Probation closure Exam Sample Papers for CIL

TEST PAPER

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q1. Which of the following equipments are chain mounted? (a) Side Discharge Loader (SDL) (b) Load Haul Dump (LHD) (c) Both (d) None Q2. Which of the following is a Mass Production technology for UG? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) PSLW (d) All Q3. Which of the following equipments can be tyre mounted? (a) Pay Loader (b) Grader (c) Dozer (d) All Q4. Which of the following company has deployed the largest size Shovel-Dumper combination (42cum + 240T) in CIL? (a) SECL (b) MCL (c) CCL (d) NCL Q5. Which OCP has deployed largest capacity shovel Dumper combination in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Jagannath (d) Piparwar Q6. What is the largest size of Rope Shovels in CIL? (a) 10cum (b) 20cum (c) 30cum (d) 42cum Q7. What is the largest size of Dumper in CIL? (a) 170T (b) 240T (c) 360T (d) 400T Q8. What is the largest size of Rope Shovel in the World? (a) 63cum (b) 50cum (c) 42cum (d) 35cum Q9. What is the bucket size of the largest Dragline designed in the World? (a) 168 cum (b) 150 cum (c) 100cum (d) 50cum Q10. What is the largest size of hydraulic Shovels in CIL? (a) 18cum (b)12cum (c) 11.5cum (d) 9.5cum Q11. What is the largest capacity of hydraulic Shovels in the World? (a) +25cum (b) +30cum (c) +40cum (d) +50cum Q12. What is the largest size of Drills in CIL ? (a) 381mm (b) 311mm (c) 250mm (d) 160mm Q13. What is the largest size of Dozer in CIL? (a) 450hp (b) 770 hp (c) 850hp (d) 410hp Q14. What is the full-form of LHD? (a) Load Haul Dump (b) Load Haul Dumper (c) Low Haul Dumper (d) Low Haul Dump Q15. Which of the following is a mass production technology for U.G.? (a) Longwall (b) SDL (c) LHD (d) Bord & Pillar Q16. Which of the following is an intermittent mining technology? (a) LHD & SDL (b) Longwall (c) Bord & Pillar (d) None Q17. What is the bucket capacity of the largest size of Dragline in CIL? (a) 24cum (b) 30 cum (c) 33 cum (d) 35 cum Q18. What is the bucket capacity of the largest capacity of Dragline in the world ? (a) 100cum (b) 55cum (c) 120cum (d) 122cum Q19. Where could you find High Wall Mining in CIL? (a) WCL (b)SECL (c)MCL (d) NCL Q20. Shortwall mining is used in which company? (a) SECL (b)MCL (c) WCL (d)NCL Q21. In which OCP, In-pit crushing & conveying is used? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (c) Jagannath Q22 What is the total number of Coal washeries in CIL ? (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 15 (d) 14 Q23. Which Subsidiary of CIL has Surface Miners equipments? (a) MCL (b) SECL (c) NCL (d) WCL

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(SECTION-I : Coal Mining Technology, Mining Equipments, Organisational Profile of CIL, Physical & Financial Performance of CIL and Coal & Coal Products)

