aggression (d) aggression, exploitation 44. In Sherif s experimentation on autokinetic effect, individual judgments (a) remained unchanged in the face of group judgment (b) changed significantly toward group judgment (c) changed slightly, but not significantly, toward group judgment (d) changed slightly in a nonconforming direction 45. In which one of the following test setting types might a person be asked to respond to the statement "I would accept him as a close friend?" (a) Thurstone (b) Osgood (c) Bogardus (d) Likert 46. The role of imitation is social learning was first systematically observed by (a) Miller and Dollard (b) Bandura and Walters (c) Stanley Milgram (d) B. F. Skinner 47. Which of the following variables affects conformity? (a) size of the majority opinion (b) prior commitment (c) status of individuals in the group (d) all of the above 48. An approving comment made by a boss to his employee is an example of (a) social reinforcement (b) generalized reinforcement (c) primary reinforcement (d) positive reinforcement 49. The classic social psychology experiments that demonstrated that most people would, perform acts in direct contradiction to their morals and beliefs, if a legitimate authority figure accepted responsibility for those acts, was performed by
(a) B. F. Skinner (c) Stanley Milgram
(b) Sigmund Freud (d) Leon Festinger
50. The Milgram experiments indicate that (a) pressure from legitimate authorities in a situation increases compliance (b) group pressure on individuals increases compliance towards group decisions (c) social pressure increases compliance (d) justification increases compliance 51. Deindividuation refers to (a) antisocial acts (c) group aggression
(b) disinhibition (d) anonymity in a group situation
52. The factor that has been found to be the most predictive of interpersonal attraction is (a) similarity (b) proximity (c) status (d) physical attractiveness 53. The type of scale that is used for a variable such as political party affiliation or religion is a /an _________ scale. (a) ratio (b) interval (c) nominal (d) ordinal 54. Which of the following characteristics have been found to be strong predictors of conformity to social pressure? (a) authoritarian personality (b) external personality (c) high need for approval (d) all of the above 55. Sociometry refers to the study of (a) how sociable a person is (b) leadership qualities (c) the structure of small groups (d) measuring how extroverted a person is 56. Social psychologists study _______, while sociologists study _______ (a) group, individual (b) group norms, national norms (c) individuals, groups (d) abnormal people, normal people 57. Which of the following is not characteristic of sociopathy? (a) no sense-of responsibility (b) low intelligence (c) lack of genuine insight (d) antisocial behaviour without regret 58. Which of the following choices best describes a sociogram? (a) an open-ended test in which subjects describe social goals (b) a test that asks the subjects to specify reasons for social choices and rejections (c) a diagram that exposes the social structure of a group (d) both a and b 59. The greater the deindividuation of any group the (a) more irresponsibly its members behave
(b) more responsibly its members behave (c) greater the chance for antisocial behaviour (d) both a and c 60. One way to increase the likelihood of compliance with a request is to induce a person to agree first to a much smaller request. This is known as the (a) sleeper effect (b) cognitive consistency technique (c) foot-in-the-door technique (d) Hawthorne effect 61. If someone is told ahead of time that he is going to be exposed to a persuasive communication (a) he will be less able to resist persuasion (b) he will be more able to resist persuasion (c) cognitive dissonance is only slightly increased (d) cognitive dissonance is greatly increased 62 The phenomenon is which individuals lose their personal sense of responsibility when they are in a group is known as (a) adaptive conformity (b) disinhibition (c) deindividuation (d) impulsiveness 63. The fact that peer pressure can make a new worker put out less effort than if he or she was working alone is an example of (a) social facilitation (b) social loafing (c) cognitive reappraisal (d) inductive laziness 64. Which of the following concepts is LEAST related to prejudice? (a) cognitive dissonance (b) stereotype (c) familiarity effect (d) socialization 65. When two people are introduced for the first time, an initial impression is formed. Which factor most powerfully affects this first impression? (a) method of handshake (b) external locus of control (c) physical appearance (d) speech mannerisms 66. Suppose you meet a person at a party. Which theory assumes you calculate the costs and benefits of developing a relationship with the person? (a) attribution (b) altruism (c) two factor (d) social exchange 67. As ________ increases a person's need for social affiliation increases. (a) cognitive dissonance (b) fear (c) anxiety (d) depression 68. The concept of social facilitation implies that (a) friendships are easier to make in large groups than in small ones (b) prejudices are more easily overcome in sociable settings (c) the presence of other people improves individual performance
(d) conformity is greatest when other people are present 69. Which of the following is not a factor that influences the degree to which two people like each other? (a) conformity (b) familiarity (c) physical attractiveness (d) similarity 70. Solomon Asch conducted a classic experiment in which he asked a group of college students to decide which one of three lines was equal in length to a standard line. What was Asch studying? (a) the mere exposure effect (b) conformity (c) social facilitation (d) reference groups 71. Suppose you join a pickup basketball game at the gym in which the teams are randomly chosen. As the game progresses you notice that you and the other members of your team begin to believe your team is superior and express signs of hostility toward your opponents; What accounts for this? (a) prejudice (b) stereotypes (c) in-group bias (d) actor-observer bias 72. The process of one person becoming differentiated from others in a particular social situation is called (a) individuation (b) differentiation (c) modeling (d) prototyping 73. Anonymity has (a) prejudice
m shown to increase (b) aggression
(c) conformity
(d) loving
74. In the Milgram obedience studies, the "teachers" would give painful electric shock to the "learner" even though the learners begged them to stop. The results suggest that (a) people are basically sadists (b) the subject were ignorant about the dangers of electric shock (c) people will obey legitimate authority even if the orders are against their moral codes (d) corporal punishment does not work 75. During a lecture, smoke begins to enter the room, from under a closet door. The students wait until the professor tells them to leave before they respond to the situation. This scene illustrates the principle of (a) diffusion of responsibility (b) social politeness (c) pluralistic ignorance (d) obedience to authority 76. Parents who beat their children severely and frequently (a) are honestly trying to teach their children good discipline (b) were seldom disciplined themselves as children (c) are following modern theories of child rearing (d) were probably victims themselves of the battered child syndrome 77 The fact that people will work harder for a while after a supervisor speaks to them is an example of
(a) social loafing (c) social facilitation
(b) obedience (d) peer compliance
78. A man gets a job at a factory, he wants to make a good impression so he works quickly and efficiently. He notices that some of the other employees are frowning at him so he slows down his work output. This is an example of (a) social facilitation (b) social loafing (c) consolidation (d) bystander apathy 79. A person is at a party surrounded by friends. They are encouraging him to try smoking. Although he is reluctant to do so, he accepts the joint and begins to smoke. He is a victim of (a) social facilitation (b) peer pressure (c) cognitive dissonance (d) immoral influence 80. One of your friend arrange a meeting for you. When you are told that the person is a salesgirl, you become reluctant to meet her. She is the victim of (a) erroneous appraisal (b) a stereotype (c) projection (d) social inertia 81. The fact that we expect good looking people to also be competent, good humored, and intelligent is an example of (a) the Barnum effect (b) a social advantage (c) the halo effect (d) conformity 82. The behavioural explanation for smoking would be (a) you get attention and status among your smoking friends (b) a physiological need for nicotine (c) it is a manifestation of the death wish (d) it is a perception that smoking is glamorous 83. The fact that most people act differently at a funeral relative to the way they behave at a party is an example of (a) a reactionary cognitive state (b) social acclimation (c) situational inducement (d) a stereotype 84. A social norm is (a) the best way to act under the circumstances (b) the unwritten rules of a community (c) the laws of the region (d) a rule for success that is taught to children 85. Zajonc found that familiarity leads to (a) positive reaction (b) negative reaction (c) contempt (d) failure
86. This leadership type motivates through charisma and vision to set and attain goals beyond worker expectation. (a) transformational (b) transactional (c) democratic (d) authoritarian 87. In which of the following settings would a victim be most likely to receive help? (a) several men watching the mishap (b) several women watching the mishap (c) three people watching the mishap (d) one person watching the mishap 88. Research evidence suggests highest aggression among boys who come from which of the following settings? (a) broken (b) father-absent (c) father-present. (d) mother-present 89. Which one of the following combinations would, by definition, be necessary to have an attitude? (a) enduring system, feeling component (b) temporary system, cognitive component (c) stereotype system, action component (d) modification system, behavioural component 90. According to the findings of Lewin, Lippitt, and White, which of the following leadership styles would create the highest group productivity when the leader is absent? (a) autocratic (b) democratic (c) laissez-faire or autocratic (equally productive) (d) laissez-faire or democratic (equally productive) 91. Person A has lied for Rs. 100/- payoff While Person (B) told a similar lie for Rs. 2000/-Person B is (a) less likely to believe the lie (b) more likely to believe the lie (c) equivalent to Person A in belief likelihood (d) experiencing more cognitive dissonance 92 The most reliable public opinion polling is that which (a) accompanies census bureau statistics (b) private firms conduct prior to a political election (c) detergent firms conduct concerning product satisfaction (d) gasoline companies conduct to learn about driving habits 93. The ooor-in-the-face effect describes a process in which (a) a person who complies with a small request is more likely to comply with a larger request (b) a person who complies with a small request is less likely to comply with a larger request
(c) a person who complies with an initial large request is less likely to comply with a second large request (d) a person who refuses a large request is more likely to comply with a smaller request 94. Which of .the following refers to the tendency of individuals to agree with and accept personality interpretations that are provided? (a) the Zodiac effect (b) the Barnum effect (c) the Hawthorne effect (d) the placebo effect . 95. "Blaming the victim" is a process most closely associated with (a) diffusion of personality (b) deindividuation (c) belief in a just world (d) scapegoating 96. A two-sided communication is best defined as a communication (a) which is not supported by at least one member of the group (b) from both a high and low credibility source (c) in which a person argues a position contrary to his own beliefs (d) which includes arguments both for and against a position 97. The systematic study of how humans position themselves in relation to others is called (a) orthography (b) chronemics (c) proxemics (d) spatial relations 98. The statement "she stole from the store because she is a thief is an example of which of the following (a) the fundamental attribution error (b) the just-world bias (c) the base-rate fallacy (d) cognitive dissonance 99. A group discussing how best to handle insubordinate employees moves from an initial position where the employees would receive a verbal reprimand to the conclusion that insubordinate employees will be summarily dismissed. This is an example of (a) group polarization (b) social comparison (c) social exchange (d) social facilitation 100. What three styles of parenting did Baumrind identify? (a) autocratic, democratic, laissez-faire (b) authoritarian, authoritative, permissive (c) pre-conventional, conventional, post-conventional (d) prototaxic, parataxic, syntaxic 101. Many pedestrians observe a motorist sideswipe a parked car, but none reports the incident. This behaviour is an example of (a) social proximity (b) pluralistic ignorance (c) diffusion of responsibility (d) altruism 102. Which of the following phenomena is minimized by group monitoring? (a) Social loafing (b) Social comparison
(c) In group/out group bias
(d) Groupthink
103. In many trials in the court defense lawyers use the strategy of blaming the victim, so that the accused perpetrator might be set free. People's tendency to go along with victim blaming can be explained by (a) oversimplification (b) the representativeness heuristic (c) the just world bias (d) the illusion of control 104. Because Ghazala is a good student, her teacher assumes she is also artistic, well behaved, and from a good family. The teacher's assumptions are explained by (a) the halo effect (b) oversimplification (c) good continuation (d) self-fulfilling prophecy 105. The idea that people will alter their actions or beliefs so that their actions and beliefs are in agreement with one another is the theory of (a) risky shift (b) cognitive dissonance (c) Purkinje shift (d) self-serving bias 106. Henry Landsberger discovered that (a) people behave differently when observed (Hawthorne effect) (b) that people remember uncompleted tasks better than ones they completed (Zeigarnik effect) (c) conclusions are influenced by the way information is phrased (Atmosphere effect) (d) a single point of light will appear to move in the darkness (Autokinetic effect) 107. Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on interpersonal attraction? (a) similarity of need (b) proximity (c) educational balance (d) similarity of background 108. The idea that over-benefited people tend to feel guilty is explained through (a) equity theory (b) social exchange theory (c) gain-loss theory (d) reciprocal interaction 109. Each of the following figures performed famous experiments in the area of conformity except (a) Stanley Milgram (b) Philip Zimbardo (c) Leon Festinger (d) Solomon Asch 110. Learned helplessness is associated with (a) neuroticism (b) introversion (c) androgyny (d) an external locus of control 111. Which of the following figures is known for developing field theory? (a) Festinger (b) Asch (c) Lewin (d) Triplett 112. Stereotypes are (a) special types of schemas that are part of people's shared cultural background
(b) widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group (c) equivalent to prejudice (d) both a and b 113. The theory which suggests that people learn attitudes by observing their own behaviour is (a) operant conditioning (b) C R (c) self-perception (d) vicarious learning 114. According to Bandura, one is socialized by (a) punishment (b) observation (c) food
(d) none of these
115. Presence of others may interfere with performance due to (a) social inhibition (b) social loafing (c) distraction (d) all of these 116. When we receive mixed information about a person, we tend to base our impression on the information that is (a) favourable (b) unfavourable (c) received first (d) received last 117. Most of the social-psychological research on attitude change has been generated by theories concerning (a) consistency in attitudes and behaviour (b) cognitive dissonance (c) self-perception (d) attribution 118. The public opinion survey is (a) a passive record of opinion (b) limited to what the public believes at one moment in time (c) generally ignored by successful politicians (d) increasingly helping to shape opinions as well as measure it 119. The three basic components of prejudice are effective: (a) internal and external (b) real and imagined (c) descriptive and prescriptive (d) cognitive and behavioural 120. Studies show that an "authoritarian family" tends to produce an adolescent who is: (a) dependent and obedient (b) self-reliant (c) surface compliant but rebellious underneath (d) independent but reserved 121. The social distance scale is mainly a measure of: (a) ethnic attitude (b) cohesiveness of a group (c) upward social mobility (d) social class differences
122. A person has attitude towards: (a) all objects which are perceived by him (b) all objects which exist in his own life-space (c) all possible objects (d) none of these 123. Discrepancies between attitudes lead to: (a) prejudice (b) cognitive dissonance (c) relative deprivation (d) the fundamental attribution error 124. The semantic differential scale is used mainly to measure: (a) values (b) opinions (c) attitudes
(d) interests
125 Which branch of psychology is most directly concerned with the study of how people think about, influences, and relate to one another (a) developmental psychology (b) experimental psychology (c) personality psychology (d) social psychology 126. Attitudes are _______ that guide behaviour (a) norms and roles (b) beliefs and feelings (c) super ordinate goals (d) dispositional attributions 127. Solomon Asch reported that individuals conformed to a group's judgement of the lengths of lines (a) even when the group judgment was clearly incorrect (b) only when the group was composed of at least six members (c) even when the group seemed uncertain and repeatedly altered its judgment (d) only when members of the group were of high status 128. Prejudice is best defined as (a) the tendency to favour members of one's own group (b) the belief that victims of misfortune*deserve their fate (c) a perceived incompatibility of actions or goals (d) an unjustifiable attitude towards a group and its members 129. Prejudice is most likely to develop as a way of justifying (a) group polarization (b) social traps (c) mirror-image perceptions (d) social inequalities 130. Which of the following psychologist is associated with cognitive dissonance theory? (a) Cannon (b) Festinger (c) Maslow (d) Zuckerman 131. According to the concept of coactions, (a) children work most effectively when doing two tasks at the same time (b) children work more slowly in the presence of an audience than they do when working alone
(c) children work faster in the presence of an audience than they do when working alone . (d) children work faster when another child is present and doing the same task than they would alone 132. The tendency to attribute one's own feelings and thoughts to an external object is known as: (a) personification (b) displacement (c) cathexis (d) projection 133. Which of the following is most likely to produce cognitive dissonance? (a) "I shall go to this movie or none at all" (b) "I enjoy working, although I don't know exactly why." (c) "I spend time with her, but I don't really like her." (d) "I can't stand him, and he doesn't like me either." 134. Which of the following theories is characterized by the assumption that individuals have a need to evaluate their own attitude and abilities? (a) social facilitation (b) social comparison theory (c) social influence (d) social exchange theory
ANSWERS Q.1.(d) (d) Q.7. Q.10. Q.13. Q.16. Q.19. Q.22. Q.25. Q.28. Q.31. Q.34. Q37. Q.40. Q.43. Q.46. Q.49. Q.52. Q.55. Q.58. Q.61. Q.64. Q.67. Q.70. Q.73. Q.76.
Q.2. Q.5. (d) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d)
(d) (c) Q.8. Q.11. Q.14. Q.17. Q.20. Q.23. Q.26. Q.29. Q.32. Q.35. Q.38. Q.41. Q.44. Q.47. Q.50. Q.53. Q.56. Q.59. Q.62. Q.65. Q.68. Q.71. Q.74. Q.77.
Q.3. Q.6. (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c)
(b) (c) Q.9. Q.12. Q.15. Q.18. Q.21. Q.24. Q.27. Q.30. Q.33. Q.36. Q.39. Q.42. Q.45. Q.48. Q.51. Q.54. Q.57. Q.60. Q.63. Q.66. Q.69. Q.72. Q.75. Q.78.
Q.4. (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (b)
Q.79. Q.82. Q.85. Q.88. Q.91. Q.94. Q.97. Q.100. Q.103. Q.106. Q.109. Q.112. Q.115. Q.118. Q.121. Q.124. Q.127. Q.130. Q.133.
(b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c)
Q.80. Q.83. Q.86. Q.89. Q.92 Q.95. Q.98. Q.101. Q.104. Q.107. Q.110. Q.113. Q.116. Q.119. Q.122. Q.125. Q.128. Q.131. Q.134.
(b) (c) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b)
Q.81 Q.84. Q.87. Q.90. Q.93. Q.96. Q.99. Q.102. Q.105. Q.108. Q.111. Q.114. Q.117. Q.120. Q.123. Q.126. Q.129. Q.132.
(c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d)
Chapter 13
Organizational Psychology 1. As the industrial psychologist deals with physical conditions relating to the work setting, which of the following is of least significance? (a) illumination (b) heat and humidity (c) coffee break intervals (d) space arrangements 2. Which one of the following has not been used as an industrial method at the supervisor management levels? (a) case method (b) role playing method (c) free association method (d) sensitivity training method 3. Research with industrial workers has found which one of the following to be most effective motivator? (a) money (b) frequency of tea breaks (c) prestige (d) opportunity for advancement 4. Human factors engineering is concerned with (a) providing therapy using physical methods (b) the design of equipment and the tasks performed (c) automated instruction methods
with the operation of equipment
(d) human perceptions of the machines they operate 5. You are watching television and see a commercial where one of your favorite movie stars is discussing a nutritional cereal that you should buy. Because we like that star's movies, there is a tendency to believe that the star is also an expert on cereals. This tendency is referred to as the _______ effect. (a) star (b) halo (c) piezoelectric (d) none of these 6. The most difficult conflicts to resolve are (a) approach-approach (b) double approach-avoidance (c) avoidance-avoidance (d) avoidance-approach 7. A psychologist who assesses the effects of noise levels in a factory and the incidence of accidents is probably a /an __________ psychologist. (a) psychoanalytic (b) social (c) industrial (d) commercial 8. Human factors psychology is most closely related to which of the following areas of psychology? (a) clinical (b) industrial (c) social (d) personality 9 Human engineers estimate that the best room temperature for moderately heavy work extending over two to four hours to be in the range of (a) 55 - 60 degree (b) 65 - 70 degree (c) 75-80 degree (d) 90-95 degree 10. One of the first steps for a psychologist assigned to develop selection procedures for a specific job would be (a) develop an intelligence test (b) develop a test for musical aptitude (c) examine the tasks of that specific job (d) develop a test for manual dexterity 11. During the past thirty years, industrial psychology has evolved toward (a) less reliance on standardized instruments (b) more emphasis on human relations (c) more emphasis on hierarchy (d) more emphasis on organizational structure 12. In designing and arranging work space, human engineering personnel seek to (a) build in unnecessary worker movement to reduce boredom (b) eliminate all unnecessary movement (c) keep workers within close talking distance of each other (d) place the most important functions just above the worker's head 13. In equipment design, human engineering recommends that the least important and least frequent tasks on a console be placed
(a) immediately in front of the person (b) immediately above the person (c) approximately forty-five degrees to the left of center (d) approximately ninety to one hundred degrees to the right or left of center 14. Advertises place beautiful people or likeable places and objects with the products they are trying to sell because these items (a) distract from the disadvantages of the product (b) cause pleasant feelings to be evoked (c) are part of the product's basic qualities (d) are just elements of scenery 15. Improved job satisfaction results in ________ in work performance and _______ inturnover. (a) decrease, decrease (b) increase; no change (c) increase, increase (d) no change, decrease 16. Bonuses, recognition awards, praise and time off improve motivation through the application of (a) performance appraisal (b) benefits (c) reinforcement (d) objective criteria 17. An organization which successfully achieve the goals will be considered as (a) efficient (b) systematic (c) effective (d) reasonable 18. Grouping activities and resources in an organization is a function of (a) leading (b) organizing (c)coordination (d) monitoring 19. When psychological tests are used in personnel selection, an important concern regarding the tests is (a) cost (b) ease of administration (c) validity (d) objectivity 20. All of the following are some of the major sources of work stress except: (a) little control (b) shiftwork (c) high decision latitude (d) discrimination 21. An organization using its resource wisely and in a cost effective way is considered: (a) conservative (b) modern (c) efficient (d) effective 22. Which of the following is most likely to lead to high job satisfaction? (a) matching personality with occupation (b) promotion practices based on seniority (c) having an outgoing personality (d) working alone
23. To increase employee productivity, industrial/organizational psychologist's advice managers to (a) adopt a directive leadership style (b) adopt a democratic leadership style (c) instill competitiveness in each employee (d) deal with employees according to their individual motives 24. Psychologists in the area of ________ concentrate on workplace design, man-machine interaction, and physical fatigue. (a) human factors (b) personnel psychology (c). training and development (d) organizational psychology 25 Employees with high role ambiguity will: (a) have increased job satisfaction (b) All three will result from role ambiguity (c) become depressed (d) perform at higher levels 26. The human body cools down two different ways. These are through: (a) None of these (b) evaporation and circadian rhythm (c) radiation and effective temperature (d) radiation and evaporation 27. Which of the following techniques involves cleaning your desk and preparing a diary? (a) Abdominal breathing (b) Time management (c) Meditation (d) Progressive muscle relaxation 28. The _________ is the process of determining the work activities and requirements, and The ________ is the written result. (a) job description/job analysis (b) job analysis/job evaluation (c) job evaluation / job description (d) job analysis/job description 29. Which of the following sections in a job description can affect a person's perceptions of the status and worth of a job? (a) Work activities (b) Brief summary (c) Work context (d) Job title 30. During the job analysis interview, the questions asked should be: (a) highly structured (b) open-ended (c) true-false (d) multiple choice 31. An employee who inquiries about his/her level of pay compared to other employees within the same organization is addressing the issue of ______ (a) internal equity (b) merit (c) comparable worth (d) external equity
32. If an organization's compensation plan is competitive with other similar organizations, they are said to have: (a) internal equity (b) merit (c) comparable worth (d) external equity 33. The job evaluation process determines the amount of money that a job is worth; this amount is called ________ compensation. (a) financial (b) monetary (c) direct (d) indirect 34. Which of the following methods of avoiding downsizing is based on the premise that most economic recessions last less than a year? (a) Job sharing (b) Restricted overtime (c) Use of payless holidays (d) Reduced employee pay 35. An employee who works only the morning shift each day has what kind of shift schedule? (a) Gliding (b) Rotating (c) Fixed (d) Flexible 36. Employees with high self-esteem are likely to: (a) be unmotivated and perform poorly (b) be unmotivated but perform well (c) be motivated and perform well (d) be motivated but not perform well 37. Umer assigns tasks that are challenging, yet achievable and specifically tells employees what he expects from them. It sounds like Umer believes in: (a) providing feedback (b) intrinsic motivation theory (c) the Pygmalion effect (d) goal setting theory 38. In an organization benefits provide ______ and variable pay provides ________ (a) incentive / incentive (b) incentive / security (c) security / security (d) security / incentive 39. Which of the following incentive plans is not a group incentive plan? (a) Profit sharing (b) Merit pay (c) Gainsharing (d) Stock options 40. Employees who work with highly motivated coworkers are likely to be employees who work with unmotivated coworkers. (a) less challenged (b) less satisfied (c) more resentful (d) more motivated than 41. Job satisfaction is most related to: (a) absenteeism (c) performance
(b) tenure . (d) organizational commitment
42. Which of the following is not a component of a core self-evaluation? (a) Self-monitoring (b) Locus of control (c) Self-efficacy (d) Self-esteem 43. According to - "new" employees who work with highly satisfied “old” employees are more likely to be highly satisfied themselves. (a) McClelland's needs theory (b) consistency theory (c) individual differences theory (d) social information processing theory satisfied "old" 44. You would like to hire employees who will not miss work. Your best bet would be to hire applicants who score high on the personality dimension of: (a) conscientiousness (c) agreeableness (b) extroversion (d) neuroticism 45 Which of these is not a method of downward communication? (a) Complaint box (b) Bulletin board (c) Policy manual (d) Memo 46. Nonverbal communication refers to: (a) how a person uses time (b) body language (c) the way in which a person uses space (d) All of these choices 47. The tone, tempo, and volume in which one speaks is a nonverbal cue known as: (a) body language (b) proximity (c) paralanguage (d) artifacts 48. A manager who is most effective in a climate of disorganization has a/an ______ leadership style. (a) affiliation (b) tactical (c) coercive (d) position 49. A manager who organizes and controls the activities of employees has a/an _______ style of leadership. (a) achievement-oriented (b) participative (c) instrumental (d) supportive 50. A new manager is assigned staff who are unsure about a task but are willing to do it. She should use a __________ approach. (a) delegating (b) supporting (c) coaching (d) directing
51. Zia provides information to Afzal who provides information to Umer who provides information to Zia. This is an example of which type of communication network? (a) Chain (b) Centralized (c) Open (d) Circle
52. Maria notices that none of the other members of her group are working hard so she decides to lower her effort. Her behaviour supports the ________ theory of social loafing. (a) free-rider (b) individual dominance (c) distraction (d) sucker-effect 53. A person who ignores conflict and hopes it will go away is using a/an _______ style. (a) accommodating (b) avoiding (c) forcing (d) collaborative 54. In _________, a neutral outside party listens to the arguments of both sides in a conflict and then makes a decision that each side must accept. (a) binding mediation (b) nonbinding arbitration (c) binding arbitration (d) nonbinding mediation 55. In an organizational setup operant conditioning focuses on: (a) modeling of behavior. (b) employee needs. (c) self-esteem. (d) reinforcement of behavior.
