Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-B)

for

2015 Practice Paper for Test No. 3 (Code-B) TOPICS OF THE TEST Physics Chemistry

Biology

Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organellesstructure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ PHYSICS ] 1.

2.

3.

A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 6R above the surface of the earth, where R is the radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5R from the surface of the earth is (1) 6 h (2) 8.48 h (3) 48 h (4) 67.2 h A satellite of mass m is raised from its orbit at height R to new orbit at a height 2R from surface of earth. Find the work done in this process. (g = Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth and R = Radius oef earth) (1)

mgR 6

(2)

mgR 4

(3)

mgR 8

(4)

mgR 12

A pressure P is applied on a sphere. By how much should its temperature be raised to maintain its original volume ? The material of sphere has a and b as its thermal coefficient of superficial expansion and its Bulk's modulus respectively. (1)

P 

(2)

5.

2P 2P (4) 3 3 There are two Cu spheres having same size, one of them is hollow and the other one is solid. They are supplied with same amount of heat (1) Solid sphere will get more rise in temperature (2) Hollow sphere will expand more (3) Solid sphere will expand more (4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

(4) 98 F

8g of He at T0 is mixed with 32 g of O2 at 3.2 T0 at constant volume. The temperature of the mixture is (1) T0

8.

(3) 3 6

(4) 2

9.

A polyatomic gas with six degree of freedom does 25 J of work, when it is expanded at constant pressure. The heat given to the gas is (1) 100 J (2) 150 J (3) 200 J (4) 250 J 10. A unif orm rod has a length L. The rod gets elongated due to its own weight. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of its elongation with length L? (Elongation and length are taken on Y and X axes respectively)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11. A bar of crosssection area A is subjected two equal and opposite tensile forces at its ends as shown in figure. Consider a plane BBmaking an angle with the length. For what value of , shearing stress is maximum ?

(2) 5.6 km/s

(3) 11.2 km/s (4) 4.3 km/s Temperature of triple point of water in Fahrenheit is (1) 32 F (2) 32.018 F (3) 212 F

7.

(2) 4

A particle is thrown with escape velocity ve = 11.2 km/s from the surface of earth. Its velocity at height, 3R = 19200 km is (1) 9.25 km/s

6.

(1) 2 6

P 

(3) 4.

v1 is equal to v2

(1) 90 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 0 12. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is (= density of water)

(2) 2T0

(3) 2.5 T0 (4) 4T0 The root mean square speed of hydrogen molecule is v1 at temperature TK. The most probable speed of oxygen molecule is v 2 at same temperature. Then

(1)

v2 

P 

(2)

v2 

P 

(3)

v2 

2P 

(4)

v2 

2P 

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13. A uniform wire fixed at its upper end hangs vertically and supports a weight at its lower end. If its radius is r, length is L and the Young’s modulus for the material of the wire is E, then extension produced in the wire is (1) Directly proportional to E (2) Inversely proportional to r (3) Directly proportional to L (4) All of these 14. Radius of soap bubble having surface tension T is increased from r to 2r. Work done in increasing its radius is (1) 24r2T (2) 8r2T (3) 32r2T (4) 16r2T 15. A tank is filled with a liquid upto a height H. A small hole is made at the bottom of this tank. If t1 be the time taken to empty first half of the tank and t2 the time taken to empty rest half of the tank, then (1) t1 > t2

t1 1 (4) t  2 2 16. Heat absorbed by the ideal gas in the cyclic process ABCDA in one cycle is P

(3) t1 = t2

P0 0 (1)

A

V

2V0

P0V0 2

(2) 2P0V0

(3) P0V0

(4)

P0V0 4

3G (4)  4 21. A thin rod of mass m and length L is bent to from semicircle, then gravitational potential at the centre of semicircle is

(1)

GM L

(2)

GM L

Which one of the following graphs best represents variation of rate of cooling (R) with temperature of the body?