TEST PAPER

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Q24. Surface Miners can be used in which face? (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None Q25. SDL & LHD in UG are used for …………………. (a) Transporting (b) Loading (c) Drilling (d) Cutting Q26. Which of the following mining technology does not need blasting ? (a) Surface Miner (b) Longwall (c) Bucket wheel Excavator (BWE) (d) All Q27. Which of the following is a continuous mining method? (a) Continuous Miner (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) All of the above Q28. What is LTC Coke ? (a) Low Temperature Carbonization Coke (b) Low Thermal Coking Coke (c) Light Thermal Coking Coke (d) Low Temperature CoalIndia Coke Q29. Which of the following is a type of coking coal ? (a) Prime Coking (b) Medium Coking (c) Semi Coking (d) All of the above Q30. What are the grades of NEC Coal ? (a) A only (b) B only (c) A &B (d) C&D Q31. Which of the following industries use coke ? (a) Steel Plants (b) Cement Plants (c) Brick Kiln (d) Power Plants Q32. Which of the following can be used in any gradient in UG Coal Mining? (a) SDL (b) LHD (c) Bord & Pillar (d) Longwall Q33. Which of the following is not an UG equipment ? (a) LHD (b) SDL (c) BWE (d) PSLW Q34. Which of the following is not a Open Cast equipment ? (a) Shovel-Dumper (b) Surface Miner (c) Bucket Wheel Excavator (d) Road Header Q35. When did CIL get Maharatna status? (a) 11th April 2011 (b) 11th April 2008 (c) 11th April 2007 (d) 11th April 2010 Q36. Which is the 5th company to get Maharatna status? (a) ONGC (b) IOC (c) SAIL (d) CIL Q37. What is the total manpower of CIL as on 1st March 2011? (a) 3.84 lakh (b) 3.85 lakh (c) 3.87 lakh (d) 4.00 lakh Q38. What is the total number of mines in CIL as on 1 st.April 2011? (a) 470 (b) 471 (c) 472 (d) 473 Q39. After proposed expansion, which OCP will be largest in CIL? (a) Gevra (b) Dipika (c) Piparwar (d) Jagannath Q40. Name the joint ventures established by MCL? (a) MJSJ (b) MNH (c) Both (d) None Q41. CIL has established a foreign Subsidiary (CIAL) in……………. (a) Mozambique (b) Indonesia (c) Australia (d) America Q42. What does CIAL stand for ? (a) Coal India America Ltd. (b) Coal India Africa Limited (c) Coal India Africana Limitada (d) CIL International Africa Ltd. Q43. Which of the following is a Subsidiary of CIL ? (a) CIAL (b) NEC (c) NLC (d) SCCL Q44. Which type of coal is classified mainly on the basis of calorific value? (a) Coking Coal (b) Non-Coking Coal (c) Semi Coking Coal (d) NEC Coal Q45. Primarily on what basis the Coking Coal is classified? (a) Calorific Value (b) Ash Content (c) Sulphur Content (d) Moisture Content Q46. Which is the only coalfield in India which is spread between two states as well as two companies? (a) Raniganj (b) Jharia (c) Singrauli (d) Central India Coalfields Q47. NEC coal has a distinct characteristic of …….. (a) High Sulphur (b) High Ash (c) High Volatile Matter (d) High Moisture By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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TEST PAPER Q48. What are the characteristic of imported coal ? (a) Low ash & moisture (b) High Sulphur (c) Both (d) None Q49. High Wall Mining can be classified as …………… (a) OC Mining Technology (b) UG Mining Technology (c) Hybrid Mining Technology (d) Other Mining Technology Q50. Surface Miner in CIL is used for ……….. (a) Coal (b) OB (c) Both (d) None Q51. Coal Handling Plants (CHP) are used for ? (a) Coal Transportation (b) Coal Loading (c) Coal Crushing (d) All Q52. The Largest Dragline in CIL (33cum) has been ordered by which Company? (a) NCL (b) SECL (c) MCL (d) WCL Q53. What is the ideal standard dumper for 20cum shovel? (a) 170T (b) 100T (c) 120T (d) 150T Q54. What is the total coal washing capacity of CIL as on 1 st.April 2011? (a) 39.4MT (b) 20.4MT (c) 30.4MT (d) 50.4MT Q55. What is the Net Profit (PAT) of CIL during 2010-11? (a) Rs.10,867 Cr. (b) Rs.8,067 Cr. (c) Rs.9,867 Cr. (d) Rs.11,867 Cr. Q56. Under New Coal Distribution Policy (NCDP), Coal is sold by CIL through …… (a) Fuel Supply Agreement (FSA) (b) Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) (c) E-Auction (d) All of the above Q57. Which of the following equipments are used in Longwall Mining ? (a) Shearer (b) Road Header (c) Stage Loader-crusher (d) All of the above Q58. Which of the following equipments are used with Continuous Miner ? (a) Shuttle Cars (b) Twin/quad Bolter (c) Feeder Breaker (d) All of the above Q59. Which of the following equipments are used for mine development for PSLW ? (a) Continuous Miner only (b) Road Header only (c) Either (d) None Q60. What are the benefits of Longwall Mining ? (a) Higher Productivity (b) Higher Recovery of coal (c) Safety & Reliability (d) All of the above Q61. Shuttle Cars in UG is used for transportation of…………………… (a) Coal (b) Manpower (c) Machine (d) All of the above Q62. By which UG mining method, 75% coal recovery can be achieved ? (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Continuous Miner (c) Longwall (d) None of the above Q63. Which of the following is the most common cause of accidents in UG mines ? (a) Roof & side fall (b) Explosion (c) Fire (d) Water inundation Q64. What is the key driver for change in mining technology ? (a) Improving Productivity (b) Quality Improvement (c) Environmental Issues (d) All of the above Q.65 Bucket Wheel Excavators in India are used for mining of………….. (a) Coal (b) Lignite (c) Both (d) All of the above Q66. What is the share of coal in primary energy consumption of India ? (a) 52.40% (b) 62.40% (c) 72.40% (d) 82.40% Q67. What will be gap between Demand & coal Production during 2011-12 ? (a) 93.33MT (b) 75.33MT (c) 83.33MT (d) 65.33MT Q68. How many coalfields in India are not currently under production ? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Q69. What will be demand of coal during 2011-12 ? (a) 713.33MT (b) 680.33MT (c) 550.34MT (d) 100.34MT Q70. What is the share of UG in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 13% Q71. What is the share of coking coal in total coal production of CIL ? (a) 11.4% (b) 10.4% (c) 9.4% (d) 8.4%

TEST PAPER Q72. What is the coal production target of CIL for 2011-12? (a) 452MT (b) 442MT (c) 432MT (d) 462MT Q73. How much coal was produced by CIL in 2010-11? (a) 431.33MT (b) 441.33MT (c) 451.33MT (d) 421.33MT Q74. What is the share of power sector in total coal off-take of CIL? (a) 70% (b) 75% (c) 80% (d) 90% Q75. When was the coal prices last revised by CIL ? (a) February 2011 (b) December 2010 (c) December 2009 (d) April 2011 Q76. What is the size of Steam Coal ? (a) 0 to 50mm (b) 25 to 50mm (c) 50 to 200mm & above (d) Unscreened coal of all sizes Q77. Which state has the largest coal reserves ? (a) Orissa (b) Jharkhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhatisgarh Q78. What is the share of coal in electricity generation of India ? (a) 69.25% (b) 79.25% (c) 89.25% (d) 59.25% Q79. Coal Exploration in India is done by………….. (a) Geological Survey of India (GSI) (b) Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited (MECL) (c) Central Mine Planning & Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) (d) All of the above Q80. Which of the following is a type of Coke ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Both (d) None Q81. What are the uses of coke ? (a) Cooking Fuel (b) Steel making (c) Both (d) None Q82. Coke can be made from which of the following type of Coal ? (a) Prime Coking Coal (b) Medium Coking Coal (c) Semi-Coking Coal (d) All Q83. Coal India Limited produces……………….. (a) Coal (b) Coke (c) Coal & Coke (d) Coal, Coke & Coal By-Products Q84. Which of the following is true about CIL-Coke ? (a) It is LTC Coke (b) It is Solid Smokeless Fuel (c) It is environment friendly (d) All of the above Q85. Which of the following is used in making steel ? (a) Hard Coke (b) Soft Coke (c) Coking Coal (d) All of the above Q86. Which of the following is the best quality coal ? (a) Peat (b) Lignite (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite Q87. Dankuni Coal Complex(DCC) is under the administrative control of ……………. (a) CIL (b) ECL (c) BCCL (d) SECL Q88. What is the product of Dankuni Coal Complex (DCC) (a) Coke (b) Coal Tar (c) Coal Gas (d) All of the above

