Pre-Solo Written Exam (Cessna 172N)

Pre-Solo Written Exam (Cessna 172N)

1) Welcome to the Pre-Solo written exam for the Cessna 172N. We recommend that you write all answers down on a peice of paper in case the server connection is lost for any reason. a) Please Read Above. b) To confirm that you have read the above statement, please choose answer “a”. Good Luck! c) Come on now!

2) What is the stall speed for a Cessna 172N in the takeoff configuration (Vs)? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

3) What is the stall speed for a Cessna 172N in the landing configuration (Vso)? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

4) What is the best-angle of climb speed (Vx) for a Cessna 172N? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

5) What is the best-rate of climb speed (Vy) for a Cessna 172N? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

6) What is the maneuvering speed (Va) for a Cessna 172N? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

7) What is the maximum flaps extended speed (Vfe) for a Cessna 172N? a) 59 kts b) 73 kts c) 97 kts d) 85 kts e) 47 kts f) 42 kts

8) What is the maximum structural cruise speed (Vno) for a Cessna 172N? a) 65 kts b) 42 kts c) 47 kts d) 73 kts e) 160 kts

f) 128 kts

9) What is the never exceed speed (Vne) for a Cessna 172N? a) 65 kts b) 42 kts c) 47 kts d) 73 kts e) 160 kts f) 128 kts

10) What is the best glide speed (Vglide) for a Cessna 172N? a) 65 kts b) 42 kts c) 47 kts d) 73 kts e) 160 kts f) 128 kts

11) What is the correct emergency procedure for an engine failure in a Cessna 172N? a) Pitch for best glide (65 kts), look for a place to land and navigate towards that location (if altitude permits, circle over the landing area, attempt an engine restart, communicate a MAYDAY on 121.5 Mhz and squawk 7700), extend flaps when landing is assured, and land. b) Pitch for best glide (75 kts), look for a place to land and navigate towards that location (if altitude permits, circle over the landing area, attempt an engine restart, communicate a MAYDAY on 122.0 Mhz and squawk 7600), extend flaps when landing is assured, and land. c) Pitch for best glide (60 kts), look for a place to land and navigate towards that location (if altitude permits, circle over the landing area, attempt an engine restart, communicate a MAYDAY on 121.0 Mhz and squawk 7500), extend flaps when landing is assured, and land.

12) Why is establishing and maintaining best-glide after an engine failure or intentional shutdown so critical? a) An engine failure could cause the airplane to stall if the airspeed isn't at least 65 kts. b) Establishing best-glide will make it easier for the engine to restart. c) Best-glide provides the maximum lift to drag ratio. d) It's not important to maintain best-glide speed once it is intially established.

13) What should you do if an engine fire occurs on the ground during startup in a Cessna 172N? a) Immediately shutdown the engine, exit the airplane, and extinguish the flames. b) Remain in the airplane in case an explosion occurs. Contact emergency services with the radios and wait until the flames are extinguished before exiting. c) Exit immediately and leave everything in the plane as is. d) Continue cranking the engine in an attempt to suck the flames through the carburetor. After fire has been extinguished by emergency services or through cranking, shutdown and inspect the engine damage.

14) What should you do if an engine fire occurs while flying in a Cessna 172N? a) Immediately cut-off all sources of fuel to the engine, pitch for 100+ kts to put out the fire, establish best-glide after fire is put out, and execute a forced landing at a suitable field. b) Immediately cut-off all sources of fuel to the engine, pitch for 100+ kts to put out the fire, establish best-glide after fire is put out, restart the engine and land at the nearest airport. c) Immediately add full power and pitch down for 100+ kts in an attempt to put out the fire. Once the fire is put out, return to normal cruise and land at the nearest airport.

15) If while flying to an airport radio communication is lost, what procedure should you take? a) Find an uncontrolled airport and land there. b) Maintain VFR, squawk 7600, enter the pattern on a 45 degree angle to the downwind, rock the wings when abeam tower and comply with clearances received through light gun signals from tower. c) Squawk 7600, enter the pattern with the flow of other traffic on a 45 degree angle, and land the plane. d) Execute a forced landing at somewhere other than an airport.

16) What is the maximum gross weight of a Cessna 172N in the normal category? a) 2300 lbs. b) 2200 lbs.

c) 2100 lbs. d) 2000 lbs. e) 1900 lbs. f) 1800 lbs.

17) What is the relationship between gross weight, useful load, empty weight, and payload? a) Useful Load + Empty Weight + Full Fuel Weight = Gross Weight (Payload). b) Gross Weight + Useful Load = Empty Weight (Payload - Full Fuel Weight). c) Empty Weight + Useful Load (Payload + Full Fuel Weight) = Gross Weight.

18) If a glider is converging with an airplane, which has the right of way? a) The Glider. b) The Airplane c) Neither, both should give way to the right.