R

ba (2) AE    a 

Ea Ab

(3) AE

temperature (0) of surrounding in which it is kept.

(1)

of the mixture is

(1) 1.5 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.33 20. An infinite number of masses, each of 1 kg are placed on the positive x-axis at 1 m, 2 m, 4 m.... from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational field at origin due to this distribution of masses is 4G (1) 2G (2) 3

(1)

17. Temperature of a body () is slightly more than the

R

Cv

(3)

C

V0

Cp

GM GM (4) 2L 2L 22. A steel ring of radius a and cross-sectional area A is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius b (b > a). If modulus of elasticity is E then, necessary tension to expand the steel ring is

B

D

temperature. The ratio of

(3)

(2) t1 < t2

2P0

18. A Carnot engine operates with efficiency of 50%, when its sink temperature is 27°C. How much should the temperature of source be raised in order to increase efficiency to 70%? (1) 400 K (2) 500 K (3) 600 K (4) 700 K 19. Two mole He is mixed with 2 mole N2 at room

b a

(4)

E ba A  a 

23. An ice block floats in a liquid, whose density is less than water. A part of block is outside the liquid. When whole of ice has melted, the liquid level will (1) Remain same (2) Fall (3) Rise (4) First rise then fall 24. When a body dropped in a viscous fluid, then velocity-time graph is

(2)



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



R

R

(3)

(4)





3/16

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25. A tank is filled upto a height h with a liquid and is placed on a platform of height h from the ground, to get maximum range (R) a small hole is punched a distance of y from free surface of liquid, then (1) R = 2h

3h (2) R  2

(3) y = h

(4) Both (1) and (3)

26. A cubical closed vessel of side l is completely filled with water. It is accelerated with acceleration a along positive x-axis as shown. Select correct relation

29. When some heat is added to a gaseous system, then select incorrect statement (1) Its temperature must increase (2) Its temperature may increase (3) Its temperature m,ay remains unchanged (4) Both (2) and (3) 30. For a body to escape from the surface of the earth, the angle with the horizontal at which it should be projected is (1) 30

(2) 45

(3) 60

(4) Any angle

31. A metallic sphere weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in an unknown liquid. The density of the unknown liquid in (kg/m3) is (1) PA < PD = PC

(2) PD > PC > PB

(3) PA = PB < PC

(4) PA < PD < PC

27. A glass slab is kept vertical in water. Water surface in contact with slab rises upto a height h as shown. The radius of curvature of free surface of water varies from point P to Q. If angle of contact is zero and after Q surface becomes horizontal, then the radius of curvature of free surface at point P is

(1) 1000

(2) 2000

(3) 3000

(4) 4000

32. A square metal plate of area 2 m 2 is moving horizontally at a speed of 2 m/s by applying a horizontal tangential force over the free surface of a liquid. If the depth of the liquid is 4 m and liquid at the bottom is stationary then the tangential force needed to move the plate is (coefficient of viscosity of liquid is 10–3 decapoise) (1) 2 × 10–3 N

(2) 1 × 10–3 N

(3) 3 × 10–3 N

(4) 4 × 10–3 N

33. A steel tape (thermal coefficient of linear expansion = 1.2 × 10–5 (°C)–1 ) is calibrated at 25°C. On a cold day when the temperature i s 0°C, the percentage error in the measurement would be (1)

2h 3

(2)

(3)

h 3

(4) h

h 2

(1) 0.01

(2) 0.02

(3) 0.03

(4) 0.04

34. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken round the cyclic process ABCA as shown in figure. The work done by the gas is

28. Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas is taken through a cyclic process A B C D A as shown.