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……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(d), 04(a), 05(a), 06(d), 07(b), 08(a), 09(a), 10(a), 11(d), 12(a), 13(c), 14(a), 15(a), 16(a), 17(b), 18(d), 19(b), 20(a), 21(c), 22(a), 23(a), 24(c), 25(b), 26(d), 27(d), 28(a), 29(d), 30(c), 31(a), 32(c), 33(c), 34(d), 35(a), 36(d), 37(a), 38(a), 39(a), 40(c), 41(a), 42(c), 43(a), 44(b), 45(b), 46(a), 47(a), 48(c), 49(d), 50(a), 51(d), 52(a), 53(a), 54(a), 55(a), 56(d), 57(d), 58(d), 59(c), 60(d), 61(a), 62(c), 63(a), 64(d), 65(b), 66(a), 67(c), 68(a), 69(a), 70(b), 71(d), 72(a), 73(a), 74(c), 75(a), 76(c), 77(b), 78(a), 79(d), 80(c), 81(c), 82(d), 83(d), 84(d), 85(a), 86(d), 87(d), 88(d). …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP), Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected] …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

TEST PAPER (SECTION-II : Common Coal Cadre, CDA Rules, Leave Rules, NCWA-VIII, HRA etc)

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Q1. How many days of Special Leave is permissible as per CIL leave rules ? (a) 2 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 month Q2. How many days of Casual Leave can be taken at a time ? (a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 4 days (d) 8 days Q3. How may days of Maternity Leave is admissible to the female executives ? (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 180 days Q4. How may days of Earned Leave is encashable at the time of retirement ? (a) 240 days (b) 280 days (c) 300 days (d) None of the above Q5. Special Disability Leave is granted for following reasons. (a) Disease arising out of employment (b) General disease (c) Injury while on duty (d) a & c Q6. How may days of special casual leave is granted for attending Seminar/conference by Union representative ? (a) 5 days (b) 8 days (c) 10 days (d) None Q7. How may days of Transit Leave is granted in case of change of station from one place to another ? (a) 8 days (b) 9 days (c) 6 days (d) None Q8. Minimum year of service required for eligibility of Study Leave. (a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 8 years (d) 2 years Q9. Nurses are give allowances at the rate of………….. (a) Rs.400/-pm (b) Rs.200/-pm (c) Rs.300/-pm (d) Rs.500/-pm Q10. The following Discipline is a sensitive discipline as per transfer policy of CIL (a) Security (b) Sales & Marketing (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q11. As per transfer policy, the executive belonging to sensitive posts is to be transferred on completion of………….. (a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 3 years (d) 5 years Q12. The period of salary revision in case of Executives is…………. (a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 8 years (d) 4 Q13. The non-practicing allowance is given at ………….. of basic to Executives of Medical discipline. (a) 20% (b) 17.5% (c) 30% (d) 10% Q14. The anniversary date of increment in case of Executives is………….. (a) Anniversary date of last promotion (b) 1st.September st (c) 1 .April (d) 1st.July Q15. The normal period of completion of cadre in a particular grade is……… (a) 5 years (b) 3 years (c) 7 years (d) 2 years Q16. The EER of an Executive can be assessed by Reporting officer if the Executive has worked under him for…………… (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 4 months (d) 8 months Q17. The notice period in case of resignation of an Executive is………………….. (a) 2 months (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 4 months Q18. If the date of birth of an Executive is 1st.January 1952,When will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.Dec 2011 (b) 1st.Jan 2012 (c) 31st.Jan 2012 (d) 1st.Dec 2011 Q19. Which of the following clause of CDA Rule relates to outside influence? (a) Clause 5.5 (b) Clause 5.7 (c) Clause 21 (d) Clause 10 Q20. The rate of subsistence allowance payable to an Executive for first 6 months is………………. of basic. (a) 75% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% Q21. Which of the following is a minor penalty ? (a) Withholding Increment (b) Lowering stage of pay (c) Suspension (d) Demotion Q22. An Executive can file Appeal before the Appellate Authority within …………of receipt of order of penalty. (a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 45 days (d) 7 days By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q23. In case of Non-executive the total leave encashable at the time of retirement is……………. (a) 100 days (b) 120 days (c) 150 days (d) 140 days Q24. Under the Life Cover Scheme, what amount is paid to the dependent of the deceased ? (a) Rs.30,000/(b) Rs.50,000/(c) Rs.60,000/(d) Rs.40,000/Q25. What is the eligibility criteria for payment of gratuity ? (a) 5 years (b) 15 years (c) 10 years (d) 20 years Q26. For how many workers canteen is to maintained under the Mines Act ? (a) 500 (b) 300 (c) 250 (d) 350 Q27. What is the maximum limit of EL that can be encashed by an Executive in a calendar year ? (a) 30 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 45 days Q28. What was the minimum wage per day of Daily Rated Employee under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.359.46 (b) Rs.369.47 (c) Rs.345.34 (d) 379.46 Q29. The Management Trainees are entitled for which of the following leaves ? (a) EL, HPL & CL (b) CL & Sick Leave (c) EL & CL (d) CL Q30. How much HRA is given to a Non-Executive under NCWA-VIII ? (a) Rs.75/-pm (b) Rs.90/-pm (c) Rs.100/-pm (d) Rs.150/-pm Q31. What is the rate of Transport Subsidy ? (a) Rs.8.50/day (b) Rs.7.50/day (c) Rs.9.50/day (d) Rs.10.50/day Q32. Under Reservation Policy, what is the reservation for OBC ? (a) 27% (b) 22.50% (c) 15% (d) 7.50% Q33. How many days of quarantine leave is granted? (a) 28days (b) 20days (c) 14days (d) 7days Q34. How many days of special leave can be granted to an Executive in his entire service period ? (a) 2months (b) 4months (c) 6months (d) 8months Q35. As per the Gratuity Act, the declaration of nominee is given in…………..form ? (a) Form K (b) Form I (c) Form F (d) Form D Q36. Fallback Wages are applicable to…………………… (a) Daily Rated (b) Monthly Rated (c) Piece Rated (d) Contractual Workers Q37. Under which circumstances, Ex-gratia is given ? (a) Death due to illness (b) Accidental Death on Duty (c) Normal death (d) All of the above Q38. What is the maximum ceiling for payment of Gratuity ? (a) Rs.10 lakh (b) Rs.5 lakh (c) Rs.3.5 lakh (d) Rs.7.5 lakh Q39. What is PRP ? (a) Performance Related Pay (b) Profit Related Perks (c) Productivity Related Pay (d) Performance Related Payment Q40. Which of the following are placed in E-1 Grade ? (a) Management Trainees (b) Subordinate Engineers (c) Officers (d) All Q41. From which date gratuity has been revised to Rs.10 lakhs ? (a) 1st Jan.2007 (b) 1st July’ 2007 (c) 1st Jan.2009 (d) 1st July ‘2006 Q42. Recruitment in CIL is done by which of the following methods ? (a) Campus selection (b) All India Written Test (c) Departmental Selection (d) All Q43. What is EER ? (a) Executive Evaluation Report (b) Executive Enquiry Report (c) Enquiry Evaluation Report (d) Executive Establishment Report Q44. Merit-cum-Seniority is a criteria used for……………… in CIL (a) Pay Fixation (b) Transfer (c) Promotion (d) All of the above Q45. In case of death, the family of deceased Executive can retain company’s quarter for…………. (a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months Q46. An Executive working in Ranch (“Y” class City) will get HRA at the rate of……… of basic ? (a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 20%