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53.
c b b d a c c d c d d a c b
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54.
c b c b c a d b d d a d c c
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55.
d C b c c d b a c b d c a d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52.
b b b c d a d d c d a b d
Chapter 14
Stress and Coping 1. A single-goal object has both desirable and undesirable feature in: (a) approach-approach conflict (b) approach-avoidance conflict. (c) avoidance-avoidance conflict (d) double approach-avoidance conflict 2. In Brady's work with "executive monkey", those that developed ulcers had (a) mother-deprived backgrounds (b) father-deprived backgrounds (c) capacity to control shock onset (d) no capacity to control shock onset 3. In studying bodily reactions to stress, Hans Selye found the initial reaction to be (a) resistance (b) exhaustion (c) alarm (d) migraines 4. An involuntary response to stress has just occurred involving the digestive and the circulatory systems. Emphasis would center on which of the following pars of the autonomic nervous system? (a) central NS (b) peripheral NS (c) sympathetic NS (d) parasympathetic NS 5. The general adaptation syndrome can lead to bodily damage when (a) psychosomatic diseases fail to protect one from stress (b) adaptive physiological responses fail (c) one is unable to reduce stress which results in chronic bodily arousal (d) the resistance stages sets in 6. Approach-avoidance conflicts are difficult to resolve because (a) the positive and negative aspect of a situation are equally strong (b) a single goal possesses both positive and negative aspects (c) one must choose the lesser of two evils (d) they produce cognitive dissonance 7. How many stages are there in the general adaptation syndrome? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 8. Which of the following is central to the stress response? (a) DNA (b) GABA (c) ACTH 9. The. body's own self-produced "pain killers" are (a) epinephrine and nor-epinephrine (b) endorphins and encephalin (c) opium and heroin (d) GABA and ACTH
(d) NMR
10. The feeling we have when our goals are blocked is (a) frustration (b) conflict (c) hassle
(d) hardness
11. Stress-resistant individuals differ from their counterparts on which of the following dimensions? (a) social and work involvement (b) where they were in their family birth order (c) intelligence (d) creativity 12. Sources of frustration include (a) environmental lacks (c) incompatible motives
(b) environmental obstacles (d) all of these
13. The kind of conflict experienced by a student who simultaneously wants to watch a movie at late night on television and to get a good night's sleep is best described as (a) approach — avoidance (b) double approach — avoidance (c) approach — approach (d) avoidance — avoidance 14. In which motivational conflicts one must choose between "the lesser of two evils"? (a) approach-approach (b) approach-avoidance (c) avoidance-avoidance (d) multiple approach-avoidance 15. Which of the following improves worker skills and reduces frustration and stress? (a) job trailing (b) job analysis (c) access to an employee assistance program (d) an organizational culture 16. The approach-approach conflict involves: (a) an unstable equilibrium (b) a stable equilibrium (c) an oscillation of a and b (d) neither a nor b 17. Aerobic exercise has been closely linked to a/an (a) decrease in lymphocyte production (b) decrease in depression (c) increase in blood pressure in reaction.to stress (d) decrease in the production of endorphins 18. Researchers refer to individuals who are very time-conscious, super-motivated, verbally aggressive, and easily angered as (a) ulcer-prone personalities (b) cancer-prone personalities (c) type A (d) type B 19. It is the type of conflict an individual is confronted with the two equally positive or desirable motives, but is forced to make a choice
(a) double approach conflict (c) approach avoidance conflict
(b) double avoidance conflict (d) double approach -avoidance conflict
20. Social support ________ our ability to cope with stressful events (a) has no effect on (b) usually increases (c) usually decreases (d) has an unpredictable effect on 21. The field of health psychology is concerned with (a) the prevention of illness (b) the promotion of health . (c) the treatment of illness (d) all of the above 22. One effect of stress on the body is to (a) suppress the immune system (b) facilitate the immune system response (c) increase disease resistance (d) increase the growth of B and T lymphocytes 23. Which of the following is a true concerning smoking treatment programme? (a) most are effective in the long run (b) hypnosis is more effective than behaviour modification (c) treatment programs are more effective with women than with men (d) most participants eventually resume smoking 24. Relaxation is the most effective technique for preventing (a) alcoholism . (b) a stressful environment (c) smoking (d) a repeat heart attack 25. Which of the following was offered in the text as a reason people continue to smoke? (a) social pressure from peers is strong (b) cigarettes serve as powerful reinforces (c) regular use of nicotine impairs the brain's ability to produce neurotransmitters such as serotonin (d) most adults who smoke don't really want to quit 26. Jamila is an easygoing, noncompetitive person who is happy in her job and enjoys her leisure time. She would probably be classified as (a) type A (b) typeB (c) type C (d) atherosclerotic 27. Which of the following would be the best piece of advice to offer a person who is trying to minimize the adverse effects of stress on his or her health? (a) "avoid challenging situations that may prove stressful" (b) "learn to play as hard as you work" (c) "maintain a sense of control and a positive approach of life" (d) "keep your emotional responses in check by keeping your feelings to yourself 28. Farah is worried that her 12-year-old son might begin smoking because many of his classmates do. According to the text, Farah can most effectively help her son not begin smoking by
(a) telling him about the danger of smoking (b) telling him that if he begins smoking she will withhold his allowance (c) using role-playing to teach him refusal techniques to counteract peer pressure to smoke (d) insisting that he should not associate with anyone who smokes 29. You have just transferred to a new campus and find yourself in a potentially stressful environment. According to the text, which of the following would help you cope with the stress? (a) believing that you have some control over your environment (b) being able to predict when stressful events will occur (c) feeling optimistic that you will eventually adjust to your new surroundings (d) all of the above would help 30. Which of the following is not considered one of the sources of stress? (a) aggression (b) frustration (c) life events (d) conflict 31. The relationship between environmental frustration and personal frustration may also be characterized as (a) stimulus vs. response (b) need vs. drive (c) social vs. nonsocial (d) external vs. internal 32. Nida wants to eat dessert every night, but she does not want to gain weight. She will probably experience the frustration of a/an _____ conflict (a) approach-approach (b) avoidance-avoidance (c) approach-avoidance (d) multiple approach-avoidance 33. Which of the following describes a conflict in which both alternatives are positive? (a) approach-avoidance (b) approach-approach (c) avoidance-avoidance (d) none of the above 34. The type of conflict which creates the most stress is (a) avoidance-avoidance (b) approach-approach (c) approach-avoidance (d) multiple approach-avoidance 35. Ahmad wants to play cricket for the University of Punjab when he grows up. However, current predictions of his height indicate that he will be only about five feet eight inches tall. This situation is an example of (a) environmental frustration . (b) personal frustration (c) approach-avoidance conflict (d) approach-approach conflict 36. "Out of the frying pan and into the fire", is a cliche which refers to a/an _______ conflict (a) avoidance-avoidance (b) approach-approach . (c) approach-avoidance (d) multiple approach-avoidance 37. Which of the following reactions or responses to stress would be considered maladaptive? (a) relaxation (b) cognitive reappraisal (c) aggression (d) exercise
38. Which of the following responses is not likely to be the result of stress? (a) aggression (b) anxiety (c) physical illness (d) increased optimism 39. Which of the following is true? (a) about 400,000 deaths per year can be traced to tobacco use (b) alcohol kills more people than tobacco (c) more people die from traffic accidents than from sexual behaviours (d) the leading cause of death among Americans aged 25-44 is traffic accidents 40. One approach that seems to be effective in getting adolescents to refrain from smoking does so by emphasizing (a) long-term benefits of not smoking (b) potential harm of lifelong smoking (c) short-term benefits of not smoking (d) scare tactics showing individuals with cancer 41. Type B personalities: (a) are opposite personalities. (c) never feel stressed.
(b) are less likely to react negatively to stress, (d) are likely to react negatively to stress.
42. Which of the following relaxation techniques is designed to calm the emotions? (a) Meditation (b) Progressive muscle relaxation (c) Time management (d) Abdominal breathing 43. Research suggests that __________influences often lead a person to start smoking, whereas ——— influences become important in explaining why people continue to smoke (a) biological; social (b) social; biological (c) biological; cognitive (d) cognitive; biological 44. Withdrawal reactions do not include which of the following elements? (a) repression (b) fantasy (c) regression (d) paranoia
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29.
b c b c b d b d
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30.
c b a c c a b a
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31.
c b a a a d c d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32.
c c d b b d c c
33. 37. 41.
b. c b;
34. 38. 42.
a d d
35. 39. 43.
b a b
36. 40. 44.
a c d
Chapter 15
Statistical Method 1. A researcher is interested in the relationship between political affiliation and eye colour. Therefore, she asks people whether they belong to Pakistan People's Party, Pakistan Muslim League or Tehreek-e-lnsaaf and what their eye colour is _________ blue, brown, green, black or other. The appropriate statistical test would be a/an: (a) t-test (b)ANOVA (c) chi-square (d) ANCOVA 2. Correlation coefficient may range in value from-- to(a) 0to2 (b) -1 to +1 (c) Oto + 1
(d) ~1 to 0
3. A graphical representation of correlational data is called a: (a) chi-square (b) scatter-plot (c) bimodal distribution (d) skewed distribution 4 Each of the following is true about z-score except: (a) the mean of a distribution of z-score is 0 (b) the standard deviation of a distribution of z-score is 1 (c) about 96% of score fall between z-score of -2 and z-score of +2 (d) there is no correlation between z-score and T-score 5 A pollster wishes to know if there is any significant association between political affiliations and favorite sports teams. Which statistic should be employed to decide this question? (a) correlation coefficient (b) chi-square (c) independent-subjects f (d) within subject f 6 Two hundred undergraduates were asked to choose their favorite vegetable from a list of 20 vegetables. What kind of data would be gathered in this study: (a) ordinal (b) rational (c) interval (d) nominal 7. If a distribution has relatively low variability, which of the following is true? (a) the variance will be relatively large (b) the mean will be relatively low (c) the distribution will be skewed (d) the standard deviation will be relatively low 8. An example of ordinal data would be:
(a) lining up a gym class from shortest to tallest (b) measuring the exact weights of the students in a gym class (c) measuring the pulse of students before and after strenuous physical activity (d) measuring the time of day when students perform best on a given task 9. Galton introduced the idea of (a) mean (c) correlation
(b) standard deviation (d) median
10. Which one of the following would be of primary importance in determining the accuracy of inferences being made about a population? (a) size of the population (b) sample variance (c) sample mean (d) sample representativeness 11. Which one of the followings is central to a frequency polygon? (a) scatter-gram (b) points connected by lines (c) flowchart (d) histogram Questions 12 to 15 are based on the following answer choices. 1. z 2. f 3. F 4. chi-square 5. r 12. This statistic and its corresponding analysis determine whether there is systematic relationship between two-sets of variables. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 13. This statistic assumes direct knowledge of a population mean and standard deviation: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5 14. This statistic reflects an unknown population mean and inference based on data obtained from a sample. It is assumed that the terms in the population from which the sample is drawn are normally distributed or at least, do not depart dramatically from normality. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 15. This statistic deals with differences between the terms expected value and obtained value. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5 16. Standard error is the: (a) standard deviation of a distribution of population means (b) standard deviation of a distribution of sample means (c) variance of distribution of population means (d) variance of a distribution of sample means 17. A research design has more than two groups. A/An-will be an appropriate test of statistical significance. (a) analysis of variance (b) t-test (c) z-test (d) none of them
18. In studying the relationship between test frequency and content mastery, a researcher finds a correlation of +1.20. On the basis of this finding, he can conclude that there is (a) strong positive correlation (b) strong negative correlation (c) low positive correlation (d) a computational error 19. A distribution can have more than one (a) mean (b) median
(c) mode
(d) none of the above
20. Given a grouping of data that is heterogeneous, you can expect a standard deviation to be (a) small (b) small if sample size is small (c) large (d) large only if sample size is large 21. To convert a standard deviation into a variance, one must (a) take the square root of the standard deviation (b) divide the standard deviation by N (c) multiply the standard deviation by N (d) square the standard deviation 22. The simplest, least sophisticated measure of variability is known as the (a) range (b) variance (c) correlation (d) mean 23. Each score in a distribution has been increased by 7 (i.e., 7 has been added to every score). What happens to the standard deviation? (a) it increases by 7 (b) it increased by 14 (c) it increases by 3.5 (d) it remains unchanged from its original value 24. Assuming that the experimenter can somehow obtain the data in a single test session with one score for each subject, she could use (a) a two-factor factorial design (b) a three-factor factorial design (c) a f-test for related measures (d) a f-test for unrelated measures Questions 25 to 27 are based on the following information. Two judges ranked five speech contestants as follows: Contestant Judge 1 Judge 2 A B24 C33 D42 E51 25. Which of the following can be concluded from the above? (a) a strong positive correlation exists between the judges (b) a strong negative correlation exists between the judges (c) there is no correlation between the judges
(d) a moderately negative correlation exists between the judges 26. Which of. the following methods would be used in computation of the above correlation? (a) Spearman Rank-Order Correlation (b) Point-Biserial Correlation (c) Simple Analysis of Covariance (d) Factorial Analysis of Covariance 27. The correlation coefficient that you would be most likely to find would be (a) -0.5 (b) 0.0 (c) -1.0 (d) +10 28. Recognizing the difficulty of control in experimental designs, in which of the following could you be assured that variability among subjects has been adequately controlled? (a) test-retest design (b) 2 x 2 x2 factorial design (c) point-biserial correlation (d) completely randomized design 29. Which one of the following elements would invariably be present in the Type-I error? (a) two-tailed test (b) rejection of a null hypothesis (c) one-tailed test (d) acceptance of null hypothesis 30. A test core that has not been converted into a form permitting comparison with scores from other tests is known as a (a) percentile score (b) raw score (c) z-score (d) quartile score 31. A frequency distribution that has two distinct concentrations of scores is (a) negatively skewed (b) positively skewed (c) bimedial (d) bimodal 32 Measures of dispersion tells us about (a) central value (b) average of data (c) spread of scores in the data (d) one fourth value 33. If we determine the heights and weights of a group of college men, the data generated is (a) random (b) continuous (c) discrete (d) normal 34. The probability that the null hypothesis (H0) will be rejected when it. is in fact true is called a/an (a) type II error (b) type I error (c) two-tailed test (d) experimental error 35. A "positively skewed" distribution is (a) a distribution that has a few extremely high values (b) a distribution that has few extremely low values (c) a flat distribution, with a wide dispersion of values (d) a distribution that is very peaked and leptokurtic
36. A few extreme scores in a distribution will effect (a) the value of the median more than that of the mean (b) the value of mean more than that of the median (c) the value of the mean and median equally (d) the value of the mode more than that of the median 37. A psychologist wants to determine whether one. group of 15-year old girls' IQ scores differs significantly from that of a second group of 15-year old girls. He would use (a) a f-test for sample and population means (b) a f-test for two independent means (c) chi-square (d) a factorial design 38. A psychologist wants to study how IQ, age and sex affect reading speed The subjects will be equal numbers of males and females, ages thirty or sixty and either have an IQ of 100 or of 120. The statistical design for this study is (a) eight factor (b) six factor (c) two factor (d) three factor 39. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following gives the correct relative sequence from left to right of central tendency measures? (a) mean, median, mode . (b) mode, median, mean (c) mean, median, and mode are all at the same point (d) median, mode, mean 40. What is the value of median for the numbers: 34, 29, 26, 37, 31 & 34? (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 32.5 (d) 30.1 41. When the difference between two means is shown to be significant (a) the null hypothesis is rejected (b) the null hypothesis is disproved (c) the alternative hypothesis is disproved (d) the independent variable is proved 42. If 70% of the variance found in the scores in a population are attributable to genetic factors, then the heritability index would be (a) 0.30 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.07 (d) 0.70 43. Graphically presented material in which a bar represents the number of cases in an interval of measurement is a/an (a) polygon (b) histogram (c) bar diagram (d) cumulative frequency 44. Distribution with extreme values at one end are said to be (a) positively skewed (b) negatively skewed
(c) skewed
(d) histograms
45. Given a sample of data that is homogeneous, you can expect the standard deviation to be (a) large (b) small if the sample size is small (c) small (d) large if the sample size is large 46. Which of the following best describes the alternative hypothesis? (a) the hypothesis that there is no effect (b) the hypothesis that there is only one effect (c) the hypothesis that there are two effects (d) the null hypothesis is false 47 The mean of the sauared differences from the mean of the distribution is a definition of the (a) z-score (b) mode (c) variance (d) median Two questions refer to the following paragraph. In a particular personality test a subject is given a group of self-referential statements and is asked to sort them into piles based on whether the statement is highly characteristic or very uncharacteristic of his personality. It is expected that the sorting will approximate a normal distribution - most of thestatement will be considered fairly neutral in terms of the subject's personality. 48. This method of testing is known as a/an (a) projective test (b) Q-technique
(c) MMPI
(d) f-test
49. Self-reports have been criticized because (a) they have low reliability (b) they have low validity (c) the subject can deceive the researcher (d) both a and c 50. In a positively skewed distribution, the median is (a) larger than the mode (b) larger than the mean (c) equal to the mean (d) negatively skewed 51. In the negatively skewed distribution the (a) mean is lower than the median (b) mode is lower than the median (c) median and the mean are equal (d) median and the mode are equal 52. Suppose you are told that two conditions in an experiment differ at the .05 level of significance. What does this imply? (a) the difference can be generalized to 5% of the population (b) the difference is not very reliable (c) the difference is probably correlational, not causal
(d) the difference occurs by chance only 5% of the time 53. Knowledge that two people obtained test scores of 85 in an introductory psychology class is (a) sufficient to determine their test performance (b) meaningless without knowledge of the mean (c) meaningless without knowledge of both the mean and the standard deviation (d) meaningless without knowledge of the distribution skew 54. Coping behaviour is (a) often unconscious (b) environmental obstacles (c) always goal-directed (d) all of the above 55. Sources of frustration include (a) environmental lacks (c) incompatible motives (b) a form of habitual behaviour (d) usually carried out casually 56. When your read a bar graph, it is most important for you to (a) understand the concept of regression toward the mean (b) mentally transform the data into a scatterplot (c) identify the value of the-standard deviation (d) note the range and size of the scale values 57. The percentile rank of Musa's mathematics test score was 19. This indicates that Musa. (a) answered 19 percent of the test items correctly (b) answered 81 percent of the test items correctly (c) performed better than 19 percent of those who took the test (d) performed better than 81 percent of those who took the test 58. The most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores is the (a) mode (b) median (c) standard deviation (d) mean 59. Ghazala has six cousins aged 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, and 16. The mean age of her cousins is: (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8 60.The median of a distribution of scores is the (a) most frequently occurring score (b) difference between the highest and lowest scores (c) arithmetic average of all the scores (d) scores exceeded by 50 percent of all the scores 61. The difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution is the
(a) mean
(b) range
(c) median
(d) percentile rank
62. The symmetrical bell-shaped figure used to represent the distribution of many physical and psychological characteristics is called a (a) bar graph (b) normal curve (c) percentile rank (d) scatterplot 63. If a set of standardized test scores is normally distributed, having a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, approximately 68 percent of the group members receive scores somewhere between (a) 50 and 60 (b) 45 and 55 (c) 40 and 60 (d) 35 and 65 64. Which of the following provides a statistical measure of the direction and extent of relationship between two variables? (a) correlation coefficient (b) standard deviation (c) normal distribution (d) percentile rank 65. Which of the following correlation coefficients expresses the weakest degree of relationship between two variables? (a) -.12 (b)+1.00 (c) -.99 (d) + .25 66. If person with low scores on one variable also have low scores on another variable, the two variables are (a) positively correlated (b) negatively correlated (c) perfectly correlated (d) not correlated 67. If persons with high scores on one variable are equally likely to have either high or low scores on a second variable, the two variables are (a) positively correlated (b) negatively correlated (c) perfectly correlated (d) not correlated 68. The arithmetic average of a set of scores is (a) the mean (b) the standard deviation (c) the median (d) the correlation coefficient 69. When scores are ranked from highest to lowest, the middle score is (a) the mean (b) the standard deviation (c) the median (d) the correlation coefficient 70. The mean and the median are both (a) measures of the central tendency of a set of numbers (b) measures of the variability of a set of numbers (c) measures of the correlations between two variables (d) examples of inferential statistics
71. The standard deviation is a measure of (a) central tendency (b) correlation (c) variability (d) bias 72. Which of the following takes into account the difference between each individual score and the mean, and combines these differences to produce a single measure of variability? . (a) median (b) correlation coefficient (c) standard deviation (d) mode 73. The greater the average difference between each score and the mean, the greater the (a) statistical significance (b) correlation (c) reliability (d) standard deviation 74. Shorter people usually (but not always) weigh less than taller people. Which of the following correlation coefficients between height and weight could describe this relationship? (a) -1.00 (b) -0.80 (c) +0.80 (d) +1.00 75. Which of the following correlation coefficients would indicate the strongest correlation theoretically possible? (a) -0.30 (b) 0.00 (c) 0.90 (d) 3.00 76. Which of the following correlation coefficients would indicate the weakest correlation? (a) 0.00 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.50 (d) - 0.40 77. A correlation coefficient of -0.90 would indicate (a) no correlation (c) a moderate correlation (b) a weak correlation (d) a strong correlation 78. Correlations are valuable in psychology (a) because they improve our ability to make prediction (b) because they tell us which variable is cause and which is effect (c) because both a and b are true (d) for none of the above reasons 79. Suppose you have hypothesized a strong relationship between hours of television-watching and grade-point average, name that as the amount of time spent watching television increases, GPA decreases sharply. Which of the following correlation coefficients-would best support your hypothesis? (a) +0.20 (b) -0.40 (c) +0.90 (d) -0.80 80. A table that divides the entire range of possible scores into equal intervals and indicates the number of scores occurring in each interval is called a (a) normal distribution (b) frequency distribution (c) rank ordering (d) unimodal distribution
81. In a normal distribution, most scores are concentrated (a) near the top of the distribution (where scores are higher) (b) near the bottom of the distribution (where scores are lower) (c) near the center of the distribution (d) either a or b, depending on the particular variable 82. The results of most psychological tests form a _______ distribution if the tests are given to a sufficiently large group of people (a) positively skewed (b) negatively skewed (c) bimodal (d) normal 83. The most frequently occurring score or range of scores in a frequency distribution is called the (a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) variance 84. The normal curves is a ______ distribution (a) bimodal (b) unimodal (c) positively skewed (d) negatively skewed 85. A frequency distribution in which the spread of scores above the mode is greater than that below is referred to as (a) bimodal (b) positively skewed (c) negatively skewed (d) normal 86. The middle score in a set of ranked scores is (a) the mean (b) the median (c) the mode (d) none of the above 87. In the set of scores 4, 5, 7, 9,11, 12, and 18 the median is (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 88. Another name for the arithmetic average of a set of scores is the (a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) standard deviation 89. In a normal distribution, if you know the mean score, you know (a) the median and the mode (b) the median but not the mode . (c) the mode but not the median (d) neither the median nor the mode 90. The most straightforward way to see how one person compares to others on a given measure, is to determine the person's (a) percentile rank (b) mean (c) standard deviation (d) correlation coefficient 91. The percentage of scores that are equal to or lower than a given score is the _______ of that score (a) correlation coefficient (b) median
(c) standardized score
(d) percentile rank.
92. If you have a percentile rank of 88 on a measure, then (a) you have gotten 88 percent of the items on that measure correct (b) 88 percent of the whole set of scores on that measures are at or below your own (c) you have scored above the median on that measure (d) both b and c 93. A z score is a form of (a) percentile rank (c) standard deviation
(b) standardized score (d) correlation coefficient
94. A z score of + 0.60 would mean that the test score (a) was above the mean (b) was below the mean (c) was equal to the mean (d) could have been above or below the mean: the z score gives no indication of that 95. If shoe size and IQ are negatively correlated, which of the following is true? (a) people with large feet tend to have high IQs (b) people with small feet tend to have high IQs (c) people with small feet tend to have low IQs. (d) IQ is unpredictable based on a person's shoe size 96. What is the median of the following distribution of scores: 1, 3, 7, 7, 2, 8, 4 ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7 97 What is the mode of the given distribution: 8, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 2, 0, 2? % (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 7 98. Which of the following statistics must fall on or between -1.00 and +1.00? (a) the mean (b) the standard deviation (c) the correlation coefficient (d) none of the above 99. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? (a) mean (b) range (c) median
(d) mode
100 Which- of the following is the measure of central tendency that would be most affected by a few extreme scores? (a) mean (b) median (c) range (d) mode 101. If there is no relationship between two sets of scores, the coefficient of correlation equals (a) 0.00 (b) -1.00 (c) +1.00 (d) 0.50 102 The highest percentile rank in a distribution (a) depends on the size of the distribution
(b) will equal 50, since this is the midpoint (c) will equal 100 (d) will equal 99 103. The first step in constructing a bar graph is to create a (a) standard deviation (b) data table (c) correlation coefficient (d) range 104. Which scores falls at the 50th percentile of a distribution? (a) mean (b) median (c) mode
(d) standard deviation
105 Which of the following sets of scores best fits the definition of a normal distribution? (a) 1,2, 4, 8, 16, 32 (b) 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7 (d) 2, 8, 10, 18, 35 106. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? (a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) standard deviation 107. Average is referred to as measures of (a) variability (b) correlation
(c) reliability
(d) central tendency
108 If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = 1.27 between two variables, you would conclude that there is a/an: (a) high correlation (b) error in the calculation. (c) very low correlation. (d) moderately low positive correlation. 109. Which of the following is the most widely accepted significance level for demonstrating significance in experimental results? (a) 0.5 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.55 (d) 5.0 110. Which of the following measures is most sensitive to outlying observations? (a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) variance 111. For simple testing of differences between the means of an experimental and a control group, a researcher would be likely to use (a) chi-square (b) f-test (c) f-test (d) correlation
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25.
c b c a a d b
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26.
b d d b d a a
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27.
c d b c c d c
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28.
d a d b c b a
29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89 93. 97. 101. 105. 109.
b b b a c d c. c b a c d d c b a b b a c b
30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98. 102. 106. 110.
b b d d d a c a b a a c a d b a a c d d a
31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99. 103. 107. 111.
d a b b c a d d c d c c d c d d b b b d c
32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100. 104. 108.
c b c c b d d d a a c a b b a d c a b b
Practice Tests PRACTICE TEST 1 Time: 80 Minutes 100
Questions:
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by "four" suggested answers or completions. Read the question/statement carefully and select the response that you feel is most appropriate. Then completely darken the oval/circle on your answer sheet that corresponds with your choice. 1. Psychology is the science of (a) objective introspection (c) inductive reasoning
(b) behaviour and mental processes (d) emotions
2. The method of studying development using groups of people that vary in age and are measured at the same time is called: (a) longitudinal study (b) field study (c) quasi-experiment (d) cross-sectional study 3. Which of the following is not one of Gestalt Psychology's five laws of form perception? (a) closure (b) similarity (c) proximity (d) relative size 4. "Give me a group of infants, and if I could control the world in which they are raised, I could predict which will become doctors and which will become sculptors." This statement is most likely based on: (a) the utilization of the methods of classical conditioning (b) the Freudian explanation of human behaviour (c) an early behaviourist, conception of the nature of human development (d) a functionalistic emphasis on the adaptive nature of behaviour 5. Which one of the following name combinations contains two Gestalt psychologists? (a) Koffka, Kohler, Kelman (b) Kohler, Cohen, Kelman (c) Wertheimer, Wundt, Kelman : (d) James, Jensen, Kelman 6. Which of the following theorists most stressed the importance of maturation in development? (a) Jean Piaget (b) John Locke (c) Arnold Gesell (d) Lev Vygostsky 7. Fertilization of human eggs normally takes place in the: (a) uterus (b) ovaries (c) cervix
(d) fallopian tubes
8. In an experiment studying the effects of different drugs on reaction time, each subject is presented with all of the conditions in the experiment. This is an example of a (a) factorial design (b) within subjects design (c) between subjects design (d) quasi-experimental design
9. Among monocular cues for depth perception is: (a) convergence (b) retinal disparity (c) assimilation (d) interposition 10. Which one of the following combinations would not be possible in a set of triplets? (a) three fraternal (b) three identical (c) two identical, one fraternal (d) two fraternal, one identical 11. Which individual is correctly matched with their theory? (a) Lewin - field theory (b) James - law of effect theory (c) Wundt - pragmatism theory (d) Freud - personal construct theory 12. The four main goals of psychological research are (a) description, experimentation, prediction, and control (b) description, explanation, assessment and manipulation (c) description, prediction, assessment and manipulation (d) description, explanation, control and validity 13. Bipolar disorder is: (a) a severe form of depression (b) best treated by Valium (c) characterized by episodes of depression and mania (d) a more recent term for depression 14. Which of the following will be least effectively retained? Learning to (a) swim (b) ride a bicycle (c) drive a car
(d) recite a poem
15. Research into television violence effects upon children makes frequent reference to the classic work of (a) Milgram (b) Sherif (c) Bandura (d) Asch 16. The major laws of perceptual organization were developed by the: (a) Gestaltists (b) Phenomenologist's (c) Cognitivists (d) Transactionalist 17. Socially the young child can only attend to one dimension at a" time. In cognitive terms this is called: (a) accommodation (b) egocentrism (c) assimilation (d) reversibility 18. Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the religious beliefs of Pakistanis and their attitudes towards terrorism? (a) the survey (b) naturalistic observation (c) the case study (d) experimentation
19. Performance of an earlier task is interfered with by the learning of a second, more recent task in (a) proactive facilitation (b) proactive inhibition (c) retroactive facilitation (d) retroactive inhibition 20. The primary deficit in anterograde amnesia is: (a) impaired long-term learning (b) faster forgetting than normal subjects (c) a frequently reversible storage deficit (d) difficulty remembering past events 21. Innate behaviour patterns develop primarily as a function of: (a) instrumental conditioning (b) maturation (c) learning (d) infant stimulation 22. In which of the following situations would the most classical conditioning be expected? (a) UCS preceding CS by one-half second (b) UCS preceding CS by two seconds (c) CS preceding UCS by one-half second (d) CS preceding UCS by five second 23. A patient is given a diagnosis of social phobia after an intake evaluation. The most likely presenting complaint was fear of: (a) closed spaces (b) high places (c) being alone in public places (d) being embarrassed or scrutinized by others 24. A cross-sectional study is.one in which (a) the same people are retested over a periodof years. (b) different age groups are tested at the same time. (c) different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time (d) the. behaviour of a group is assessed by different researchers. 25. Eidetic memory is most often found in (a) adults (c) children
(b) depressed adults (d) mentally-retarded children
26. Cause is to effect as _____ is to ________ (a) prediction; explanation (b) correlation; experimentation (c) independent variable; dependent variable (d) control condition; experimental condition 27. Chemicals that act as messengers between animals are referred to as: (a) hormones (b) pheromones (c) amacrines
(d) anachrones
28. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of electrical activity as it passes through a single nerve cell? N (a) axon, dendrite, soma, vesicle (b) soma, cell body, dendrite, vesicle (c) soma, vesicle, dendrite, axon (d) dendrite, soma, axon, vesicle 29. The first systematic study of operant conditioning was performed in 1938 by (a) E. L. Thorndike (b) B. F. Skinner (c) A. Bandura (d) I. Pavlov 30. DSM's Axis II encompasses _________ personality disorders. (a) borderline (b) narcissistic (c) avoidant (d) all of the preceding . 31. George Sperling's well known experiment on iconic memory showed that subjects had trouble remembering more than five or so items because of (a) retroactive interference (b) proactive interference (c) rapid decay (d) masking 32. During the third through the eighth week of pregnancy, the developing child can be accurately referred to as the (a) prenate (b) zygote (c) embryo (d) fetus 33 A person thinks that he sees a snake moving stealthily through the weeds on a distant field. As he gets closer, he discovers that it was only a dark piece of rope. This perceptual phenomenon is known as (a) telekinesis (b) delusion (c) hallucination (d) illusion 34 A neuron does not contain: (a) a cell body (b) septum
(c) myelin sheath
(d) dendrites
35. In which of the following would spontaneous recovery be most likely? (a) paranoid state (b) narcissistic personality disorder (c) stuttering (d) antisocial personality disorder 36 Slot machine are an example of which type of reinforcement schedule? (a) fixed-interval (b) variable-ratio (c) fixed-ratio (d) variable-interval 37. The greater the deindividuation of any group the (a) more irresponsibly its members behave (b) more responsibly its members behave (c) greater the chance for antisocial behaviour (d) both a and c 38. Correlation coefficient may range in value from _______ to ________ (a) 0 to 2 (b) -1 to +1 (c) 0 to + 1 (d) -1 to 0 39. When researcher stimulated an animal's limbic system, the net outcome effect was:
(a) pleasure (c) maternal behaviour
(b) aggression (d) hyperactivity
40. Choose the word that does not belong in the set (a) dendrites (b) bipolar cell (c) myelin sheath
(d) axon
41. Which one of the following is characteristic of the fetal period? (a) initial indications of sensitivity to stimulation (b) highest susceptibility to diseases (c) greatest susceptibility to the effects of thalidomide (d) initiation of heartbeat 42. Which of the following measures is most sensitive to outlying observations? (a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) variance 43. Which one of the following could be expected to enhance performance on a vigilance task? . (a) threat of punishment (b) rest periods (c) high pay (d) coworker interaction 44. A School psychologist wishes to test a second-grade student for possible mental retardation. The most appropriate test to use would probably be the. (a) MMPI (b) Stanford-Binet Intelligence test (c) WAIS (d) Thematic Apperception Test 45. A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between (a) self-esteem and depression (b) financial, poverty and physical health (c) intelligence and academic success (d) school grads and school absences 46. A person expressing functional blindness could be experiencing a/an (a) dissociative disorder (b) somatoform disorder (c) anxiety disorder (d) cyclothymic disorder 47 According to Freud, the Oedipal conflict is normally resolved during which of the following stages? (a) oral (b) genital (c) phallic (d) anal 48 Comparison of students GRE scores with their later graduate school grade point averages (CPAs) would probably be used to analyze the GRE's: (a) content validity (b) concurrent validity (c) predictive validity (d) test-retest reliability 49. Which of the following leads to a decrease in the likelihood of a behaviour occurring in the future? (a) shaping (b) omission training
(c) negative reinforcement
(d) continuous reinforcement
50. Perceptually, to "wait till Eid-ul-Fitar" would be the longest wait for the (a) elementary school child (b) teenager (c) preschool child (d) college age adult 51. Most basic among Freudian defense mechanisms is: (a) rationalization (b) reaction formation (c) identification (d) repression 52. Retrograde amnesia is a phenomenon in which a person suffering brain injury in an accident loses memory of: (a) early childhood experiences (b) events immediately after the injury (c) events immediately prior to the injury, with earlier memory being unimpaired (d) middle childhood events, then forgets early childhood events 53. Aversion therapy would be used for which of the following problems? (a) alcoholism (b) paranoia (c) anxiety (d) phobias 54. Erikson's trust vs mistrust stage occurs during (a) middle childhood (b) early adulthood (c) infancy (d) early childhood 55. The pituitary gland secretes which of the following hormones? (a) TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) (b) ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone) (c) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) (d) all of the above 56. According to DSM-IV, all mental disorders are characterized by either distress or _______ (a) depression (b) anxiety (c) hallucination (d) disability 57. The method of Loci is an example of: (a) the primacy effect (c) a mnemonic
(b) the recency effect (d) a heuristic
58. Which of the following makes the most prominent use of statistics in its scoring procedures? (a) Rorschach Test (b) TAT (c) Blacky Test (d) MMPI 59. In perceiving the distance a sound has traveled, a person depends heavily upon (a) loudness and intensity (b) resonance (c) brightness and hue (d) frequency
60. Having never seen a sparrow before, Iffah identifies the sparrow as a bird because it has wings, and birds have wings. This is an example of: (a) a schema (b) a script (c) an algorithm (d) metacognition 61. One of Darwin's key ideas is that, because of natural selection, animals have an inborn tendency to behave in ways that (a) require the lowest energy expenditure (b) they individually select from various natural alternative (c) they learn from their parents (d) help them to survive and reproduce 62. Rabia is suffering from depression. She most likely is taking which of the following: (a) Haldol (b) Zoloft (c) Resperdol (d) Thorazine 63. Which of the following plays an important role in the regulation of respiration? (a) pons (b) hypothalamus (c) thalamus (d) midbrain 64. All of the following are characteristics of the preoperational stage of development except: (a) egocentric thought (b) understanding of conservation (c) static thinking (d) problem solving behaviour 65. Jung cites human Infant response to mother-closeness and the adult concept of a power beyond himself as examples of (a) anima (b) animus (c) prototype (d) archetype 66. The main regions of brain are the (a) hind brain, forebrain, midbrain (b) cerebral cortex, forebrain, hind brain, and midbrain (c) forebrain, midbrain, and anterior region (d) central hemisphere, and left hemisphere 67. The Opponent-process theory of colour perception was proposed by (a) Hering (b) Helmholtz (c) Franklin (d) Premack 68. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, the morality of self-accepted principles is characterized by (a) a focus on good and bad behaviour (b) an understanding of individual rights, ideals, and principles (c) premoral behaviour (d) important peer and social relations 69. Defense mechanisms are created by the (a) id (b) ego (c) superego
(d) persona
70. Enhancing the action of dopamine receptors has what effect on schizophrenic symptoms? Blocking these receptors has what effect on schizophrenic symptoms?
