Practice Test - Des O'Neill

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

DIRECTOR DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed. CONSULTANTS J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons) Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Des O’Neill’s GAMSAT Preparation Courses Thank you for your inquiry about our Gamsat Preparation Courses.

DIRECTOR DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed.

We have specialised in preparing candidates for GAMSAT in Australia since 1996. From 2003, we have offered our full preGamsat preparation program as a Home Study Course to candidates world-wide. As the original providers of GAMSAT preparation, we are, by far, the most popular, the most respected and the most experienced means that candidates use for GAMSAT preparation.

CONSULTANTS J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons) Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc.

To help in your preparation for the forthcoming Gamsat, we recommend one of our discounted packages. Its resources are huge by any comparison ─ more than 1700 pages, 390 conceptbuilding questions in science, 2200 multiple-choice questions arranged as full Gamsat tests or under their dominant thinking skills, almost 5 kg in weight.

Successful Candidature

PO Box 2017 Ashgrove QLD 4060 Australia Ph 04 1966 7151 O/S Ph +614 1966 7151 www.gamsatprep.com.au [email protected]

We cannot give you truthful statistics on the success rate of our candidates in obtaining places at medical schools because privacy provisions since 2005 have precluded accurate collection of such data. Success rates in the ten years prior to that were exceptional and participation rates in our courses have risen by an average of 20% p.a. since then. We hope that you too will enjoy success. However, we can give you the results of a recent survey done by Paging Dr, an independent forum group, about which preparation course would be recommended by students. (Please note we have excluded the non-commercial companies from the results)

120 100

Des O'Neill's Exam Crackers

80

Gamsat Guru Gold Standard

60

Grad Med Griffiths Gamsat Review

40

Medired Medprep Ozimed

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Section 1

Section 2

Section 3

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

What Packages, Products and Courses do we offer?

Red Series Science Revision Book

Green Series Practising Humanities MCQs and Practising Science MCQs Book

Pre-Gamsat MCQ Courses

Pre-Gamsat Science Revision Courses

Writing Better Essays HomeBased (6 Essay Tasks)

Writing Better Essays Home-Based (3 Essay Tasks)

Titanium Package Gold Package Platinum Package (avail Mid-Feb) Ruby Package (avail Mid-Feb) Silver Home Study Bronze Home Study

When will these courses or offers be available? Science-Revision Home Study Course

Available throughout the year. For those sitting the Australian Gamsat, corrections are available from   15 December to mid‐March Aim to send in your first essay by 15 January to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or  by 15 February to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT. 

Writing Better Essays Courses For those sitting the UK September Gamsat, corrections are available from   15 of June to mid‐September. Aim to send in your first essay by 19 July to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or by 18 August to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT.  Practising Humanities MCQs and Practising Science MCQs   Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide  and Perth Pre‐Gamsat Science Revision  Attendance Courses Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide  and Perth Pre‐Gamsat MCQs & Exam   Courses

Available throughout the year. A weekend in January or early February  Saturday and Sunday  9 am – 6pm. A weekend in February or early March Saturday 8:15 am – 5 pm; Sunday 9 am – 5 pm.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Des O’Neill and his team Des was the Multiple-choice Coordinator for the Queensland Core Skills Test. He has been a test-developer since 1991 and is one of a very small and elite group of test makers in Australia. As the major advisor to a Queensland Government agency on the purchase of test-materials from ACER, Des was privy to much of ACER’s creative test-development work over many years, learnt much from them and developed a respect and high regard for their expertise in test-development and candidate assessment. Des has a Bachelor of Science majoring in Physics and Mathematics, a Bachelor of Arts majoring in English, and a Masters in Education specialising in assessment. An author of eight published books, he is the leader of a team of more than twenty people, all specialists in their own areas, who will help you in their various ways on your progress into a career in Medicine, Dentistry, Optometry, Podiatry or Pharmacy.

The preparation materials provided by Des O’Neill and his team are written in Australia specifically for Gamsat methods of testing and prepare you well for the task ahead.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Success of our candidates We are very proud of the number of candidates who do our courses and get scores sufficient for them to progress to interview and then on to medical, dentistry, optometry and pharmacy schools.

The historical record since 1996 shows that candidates who have done our courses have consistently filled between one-third and one-half of the relevant post-graduate places available at Australian Universities. If those who have done our course are visualised separately from the rest of the total candidature, you can easily see that those who neglect to do our courses have considerably worse odds for gaining entry. We are very proud of the number of candidates who do our courses and get scores sufficient for them to progress to interview and then on to medical, dentistry, optometry, podiatry and pharmacy schools. 354 of our candidates commenced the Graduate Medical Program in 2005. The total number of postgraduate medical places available in 2005 was 903 at eight participating universities. In the previous year 454 candidates attended our MCQs & Exam Course. Since then, privacy provisions no longer allow the collection of data that would indicate which candidates actually commenced the post-graduate medical program and any claims of more recent success-rates are simply not relevant. However, many candidates do let us know their results when they ask, soon after the results are released to them in May, for our suggestions as to which medical schools they should apply for. Today twelve medical schools, two dental schools, one optometry school, one podiatry school and one pharmacy school at Masters level accept graduates as candidates via Gamsat. The published number (May 2013) of places available to Australian/NZ candidates for post-graduate medicine in 2014 is 1564. However, only about 950 of those places are CSPs (Commonwealth Supported Places – previously called HECS Places) that require the standard student contribution of around $9,000 p.a. The remainder are either full-fee domestic places or are BMPs (Bonded Medical Places) which, in addition to the contribution of around $9,000 p.a., bond the student for four years. The nature of the bond restricts the bonded doctor’s practice of medicine at some future time to hospitals in certain geographically-defined locations. The conditions of the bond have changed over time and candidates are advised to do an internet search to find, and then read carefully, the current contract. Candidates who are aiming at a CSP need to be aware from the beginning that, with over 10,000 candidates now being reported as sitting the Gamsat, the hunt for CSPs is fiercely competitive. You should set your goals for a Gamsat score of 64 or better which should put you into the top 15% of this reasonably exclusive candidature. Overall scores at Gamsat range from about 34 to about 84 with the median around 56-58. They are not a percentage. The scores are not out of 100 and there is no such concept as a “pass”. Several of our candidates over the years have scored in the 90s for Section 3 (Science) with two exceptional candidates reporting scores in excess of 100.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Des O’Neill’s preparation courses for GAMSAT Worldwide

For Gamsat candidates worldwide including those in remote parts of Australia, our Home Study Package (more than 1700 pages) consists of: • our Prognostic Preparatory Test which is available for free • Writing Better Essays - a course of six lessons on essay writing which includes 6 tasks (12 of your essays are corrected) or 3 tasks (6 of your essays are corrected) • Science-Revision Course on Physical Chemistry, Organic

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Australian Capital Cities

Chemistry, Biochemistry and Physics, with 390 concept-building questions on Chemistry and Physics and 100 multiple-choice questions on Biology with full solutions to same, to guide your science revision Practising Humanities MCQs Course with 1140 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions and five Humanities practice tests (75 questions in each) Practising Science MCQs Course with 970 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions and four Science practice tests (110 questions in each). These are in addition to the 100 MCQs that are in the Science-Revision Course.

In Australia, in addition to the Home Study Courses above, we offer a Science-Revision Attendance Course on Chemistry and Physics and a MCQs & Exam Attendance Course which includes a full trial test. These are held in Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne and Adelaide.  

 

GAMSAT for Australian and Irish entry is held in March. GAMSAT for UK entry is held in September. Please check the official Gamsat Website to learn about your eligibility to sit Gamsat, to register to sit Gamsat, the validity of your Gamsat score for an application, and to make an application for admission.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Our packages work like this You can pay by Visa or MasterCard online on the shopping cart or you can mail your order to us enclosing your Visa or MasterCard details or an Australian money order (available at the Post Office) or a cheque made out to Gamsat Preparation Courses.

When you pay for the Titanium, Gold, Platinum, Ruby, Silver or Bronze package, you receive back by mail:  

Our current Science‐Revision Course book Our current Practising Humanities MCQs Course book  Our current Practising Science MCQs Course book  Other relevant materials 

The  lessons  and  appropriate  tasks  for  Writing  Better  Essays,  together  with  peer  essays  for  each  task  and  the  markers’  appraisals  of  these essays, all are dispatched as soon as possible and   

Tickets to those courses included in the package. 

 

Subsequent Emails: You send progressively your six essay tasks (Titanium, Platinum,Silver) or  three essay tasks (Gold, Ruby, Bronze) by email. Our returns by email each time include corrections as well as constructive  criticism and advice on how to improve your essay writing skills.   

Refunds There are no refunds for non-completed tasks of Writing Better Essays or for any courses after you have received the course materials. Because we experience an avalanche of essay tasks, there are deadlines for acceptance of each task. Also, for any candidate, our team will correct a maximum of one essay task per week. As this is a personalised course on essay writing, materials supplied and relevant feedback are only available as participants complete each of the separate tasks within the available time frame. A condition of participating in our courses is an acceptance by participants that Gamsat Preparation Courses accepts no legal liability for personal injury, property damage or loss of any kind. Despite the use of Gamsat in our trading name, our company is not connected with any of the Universities or with ACER.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Some recent emails received I just wanted to let you know my excellent result from Gamsat and I am sure it’s all down to doing your course. This is my first time sitting Gamsat. I got an overall score of 75 and 81 for Section 3 which was the biggest surprise. I cannot praise your course highly enough and I will certainly recommend your course far and wide. Thanks again for sharing your insights. Just wanted to say a big thank-you. 68 in Section II was much higher than I expected and also 64 in Science, again higher than I had expected.

I sat Gamsat last year as practice with virtually no preparation and got 63 overall. I enrolled in your Titanium Package in order to prepare for the real thing this year and achieved an overall score of 72 with a big improvement to 80 in the Science. I got 79 in the essays, my thanks to your WBE markers. I improved my written communication score by a massive 13 points and my Science by 7 points. The course you offered was really valuable as were the resources and practice papers provided.