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TEST PAPER

TEST PAPER

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Q47. What does PBT stand for ? (a) Production By Tax (b) Production Before Tax (c) Profit Before Tax (d) Profit By Tax Q48. In Mining discipline, how much appointment is done through direct recruitment from outside ? (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 40% (d) 25% Q49. What is the rate of payment of monetary compensation in case of Executives ? (a) Rs.4,500/-pm (b) Rs.6,000/-pm (c) Rs.9,000/-pm (d) Rs.12,000/-pm Q50. If the date of birth of an Executive is 2nd.August 1952, when will he superannuate ? (a) 31st.August 2012 (b) 2nd.August 2012 st (c) 1 .August 2012 (d) 31st.July 2012 Q51. Which of the following is considered for calculation of Gratuity ? (a) Basic, DA, CFA (b) Basic, DA, NPA (c) Basic, DA (d) Basic Q52. Which of the following is a Major Penalty ? (a) Demotion (b) Suspension (c) Removal (d) All of the above Q53. Who will be chargesheet issuing authority for General Manager(Excavation) for minor penalty? (a) Chairman(CIL) (b) CMD (c) CVO (d) GM(P/EE) Q54. The period for revision of pay for Executives is………………… (a) 5 yrs. (b) 10 yrs. (c) 6 yrs. (d) 4 yrs. Q55.In case the delay in completing enquiry is due to the Executive concerned, his subsistence allowance will be……………… of basic? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% Q56. If an Executive avails CL, then his total absence from HQ should not exceed……… (a) 8 days (b) 6 days (c) 10 days (d) 12 days Q57. An Executive can apply for VRS if he has completed……… of service ? (a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years Q58. What is a PPO ? (a) Pension Payment Order (b) Performance Pay Order (c) Perks Pay Order (d) Production Purchase Order Q59. Under CMPS 1998, Disablement Pension is payable at the rate of…… of last 10 months average emoluments. (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% Q60. The corpus of CMPS 1998 is……………. (a) 2% of notional basic & DA (b) one additional increment (c) 1.16% of CMPF & Govt. share (d) All Q61. Name the statutory form for keeping details of employees under the Mines Act (a) Form D (b) Form A (c) Form B (d) Form C Q62.SLW is a term related to………………….. (a) Grant of promotion (b) Grant of one increment before retirement (c) Transfer Grant of Employee (d) Grant of Stagnation Increment Q63.What is the maximum number of HPL that can be encashed at the time of retirement? (a) 180 days (b) 240 days (c) 300 days (d) 360 days Q64. Which of the following is the beginning of Disciplinary Proceedings ? (a) Receipt of Complaint (b) Start of Investigation (c) Suspension (d) Contemplation of disciplinary action Q65. An Executive can be dismissed from service by……………. (a) CMD (b) Director(Personnel)/CIL (c) Chairman/CIL (d) CGM(Personnel)/CIL Q66. What was the minimum guaranteed benefits under NCWA-VIII ? (a) 24% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35% Q67. Which NCWA Agreement was of 4yrs & 6 months duration ? (a) NCWA-VI (b) NCWA-I (c) NCWA-IV (d) NCWA-V Q68. Which of the following Designation come under E-7 grade ? (a) Dy.GM (b) Chief Manager (c) Chief Medical Officer (d) All of the above By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

TEST PAPER Q69. Executive Director (Medical) comes under which grade ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 Q70. Which is the highest grade in pay scales of Executives ? (a) E-9 (b) E-8 (c) E-10 (d) E-7 ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(c), 02.(d), 03(d), 04(c), 05(d), 06(c), 07(c), 08(b), 09(b), 10(d), 11(c), 12(b), 13(b), 14(c), 15(b), 16(c), 17(c), 18(a), 19(c), 20(c), 21(a), 22(c), 23(d), 24(c), 25(a), 26(c), 27(c), 28(a), 29(b), 30(d), 31(b), 32(a), 33(b), 34(c), 35(c), 36(c), 37(b), 38(a), 39(a), 40(d), 41(a), 42d), 43(a), 44(c), 45(c), 46(d), 47(c), 48(a), 49(c), 50(a), 51(b), 52(d), 53(b), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(b), 60(d), 61(c), 62(b), 63(c), 64(d), 65(c), 66(a), 67(c), 68(d), 69(b), 70(a) ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………………..…… (SECTION-III : Coal Industry in India – A retrospect, Nationalisation of Coal Mines)