(a) increases/increases (c) increases/decreases
(b) decreases/decreases (d) decreases/increases
71 According to _______, there is an inborn competence for language acquisition and a set acquisition pattern that will be followed regard-less of the culture in which one is born. (a) Skinner (b) Mowrer (c) Chomsky (d) Gardner 72 Physical sounds from our environment are translated into electrical messages in the (a) spiral geniculate (b) trapezoid body (c) cochlea (d) spiral ganglion 73. If a dog's owner wanted to teach the dog to catch a ball using shaping he might: (a) scold the dog each time it did not chase the ball (b) only give the dog a reinforcer when it successfully caught the ball . (c) initially reinforce the dog each time it picked up or sniffed the ball (d) pair the sight of the ball with an unconditioned stimulus 74. Experts generally agree that the primary emotions include (a) fear, anger, and joy (b) disgust, anger and shame (c) love, joy and sadness (d) none of these 75. The Gestalt experience of perceiving an array of equally spaced dots as rows and columns is attributed to (a) wholistic functions (b) continuity (c) proximity (d) additive vision 76. A personnel selection test that requires previous knowledge and mastery of a given body of materials, in effect is, (a) an aptitude test (b) an achievement test (c) an intelligence test (d) a test of creativity 77. Intelligence tests are not considered reliable (a) at any age (b) before 7 years of age (c) before puberty (d) before 20 years of age 78. Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy (RET) is an example of (a) psychoanalytic therapy (b) humanistic therapy (c) existential therapy (d) cognitive-behavioural therapy 79. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in (a) increased rate of respiration (b) increased blood sugar (c) a slowing of digestion (d) all of the above 80. A phenotypic and genotypic basis for personality was theorized by (a) Bandura (b) Darwin (c) Adler (d) Eysenck
81. When we think of an extrovert, we automatically think of a person who is outgoing, assertive and talks a great deal. We do so because of (a) conformity (b) attribution bias (c) prototypes (d) prejudice 82. Harry Harlow's experiments with wire and cloth surrogate mothers demonstrated the importance of: (a) insight learning (b) contact comfort (c) kin selection (d) instinctual drift 83. In studying the relationship between test frequency and content mastery, a researcher finds a correlation of +1.20. On the basis of this finding, he can conclude that there is (a) strong positive correlation (b) strong negative correlation (c) low positive correlation (d) a computational error 84. The APA was founded bf (a) John Watson (c) Stanley Hall
(b) William James (d) Wilhelm Wundt
85. Milgram's experiments on obedience demonstrated that: (a) most subjects refused to give extremely painful electric shocks to an innocent victim (b) most subjects did obey the command to give extremely painful electric shocks to an innocent victim (c) only subjects scoring high on a measure of authoritarian personality agreed to shock an innocent victim (d) the subject's moral values were more important than the tendency to obey an authority figure's command 86. Which of the following is central to the stress response? (a) DNA (b) GABA (c) ACTH
(d) NMR
87. In Jungian theory, the "shadow" represents (a) unconscious drives (b) the animus (c) theanima (d) the persona 88. The split-half procedure is a method of (a) sampling groups (b) measuring reliability (c) assessing validity (d) rejecting the null hypothesis 89. Aptitudes tests are to ______ as achievement tests are to ______ (a) current interests; past competence (b) past competence; current interests (c) current competence; future performance (d) future performance; current competence . 90. Which leadership style tends to produce the most satisfied members?
(a) autocratic
(b) authoritative
(c) authoritarian
(d) democratic
91. You are watching television and see a commercial where one of your favourite movie stars is discussing a nutritional cereal that you should buy. Because we like that star's movies, there is a tendency to believe that the star is also an expert on cereals. This tendency is referred to as the _______ effect. (a) star (b) halo (c) piezoelectric (d) none of these 92. The group that contains a term not mentioned within Murray's list of needs is (a) nurturance, autonomy (b) aggression, abasement (c) dominance, affiliation (d) passivity, destruction 93. According to Allport's theory of motivation, people are motivated (a) toward future goals (b) by past and current experience (c) by social reinforcement (d) by current experiences 94. Cannon and. Bard sharply criticized the James-Lange theory on emotion by showing that (a) there were not different physiological patterns for different emotions (b) there were different physiological patterns for different emotions (c) the hypothalamus was not the "set of emotion" (d) we experience the emotion after perceiving the physiological change 95. Bonuses, recognition awards, praise and time off improve motivation through the application of (a) performance appraisal (b) benefits (c) reinforcement (d) objective criteria 96. Despite working fewer hours than his coworkers, Saad receives a promotion and a raise. Instead of feeling happy, Saad feels guilty. This is best explained by: (a) social-exchange theory (b) gain-loss theory (c) equity theory (d) foot-in-the-door phenomenon 97. Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforce (a) food (b) money (c) paycheck (d) new clothes 98. The body's response to danger is triggered by the release of _______ by the _______ (a) acetylcholine; adrenal (c) acetylcholine; pituitary (b) epinephrine and nor-epinephrine; adrenal (d) epinephrine and nor-epinephrine; pituitary 99. According to Sheldon s somatotype theory, a person who is strong, muscular, active, and aggressive is probably (a) endomorphic (b) ectomorphic (c) mesomorphic (d) dimorphic glands
100. Interpretation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is usually (a) factor analysis (b) content analysis (c) quantitative analysis (d) qualitative analysis
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97.
b a d c b a c b d d a c b a c d d b c b c b d d a
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98.
d c d d a c c d b b a b c c d b a c d d b c d a b
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99.
d d a c d d b c a a b c d d a a a c c d d a b c c
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100.
c b a a a b d c b b b c c d a b b c b d c b d c b
PRACTICE TEST 2 Time: 80 Minutes 100
Questions:
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by "four" suggested answers or completions. Read the question/statement carefully and select the response that you feel is most appropriate. Then completely darken the oval/circle on your answer sheet that corresponds with your choice. 1. Which school of thought restricted psychology's subject matter to the observable actions of people and other animals? (a) structuralism (b) physiological psychology
(c) behaviourism
(d) ethnology
2. Which seventeenth-century philosopher believed that some ideas are innate? (a) Aristotle (b) Plato (c) Descartes (d) Locke 3. Wundt's search for elementary mental processes that combine to produce complex mental processes led to which of the following schools of thought? (a) functionalism (b) behaviourism (c) psychoanalysis (d) structuralism 4. The Palmer reflex, present in neonates, refers to which behaviour? (a) sucking (b) startle response (c) hand grasping (d) head turning 5. The four parts of the neurons are (a) axon, cell body, myelin sheath and dendrites (b) axon, dendrites, nucleus, and terminal buttons (c) axon, cell body .dendrites, and terminal buttons (d) axon, dendrites, myelin sheath and nodes of ranvier 6. The so-called "master gland" which helps control the activities of various ductless glands is the (a) adrenal medulla (b) thyroid (c) anterior pituitary (d) gonad 7. Which branch of psychology Is defined as an effort to understand the specific biological mechanisms that control behaviour and psychological experience? (a) ethnology (b) neuropsychology (c) physiological psychology (d) structuralism 8. Noor's thumb-sucking has become habitual because she begins to feel less anxious whenever she sucks her thumb. This best illustrates the process of (a) generalization (b) classical conditioning (c) operant conditioning (d) latent learning 9. Psychologists who specialize in the study of language are called (a) psycho-grammarists (b) psycholinguists (c) psycho-metricians (d) morphemologists 10. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the (a) synapse (b) threshold (c) action potential (d) refractory period 11. Which of the following individual were major figures in behaviourism? (a) John B. Watson and B. F. Skinner (b) Jean Piaget and John B. Watson (c) Noam Chomsky and Jean Piaget
(d) B. F. Skinner and Noam Chomsky 12. The process through which heredity caused development of bodily functions is called (a) accommodation (b) tracking (c) maturation (d) adaptation 13. The term "cognition" means (a) freewill (b) knowledge
(c) observation
(d) objectivity
14. In ______, the researcher systematically varies _________ (a) an experiment; the independent variable (b) an experiment; the dependent variable (c) a correlational study; the independent variable (d) a correlational study; the dependent variable 15. A three-year old obeys rules in order to gain rewards and avoid punishment. This child is at Kohlberg's stage of moral development. (a) social (b) preconventional (c) conventional (d) level six 16. Surgical destruction of brain tissue is called a/an (a) split brain (b) lesion (c) synapse
(d) MRI
17. A study in which the researcher does not manipulate any variable but measures two variables to find relationships between them is (a) a descriptive study (b) an experiment (c) a correlational study (d) a double-blind study 18. A double-blind study protects against (a) placebo effects (c) both a and b
(b) observer-expectancy effects (d) neither a nor b
19. An experiment is conducted in which different groups of people are given !Q tests under varying conditions of noise. One group takes the test with high noise, one with moderate noise, and one with low noise. The temperature and lighting conditions are the same for each group. In this experiment what is the independent variable? (a) the level of noise (b) the score on the IQ test (c) the temperature (d) the lighting 20. Moderate anxiety in a child (a) is detrimental to all learning (b) is a function of archetype (c) may facilitate learning of simple tasks (d) may facilitate learning of difficult tasks 21. Auditory stimulation is first processed in the-lobes
(a) occipital
(b) temporal
(c) frontal
(d) parietal
22. The elementary units of the nervous system that carry out the functions of the system are called (a) neurons (b) nerves (c) ganglia (d) glia 23. When you smile, a _____ nerve stimulates face muscles. When you prick your toe, the pain travels to the central nervous system by a--nerve (a) spinal; spinal (b) cranial; cranial (c) cranial; spinal (d) spinal; cranial 24. A businessman refuses to pay income taxes because his conscience will not allow him to support a government that spends billions of rupees on military weapons. That person's reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg's ________ stage. (a) postconventional (b) concrete operational (c) preconventional (d) egocentric 25. The fact that people will work harder for a while after a supervisor speaks to them is an example of (a) social loafing (b) Obedience (c) social facilitation (d) peer compliance 26. In humans, the brain structure that takes up the greatest percentage of total brain volume is the (a) brainstem (b) cerebral cortex (c) limbic system (d) frontal lobes 27. Diana Baumrind found that which parenting style produces the most well-adjusted children? (a) Authoritative (b) Authoritarian (c) Permissive (d) Attached 28. Chromosomal mapping studies have found that (a) schizophrenia does not appear to have genetic component (b) schizophrenia does appear to have a genetic component (c) adoption studies do not reveal anything about schizophrenia (d) none of these 29. The formula for the intelligence quotient Was devised by (a) Galton (b) Gall (c) Terman
(d) Stern
30. _______ is distinguished for major stages of cognitive development, the sensorimotor, the preoperational stage, the concrete operational stage and the formal operational stage. (a) Jean Piaget (b) John Bowlby (c) Sigmund Freud (d) Harry Harlow 31. A zygote with an XY chromosome will normally develop into, (a) a male (b) a female (c) identical twins (d) fraternal twins
32. Humans are most sensitive to the taste of-and least sensitive to ______ (a) sourness, saltiness (b) bitterness, sourness (c) bitterness, sweetness (d) sourness, sweetness 33 Compared to children from intact families, the children of divorced parents are more likely to experience (a) academic failures (b) stranger anxiety (c) egocentrism (d) crystallized intelligence 34 According to Freud, boys are most likely to experience the Oedipus complex during the _______ stage (a) anal (b) phallic (c) oral (d) latency 35. A rat in a Skinner box has learned that pressing a lever wilI produce food pellets, but only if the light above the lever is on. The animal consistently presses the lever when the light is on. When it is turned off, the rat immediately walks away from the lever until the light is turned on again. The rat's behaviour is an example of (a) generalization (b) a fear of the dark phobia (c) a discrimination (d) classical conditioning 36. At age 16, Anita's intelligence score was 110. What will her score probably be at age 32? (a) 105 (b) 110 (c) 115 (d) there is no basis 37. Myopia, or near sightedness is caused by (a) a cloudy cornea (b) an elongated eyeball (c) a malfunction of the lens of the eye (d) an eyeball that has become shortened 38. Which of the following disorders is the modern name for hysteria? (a) Paresis (b) Hypochondriasis (c) Conversion disorder (d) Factitious disorder 39. The body's natural tendency to maintain a state of internal balance or equilibrium is called (a) arousal (b) opponent process (c) homeostasis (d) instinct 40. Which of the following tests was empirically derived? (a) TAT (b) Rorschach Inkblot Test (c) MMPI-2 (d) HTP 41. The largest sense organ of the body is /are the (a) eyes (b) ears (c) tongue
(d) skin
42. This leadership type motivates through charisma and vision to set and attain goals beyond worker expectation.
(a) transformational (c) democratic
(b) transactional (d) authoritarian
43. In general children who score well on IQ tests have parents who: (a) pay for tutor and special school (b) have very high IQs (c) spend time with them and actively encourage their development (d) punish them if they fail to do well 44. A therapist who encourages clients to relate their dreams and searches its roots is (a) psychoanalysis (b) humanistic therapy (c) person-centered therapy (d) cognitive therapy 45. Which of the following explains why cartoons are not perceived as a series of still frames? (a) Autokinetic effect (b) Motion parallax (c) The Phi phenomenon (d) The Muller-Lyer illusion 46. Gestalists refer to the fact that we perceive smooth flowing forms more readily than discrete forms as (a) similarity (b) symmetry (c) holistic perception (d) continuity 47. The detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects, it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs: (a) cognition (b) sensation (c) perception (d) adaptation 48. Classical conditioning is a process whereby (a) certain responses result from certain stimulate presentations (b) the CS is always presented before the UCS (c) action that are rewarded tend to be strengthened (d) learning occurs when a stimulus is paired with a certain response 49. Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behaviour are called (a) needs (b) incentives (c) goals (d) drives 50. Cones are to vision as-are to audition. (a) eardrums (b) cochleas
(c) oval windows
(d) hair cells
51. Which of the following is not considered one of the sources of stress? (a) aggression (b) frustration (c) life events (d) conflict 52. A feeling of apprehension or tension is (a) frustration (b) panic (c) anxiety (d) none of these
53. Although Zehra sees her chemistry professor several times each week, she had difficulty recognizing the professor when she walked pass her in the Anarkali Bazar. This best illustrates the effect of ______ on perception. (a) convergence (b) context (c) proximity (d) closure 54. The absolute threshold is (a) the weakest stimulus of a given type that a subject detects on (b) the weakest stimulus of a given type that a subject-detects in trials every trial some percentage of (c) the strongest stimulus of a given type that a person can be exposed to without neural damage (d) the smallest difference that a subject detects between similar stimuli on every trial 55. Thorndike's "Law of effect" was an early form of the present day principle of: (a) extinction (b) contiguity (c) reinforcement (d) trial and error 56. "Blaming the victim" is a process most closely associated with (a) diffusion of personality (b) deindividuation (c) belief in a just world (d) scapegoating 57. Which one of the following has not been used as an industrial method at the supervisor management levels? (a) case method (b) role playing method (c) free association method (d) sensitivity training, method 58. A visual scene can be separated into two parts, the _______ which is the object that commands our attention, and the ________, which seems to exist continuously behind the object (a) figure; ground (b) good form; good continuation (c) ground; background (d) good form; circumscription 59. In classical conditioning, which element determines what the conditioned response will be? (a) the conditioned stimulus (b) the unconditioned stimulus (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b 60. Which of the following types of learning is measured by a matching item on a test? (a) saving (b) relearning (c) reconstruction (d) recognition 61. Two example of mood disorders are: (a) major depression and generalized anxiety disorder (b) obsessive compulsive disorder and manic depressive disorder (c) major depression and bipolar disorder (d) major depression and obsessive compulsive disorder
62. Aisha memorized her shopping list. When she got to the store she found, she had forgotten many of the items in the middle of the list. This is an example of (a) inappropriate coding (b) retrograde amnesia (c) proactive interference (d) the serial position effect 63. Tests designed to assess what a person has learned are called-tests (a) aptitude (b) standardized (c) achievement
(d) intelligence
64. Most human fears are (a) universal (b)learned (c) present at birth (d) biologically determined 65. Your dog suffers a head injury, and you notice that although he used to eat bits of food throughout the day, now he eats all his food at once and looks for more. Which area of his brain is most likely to have been damaged? (a) the hippocampus (b) the amygdala (c) the lateral hypothalamus (d) the ventromedial hypothalamus 66. Psychologists assess the correlation between scores obtained on two halves of a single test in order to measure the-of a test. (a) validity (b) reliability (c) standardization (d) factor analysis 67. Human factors psychology is most closely related to which of the following areas of psychology? (a) clinical (b) industrial (c) social (d) personality 68. Another name for operant conditioning is (a) social learning (b) latent conditioning (c) instrumental conditioning (d) instinctive conditioning 69. Behaviour therapies apply learning principles to: (a) identify and treat the underlying causes of dysfunction (b) improve learning and insight (c) eliminate the unwanted behaviour (d) improve communication and social sensitivity 70. The conscious repetition of information in order to maintain it in memory is called (a) automatic processing (b) rehearsal (c) priming (d) chunking 71. A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli is called __________ memory (a) iconic (b) implicit (c) echoic (d) flashbulb
72. A condition involving mental retardation caused by an extra chromosome in one's genetic makeup is known as (a) cretinism (b) autism (c) Down's syndrome (d) savant syndrome 73. The arousal theory, stating that emotion precedes overt behaviour and consists mainly of a general state of arousal or activation, is called the (a) Cannon Bard theory (b) James Lange theory (c) general adaptation theory (d) paired arousal theory 74. The part of the brain involved in the cognitive aspect of emotion is the (a) hypothalamus (b) amygdala (c) limbic system (d) cerebral cortex 75. Compulsive gamblers frequently recall losing less money than is actually the case. Their memory failure best illustrates (a) proactive interference . (b) the serial position effect (c) the next-in-line effect (d) motivated forgetting 76. The simplest, least sophisticated measure of variability is known as the (a) range (b) variance (c) correlation (d) mean 77. Which of the following was particularly interested in the effect of birth order on personality? (a) Rogers (b) Adler (c) Sullivan (d) Sheldon 78. Illness that seem to result from an interaction of physical and psychological factors are called: (a) depression (b) psychosomatic (c) conversion disorders (d) phobia 79. Suppose subjects are asked to listen to the following list of letters and then to repeat them in order: i, n, t, r, o, p, s, y, c, h. Subjects who perform the task most accurately and with least apparent effort probably have (a) chunked the letters into two recognizable word fragments (b) used the key word method of study (c) used maintenance rehearsal (d) taken advantage of the primacy effect . 80. In the Binet and Simon scoring system, an 8-year-old child who performed as well as an average 10-year-old would be assigned a mental age of (a) 1.25 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12.5 81. Shani, a college student, complains that he feels apprehensive and fearful most of the time but doesn't know why. Without warning, his heart begins to pound, his hands get icy, and he breaks out in a cold sweat. Shani's symptoms suggest a/an _________ disorder (a) somatoform (b) obsessive-compulsive
(c) generalized anxiety
(d) phobic
82. Suppose you meet a person at a party. Which theory assumes you calculate the costs and benefits of developing a relationship with the person? (a) attribution (b) altruism (c) two factor (d) social exchange 83. If you believe that intelligence is made up of a small set of separate mental abilities, which of the following are you most likely to use to identify these abilities? (a) significance testing (b) reliability testing (c) method of loci (d) factor analysis 84. A frequency, distribution that has two distinct concentrations of scores is (a) negatively skewed (b) positively skewed (c) bimedial (d) bimodal 85. The fundamental attribution error states that we credit success to _______ causes, and failures to _________ causes. (a) social, emotional (b) emotional, social (c) external, internal (d) internal, external 86. One way to increase the likelihood of compliance with a request is to induce a person to agree first to a much smaller request. This is known as the (a) sleeper effect (b) cognitive consistency technique (c) foot-in-the-door technique (d) Hawthorne effect 87. Because Ghazala is a good student, her teacher assumes she is also artistic, well behaved, and from a good family. The teacher's assumptions are explained by (a) the halo effect (b) oversimplification (c) good continuation (d) self-fulfilling prophecy 88. Major depression is most likely to be characterized by (a) delusions of persecution (b) a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness (c) a persistent irrational fear of other people (d) feelings of personal worthlessness 89. GSR measures (a) general synaptic response (c) sweat-gland activity 90. In contrast with an emotion, a mood is (a) more intense and longer in duration (b) less intense and shorter in duration (c) more intense and shorter in duration (d) less intense and longer in duration
(b) specificity of auditory response (d) kinesthetic reflex
91 Which of the following concepts are most closely related? (a) id - gamma types (b) archetypes - superego (c) collective unconscious - archetypes (d) prototypes - collective unconscious 92. Which one of the following people had a son or daughter who became a famous psychologist? (a) B. F. Skinner (b) John Watson (c) Ivan Pavlov (d) Sigmund Freud 93. Which of the following tests allows unconscious motivation, particularly the need for achievement, to be expressed? (a) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) (b) Goodenough Draw-A-Person Test (c) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) (d) California Personality Inventory (CPI) 94. Dr. Farooqi is a clinical psychologist who often uses operant conditioning techniques to treat her clients. She also encourages them to modify their attributional patterns, and on occasion she interprets their transference behaviours. Dr. Farooqi's therapeutic approach would best be described as (a) person-centered (b) psychoanalytic (c) behavioural (d) eclectic 95. The part of personality that provides a buffer between the inside and the outside world is (a) super-ego (b)ego (c) ego-ideal (d) none of these 96. What is the value of median for the numbers: 34, 29, 26, 37, 31 & 34? (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 32.5 (d) 30.1 97. Which of the following tests is likely to have the highest reliability (a) the TAT (b) the MMPI (c) the Rorschach (d) none of these 98. Who is the best example of a Type B personality? (a) Irfan, a self-confident, time-conscious mail carrier (b) Khalid, a relax, easy-going dentist (c) Saeed, an irritable, impatient college professor (d) Rahim, a fun-loving, hard-driving cooperation president 99. Which therapeutic approach relies most heavily upon clients discovering their own ways of effectively dealing with their difficulties? (a) psychoanalysis (b) rational-emotive therapy (c) systematic desensitization (d) person-centered therapy 100. In contrast to bulimia, anorexia is characterized by:
(a) binge-eating (b) a fear of gaining weight (c) repeated purging (d) a refusal to maintain a minimal normal body weight
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. 57, 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97.
c a b b c b c d a b d c b b c c d c a b c d c c b
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98.
c c c a c a b a b c a d d b a c b b d b d c d d b
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99.
d c a b a c a a c c c c a c b c b a d a d a c b d
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100.
c c c b c a d c b c a d c c c d c c a c d d d c d
PRACTICE TEST 3 Time: 80 Minutes 100
Questions:
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by "four" suggested answers or completions. Read the question/statement carefully and select the response that you feel is most appropriate. Then completely darken the oval/circle on your answer sheet that corresponds with your choice. 1. After detailed study of a gunshot wound victim a psychologist concludes that the brain region destroyed is likely to be important for memory functions. Which research did the psychologists use to deduce this? (a) case study (b) survey (c) correlational (d) experimental 2. The term phenotype refers to (a) the observable properties of the body and behavioural traits (b) a photographic representation of chromosomes in a single cell (c) the observable properties of the body and the behavioural traits that are caused by the environment and not by genes (d) the observable properties of the body and the behavioural traits that are caused by genes and not by the environment 3. Newborn is referred to as a (a) fetus (b) embryo
(c) neonate
(d) baby
4. What would Gestalt psychologist say is reversing in a reversible figure, such as the vase-faces figure in your textbook? (a) figure-ground relations (b) perception of similarity (c) good continuation (d) border and texture 5. Communication between neurons or between a neuron and a muscle cell takes place across (a) synapses (b) interneurons (c) nodes (d) axons 6. The tendency to organize stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns is called (a) closure (b) continuity (c) similarity (d) proximity 7. Which parenting style usually produces children with the greatest confidence and self-esteem? (a) permissive (b) authoritarian (c) authoritative (d) rejecting-neglecting 8. The seventeenth-century philosopher who believed that the mind is blank at birth and that most knowledge comes through sensory experience is (a) Plato (b) Aristotle (c) Descartes (d) Locke 9. According to Erikson, isolation is to intimacy as role confusion is to (a) mistrust (b) guilt (c) inferiority (d) identity
10. At times, Fareeha contemplates suicide. Which of the following terms would best describe in Freudian terms what motivates those thoughts? (a) basic instincts (b) the preconscious (c) Eros (d)Thanatos 11. Which of the following is the brain structure that regulates the body's internal environment, in part through influences on the autonomic nervous system and hormones (a) hippocampus (b) amygdala (c) medulla (d) hypothalamus 12. The process by which sensory information is converted into neural energy is (a) sensory adaptation (b) feature detection (c) signal detection (d) transduction 13. The procedure designed to ensure that the experimental and control groups do not differ in any way that might affect the experiment's results is called (a) variable controlling (b) random assignment (c) representative sampling (d) stratification 14. Which perspective emphasizes the learning of observable responses? (a) behavioural (b) social-cultural (c) neuroscience (d) cognitive 15. A person identify a word faster if it is part of a meaningful sentence than if it is part of a meaningless string of words. This observation constitutes evidence for the (a) eye-movement readiness theory (b) attenuation theory of/attention (c) power of top-down processing (d) power of bottom-up processing 16. In one of Pavlov's experiments, a dog learned to salivate at the sound of a bell. In this case, the bell was ________ and the salivation it elicited was _________ (a) an unconditioned stimulus; a conditioned response (b) a conditioned stimulus; a conditioned response (c) a conditioned stimulus; an unconditioned response (d) a conditioned reflex; a conditioned response 17. Pinna is part of the: (a) outer ear (b) oval window
(c) cochlea
(d) ossicles
18. Movement illusions such as the moon-cloud 'illusion, in which the moon appears to race from cloud to cloud, illustrate the role in visual perception played by (a) binocular disparity (b) a frame of reference (c) a linear perspective (d) bottom-up processing 19. Arif, a junior in high school, regularly attends Mosque because his family and friends think he should. Which stage of moral reasoning in Arif in?