Thank you for all your courses and the preparation material you provided. It truly helped me achieve my best possible score (an overall 67 with 75 in Science). Thank you for helping me so much with my preparation. I could not have received 67 without your courses. Thanks for all the effort you put into them.

Thank you for a great course. I believe it helped me greatly. I improved my overall score by 11 points this year. I undertook your Titanium Package and found it very helpful. I got a Gamsat score of 68. I got an overall score of 67 and give credit to your weekend courses and especially to your essay writing course (scored 72).

Your essay course was amazing, hence the better results. Your MCQs are definitely Gamsat-level and thus I was not shocked by the degree of difficulty of the questions. Thank you so much for all your help. I found your course comprehensive and extremely helpful in preparing for Gamsat. On the day, I found there were no surprises which to me is a reflection of how well your course and practice questions/essays mimic the real thing.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Some recent emails received Thank you for your courses. I believe they were the key to boosting my science score up to 74 from 62 the previous year. This year my Science improved from 75 to 86 thanks to your workbooks. I went through the Science section a number of times. I appreciate your help with my studies.

Thank you for your assistance and the excellent courses you have developed over the years. I attended the Science Revision and Exam technique courses. I found them well prepared, professionally run and most importantly, highly relevant and useful. Thank you. Your course was invaluable to me and I believe it provided a fantastic set of resources, skills and hints for preparation. I doubt I could have passed without your inspired teaching. I came to you by referral and will gladly sing your praises too.

I wanted to say thanks for your excellent Gamsat programs in Science Prep and Multi-choice questions. I really enjoyed your courses, the way they were structured and the quality of the teaching. The effort you (and I’m sure the many people involved behind the scenes) put in is amazing and much appreciated by many people. The past two times I have taken the test I got an overall score of 53. Jumping from this to 64 was amazing.

I was pleasantly surprised at my Gamsat results. Having not had a science background not even in school, such a strong result in the science section 64, was not really something I expected. I owe a big thanks to your courses. I only started to learn the basics of Science in May last year and I would like to thank you for the invaluable assistance and teaching that was provided in your course. I’m sure I would not have a hope of applying for medical school if it was not for yourself and your team.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Writing Better Essays Preparing you for Section 2 of GAMSAT Writing Better Essays is a six lesson/tasks Home-based / Correspondence Course available from September to midMarch for those whose GAMSAT is in March (AU & IE) and from April to mid-September for those whose GAMSAT is in September (UK). We recommend that you start this home-based correspondence course as soon as possible. You should complete, at the very least, three of the six tasks. Lessons in essay writing are an integral part of Writing Better Essays. These lessons teach the specific skills required for success in the Gamsat essay-writing section and help to hone skills that will permanently improve your ability to write well. This course is designed to give advice on essay writing at different levels as the six tasks are progressively completed. Submitted essays are marked and then the candidate is provided with constructive and positive feedback on how to improve their individual styles. The level of advice relates to the increasing ability of the candidate and opens new vistas on essay writing to help improve performance. In addition, markers’ commentaries on essays on the same topics by peers from previous years reinforce aspects of essay organisation and style. This home-based/correspondence course has become very popular. Our team manages to keep up with the demand each working day, marking, appraising and sending back the graded essays, the correction and the advice. Allocate at least 2 ½ hours per task to read our appraisal of your essays, our corrections and advice, the peer essays on the comments you chose, our next lesson on essay writing, and to write your next two essays. In GAMSAT, the two essays (Section 2) have the same overall value in your overall GAMSAT score as the 75 multiple-choice questions in Humanities (Section 1). Most Universities require that you get above a defined score in each of the three Sections of GAMSAT. Thus you need to do well on all three Sections of the test. We have a clear policy that we do not open attachments. For each task, send your typed essays together in the same email and in the body of that email. If possible, use medium size or 12-14 point Arial as the font in the email.

The level of advice relates to the increasing ability of the candidate and opens new vistas on essay writing to help improve performance.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

For each task: • • • •

your essays are graded, constructive criticism and advice are given, there is a further lesson in essay writing, and peer essays and their marker’s appraisals (from previous cohorts) are supplied.

On our shopping cart the cost is given of Writing Better Essays for six lessons and six tasks or for six lessons and three tasks. Alternatively, you can incorporate these courses into a Titanium, Gold, Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package, or into a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package at a discount. If you are very late joining our courses, please check the website as we may be able to offer you an Express Marking Service even though it is past the usual time to start our Writing Better Essays course. There will be a small extra charge for this priority marking service. You can purchase our writing better essays courses here:

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Our aim in our Writing Better Essays Course is to enable you to write two good essays within a single hour. These two essays are worth one-quarter of your overall Gamsat mark. Our Complete Writing Better Essays Course consists of 6 Lessons and 6 Tasks and our Short Course has 6 Lessons and 3 Tasks. Essay tasks are accepted for appraisal in the three months just prior to your Gamsat (from 15 December onwards for Gamsat AU/IE and from 15 June onwards for Gamsat UK). You will receive your first essay task and instructions on how to complete it when the fee is paid. Here is a sample of the first

WRITING BETTER ESSAYS

The criteria for marking:

Home Study Session 1

What does the task of writing essays for Gamsat entail and how much should you write?

Part A: Preliminary Ideas WRITING BETTER ESSAYS Home Study Session 1

Part B: The Expository Essay WRITING BETTER ESSAYS Home Study Session 1

Part C: Planning an expository essay WRITING BETTER ESSAYS Home Study Session 1

Part D: Writing an expository essay

What is an expository essay? How to establish a point of view

In regard to planning, a minimal plan could be: … For those who like mnemonics, maybe these will help...

Step by step instruction on how to write the first expository essay. Parts E, F and G then take you through the same steps to guide you to write the first discursive essay.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Finally there are 24 peer essays written by past students, comparable to the one below and on your E1, all with markers’ appraisals, which ensures that you receive essays on the comment(s) that you have chosen.

Comment: Loneliness — the most terrible poverty Discursive, personal, reflective, somewhat pensive The inherent capacity of human beings to receive and give love so selflessly never ceases to amaze me. It is ingrained within each and every one of us, and I certainly could not imagine passing through life in loneliness, devoid of human companionship and the belief that my presence is unvalued amongst my loved ones. I think it is quite easy in today’s high-octane, ambitious, careerdriven society to... (and so on) Marker’s appraisal: Loneliness — the most terrible poverty is a sensitive and moving piece of writing. Using a graphic description drawn from her own experience of working in a home for the abandoned, the writer is able to present her insights into the devastating effects of loneliness on human beings. Her compassion is evident as is the fact that she has more than a superficial understanding of the topic. Her use of her current experiences in working with the elderly forms a further framework for her reflections. Subsequent lessons teach you how to improve the first and final paragraphs of your essay, how to unify the ideas in each of the paragraphs, how to connect your paragraphs, how to vary your sentence structures and the effects that this has, and so on. After each lesson you do a task of writing two essays, a task similar to what you will have to do in Section 2 of Gamsat. Each essay will be marked and graded according to the criteria used at Gamsat, any necessary corrections will be noted and positive suggestions made. At each task you will be provided with a similar quantity of peer essays, all with markers’ appraisals.

We recommend that you send your first essay task to us for correction by email by 15 January for Australian/Irish Gamsat or by 19 July if you are sitting for the UK Gamsat. You must submit your tasks by the deadlines given below for your essay task to be marked. If you miss a deadline, move to the next task. Recommended date to aim for

AU/IE Task 1 Task 2 Task 3 Task 4 Task 5 Task 6

UK

15 January / 19 July 26 January / 29 July 6 February / 8 Aug 17 February / 18 Aug 28 February / 28 Aug 11 March / 7 Sept

Deadline date for acceptance

AU/IE 5 February 13 February 21 February 1 March 8 March 15 March

UK / 5 Aug / 12 Aug / 19 Aug / 26 Aug / 2 Sept / 9 Sept

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Science Revision Course Providing you with a clear pathway through the maze of concepts and terminology that you will need in order to understand the materials in section 3 of GAMSAT At GAMSAT, knowledge of certain areas of science is presumed. Thus test developers can use appropriate terms and concepts and expect that you will be able to understand them. They can write questions that use conceptualisations, structures, and jargon from First Year University courses in Chemistry and Biology as well as from all the topics of Year 12 Physics. Via the results of thousands of GAMSAT candidates on our trial tests from 1996 onwards, we have identified areas of science that candidates need to relearn or revise. These major areas of General and Human Biology, Physical & Organic Chemistry, Biochemistry and Physics are the basis of our Science-Revision Course. Our Science Summary outlines in detail those areas of science that we consider are prerequisite knowledge for GAMSAT and that forms the basis of our Science-Revision Course. It also gives a list of suitable reference books. GAMSAT Preparation Courses has condensed the study matter so that candidates can prepare at their own pace with all the essential material at their disposal. Our teaching style makes science both interesting and memorable with illustrative anecdotes and applications interspersed to ensure excellent recall of complex concepts. Our specialist session leaders, for chemistry and physics, tie concepts together and relate them to applications and experiences in the real world. Our science teaching lives. The course will fill gaps in knowledge for some while refreshing connections between topics for others. Des O’Neill’s ScienceRevision Course will supplement your own revision in areas that are conceptually difficult. We provide a comprehensive book that will help you identify and study the areas of science that we consider important in your preparation for GAMSAT. These copyrighted materials form an integral part of the attendance sessions. As well as 390 conceptbuilding questions on Chemistry and Physics, we offer you in this book a collection of 100 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions on Biology at GAMSAT standard. All of our questions come with full solutions.