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Q1.Who initiated first commercial coal mining in India ? Ans.Warren Hastings at Raniganj (W.B.) in 1774. Q2.Who opened first Coal Mines in India and when ? Ans.Jhan Summer and Hitler of East India at Raniganj Coalfields on 11/08/1774. Q3.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q4.Who was the first Indian entrepreneur in Coal Mining in India? Ans.Prince Dwarkanath Tagore, relative of Rabindranath Tagore, CARR, Tagore & Co. in 1835 Q5.Which period was the first boom year of Indian Coal Industry & Why ? Ans 1907 & 1908 due to growth of JCF (Jharia Coalfields & completion of Grand Chord Line of East India Railway). Q6.When was first underground Coal Mining started in India ? Ans.1815 Q7.What was coal Production of India in 1942 & 1946? Ans.29 MT and 30 MT respectively. Q8. Write about NATIONALISATION OF INDIAN COAL MINES : Non Coking Coal Mines were nationalized in 31st Jan.1973 (effective from 01.05.1973) except captive mines of TISCO & IISCO. Accordingly, Coal Mines Authority Limited was established with HQr. at Kolkata. NCDC Mines also came in the ambit of CMAL. This was done by virtue of Coal Mines (taking over of Management ) Act, 1973 and Coal Mines Nationalization Act, 1973. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. Nationalisation was done to meet the growing energy demand of the company, to conserve coal and to promote safety and welfare of the employees. Q9.When was Coal India Limited Formed ? Ans. In 1975 CIL was formed as holding company with 5 subsidiaries (BCCL, CCL, WCL, ECL & CMPDIL. Q10.When was SECL and NCL formed ? Ans .In 1985 NCL and SECLwere carved out of CCL & WCL respectively. Q11.When was MCL formed? Ans..In 1992, MCL was carved out of SECL to manage Talcher & IB Valley coalfields. Q-12. After the formation of CMAL, NCDC Mines were kept under which zone of CMAL? Ans. Central Zone Q13.What is NCDC? When was it setup and why ? Ans.National Coal Development Corporation Ltd.(NCDC) was the first Govt. of India Undertaking Coal Company. It was set up in 1956 with 11 Railway owned coal mines for planned development of Coal Industry. Q14.What was coal production at the beginning of Ist 5 Year Plan (1951-56) ? Ans. 33 Mt. By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

TEST PAPER Q15.What was coal production at the end of 2nd. 5 year Plan (1956-61) & 3rd. 5 year Plan (1961-66) ? Ans.Total : 55.6 MT, NCDC 8.05 MT (1956-56) and Total : 67.72 MT, NCDC : 9.6 MT (1961-66). Q16.What role did NCDC play in Indian Coal Industry ? Ans.NCDC Played pioneering role in Indian Coal Industry by way of introduction of a.Large Scale Mechanisation b. Use of Modern Scientific Technique. c. Conservation of Coal d. Foreign Collaboration with Poland & USSR. e. Opening new Mines in MP, Orissan & Maharasthra Q17.When was Coal Industry nationalised and why ? Ans During IVth 5 Yr. Plan (1969-74) Coal Industry was nationalised in 2 phases :a.) Management of Coking Coal Mines was taken over by Govt. of India on 17 th Oct. 1971 &nationalisation was effective from 5th January, 1972. Bharat Coking Coal Limited was formed by virtue of Coking Coal Mines (Emergency provisions at 1971 and Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act 1972. This Act gives eligibility of Coal Mining in India. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q1.Which Nomenclature is used for grading of non-coking coal ? (a) Alphabetical (b) Numerical (c) Apha-Numeric (d) Roman Q2.What is the basis for grading of Non-coking coal ? (a) Ash (b) Moisture (c) Calorific Value (d) All of the above Q3.Which is the methodology for gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) UHV (b) GCV (c) Both (d) None Q4.Calorific value of coal means ? (a) Burning power of coal (b) Heating power of coal (b) Heat evolved by burning 1Kg coal (d) None of the above. Q5.UHV stands for ………… (a) Ultimate Heat Value (b) Useful Heat Value (c) Uniform Heat Value (d) Unilateral Heat Value Q6.The Empirical formula to derive UHV is ? (a) 8,900-138x(A+M) (b) 9,200-138x(M+A) (c) 8,900-140(A+M) (d) 7,70,-139(A+M) Q7.What is the disadvantage of UHV based coal gradation ? (a) Very easy to derive (b) It is not correct (c) It is formula based & not give correct value (d) All of the above Q8. Which of the following is the descending order of gradation of Non-coking coal ? (a) A,B,C,D,E (b) C,D,E,B,A (c) E,D,C,B,A (d) E,D,C,B,A Q9.GCV stands for ………… (a) Gross Calorific Value (b) Grim Calorific Value (c) Graceful Calorific Value (d) Great Calorific Value. Q10.What is the advantage of GCV based coal gradation ?. (a) It is very cumbersome (b) It is very simple (c) It does not require a lab (d) It is more correct

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(SECTION-IV : Categorisation of Coal, UHV, GCV,Grades of Coal etc.)

TEST PAPER Q11.What does long flame coal indicate ? (a) It has long flame on burning (b) It has bright flame on burning (c) It gives more heat (d) It has more volatile matter Q12.The permissible limit of ash in washed coal as per MoEF guidelines is………… (a) Less than or equal to 34% (b) Less than 38% (c) Less than 40% (d) Less than 45% Q13.The ash content(%age) is ….................... in higher quality coal. (a) more (b) less (c) constant (d) variable Q14.What is the unit in which heat value of coal is expressed ? (a) K,Cal/Kg (b) Cal/Kg (c) Kcal/te (d) Cal/te Q15.What is a Bomb Calorimeter? (a) An instrument to detect a bomb (b) An instrument to measure heat value (c) A musical instrument (d) A gas instrument ……………………………………………………………………………………….…………..…………… A N S W E R 01(a), 02.(c), 03(c), 04(b), 05(b), 06(a), 07(c), 08(a), 09(a), 10(c), 11(d), 12(a), 13(b), 14(a), 15(b). ……………………………………………………………………………………..………………………… (SECTION-V : Mining Technology – OC & UG, Mining Methods, Mining Machinery-OC & UG)