(a) preconventional (c) postconventional
(b) conventional (d) too little information to tell
20. The phenomenon of spontaneous recovery provides evidence that (a) extinction returns the learner to the unconditioned state (b) extinction inhibits but does not destroy the conditioned reflex (c) extinction will not occur in a thoroughly conditioned subject (d) both a and b 21. A hormone that increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels in times of emergency is (a) epinephrine (b) acetylcholine (c) testosterone (d) insulin 22. Echoic memories fade after approximately (a) 1 hour (b) 1 minute (c) 30 seconds
(d) 1 second
23. The size of the pupil is controlled by the (a) lens (b) retina (c) cornea
(d) iris
24. Which of the following is not a behaviourist? (a) Skinner (b) Maslow (c) Watson (d) Dollard 25. A _________ is a tentative explanation of a phenomenon that can be tested and then supported or rejected (a) law (b) theory (c) scientific principle (d) hypothesis 26. Which of the following is not a projective technique? (a) word association (b) MMPI (c) Rorschach (d) Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank 27. Sammy's parents refuse to believe that he has cancer and continue to tell their friends that he has had surgery to remove a "cyst". They are practicing the defense mechanism of (a) denial (b) displacement (c) fantasy (d) rationalization 28. The portion of a DNA molecule that contain the code for the manufacture of one specific type of protein molecule is called (a) a gene (b) a chromosome (c) an autosome (d) an RNA molecule 29 The humanistic approach to psychology was founded by (a) Wundt and James (b) Rogers and Maslow (c) Watson and Skinner (d) Freud and Jung
30. The system primarily related to behaviour in the areas of motivation and emotion is the (a) endocrine system (b) central nervous system (c) somatic nervous system (d) peripheral nervous system 31. A psychologist who assesses the effects of noise levels in a factory and the incidence of accidents is probably a /an ________ psychologist. (a) psychoanalytic (b) social (c) industrial (d) commercial 32. Psychology is concerned with the study of (a) overt behaviour only (b) how groups exchange resources (c) mind and behaviour (d) how aggregate behaviour is specified 33. Abraham Maslow is a chief proponent of the _________ school of human behaviour (a) behaviourist (b) structuralist (c) humanist (d) functionalist 34. Who wrote the classical book entitled The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals? (a) James (b) Darwin (c) Lorenz (d) McDougall 35. B. F. Skinner's laboratory procedures were most clearly modeled on (a) Pavlov's salivation measurement technique (b) Thorndike's puzzle boxes (c) Watson's procedures to condition a fearful response (d) Tolman's maze-learning experiments 36. A double-blind experimental design is used to minimize (a) cohort effects (b) experimenter bias (c) the halo effect (d) reactance 37. The brain area central to language production is (a) Broca’sarea (b) Sylvain fissure (c) Wernicke's area (d) fissure of Rolando 38. Which psychological specialists are most likely to be involved in applied research? (a) industrial/organizational psychologists (b) developmental psychologists (c) personality psychologists (d) biological psychologists 39. Which neurons carry impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the muscles and glands (a) sensory (b) inter (c) motor (d) dorsal 40. Behaviour therapists can help people to overcome such unwanted habits as smoking or overeating through (a) operant conditioning (b) observational learning (c) place learning (d) habituation
41. A patient walks with a jerky, uncoordinated motion. A good preliminary diagnosis would be damage to the: (a) thalamus (b) amygdala (c) reticular activating system (d) cerebellum 42. A peculiar, intoxication-type behaviour in which a person loses normal control of his emotions is characteristic of (a) fatigue (b) oxygen starvation (c) thirst (d) hunger 43. Which is the correct sequence in the transmission of a neural impulse? (a) axon, dendrite, cell body, synapse (b) dendrite, axon, cell body, synapse (c) synapse, axon, dendrite, cell body (d) dendrite, cell body, axon, synapse 44. Suppose your aunt routinely has difficulty falling asleep and as a result feels tired during the day. Your aunt is suffering from (a) insomnia (b) nonsomnia (c) cataplexy (d) dream deprivation 45. The receptors for hearing are located in (a) the outer ear (b)the middle ear (c) the inner ear (d) all parts of the ear 46. Psychodrama is a form of which of the following managerial training techniques? (a) incident (b) sensitivity (c) role playing (d) free association 47. Carl Rogers suggested that the ______ is a central feature of personality (a) collective unconscious (b) Oedipus complex (c) self-concept (d) persona 48. Learning that is not immediately demonstrated in the animal's behaviour is called (a) observational learning (b) imprinting (c) latent learning (d) delayed learning 49. Jamal takes the same test of mechanical reasoning on several different days and gets virtually identical scores. This suggests that the test has (a) high content validity (b) high reliability (c) high predictive (d) been standardized 50. According to the serial position effect, when recalling a list of words you should have the greatest difficulty with those (a) at the beginning of the list (b) at the end of the list (c) at the beginning and end of the list
(d) in the middle of the list 51. The term schema refers to (a) a proposition (b) a control process in long-term memory (c) the mental representation of a concept (d) the hierarchical organization of information 52. Gender identity refers to (a) one's biological sex (b) the Sense of being male or female (c) the set of expected behaviours for males and for females (d) how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is 53. The lobes of the brain located in the back of the head are the (a) temporal lobes (b) occipital lobes (c) parietal lobes (d) frontal lobes 54. In the normal human male, the sex chromosomes consist of_______, and in the normal human female they consist of ______ (a) an XY pair; an XX pair (b) an XX pair, an XY pair (c) a YY pair; and XX pair (d) an XX pair, a YY pair 55. In Pavlov's original experiment with dogs, the meat served as a/an (a) CS (b) CR (c) DCS (d) UCR 56. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize _________ factors in motivation (a) environmental (b) cognitive (c) psychological (d) biological 57. Which of the following reactions or responses to stress would be considered maladaptive? (a) relaxation (b) cognitive reappraisal (c) aggression (d) exercise 58. The effects of memory interference are greatest when the two sets of items are (a) similar in nature (b) learned in different contexts (c) dissimilar in nature (d) unusual 59. if you wanted to develop a test of musical aptitude in children of Northern Areas of Pakistan, which would be the appropriate standardization group? (a) children all over the world (b) children of Northern Areas of Pakistan (c) children of musical parents (d) children with known musical ability 60. If asked to guess the intelligence score of a stranger, your best guess would be (a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 125
(d) "I don't know, intelligence scores vary too widely." 61. If you let your thoughts flow freely, without concern for conventional logic, and record every image and idea that enters your awareness, you would be engaging in something similar to the technique Freud called (a) psychoanalysis (b) secondary process (c) projection (d) free association 62. To qualify as a good psychological test, an instrument should have (a) reliability (b) validity (c) adequate norms (d) all of the above 63. Natural selection is the process by which (a) a species becomes adapted to its environment (b) nature achieves its long-term goals (c) an individual adapts to its own environment (d) a breeder creates desirable strains of animals 64. In screening application whose employment would involve winding small electronic coils. Which of the following would be most useful? (a) intelligence tests (b) pursuit rotor (c) finger dexterity test (d) electrical knowledge tests 65. If developmental psychologists want to learn about an individual's development, they should use which of the following methods? (a) longitudinal (b) cross-sectional (c) either a orb (d) neither a nor b 66. In children, the presence of bizarre and repetitive activities, a fascination with unusual objects, and on obsession with maintaining the sameness of their environment are signs of (a) hyperactivity (b) obsessive-compulsive disorder (c) autism (d) mania 67. People's knowledge of their own past experiences is considered-information (a) procedural (b) episodic (c) semantic (d) conceptual 68. A child whose father has a beard and who uses the word daddy to refer to all men with beards is (a) overextending the word (b) babbling (c) exhibiting development dysphasia (d) exhibiting weak attachment to the father 69. Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on interpersonal attraction? (a) similarity of need (b) proximity (c) educational balance (d) similarity of background
70. A psychological test can measure (a) behaviour (b) aptitudes (c) attitude
(d) all of the above
71. In the opponent-process theory, the three pairs of processes are (a) red-green, blue-yellow, black-white (b) red-blue, green-yellow, black-white (c) red-yellow, blue-green, black-white (d) dependent upon the individual's past experience 72. Which of the following figures is known for developing field theory? (a) Festinger (b) Asch (c) Lewin (d) Triplett 73. The three basic components of prejudice are effective: (a) internal and external (b) real and imagined (c) descriptive and prescriptive (d) cognitive and behavioural 74. The historical movement associated with the statement "The whole is greater than the sum of its parts" is (a) parapsychology (b) behavioural psychology (c) functional psychology (d) Gestalt psychology 75. In order, the sequence of steps in the PRTR method is (a) preview, review, think actively, read (b) plan, read, take notes, review (c) preview, read, think actively, review (d) plan, review, take notes, read 76. In order to solve a particular problem, subjects must use a hammer and a nail as units of measurement. This experiment is most directly concerned with: (a) demand characteristics (b) crystallized intelligence (c) functional fixedness (d) semantic priming 77. The social distance scale is mainly a measure of: (a) ethnic attitude (b) cohesiveness of a group (c) upward social mobility (d) social class differences 78. By obtaining two scores for one subject with just one test, a researcher achieves (a) test-retest reliability (b) alternate reliability (c) split-half reliability (d) parallel reliability 79. If a person tries to solve a problem or becomes excited in a waking state, the EEG is most likely to show (a) spindles (b) alpha waves (c) beta waves (d) delta waves 80. The body's center for regulating temperature are both located in the
(a) cerebral cortex (c) limbic system
(b) hypothalamus (d) parasympathetic nervous system
81. The victim of a car accident has no physiological feeling in his body. He can, however, think and speak. The man notices that since the injury, his emotions have been practically nonexistent. This situation supports which theory of emotion? (a) James-Lange theory (b) Cannon-Bard theory (c) Sperry theory (d) Post-traumatic stress theory 82. Choose the word that does not belong in the set (a) ingestion of food (b) constriction of bronchi (c) decrease in heartbeat (d) pupil dilation 83. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system _______ respiration and _______ salivation (a) increases; increases (b) increases; decreases (c) decreases; decreases (d) decreases; increases 84. The Oedipus and Electra complexes have their roots in the (a) anal stage (b) oral stage (c) latency stage
(d) phallic stage
85. The theory which suggests that people learn attitudes by observing their own behaviour is (a) operant conditioning (b) C R (c) self-perception (d) vicarious learning 86. Which of the following is a natural pain killer? (a) dopamine (b) serotonin (c) endorphins
(d) Prozac
87. The Big Five were identified by means of (a) factor analysis (b) projective tests (c) free association (d) clinical intuition 88. The humanistic perspective emphasizes the importance of (a) free association (b) self-determination (c) reciprocal determinism (d) personality inventories 89. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following gives the correct relative sequence from left to right of central tendency measures? (a) mean, median, mode (b) mode, median, mean (c) mean, median, and mode are all at the same point (d) median, mode, mean 90. The fact that we expect good looking people to also be competent, good humored, and intelligent is an example of (a) the Barnum effect (b) a social advantage
(c) the halo effect
(d) conformity
91. Freud posited and instinctive force that powers the sex drive but can be redirected into behaviours that are not overtly sexual. His name for this force was (a) ego (b) anxiety (c) libido (d) id 92. Elevators seem to "close in" and small rooms create feelings of fear that seem unbearable in (a) anxiety reaction (b) acrophobia (c) ochlophobia (d) claustrophobia 93. Axis II of the DSM-IV TR is used for: (a) clinical disorders and other conditions (b) personality disorders and mental retardation (c) general medical conditions (d) global assessment of functioning 94. According to William Sheldon's system of somatotypes, which of the following body types would correspond to an inhibited, intellectual personality? (a) somatomorph (b) mesomorph (c) endomorph (d) ectomorph 95. Lithium salts have been found to be an effective treatment for: (a) Down's syndrome (b) schizophrenia (c) bipolar disorder (d) identity disorder 96. In a psychoanalytic case study, Tayyab criticizes his brother Sami's tendency to steal things when in fact Tayyab, not Sami, has been caught shoplifting on several occasions. According to psychoanalytic theory, Tayyab is most likely displaying which of the following defense mechanisms? (a) repression (b) compensation (c) rationalization (d) projection 97. If 70% of the variance found in the scores in a population are attributable to genetic factors, then the heritability index would be (a) 0.30 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.07 (d) 0.70 98. Which form of schizophrenia contains delusions of grandeur of persecution? (a) residual (b) disorganized (c) catatonic (d) paranoid 99. The person smokes a cigarette and, because of earlier drug administration, becomes nauseous in a technique known as (a) chaining (b) extinction (c) aversive conditioning (d) reciprocal inhibition 100. Ghazala have six cousins aged 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, and 16. The mean age of her cousin is (a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
ANSWERS 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45, 49. 53. 57. 61. 65. 69. 73. 77. 81. 85. 89. 93. 97.
a a d b a a d b c a d c b b c d a b d. a a c b b d
2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 66. 70. 74. 78. 82. 86. 90. 94. 98.
a b d a b d b a b a b c d a a d c d d c d c c d d
3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. 59. 63. 67. 71. 75. 79. 83. 87. 91. 95. 99.
c c d c b d a c b c d c c c b a b a c c b a c c c
4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. 60. 64. 68. 72. 76. 80. 84. 88. 92. 96. 100.
a d d b b b a c b a a c b d b c a c c b d b d d d
PRACTICE TEST 4 Time: 80 Minutes 100
Questions:
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by "four" suggested answers or completions. Read the question/statement carefully and select the response that you feel is most appropriate. Then completely darken the oval/circle on your answer sheet that corresponds with your choice. 1. "Give me a child till that child is five years old, and I will make of him anything you want doctor, lawyer, thief," a likely quote from ________ (a) Thorndike (b) Watson (c) Hull (d) Pavlov 2. An experimenter who has been carefully trained in the techniques of self-observation uses himself as his subject. He attempts to analyze his own immediate experience into its elements. This study would most likely occur in the laboratory of: (a) John Watson (b) Max Wertheimer (c) Hermann von Helmholtz (d) Edward Titchener 3. The German word "Gestalt" means (a) random combination (c) conscious perception
(b) whole form (d) unconscious illusion
4. Each of the following is a neurotransmitter except (a) serotonin (b) endorphins (c) dopamine
(d) insulin
5. In an experiment, the subject's response is best known as the . (a) dependent variable (b) independent variable (c) experimental variable (d) dependent response 6. If the differential threshold for a standard stimulus of 20 gram is 2 grams, then, according to Weber's law, the differential threshold for a standard stimulus of 50 grams is: (a) 2 grams (b) 3 grams (c) 5 grams (d) 10 grams 7. Axon and dendrites are part of a (a) myelin sheath (b) cell body
(c) neuron
8. Abraham Maslow is well known as (a) a forerunner of the humanistic movement in psychology (b) the creator of cognitive-behavioral therapy (c) the creator of client-centered therapy (d) a forerunner of object-relations theory
(d) node
9. A researcher who administers a personality test to the same children every 3 years as they progress through school is conducting a-study. (a) longitudinal (b) sequential (c) cross-sectional (d) chronological 10. The case study is a research method in which (a) a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviours (b) an individual is studied in great detail (c) organisms are carefully observed in their natural environment (d) an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behaviour 11. Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which light passes after entering the eye? (a) lens, pupil, cornea, retina (b) pupil, cornea, lens, retina (c) pupil, lens, cornea, retina (d) cornea, pupil, lens, retina 12. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes. A person born with an extra 21st chromosome (47 in all) would have (a) Turner's syndrome (b) Kleinfelter's syndrome (c) Down's syndrome (d) Pickwickian syndrome 13. The peripheral nervous system is made up of (a) axons and dendrites (b) the brain and the spinal cord (c) the autonomic and somatic nervous systems (d) the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems 14. Which of the following schools of thought considered psychology as a search for the mind's elementary parts and the laws by which they are combined? (a) Structuralism (b) Functionalism (c) both Structuralism and Gestalt psychology (d) both Functionalism and Structuralism 15. In developmental terminology, PKU refers to (a) the effect of thalidomide (b) Down's syndrome (c) sickle cell (d) a hereditary enzyme deficiency 16. Wilhelm Wundt is credited as the founder of scientific psychology because (a) he invented the term (b) he was the first to conduct psychological research (c) he published the first textbook that defined psychology as a science and opened the first university-based psychology laboratory (d) he was the first theorist to consider the role of psychology in psychological processes 17. Competitive, aggressive, hostile, impatient _____ finds waiting in lines the absolute pits.This person would be considered
(a) type B personality (c) type A personality
(b) cyclothymic (d) avoidant personality
18. The stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the ______ gland in response to stimulation by the ____ branch of the nervous system. (a) pituitary; sympathetic (b) pituitary; parasympathetic (c) adrenaline; sympathetic (d) adrenaline; parasympathetic 19. Example of ductless glands are: (a) gonads, salivary glands, adrenals (b) salivary glands, gonads, tear glands (c) adrenals, gonads, thyroid (d) thyroid, pituitary, tear gland 20. According to Mendelian genetics, which of the following statements is true? (a) if both parents have brown eyes, their offspring must have brown eyes. (b) if one parent has blue eyes and one has brown eyes, their offspring must have brown eyes. (c) if both parents have brown eyes, their offspring could have blue eyes. (d) if both parents have blue eyes, their offspring could have brown eyes. 21. The union of an egg and a sperm produces (a) a phenotype (b) a zygote
(c) an allele
(d) a clone
22. Which of the following sequences would be best to follow if you wanted to minimize interference-induced forgetting in order to improve your recall on the psychology midterm? (a) study, eat, test (b) study; sleep, test (c) study, listen to music, test (d) study, exercise, test 23. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the nervous systems (a) autonomic (b) goal-seeking (c) parasympathetic (d) learned 24. All secondary sources of drive are (a) homeostatic (b) sympathetic
(c) self-propelling (d) peripheral
25. During an emergency, increasing levels of emotional arousal are likely, to be accompanied by (a) slowing of digestion (b) decreases in blood sugar levels (c) increases in salivation (d) decreases in respiration 26. One of the commonly demonstrated effects in strong support of the trichromatic theory has been the
(a) phi-phenomenon (c) black-white phenomenon
(b) autokinetic effect (d) negative afterimage
27. We see something frightening ________ would say we run and then we are scared _______ would say we are scared and then we run. (a) Solomon, Bernard (b) Selye, Lazarus (c) James, Cannon (d) Turner, Ortony 28. In which lobe is the part of the brain that receives the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back? (a) parietal (b) temporal (c) occipital (d) frontal 29. Electrical stimulation of which brain region can produce terror or rage in cats? (a) limbic system (b) hypothalamus (c) cortex (d) cerebellum 30. The most numerous neurons in the human nervous system are (a) motor neurons, because they control all the skeletal muscles, visceral muscles, and glands (b) interneurons, because they receive, coordinate, and channel all neural messages (c) sensory neurons, because they pick up messages from the external and internal environment (d) none of the above, because the jobs of all three types of neurons are equally complex 31. The capacity of short-term memory can be increased through (a) chunking (b) attention (c) rehearsal 32. Perceptual constancies are primarily a function of (a) reflex (b) convergence (c) learning
(d) selective encoding
(d) instinct
33. The big five personality factors are (a) emotional stability, openness, introversion, sociability, locus of control (b) neuroticism extraversion, openness, emotional stability, sensitivity (c) neuroticism, gregariousness, extraversion, impulsiveness, conscientiousness (d) emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, conscientiousness 34. A sense of being separated from your body and watching yourself with a sense of detachment is a symptom of. (a) bipolar disorder (b) hypochondriasis (c) generalized anxiety (d) dissociation 35. Piaget is to cognitive development as Kohlberg is to-development (a) emotional (b) physical (c) moral (d) social 36. Word order in a sentence is determined by which of the following types of rules? (a) Phonological (b) Morphological (c) Prosody (d) Syntax 37. Sara's frustrated desire for closeness with her mother was expressed in painting. This is an example of
(a) compensation
(b) sublimation
(c) rationalization (d) projection
38. The gland that regulates body growth is the (a) adrenal (b) thyroid (c) hypothalamus
(d) pituitary
39. Which type of memory is being tested when you take a multiple-choice test? (a) method of Loci (b) Recognition (c) savings method (d) free recall 40. "Stay calm!" this physiological system says. No "fight or flight" preparation here. (a) sympathetic (b) parasympathetic (c) medulla (d) limbic system 41. The sex of a baby, male or female, is determined by (a) the mother (b) the father (c) testosterone (d) hormone balance at conception 42. When the development of the same subject is studied over a period of time, the study is called a (a) cross sectional study (b) longitudinal study (c) life-history study (d) sequential study 43. According to Piaget, the major accomplishment of sensorimotor stage is (a) abstract thinking (b) egocentrism (c) contraction (d) object permanence 44. The two members of a gene pair are called (a) alleles (b) dominant genes (c) clones
(d) zygotes
45. Increase in motivation and arousal brings increase in emotion: (a) Bowlby (b) Harlow (c) Schachter-Singer (d) Yerkes-Dodson 46. Which of the following is not directly related to clinical assessment? (a) MMPI (b) Osgood Semantic Differential (c) Rorschach (d) TAT 47. For classical conditioning, it is essential that (a) the subject be informed of desired outcome in advance (b) the UCS be inherently rewarding (c) the UCS be originally neutral (d) the CS be originally neutral 48. The earliest studies of verbal learning and rote memory were conducted by: (a) Thorndike (b) Pavlov (c) Miller (d) Ebbinghaus 49. Not a monocular cue for depth is:
(a) relative size (c) convergence
(b) linear perspective (d) interposition
50. Watson and his followers emphasized the role of _________ in the determination of one's behaviours. (a) personality (b) environment (c) heredity (d) motivation 51. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely related to the mother's condition at the time of conception? (a) oxygen deprivation during prenatal development (b) fetal alcohol syndrome (c) Down's Syndrome (d) paternal smoking 52. The autokinetic effect is most common demonstrated with which of the following stimuli? (a) a spot of light in a darkened room (b) light flashing on and off in a patterned sequence (c) lights rotating around a single, central spot of light (d) a colour wheel containing a black-white colour disc 53. A woman who has previously shown evidence of a mental disorder develops clinical depression following the loss of her job. This event would be considered the _____ causes of her depression (a) predisposing (b) precipitating (c) maintaining (d) psychodynamic
Glossary Belief prejudice; Beliefs which involve stereotyping: over-generalization and classification based upon rigid and biased perceptions of an object, group, class or individual. Bell and pad; A behaviour therapy technique for eliminating nocturnal enuresis; if the child wets, an electric circuit is closed and a bell sounds, waking the child. Belonging; Thorndike's assumption that connections between items in learning are morereadily formed if they are related in some way a priori. Beta waves; Relatively low amplitude brain waves. Beta; (1) A statistic in signal detection theory related to the criterion adopted by the observer. Beta is a measure of response bias and is independent of the observer's actual ability to detect a signal's presence. (2) In weight, the weights of multiple correlation predictors which yield the best prediction in multiple regression equations. Between group variance; A measure of the dispersion among groups in an experiment. Between-subject design; An experimental design in which each subject is tested under only one level of each independent variable. Bias; In research, a factor that distorts data. In attitude, an internalized predisposition of affect because of the environment. Biconditional rule; In concept .learning, a rule that states that a given item is an instance of the concept if it possesses a given attribute, but only if it also possesses a second attribute. Bilateral ECT; Electroconvulsive therapy in which electrodes are placed on each side of the forehead and an electrical current is passed between them through both hemispheres of the brain. Bilingualism; The ability to speak and understand two languages. Bimodal distribution; Cases in which a frequency distribution includes two modes. Binary; A term referring to a system with only two possible states. Binary numbers usually have only two values 0 and 1. Binge-eating disorder; Categorized in DSM-IV-TR as a diagnosis in need of further study; includes recurrent episodes of unrestrained eating. Binocular disparity; The minor difference between the two retinal images when viewing a solid (3-dimensional) object. It is caused by the separation of the two eyes with a consequent difference in the visual angle. Binocular disparity is important in depth perception. Biofeedback; The use of a device to reveal physiological responses those are usually un-observable. Biofeedback experiments typically inform the subject about his heart rate, respiration rate, EEG activity, or similar responses in order to enable him to achieve some degree of control over the responses. Biofeedback is now often used in psychotherapy in teaching individuals to control their own physiological states (e.g., to reduce anxiety and its symptoms). Biological paradigm; A broad theoretical view that holds that mental disorders are caused by some aberrant somatic process or defect. Biological rhythms; Regular, repeating patterns of activity of various lengths or cycles. Bipolar cell; Neuron in the retina connecting rods or cones to ganglion cells. Bipolar disorder; A mood disorder in which there are recurrent and severe fluctuations of affective state between elation and depression. Formerly called "manic-depression". Bipolar I disorder; A term applied to the disorder of people who experience episodes of both mania and depression or of mania alone.
Birth order; The position that a child occupies in the family (for example, first, second, or third born). Birth trauma; The damaging effect on the psyche of the transition from uterine to extra uterine environment. In the Rankian literature, the birth trauma is treated as the fundamental anxiety experience out of which most subsequent neurotic conditions of the individual grow. The term is also used to refer to physical damage occurring at birth. Birth-order effects; Various consistencies in personality that seem to be tied to whether a person was the first-born child in his family, the second-born, etc. Bisexuality; Sexual desire or activity directed toward both men and women. Black box; A term used by psychologists when referring to the organism's processing information (the stimulus) before acting (the behaviour). The black box thus encompasses all cognitive processes including emotion, preference, and thoughts which are thought to mediate between stimulus and subsequent response. Blind spot; The area in the retina where the optic nerve exits to the brain; no vision is possible here because there are no receptors (rods and cones). Bloch's law; The inverse, linear relation between the duration of a visual target and threshold. Block design; Dividing experimental subjects into homogeneous categories on a predetermined variable so that the categories can be treated as one unit. Block sampling; (1) Sampling by geographic area. (2) The grouping of people or elements to be sampled into categories representative of the population. Blocking; A disturbance associated with thought disorders in which a train of speech is interrupted by silence before an idea is fully expressed. Body dysmorphic disorder; A somatoform disorder marked by preoccupation with an imagined or exaggerated defect in appearance, for example, facial wrinkles or excess facial or body hair. Body language; A term referring to nonverbal and often unconscious communication by means of gestures, postures, expressions, etc. Body-type theory; An attempt to predict personality by identifying the shape of the body and the characteristics that supposedly accompany that shape. Now thought to have little value as such systems are extreme oversimplifications at best. Borderline personality disorder; People with a borderline personality are impulsive and unpredictable, with an uncertain self-image, intense and unstable social relationships, and extreme swings of mood. Bottom-up processing; Recognition and processing of individual components of a stimulus. Brain bisection; A longitudinal division of the brain between the two hemispheres. The procedure may be used to alleviate epileptic seizures and to study brain functions. Brain lesions; Structural or functional alterations of the brain caused by injury; lesions can be produced by electrical coagulation of an area, by chemical means, by surgical removal of tissue, or by disease. Brain stem; The part of the brain connecting the spinal cord with the cerebrum. It contains the pons and medulla oblongata and functions as a neural relay station. Brain waves; Rhythmic and spontaneous electrical discharges by the brain. Brief reactive psychosis; A disorder in which a person has a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms—incoherence, loose associations, delusions, hallucinations—immediately after a
severely disturbing event; the symptoms last more than a few hours but no more than two weeks. See schizophreniform disorder. Brief therapy; Time-limited psychotherapy, usually ego-analytic in orientation and lasting no more than twenty-five sessions. Brightness constancy; Observation that objects maintains their brightness even though the amount of light reflected from them changes. Brightness; That aspect of colour perception that has reference to the black-white dimension correlated chiefly with wave amplitude. Briquet's syndrome; See somatization disorder. Broca's area; One of the areas of the cerebral cortex, located in the frontal lobe, which is important for the motor aspects of speech. Located in the inferior frontal gyrus in the left cerebral hemisphere of right-handed individuals and in the right hemisphere for left-handed people. Bulimia nervosa; A disorder characterized by episodic uncontrollable eating binges followed by purging either by vomiting or by taking laxatives. California F-Scale; The California Fascism Test, a test designed to measure authoritarianism, which isolates a personality type whose main characteristics are a rigid adherence to middle-class morality, deference to authority, and a dominating attitude. Cannabis sativa; See marijuana. Cannon-Bard theory; A theory of emotion that holds that bodily reaction and emotional experience occur simultaneously because they are both controlled from the same place in the mid-brain. It challenged the James-Lange theory of emotion (see James-Lange): Cannula; A small tube inserted into some area of the brain in order to chemically stimulate that area or to extract some substance from that area. Card stacking; A propaganda technique that involves the selective use of evidence in making an argument. Also designing an argument or experiment procedure such that it is almost certain, or at least "unfairly" likely, that any conclusion except the desired one will ensue. Cardiac arrhythmias; Disorders involving heart rate. Cardiograph; A device used for recording the rate and amplitude of the heartbeat. Cardiovascular; Pertaining to the heart and blood vessels. Case study (case history method); It is an intensive investigation of a particular instance, or case, of some behaviour which does not infer any cause and effect relationship but uses a combination of objective descriptive methods such as biographical data, psychological testing, and personal interviewing. Castration anxiety; In Freudian- theory, the fear experienced by a male child that he will be castrated by his father in reprisal for his sexual attraction to his mother. In the female child, the thought that she once possessed a penis but lost it by castration. CAT (computerized axial tomography) scan; A series of x-ray photographs taken from different angles and combined by computer into a composite three-dimensional representation of a slice through the body. Catatonia; Generally, any reaction in which there is a complete withdrawal characterized by an inhibition of movement, speech, and responsiveness to the environment. (See catatonic schizophrenia.) Catatonic immobility; A fixity of posture, sometimes grotesque, maintained for long periods, with accompanying muscular rigidity, trancelike state of consciousness, and waxy flexibility. Catatonic schizophrenia; A subtype of schizophrenia whose primary symptoms alternate between stuporous immobility and excited agitation.