The contact time of the Science-Revision Attendance Course is 16 hours (Saturday and Sunday 9am to 6pm – not counting meal breaks/ homework). The full cost of the ScienceRevision Attendance Course is listed on our shopping cart. The Science-Revision Home Study Course price is listed on our shopping cart. Alternatively, you can incorporate this Science Revision Attendance Course into a Titanium or Gold Attendance Package at a discount, or this ScienceRevision Home Study Course into a Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package or a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package at a discount. The same Science-Revision book is used for the ScienceRevision Home Study Course and for the corresponding Attendance Course. The book is sent to you when you enrol so that you can pre-study from it before attending the Science-Revision Course in Australia in January or early February.

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

MCQs & Exam Course The contact time is 14 hours (8:15 am – 5 pm on Saturday and 9 am to 5 pm on Sunday). The full cost of the MCQs & exam Attendance Course which includes both books below is listed on our shopping cart. However each book can be bought separately: The Home Study Practicing Humanities MCQs Course cost is given on our shopping cart. The Home Study Practicing Science MCQs Course cost is given on our shopping cart. Alternatively, you can incorporate these courses into a Titanium, Gold, Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package, or into a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package.

Preparing you for GAMSAT-style multiple-choice questions in Sections 1 and 3 of GAMSAT Des O’Neill’s Pre-Gamsat MCQs & Exam Course is the culminating segment of your preparation for GAMSAT. It takes you through the final stage of your GAMSAT preparation. Candidates from previous years insist that this is the course that all serious candidates should take and report that Des O’Neill’s MCQs & Exam Course is “the best” preparation for the Gamsat experience. This course focuses on the thinking-skills that are the foundation of the GAMSAT testing process It provides you with our valuable and unique set of statisticallystable humanities and science multiple-choice questions based around thinking skills. (A statistical process, based on performance on these questions by a population of peers, has been used to eliminate all the confusing and non-working questions so that what remains, as this unique set, is of exceptional quality) The attendance course infuses test-taking strategies and timemanagement skills into practice sessions and gives, via the trial test (Attendance) or the practice tests (Attendance and Home Study), the experience of a full GAMSAT exam in a single day. Patterns of testing and pathways to tackle MCQs are clarified. From your results in the trial and practice tests, you will obtain a personal profile of your strengths and derive, from that profile, your own Personal Strategy for Tackling GAMSAT. You will come to understand how you should spend your remaining preparation time and how you should personally prioritise your efforts within the forthcoming GAMSAT in order to achieve at your competitive best. At the Attendance Course, you will access more than 2400 statistically-stable Gamsat-style multiple-choice questions. 2200 of these are in our Practicing Humanities and Science MCQs books which have guides to their answers (humanities) and full solutions (science).

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

Interview Workshops Interview Workshops are held in prior to the Australian Medical School Interviews in August/September. A choice of Interview-preparation Workshops will be offered to those who take one of our Pre-Gamsat courses. The cost per person of these five-hour small-groups Interview Workshops will be listed on our shopping cart. Our mentoring thus continues over a full year.

The contact time is 5 hours. The full cost of the Interview Workshop is listed on our shopping cart.

After you have received your Gamsat results in May and made your application for Medical and/or Dentistry School by the due date, you will be sent a reminder about our Interview Workshops. Payment for the workshop can be made online at that time or mailed to us. In our five-hour Post-Gamsat Interview Workshop, every participant has a full practice interview based on the criteria for the university to which they have been called for interview. As well, each takes on a role of interviewer to gain a perspective from the other side of the table. There are group-learning sessions as well as recommendations for a variety of preparatory readings and personalised tasks.

For Information about GAMSAT Between mid-October to January •

Visit the Gamsat website http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au and download the GAMSAT Information Booklet

•

Contact the Australian Council for Education Research with any enquiries about the test itself. E: [email protected]

•

By the date required (usually in January), enrol for GAMSAT via http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au

On the Gamsat Saturday in March, sit GAMSAT.

APPENDIX

Prognostic Test

i

Des O’Neill’s Prognostic Preparatory Test This test is designed to give you an indication of your current standard in answering multiplechoice questions at the Gamsat standard. This collection will also give you an insight into the diversity of the multiple-choice questions that are in our Practising Humanities and Science MCQs books.

Do not open this test paper until you have 75 minutes or more to devote to working this test. It will ruin its effectiveness if you sneak a peek at it before you start.

Directions 1

Time allowed: No perusal time but 75 minutes for recording your answers.

2

For each question there are four alternative responses represented by the letters A, B, C, D. Choose one of these as your answer.

3

You may attempt the units in any order.

4

Towards the end of the test make sure you have an answer recorded for every question even if you need to take more than 75 minutes. There are no penalties for incorrect answers.

© Desmond J O’Neill

Phone (+614) 1966 7151

Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™

www.gamsatprep.com.au [email protected]

ii

Unit 1 A Small Reflection (For My Daughter) Each morning she constructs mosaics, weaves words in a web to net the day. We stitch stories, our small semantics. ‘Each question has an answer,’ I say. 5

10

15

20

I know, in truth, we make rough guesses: there’s no finished map of the terrain. All discovery is a function of individual choice and pain. For now, I watch her scatter puddles; I reprove, urge, kiss, the common things, dwell upon her daily adventures, discuss why it is a magpie sings. But what can I bequeath for later? Hardly any justified belief, a clutch of strongly held opinions, a few theorems for comic relief. She kicks water at the autumn sun, as it arcs across this pristine day. I know she will soon assume a world beyond all that I can guess or say. ! Rod Moran

Question 1 When speaking of his daughter, the poet (stanza 1, line 4) says, ‘Each question has an answer’. Yet in later stanzas uncertainty is evident in responding to the unknowns of life. In which of the following stanzas is this uncertainty of the poet least evident? A stanza 2 C stanza 4 B stanza 3 D stanza 5 Question 2 ‘She kicks water at the autumn sun, as it arcs across this pristine day.’ (lines 17–18) The obvious meaning of these two lines is that of a young girl playing with water during the day. Encrusted on this, however, is a deeper meaning. Which of the following best encapsulates this deeper meaning? A a disposition inclined towards play rather than grim reality B a clear perception of innocence in the presence of unlimited power C a majestic presence, soon to depart, of little influence on a child’s life D a view of life unaware of the power of others or of forthcoming challenges

© Questions Desmond J O’Neill

Phone (+614) 1966 7151

Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™

www.gamsatprep.com.au [email protected]

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Question 3 In lines 1–3, the poet marvels most at A the increasing vocabulary of young children. B his daughter’s ability to fit together wooden puzzles. C his child’s encapsulation of experiences into language. D the ability of humans to put words together to make speech. Question 4 Consider the entire poem. Which of the following, as expressed or implied by the poet, best gives the answer to his question: ‘But what can I bequeath for later?’ A ‘there’s no finished map of the terrain. All discovery is a function of individual choice and pain.’ (lines 6–8) B ‘... her daily adventures’ (line 11) C ‘Hardly any justified belief, a clutch of strongly held opinions, a few theorems for comic relief.’ (lines 14–16) D ‘... a world beyond all that I can guess or say.’ (lines 19–20)

Unit 2

Question 5 The cartoonist is A in admiration of the suggestion to send the money back to where it came from. B making fun of the level of initiative among the underprivileged. C showing that luck is often the saviour of the less fortunate. D contrasting the intelligence levels of the two men.

© Questions Desmond J O’Neill

Phone (+614) 1966 7151

Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses ™

www.gamsatprep.com.au [email protected]

iv

Unit 3 Ethanol, a primary alcohol, in the presence of sulfuric acid reacts with itself to form diethyl ether. A molecule of ethanol CH3CH2OH is first protonated by the sulfuric acid catalyst to form H2O+CH2CH3 . Dehydration and the reformation of the acid catalyst then takes place between this carbocation and another ethanol molecule CH3CH2OH + H2O+CH2CH3 ÷ CH3CH2OCH2CH3 + H3O+ Question 6 A mixture of ethanol CH3CH2OH and 1-propanol CH3CH2CH2OH is treated with sulfuric acid. How many ethers are produced and how many of these are symmetrical? Produced Symmetrical A 2 2 B 3 1 C 3 2 D 4 2 The following additional information relates to questions 7 – 10. While synthesis of symmetrical ethers can be achieved by dehydration of an appropriate alcohol, high yield production of non-symmetrical ethers is often achieved from an alkoxide ion and an appropriate halide. Methyl and primary halides work best. The complex segment of the ether can reside in the alkoxide. For example, isopropoxide ion and iodomethane react to form isopropyl methyl ether. (CH3)2CHO– + CH3I ÷ (CH3)2CHOCH3 + I– If secondary or tertiary segments are attached to the reacting halide, an elimination reaction is likely to occur and an alkene, rather than an ether, is likely to be produced. Consider the following pairs of reactants.

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v Question 7 How many of these three pairs of reactants are likely to give a high yield of an ether? A 0 C 2 B 1 D 3 Question 8 How many of these three pairs of reactants will yield symmetrical ethers? A 0 C 2 B 1 D 3 Question 9 How many ethers are produced as a result of this reaction in the presence of H2SO4 ? CH3CH2CH2O– + CH3CH2Br + CH3CH2CH2Cl ÷ A 1 C 4 B 2 D 6 Question 10 Ethers can be broken back into an alcohol and a halide by reaction with aqueous HI by a process which reverses the synthesis process. Which of the following reactions are likely to achieve the highest yields?

A B

1 and 3 1 and 4

C D

2 and 3 2 and 4

Unit 4 Question 11 Both ends of the tube shown are sealed and the density of the enclosed liquid is ñ . Arm M has twice the cross-sectional area of arm N. The pressure of the gas PM is given by A PN + ½ñgy B PN + 2ñgy C PN – ñgy D PN + ñgy

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vi

Unit 5 Question 12 An amateur fisherman tests out the buoyancy of his runabout (boat) by floating it in a backyard swimming pool. While sitting in the boat, he carefully lifts a heavy anchor out of the boat and gently lowers it into the pool. Which of the following happens? When he lifts the anchor, the When he puts the anchor in the pool, water level relative to the boat the water level in the pool A goes down. falls. B goes down. rises. C stays the same. rises. D stays the same. falls.