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Q1. What should be the number of Workmen’s Inspector in a large UG mine? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q2. Longwall mining method is best suitable for .. ? (a) Flat & moderately flat seam (b) Steeply inclined mine (c) Fractured & geologically disturbed seam (d) Seam with high capability index Q.3 Power pack is provided at Longwall face to give pressure to ….. (a) Powered support (b) Armored flexible conveyor (c) Double ended ranging drum sheave (d) Stage loader Q4. Over 90% of UG coal production in India comes from …. (a) Longwall method (b) Hydraulic Mining Method (c) Bord & Pillar Method (d) Blasting Gallery Method Q5. A road in a proper coal seam is called ? (a) Traveling road (b) Gallery (c) Drift (d) Haulage road Q6. The process that sends sand water mixture in UG coal depillaring district is called (a) Jigging operation (b) Granting separation operation (c) Stowing Method (d) Coal drawing operation Q7. Side discharge Loader (SDL) is a …… (a) Crawler mounted m/c (b) Tyre mounted m/c (c) Rail mounted m/c (d) Track mounted m/c Q8. Thick, regular & flat seam is extremely essential for … (a) Hydraulic Mining (b) Longwall Mining (c) Blasting Gallery (d) Bord & Pillar Q9. Which of the following equipment is very common for open casting/side casting? (a) Shovel (b) Dozer (c) Dragline (d) Payloader Q10. Name the machine which eliminates drilling, blasting in Open cast and has scope for selective mine ? (a) Dozer (b) Shovel (c) Dragline (d) Surface Continuous Miner Q11. Which of the following Excavator is suitable for 20-30 metres bench height in soft rock formation? (a) Dragline (b) Shovel (c) Payloader (d) Bucket Wheel Excavator By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q12. Filling up of the void in OC mines is known as … (a) OB Removal (b) Trenching (c) Reclamation (d) Salvaging Q13. Flame Safety Lamp is used for testing …………. (a) CO (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) H2S Q14. In which state small deposits of Anthracite coal is found? (a) J&K (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Assam (d) Gujarat Q15. Which of the indigenous firm manufacture SDL & LHD in India? (a) Joy Mining Machinery Co (b) Atlas Copeo (c) Eimco Elecon (d) Tractors India Ltd Q16. Road Header is used to drive ……………….. (a) Single heading (b) Double heading (c) Triple heading (d) Multiple heading Q17. A building where explosives & detonators are stored is called (a) Sheller (b) Magazine (c) Store (d) House Q18. Which is best quality coking coal ? (a) Steel grade –I (b) Steel grade –II (c) Washery grade –I (d) Washery grade –IV Q19. Which is the best quality Non-cocking coal ? (a) G (b) D (c) C (d) A Q.20 What is true about Universal Drilling Machine (UDM) ? (a) It is crawler mounted (b) It can drill in any direction (c) It can drill blast holes (d) All of the above Q21. UDM can drill in which of the following direction? (a) Horizontal (b) Vertical (c) Inclined (d) All directions Q22. Which is a mine transport system (a) Rope Haulage (b) Locomotive Haulage (c) Shuttle Car (d) All of above Q23. What is EMP ? (a) Environment Management Plan (b) Environment Management Project (c) Environment Management Programme (d) Environment Mine Plan Q24. Coke can not be made from …………………..…. (a) Lignite (b) Anthracite Coal (c) Sub-bituminous Coal (d) All Q25. What are the products of a coal washing ? (a) Washed Coal (b) Middling (c) Rejects (d) All Q26. Which of the following is not correct for Anthracite coal? (a) Small deposits in India is found in J&K (b) It is best quality coal (c) Best coke can be made from this coal (d) All of the above Q27. What is correct about Bituminous coal? (a) Coke can be made from this coal (b) It can be used as domestic fuel (c) It can be used in thermal power plant (d) All of the above Q28. Ultimate Analysis of coal gives percentage of…………………… present in coal. (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Sulphur (d) All of the above Q29. Proximate Analysis of coal gives percentage (by weight of) ………… present in coal. (a) Ash (b) Volatile Matter (c) Fixed Carbon (d) All of the above Q30. Name the type of coke manufactured by heating coking coal at 650 degree Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) Soft Coke (b) LTC Coke/CIL Coke (c) Both (d) Hard Coke Q31. Which of the following gases are common in Under Ground Mines ? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) All of the above Q32. What is the common name for Methane in Under Ground Coal Mines ? (a) Firedamp (b) Stinkdamp (c) Blackdamp (d) Whitedamp Q33.In which mine was fully mechanized Longwall Face with Powered Support was first introduced in India ? (a) Moonidih (BCCL) (b) Dhemo Main Colliery (ECL) (c) Pathakhera No.2 (WCL) (d) Ramagundam GDK (SCCL) By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

TEST PAPER Q34. Hard Coke is made by heating coking coal at …………….. Celsius temperature in absence of oxygen ? (a) 500 degree C (b) 100 degree C (c) 650 degree C (d) 1,000 – 1,100 degreeC Q35. Shortwall Mining is a variant of……………… (a) Bord & Pillar (b) Longwall (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ANSWER 1(c), 2(a), 3(a), 4(c), 5(b), 6(c), 7(a), 8(c), 9(c), 10(d), 11(d), 12(c), 13(c), 14(a), 15(c), 16(a), 17(b), 18(a), 19(d), 20(d), 21(d), 22(d), 23(a), 24(d), 25(d), 26(c), 27(d), 28(d), 29(d), 30(c), 31(d), 32(a), 33(a), 34(d), 35(c). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. (SECTION-VI : Basic Computer Skills, MS Office, Uses of Internet, E-Mail, Fax etc.)