Catecholamines; Monoahiine compounds, each having a catechol portion. Catecholamines known to be neurotransmitters of the central nervous system are norepinephrine and dopamine; another, epinephrine, is principally a hormone. Categorical classification; An approach to assessment in which the basic, decision is whether a person is or is not a member of a discrete grouping. Contrast with dimensional classification. Categorization; The act of placing stimulus input in categories. According to Bruner, recognizing an object means placing it into an appropriate category. Categorized list; Worus used in memory experiments that are related in some taxonomic, associationistic, or other meaningful way. Catharsis; Synonymous with abreaction. Cathartic method; A therapeutic procedure introduced by Breuer and developed further by Freud in the late nineteenth century whereby a patient recalls and relives an earlier emotional catastrophe and re-experiences the tension and unhappiness, the goal being to relieve emotional suffering. Cattell, James; Personality theorist interested in trait measurement; developed the "factorial theory of personality." Causation; The relation in which a given event produces the effect. Ceiling age; The year level at which a subject fails to pass any subtests of an intelligence test. Ceiling; The maximum score set by the items in a test. A test that had items practically all of which could be answered by the average fifth grader would have a ceiling at the fifth grade level. Cell body; The mass, composed of cytoplasm, surrounding the nucleus of a cell not including any projecting fibers, which is responsible for the life processes of the entire cell; especially the cytoplasm around the nucleus of a neuron exclusive of the axons and dendrites (also called soma). Centile rank; A method of ranking scores by computing the percentages of scores in a distribution that lies above and below a certain point in the distribution on a scale of -1 to 100: Central nervous system; The part of the nervous system that in vertebrates consists of the brain and spinal cord, to which all sensoryimpulses are transmitted and from which motor impulses pass out; it also supervises and coordinates the activities of the entire nervous system. Central tendency; A typical measure summarizing a set of scores that reveals a middle representative value such as the mean, median, and mode. Centralist position; The theory that behaviour is explained best by reference to processes in the brain, as opposed to the peripheral structures. Centrality of an attitude; The degree to which an attitude affects a person's thinking and behaviour; the relevancy of an attitude. Centration; The tendency to center attention on a single feature of an object or situation. Cephalocaudal; Refers to the sequence of body growth in which development occurs first at the head and then moves downward through the rest of the body, part by part. Also, pertaining to the dimension of the body between the head and tail. Cerebellum; The cerebellum or "little brain" lying at the rear of the medulla which is responsible for the control of coordination and posture. It receives fibers from the kinesthetic and vestibular pathways and also has interconnections with the cerebrum. Cerebral cortex; The outermost half-inch layer of the cerebral hemispheres, it contains motor, sensory, and intellectual processes. It is made up of gray tinted cells and thus is sometimes called gray matter. (Also known as the neo-cortex of the new brain.) Cerebral hemispheres; The largest parts of the brain in man and other higher mammals, they are the seat of the more complex functions like language, numerical ability, and abstract thought, in
addition to being responsible for sensation, some aspects of bodily movement, and many other functions. Cerebral hemorrhage; . Bleeding onto brain tissue from a ruptured blood vessel. Cerebral palsy; A type of paralysis caused by a lesion in the brain; frequently it is a congenital defect. Cerebral thrombosis; The formation of a blood clot in a cerebral artery that blocks circulation in that area of brain tissue and causes paralysis, loss of sensory functions, and possibly death. Cerebrotonia; In Sheldon's personality typology, one of the three primary temperamental states characterized by fast reactions, social inhibition, rigid bearing, sensitivity, hypersensitivity to pain, resistance to alcohol and the tendency to be a 'loner." It is associated with the ectomorphic body build. Cerebrovascular disease; An illness that disrupts blood supply to the brain, such as a stroke. Cerebrum; The two-lobed structure extending from the brain stem and constituting the anterior (frontal) part of the brain. The largest and most recently developed portion of the brain, it coordinates sensory arid motor activities and is the seat of higher cognitive processes. C-factor; A variable, in some factor analyses of intelligence tests, which includes cleverness and quickness in thinking. CFF (critical flicker frequency); The frequency at which a flickering stimulus, e.g., light, when going on and off rapidly, appears to be steadily on. Chaining; Type of instrumental conditioning whereby one learns to exhibit a series of behaviours in order to obtain reinforcement in which each response serves as a stimulus for the next response. Character disorder; The old term for personality disorder. Chemical senses; Those classifications of experiences, such as taste arid smell, whose stimuli are chemical and which react with receptors in such a manner as to produce nervous impulses. Chemotherapy; A medical therapy involving the use of drugs to try to treat abnormal behaviour or personality patterns. Chi (square); Chi refers to the Greek letter % which is employed in the chi square, a statistical test. The chi square determines whether a distribution is significantly different from the expected or theoretical distribution. Childhood disintegrative disorder; A lifelong developmental disorder characterized by significant loss of social, play, language, and motor skills after the second year of life. Abnormalities in social interaction and communication are similar to autism. Childhood; In humans, by convention, from two to eleven years of age. Chlorpromazine; One of the phenothiazine’s, the generic term for one of the most widely prescribed antipsychotic drugs, sold under the name Thorazine. Choleric; A temperament characterized by Hippocrates as prone to anger and outrage. Choreiform; Pertaining to the involuntary, spasmodic, jerking movements of the limbs and head found in Huntington's chorea and other brain disorders. Chromatic colour; A colour having hue (wavelength) and saturation. Chromosomes; The threadlike bodies within the nucleus of the cell, composed primarily of DNA and bearing the genetic information of the organism. Human cells contain 23 pairs of genes for a total of 46. Chronic; Of lengthy duration or recurring frequently, often with progressing seriousness. Chronological age (CA); Length of life distinguished from "mental age." Chronoscope; An instrument which measures speed of reaction.
Chunks; A meaningful grouping of stimuli that can be stored as a unit in short-term memory; often done automatically. CIE chromaticity diagram; A three-dimension model that reflects the main principles of additive colour mixture. Ciliary muscles; The circular mass of smooth muscles within the eye that is responsible for accommodation of the lens. Circadian rhythms; Cyclical patterns of change in physiological functions such as hunger, sleep, or body temperature occurring at approximately 24 hour intervals. Circular reaction; A type of behaviour pattern observed in early infancy that involves repetitive behaviours that are self-stimulating, e.g., thumb-sucking. Clairvoyance; A form of extrasensory perception in which one is aware of the past, present, or future without the use of sense organs. Class interval; The arbitrarily selected range of scores within a given division of a measurement scale or frequency distribution. Class; (1) A grouping of objects or people according to an a priori scheme. (2) In biology, a taxonomic category between Phylum (or Subphylum) and Order (or Subclass). (3) In statistics, a grouping of values into a single category. Classical analysis (or psychoanalysis); (1)Psychoanalytic theories and practices based on the earlier Freudian period with emphasis on unraveling the unconscious blockings of the libido. (2) Also used to refer to the hypotheses and techniques of Freud and his followers as opposed to all others. Classical conditioning; A basic form of learning, sometimes referred to as Pavlovian conditioning, in which a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with another stimulus (called the unconditioned stimulus, UCS) that naturally elicits a certain desired response (called the unconditioned response, UCR). After repeated trials the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) and evokes the same or a similar response, now called the conditioned response (CR). Classificatory variables; The characteristics that people bring with them to scientific investigations, such as sex, age, and mental status; studied by correlational research and mixed designs. Claustrophobia; A fear of closed spaces. Client-centered therapy; A humanistic-existential insight therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, which emphasizes the importance of the therapist's understanding the client's subjective experiences and assisting the client to gain more awareness of current motivations for behaviour the goal is not only to reduce anxieties but also to foster actualization of the client's potential. Clinical case history; Records or data from therapy situations; used to identify behaviours and to suggest problems that need to be studied. Clinical interview; General term for conversation between a clinician and a patient that is aimed at determining diagnosis, history, causes for problems, and possible treatment options. Clinical investigation; An experimental technique involving the use of a laboratory or dinic, usually in order to administer tests or provide experiences that require elaborate or non-portable equipment.
Clinical psychiatrist; A physician (FCPS, FRCP, MD degree) whose training emphasizes the treatment of mental disorders using both psychotherapeutic and medicinal treatments. Chlorpromazine; One of the phenothiazines, the generic term for one of the most widely prescribed antipsychotic drugs, sold under the name Thorazine. Choleric; A temperament characterized by Hippocrates as prone to anger and outrage. Choreiform; Pertaining to the involuntary, spasmodic, jerking movements of the limbs and head found in Huntington's chorea and other brain disorders. Chromatic colour; A colour having hue (wavelength) and saturation. Chromosomes; The threadlike bodies within the nucleus of the cell, composed primarily of DNA and bearing the genetic information of the organism. Human cells contain 23 pairs of genes for a total of 46. Chronic; Of lengthy duration or recurring frequently, often with progressing seriousness. Chronological age (CA); Length of life distinguished from "mental age." Chronoscope; An instrument which measures speed of reaction. Chunks; A meaningful grouping of stimuli that can be stored as a unit in short-term memory often done automatically. CIE chromaticity diagram; A three-dimension model that reflects the main principles of additive colour mixture. Ciliary muscles; The circular mass of smooth muscles within the eye that is. responsible for accommodation of the lens. Circadian rhythms; Cyclical patterns of change in physiological functions such as hunger, sleep, or body temperature occurring at approximately 24 hour intervals. Circular reaction; A type of behaviour pattern observed in early infancy that involves repetitive behaviours that are self-stimulating, e.g., thumb-sucking. Clairvoyance; A form of extrasensory perception in which one is aware of the past, present, or future without the use of sense organs. Class interval; The arbitrarily selected range of scores within a given division of a measurement scale or frequency distribution. Class; (1) A grouping of objects or people according to an a priori scheme. (2) In biology, a taxonomic category between Phylum (or Subphylum) and Order (or Subclass). (3) In statistics, a grouping of values into a single category. Classical analysis (or psychoanalysis); (l)Psychoanalytic theories and practices based on the earlier Freudian period with emphasis on unraveling the unconscious blockings of the libido. (2) Also used to refer to the hypotheses and techniques of Freud and his followers as opposed to all others. Classical conditioning; A basic form of learning, sometimes referred to as Pavlovian conditioning, in which a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with another stimulus (called the unconditioned stimulus, UCS) that naturally elicits a certain desired response (called the unconditioned response, UCR). After repeated trials the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) and evokes the same or a similar response, now called the conditioned response (CR). Classificatory variables; The characteristics that people bring with them to scientific investigations, such as sex, age, and mental status; studied by correlational research and mixed designs. Claustrophobia; A fear of closed spaces.
Client-centered therapy; A humanistic-existential insight therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, which emphasizes the importance of the therapist's understanding the client's subjective experiences and assisting the client to gain more awareness of current motivations for behaviour; the goal is not only to reduce anxieties but also to foster actualization of the client's potential. Clinical case history; Records or data from therapy situations; used to identify behaviours and to suggest problems that need to be studied. Clinical interview; General term for conversation between a clinician and a patient that is aimed at determining diagnosis, history, causes for problems, and possible treatment options. Clinical investigation; An experimental technique involving the use of a laboratory or clinic, usually in order to administer tests or provide experiences that require elaborate or non-portable equipment. Clinical psychiatrist; A physician (FCPS, FRCP, MD degree) whose training emphasizes the treatment of mental disorders using both psychotherapeutic and medicinal treatments. Clinical psychologist; A psychologist (either M.Sc. with area of specialization in clinical psychology, M. Phil. MS or Diploma in clinical psychology or Ph.D. degree) whose training emphasizes the assessment, treatment, research, and prevention of mental disorders. Clinical psychology; A branch of psychology concerned with assessment and treatment of mental illness and with practical research into its causes. Clinician; A health professional authorized to provide services to people suffering from one or more pathologies. Cloning; The process of reproducing identical individuals from selected cells of the body. Cloning ordinarily involves replacing the nucleus of one egg cell with a cell from the body of the individual who is being cloned (reproduced).* Closure (Gestalt Law); The tendency to perceive gaps as being filled in, usually completing a figure. Cloze technique; A procedure in which words are deleted from verbal passages, and subjects are required to identify the missing words. Cocaine; A - pain-reducing, stimulating, and addictive alkaloid obtained from coca leaves, which increases mental powers, produces euphoria, heightens sexual desire, and in large doses causes paranoia and hallucinations. Cochlea; The bony, coiled structure in the ear containing the receptor organ for hearing. The cochlea contains three tubes: the scala vestibular, scala media, and scala tympani. Cochlear microphonic; Electrical activity. recorded from the cochlea of the ear that, up to relatively high frequencies, closely matches the frequency and amplitude of the stimulus. Coding system (Bruner); A concept referring to a hierarchical arrangement of related categories. Coding; The transformation of data from one form into another so that it can be communicated over some channel. In information theory, the transformation of messages into signals. Coefficient of correlation; A numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables. Cognition; The process of knowing; the thinking, judging, reasoning, and planning activities of the human mind; behaviour is now often explained as depending on these processes. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT); Behaviour therapy which incorporates theory and research on cognitive processes such as thoughts, perceptions, judgments, self-statements, and tacit assumptions. A blend of both the cognitive and behavioural paradigms. Cognitive component; The part of an attitude revealing the beliefs a person has about a stimulus.
Cognitive consistency; Attitude formation and change that stresses the motive to attain consistency between one's various beliefs, emotions, and behaviours. Also, such a state of consistency or congruity. Cognitive development; Changes in sensory, perceptual, and intellectual performances- with age. Cognitive dissonance (Festinger); An uncomfortable psychological conflict between beliefs and behaviour. Also the motivational position that the individual will take to reduce the dissonance. Cognitive paradigm; General view that people can best be understood by studying how they perceive and structure their experiences. Cognitive psychology; An approach to psychological phenomena that focuses upon hypothetical cognitive structures (representations of experience) rather than upon responses. Cognitive restructuring; Any behaviour therapy procedure that attempts to alter the manner in which a client thinks about life so that he or she changes overt behaviour and emotions. Cognitive style; One's individual approach to perceiving and thinking about events or the world. Cognitive theory; Approach to personality that emphasizes the cognitive processes such as thinking and judging and is thus highly rational in its outlook. Such theories have been developed by George Kelly and Edward Tolman. Cognitive therapy (CT); A cognitive restructuring therapy associated with the psychiatrist Aaron T. Beck, concerned with changing negative schemata and certain cognitive biases or distortions that influence a person to construe life in a depressing or otherwise maladaptive way. Coherence; The quality of systematic and predictable connection; consistency. Cohesiveness; The overall attractiveness of a group for its members. The quality of "hanging together," as applied to social groups perceptual phenomena, traits, or items learned. Cohort effects; The consequences of having been born in a given year and having grown up during a particular time period with its own unique pressures, problems, challenges, and opportunities. To be distinguished from age effects. Colic; A syndrome characterized by a distention of the abdomen, apparently resulting in severe pain and causing a baby to cry violently and continuously; also, used loosely to describe the symptoms of infants who have regular or prolonged bouts of paroxysmal crying during their first few months. Collative variables; Employed by Berlyne to describe those properties of stimuli most likely to increase arousal in an organism. Such characteristics of stimulus objects as novelty, surprise, complexity, and ambiguity are collative variables. Collective unconscious; In Jungian psychoanalytic theory, one of the two parts of one's unconscious mind which is inherited and common to all members of the species. It houses the archetypes and contains racial memories and psychic material. Colour blindness; Inability to experience the colours of the spectrum in the same fashion as would a normal member of the same species. Colour constancy; The tendency to perceive an object as of the same hue under wide variations of illumination. Colour solid; A geometric 3-dimensionaI representation of the hue, brightness, and saturation of colour. Colour; The quality dimension of light. The hue of a visual stimulus, determined by the wavelength of the light. Common fate (factor of uniform density); A Gestalt principle that elements in perception which function, change, or move in the same direction will be apprehended together.
Communication disorders; Learning disabilities in a child who fails to develop to the degree expected by his or her intellectual level in a specific language skill area. Includes expressive language disorder, phonological disorder, and stuttering. Communication net; The channels of communication in a group; the number of channels compared to the number of potential channels is the conductivity of the communication net. Communication; (1) The transmission of messages. (2) The transfer of energy from one place to another in an organism or system (3) Any message or signal which does not always require language. (4) A psychotherapist's information as given by a patient. Community mental health; Approach to mental health that emphasizes the prevention of mental illness and the need for broader and more effective mental health services based within communities including community support systems. Community psychology; An approach to therapy that emphasizes prevention and the seeking out of potential difficulties rather than waiting for troubled individuals to initiate consultation. The location for professional activities tends to be in the person's natural surroundings rather than in the therapists office. See prevention. Comorbidity; The co-occurrence of two disorders, as when a person is both depressed and alcoholic. Comparative psychology; The branch of psychology which compares behavioural differences among the species on the phylogenetic scale to discover development trends. Comparison level for alternatives; The experience level below which the individual will attempt to seek alternate interactions. An individual engaged in a social interaction or relationship above his comparison level for alternatives will continue the interaction. Comparison level; In social exchange theory the standard by which one evaluates what he deserves which is usually based on the average of past experiences. Compensation; Emphasizing a behaviour or trait to account for or cover up some perceived deficiency in other areas. Also a defense mechanism in which one behavioural act is substituted for another behavioural act in an attempt to alleviate anxiety. Competence motivation; The motive to develop those skills necessary to effectively ma nipulate the environment. . Competence; (1) Appropriateness. (2) The view-that a person is responsible for his actions. Competition; Trying to get the best in a situation, a mutual striving between individual; or groups for the same objective. .. Complementarity; The tendency for people to be attracted to each other because they possess opposite qualities, and thus fulfill each other's needs. Complementary colours; Two hues that when mixed in proper proportion yields an achromatic additive mixture, i.e., gray. Complex concept; A concept that represents more than one stimulus property simultaneously. Compliance; Performance of an act at another's request, regardless of one's own attitudes. Compound schedules; Partial reinforcement schedules in which a response is reinforced according to the requirements of two or more schedules that operate at the same time. Compromise formation; In psychoanalysis, behaviour representing a fusion or accommodation between a repressed force or impulse and the repressive forces of the psyche, such that the behaviour may become manifest without censorship of the ego. Compulsion; (1) An irrational and unwanted repetition of an activity which arises when one can no longer control an anxiety or attempts to satisfy an obsession.
(2) The forcing of an individual to act against his own wishes. Computer program; A set of directions, or algorithm, telling a computer exactly what to do. Computer simulation; Programming a computer to "behave" in exactly the way specified by a theory. More generally, programming a computer to do something an organism or system does. Computer-assisted instruction (CAT); The use of a computer to store and select material to be presented in a learning program. Conative component; The part of an attitude revealed by the actions a person takes in response to a stimulus. Concentrative meditation; Meditation that involves "one-pointedness" of the mind limiting one's attention on a specific object for some period of time. Concept formation; The process of finding the common element in a set of events or objects. Abstracting a quality or property of an object or event and then generalizing that quality or property to appropriate objects or events. Concept; (1) A general idea or meaning. (2) An idea which combines several elements to form a notion, abstract properties, or relationships. Conception; The beginning of human life which occurs with the union of a sperm cell with an egg cell. Conceptualproblems; Problems that can be solved by recognizing or learning the concept the solution is based on, by the use of systematic strategies. Conceptual replication; An attempt to demonstrate an experimental phenomenon with an entirely new paradigm or set of experimental conditions. Typically new independent and dependent variables are selected which are thought to have the same underlying meaning (concept) in the experimental situation. Concordance rate; Probability that one of a pair of twins will show a given characteristic, given that the other twin has the characteristic. Concordance; In genetics, having the same trait(s) as a relative under study, usually an identical or fraternal twin. Concrete operational period; The third of Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development (from seven to eleven years of age), The child's thoughts become organized, with understanding of time, space, and logic, but he can apply them only to concrete situations, Concurrent schedules; Partial reinforcement schedules in which two or more responses are made to satisfy two or more schedules at the same time. Concurrent validity; A measure of how well a test measures what it was designed to measure by comparing the test results of the experimental group with test results of those people who are already in the field for which the test was designed. Concussion; A jarring injury to the brain produced by a blow to the head that usually involves a momentary loss of consciousness followed by transient disorientation and memory loss. Condensation; A dream process that disguises material by having one aspect of a dream, such as a person, actually represent or be a composite of several things in real life. Conditional rule; In concept formation, if an item has one specified property, then it must also have another property in order to be an instance of the concept. Conditioned emotional responses; Emotional reactions which result from being classically conditioned to stimuli in the environment.
Conditioned inhibition; The suppression of a conditioned response by pairing it with a neutral stimulus without any reinforcement so that the neutral stimulus becomes a signal for no reinforcement and the conditioned response is suppressed. Conditioned reflex therapy; The term applied to the system of psychotherapy developed by Andrew Salter in which clients learn to be assertive to overcome inhibitions. The six basic techniques used are feeling-talk, facial talk, contradiction and attack, using "I," express agreement and improvisation. Conditioned reflex; A learned response elicited by a conditioned stimulus, also called conditioned response. Conditioned reinforcer; Something that, through association with the primary rein-forcer, becomes a reinforcer itself. Conditioned response (CR); In classical conditioning, the response elicited by the conditioned stimulus. It usually resembles its corresponding unconditioned response. Conditioned stimulus (CS); An originally neutral stimulus that, through repeated pairings with an unconditioned stimulus becomes effective in eliciting the conditioned response. Conditioning, classical; (See Classical conditioning.) Conditioning, instrumental; (See Operant conditioning.) Conditioning; The process of evoking a specific response other than one that would have been produced naturally by presenting a particular stimulus. Conduct disorder; A disorder of childhood or adolescence involving a pattern of violating age-appropriate social norms or the basic rights of others through aggressions, theft, deceitfulness and violating rules. Conduct disorder; Patterns of extreme vandalism, lying, and early drug use; may be precursor of antisocial personality disorder. Conduction; (1) Pertaining to the transmission of sound waves. (2) The transmission of a nervous impulse from one area in the nervous system to another. Cones; The cone shaped photoreceptor cells located in the retina particularly the fovea, which are responsible for colour and high acuity vision. Confabulation; The act of filling in memory gaps with statements that make sense but that are untrue. The person believes his statements to be true. Confederates; In research, collaborators of the experimenter who pose as subjects. Their true identity is unknown to the other subjects. Confidence interval; A statistic which specifies at some known probability level, the range within which the populations mean must be given a known sample measure. Confidentiality; A principle observed by lawyers, doctors, pastors, psychologists, and psychiatrists that dictates that the goings-on in a professional and private relationship are not divulged to anyone else. Conflict frustration; Frustration of a motive because it is in conflict with some other motive. Conflict; A term referring specifically to behavioural indecision as a result of the positive or negative qualities of goal situations. Conflicts may be approach-approach involving equal temptation to strive for two incompatible goals; avoidance-avoidance, involving the struggle to avoid unpleasant consequences although doing so will incur other unpleasant consequences; or approach-avoidance, in which a single behaviour has both pleasant and unpleasant consequences. Confluence; (1) In perception, the fusing of perceptual elements.
(2) The flowing together of motives or responses. (3) As developed by Adler, the merging of several instincts into one. Conformity; The tendency to change or develop attitudes and behaviour in accordance with peer group pressure; to acquiesce to group norms. Confounding; Simultaneous variation of a second variable with an independent variable of interest so that any effect on the dependent variable cannot be attributed with certainty to the independent variable; inherent in correlational research. Confusion error; A classification error in which an instance of one category is thought to be an instance of another; it is often assumed that these errors are not random but depend on the degree to which the two categories have similar characteristics. Congenital; A characteristic acquired during development in the uterus and not through heredity; existing at or dating from the time of birth. Congruence (Rogers); Term meaning that what is experienced inside and what is expressed outwardly are consistent Conjoint therapy; Couples or family therapy where partners are seen together and children are seen with their parent and possibly with an extended family. Conjunctive concepts; A concept which is defined by several attributes, usually all of which must be present. Conjunctive rule; In concept formation, the rule that all examples of a concept must have one or more attributes in common. Connectionism; The doctrine that the activity of the central nervous system is to connect stimuli and responses Intelligence may also be viewed as a neural bond, dependent upon the number and availability of connections. Connector cells; Cells in the brain and spinal cord that transmit nerve impulses torn the afferent cells to the efferent cells. Connotation; That aspect of the meaning of a word which refers to its associations and emotional implications. Conscience; (1) The sense of right and wrong in conduct; that is, an individual's system of moral values. (2) As developed by Freud, the part of the superego that contains the moral values, attitudes, and rules which one acquires from parents. The conscience is internalized to govern behaviour. Consciousness; The sum total of a person's mental experiences; one's complete awareness. Consensual validation (Sullivan); The process whereby a person reaches a more realistic point of view by comparing his thoughts and feelings with those of his associates. The corrective experience for an individual's parataxic distortions. Conservation; (1) Piaget's term implying that certain quantitative attributes of objects remain unchanged unless something is added to or taken away from them. Such characteristics of objects as mass, number, area, volume, and so on, are capable of being conserved. For example, at a certain level of development one realizes that the amount of water is not changed by pouring it into glasses of different shapes. (2) Concerning memory or retention. Conservative focusing; A systematic approach to solving conceptual problems in which the subject uses' a positive instance of the concept as focus and then compares it with other single instances, each differing in one and only one dimension from his or her focus. By this method, irrelevant dimensions are eliminated (one at a time) until only the relevant dimension remains.
Consistency principle; The underlying view of cognitive dissonance and balance theories. The basic premise is that people strive to be consistent in their behaviour. In this connection, attitudes held by. a particular individual are mutually supportive and do not conflict with each other. Also, it is a tendency to segregate liked objects from disliked objects and to structure thoughts in simple black-and-white terms. Consolidation theory; The postulate that short-term memories are converted into long-term memories. Consists of two stages - reverberating circuits and structural changes. In order for any experience to be permanently stored, it must be strengthened because of retroactive inhibition and retrograde amnesia. Consonance; (1) Harmonious tone combinations. (2) In cognitive dissonance theory, when one idea or belief implies another in some psychological sense. Conspecific recognition; Recognizing members of one's own species; discrimination of members of one's own species from members of other species. Constancy hypothesis; As developed by the structuralists and behaviourists, the view that there is a one-to-one correspondence between stimulus and response, regardless of surrounding conditions. Constancy of internal environment; As developed by Cannon, the tendency for metabolic processes (such as, levels of heat, blood sugar, . and blood pressure) to remain constant. Constancy; The tendency to perceive the properties of objects as unchanging in spite of changes in the retinal image; accomplished by integration of information from several sensory mechanisms. Constant error; A continuous one-directional error, such as always underestimating. Constellation; (1) In psychoanalysis, a group of emotionally charged ideas. (2) Any complex. Constitutional factors of aggression; Relatively enduring dispositions and physiological traits, whose foundations are organic or hereditary, those are related to aggressive behaviour; distinguished from environmental and learning factors. . Constriction; (1) In perception, a decrease in the diameter of the pupil of the eye. (2) Being overly determined by external factors. (3) In testing, poor form responses (F responses) on the Rorschach Test. (4) Any contraction or shrinking. Construct validity; The extent to which scores or ratings on an assessment instrument relate to other variables or behaviours according to some theory or hypothesis. Construct; (1) A concept, trait, or dimension which represents relationships between variables in the formulation of theories. Empirical constructs are based on observed facts or data and represent measurable variables. Hypothetical constructs are verified indirectly. These constructs are inferred to have real existence. (2) A scientific model. Contact analog display; An integrated visual display that is arranged so that the information one receives is analogous to what one would get from direct visual contact.