Unit 6 Question 13 When all the ‘sand’ is in the bottom of a large ‘hour-glass type’ egg-timer, the egg-timer is inverted and put onto the pan of a sensitive analytic balance. The balance has a digital readout to many decimal places. As the sand falls from the top of the egg-timer to the bottom, the hill of sand in the bottom gradually gets bigger and the reservoir of sand in the top of the egg-timer is gradually depleted. While this is happening, the value of the readout on the analytical balance changes. Which of the following is least likely to affect the value of this readout? A the distance the sand falls B the mass of the sand that is falling C the speed generated by the sand as it falls D the mass of sand in the bottom of the egg-timer

Unit 7 A patient’s blood pressure is taken by wrapping an inflatable cuff around the upper arm of the patient and increasing the pressure until the blood flow through the artery becomes turbulent. When a fluid flow becomes turbulent, the fluid loses energy as sound as well as in other ways. On hearing the sound, the doctor slowly increases the pressure until the sound ceases. This indicates that the blood flow has stopped. The pressure required to stop the flow is called systolic pressure and corresponds to the pressure during ventricular contraction. The cuff is then gradually deflated until the blood begins to flow, without turbulence, through the artery. The pressure in the cuff at this point is called the diastolic pressure and corresponds to the residual pressure in the artery between ventricular contractions. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle of the heart into the systemic circulation system. It is measured as the product of the pulse rate (number of beats per minute) and the stroke volume (volume per contraction).

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vii During strenuous exercise, respiration in the muscles is initially aerobic. But as the oxygen in the muscles becomes depleted, lactic acid builds up as a waste product of anaerobic respiration. The removal of this lactic acid from the muscles is directly related to that person’s cardiac output. The muscles also suffer temporary damage as a result of exercise. This damage can be assessed in terms of a CK value that can be measured via a blood test. Grant is a professional swimmer. Norm keeps a dog and gets his exercise by looking after it. Robin is a sprightly old lady with no obvious circulation problems who gets her exercise by doing her shopping. Grant, Norm and Robin each do 30 minutes of their own exercise. Grant is doing repetitions of 100 m sprints followed by 20 second breaks. Norm is out for a stroll with his dog. Robin is window shopping in a suburban shopping centre. Their changes in blood pressure, pulse rate and CH value as a result of this exercise are shown in the figure.

Question 14 The ratio of the rise in systolic pressure of Norm to Grant is approximately A 5:3 . C 11:8 . B 5:4 . D 4:1 . Question 15 In which of the following scenarios will the discharge of lactic acid from the muscles be most rapid? A Grant immediately after his 30 minutes exercise. B Grant 2 minutes after his 30 minutes exercise. C Robin immediately after her 30 minutes exercise. D Robin 2 minutes after her 30 minutes exercise. Question 16 After his exercise with the dog, Norm then drops in for a swim interrupting Grant’s repetitions. Grant and Norm swim together for four minutes. Norm is swimming as fast as he can; Grant swims along with him at Norm’s pace. Which of the following graphs best indicates the change in CK values of Grant and Norm during this four minutes and in the first two minutes following this swim.

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viii

Unit 8 The three figures below show different sexual life cycles that apply to particular groups of life forms. n represents a base number on which the number of chromosomes at each stage in the cycle can be calculated. During meiosis the 2n chromosomes split in a manner that results in genetic variability. There are 2n possible random assortments of chromosomes that can result from meiosis.

Question 17 In each of the cycles shown, there are 2n chromosomes present A in all cells as a result of mitosis. C in some cells as a result of meiosis. B in all cells as a result of meiosis. D in some cells as a result of fertilisation. Question 18 Which of the following describes a major benefit of sexual reproduction? A Despite chromosomal variation, all organisms maintain their ecological status in a particular environment. B The variation resulting from meiosis underlies the adaptability of these organisms to environmental change. C Increasing dominance of a species is dependent on variability in the results of sexual activity. D The number of chromosomes remains constant although their content is variable. Question 19 A cell contains 3 pairs of chromosomes and undergoes meiosis. How many possible combinations of chromosomes are there in each cell produced by meiosis? A 3 C 8 B 6 D 9 Question 20 Cloning of plants has become common practice over the past twenty years. The growing part of a plant is excised and placed in a ‘growing medium’ where it is vibrated randomly from time to time. The growing point loses its sense of direction and an undifferentiated mass of growing tissue results. This is shaved into tiny pieces each of which, given the right environment, can grow into a plant of the same chromosomal nature as the original plant. The process being capitalised on here is A meiosis. B zygote formation. C mitosis to form multicellular sporophytes. D mitosis to form multicellular gametophytes. © Desmond J O’Neill

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ix

Unit 9 In Shakespeare’s play Macbeth, Macbeth and Lady Macbeth have planned to assassinate both King Malcolm and his favourite, Duncan, while they are staying overnight in Macbeth’s castle. While the Court are at supper, the conspirators meet in another room of the castle. Passage 1 Enter Lady Macbeth Macbeth How now! what news? Lady M. He has alm ost supp’d. W hy have you left the cham ber? Macbeth Hath he ask’d for m e? Lady M. Know you not, he has. Macbeth W e will proceed no further in this business: He hath honour’d m e of late; and I have bought Golden opinions from all sorts of people, W hich would be worn now in their newest gloss, Not cast aside so soon. Lady M. W as the hope drunk, W herein you dress’d yourself? Hath it slept since? And wakes it now, to look so green and pale At what it did so freely? From this tim e Such I account thy love. Art thou afeard To be the sam e in thine own act and valour, As thou art in desire? W ould’st thou have that W hich thou esteem ’st the ornam ent of life, Or live a coward in thine own esteem , Letting ‘I dare not’ wait upon ‘I would’, Like the poor cat in the adage? Macbeth Pr’ythee, peace. I dare do all that m ay becom e a m an; W ho dares do m ore, is none. Lady M. W hat beast was’t then, That m ade you break this enterprise with m e? W hen you durst do it, then you were a m an; And, to be m ore than what you were, you would Be so m uch m ore the m an. Nor tim e, nor place, Did then adhere, and yet you would m ake both; They have m ade them selves, and that their fitness now Does unm ake you. Macbeth If we should fail? Lady M. W e fail? But screw your courage to the sticking-place, And we’ll not fail. Macbeth I am then settled, and bend up Each corporal agent to this terrible feat. Away, and m ock the tim e with fairest show: False face m ust hide what the false heart doth know.

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

Question 21 Which of the following is the most appropriate implication of ‘he has’ in line 5? The King has A requested that Macbeth return into his presence. B finished his meal and may surprise their meeting. C noticed Macbeth’s absence and become suspicious. D uncovered their plot and they should conspire no more.

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x Question 22 In lines 7 – 10, Macbeth is concerned most about his A honour. C destiny. B loyalty. D reputation. In the historical novel Macbeth the King by Nigel Tranter, Duncan poisoned Macbeth to clear Duncan’s way to the throne of Scotland. But Macbeth recovered. During the following winter, Duncan poisoned King Malcolm, summoned Macbeth, Mormaor of Moray, to the isolated island of Iona for the King’s burial, did not go himself but instead called most of the other Mormaors (rulers of various Scottish districts) to Scone. Passage 2 (from the novel) cites an exchange between Macbeth and Gruoch (Lady Macbeth) immediately on Macbeth’s arrival home from the burial. Passage 2

5

10

15

20

25

‘My dear’, she said, ‘Duncan has deceived and wronged you once m ore. He held his Council of Morm aors at Scone, whilst you were at Iona, and was appointed and enthroned King of Scots, on the Stone, the next day. He looked away and away. ‘So-o-o!’ he said at length. ‘I should have guessed. That is Duncan, yes. It was all a ruse. How does one deal with such a m an? Ah, well — it settles that problem , at least!’ ‘That crown should have been yours, m y heart!’ ‘Scarcely that. Duncan is son of the elder sister. Could have been m ine, shall we say? Had I desired it!’ ‘Should have been,’ she insisted. ‘through m e, your wife. I had m ore right to it than had Malcolm . Certainly m ore than Duncan. I should be Queen. Not Queen Consort, but Queen.’ He looked at her searchingly. ‘And did you want that, m y dear?’ She flung herself into his arm s. ‘God knows!’ she sobbed. ‘God knows — for I do not! But, but...that is what should have been. For you. To think of that Duncan, King! Yes — I wish it! I wish it!’ she gulped. ‘Your dream . Do not forget your dream . They [the witches] said — I see the Morm aor of Moray. I see the King!’ Troubled he sm oothed her dark hair. ‘It was but a dream , lass. And we are happy here, are we not? Happier, I swear, than on any throne.’ ‘Perhaps. Yes — we are. But ... can we deny our blood, our destiny?’ He did not answer. ‘You will accept it, then? Accept this wickedness? Do nothing?’ ‘W hat could I do? Even if I desired it? It is too late. He is the King now, crowned and seated on the Stone of Destiny. Nothing can change that. The thing is done!’ He brushed her hair. ‘Hush you, wom an. And forget Duncan the King and all others who would com e between us. You have Macbeth, for better or worse. And I have Gruoch. And I, for one, am content.’

Question 23 Gruoch claims to be the rightful heir because she A was closer in succession than Malcolm. B now has a husband and can claim the throne. C was next in succession once Malcolm was dead. D believes in witchcraft and the validity of Macbeth’s dream. Question 24 An acceptance of natural order was prevalent in Shakespearean times. Natural order means that people accept their place in life and live accordingly. Which of the following lines is based most on this concept? A Lines 1 – 3 Duncan ... Scots. B Lines 8 – 9 Duncan ... it. C Lines 15 – 16 Your ... King. D Line 19 But ... destiny. © Questions Desmond J O’Neill

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xi Question 25 If passage 2 was rewritten as a stage-play, what gesture would best interpret ‘He looked away and away. ‘So-o-o!’ ’ (line 4)? A wander the stage and moan C turn aside from Gruoch and sigh B stand and stare at the audience D draw sword and throw hands in the air Question 26 In view of the content of both passages, what is the most likely meaning of ‘the ornament of life’ (line 18, passage 1)? A courage C one’s own view of oneself B the crown of Scotland D the assassination of a tyrant Question 27 Which of the following best describes the difference in characterisation of Macbeth between the two passages? Macbeth is A disloyal to Malcolm (passage 1) but (passage 2) loyal to Duncan. B cowardly to act (passage 1) but (passage 2) cowardly in not acting. C fickle in his self-image (passage 1) but (passage 2) constant to his self-image. D still in command of his destiny (passage 1) but (passage 2) has lost control of his destiny.