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Q1. The First Generation computers were built using……………………… (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Vacuum Tubes & Transistors Q2. Present day computers are built using……………………. (a) Integrated Circuits (b) Vacuum Tubes (c) Transistors (d) Transistors & Integrated Circuits Q3. Which one of the following computers is classified under portable Computer ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Super computer (d) Laptop computer Q4. The Personal Computer is classified as……………. (a) Mini-Computer (b) Mainframe Computer (c) Super Computer (d) Micro-Computer Q5. Which of the following computers is compact in size & light weight ? (a) Mini computer (b) Mainframe computer (c) Laptop Computer (d) Personal computer Q6. What is CPU ? (a) Central Power Unit (b) Central Printing Unit (c) Central Processing Unit (d) Computer Power Unit Q7. The physical electronic parts of a Computer system is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q8. Which of the following input device is used for most of the computer games & for some business works? (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q9. DOS stands for ……………… (a) Direct Operating System (b) Double Operating System (c) Disk Operating System (d) Desk Operating System Q10. Which of the following computers has high processing speed ? (a) Mainframe Computer (b) Super Computer (c) Mini Computer (d) Micro Computer Q11. The brain of computer is a small chip called …………….. (a) RAM chip (b) ROM chip (c) Microprocessor Chip (d) Integrated circuit chip Q12. Which of the following is an output device ? (a) CPU (b) Mouse (c) Inkjet Printer (d) Light Pen Q13. Which of the following is an utility software ? (a) MS Excel (b) MS Word (c) MS Window95 (d) Antivirus Q14. Computer server is used for …….. (a) Data & source sharing (b) Only data sharing (c) Only source sharing (d) None Q15. What command is used in DOS to show date ? (a) Run date (b) Show date (c) Date (d) View date By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q16. Modern monitors are ………………… (a) SGA Monitor (b) VGA Monitor (c) SVGA Monitors (d) IGA Monitors Q17. The number of bits per second a modem can send or receive data is……………. (a) Transmission rate (b) Modem speed (c) Data Speed (d) Data rate Q18. While working in windows, the back side screen is called ……………. (a) Desktop (b) Front screen (c) Desk screen (d) Screen view Q19. Which of the following is a high speed non-impact printer ? (a) Inkjet Printer (b) Dot Matrix Printer (c) Laser Printer (d) Line Printer Q20. Which of the following is not an Input device ? (a) VDU (Monitor) (b) Keyboard (c) Mouse (d) Joystick Q21. The process of saving all settings & file in windows 97/98 before closing the computer is……… (a) Close down (b) Shut down (c) Turn down (d) Switch off Q22. A multimedia computer needs………….. (a) Personal computer (b) CD ROM drive (c) Sound card & speaker (d) All Q23. LAN stands for …………………… (a) Local Area Network (b) Land Area Network (c) Low Area Network (d) None Q24. The information stored in a disk is kept in …………… (a) Files (b) Directory (c) Sub-directory (d) None of the above Q25. What is PBXs ? (a) Private Branch Exchanges (b) Public Branch Exchanges (c) Personal Branch Exchanges (d) Private Band Exchanges Q26. Super computers are designed to process……….... (a) Accounting applications (b) Accounting and spread sheet applications. (c) Complex scientific applications (d) Design applications Q27. Computer system that is characterized by its very large size & very high processing speeds is called ………………….… (a) Mainframe computer (b) Super computer (c) Mini computer (d) Micro-computer Q28. A single user-oriented and general purpose micro computer is called……… (a) Computer (b) Personal computer (c) Personnel computer (d) General purpose computer Q29. The present day computers are… (a) First generation computers (b) Second generation computers (c) Third generation computers (d) Fourth generation computers Q30. Touch pad which is mostly used in Laptop Computer is an (a) Output device (b) Input device (c) Output & input device (d) Mouse pad Q31. SVGA stands for ……………….. (a) Super Video General Array (b) Super Very High Graphics Array (c) Super Video Good Array (d) Super Video Graphics Array Q32. An input device used extensively in may computer games as well as in certain professional applications is .. (a) Light Pen (b) Mouse (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard Q33. RAM is a ……………… (a) Volatile Memory (b) Non Volatile Memory (c) Secondary Memory (d) Permanent Memory Q34. Which one of the following is not a secondary memory? (a) RAM (b) HDD (c) CD ROM (d) FDD Q35. FDD stands for (a) Flexible Disk Drive (b) Format Disk Drive (c) Feed Disk Drive (d) Floppy Disk Drive Q36. A terminal built exactly like another terminal is called as (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand alone System (d) Remote computer Q37. A combination of keyboard and screen that has no local computing power, and used to input information to a mini computer or mainframe computer is called…… (a) Dumb Terminal (b) Intelligent Terminal (c) Stand along system (d) Remote Computer By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q38. The capacity of 3-1/2” FDD is………………….. (a) 720 KB (b) 1.2 MB (c) 1.0 MB (d) 1.44 MB Q39. Which one of the following is an output device? (a) CPU (b) Mouse (c) Inkjet printer (d) Light Pen Q40. 1 MB is equal to………….... (a) 1,024 Bytes x 1,024 Bytes (b) 1,000 Bytes x 1,000 Bytes (c) 1 MB X 1 KB (d) None Q41. 64 KB is equal to.. (a) 64 times 1,000 (b) 64 times 1,024 (c) 64 times 1 KB (d) 64 times 100 Q42. DOS stands for………... (a) Direct Operating System (b) Double Operating System (c) Disk Operating System (d) Desk Operating System Q43. The operating System which can perform multitasking, supports plug and play and allows long file name is…………………….. (a) Windows 3.1 (b) Windows 95/98 (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q44. DOS is a software required for … (a)Interaction with the computer by the user and access peripheral devices. (b)To carry out diagnosis of computer system (c)To switch on the computer (d) To shut down the computer Q45.An Operating System that supports more than one simultaneous user is…………… (a) Windows (b) UNIX (c) DOS (d) PC DOS Q46. The command to clear the screen in DOS is ……………..…. (a) Erase (b) Clear (c) Cls (d) Rub Q47. The command to delete a file in DOS is . . .. (a) Del (b) Delete `(c) Cut (d) Rub Q48. The command to make directory in DOS is ……….…. (a) Create (b) Mkdir (c) Make (d) Create Directory Q49. The Disk Operating system is used for …. (a) File Management (b) Arithmetic Calculations (c) Creating Drawings (d) Creating Graphs Q50. A batch file located in the root directory of start up disk which runs automatically every time the computer is started is called…………. (a) Cofig.sys (b) Autoexec.bat (c) Auto.exec (d) Dos.exe Q51. Any software stored in a form of read only memory is called………….. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Firmware (d) System Software Q52. A magnetic device which reads data sequentially is … (a) Magnetic tape (b) Hard disk (c) Floppy disk (d) CD ROM Q53. DEL *.PRG command in DOS deletes…………… (a) All the files (b) All files starting with PRG (c) All the files with extension PRG (d) All files with extension PRG in all directories Q54. Which one of the following is a correct file name in DOS? (a) I-ventory (b) I_vent (c) I ventory (d) I n v e n t o r y Q55. Windows Operating System controls … (a) All parts of the computer (b) Hard disk & keyboard only (c) Hard disk, keyboard & monitor only (d) Mouse & monitor only Q56. A write protected disk allows to……….. … (a) Copy a file (b) Delete all the files (c) To read a file without modification (d) To read & overwrite a file Q57. The best surface to roll the mouse is… (a) Table top (b) Mouse pad (c) Desk top (b) Book top Q58. A program intended to damage the computer system without user knowledge or permission is called………… (a) Virus (b) O/S Software (c) Application software (d) Utility Software By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