19) What are the positive limit load factors for a Cessna 172N in the normal with the flaps up? a) +3.8 and +4.4 respectively. b) +3.0 and +3.0 respectively. c) -1.52 and -1.76 respectively. d) 100%. e) 150%. f) 200%.

20) What are the positive limit load factors for a Cessna 172N in the normal with the flaps down? a) +3.8 and +4.4 respectively. b) +3.0 and +3.0 respectively. c) -1.52 and -1.76 respectively. d) 100%. e) 150%. f) 200%.

21) What are the negative limit load factors for a Cessna 172N in the normal with the flaps up? a) +3.8 and +4.4 respectively. b) +3.0 and +3.0 respectively. c) -1.52 and -1.76 respectively. d) 100%. e) 150%. f) 200%.

22) How much in excess are the design limit load factors than the published limit load factors for a Cessna 172N? a) +3.8 and +4.4 respectively. b) +3.0 and +3.0 respectively. c) -1.52 and -1.76 respectively. d) 100%. e) 150%. f) 200%.

23) What preflight action is required if any before a flight? a) FAR 91.103 states that: Each Pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight [including], weather, traffic information and delays, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance information for the aircraft of intended use. b) FAR 91.103 states that: Each Pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. c) FAR 91.103 states that: Each Pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with takeoff and landing distance information for the aircraft of intended use. d) FAR 91.103 states that: Each Pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight [including], runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance information for the aircraft of intended use. e) You must check weather, airport information, and generate a cross-country flight plan if flying to another airport. f) No preflight action is required other than preflighting the airplane per the Pilot Operating Handbook.

24) What value is the redline on the tachometer in a Cessna 172N? a) 2450 RPM. b) 2500 RPM. c) 2550 RPM. d) 2600 RPM. e) 2650 RPM. f) 2700 RPM.

25) What is the maximum oil capacity in a Cessna 172N? a) 6 quarts. b) 7 quarts. c) 8 quarts. d) 9 quarts. e) 10 quarts. f) 11 quarts.

26) In a Cessna 172N, what would happen to the fuel quantity indicators if the electrical system failed or was shutdown? a) They would continue to work properly.. b) They would not continue to work properly.

27) In a Cessna 172N, will the engine still run if the master switch is turned off? a) Yes. b) No.

28) In a Cessna 172N, what is the maximum RPM drop during runup? a) 75 RPM. b) 85 RPM. c) 95 RPM. d) 105 RPM. e) 115 RPM. f) 125 RPM.

29) What type of engine is installed in the Cessna 172N and how much horsepower can it exert? a) Lycoming O-360 rated with 180 HP at 2700 RPM. b) Lycoming O-320 rated with 160 HP at 2700 RPM. c) Lycoming O-330 rated with 172 HP at 2700 RPM. d) Lycoming O-540 rated with 230 HP at 2750 RPM.

30) What is the fuel capacity for a Cessna 172N, and how much is usable? a) 55 Gallons, 5 unusable. b) 50 Gallons, 3 unusable. c) 45 Gallons, 4 unusable. d) 43 Gallons, 3 unusable.

31) What types of fuel are there, and what color is each? a) 80 - Blue, 100 - Green, 100ll - Red, JetA - Clear. b) 80 - Red, 100 - Green, 100ll - Clear, JetA - Blue. c) 80 - Green, 100 - Red, 100ll - Blue, JetA - Clear. d) 80 - Red, 100 - Blue, 100ll - Green, JetA - Clear. e) 80 - Clear, 100 - Green, 100ll - Blue, JetA - Red. f) 80 - Red, 100 - Green, 100ll - Blue, JetA - Clear.

32) How much fuel is required for day VFR operations? a) FAR 91.153 states that: No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed,..., fly after that for at least 45 minutes. b) FAR 91.151 states that: No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed,..., fly after that for at least 30 minutes. c) FAR 91.155 states that: No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless

(considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed,..., fly after that for at least 1 hour.

33) When are you required to wear a safety belt? a) FAR 91.113 states that: each person on board must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during takeoff and landing. b) FAR 91.119 states that: each person on board must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface and landing. c) FAR 91.117 states that: each person on board must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface. d) FAR 91.125 states that: each person on board must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during landings only. e) FAR 91.107 states that: each person on board must occupy an approved seat with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. f) No safety Belts are required.

34) What is the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command? a) FAR 91.7 states that: The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. b) FAR 91.3 states that: The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the safe operation of the aircraft. The Regulation also grants the pilot the authority to deviate from any regulation to the extent necessary during in-flight emergencies. c) FAR 91.3 states that: The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for the operation of that aircraft. The owner is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft. d) The Pilot in Command has no authority or responsiblity as to the operation of the aircraft.

35) When two aircraft are approaching one another head-on, both pilots should alter course to the... a) left b) right c) opposite direction d) high-left e) high-right

36) When is dropping objects from an airplane permitted? a) When it will not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface. b) Never.