Unit 10 The structure below represents one of several dozen known prostaglandins.

Question 28 How many chiral carbons are there in this prostaglandin? A 3 B 4 C 5

D

6

Question 29 How many cis-trans isomers of this prostaglandin are possible? A 2 B 4 C 8

D

16

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xii

Unit 11 NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) include a variety of different agents of different chemical classes. Most of these drugs have three major types of effects: • • •

Anti-inflammatory effects: modification of the inflammatory reaction Analgesic effect: reduction of certain sorts of pains Antipyretic effect: lowering a raised temperature

In general, all of these effects are related to the primary action of the drugs — irreversible inhibition of arachidonate cyclo-oxygenase and thus inhibition of the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes. There are two types of cyclo-oxygenase (COX), namely COX-1 and COX-2. COX-1 is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissues, including blood platelets (involved in blood clotting), and is involved in cell-cell signalling and in tissue homeostasis. COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated and is believed to be the enzyme that produces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation. Most NSAIDs in current use are inhibitors of both of these isoenzymes, though they vary in the degree of inhibition of each. The diagram below illustrates the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

Question 30 In which of the following instances would an NSAID be useful? A in the event of a fever C in the event of hypothermia B in the event of numbness D in the event of haemorrhage

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xiii Question 31 What is the mechanism of action of the NSAID indomethacin? A to inhibit arachidonic acid C to inhibit blood platelets B to inhibit cyclo-oxygenase D to inhibit arachidonate Question 32 Which of the following cannot be deduced from the information given? A Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to a reduction in oedema. B Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase does not affect blood clotting ability. C Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to changes in blood pressure. D Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to impaired blood clotting ability. Question 33 Piroxicam inhibits COX-2 exclusively. Which of the following might be expected if piroxicam is administered? A diminished inflammation B activation of inflammatory cells C a rise in prostaglandin production D a rise in the production of prostanoid inflammatory mediators Question 34 Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase. What might be expected if he takes the NSAID ibuprofen? A a reduction in prostacyclin-induced vasodilation B an increase in prostacyclin-induced vasodilation C an increase in thromboxane A2 induced vasoconstriction D no change in prostaglandin-induced blood vessel diameter

Unit 12 Question 35 ‘She has lost the art of conversation, but not, unfortunately, the power of speech.’ ! GB Shaw Which of the following quotations is most alike in meaning to that above of GB Shaw? A ‘Some persons talk simply because they think sound is more manageable than silence’ ! M Halsey B ‘The really important things are said over cocktails and are never done’ ! PF Drucker C ‘That is the happiest conversation where there is no competition, no vanity, but a calm exchange of sentiments’ ! S Johnson D ‘He has occasional flashes of silence that make his conversation perfectly delightful’ ! S Smith Question 36 Which two of the following quotations are most alike in meaning? I ‘Nothing has a stronger influence on their environment, and especially on their children, than the unlived lives of the parents’ ! C Jung II ‘Do not mistake a child for his symptom’ ! E Erikson III ‘Children have more need of models than of critics’ ! J Joubert IV ‘Children have never been very good at listening to their elders, but they have never failed to imitate them’ ! J Baldwin A I & II C I & IV B III & IV D II & III © Desmond J O’Neill

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xiv

Unit 13 The following extract is from an article by Geoffrey Wheatcroft.

5

10

Although only a small, and steadily decreasing, minority of Zionist1 settlers or Israelis2 ever lived on one, “kibbutz” or “collective” in Hebrew was the essence of the socialist-Zionist ideal of collectivism and egalitarianism. Its appeal extended far beyond the Zionist movement. Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive home, Jewish or not, will remember the aura surrounding the very name. For young people from western countries, a summer on a kibbutz was a rite of passage, and even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism revered the kibbutz ideal. With all his mixed feelings about Israel, Noam Chomsky continues to speak affectionately of the kibbutz, and EJ Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as well as presumably with some degree of admiration, that the kibbutz was a purer form of collective society than anything ever achieved in Soviet Russia. Such fondness always involved a degree of evasion.

15

Those who live in kibbutzim always denied they were colonial, insisting they were progressive, socialist and indeed anti-colonial. That is not how it seemed to Palestinians, or to a radical like Israel Shahak, a “non-Zionist Israeli”. He says the official left of Labour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there need be no conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first to discriminate against Arabs.

25

Those who live in the kibbutz today are less enthusiastic about the old principles of communal living and payment according to need rather than status. Shalom Nakar, an Iraqi-born member of the Mishmar David kibbutz, complains that “there is more ego and less togetherness, less and less social life together, fewer people come to committees to discuss important things. They prefer to watch television.” That is a pretty good description of society anywhere in the industrial or post-industrial west of which Israel is a part.

30

And yet this goes way beyond the triumph of television, consumer society or capitalist greed... Such collectives are passing out of fashion across the world. Equality and fraternity have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment. Maybe in a generation’s time there will be a few kibbutzim. But they will be relics of another age, and of an idea whose time has come and gone.

20

Notes:

1 2

Zionist: A movement aimed at the reestablishment of a Jewish nation in Palestine Israelis: Citizens of the nation Israel, founded in Palestine in 1948

Question 37 Wheatcroft claims that the word kibbutz had a mystical character among A all enlightened people. B those seeking a permanent Jewish State. C the offspring of a particular generation of forward-looking parents. D native-born Israelis brought up in enlightened family environments.

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xv Question 38 EJ Hobsbawm’s statement that ‘the kibbutz was a purer form of collective society than anything ever achieved in Soviet Russia’ (lines 10–11) is regarded by the author as A an accurate representation of the situation. B a judgement spurred on by zeal for the cause. C backing for the author’s own high regard of these collectives. D an example of unqualified support for the kibbutz movement. Question 39 Wheatcroft’s use of the word ‘colonial’ in line 13 implies a colony A that is spawned by a mother country. B destined to regain their true status in their homeland. C where all who live in the area share the same egalitarian ideals. D whose adherents enforced their rights over the native inhabitants. Question 40 Wheatcroft implies that the kibbutz movement was an offshoot of A right wing Zionism. C the politically ambivalent. B left wing Zionism. D socialists, Jewish or not. Question 41 Of the following, who was least fond of kibbutzism? A Noam Chomsky C EJ Hobsbawm B Israel Shahak D Shalom Nakar Question 42 Wheatcroft’s summing up of modern western life implies that A consumerism and capitalism have paved the way for the dominance of TV in our lives. B selfishness has become fashionable and acceptable. C equality and fraternity will rise as ideals again. D personal achievement is the current ideal.

Unit 14 In designing traffic signals, it is necessary to allow the orange light (between green and red) to remain on long enough so that the driver who is too close to the intersection to stop when the lights change from green to orange can pass completely through the intersection before the light turns red. Where u is the speed of the vehicle (m/s) D is the width of the intersection, t is the driver’s reaction time, and a is a reasonable rate of deceleration for a vehicle in such circumstances (a is negative) it can be shown that the light should remain on orange for a total time of t – u/2a + D/u . Question 43 The speed limit near an intersection is 60 kph and the width of the intersection is 15 m. A reasonable value for t is 0.5 sec and for a is –4 m/s2. The time that the light should remain orange is closest to A 0.6 sec . B 3.4 sec . C 5.2 sec . D 8.3 sec .

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xvi Question 44 A car is approaching an intersection and is a distance d from the intersection when the light changes from green to orange. It is able to stop before entering the intersection. In terms of u, t and a as defined above, which of the following is the expression for the smallest value of d? A ut – ½ at 2 B ut + ½ at 2 C ut – ½ u 2/a D ut + ½ u 2/a Question 45 In time, development overtakes the region around a 15 m wide intersection and an old people’s home and a primary school open in the immediate area. The old people have restricted licences to drive vehicles between 9:30 am and 3:30 pm only; their reaction times are longer than average. The intersection is within the ‘school zone’ where the speed limit drops from 60 kph to 40 kph between 8:30 am and 9:30 am and between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pm. The following symbols are allocated to the total time that the orange light should remain on: w between 8:30 am and 9:30 am x between 9:30 am and 2:30 pm y between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pm z at all other times. Which of the following must be true? A x > y and w > z C y > w and x > z B y > z and w > x D y>x>w>z

Unit 15 For the equation

aA + bB º cC + dD

a reaction quotient (Q) is defined

Q =

[C]c[D]d [A]a[B]b

where [A], [B], [C] and [D] are the concentrations of A, B, C and D respectively at any time during the reaction and a, b, c and d are appropriate constants. If G represents the free energy of the system at any stage during a reaction, ÄG represents the change that has occurred from their initial states to this stage during the reaction. If the reactants are completely converted into products ÄG is written as ÄGE. However, this rarely occurs and an equilibrium of products and reactants is often the outcome of a reaction. This equilibrium depends on the temperature (T) in Kelvin. These quantities are related to the Gas Constant (R) by the equation ÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQ This change in free energy ÄG can also be expressed in terms of the change in enthalpy ÄH and the change in entropy ÄS at any particular temperature T by ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS

If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0, they are already at the concentrations required for equilibrium and Q is given the symbol K where K is called the equilibrium constant.

xvii Question 46 If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0, A T will change. B ÄS will increase causing ÄH to increase. C ÄS will decrease causing ÄH to decrease. D ÄH and ÄS will be zero and T will remain constant. Question 47 If only the reactants, A and B, are supplied for a reaction and their total free energy, as supplied, is greater than the total free energy of the resultant amounts of product C and D if the reaction proceeds to conclusion, A ÄGE will be negative and initially Q < K . B ÄGE will be negative and initially Q > K . C ÄGE will be positive and initially Q < K . D ÄGE will be positive and initially Q > K . The following additional information relates to questions 48 – 49. Conceptually if ÄG = 0 , the equation ÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQ implies that ÄGE = –RT.lnK This equation relates the equilibrium constant of any reaction to the difference in free energy of total reactants and total products. Question 48 For a reaction between C2H2 and oxygen at 25 EC, Kp = 10429. This implies that A ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants. B ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products. C ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants. D ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products. Question 49 In the reaction C2H4 + H2 º C2H6 Kp = 5 x 1017 at 25 EC. 17 Given that R = 8.314 and that ln(5 x 10 ) = 40.761, which of the following is closest to the value of ÄGE for this reaction at 25 EC? A –8 kJ/mole B –100 kJ/mole C 80000 kJ/mole D 100000 kJ/mole The following additional information relates to question 50. Since ÄGE = –RT.lnK

it is clear that K depends on T as well as on the value and sign of ÄGE.