(TA = 100K, T B = 200K, T C = 300K, T D = 150K, R = 8.31 J/mol-K) The net work done by the gas during the cyclic process A B C D A is (1) – 831 J

(2) – 1662 J

(3) + 831 J

(4) + 1662 J

(1) 4P0V0

(2) 3P0V0

(3) 2P0V0

(4) P0V0

35. A body cools from 60°C to 40°C in 10 minute. If the temperature of the surroundings is 10°C then the temperature after next 10 minute will be (1) 20°C

(2) 22°C

(3) 25°C

(4) 28°C

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36. Three point objects each of mass m are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle. They start rotating about centroid of triangle with an angular velocity  due to mutual gravitational attraction. The time period of revolution will be (r = distance of the masses from the centroid of equilateral triangle)

(1)

3 :1

(3) 3 : 1

(2) 1: 3 (4) 1 : 3

40. Which of the following cannot be the coefficient of performance of a heat pump?

(1) 2

3 r3 Gm

(3) 2

r3 3Gm

3r 3 (2)  Gm

(4) 

(1) 0.8

(2) 100

(3) 200

(4) 300

41. The escape speed of particle of mass m from earth surface varies as

r3

(1) m2

(2)

3Gm

(3) m0

(4) m–1

37. Gravitational potential varies according to the equations Vx = x2y, Vy = xy, Vz = y2z, the correct relation for gravitational acceleration will be   (1) g  [2xyi  xj  y 2 k]   (2) g  [2xyi  yj  y 2 k]

m

42. Bulk modulus of water is 2 ×1011 N/m2. change in pressure required to increase density of water by 0.1% is (1) 2 × 104 N/m2

(2) 2 × 106 N/m2

(3) 2 × 108 N/m2

(4) 2 × 109 N/m2

43. At which speed, the velocity head of water is equal to pressure head of 5 cm ?

  (3) g  [2xyi  yj  y 2 k]   (4) g  [x 2 i  yj  2yzk]

38. Masses of the earth and the moon are M and 2M respectively and d is distance between centre of Earth and Moon. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be projected from a point d at a distance from the centre of earth so as to 3 escape is

(1) 10 m/s

(2) 1 m/s

(3) 10 2 m/s

(4)

2 m/s

44. Force of buoyancy does not depend on (1) Density of fluid (2) Density of solid body immersed in the fluid (3) Volume of fluid displaced by the solid body (4) Effective acceleration due to gravity

(1)

GM d

(2)

6GM d

(3)

3GM d

(4)

12GM d

39. The volume V versus temperature T graphs for a certain amount of a perfect gas at two pressure, P1 then P will be 2

45. In a 8 m deep lake, the bottom is a constant temperature 4°C, the air temperature is –3°C, the thermal conductivity of ice is 4 times that of water. Neglecting the expansion of water on freezing, the maximum thickness of ice will be (1) 6m

(2) 5m

(3) 4m

(4) 3m

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[ CHEMISTRY ] 46. An ionic solid is hexagonal close packing of Q–2 ions and P+x ions are half of tetrahedral voids. The value of x should be (1) 1

(2) 2

1 2 47. Scandium oxide (Sc2O3) crystallises with the oxide ions in a closed packed array with the scandium ions in octahedral holes. W hat fraction of the octahedral holes are filled?

(3) 4

(4)

(1) All

(2)

2 3

1 1 (4) 3 2 48. Diazonium salt decomposes as

(3)

+

N 2 Cl

–

Cl + N2

At 0°C, the evolution of N2 becomes four times faster when the initial concentration of the salt is increased four times. Therefore, it is (1) A first order reaction (2) A second order reaction (3) Zero order reaction (4) A third order reaction 49. Which of the following reaction energy diagrams best represents a reaction in the forward direction, that is non-spontaneous with two intermediate states? G G Reactant

Reactant

(1)

(2) Product

Product

Reaction coordinate

Reaction coordinate

G

G

Product

(3)

Product

(4)

Reactant

Reaction coordinate

Reactant

Reaction coordinate

50. The reaction rates for many spontaneous reactions are actually very slow. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation? (1) The standard entropy change is < 0 (2) The activation energy is high (3) The standard free energy change for the reaction is > 0 (4) These reactions are endothermic