TEST PAPER

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]

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Q59. A software that removes and destroys computer virus is called … (a) Driver software (b) application software (c) O/S software (d) Anti virus software Q60. The most effective way to protect computer from virus infections is………….. (a) Shut off the computer (b) Remove floppy disk drive (c) Run Anti-virus program periodically (d) Disconnect the computer from Network Q61. Unauthorised access to the computer can be prevented by introducing………… (a) Password (b) Virus software (c) Anti virus software (d) User software Q62. The replacement for MS DOS from Microsoft Corporation is…. …. (a) XENIX OS (b) LINUX (c) UNIX OS (d) MS WINDOWS Q63. System commands are commands by which…….. (a)Computers communicate (b)Programmers communicate with OS of the computer (c)The Operators enter date (d)Programmers create alternative solutions. Q64. A language used directly by the computer is………….... (a) English language (b) High level language (c) Machine language (d) Low level language Q65. A 8 bit unit is called a (a) Data set (b) Byte (c) KB (d) MB Q66. A Memory chip that is programmed at the time of its manufacture is known as… (a) RAM Chip (b) Microprocessor chip (c) Dynamic RAM chip (d) ROM Chip Q67. Which one of the following is an Optical Storage disk ? (a) Floppy disk (b) Hard disk (c) CD-ROM (d) None of the above Q68. The cheapest & fastest mode of sending written communication to any part of the world is……………………… (a) Telex (b) E-mail (c) Fax (d) None of the above Q69. WWW stands for ………………… (a) World Wild Web (b) World Write Web (c) Word Wide Web (d) World Wide Web Q70. E-mail stands for (a) Economic Mail (b) Electronic Mail (c) Electrical Mail (d) None Q71. The device which allows a computer to transmit and receive information over the telephone line is ……….…. (a) Modem (b) Trans-receiver (c) Transmitter (d) Wireless Q72. The Internet connection can be established with ………... (a)Computer system only (b)Computer system + Modem (c)Computer System + Modem + Telephone line (d)Computer System + Modem+Telephone line + Software for Internet access Q73. Which one of the following is correct E-mail address? (a) [email protected] (b)@abc,ntw.org. (c) ntw.org.abc (d)abc.ntw.org@ Q74. A system that lets computers all over the world talk to each other is called……… (a) Internet (b) LAN (c) TAN (d) WAN Q75. Modem stands for ………….. (a) Modulation device (b) Moderator device (c) Modulation-Demodulation device (d) Demodulation device Q76. Local Area Networks are communication systems that are used to link ………… (a) terminals, computes & other devices located within a compact area (b) terminals, computers and other devices located across many cities (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above Q77. A interconnection of computer systems and/or peripheral devices at dispersed locations that exchange data is called…………..… (a) Data communication (b) Data storing (c) Telephone exchange (d) Network

TEST PAPER Q78. A general term to describe the transmission of messages by the use of computer system & telecommunications facilities is known as……………… (a) Mail transfer (b) Electronic Mail Transfer (c) Message Transmission (d) Message Delivery Q79. A device responsible for allowing a communication between a group of Personal Computers to each other is called…………… (a) USB Device (b) Data Card (c) Network Interface Card (d) Device Card Q80. A modem card that plugs into a slot inside the computer is called……….. (a) Internal modem (b) External modem (c) USB Modem (d) None of the above Q81. Multimedia is ………….… (a) An integration of voice & text (b) An integration of voice, text and graphics (c)An integration of voice, text, graphics & animation (d) an integration of graphics and text Q82. DTP stands for ………..…. (a) Disk Top Publishing (b) Desk Top Printing (c) Desk Top Publisher (d) Desk Top Printer Q.83. Advice used to produce humanly readable computer output is called as … (a) Hard Disk (b) Printer (c) Floppy Disk (d) computer paper Q84. A scanner is………………….… (a) An optical device (b) An optical device which works like a photocopier (c) An optical device used for cutting & pasting images (d) An optical device used to digitize images and store it on a disk Q85. A device which provides a good surge suppresser and adds features such as battery backup and power conditioning is called……….. (a) SMPS (b) Inverter (c) Rectifier (d) UPS Q86. The facts and figures that are currently being used for decision making is called (a) Data (b) Information (c) MIS (d) Figures Q87. PPM stands for …. (a) Page Policy Matter (b) Page per Minute (c) Page Paper Minute (d) None Q88. A file with extension .doc represents a ………..… (a) Spreadsheet file (b) Graphic file (c) Document file (d) Power Point file Q89. All executable files in DOS should have……… as file extension. (a) .bat (b) .exe (c) .com (d) .sys Q90. What does “http” written with website address stand for ? (a) hyper text transfer protocol (b) high text transmission protocol (c) hyper text transfer pact (d) high text transmission programme

………………………………………………………………….…………………………..…………… A N S W E R 01(b), 02(a), 03(d), 04(d), 05(c), 06(c), 07(a), 08(c), 09(c), 10(b), 11(c), 12(c), 13(d), 14(a), 15(c), 16(c), 17(b), 18(a), 19(c), 20(a), 21(b), 22(d), 23(a), 24(a), 25(a), 26(c), 27(b), 28(b), 29(d), 30(b), 31(d), 32(c), 33(a), 34(a), 35(d), 36(b), 37(a), 38(d), 39(c), 40(a), 41(b), 42(c), 43(b), 44(a), 45(b), 46(b), 47(a), 48(b), 49(a), 50(b), 51(d), 52(a), 53(c), 54(b), 55(a), 56(c), 57(b), 58(a), 59(d), 60(c), 61(a), 62(d), 63(b), 64(c), 65(b), 66(d), 67(c), 68(b), 69(d), 70(b), 71(a), 72(d), 73(a), 74(a), 75(c), 76(a), 77(d), 78(b), 79(c), 80(a), 81(c), 82(c), 83(b), 84(d), 85(d), 86(a), 87(b), 88(c), 89(b), 90(a).

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……………………………………………………………………….…………………….……..……………

By: Manoj Kumar Singh, Manager(IE), Industrial Engineering Department, Northern Coalfields Limited, Singrauli(MP)-486 889, Mobile No.-9993875526, E-mail : [email protected]