If KT1 at temperature T1 is known and the standard change in enthalpy ÄHE is also known, the equilibrium constant KT2 at any other temperature T2 can be calculated using the van’t Hoff equation K ÄHE 1 1 ln( T2) = ( – ) KT1 R T1 T2 Question 50 When a reaction is exothermic, ÄHE < 0. When endothermic, ÄHE > 0. If T1 > T2 , the van’t Hoff equation implies that if endothermic A or exothermic KT2 > KT1 C KT2 > KT1 and if exothermic KT2 < KT1 B or exothermic KT2 < KT1 D KT2 < KT1 and if exothermic KT2 > KT1

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xviii Try to get this test done in 75 minutes but, by all means, allow yourself as much time as you need to answer all the questions. Nonetheless, note the time you take and make allowance for this when you interpret your results. Time taken:

minutes

Apart from the ‘thinking skills’ that are tested in Gamsat, there are four recognisable practical skills that help you achieve good marks in MCQs. These are • the rate of uptake of text • recognition of what the question is actually asking • relating the question to segments of the passage • choosing as the answer that option which neither overstates nor understates the desired response. The last three of these can be improved by practising trialed units from which all the statistically unreliable/ ambiguous questions have been thrown away. Apart from ACER, we are the only group that has developed a bank of such questions at this level but you have to do our courses to gain access to them. Nonetheless, you can improve your rate of uptake of text, that is the amount of time and effort it takes you to read and absorb the stimulus material, by yourself. Because of the complexity of the material in Gamsat, this skill is not ‘speed-reading’. Improving your uptake of text requires that you read somewhat complex text on a regular basis, and develop the ability to absorb it efficiently. We recommend that you read each day the opinion (feature) articles in one of the better newspapers. These articles are usually found on the page/e-tab entitled Opinion. Each of the newspapers caters for a segment of the community and has its own level of language. For this purpose, we recommend The Times and The Guardian in UK and The Age, The Australian and The Sydney Morning Herald in Australia. When, after a while, you have had enough of the same writers and their opinions, switch to another paper. Reading opinion articles on a regular basis will enliven you to the implications of current affairs, will confront you with alternative opinions, improve your level of vocabulary and help you understand the implications of the ways in which words can be used.

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APPENDIX

Solutions to the Prognostic Test

Des O’Neill’s Prognostic Preparatory Test Answers (H for Humanities; S for Science) 1–H

B

11–S

D

21–H

A

31–S

B

41–H

B

2–H

D

12–S

D

22–H

D

32–S

B

42–H

D

3–H

C

13–S

D

23–H

A

33–S

A

43–S

B

4–H

A

14–S

A

24–H

D

34–S

D

44–S

C

5–H

B

15–S

A

25–H

C

35–H

A

45–S

C

6–S

C

16–S

B

26–H

B

36–H

B

46–S

D

7–S

C

17–S

D

27–H

C

37–H

C

47–S

A

8–S

A

18–S

B

28–S

C

38–H

A

48–S

C

9–S

B

19–S

C

29–S

B

39–H

D

49–S

B

10–S

A

20–S

C

30–S

A

40–H

B

50–S

D

Guides to the Answers 1

In stanza three — For now... — the author is positive about the smaller things of daily life, the interchanges, the adventures, the seeking of answers. Uncertainty is least evident in stanza three and B is the key.

2

The girl does not appreciate the importance of the sun or how wonderful is the day. Nor can she see the events that will bring her to a consideration of matters currently beyond the reach of the poet. D is the best of the options and is the key.

3

A, C and D are all possible answers but the poet marvels most at the child’s growing ability to translate experience into words. The key is C.

4

The poet realises that there is little that he can bequeath to his daughter — little by way of philosophy or ethics and that she will encounter a world beyond his experience. It is a world that she needs to navigate herself. The key is A.

5

The cartoonist wrote the captions and drew the figures. The willingness of one of the characters to take a chance with the money in the hope of receiving more without having to work for it indicates a level of behaviour that is often associated with deprivation caused by such a lack of initiative. The key is B.

6

As a result of intermediate carbocations, the following products are formed: CH3CH2OCH2CH3 CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH2CH3 The first and fourth of these are symmetrical. The second and third are identical. Thus, only three products are formed of which two are symmetrical. The key is C.

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7

The stimulus says that, to obtain a high yield of an ether, the halide needs to be methyl or primary. The first and third pair of reactants fit this requirement. In the second pair, the halide is tertiary and an alkene is the likely result. C is the key.

8

None of the pairs will yield a symmetrical ether. A is the key.

9

The alkoxide will react with each of the primary halides. Dipropyl ether and ethyl propyl ether will be formed. The presence of H2SO4 will not cause any further reaction. B is the key.

10

The reversion of the synthesis process should yield the reactants of that process. In that process, the halide was methyl or primary and the alcohol possibly more complex. Equation 1 yields a primary halide and equation 3 a methyl halide. These are the more likely yields. The key is A.

11

Pressure is force per unit area. If the area is doubled, the force is doubled but the pressure remains the same. The cross-sectional area of the tube is irrelevant in this question. The pressure (along the lower horizontal line) at any depth in a fluid is constant. Thus, the pressure PM is the pressure PN plus the pressure ñgy from the height y of the liquid. The key is D.

12

When he lifts the anchor, there is no change in the downward force of the boat on the water. The weight of the anchor in now acting through the fisherman onto the boat instead of directly onto the boat. So the water level relative to the boat stays the same. When the anchor was in the boat, the boat had to displace an amount of water equal to the weight of the anchor. However, when the anchor is put into the water, it will displace only an amount of water equal to the volume of the anchor. As the density of water is less than the density of the anchor (an anchor sinks), the boat will rise. This will cause the level of the water in the pool to fall. Thus, D is the key.

13

The mass of the egg-timer and its ‘sand’ remains unchanged throughout. However, as the ‘sand’ falls, it gains energy from the gravitational field. When the sand lands in the lower container, the release of this energy will provide an extra force on the pan which will register as an increase in mass. This force depends on the energy (½mv2) that the sand gets from the gravitational field. It thus depends on the mass of the sand that is falling, B, and its speed, C. But the speed generated depends on the distance that the sand falls, A. Thus A, B and C are all directly involved. Although the configuration (shape) of the sand in the bottom of the egg-timer will have an effect on the distance the sand falls, the actual mass of the sand will not. The key is D.

14

Norm’s rise in systolic pressure is 50 corresponding to a rise from 170 to 220. Grant’s corresponding rise in systolic pressure is 160 – 130 = 30. The ratio is 5:3. A is the key.

15

Robin has no obvious circulation problems and Robin’s exercise is such that lactic acid buildup is unlikely. On the other hand, Grant will have built up some lactic acid during his 30 minutes exercise. He can also be expected to have a high cardiac output. His pulse rate is highest at 30 minutes and at that time his cardiac output will be at its highest and the discharge of lactic acid will be most rapid. The key is A.

16

Grant has a higher value for CK than Norm because Grant exercises more frequently and more strenuously. However, as shown in the initial graph, the rate of build up in CK values (the slope of the graph) in Norm’s muscles is greater than in Grant’s. On the other hand, Grant’s rate of recovery is faster than Norm’s. The key to this question is the option that shows Norm’s graph with a greater positive slope during exercise and Grant’s graph with the greater negative slope during recovery. B is the key.

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17

In all cases zygotes containing 2n chromosomes form as a result of fertilisation. ‘Some’ is part of ‘all’; thus D is the key.

18

A is in conflict with evolutionary theory. In C, there is no guarantee that variability in a single species will increase its dominance over other species. D is true but is not a benefit. B is a benefit and is the key.

19

There are 2n combinations. In this case n = 3 and 23 = 8. C is the key.

20

The process at all stages is the production of identical plant cells which is mitosis to form multicellular sporophytes as shown in the third figure. The key is C.

21

‘He has’ is in reply to Macbeth’s ‘Hath he ask’d for me?’. The key is A.

22

‘I have bought golden opinions from all sorts of people’ (lines 7–8) indicate that Macbeth is happy with his current reputation. The key is D.

23

Lines 10–11: ‘I had more right to it than had Malcolm’ points to A as the key.

24

‘Can we deny...our destiny’ in line 19 calls in the natural order that Macbeth through Gruoch should have been King. The key is D.

25

Macbeth needed time to absorb the news of Duncan’s ruse and his own disadvantage. He needed to be alone with his thoughts for that moment. The key is C.

26

Given the sense of natural order and the right of Macbeth (passage 2) to the throne, the answer of being crowned King of Scotland (B) is the key.

27

In passage 1, Macbeth vacillates between murdering Malcolm and Duncan and his current reputation and status. In passage 2, Macbeth is more content in himself and in his relationship with his wife. The key is C.