51. 0.5% aqueous solution of KCl was found to freeze at – 0.24°C. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor and degree of dissociation of the solute at this concentration (Kf for H2O = 1.86 K kg mol–1). (1) 74.5% (2) 19.2% (3) 92% (4) 48% 52. Which of the following is the correct order of boiling points of the following solutions? a. 0.15 M NaCl b. 0.4 M glucose solution c. 0.15 M CaCl2 solution d. 0.15 M urea solution (1) d < a < c < b (2) d < b < a < c (3) d < a < b < c (4) d < c < b < a 53. At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of Hg of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by the equation p = 120 xA + 140, where xA is the mole fraction of methanol. Then the value of lim

pA

x A 1 x

is

A

(1) 250 mm (2) 140 mm (3) 260 mm (4) 20 mm 54. For the galvanic cell Ag |AgCl(s), KCl(0.2 M)| |KBr(0.001 M); AgBr(s)| Ag. Calculate the emf generated f or the abov e combination at 25°C. Given ksp(AgCl) = 2.8 × 10–10 ksp(AgBr) = 3.3 × 10–13 (1) 0.0371 volt (2) – 0.0371 volt (3) 0.371 volt (4) – 0.371 volt 55. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Both conductance and molar conductance increase on increasing concentration (2) Both conductance and molar conductance decrease on increasing concentration (3) Conductance increases but molar conductance decreases on increasing concentration (4) Conductance decreases but molar conductance increases on increasing concentration 56. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Increase in temperature increases electrolyte conductivity but decreases metallic conductivity (2) Increases in temperature increases reduction electrode potential (3) Increasing temperature increases rate of exothermic reactions (4) Increasing temperature increases defects in NaCl 6/16

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x and log p is a straight line at m an angle 45° with intercept on y-axis, 0.3010. Calculate the amount of the gas adsorbed in gram per gram of the adsorbent when pressure is 0.2 atm.

57. Graph between log

(1) 0.4

(2) 0.6

(3) 0.8

(4) 0.2

58. Find the incorrect match Sol.

Coagulating power

(1) Fe(OH)3 sol prepared

NaCl > CaCl2

by adding FeCl3 to Fe(OH)3 precipitate (2) Gold

NaCl < CaCl2

(3) Soap sol

AlCl3 > NaCl

(4) As2S3

AlCl3 > CaCl2

59. HF is a weak acid at 25°C, the molar conductivity of 0.002 M HF solution is 176 s cm 2 mol –1. Also, molar conductiv ity at inf inite dilution (HF) is 405 s cm2 mol–1, Ka of HF is (1) 6.4 × 10–2

(2) 6.48 × 10–4

(3) 2 × 10–3

(4) 2.6 × 10–4

60. At constant temperature, S will be maximum for which of the following processes? (1) Vaporisation of a pure solvent (2) Vaporisation of solvent from solution containing nonvolatile and non-electrolytic solute in it (3) Vaporisation of solvent from a solution containing nonvolatile but electrolytic solute in it (4) Entropy change will be same in all the above cases 61. In the given body centered cubic unit cell each sphere has a radius ‘r’ and edge length ‘a’. What fraction of the total cube volume is empty?

(1) 2 

8 r 3 3 a3

(2)

8 r 3 3 a3

(3) 1 

8 r 3 3 a3

(4)