Contact comfort; The satisfaction in many young organisms from having something warm and soft to cling to. Contact desensitization; A technique of behaviour therapy which involves physical contact during systematic desensitization. Content validity; The extent to which a particular instrument samples the behaviour it is supposed to measure or predict. Content; (1) As developed by Guilford, the raw material of intellectual activity such as thoughts and feelings. (2) As developed by Piaget, the term for un-interpreted, behavioural data relating to one's behaviour. (3) The material in a test, the material in consciousness, or the material expressed by a patient in an analytic session. Context; (1) Conditions which surround a mental process and thus alter its meaning. (2) The related verbal or perceptual material which clarifies the meaning of a word, phrase, or statement. Contextual learning; The derivation and assimilation of meaning for a new item from the surrounding context. Contextual stimuli; In adaptation level theory of motivation. The background simulation against which the individual makes his judgments. Contingency; (1) In instrumental conditioning, a situation in which reinforcement is not delivered unless certain responses are made. (2) An expression which indicates a meaningful relationship between two variables. Contingency; A close relationship, especially of a causal nature, between two events, one of which regularly follows the other. Continuation; The perceptual tendency to see objects in the form of some continuous pattern, e.g., a line or .curve. Continuity theory; The theory that learning occurs by incremental increases in the strength of S-R bonds. Continuity; A law of perceptual organization that states that incomplete contours tend to become closed. Continuous culture; A culture that does not clearly demarcate passage from one period of life to another. Contemporary Western societies are usually continuous. Continuous reinforcement; A schedule of reinforcement in which every correct response is followed by reinforcement. Contour; In perception, the boundary of a perceptual figure. Contrast; (1) The perceptual effect of a specific visual area, caused by the difference between the area and its surroundings. (2) The stressing of a difference between two sensations by the immediate successive juxtaposition of two stimuli. (3) The intensified perception of differences between any stimuli by bringing them into juxtaposition.
Control group; The group of subjects in an experiment which is statistically equivalent in all respects to the experimental group, except that it does not receive the treatment of the independent variable (the experimental treatment). Thus the control group can be used as a comparison to the experimental group to ascertain whether subjects were affected by the experimental procedure. Control variable; A potential independent variable that is held constant in an experiment. Control; An experimental condition identical to other conditions in the experiment, but lacking the independent variable, (the experimental treatment), thus allowing different results in the other conditions to be attributed solely to the independent variable. Convergence; A binocular cue for perceiving depth; the extent to which the eyes converge inward when looking at an object. Convergent hierarchy; According to mediational theory, a hierarchy of different external stimuli, all of which can elicit the same response. Seen as the basis for forming concepts. Convergent thinking; As termed by Guilford, thinking which results in a unique correct solution to a problem. Converging operations; A set of related lines of investigation that all support a common conclusion. Conversion disorder (earlier known as Hysteria); A kind of somatoform disorder in which patients manifest variable sensory, motor, vasomotor, visceral, and mental symptoms. These symptoms include paralyzed limbs, deafness, blindness, and other pathological conditions for which no anatomical or physiological causes could be found. Conversion reaction; A neurotic reaction which reduces anxiety by inactivation of part of the body; the psychological problem is converted into a physical one which prevents anxiety-provoking behaviour. The underlying psychological conflict is transformed into a sensory or motor symptom, such as blindness or paralysis. Converted score; A score expressed in some type of derived unit, such as an age equivalent, grade equivalent, percentile, or standard score. Convulsion; An involuntary seizure involving rapid spasmodic contraction of the voluntary muscles. Convulsive therapy; See electroconvulsive therapy. Cooperation; Working with or assisting someone else in an attempt to reach a mutual satisfying goal. Cornea; The transparent outer coating of the eye that allows light to pass through to the interior. Corneal-reflection technique; A technique for studying eye movement which involves photographing light reflected from the cornea. Corpus collosum; The structure consisting of a large group of nerve fibers that connect the left and right hemispheres of the cerebrum, allowing the hemispheres to communicate with each other. Correlation coefficient; A statistical index expressing the degree of relationship between two variables. The range of possible values is from +1.00 to -1.00. The numerical size of the correlation is an expression of the strength of the relationship. The sign of the correlation coefficient is an indication of the direction of the relationship. A positive correlation indicates that a change in one variable is associated with a change in the other variable in the same direction. A negative correlation indicates an inverse relationship between the two variables. A correlation of .00 represents no relationship between the variables. Correlation; A statistical term that describes the relationship between two variables in such a way that change in one is associated with change in the other positive-in the same direction, negative-in the opposite direction.
Correlational approach; Research method used it discover the degree of relationship between two or more variables by analyzing how well one variable helps predict the value of another. Testing, interviewing, surveying are often combined under the general heading of correlational approach. Correlational method; The research strategy used to establish whether two or more variables are related. Relationships may be positive—as values for one variable increase, those for the other do also—or negative—as values for one variable increase, those for the other decrease. Cortex; The outer layer of any organ. Cortical lobes; The four somewhat arbitrarily designated divisions of the cortex: frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal. Corticosteroid; A group of chemicals produced by the metabolism of cortisone and other chemical secretions of the adrenal cortex. These chemicals have been shown to increase during acquisition of a conditioned emotional response. Also known as adrenal steroids. Cortisone; A hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress, serving to reduce inflammation. Cotwin control method; The use of twins in an experiment. One twin serves in the control condition and the other twin serves in the experimental condition. Co-twin; In behaviour genetics research using the twin method, the member of the pair who is tested later to determine whether he or she has the same diagnosis or trait discovered earlier in the birth partner. Counseling psychologist; A doctoral level mental "health professional whose training -is similar to that of a clinical psychologist, though usually with less emphasis on research and serious psychopathology. Counseling psychology; The branch of psychology dealing with personality, marital and vocational problems. Counterbalancing; An experimental procedure used to eliminate the effect of irrelevant variables, confounding, by systematically varying the order of conditions in an experiment. For example, the effect of practice on variable X may be eliminated by presenting X at the beginning, middle, and end of a series. Counterconditioning; A behaviour therapy procedure that conditions new responses to stimuli that trigger unwanted behaviours; based on classical conditioning. Two such techniques are systematic desensitization and aversive conditioning. Countermovement; An attempt to resist social change. Countertransference; Feelings that the psychoanalyst unconsciously directs to the analyzed, stemming from his or her own emotional vulnerabilities and unresolved conflicts. Covert sensitization; A form of aversion therapy in which the person is told to imagine undesirably attractive situations and activities while unpleasant feelings are being induced by imagery. Cranial nerves; The twelve pairs of nerves which have their origin or termination within the ventral surface of the brain. Creativity; A process of thought resulting in new and original ideas that are useful solutions to problems. Crespi effect; A disproportionate increase or decrease in performance of a learned response as compared to the increase or decrease of the reinforcement. Cretinism; A physiologically caused form of mental retardation and other abnormalities resulting from a prenatal thyroid insufficiency.
Crisis intervention; A major feature of the primary prevention approach to mental health, whereby someone is always on call to help people handle a crisis in effective ways. Crisis; (1) A point in a person's life which has great psychological significance for the individual. (2) A turning point characterized by a marked improvement or a marked deterioration. Criterion of mastery in learning; The level of performance at which practice is terminated. Criterion validity evidence; The evidence that a test score corresponds to an accurate measure of interest. The measure of interest is called the criterion. Criterion; (1) An absolute standard of performance used to evaluate a subject's performance on a test. (2) An outside measure against which a test can be validated. Critical period; A stage of early development in which an organism is susceptible to certain influences and during which important irreversible patterns of behaviour are acquired. As developed by Binet, the period early in life during which imprinting is possible. Critical thinking; Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions. Cross-cultural studies; The observance of the effect of the same environmental conditions on behaviour in different cultures. Crossing-over; A process in which genes that were previously linked become unlinked or linked with a different set of genes due to the detachment of a chromosome part and possible reattachment to a new chromosome during cell division. Crossover interaction; When the effect of one independent variable on a dependent variable reverses at different levels of a second independent variable. Cross-sectional research; A research strategy that tests at a given period of time a sample of persons or variables that are representative on several dimensions of the population as a whole. Age and ability level are two frequently used variables. Cross-sectional studies; Studies in which different age groups are compared at the same time. Compare with longitudinal studies. Cross-validation; A technique for determining the validity of a procedure by testing it for a second time on another sample after its validity has been demonstrated on a first sample. Cross-validation is important when items or test weights have been chosen from a large number of possible alternatives, and when the original sample was small. Crowding; An unpleasant psychological and subjective, state involving people's reaction to the density of their environment. Crystallized intelligence; Intelligence used in the application of already -learned materials which is usually considered to be rigid or unchanging. Cue; In motivational theory, any distinctive property of a stimulus that can serve to determine the direction or nature of a response; an obscure secondary stimulus. Cue-dependent forgetting; Inability to remember learned information due to retrieval failure. Cues present during learning are not present during recall. Cultural relativity; The belief that the behaviour and the personality of an individual can only be understood and evaluated within the context of the culture in which he or she originated. Cultural-familial retardation; A mild backwardness in mental development with no indication of brain pathology but evidence of similar limitation in at least one of the parents or siblings. Culturally biased; An adjective expressing the relative dependence of a concept or a test on cultural influence.
Culture; The total set of values, expectations, attitudes, beliefs, and customs shared by the members of one group which characterize them as a group and distinguish them from other groups. Culture-fair tests; Tests that try to eliminate bias by using items that-should be equally well-known to all subjects taking the test, regardless of their cultural or sub-cultural background. Culture-free test; A test for which the solutions do not depend on any specific culture. All items which depend upon cultural factors have been eliminated. Cumulative frequency; A sum of all the cases falling below a specified score, achieved when each new case up to a specified criterion is added to the preceding total. The cumulative percent is the accumulated percent of cases falling below a specified score. Cumulative record; A continuous and complete tally or record of appropriate or satisfactory instrumental responses made in a given time period. Curiosity; The motivation to seek out and respond to novel stimuli, sometimes regarded as one of the primary drives. Curve of forgetting; The graph plotting the percentage of learned materials retained as a function of time since the absolute amount forgotten for each subsequent time interval decreases over time, which means most loss of retention occurs soon after acquisition. Cushing's syndrome; An endocrine disorder usually affecting young women, produced by over secretion of cortisone and marked by mood swings, irritability, agitation, and physical disfigurement-Cutaneous senses; The senses whose receptors are located in the skin. These are usually classified as cold, hot, pain, and pressure. Cybernetics; The science of communication and control theory that is especially concerned with the comparative study of automatic control systems. Cycle of motivation; A proposal explaining many motive situations as a sequence of need, instrumental response, goal, and relief; the cycle often repeats itself. Cyclical psychodynamics; The reciprocal relations between current behaviour and repressed conflicts, such that they mutually reinforce each other. Cyclothymic disorder; Chronic swings between elation and depression not severe enough to warrant the diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Cytoplasm; The protoplasmic material surrounding the nucleus of a cell, exclusive of the material in the nucleus. d reaction test; A reaction time test in which a subject must not make a response until he has identified which of two stimuli has been presented. For example, a subject is asked to push a lever when the green light appears and not when the red light appears. d'; A statistic in signal detection theory related to the sensitivity of the observer. Dark adaptation; A process of increasing sensitivity to light whereby the retina becomes over a million times more sensitive resulting from the reduction or complete absence of light energy reaching the eye, attributable to a resynthesize of a rod stimulating substance which is broken down under bright light. The DA curve has two segments, one for rod and one for cone Vision. Data; A collection of statistics, facts, or information obtained by observation, experimentation, or computation on a dependent variable. Day-residues; Apparently trivial but unconsciously important events of the day that play a part in dream content. Death instinct (thariatos); In psychoanalytic theory the instinct for destruction and death and when fused with pleasure, inward and outward directed drives for pain. Like the life instinct, Eros, it originates from the libido, which is the source of all energy in the individual.
Decay theory of STM; A view that holds that without rehearsal or re-presentation, the traces of an experience fade with time until the experience is forgotten completely. Decentration; Jean Piaget's term for the ability to shift the center of one's attention. Decerebrate; An animal whose cerebral cortex has been removed. Decibel (db); A logarithmic unit for measuring physical sound intensity. Decile; In a ranked distribution, a division containing one-tenth of the cases. The first decile is the score value below which one tenth of the cases fall. The fifth decile is the same as the median, or the 50th percentile. Deduction; The logical process of reasoning from the general to the particular. Deep structure; The meaning transmitted by words used in a language. Defense mechanism; As termed by Freud, the unconscious process by which an individual protects himself from anxiety. Defense mechanisms discussed by Freud include repression, rationalization, reaction formation, projection, isolation, introjection, regression, and thought dissociation. These mechanisms are often termed ego defenses. Deferred imitation; As espoused by Piaget, the ability of a child to imitate behaviours long after the child has seen them. This occurs in the pre-operational stage after representation has been attained. Degrees of freedom (df); The number of values free to vary if the total number of values and their sum are fixed. Deindividuation; Relative anonymity of individual characteristics and identifications in certain social situations such as mobs and Crowds. Deiter's cells; Elongated cells found in the outer portion of the organ of Corti which anchor the hair cells. Deja vu; An illusion of familiarity in a strange place or experience. For example, some features in a new city may be similar to those features which have already been experienced. From the French "already seen Delay of reinforcement; A period of time between the response and reinforcement in a contingency situation. Delayed conditioning; In classical conditioning a trial in which the onset of the conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus, with the conditioned stimulus staying oh at least until the unconditioned stimulus has occurred. Delayed instinct; An instinct which does not manifest itself immediately after birth. Delinquency; Antisocial acts committed by persons who are legal minors, usually in a repetitive fashion. Delirium; A state of great mental confusion in which consciousness is clouded, attention cannot be sustained, and the stream of thought and speech is incoherent. The person is probably disoriented, emotionally erratic, restless or lethargic, and often has delusions, delusions, and hallucinations. Delta rhythm; The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep. Delta waves; A wave of 1-3 Hz of high voltage found in the EEG which is characteristic of low arousal and deep sleep. Delusional (paranoid) disorder; A disorder in which the individual has persistent persecutory delusions or delusional jealousy and is very often contentious but has no thought disorder or hallucinations. Delusional jealousy; The unfounded conviction that one's mate is unfaithful; the individual may collect small bits of "evidence" to justify the delusion.
Delusions of grandeur; The false belief that one is a great or powerful person. Delusions; Beliefs contrary to reality, firmly held in spite of evidence to the contrary; common in paranoid disorders; of control, belief that one is being manipulated by some external force such as radar, television, or a creature from outer space; of grandeur, belief that one is an especially important or powerful person; of persecution, belief that one is being plotted against or oppressed by others. Demand characteristics; Those cues available to subjects in an experiment that may enable them to determine the purpose of the experiment, or what is expected by the experimenter. Dementia praecox; An older term for schizophrenia, chosen to describe what was believed to be an incurable and progressive deterioration of mental functioning beginning in adolescence. Dementia; Deterioration of mental faculties— memory, judgment, abstract thought, control of impulses, intellectual ability—that impairs social and occupational functioning and eventually changes the personality. . See Alzheimer's disease. Demographic variable; A varying characteristic that is a vital or social statistic of an individual, sample group, or population, for example, age, sex, socioeconomic status, racial origin, education. Demonology; The doctrine that a person's abnormal behaviour is caused by an autonomous evil spirit. Dendrite; A neural fiber that transmits electrical impulses toward the cell body of a neuron. Denial; A defense mechanism in which there is minimization of the importance of a situation or event or of unacceptable impulses or feelings. Denotation; That aspect of the meaning of a word which refers to what the word indicates. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA); An extremely complex molecule, assumed to be the basis of all life, composed of phosphates, bases, and sugars. Dependence; (1) A relationship of causality between two occurrences such that a change in one produces a change in the other. (2) A reliance on others for ideas, emotions, and opinions. Dependent influence; A change in a person's attitudes or behaviours that occurs because of the social characteristics of a model or group. Dependent personality disorder; Lacking in self-confidence, such people passively allow others to run their lives and make no demands on them so as not to endanger these protective relationships. Dependent variable; In a psychological experiment, the behaviour that is measured and is expected to change with manipulation of the independent variable. Depersonalization; An alteration in perception of the self in which the individual loses a sense of reality and feels estranged from the self and perhaps separated from the body. It may be a temporary reaction to stress and fatigue or part of panic disorder, depersonalization disorder, or schizophrenia. Depolarization; The process by which the electrical charge of a neuron reverses and becomes positive during the passage of an action potential. Depression; A disorder marked by great sadness and apprehension, feelings of worthlessness and guilt, withdrawal from others, loss of sleep, appetite, sexual desire, loss of interest and pleasure in usual activities, and either lethargy or agitation. Called major depression in DSM-IV-TR and unipolar depression by others. It can be an associated symptom of other disorders.
Depressive reactions; A state in which the person responds to life's disappointments with excessive emotionality and withdrawal, usually precipitated by an event such as the loss of a loved one. Deprivation; The loss or removal of something desired or loved. In developmental psychology, a significant reduction of stimulation or opportunity. Depth perception; The ability to perceive three dimensionality and the awareness of distance between an observer and an object. Depth-oriented therapy; Any form of psychotherapy which professes to treat the unconscious sources of an individual's problems. The Freudian and Jungian systems of psychoanalysis exemplify depth psychology. Derealization; Loss of the sense that the surroundings are real; present in several psychological disorders, such as panic disorder, depersonalization disorder, and schizophrenia. Derived lists; Learning materials arranged so that subsequent lists are systematically related to original lists by taking every other item in order, every third item, every fourth item, etc. Descartes, Rene; Seventeenth-century French philosopher and mathematician. He is important in the history of psychology for his views on the interaction of mind and body. Descriptive research; Research involving the collection and objective reporting of data about a particular characteristic of the subjects under study without any attempt at identifying causal relationships. Techniques include introspection, observation, surveys and clinical investigation. Descriptive responsibility; In legal proceedings, the judgment that the accused performed an illegal act. Contrast with ascriptive responsibility. Descriptive statistics; Measures or techniques that allow a summary portrayal of collected data including measurements of central tendency, variability, and correlation. Desensitization; A form of behaviour therapy in which the individual is reconditioned so that previously aversive stimuli no longer elicit anxiety responses. Desurgency; As developed by R. B. Cattell, a factor analysis personality trait which is characterized by anxiety, agitation and isolation. Detachment; (1) According to Homey, a neurotic characteristic involving a lack of feeling for others and a tendency to view one's problems in an objective fashion without any emotional attachment. (2) The development of independent behaviour which often occurs when an adult of high attachment status is close by. Detection theory; A theory which accurately assesses the subject's sensory capacities. It is a psychophysical method of studying the process of motivation, stimulus probability, and extraneous stimuli on the decision regarding the presence or absence of a given stimulus or a change in stimulus value. It employs such factors as hits, misses, correct rejections, and false alarms. Also known as: signal detectability theory, theory of signal detection and decision theory. Deterioration effect; In abnormal psychology, a harmful outcome from being in psychotherapy. Deterioration index; As measured by the Wechsler-Bellevue tests, an approximation of the amount of loss of mental abilities due to age. The mental abilities tested are digit span, digit symbol, block design, and similarities. Determinism; In general, the philosophical doctrine that for every effect there is a cause. As applied to psychology, the view that all behaviour is related to an antecedent event, and all of man's motivation is subject to forces over which he has no volitional control. Detour problem; A problem solving situation in which one has to learn to take a roundabout route to a goal instead of trying to approach it directly.
Detoxification; The initial stage in weaning an addicted person from a drug; involves medical supervision of the sometimes painful withdrawal. Deuteranope; A colour-vision defective individual who sees shades of gray instead of red and green, possibly because of insensitivity to blue-green light. Development; The total progressive arid continuous change whereby an individual adapts to his environment via the processes of growth, maturation, and learning; qualitative growth. Developmental age; A measure of the degree of a person's physiological or cognitive maturity. This includes such factors as dental maturity and skeletal maturity, and the ability to think or behave in a particular manner, contrasted with chronological age. Developmental psychology; The area within psychology that is concerned with discovering the principles of behavioural change in the individual from conception to death. All the topics in psychology such as personality, learning, and cognition as they relate to the dimensions of growth and maturation. In its broadest sense, developmental psychology includes the periods of infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood. Developmental scale; Reports of average or typical behaviour for a particular age group based upon data collected from large groups of individuals for the purpose of measuring the level of development a child has attained. Deviance; Departure from what is considered to be correct, normal and proper.. In statistics, the departure from the norm or mean. Deviant case analysis; Investigation of similar cases that differ in outcome in an attempt to specify the reasons for the different outcomes. Deviation IQ; A standard score on an intelligence test in which the mean is set at 100 and the standard deviation at 15 or 16. It expresses the extent to which the individual deviates from the average score obtained by his peers. The meaning of the deviation IQ is similar to that of the conventional IQ, namely, the value obtained on the Stanford-Binet. Deviation; (1) In statistics, the difference between a score and a reference point such as the mean or median. If the mean is 40 and a score is 25, the deviation of that score from the mean is -15. (2) A departure from what is considered normal, correct, or proper. (3) In optics, the bending of light rays from a straight line. Dewey, John; Dewey was one of the founders of the functionalistic movement in psychology and education. He wrote one of the first textbooks in the field. Diagnosis; The process of determining the nature of an abnormality or disease using information gained from tests, interviews, and other observations. Diagnostic test; A test that is utilized to determine the nature and source of an .individual's difficulties or skills, in contrast with survey tests, which give a general appraisal of an area of achievement. Dialectical behaviour therapy; A therapeutic approach to borderline personality disorder that combines client-centered empathy and acceptance with behavioural problem solving, social-skills training, and limit setting. Diastolic blood pressure; The lowest pressure recorded from an individual during a cardiac cycle which is the period of ventricular dilation during which the ventricle fills with blood (contrasted with systolic blood pressure). Diathesis; Genetic predisposition to a particular psychotic disorder or disease.
Diathesis-stress theory; Theory of what causes schizophrenia; states that schizophrenia develops when there is a genetic predisposition (diathesis) present and there are environmental factors (stress) that trigger the disorder. Dichotic listening; An experimental procedure in which a person hears two different taped messages simultaneously through earphones, one in each ear, usually with the instruction to attend to only one of the messages. Dichromate; A colour-defective individual whose full range of colour experience can be produced by the mixture of two (rather than the normal three) primary colours. Most common is red-green blindness; blue-yellow blindness is rarer. Diencephalon; The lower area of the forebrain, containing the thalamus and hypothalamus. Difference tone; A sound heard when two tones are sounded simultaneously. The pitch of the difference tone is the difference in frequency between the two original sounds. Differential extinction; The selective gradual diminishing of one response while another is being maintained. Differential psychology; The field of psychology which concerns itself with individual differences in reference to their consequences, causation, and magnitude among groups. Differential (or Difference) threshold (DL); The minimum difference in stimulation that a subject can detect 50% of the time. We experience the difference threshold as a just noticeable difference (JND) Differentiation; (1) In development, the process of cells developing into specialized tissues. (2) The change in a psychological field from homogeneity to heterogeneity. (3) In conditioning, the process by which an organism is trained to respond to only certain stimuli, that is, to discriminate between stimuli. (4) In mathematical psychology, the process of obtaining a differential. Difficulty index; A numerical value used to express the difficulty of a test item. In the United States, the difficulty index, also called the facility index, is usually the percent getting the item correct. Diffraction; The bending of light waves as they pass over the edge of an object. Diffusion of responsibility; The tendency for people to feel that responsibility for. helping is shared among those who present. Digit-span test; A test of short term recall in which the subject repeats a random series of digits following a single presentation. Dilation; An increase in the diameter of the pupil of the eye. Dimming effect; The intensification of an afterimage by reducing the intensity of the field upon which it is projected. Dioptric power; The ability of a lens to bend, or refract, light. Dipsomania; A continuous craving for alcohol. Direct aggression; An attack or aggressive behaviour which is projected upon the source of frustration. Direct analysis; The term applied to the system of psychotherapy developed by John Rosen. Rosen contends that the therapist must identify with the unhappy patient. Direct replication; Repeating an experiment as closely as possible to determine whether or not the same results will be obtained. Directed thinking; Thinking that is governed by a goal or thinking that occurs for a purpose, such as problem solving.
Directional hypothesis; A prediction that a specific change in the conditions of an experiment will result in a particular change in the outcome of the experiment. Directive counseling; The treatment of mental illness in which the patient is given positive advice and direct suggestions as to what activities and attitudes he should adopt. Also the counselor suggests the area of personality to be explored. Directive psychotherapy; As developed by Frederick Thorne, a system of therapy in which the therapist assumes an active role for the purpose of breaking down resistance. Discontinuous culture; A culture with clear demarcations between various slates or stages. For example, discontinuous cultures often mark the passage from childhood to adulthood by elaborate ritual and ceremony. Discriminated operant; An instrumentally learned response that is reinforced only if made in the presence of a particular stimulus. Discrimination index; A graphic or numerical expression of the extent to which a test or test item differentiates between subjects having or not having the trait being tested. Discrimination learning; Learning to distinguish between two or more different stimuli, or between, the presence and absence of a stimulus. In general, any learning in which the task is to make choices between alternatives. Discrimination; (1) The ability to recognize the distinctive features of similar but non-identical things. (2) The process of distinguishing differences between stimuli. (3) In learning, differentiation, the ability to withhold a behavioural response except in the presence of a specific stimulus. Discriminative stimulus (Sd); A signal presented only when reinforcement is present or is to follow, thereby controlling the occurrence of the response. Disease; The medical concept that distinguishes an impairment of the normal state of the organism by its particular group of symptoms and its specific cause. Disinhibition of aggression; A reduction in the self-control or inhibition of aggressive behaviours in response to environmental stimulation or aggression eliciting events. Disinhibition; (1) The temporary restoration of an extinguished response that is manifested when the conditioned stimulus is presented in a novel way. (2) A loss of self-control upon overindulgence in alcohol or while under the influence of drugs. (3) In modeling, observing a response and learning that the response is appropriate to a given situation. Disjunctive concept; A complex concept based upon the simultaneous consideration of two or more stimulus properties, but in which the presence of any one stimulus property is adequate to qualify the stimulus as an instance of the concept. Disorganized schizophrenia; In this subtype of schizophrenia the person has diffuse and regressive symptoms; the individual is given to silliness, facial grimaces, and inconsequential rituals and has constantly changeable moods and poor hygiene. There are few significant remissions and eventually considerable deterioration. This form of schizophrenia was formerly called hebephrenia. Disorganized speech (thought disorder); Speech found in schizophrenics that is marked by problems in the organization of ideas and in speaking so that others can understand. Disorientation; A state of mental confusion with respect to time, place, identity of self, other persons, and objects.
Disowning; The process developed by Carl Rogers, whereby an individual avoids being aware of experiences and needs which have not been symbolized and which are inconsistent with the self. Disowning is similar to repression and dissociation in the Freudian and SuUivanian theories, respectively. Dispersion; A measure that shows the scatter of a group of scores in a distribution. The common measures of dispersion are the range, average deviation, standard deviation, variance, and the semi-interquartile range. Displaced aggression; Aggressive behaviour oriented away from the source of frustration to other "safer" targets. Displacement activity; In ethology, seemingly irrelevant behaviour made in the presence of two simultaneous but incompatible releaser stimuli; vacuum activity. Displacement theory; The view that forgetting from short-term memory is due to a distortion of items from a temporary store by the occurrence of new items. Displacement; The process or result of shifting an idea, activity, or emotional attachment from its proper object to another object. It may be a re-channeling of instinctual energy from an unacceptable object to one that is of neutral value to society (Freudian defense mechanism). It is also a dream process by which material is disguised. It involves changing the affective emphasis of something in a dream so that if it is very important in real life, it is seemingly unimportant in the dream or vice versa. Display design; The study of effective presentation of information in a man-machine system. Dissociation; (1) A defense mechanism in which there is a separation of activities and psychological processes which may then function independently. An extreme form would be the multiple personality. It is also present in amnesia, fugue, and schizophrenia. (2) In SuUivanian theory the process by which one excludes from awareness certain aspects of his experience which lead to acute anxiety. It is similar to Freudian repression and Rogerian disowning. Dissociative disorders; Disorders in which the normal integration of consciousness, memory or identity is suddenly and temporarily altered; dissociative amnesia, dissociative fugue, dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality), and depersonalization disorder are examples. Dissociative fugue; Disorder in which the person experiences total amnesia, moves, and establishes a new identity. Dissociative identity disorder (DID); A rare dissociative disorder in which two or more fairly distinct and separate personalities are present within the same individual, each with his or her own memories, relationships, and behaviour patterns, with only one of them dominant at any given time. Formerly called multiple personality disorder Dissonance; (1) In cognitive dissonance theory, when one idea or belief a person holds contradicts another cognition he or she also holds. (2) The unpleasant effect produced by two notes -which are sounded simultaneously and do not blend into a mellifluous sound. Distal effect; A response which changes the environment in some way. Distal receptors; Sense receptors that allow man to apprehend sensation that emanates from a distance. Vision and hearing are the two most important distal receptors, or distance senses. Distal stimulus; A stimulus as it emanates from environmental objects such as a doorbell.