28

A chiral centre needs four different attachments. There are five chiral centres. The key is C.

29

There are two double bonds. Each double bond is capable of cis-trans isomerism. The number of isomers is thus 22. The key is B.

30

NSAIDs are antipyretics (they reduce temperature). Therefore, in the event of a fever, an NSAID would be useful as it would aid in lowering the body temperature. The key is A.

31

We are told in the question that indomethacin is an NSAID. The passage states, within the third paragraph (In general...), that NSAIDs work through the “...irreversible inhibition of arachidonate cyclo-oxygenase...”. The key is B.

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32

The diagram indicates that cyclo-oxygenase potentiates oedema, therefore without cyclooxygenase, oedema would be expected to decline. Therefore A is a satisfactory deduction. The diagram states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclins and thromboxanes, each of which, though in different ways, impacts on blood clotting. Therefore D is true and B is false. The diagram also states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclin and thromboxanes, which cause vasodilation and vasoconstriction. Since changing the diameter of blood vessels causes a change in blood pressure, option C would also be true. The key is B.

33

The passage states that “COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated and is believed to be the enzyme that produces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation.” Piroxicam inhibits COX-2. Therefore, it would be expected that prostanoid mediators of inflammation would not be produced and thus inflammation would be diminished. The key is A. B and D would be incorrect because each opposes this line of reasoning. C would be incorrect because piroxicam inhibits cyclo-oxygenase; consequently, prostaglandin production would be reduced.

34

If Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase, then the pathway cannot proceed beyond the arachidonic acid step. Administering an NSAID would be pointless because there is no cyclo-oxygenase to inhibit. Thus, there would be no change in blood vessel diameter that is prostaglandin-induced. The key is D.

35

The point of the quotation from Shaw is that the lady does not communicate with others but talks to the point of monopolising the interchange. This is often the case when people perceive that gaps in dialogue are difficult and that it is obligatory to continue talking even if there is little interchange taking place. The key is A.

36

Both III and IV concentrate on the fact that children model their behaviour on that of adults. No other pair given in the options are as alike in meaning. The key is B.

37

Lines 4–5: ‘Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive home, Jewish or not, will remember the aura surrounding the very name.’ C is the key.

38

The author says (lines 9–10) ‘Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as well as presumably with some degree of admiration’ (but not ‘zeal’). A is the key.

39

Wheatcroft claims that the Palestinians were discriminated against (line 18) by the colonialists who, by implication, enjoyed more privileges than the native Arabs. D is the key.

40

‘Even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism’ (line 7) and ‘the official left of Labour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there need be no conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians’ (lines 15–17) indicate B as the key.

41

Shahak (lines 15–18) claims kibbutzniks ‘excelled in the pretence that there need be no conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first to discriminate against Arabs’. The others speak affectionately (line 9), show admiration (line 10), or complain (line 21) about the people but not about the kibbutz itself. B is the key.

42

Line 28: ‘have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment’ points to D as the key.

43

To get to the correct units, we need to change kilometres per hour (kph) to metres per second (m/s). Substituting t = ½ , u = 60 x 1000/3600, a = –4, D = 15 in the formula t – u/2a + D/u yields a time of 3.48 sec. The key is B.

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44

The car travels for time t at speed u before the driver reacts and travels a distance of ut in this time. It then comes to rest according to the equation v2 = 0 = u2 + 2as. The distance it travels while decelerating is thus – u 2/2a. So the total distance travelled is ut – u 2/2a. The key is C. (Note that a is negative.)

45

The presence of the terms u/a and D/u make the relationship of w, x, y, and z with u not linear. The best that can be said to be true is that when (a) the speed limit is 40 kph and (b) the old people, with longer reaction times, are driving cars, namely 2:30 pm to 3:30 pm, the ‘orange light time’ should be longer. That is, y > w. Similarly, when the speed limit is 60 kph, the ‘orange light time’ needs to be greater when the old people are driving than when they are not. So x > z. Thus, C is the key.

46

Mixing increases the entropy but the question implies that A, B, C and D are at their equilibrium concentrations for ÄG to be zero AFTER MIXING. So, the entropy does not change anymore and ÄS = 0. The stimulus states that the formula ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS is applicable only at constant T. So ÄG = 0 and ÄS = 0 implies that ÄH = 0 and D is the key.

47

The graph indicates that G for the reactants is greater than G for the products. Thus ÄGE is negative. Initially Q is zero because [C] and [D] are zero. K is always positive because the concentrations at equilibrium, small or large, are always positive. Therefore, initially Q < K and A is the key.

48

From the negative sign in the equation ÄGE = –RT.lnK ÄGE < 0 for this reaction because K is positive. If K is very large (10429), at equilibrium the numerator in

Q = K =

[C]c[D]d [A]a[B]b

must be very large compared to [A] and [B]. So products are favoured over reactants. C is the key. 49

ÄGE

= –RT.lnK = – 8.314 x 298 x ln(5 x 1017) . – 8 x 300 x 40 = – 96000 Although the units are not specified in the question, a negative sign is required in the answer. Thus, the answer must be chosen from A and B. –100 kJ is closest to –96 kJ or even numerically to –96000 and B is the key.

50

Because T1 > T2 , 1 1 1 1 – is certainly negative, just as – is negative. T1 T2 60 5 So if ÄHE is negative (exothermic), then K ln( T2) = some positive value KT1 and KT2 > KT1 . Similarly, if ÄHE is positive (endothermic), then K ln( T2) = some negative value KT1 and KT2 < KT1 . D is the key.

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Interpreting your scores Add up the total correct out of 20 for those questions designated as H for Humanities. Add up the total correct out of 30 for those questions designated as S for Science. Use the following table to establish your grades in Humanities and Science. Humanities

Science

19–20

A2

28–30

A2

18

A1

25–27

A1

17

B5

23–24

B5

16

B4

22

B4

15

B3

21

B3

14

B2

20

B2

13

B1

19

B1

12

C1

17–18

C1

11

C2

16

C2

10

C3

14–15

C3

9

C4

13

C4

8

C5

11–12

C5

5–7

D1

6–10

D1

0–4

D2

0–5

D2

Our interpretation of the grades for candidates to Australian Universities is as follows: A or B4 or B5 If your result at GAMSAT matches this result in all three sections, granted a reasonable interview, you should get in. B1 to B3 If you are still in this group in all three sections after you and everyone else who takes our courses have prepared for and sat GAMSAT, you are likely to get to interview. C Those at the very top of this group at GAMSAT are likely to get to interview. D You have to work hard if you are to make it. The scores you have achieved on this test do give a reasonable prognosis but don’t try to invent firm predictions, good or bad, of your score at GAMSAT. You really do need to prepare. So choose from our offerings those courses you think you will benefit from. We will give you on-going help and direction and powerful resources but you have to be self-motivated and proactive enough to do a heap of preparation yourself as well.

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Science Summary

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Science Summary for our Pre-Gamsat Science-Revision Course It is expected that candidates for GAMSAT will have familiarity with the subject matter at First Year equivalent for Chemistry and Biology and at A-Level or Year 12 equivalent for Physics. The following list is not intended to be exhaustive, nor definitive; however, it is indicative of the topics around which questions for the science-based paper of GAMSAT have been based. Candidates should ensure that the terminology, concepts and procedures within the topics listed are familiar and that processes, both mental and physical, and formulae are thoroughly conceptualised. ****************************************************************

Physical Chemistry Bonding Ions and ionic bonding, lattice enthalpies, hydrogen bonding, covalent bonds, octet rule, shared electrons, double and triple bonds Addition equations; resonance structures, substitution equations Solution chemistry Ions in solution, molarity, molality, mole fraction, solubility, concentration, saturation, solubility product Ks p Effect of temperature on solubility of solids and of pressure on solubility of gases Raoult’s law, BP & MP elevation/depression, osmosis & osmotic pressure, colloids Reactions Oxidation/reduction, activity series, balancing equations, use of half-reactions Gases Boyle’s, Charles’ and ideal gas laws, Avogadro’s law, STP, Dalton’s law of partial pressures, diffusion and effusion of gases, Graham’s law Van der Waals forces and the real gas equation, kinetic theory of gases, Maxwell’s distribution of gaseous molecular speeds Phases and phase equilibria Melting, vaporising, subliming, phase diagrams, triple point, latent heat Ion and dipole interaction and effects on MP & BP, vapour pressure, distillation, surface tension, capillary action Reaction rates First order and second order reactions, half-life of reactions, rate effects of catalysts/enzymes Activation energy, Arrhenius behaviour and rate dependence on temperature, reaction paths and rate-determining steps Chemical equilibrium Equilibrium constant in terms of concentrations or partial pressures, reaction quotient, Le Chatelier’s principle Effects of changes in concentration on equilibria, effects of pressure and temperature on equilibria Acids and bases Arrhenius acids and bases, Brønsted!Lowry acids and bases, conjugate bases, conjugate acids, pH, pOH, pKw , pKa , pKb Titrations, indicators, pH curves, titrations between strong/weak acids and strong/weak bases Common ion effect, buffer solutions, Henderson!Hasselbalch equation, buffer capacity Thermodynamics and thermochemistry Enthalpy and the first law of thermodynamics, endothermic and exothermic reactions, Hess’s law Entropy, Boltzmann’s constant, standard molar entropies, the second law of thermodynamics Standard free energies of formation and reaction Electrochemistry Galvanic cells, standard reduction potentials and the electrochemical series, standard cell potential, Faraday’s constant, Nernst equation Electrolysis, electroplating, electrochemical corrosion Nuclear chemistry Quanta, photons, Planck’s constant, Balmerÿ series, Rydberg constant Radioactivity, decay and half-life, á and ß particles, ã rays, use of radioactive isotopes, isotopic dating Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion, nuclear reactions, nuclear binding energy