37) What certificates and documents must be onboard an aircraft at all times? a) Airworthiness Certificate b) Airworthiness and Registration Certificate c) Airworthiness and Registration Certificate, Radio Station Operators Permit (If operating internationally), Operating Limitations & Placards(AFM), and Weight and Balance Data. d) Airworthiness and Registration Certificate, and Radio Station Operators Permit.

38) When must the airplane's navigation lights be on? a) At all times. b) Only while the engine is running. c) Only when flying in low visibility. d) After Sunset.

39) What are the day basic VFR weather minimums in Class C, D, and E airspace? a) 3NM visibility and 1,000 feet vertical clearance from clouds, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. b) 3NM visibility and 2,000 feet vertical clearance from clouds, 500 feet below, and 1,000 feet horizontally. c) 3SM visibility and 500 feet vertical clearance from clouds, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. d) 3SM visibility and 1,000 feet vertical clearance from clouds, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

40) Describe the minimum safe altitudes at which you may operate an airplane. a) FAR 91.119: Anywhere: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal

radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Over other than congested areas, An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. b) Wrong Answer, see A.

41) Please read FAR 91.113. The last paragraph g, pertains to: a) Taxiing. b) Takeoff. c) Cruise. d) Landing.

42) In chapter 2 of the AIM, which figure depicts the hold-short markings at which you must have a clearance to pass over the solid portion of? a) Figure 2-3-16. b) Figure 2-3-18. c) Figure 2-1-5. d) Figure 2-2-4. e) Figure 2-2-10. f) Figure 2-3-6.

43) In chapter 2 of the AIM, which figure depicts the marking painted on a permanentely closed runway or taxiway? a) Figure 2-1-4. b) Figure 2-1-12. c) Figure 2-2-4. d) Figure 2-2-6. e) Figure 2-2-10. f) Figure 2-3-22.

44) Which direction are turns made in a standard traffic pattern? a) Left. b) Right.

45) How much time must a pilot wait after consuming alcohol before acting as Pilot in Command of an aircraft? a) 7 hours. b) 8 hours. c) 9 hours. d) 10 hours.

46) Please read all of FAR 91.125. What is the light signal received when you are cleared to land. a) Steady green. b) Flashing Green. c) Steady Red. d) Flashing Red. e) Steady White. f) Flashing White.

47) Please read section 7-3 of the AIM. What type of aircraft and condition creates the worst wingtip vortices? a) Light, Clean, and Slow. b) Light, Dirty, and Fast. c) Heavy, Clean, and Fast. d) Heavy, Clean, and Slow. e) Heavy, Dirty, and Slow.

48) What is the traffic pattern altitude for Ramona Airport in southern California? a) 2,393 ft. b) 1,427 ft. c) 1,500 ft. d) 2,000 ft. e) 800 ft.

49) What certificates and documents must a pilot have in his/her possession when acting as Pilot in Command? a) a Pilot Certificate with ratings appropriate to the conditions for flight and aircraft of operation. b) a photo ID and Medical Certificate. c) a logbook if a student pilot. d) All of the above.

50) What is required in order for an airplane to be airworthy? a) Maintenance and Inspections required by 14CFR Parts 43 and 91. b) Equipment, Certificates, and Documents Required by 14CFR Part 91. c) All of the Above in addition to equipment required by the Airplane's equipment list in section 6 of the AFM. d) Both A and B are correct.

51) Does your airplane have a Minimum Equipment List or MEL? a) Yes. b) No. c) No, but it does have an equipment list.

52) What is a special flight permit? a) A Special Flight Permit is what homebuilt aircraft and other restricted aircraft use instead of an airworthiness certificate. b) A Special Flight Permit is a document which allows an unairworthy airplane to be flown to a location so that repairs can be made. c) A Special Flight Permit allows the pilot to operate through a specific restricted area, Temporary Flight Restriction, or other areas and airspace normally prohibited. d) None of the above.

53) What are the conditions for using a special flight permit? a) The flight must take place under Day VFR conditions. b) The flight is restricted to a 50 mile radius from the point of departure. c) The flight must be made solo (without passengers). d) The Special Flight Permit serves as the temporary airworthiness document and must be onboard the airplane. e) All of the above are correct. f) A, C, and D are correct.

54) Can a student pilot fly to any airport, carry passengers, fly above clouds, fly at night, or fly in class Bravo airspace? a) A student pilot can fly to any airport, but none of the rest are privileges of the student pilot. b) A student pilot can fly to any airport, and fly above clouds, but none of the rest are privileges of the student pilot. c) A student pilot can fly to any airport, fly above clouds, at night, and in class Bravo, but none of the rest are privileges of the student pilot d) A student pilot may carry passengers, but none of the rest are privileges of the student pilot. e) A student pilot may do all of the above. f) A student pilot may not do any of the above

55) How bad do you want to solo? a) Not Really. b) Somewhat. c) Pretty Bad. d) Really Bad!