Distal variable; A variable which originated as a stimulus.in the environment which is mediated via a proximal stimulus (a stimulus acting on our sense organs). Distinctiveness; The tendency of some items to "stand out" from the context in which they occur. Distinctiveness is one factor determining how well material can be learned. Distorting lenses; Lenses utilized to present an illusory set of stimuli to the retina by the bending of an image achieved by changing orientation, line formation, or colour. Distortion theory; A theory of forgetting that maintains information is not entirely forgotten but becomes distorted with the passage of time. Distortion; (1) In psychoanalysis, the cognitive alteration or disguising of unacceptable impulses so that they can escape the dream censor. (2) In perception; the changing in orientation of a stimulus to. the retina. Distracter; A term sometimes used to designate the incorrect response options provided in a multiple-choice item. Distracting task; A task that is assigned to the subject of a memory experiment between the time of presentation of the material to be learned and the time of recall or recognition, thus interfering with the rehearsal and processing of that material into memory. Distributed learning; The spacing of learning trials into several time periods instead of one long learning session. Distribution; An array of the instances of a variable arranged so that different classes of the variable are ordered in some manner and the frequency of each class is indicated. Distributive analysis and synthesis; The phrase apphed to the characteristic procedures of psychobiologic therapy. This view emphasizes the importance of obtaining a clear and full understanding of the patient's own views of his or her problems. Disuse theory; The theory of forgetting that states that memory lapses are due to lack of use of what has been learned. Divergent hierarchy; According to mediational theory, a hierarchy of responses all of which can be elicited by a single stimulus. Seen as the basis for problem solving in most situations. Divergent thinking; Guilford's term for the type of thinking that produces several different solutions for a problem. Divergent thinking is assumed to be closely related to creativity and the term is often used interchangeably with it. Dizygotic (DZ) twins; Birth partners who have developed from separate fertilized eggs and who are only 50 percent alike genetically, no more so than siblings born from different pregnancies; sometimes called fraternal twins. Dogmatism scale; A questionnaire designed to measure rigidity and inflexibility in thinking. Dominance; A term used to refer to the fact that in many animal groups there is a "pecking order," usually related to strength. Animals high in the "pecking order" usually have first access to food and mates. Dominant gene; The gene that takes precedence over other related genes in determining genetic traits. The presence of a dominant gene means that the characteristic which is controlled by that gene will be present in the individual. Dominator module theory; In perception, the view that brightness vision is communicated through a special dominant receptor and that colour vision is mediated by receptors which control the response of the dominant receptor. Door-in-the-face; A strategy for gaining a concession. After someone first turns down a large request (the door in the face), the same requester counteroffers with a more reasonable request.
Dopamine (DA); A common neurotransmitter of the central nervous system, which inhibits certain neurons and excites others. Disturbances in certain of its tracts apparently figure in schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease. Dopamine activity theory; The view that schizophrenia arises from an increase in the number of dopamine receptors. Dopamine hypothesis; A theory that suggests that schizophrenia occurs when there is excess activity in those areas of the brain using dopamine to transmit nerve impulses. Double approach-avoidance conflicts; A conflict in which there are two goals, with each goal having an attraction and a repulsion. Double-bind theory; In the etiology of schizophrenia, the hypothesis that traces the origins of schizophrenia to situations in which a parent gives conflicting messages to an offspring. Thus, the child is "damned if he does and damned if he doesn't." Double-blind procedure; A method for reducing the biasing effects of the expectations of research participant and experimenter; neither isallowed to know whether the independent variable of the experiment is being applied to the participant. Down's syndrome; A congenital form of mental retardation which is caused by the failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to separate properly when an egg or sperm is formed. Characteristics of the disease are a limited intelligence, a flat face, a skin fold at the corner of the eyes, a broad nose, and a protruding tongue. Dream analysis; The process, originally used by Freud, of deciphering the meaning of a dream. Based on the idea that dreams are symbolic representations of our impulses and conflicts, and that by understanding the symbols, we can learn about ourselves. Dream processes; Various methods used to disguise material so that when it is presented in a dream, it is not too emotionally threatening. Dream; An experience that occurs during the sleeping state, drugged state, or hypnotic state that involves a more or less coherent awareness of imagery, scenes and events. Drive reduction; The theory which claims that drives are produces to obtain our basic biological requirements. Drive; A goal-directed tendency of an organism based on a change in organic processes; any strong stimulus that impels an organism to action. For example, the hunger drive results from the need for food. Drug abuse; See substance abuse DSM-IV-TR;The current Diagnostic . and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association. Dualism; (1) A philosophical position, as developed by Plato, which holds that mind and matter are two fundamentally different substances. (2) In psychology, the idea that the mind and the body are separate entities. Ductless glands; Endocrine glands that release their hormones directly into the bloodstream. Dura (dura mater); The outer protective tissue layer of the central nervous system. Durham decision; A 1954 U.S. court ruling that an accused person is not ascriptively responsible if his or her crime is judged attributable to mental disease or defect. Dynamic culturalists; The term applied to the psychoanalytic theories and practices of those who deviate from the teachings of Freud by placing less emphasis on the instinctive and more emphasis on the changing social sources of human behaviour.
Dynamic lattice; As developed by R. B. Cattell, a graphic representation of the interrelations between goal seeking and motives. Dynamic model; Model of psychopathology in which abnormal behaviour reflects a "dynamic" battle or conflict between parts or aspects of a person's personality rather than any physical or organic deficiencies. Dynamism; A relatively enduring and consistent mode of behaviour used in interpersonal relations, drive satisfaction, and alleviation from psychological stress. Dynamometer; An instrument utilized for measuring the strength of muscular response, such as a hand-grip. Dysfunction; An impairment or disturbance in the functioning of an organ, organ system, behaviour, or cognition. Dyslexia; An inability to read which is usually characterized by a specific reading impairment, such as reversing similar letters or numbers. Dyssocial character; Individual who has no personality disorganization, but rather has values that conflict with the usual mores of the society; cultural deviant. Dysthymic disorder; State of depression that is long lasting but not severe enough for the diagnosis of major depression. Eardrum (tympanic membrane); The beginning of the middle ear separating the outer ear and auditory canal. The sound reaching the eardrum sets in motion the three bones of the middle ear. Earlychildhood; The second period of postnatal development; from approximately age two to age six. Early training project; A preschool project developed by Gray and Klaus emphasizing emiched and distinctive stimulation for children from impoverished backgrounds. Ebbinghaus curve of retention; As developed by Ebbinghaus, a curve which displays the retention of nonsense material. Ebbinghaus, Hermann; A pioneer psychologist in the field of learning, He devised the nonsense syllable and the completion test. Echoic memory; Information stored briefly as an auditory image of a stimulus. Echolalia; The immediate repetition of the words of others, often found in autistic children. In delayed echolalia this inappropriate echoing takes place hours or weeks later. Echopraxia; An automatic imitation of movements by another. This reaction is sometimes found in catatonics. Eclectic; A psychologist who uses the theories and techniques of several approaches or models, rather than specializing in one. Ecological momentary assessment (EMA); Form of self-observation involving collection of data in real time (e.g., diaries) regarding thoughts, moods, and stressors. Ecological; Pertaining to the study of biological forms, both among species and between species and their environment. According to Lewin, pertaining to those aspects of individual's environment which are important parts of his or her life space. Ectomorph; One of Sheldon's somatotyping classifications; ectomorphs are frail and are inclined to a long, stringy, and skinny body. They are associated with cerebrotonia; that is, they are assumed to be restrained in movement, concerned with privacy, sensitive, and socially inhibited. Edging, In reference to the Rorschach test, a tendency of an individual to turn the cards edgewise. Educable mentally retarded; (EMR, IQ score 52=70) This group of individuals is considered capable of being educated. The intellectual level as adults is comparable to that of the average 8 to
11-year old child. Socially, EMRs approximate the adolescent, however, they lack imagination, inventiveness, and judgment. Many, with proper guidance, can function in society and support themselves. Also called mildly retarded. Educationalpsychology; A science that is concerned primarily with the application of psychological knowledge to problems of education. Educational quotient; The ratio of educational age to chronological age, multiplied by a factor of 100. EQ = EA/CA x 100 Edwards personal preference schedule (EPPS); A test, employing a forced choice technique, which is designed to measure the needs proposed by Murray's theory of personality. E-F scale; A subscale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Inventory of Personality which measures authoritarianism and ethnocentrism. Effect, law of; As developed by Thorndike, the view that, all other things being equal, an animal will learn those habits which lead to satisfaction and will not learn those habits which lead to annoyance. Effectance motivation; The concept of competence (that is, effectively interacting with the environment). Effective-habit strength; As developed by Hull, the strength of a learned reaction as a function of the number of reinforcements. Effectors; Neural cells that are directly involved in glandular or muscular behaviour. Efferent nerves; Nerves that transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the end organs. Effort syndrome; An anxiety neurosis characterized by palpitations and circulatory disorders. Ego analysis; An important set of modifications of classical psychoanalysis, based on a conception of the human being as having a stronger, more autonomous ego with gratifications independent of id satisfactions. Sometimes called ego psychology. Ego ideal; In Freudian theory, the image of the self that a person consciously and unconsciously strives to become, and against which the person judges him or herself. Ego; In the structural model of psychoanalytic theory as proposed by Freud, the largely conscious mental institution which mediates between the demands of the id and demands of the environment. The ego is sometimes called the executive agency of the personality because it controls action, selects the features of the environment to which a person will respond, and decides how the person's needs can be satisfied. Ego-analysis; A form of psychoanalysis .which emphasizes the strengths and weaknesses of the ego. There is little concentration on deeply repressed processes, and it is shorter than conventional psychotherapy. Egocentric speech; Piaget's term for speech that does not take into account the point of view of the listener. The three basic manifestations of egocentric speech are repetition, monologue, and collective monologue. Egocentric thought; Viewing the world entirely from one's own perspective. Ego-involvement; Perception of a situation in terms of its potential effect on one's self-concept. Egoistic suicide; As defined by Durkheim, self-annihilation committed because the individual feels extreme alienation from others and from society. Eidetic imagery; Ability to retain are Huge of a picture or a scene with great clarity for a fairly long period of time. Sometimes called "photographic memory." Eigenwelt; In existential psychology, the term which refers to man's relationship with himself. Einstellung; A set; an attitude. Learned habits and preparatory outlooks toward a problem or direction which may be geared by preceding events which often are factors in thinking.
Elaborative rehearsal; Organizing information into a logical framework to assist in recalling it. .'.» Electra complex; A Freudian stage occurring around the age of 4 or 5 years, during the phallic stage, when a girl's awareness of her genital area leads her to desire her father and to become jealous of her mother. This corresponds to the Oedipus complex in the male. Electrocardiogram; A recording of the electrical activity of the heart, made with an electrocardiograph. Electroconvulsive shock (ECS); A form of psychotherapy used in the treatment of manic depressive psychosis and schizophrenia. An electrical current is passed through the brain resulting in convulsions and a short period of unconsciousness. Also called electroshock therapy. Electrode; A small insulated wire that is surgically implanted into an area of the brain in order to artificially stimulate that area. Electrodermal responding; A recording of the minute electrical activity of the sweat glands on the skin, allowing the inference of an emotional state. Electroencephalogram (EEG); A graphic recording of electrical activity of the brain, usually of the cerebral cortex, but sometimes of lower areas. Electromagnetic spectrum; The variety of changes occurring in electrical and magnetic fields measured in terms of wavelength or frequency of vibrations. Electromyogram (EMG); A record of the electrical activity of a muscle usually recorded from the surface of the skin. Elicited response; A response brought about by a stimulus. The expression is synonymous with respondent. Eliciting effect; That type of imitative behaviour in which the observer does not copy the model's responses but simply behaves in a related manner. Ellipsis; The omission of ideas in free association. Embryonic period; The second of the three stages of gestation, from the third to the sixth week, at the end of which many body systems are in operation and the embryo begins to resemble the human form. Emergency reaction; As developed by Walter Cannon, a term describing the reactions of fight or flight of an animal to dangerous situations. These reactions include increased heart rate, increased blood flow to the muscles, inhibition of digestion an/1 expansion of the air sacs in the lungs. Emitted response; A response not elicited by a known stimulus, but simply emitted by the organism. An emitted response is an operant. Emmert's law; The principle that the perceived size of an image on the retina varies directly with the perceived distance of the object that presumably is projecting the image. Emotion; A complex state of the organism, usually marked by a heightened state of arousal and the feelings accompanying that condition. Includes such human feelings as fear, rage, love, or desire. Emotional meaning; Connotative meaning as opposed to denotative meaning. Meaning suggested by a term or symbol beyond its explicit or referential meaning. Empathic understanding; Rogerian concept referring to the importance that a therapist actively understands the immediate feelings of his client. Empathy; (1) The acceptance and understanding of the feelings of another person, but with sufficient detachment to avoid becoming directly involved in those feelings.
(2) In Sullivanian theory a kind of vague, biologically derived process whereby the infant senses the emotions of the mothering one through "contagion and communion." Empirical key; A scoring key, typically for a measure of personality. The items to be weighted and the manner in which they are weighted are based on data showing the extent to which the items do, in fact, differentiate different groups of individuals. Empirical study; An arrangement of conditions such that observations can be made systematically. Empirical; That which is based on the observation of events occurring in an experiment or in nature, as distinguished from that founded on opinion, beliefs, or reasoning. Empiricism; (1) The philosophical view that experience is the source of knowledge. John Locke, George Berkeley, David Hume, David Hartley, and James Mill were empiricists. (2) The psychological view that behaviour depends upon learning, experience, and objective observations. There is a strong emphasis on operational definitions and on relating theories to experimental findings. Empty nest syndrome; Restlessness, anxiety, and depression in middle-aged parents whose children have left home; formerly said to be due to a woman's menopause and the loss of ability to bear children. Empty-chair technique; A Gestalt therapy procedure for helping the client become more aware of denied feelings; the client talks to important people or to feelings as though they were present and seated in a nearby vacant chair. Enactive mode; The most primitive (or basic) way that human convert immediate experiences into a mental model, as proposed by Bruner. It is based upon action or movement and is nonverbal. Encephalitis; Any type of infection of the brain that causes inflammation. Encoding; The process by which information is initially recorded in a form usable to memory. Encounter group; See sensitivity training group. Encounter group; A form of group psychotherapy focused on personal growth, more effective interpersonal communication, and open "expression of feelings. The aim is a more direct encounter with one's own feelings toward others, and vice versa. Openness, honesty, emotional expression, and sensitivity are encouraged. Enculturation; The process of adapting to a new culture. Endocrine glands; A group of ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Endocrine system; The functioning order of glands which produce hormones, it is central in the control and regulation of behaviour and interacts closely with the nervous system. Endogenous control; Control that comes from within the body. Endomorph; One of Sheldon's somatotyping classifications. Endomorphs are described as soft and rotund. They are viscerotonic and are believed to love comfort and eating, be relaxed and slow in movement, and social. Endorphins; Opiates produced within the body; they may have an important role in the processes by which the body builds up tolerance to drugs and is distressed by their withdrawal. Engineering psychology; A branch of psychology which concentrates on the relationships between people and machines. Engram; A hypothetical physiological change corresponding to something learned; also called a memory trace. Entropy;
(1) In psychoanalysis, the extent to which psychic energy cannot be transferred once it has been invested in an object. (2) The number of possible outcomes an event may have. (3) In social psychology, the tendency for social progress to diminish, because each new change uses up energy which is not available for the succeeding change. Enuresis; A disorder in which, through faulty control of the bladder, the person wets repeatedly during the night (nocturnal enuresis) or during the day after an age at which continence is expected. Environment; The totality of significant aspects of an individual's surroundings. Includes all experiences and events that influence an individual's development. The three basic subcategories of environment are postnatal, prenatal, and cellular. Environmental factors; Those factors that act as stimulating forces on the organism. Environmentalism; The belief that emphasizes environmental differences as the cause for individual differences. Holds that heredity has only a minor role in behaviour. Environmental-mold trait; A personality trait, developed by R. B. Cattell, which has been revolutionized through environmental influences. Enzyme; A complex protein produced by the cells to act as a catalyst in regulating metabolic activities. Epidemiology; The study of the frequency and distribution of illness in a population. Epigenesis; The hypothesis that new traits emerge during embryonic development. These are traits not contained in the original fertilized cell. Rather, they develop out of prenatal environmental arid intracellular influences. Epilepsy; Ari altered state of consciousness accompanied by sudden changes in the usual rhythmical electrical activity of the brain. Epileptoid personality; A compilation of personality traits which are believed to be associated with epilepsy, including stubbornness, irritability, and uncooperativeness. Epinephrine; A hormone (a catecholamine) secreted by the medulla of the adrenal gland; its effects are similar, but not identical, to those of stimulating the sympathetic nerves. It causes an increase in blood pressure, inhibits peristaltic movements, and liberates glucose from the liver. Also called adrenaline. Episodic memory; Retention of specific events which we have ourselves experienced, like dates, names, events. Epistemic behaviour; A label employed by Berlyne to describe behaviour designed to gather information. Epistcmology; That branch of philosophy concerned with the acquisition and validity of people's knowledge about the world. Equilibration; (1) The balance between what is taken in, assimilated, and what is changed, accommodated. Equilibration is the mechanism for cognitive growth and development. (2) The achievement of balance between two opposing forces. Equilibrium; As developed by Piaget, a term referring to a balance between assimilation and accommodation. The concept of equilibration is of primary importance to Piaget's explanation of motivation. He assumed that an individual constantly interacts with his or her environment through assimilation and accommodation to achieve a state of equilibrium. Equity theory; A condition in which the outcomes people receive from a relationship are proportional to what they contribute to it. Note: Equitable outcomes need-not always be equal outcomes.
Equivalent form; One of two or more forms of a test that have been built to the same specifications to measure the same attribute or attributes, and that consequently have approximately the same statistical characteristics. Erg; As developed by R. B. Cattell, an innate predisposition of certain response activities to certain stimuli. Erikson Erik; A noted child psychoanalytic psychologist. He coined the term "identity crisis." Ego psychology of Erikson's theory of personality development which emphasizes ego development. Ego psychology is an eight-stage theory requiring a successful coping at each stage for proper development. Erogenous zone; An area of the body, when stimulated, which gives rise to sexual feeling. Eros (libido); A Greek word meaning love, employed by Freud to describe the life instinct present at birth that includes all drives for self-preservation. Early in his career, Freud classified 'Eros' as the sex instinct. Error of measurement; (1) The amount by which any specific measurement differs from the individual's hypothetical "true" score in the quality being measured. Since no measurement procedure is perfectly exact, each has included in it some component of error. (2) An error due to the unreliability of an instrument. Escape conditioning; A form of learning in which the proper response ends noxious stimulation. Escape response; Any response made by an organism in order to get away from an already-present aversive stimulus. ESP; (See extrasensory perception.) Essential hypertension; A psychophysiological disorder characterized by high blood pressure that cannot be traced to an organic cause. Over the years it causes degeneration of small arteries, enlargement of the heart, and kidney damage. Este's statistical model of learning; In learning theory, the view that all stimuli are composed of a large number of elements and that only a small percentage can be effective at any given time. Estrogen; A female sex hormone produced especially in the ovaries that stimulates the development and maintenance of the secondary sex characteristics, such as breast enlargement. Ethical model; Model of psychopathology in which psychopathology comes from guilt over immoral behaviour, assumes that individual has responsibility for his or her behaviour. Ethology; The study of organisms and their behaviour in their natural habitats. Etiology; All the factors that contribute to the development of an illness or disorder. Eugenics; A form of genetic engineering that selects specific individuals for reproduction. The term was coined by Galton and is really an expression of the belief that individuals should be selected for breeding purposes in order to enhance racial characteristics. Euphoria; A psychological state of well-being and heightened motor activity. When pathological it may be characteristic of manic states. Eustachian tube; The valued tube connecting the middle ear and mouth which provides an equilibrium of atmospheric pressure between the outside and middle ear. Evaluation; The complete process of comparison and determination of the relative importance of a phenomenon and the appraising of the extent to which certain objectives have been achieved. Evoked potential; A very small change in voltage recorded from the cerebral cortex of the brain following stimulation of one of the sense modalities. Evolution; (1) In general, the orderly development of a theory, system or body.
(2) The process of orderly changes in the phylogenetic species which have been brought about by environmental and genetic changes with survival of the best-adapted mutants. Evolutionary processes are assumed to be responsible for the present variety and distribution of life forms. Evolutionary biology; Study of hying organisms stressing the importance of understanding the similarities and differences between animals. Ex post facto; Literally, "after the fact"; refers to conditions in an experiment that are not determined prior to the experiment, but only after some manipulation has occurred naturally. Excitation; General level of arousal or a state of activity is stemming from arousal; stimulation resulting from the firing of nerve cells; agitated emotional state; generalized in Salter's theory to refer to a state in the individual in which he or she is ready for vigorous action. Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP); Depolarizing effects of synaptic transmission on the postsynaptic neuron. Excitatory potential; As developed by Hull, the strength of a tendency to respond. Excitatory tendency; The ability of a stimulus to evoke a response. Executive functioning; The cognitive capacity to plan how to do a task, how to devise strategies, and how to monitor one's performance. Exhibitionism; A sexual variant form of behaviour which involves the intentional exposure of the genitals to unsuspecting people under inappropriate conditions. Existential analysis; The term apphed to the system of psychotherapy which combines some of the teachings of existential philosophy with some of the theories and practices Existential model; An explanation of abnormal personality patterns that stresses the influence of present events rather than past experiences. Existential neurosis; Feeling a loss of meaning in life even though one is a successful member of society. Existential therapy; A type of psychotherapy developed by Rollo May and other existentialists. An insight therapy that emphasizes choice and responsibility to define the meaning of one's life. In contrast with humanistic therapy, it tends to be less cheerful or sanguine in outlook, focusing more on the anxiety that is inherent to confronting one's ultimate aloneness in the world. Existentialism; A philosophical-psychological movement characterized by a preoccupation with existence. Existential philosophers describe the human condition in such terms as abandonment, loneliness, despair, and alienation. These feelings are purported to result from the individual's lack of knowledge about his or her origin and eventual end. Hence the term existentialism, since the only knowable reality is existence. A philosophy which adheres to the idea that at any moment in time humans are in a state of growth toward whatever they will to become. Exocrine glands; Glands, having ducts, which secrete fluids onto the body's surface or into its cavities. Exogenous control; Control that comes from outside the body. Exorcism; The casting out of evil spirits by ritualistic chanting or torture. Expansion gradient; The less dense part of a visual path (texture gradient) which appears to be closer. Expectancy; (1) The probability of an occurrence (2) A learned anticipation by an organism that a certain response to a stimulus will result in the occurrence of a specific situation. (3) An attitude characterized by attentiveness and heightened muscular tension. Experience; Learning, or the effects of the environment on development.
Experiential therapy; The term applied to the system of psychotherapy developed by Carl Whi-taker and Thomas Malone. The emphasis is placed on matters of maturity. The goal is to increase the ease in the exchange of energies within an individual. ' Experiment; The most powerful research technique for determining causal relationships, requiring the manipulation of an independent variable, the measurement of a dependent variable, and the random assignment of participants to the several different conditions being investigated. Experimental control; Holding constant extraneous variables in an experiment so that any effect on the dependent variable can be attributed to manipulation of the independent variable. Experimental effect; A statistically significant difference between two groups experiencing different manipulations of the independent variable. Experimental group; In a scientific experiment, those subjects who respond to an independent variable that is "specially" manipulated by the experimenter, the responses of the experimental group can then be compared with the responses, of the control group. Experimental hypothesis; What the investigator assumes will happen in a scientific investigation if certain conditions are met or particular variables are manipulated. Experimental method; Research procedure in which the psychologist manipulates one variable and tests to see what effects the manipulation has on a second variable. Controls are used to eliminate the effects of all extraneous variables. This procedure can establish a cause and effect relationship between manipulated and un-manipulated variables. Experimental neurosis; The result of an experimentally induced conflict in which an animal in a difficult discrimination situation is unable to respond; At a critical point the animal finally "breaks down," exhibiting indiscriminate, restless behaviour. Experimental psychology; A field of psychology that studies behaviour by performing experimental research. Problem areas investigated are learning, perception and sensation, memory, motivation, and the underlying physiology of behaviour. Experimenter bias; The effect that an experimenter may unknowingly exert on results of an experiment, usually in a direction favouring the experimenter's hypothesis. Experimenter effect; The effect on subjects' behaviour that is attributable to the experimenter's expectations about how the subjects should perform. Also called the Rosenthal effect. Explicit memory; Memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare" in words, (also called declarativememory) Exploratory behaviour, A global term describing behaviour that has no specific goal object, but rather seems to be directed solely toward the examination or the discovery of the environment. The term frequently denotes curiosity-based activities. Expressed emotion (EE); In the literature on schizophrenia, the amount of hostility and criticism directed from other people to the patient, usually within a family. Expressive language disorder; Difficulties expressing oneself in speech. External auditory meatus; The canal leading from the outside of the ear to the tympanic membrane. External inhibition; The temporary suppression of a conditioned response that is manifested when the CS is accompanied by a novel stimulus. External locus of control; The process that chance or outside forces beyond one's personal control determine, one's fate. Externalization; (1) The arousal, via learning, by external stimuli, of a drive which previously was aroused by internal stimuli.
(2) In development, the process of differentiating between self and not self. (3) The projection of one's own psychological processes to the environment, characteristic of paranoid or hallucinatory states. Extinction; In classical conditioning, the gradual disappearance of the conditioned response. This occurs with repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned Stimulus. In instrumental conditioning, the elimination of a learned behaviour resulting from withholding all reinforcement of that behaviour. Extirpation; Removal of some part of the nervous system to determine the effect on behaviour. Extraneous variable; A condition that may affect the outcome of an experiment but is irrelevant to the experiment. Extrasensory perception; Alleged ability to get information about ideas or objects through some means other than the usual sensory channels. This phenomenon includes telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition. Extra-specific aggression (inter-specific aggression); Fighting or other aggression directed at a member of a different species; i.e., aggression between organisms from different species. Extraversion; One of the types of personality proposed by Jung in which the predominant interest is in social interaction and the external world. Extrinsic motivation; Motivation based on material rewards, not inherently internalized. Extrinsic rewards; Candy, money, and similar objects that can be given to organisms with the effect of increasing the frequency of behaviours that precedes them. Extrovert; A person characterized by more attention to external stimuli than to his internal thoughts and feelings; he is more spontaneous, distractible, and changeable in mood than the introvert. Introversion-extroversion is one of the major dimensions in Eysenck's theory of personality. F - minus - K index; A measuring of a subject's attempt to fake a socially desirable score on the Minnesota Multiphasic Inventory of Personality. Face validity; From an intuitive standpoint, the test items should look as if they are related to what is supposedly being measured. That is, there should be a reasonableness or plausibility of test tasks in terms of measuring what the test is supposed to be measuring. Facial talk; A method used by Salter in his system of conditioned-reflex therapy to help a patient to overcome inhibitions by learning to show emotions on his or her face. Factitious disorders; Disorders in which the individual's physical or psychological symptoms appear under voluntary control and are adopted merely to assume the role of a sick person. The disorder can also involve a parent producing a disorder in a child and is then called factitious disorder by proxy or Munchausen syndrome. Factor analysis; This refers to a variety of statistical techniques whose common objective is to represent a set of variables in terms of a smaller number of hypothetical variables, called factors. In psychology, these factors represent intellectual or personality traits. For example, one could account for the inter-correlations among tests of multiplication, division, and subtraction with a factor called number. Factor rotation; A process usually associated with factor analysis which involves the manipulation of the axes in a centroid analysis so that they will pass through the maximum number of correlations. Factor; An element in a causal explanation. Factorial design; An experimental design in which each level of every independent variable occurs with all levels of the other independent variable.
Fading theory; A theory of forgetting that maintains items of information can no longer be emembered when the "memory trace" associated with them has disappeared. Fading; An instrumental conditioning technique that gradually introduces or removes a Stimulus so that ongoing behaviour is not disrupted. Fallopian tubes; Tubes linking the ovaries and the uterus. Fertilization ordinarily occurs during the egg's passage through the fallopian tubes. False alarm; In signal detection theory, the trial in which the signal is not present, but the subject says he sees the signal. Also called a false positive report. False negative report; A report that a signal or event was not present when in fact a signal was actually presented, usually associated with signal-detection theory. Also called a miss. False positive; In test decision analysis, a case in which the test suggests a positive classification, yet the correct classification is negative. Falsifiability; The extent to which a scientific assertion is amenable to systematic probes, any one of which could negate the scientist's expectations. Familiar; In witchcraft, a supernatural spirit often embodied in an animal and at the service of a person. Family method; A research strategy in behaviour genetics in which the frequency of a trait or of abnormal behaviour is determined in relatives who have varying percentages of shared genetic background. Family systems approach; A general approach to etiology and treatment that focuses on the complex interrelationships within families. Family therapy; A form of group therapy in which members of a family are helped to relate better to one another. Fantasy; Creative imagination of a complex object or event, existent or non-existent, in concrete symbols or images, usually in the pleasant sense of a wish-fulfillment. Fate control; The ability a person has to control one's own or another's outcomes. Fear drive; In the Mowrer-Miller theory, an unpleasant internal state that impels avoidance. The necessity to reduce a fear drive can form the basis for new learning. Fear response; In the Mowrer-Miller theory, a response to a threatening or noxious situation that is covert and unobservable but that is assumed to function as a stimulus to produce measurable physiological changes in the body and observable overt behaviour. Fear; A primary emotional response to a specific object or situation perceived as dangerous, and which the individual believes he or she cannot control. Feature detection; The activation of neurons in the cortex by visual stimuli of specific shapes or patterns. Feature extraction; Identification of the most important aspects of a total stimulus configuration. Fechner's law; A rule that relates any level of intensity of stimulation with a level of experience by the law S = K log I, where S is physical stimulation, K is Weber's constant, and I is the stimulus. This states that physical stimulation increases logarithmically as experience increases arithmetically. Feedback; (1) Information received by an individual on the effects of some previous action which is to be used by the individual to regulate further output. (2) In neuropsychology, the afferent impulses from proprioceptive receptors which give rise to motor movement.