Organic Chemistry & Biochemistry IUPAC system Rules for naming organic compounds (leading to interpreting names in order to determine structures) Alkanes and cycloalkanes, alkenes and alkynes Physical and chemical properties of each group, Addition polymers Aromatic compounds Nitration, sulfonation, halogenation, benzene derivatives, fused rings Resonance Resonance forms, resonance hybrids, stability, contribution of resonance forms to the resonance hybrid Reaction mechanisms Addition reactions, Markovnikov’s rule Substitution reactions, SN 1 and SN 2 reactions, suitable targets and neucleophiles E1 and E2 elimination reactions, Aldol condensation Alcohols Dehydration to give an alkene, dehydration to give an ether Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde to carboxylic acid, oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketone Acidic nature of phenols, physical properties of alcohols and phenols Ethers, thiols (mercaptans), thioethers (sulfides), disulfides, alkyl and aryl halides Aldehydes & ketones — linking to carbohydrates Intermolecular hydrogen bonding, polarity, bonding with water, Tollen’s and Benedict’s tests for aldehydes Substitution reactions to form acetals, ketals, reduction to alcohols, keto-enol tautomerism Carboxylic acids Hydrogen bonding, carboxylic acid salts, acetic acid, oxalic acid, lactic acid, citric acid Carboxylic esters — linking to lipids Hydrogen bonding, esterification from acid and alcohol by dehydration Hydrolysis of carboxylic esters by acid or base catalysts, esters and anhydrides of phosphoric acid Amines Bonding of hydrogen to nitrogen, dissolve to form ions, separation of amine salts via low pH solutions Amides & amino acids — linking to proteins as polyamino acids Hydrolysis of amides by acid or base catalysts, hydrolysis of amides by enzymes catalysts Amino acids: 19 common L-forms and glycine; ionic nature (zwitterions), act as buffers Isomers Constitutional isomers: Stereoisomers:

Different carbon skeletons, different functional groups, different positions of the same functional group Fischer projections, chirality, both R & S and D & L enantiomers cis & trans diastereoisomers in alkenes and in cyclic compounds, E & Z configurations

Spectrometry and spectroscopy Mass spectrometry, infra-red spectroscopy, ultra-violet & visible-light spectroscopy, NMR spectroscopy Carbohydrates — linking to aldehydes and ketones Monosaccharides: á & â, D-glucose á & â, D-mannose, D-galactose â-D-ribose, á-D-fructose Disaccharides: maltose — two á-D-glucose rings lactose — â-D-galactose & â-D-glucose sucrose — á-D-glucose & â-D-fructose Polysaccharides: starch — á-D-glucose glycogen — á-D-glucose cellulose — â-D-glucose Proteins — linking to amino acids Polyaminoacids: peptides, polypeptides, proteins Proteins: solubility, isoelectric points, zwitterions; primary structure (disulfide linkages), secondary structure (á-helix, â-pleated sheet, triple helix of collagen, hydrogen bonding between CO and NH groups), tertiary structure (disulfide bridges, hydrogen bond bridges, salt bridges, hydrophobic interactions), quaternary structure Enzymes: rate of enzymic activity—enzyme and substrate concentrations, temperature, pH, action of inhibitors; mechanisms of enzyme activity; cofactors, regulatory sites, feedback inhibition Lipids — linking to carboxylic esters Fats: esters based on glycerol; triglycerides, saturated/unsaturated fats; hydrogenation; saponification; lipid bilayers Complex lipids: phosphoglycerides, particularly lecithin, sphingolipids, glycolipids, particularly the cerebrosides Steroids: HDL and LDL cholesterol; aldosterone; cortisol and cortisone; testosterone, oestradiol and progesterone

Physics Translational motion F=ma, velocity equations, circular motion, friction, motion under gravity alone, projectile motion, gravitational force Equilibrium Addition of vectors and components of vectors, forces in statics, forces in pulley systems/muscles, mechanical advantage Momentum, work, energy, power Impulse, change in momentum, work, change in energy, kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy Hooke’s law and elastic potential energy, power as the rate of doing work Waves and periodic motion Transverse and longitudinal waves, v = f.ë , refection of waves, Huygens’s principle, phase, refraction, diffraction, interference Periodic motion and, in particular, simple harmonic motion, relationship between simple harmonic motion and circular motion Light Laws of reflection, plane and curved mirrors, mirror equation Refraction, refractive index, Snell’s law, total internal reflection, optical fibres, concave and convex lenses, lens equation, optical instruments Overlapping diffraction and interference patterns Sound Transmission and relative speed of sound in solids/liquids/gases Two source interference, Doppler effect, harmonics and resonance in pipes and strings Solids, liquids and gases Density and specific gravity, Archimedes principle Hydrostatic pressure, continuity equation, Bernoulli’s equation, viscosity, elasticity Electrostatics Charges on insulators, electric fields and field strength Coulomb’s law, electric potential energy, potential difference Electric current Batteries, resistors, current, voltage, resistance, power, Ohm’s law, Kirchoff’s laws Parallel plate capacitors, series and parallel connections of cells, resistors and capacitors Electromagnetism Magnets and magnetic fields, magnetic effects of electricity, solenoids, force on a conductor in a magnetic field, electric motors, electric meters Coils moving in magnetic fields, Faraday’s law, transformers, electric generators Electromagnetic radiation, atomic and nuclear physics Photoelectric effect, X-rays, photon movement and Compton scattering, wave/particle duality, quantum energy levels Radioactive decay, á and ß particles, ã rays, half-life, isotopes

Biology Note: Biology is a diverse area of knowledge and ‘First Year Biology’ is not necessarily a meaningful set. However, one semester of cell biology, including some appropriate biochemistry, is usual; many students then continue with genetics or with human anatomy/physiology. The key areas are cell biology, with its associated biochemistry, cellular reproduction and genetics, and homeostasis.

Cell Biology and Biochemistry Structure of animal and plant cells Plasma membrane, nuclear envelope, chromatin, nucleolus, ribosomes, rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, microfilaments, microtubules, peroxisome (or microbody), as well as cell wall, plasmodesmata, plastids, chloroplasts, vacuole, tonoplast, centrioles, lysosome, cilia and flagella Fluid mosaic model of membranes Selective permeability, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, active transport, the sodium-potassium pump, the proton pump Exocytosis, endocytosis Nucleic acids, genetic codes & protein synthesis RNA and DNA, bases, nucleotides, primary and secondary structure of DNA, DNA replication, mRNA, tRNA and rRNA Transcription and translation of genetic codes, genes and gene regulation Cellular respiration (biochemical approach) Glycolysis, â-oxidation of fatty acids, citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis ATP synthesis: AMP, ADP, ATP, NAD+ , FAD, NADH, FADH2 , acetal CoA Pentose phosphate pathway, ascorbic acid pathway, gluconeogenesis Glycogen metabolism, formation of ketone bodies, oxidation of amino acids, urea cycle Photosynthesis Chloroplasts, light reactions, Calvin-Benson cycle, photooxidation of chlorophyll, cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria, C3 , C4 and CAM pathways

Cellular Reproduction and Genetics Cellular reproduction and embyrogenesis Eukaryotic chromosomes, the cell cycle, comparison between mitosis and meiosis, fertilisation, cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis Inheritance and genetic codes Mendel’s laws, dominance, recessiveness, chromosomes and genetic variation, incomplete dominance in genes Codominance, multiple alleles, inheritance of traits and disorders, genotypes and phenotypes, pleiotropy, epistasis, pedigree analysis Linked genes, crossing-over, sex linked traits, mutations of genes

Human Biology Musculoskeletal system Skeletal system, bone tissue and formation, cartilage, calcium regulation, axial and appendicular skeleton, joints and movement, disorders/diseases Muscular system and muscle tissue, functions and properties, disorders/diseases Human digestive system Nutrition and nutritional disorders, digestion in mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, disorders/diseases Structure and functions of pancreas, liver and gall bladder, disorders/diseases Circulatory system Components of blood including erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, plasma, haemoglobin and their functions Blood groups, antigens and antibodies, blood vessels, blood flow, materials transported including carriage of O2 and CO2 , disorders/diseases Structure and action of the heart, blood pressure, circulation, disorders/diseases Respiratory system Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli Structure and function of lungs, the control of respiratory gases, gas exchange to circulatory system, disorders/diseases Urinary system Homeostasis, structure and functions of kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, disorders/diseases Glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption of solutes, reabsorption and regulation of water, regulation of salt Nervous system Central nervous system, structure and properties of neurones, neuroglia, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid Brain, spinal cord, visceral nerves, disorders/diseases Peripheral, autonomic, sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, disorders/diseases Reproductive system Female reproductive system, disorders/diseases, male reproductive system, disorders/diseases Sexually transmitted diseases, methods of birth control Endocrine system Hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pineal and thymus glands, disorders/diseases Major hormones, stress reactions, growth regulation Disease prevention and the immune system Non-specific and specific defence mechanisms, antibodies, immunity, allergies, lymphatic system, lymph nodes, effector cells, disorders/diseases Homeostasis Positive and negative feedback

References You may wish to refer Google or to textbooks to round out some of the topics of our 556 page book of science notes. The references with which you are most familiar are probably the best for you. Nonetheless, for those who have been away from science studies for some time, the books on the following list are recommended. You may wish to view the asterisked texts first. Organic Chemistry Physical Chemistry Biochemistry Physics General Biology Human Biology

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*McMurry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/Cole Brown, Foote & Iverson Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/Cole *Zumdahl Chemical Principles Houghton Mifflin Co Silverberg Chemistry McGraw-Hill *Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry WH Freeman & Co Berg, Tymoczko & Stryer Biochemistry WH Freeman & Co *Giancoli Physics Pearson Prentice Hall *Campbell and Reece Biology Benjamin/Cummings Knox, Ladiges, Evans, Saint Biology McGraw-Hill *Tortora and Grabowski Principles of Anatomy and Physiology John Wiley and Sons Inc Phillips and Chilton A-Level Biology Oxford University Press

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