(3) In a man-made system, a means of controlling input by connecting the system to output, such as, a thermostat. Feral children; Children raised in social isolation with only animal contact and raised by animals. Ferry-Porter law; The relation between the apparent brightness of a flickering light, with a frequency greater than the critical flicker-fusion frequency, and the duration and intensity of the "on" portion of the light-dark cycle. Fertilized ovum stage; The first stage of prenatal development beginning at fertilization and ending at approximately the second week; also called the zygote stage. Fetal alcohol syndrome; Retarded growth of the developing fetus and infant; cranial, facial, and limb anomalies; and mental retardation caused by heavy consumption of alcohol by the mother during pregnancy. Fetal growth; The development of the fetus in the uterus. Fetal stage; The third period in prenatal development, from approximately the seventh week until delivery; in a full-term pregnancy of thirty-eight weeks, the last thirty-two weeks. Fetish; Maladaptive preference for an object or nonsexual part of the body rather than a person, as a source of sexual satisfaction. Fiber tract; A group of axons located within the central nervous system. Field dependent; Type of personality involving dependency on external reference points. Field independent; Type of personality involving an emphasis on internal reference points for the formation of perceptions. Field research; Observation of behaviour in its natural setting where subjects typically do not know that they are in an experiment. Figural aftereffect; A change in the apparent shape or location of a visual figure following inspection of another figure, because there is a tendency to maintain constancy in the figure-ground relationship. Figure-ground; A principle of Gestalt psychology that holds that we organize our perceptions into figure and background. The figure gives the appearance of solidity or three dimensionality and the background is not clearly shaped or patterned. Filtering; A hypothetical perceptual process involving selective attention that prevents unimportant signals from reaching awareness. New, unusual, or important signals, however, are processed into consciousness, implying that the stimulus meaning can be discriminated by this process. First-rank symptoms; In schizophrenia, specific delusions and hallucinations proposed by Schneider as particularly important for its more exact diagnosis. Fissure; A major indentation in the cerebral cortex. Smaller indentations are called sulci. Fixation; (1) In psychoanalytic theory, the failure of psychosexual development to proceed normally from one stage to the next, so that an individual's libidinal energy must in part be expended to satisfy motives appropriate to an earlier stage. (2) In perception, the point at which the eyes are directed. (3) In behaviour, an inability to reject an incorrect stimulus or extinguish an incorrect response for a correct response. (4) In personality, a relatively strong and enduring emotional attachment for another person. Fixed alternative; In a test or questionnaire, when a person must choose an answer from among a few specified alternatives.
Fixed ratio schedule; A plan of partial reinforcement in which the subject is rewarded each time a set number of correct responses has occurred. Fixed-action pattern (FAP); Unvarying sequences of movement, keyed by a releaser, sign, or stimulus which are species-specific. Fixed-interval schedule; A reinforcement schedule in which a reinforcement is delivered (after every response that follows a specified and constant time period since the previous reinforcement. Flashback; An unpredictable recurrence of psychedelic experiences from an earlier drug trip. Flashbulb memory; A clear memory of an emotionally significant moment or event. Flat affect; A deviation in emotional response wherein virtually no emotion is expressed whatever the stimulus, emotional expressiveness in blunted, or a lack of expression and muscle tone is noted in the face. Flight of ideas; A symptom of mania that involves a rapid shift in conversation from one subject to another with only superficial associative connections. Flooding; A behavioural therapy procedure in which a fearful person is exposed to what is frightening, in reality or in the imagination, for extended periods of time and without opportunity for escape. Fluid intelligence; Intelligence that can adjust to new situations; usually considered as flexible or adaptive thinking. Focal stimuli; Stimuli which are the focus of attention; in adaptation-level theory of motivation, they represent one factor determining the adaptation level. Focus gambling; An approach to solving conceptual problems in which the subject varies two or more attributes in each comparison with the focus; it sometimes produces quicker solutions but it can also backfire, causing slower problem solving. Focused attention; Attending to one aspect of a stimulus while ignoring all other parts. Follow-up study; A research procedure whereby individuals observed in an earlier investigation are contacted at a later time for further study. Fontanelles; The soft areas of connective tissue on the skull of the newborn. They allow some flexibility in the skull during labor and growth. Foot-in-the-door effect;The tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request. Forced-choice (item); A pattern, used in rating scales, in which the individual is required to select one of a set of statements as most descriptive and perhaps another as least descriptive. In preparing the sets of statements, the attempt is usually made to have all the statements in a set approximately balanced for acceptability or desirability, but quite different in what they signify about the person. Forebrain; The front most division of the brain, encompassing the thalamus, hypothalamus, and cerebral hemispheres. This part of the brain is responsible for higher processes Forensic psychiatry or psychology; Thebranch of psychiatry or psychology that deals with the legal questions raised by disordered behaviour. Forgetting; The loss of retention or the inability to retrieve a stored memory. Formal group; A gathering of people in which formal titles, rules, hierarchy, and other designations are significant. Formal operational period; The fourth stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget, it occurs during early adolescence, as the teenager learns to conceive of events beyond the present, imagine hypothetical situations, and develop a complex system of logic.
Fovea; A small indentation in the center of the retina into which most of the cone cells are packed. Form-and colour vision are centered here. Fragile X syndrome; Malformation (or even breakage) of the X chromosome associated with moderate mental retardation. Symptoms include large, underdeveloped ears, a long, thin face, a broad nasal root, and enlarged testicles in males; many individuals show attention deficits and hyperactivity Frames; Systems of rules, understandings,' and expectancies operative in repetitive social situations, such as waiting rooms. Fraternal twins; See dizygotic twins. Free association; A key psychoanalytic procedure in which the analyzed is encouraged to give free rein to his or her thoughts and feelings, verbalizing whatever comes into the mind without monitoring its content. The assumption is that over time, repressed material will come forth for examination by the analyzed and psychoanalyst. (2) In testing, a word-association test where no restrictions are put on the nature of the subject's response. Free recall; A technique for testing memory that requires the subject to reproduce learned items, but not in any specific order. Free will; The philosophical view that behaviour is ultimately directed by volition, Man is capable of independent choice and action. Free-floating anxiety; Continual anxiety not attributable to any specific situation or reasonable danger. See generalized anxiety disorder. Free-response rate; Rate at which an organism responds in an operant situation. Frequency distribution; Classifying data in a graphical format for a group of individuals in which the possible score values are arranged in order from high to low, and the number of persons receiving each score is indicated. Frequency of usage; A count of how often a particular event occurs in some block of time or sequence of behaviour, most commonly how often a particular word occurs in a text. Frequency polygon; A graphic representation of a frequency distribution, in which the number of cases in each score category is plotted, and the successive points are connected with straight lines. Frequency principle; A physiological law stating that a neuron will fire more rapidly to stronger stimuli than weaker ones, generating more action potentials per given period of time. Frequency theory; A theory of pitch discrimination that assumes that pitch is dependent upon the rate at which the whole basilar membrane vibrates. Frequency; The number of times something occurs within a given length of time. The number of vibrations or cycles per second reaching a given point in space; often refers to a dimension of sound. Freud, Sigmund; Founder of psychoanalytic theory. Freudian slip; An error in speaking or writing which unintentionally reveals the speaker's or writer's true meaning. Frontal lobe; The forward or upper half of each cerebral hemisphere, in front of the central sulcus, active in reasoning and other higher mental processes. Frontal lobotomy; Surgical severing of the connections between the frontal lobe and the rest of the brain. Usually restricted to the prefrontal region, it is done only to treat severely psychotic patients. Frustration tolerance; The general resistance of an individual to anxiety in frustrating situations without undue psychological harm.
Frustration; An unpleasant state of tension engendered by being blocked from attaining a goal or gratification; also, the process of blocking motivated behaviour, also, the emotional response to blocking the goal. Frustration-aggression hypothesis; A theory proposed by Dollard and Miller, according to which the only cause of aggression is frustration. Further, that frustration always leads to some kind of aggressive reaction, whether explicit or implicit. Fugue state; A defense by actual flight; that is, a neurotic dissociative reaction in which a person has amnesia for the past, but avoids the anxiety associated with such loss of identity. This is accomplished by developing a new identity and fleeing from the intolerable situation. An individual's activities during the fugue could range from spending a great deal of time in movie theaters to starting a completely new life. Fugue; See dissociative fugue. Functional autonomy; As developed by Airport, a situation in which a response which was made originally to satisfy some motive becomes intrinsically motivating. Functional disorder; A malfunction or pathological condition without a known organic cause. Functional fixedness; In problem-solving, a tendency Or mental set in which one considers only the common uses of objects, rather than the possibilities for novel or unusual functions. Functional invariant; As termed by Piaget, those aspects of human interaction with the environment those are unchanging as the individual develops. The functional invariants of adaptation are assimilation and accommodation, since the processes of assimilating and accommodating remain constant as the child develops. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI); Modification of magnetic resonance imaging (MR1) which allows researchers to take pictures of the brain so quickly that metabolic changes can be measured, resulting in a picture of the brain at work rather than its structure alone. Functional psychoses; Psychotic reactions that are provoked by psychological or experiential influences and have no demonstrable bodily origin. Functional social support; The quality of a person's relationships, for example, a good versus a distressed marriage. Contrast with structural social support. Functionalism; Early school of psychological thought which emphasized how conscious behaviour helps one adapt to the environment and the role learning plays in this adaptive process. This school of thought held that the mind should be studied in terms of its usefulness to the organism in adapting to its environment. Functioning; As termed by Piaget, the processes by which an organism adapts to its environment. These processes are known as assimilation and accommodation. Fundamentalattribution error; The tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behaviour, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition. Fundamental; (1) In audition, the lowest frequency in a compound tone. (2) In perception, hues that make up the primaries for any given theory of colour vision. (3) In industrial psychology, a skill needed "before further skills can be learned. Gfactor; Spearman's construct for a hypothetical factor, presumably measured by a test of general intelligence, which affects performance on a variety of different tasks (as opposed to specific aptitudes). Galvanic skin response (GSR); A change in the electrical resistance of the skin as detected by a sensitive galvanometer. The GSR has been correlated with emotional states, strain, and tension.
Gamete; The mature reproductive cell; specifically, the sperm or the egg. Ganglion cells; Neurons in the retina connecting bipolar cells to relay areas in the brain; axons of ganglion cells form the optic nerve. Gastrointestinal system (g.i.); Extends from the hps to the anus, including the stomach and intestines. Gate control theory of pain; The theory that suggests that particular nerve receptors lf to specific areas of the brain related to pain; when these receptors are activated by an input? or bodily malfunction, a "gate" to the brain is opened and pain is sensed. Gender identity disorders; A strong and persistent cross-gender identification, which is the desire to be, that one is, of the other sex, with persistent discomfort about one's assigned sex or a sense of inappropriateness in the gender role of that sex. Gene; An ultramicroscopic area of the chromosome; the gene is the smallest physical unit of the DNA molecule that carries a piece of hereditary information. General adaptation syndrome (GAS); Hans Selye's model to describe the biological reaction of an organism to sustained and unrelenting stress; there are several stages, culminating in death in extreme circumstances. General habit; The learned tendency which results in a person's maintaining the same relationship between corresponding stimuli and responses in a class of situations. General intelligence; A trait postulated to account for the positive relation found between many different kinds of tests of abilities and achievement. General motive; Motives, that have in common an abstract goal, which involve diverse activities arid situations. Generality of results; The issue of whether or not a particular experimental result will be obtained under different circumstances, such as with a different subject population or in a different experimental setting. Generalization; (1) The application of a response to a whole class or group after having been, conditioned to respond in that way to a limited portion of the class or group. (2) Of or relating to forming an idea or judgment which is applicable to an entire class of objects, people, or events. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD); In this anxiety disorder, anxiety is so chronic, persistent, and pervasive that it seems free-floating. The individual is jittery and strained, distractible, and worried that something bad is about to happen. A pounding heart, fast pulse and breathing, sweating, flushing, muscle aches, a lump in the throat, and an upset gastrointestinal tract are some of the bodily indications of this extreme anxiety. Generalized reinforcement; A form of secondary reinforcement that is not specifically related to any single need state, such as praise, smiling, and thanks. Generative grammar; As developed by Noam Chomsky, the concept that linguistic utterances are learned through general rules which allow for great variety and originality in linguistic production. Generativity; In E. Erikson's personality theory, the positive outcome of one of the stages of adult personality development, specifically, the ability to do creative work or to contribute to the raising of one's children. It is the opposite of stagnation. Genetic model; The point of view that presents behaviour and development is to be understood in terms of heredity and developmental history.
Genetic opportunity; The likelihood of having an experience which influences a given trait as a function of the expression of another genetic trait not related to the first. For example, the genetic trait of skin colour influences the opportunity to have experiences which may influence IQ test performance. Genetic transmission; The processes involved in passing genetic material from one generation to the next. Genetics; The study of the transmission of hereditary characteristics as it relates to evolutionary theory. Genital period; In Freudian psychoanalytic theory, the final psychosexual stage beginning with puberty at approximately the age of 11, during which sexual interest is shifted from autoeroticism to heterosexuality by involvement with normal adult modes of sexual gratification. Genotype; An individual's unobservable, genetic constitution; the totality of genes possessed by an individual. Compare phenotype. Genuineness; In client-centered therapy, an essential quality of-the therapist, referring to openness and authenticity. Geriatric; A specialization in the treatment of diseases of old age. Germ cells; Reproductive cells during any stage of their development. In the female, the egg; in the male, the sperm. Germ theory (ofdisease); The general view in medicine that disease is caused by infection of the body by minute organisms and viruses. Germinal period; The first two weeks of the prenatal period, during which the blastula forms. Gestalt psychology; Founded by Max Wertheimer, the basic premise is that "the whole is greater than the sum of its parts." Gestalt psychology not only contends that stimuli are perceived as whole images rather than as parts built into images, but' also maintains that the whole determines the parts instead of the parts determining the whole. The theory originally focused on perception, however, is applicable to a broad range of areas. Gestalt therapy; A humanistic therapy developed by Fritz Perls, which encourages clients to satisfy emerging needs so that their innate goodness can be expressed, to increase their awareness of unacknowledged feelings, and to reclaim parts of their personality that have been denied or disowned. Gestalt; The term has no exact equivalent in English. The approximate English equivalents are configuration, meaningful organized whole, structural relationship, and theme. Gestation; The prenatal phase of life lasting an average of 266 days in humans. Gland; A bodily structure whose function is to manufacture chemicals, called hormones, that are secreted into the bloodstream and regulate bodily activities. The two general types are endocrine glands and exocrine glands. Glove anesthesia; A lack of sensation in the part of the arm that would be covered by a glove. One of the conversion disorders. Goal gradient; The tendency for motivation to increase or decrease as the organism approaches the goal. Goal specificity; The desire to satisfy a motive condition with a particular reinforcement rather than with any satisfying reinforcement. Goal; In motivation, the satisfier of a motive condition. Gonad; The primary sex gland, ovaries in the female and testes in the male. Good form; A Gestalt principle of organization which asserts that figures or patterns are perceived in such a way as to be as uniform as possible.
Goodenough Draw-a-Man Test; A test of intelligence in which one is asked to draw the best possible picture of a man; primarily used with children up to age 11. Grade norm; A standard of performance which represents the average performance of a given population. Graded potential; The sum of the excitation and inhibition at a given synapse; generator potential; receptor potential. Gradient ofstimulus generalization; Mathematical curve that illustrates the degree of generalization between various stimuli. Generally, the closer the stimuli to the conditioned stimulus, the greater the response. Grandiose delusions; Found in paranoid schizophrenia, delusional disorder, and mania, an exaggerated sense of one's importance, power, knowledge, or identity. Graphic rating scale; A rating scale in which the rater indicates his rating by making a mark at some point along a line. Selected points on the line are characterized by evaluative adjectives or descriptions of the quality of behaviour represented. Graves' disease; An endocrine disorder resulting from over secretion of the hormone thyroxin, in which metabolic processes are speeded up, producing apprehension, restlessness, and irritability. Gray matter; The neural tissue made up largely of nerve cell bodies that constitutes the cortex covering the cerebral hemisphere, the nuclei in lower brain areas, columns of the spinal cord, and the ganglia of the autonomic nervous system. Grimace; A distorted facial expression, often a symptom of schizophrenia. Group factors; (1) Psychological factors postulated to account for interrelations of groups of tests; typically numerical, clerical, verbal, spatial, etc. (2) In factor analysis, any factor that is manifested in at least two tests that constitutes the correlation matrix. Group polarization; The enhancement of a group's prevailing attitudes through discussion. Group pressure; The effect that the opinions, feelings, exhortations, or behaviour of groups has on a single individual. Group therapy; Method of treating psychological disorders whereby several persons are seen simultaneously by a single therapist. Group-rcentered therapy; The term applied to the system of group therapy developed by Carl Rogers and associates in which the individuals in the group rather than the therapist has the primary role in the therapeutic relationship. Grouping; The tendency to perceive objects in groups, rather than as isolated elements; is determined by proximity, similarity, good form, and continuity. Growth curve; A statistical curve derived from plotting weight and height against chronological age for comparison of an individual child's growth pattern with the average rate of growth. Growth therapies; Therapies aimed at helping an individual achieve maximum self-actualization. Growth; Ordinarily refers to such physical changes as increasing height or weight; quantitative growth. GSR; See Galvanic Skin Response. Gyrus; A ridge or convolution of the cerebral cortex. Habit; An acquired response that becomes fixed and relatively automatic through constant repetition.
Habituation; Decreased response to a stimulus because it has become familiar. It is often a condition resulting from repeated use of a drug and characterized by a desire for the drug; little or no tendency to increase the dose; and psychological, but not physical, dependence. Hair cells; Receptor cells possessing cilia (tiny hairs) such as the auditory receptor cells located in a membrane in the cochlea that are stimulated by vibrations in the cochlear fluid. Halfway house; A homelike residence for people who are considered too disturbed to remain in their accustomed surroundings but do not require the total care of a mental institution. Hallucination; Perception of an external object, often bizarre in nature, in the absence of stimulation. Hallucinogenic drugs; A group of drugs also known as psychedelic drugs and psychoto-genic drugs, that produce hallucinations and often provoke highly imaginative thought patterns and/or unusual and mixed perceptions. Halo effect; The tendency, when rating an individual on one characteristic, to be influenced by another characteristic of his personality, e.g. physically attractive people are more likely to be judged as intelligent than unattractive people. Haptic system; The perceptual system whereby object properties are perceived through active touch. It includes the tactile sense as well as proprioception. Hawthorne effect; Generally, the effect on subjects' performance attributable to their knowledge that they are serving as experimental subjects or being treated in a special manner. Sometimes, the tendency for people to work harder when experiencing a sense of participation in something new and special. Head turning reflex; A reflex elicited in the infant by stroking his cheek or the corner of his mouth. The infant turns his head toward the side being stimulated. Health psychology; A branch of psychology dealing with the role of psychological factors in health and illness. Hebephrenia; See disorganized schizophrenia. Hedonic tone; The affective quality of an emotion; degree of pleasantness or unpleasantness of an-emotion; a basic dimension of all emotions. Hedonic value; The value of a stimulus or an experience on a scale from pleasant to unpleasant. Hedonic; The motivation to seek pleasure and avoid pain. Helplessness; A construct referring to the sense of having no control over important events; considered by many theorists to play a central role in anxiety and depression. See learned helplessness theory. Hemisphere; Symmetrical left and right halves of the brain. Hereditary factors; Those inherited biological factors that are involved in the development of the structure and function of the body. Hering theory; Theory of colour vision postulating six primaries, black-white, red-green, and blue-yellow in three opponent process pairs. Heritability; A statistical concept which reflects the percentage of variability in a trait that is associated with differences in the genetic composition of the individuals in the group. The capability of being inherited. Heroin; An extremely addictive narcotic drug derived from morphine. Hertz (Hz); A frequency measurement of cycles per second. One Hz equals one cycle per second, etc. Heterogeneous; Dissimilar, characteristic of groups, sets of data, or individuals who show differences or dissimilarities.
Heteronomy; An intermediate stage in Bull's scheme of moral development in which the individual responds to situations primarily by their effect on him or herself. Also, pertaining to activities originating outside the self or the guidance of one individual by another (e.g., hypnosis). Heterophony; Speaking or writing the opposite of what is intended. Heterosexuality; An attraction toward members of the opposite sex. Heterozygous; Refers to an individual who has both one dominant and one recessive gene for a given trait. Heuristic; A principle or strategy used in problem solving which serves as a device for shortening the solution process; often used when there are many different ways to solve a problem; a solution is not guaranteed. Hierarchical model of intelligence; The view that intelligence is hierarchically structured with general intelligence, group factors, specific factors, and, finally, specific information in an interdependent system. Hierarchization; A term used in linguistics to suggest that in the course of development, the child's linguistic abilities build upon and elaborate upon constructions made at earlier phases of development. Hierarchy of needs; A proposal (Abraham Maslow) that arranges motives in an order of importance; those lower in the hierarchy must be The lower motives being food, shelter, etc. progressing to "self-actualization" as the motive highest in the hierarchy. Hierarchy of skill; A task that displays several levels of organization or structure. Performance curves often show interesting evidence of such structure. Higher order interaction; Interaction effects involving more than two independent variables in multifactor experiments, often making interpretation difficult. Higher-order conditioning; A form of classical conditioning in which the previously trained conditioned stimulus now functions as an unconditioned stimulus to train a new conditioned stimulus. High-risk method; A research technique involving the intensive examination of people who have a high probability of later becoming abnormal. Hindbrain; Phylogenetically, the oldest portion of the brain. It contains the medulla, cerebellum, pons, and base of the reticular formation. Also known as the rhomb encephalon. Hippocampus; A neural center in the limbic system that helps process explicit memories for storage. Histogram; A graphic representation of a frequency distribution in which the cases falling in each score category are represented by a bar whose size is proportional to the number of cases. Since each bar is the full width of the score category, the bars make a continuous "pile" chewing the form of the frequency distribution. Histrionic personality disorder; This person is overly dramatic and given to emotional excess, impatient with minor annoyances, immature, dependent on others, and often sexually seductive without taking responsibility for flirtations; formerly called hysterical personality. Hit; The correct detection of a signal that has been presented; usually associated with signal-detection. Holophrases; A term used in linguistics to describe the phenomena wherein a young child will use a single word in the sense of a phrase or sentence. "Musa" can mean "Pick Musa up" or "Give Mass, same water," Ana" so on.
Homeostasis; state of optimal organismic balance, brought about by internal regulatory mechanisms. Homogeneous; Highly similar; coming from the same background. For example, a homogeneous culture is, one in which all members have had highly similar experiences. Homozygous; Refers to an individual whose two genes for a given trait are both either dominant or recessive. Hope of failure; A desire for failure; not as well investigated as hope of success or fear of failure or success. Horizontal decalage; A term introduced by Piaget to describe the fact that conservation of different quantities occurs at different times,' even though all conservations require the same mental operations for their attainment. For example, number conservation is routinely observed to appear before length conservation. Hormone; A chemical substance produced by an endocrine gland and released into the blood or lymph for the purpose of controlling the function of a distant organ or organ system. Metabolism, growth, and development of secondary sexual characteristics are among the functions so controlled. Hospitalism; A medical name for the syndrome (configuration of symptoms) associated with the inability of infants to survive in children's homes or hospitals. Symptoms of hospitalism include list-lessness, inability to gain weight, unresponsiveness, and eventual death. Hostility; Angry, hateful, or destructive behaviour against another. Also the motive behind this behaviour. Hue; That aspect of colour experience referred to by colour names, e.g., blue or yellow. Hue is the psychological correlate of wavelength. Humanengineering; The applied field of psychological specialization concerned with the design of equipment and the tasks performed in the operation of equipment. Humanism; In psychology, a recent movement in personality and clinical psychology that focuses uniquely upon human experience, rather than abstract conceptions of human nature. There is an emphasis on positive, constructive human capacities. Humanistic and existential therapies; A generic term for insight psychotherapies that emphasize the individual's subjective experiences, free will, and ever-present ability to decide on a new life course. Humanistic psychology; Psychology based on humanistic principles (see Humanism). Humanistic therapy; An insight therapy that emphasizes freedom of choice, growth of human potential, the joys of being a human being, and the importance of the patient's phenomenology; sometimes called an experiential therapy. See also existential therapy. Humanitarianism; Concern with the welfare of man. Hunger; A drive state or tissue need based on the deprivation of food; also, the feelings associated with such deprivation, Huntington's chorea; A disorder characterized by progressive mental and physical deterioration and death, usually after the age of 20 or 30. Huntington's chorea is caused by a dominant gene and is always fatal. Hydraulic drive model of motivation; A belief that motives or tensions behave like fluid under pressure that must break out or find release when the pressure builds up and becomes too great. Hypermania; A manic-depressive state of excitement characterized by ravings, continuous movement, and disorientation as to time and place.
Hyperopia; Farsightedness. The inability to see near objects clearly because the image is focused behind the retina instead of on it. Hyperphagia; Condition in which an animal eats, abnormally large amounts of food and shows no satiation of hunger, produced experimentally by destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamic nucleus. Hypertension; Abnormally high arterial blood pressure, with or without known organic causes. Hyperventilation; Very rapid and deep breathing associated with high levels of anxiety; causes the level of carbon dioxide in blood to be lowered, with possible loss of consciousness. Hypnagogic imagery; Imagery that occurs as one is dropping off to sleep. It may be visual, auditory, or somesthetic, and is more vivid in some people than in others. Hypnoanalysis; Psychoanalysis carried on while the patient is under hypnosis. Hypnosis; A technique (or group of techniques) for inducing an altered state of consciousness. It is characterized by increased suggestibility, relaxation or alertness, and possible distortion of reality. Hypochondriasis', A somatoform disorder in which the person, misinterpreting rather ordinary physical sensations, is preoccupied with fears of having a serious disease and is not dissuaded by medical opinion. Difficult to distinguish from somatization disorder. Hypomania; A manic-depressive state of excitement that is characterized by great enthusiasm and grandiose planning without any reality orientation. Hypothalamus; A group of nuclei in the forebrain that controls the involuntary functions through the autonomic nervous system. It helps to control many basic drives and emotional processes, including sleep, thirst, temperature, sex, and hunger. It also controls much of the endocrine system's activities through connections with the pituitary gland. Hypothesis theory; Describes problem solving as a matter of formulating, selecting, and testing hypotheses about possible solutions until the correct one is found. Hypothesis; A testable statement that offers a predicted relationship between dependent and independent variables. Hysteria; A disorder known to the ancient Greeks in which a physical incapacity a paralysis, an anesthesia, or an analgesia—is not due to a physiological dysfunction, for example, glove anesthesia; an older term for conversion disorder. In the late nineteenth century dissociative disorders were identified as such and considered hysterical slates. Hysterical neurosis; The DSM-II category for dissociative and somatoform disorders. Iconic memory; A transient visual memory of a stimulus lasting about 0.5 seconds. Iconic mode; As developed by Bruner, a method of converting immediate experience into mental models by using images in the form of sensory information. Id; According to Freud, the id is the most fundamental component of personality, comprised of drives, needs, and instinctual impulses. It is unable to tolerate tension, is obedient only to the pleasure principle, and is in outstand conflict with the super-ego. Ideal self; The way a person would like to be, which may not match the way one actually is. Idealism; A philosophical doctrine which affirms the pursuit of ideas and ideals rather than actuality or reality. Idealized self-image; As developed by Horney, a pattern of perfectionistic strivings and godlike fantasies which constitute the core of a neurosis. The idealized image is a false and exaggerated estimate of one's true potentialities and abilities, and it is derived more from fantasy than from reality. Ideas of reference; Delusional thinking that reads personal significance into seemingly trivial remarks and activities of others and completely unrelated events.
Identical twins; Two individuals that have developed as a result of the splitting of an already fertilized egg; thus, both individuals have identical chromosomal patterns. Also called monozygotic twins. Identification; (1) In psychoanalytic theory, the internalization of a conscience through contact with one's parent of the same sex, creating a superego; also, a defense machoism in which one incorporates the image of an object or individual into the psyche, taking the demands of an object or individual into the psyche and acting as if they were one's own. This is also called interjection. (2) In social psychology, the process through which someone is persuaded to a particular attitude because one has internalized the persuader's attitude. Also, the process by which people acquire a sense of personal definition from their reference group memberships. (3) According to E. Erikson, it is the process through which the infant learns a conviction of his or her self. This process is dependent on the mother's predictability and consistency in her relationship with the infant. Identity crisis; As proposed by Erikson, a period when one's sense of self and direction in life becomes clearer. It is marked by much confusion, experimentation, and emotionality. It generally occurs first during adolescence and may reoccur once or more often during adulthood. Identity vs role confusion; According to Erikson, a time in adolescence of testing to determine one's own unique qualities. Identity; (1) A logical rule specifying that certain activities leave objects or situations unchanged. (2) The individual self-Idiographic;