4 r 3 3 a3

62. When 0.45 mole of a compound crystallise in HCP hexagonal close packed structure, the total number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids present in lattice is (1) 4.54 × 1023 (2) 2.19 × 1023 23 (3) 8.13 × 10 (4) 9.95 × 1022  r  63. The value of radius ratio    for ionic solid having r  coordination number 4 for cation would be (1) 0.225 to 0.414 (2) 0.414 to 0.732 (3) 0.732 to 1 (4) Both (1) & (2) 64. Henry’s law constant for CO2, O2 and He in the correct sequence at constant temperature and pressure is (1) CO2< O2< He (2) O2< CO2< He (3) He < CO2< O2 (4) CO2= O2= He 65. The osmotic pressure of 35% (w/v) glucose solution is 1.54 atm and that of 21.6% (w/v) urea solution is 2.86 atm. When equal volumes of the above two solutions are mixed, the osmotic pressure of resulting solution is (1) 2.2 atm (2) 4.4 atm (3) 1.1 atm (4) 1.32 atm 66. Which of the following binary solutions shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law? (1) Chloroform + Acetone (2) Acetone + Aniline (3) HNO3+ H2O (water) (4) All of these 67. 1 g acetone (d = 0.6 g ml–1) is mixed with 2 g of water (d = 1.0 g /mL) hence volume percent of acetone (v/v) is nearly (1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 45% (4) 60% 68. Which of the following is not correct for dry cell? (1) Zinc is used as anode (2) Manganese is reduced from + 4 to + 3 state (3) It is a primary cell (4) NH3 gas is liberated out 69. A 500 ml of 0.2 M Cd+2 electrolysed with a current of 96.5 A. If the remaining concentration of Cd+2 ions is 0.1 M, then the duration of electrolysis is (1) 50 s (2) 75 s (3) 125 s (4) 100 s 70. Which of the following is/are correct statement? A. If salf bridge is removed, potential of cell falls to zero. B. Cell reaction is spontaneous if emf is positive. C. At equilibrium E° cell becomes zero. (1) B only (2) A & B (3) A, B & C (4) B & C

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1 A 2  g  B  g  C  g exhibit an 2 increase in pressure from 140 mm to 160 mm in 10 min. The rate of disappearance of A2 in mm per min is (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 10 (4) 20 72. Which of the following is/are correct for first order reaction?

71. A react ion,

I.

II.

1

(1)

x  kP m

(2)

x  kP n m

(3)

x  kP1 m

(4)

x  kPn m

76. Which of the following is a shape selective catalyst? (1) Cu|ZnO-Cr2O3 (2) Platinised asbestose (3) ZSM-5 (4) Acetanilide 77. Henry law constant (KH) values for P, Q, R and S are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413 respectively. Which one has maximum solubility? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S 78. An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic cell when (1) Eext > Ecell (2) Eext < Ecell (3) Ecell = 0 (4) Eext = Ecell 79. Which of the following is a zero-order reaction? Au  H2  I2 (2) NO + O3  NO2 + O2 (1) 2HI  Surface

80.

III.

(1) I only (2) I & II (3) II & III (4) I, II & III 73. The Arrhenius equation shows the dependence of rate 

Ea

constant on temperature. In which k  Ae RT condition the rate constant k is smallest for a reaction? (1) Small Ea and low T (2) Small Ea and high T (3) Large Ea and low T (4) Large Ea and high T 74. If ‘a’ is initial concentration of reactant and n is the order of reaction then correct expression for half life (t1/2) would be (1)

(3)

1 1n 

a

1 an

(2)

(4)

81.

1 1n 

a

1 a

82.

n1

75. When a graph is plotted between x/m versus pressure at constant temperature. The Freundlich equation at ‘B’ is (if n > 1)

83.

(3) H2O2  H2O + ½O2 (4) N2O5  NO2 + ½O2 Select the correct statement (1) Molecularity of the reaction can be zero or fractional (2) We determine order of reaction from balanced chemical equation always (3) The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of catalyst (4) All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation Choose the incorrect statement (1) Catalyst alters the rate of reaction by changing Ea (2) e–Ea/RT is fraction of molecules with energy equal or greater than Ea (3) Second t1/2 of first order reaction is half of the first t1/2 (4) All of these Which of the following is not true to the phenomenon of physisorption? (1) H < 0 (2) H > 0 (3) S < 0 (4) G = –ve A first order reaction is 30% completed in 30 minute. How much time will it require for 100% completion? (1) 100 minute (2) 90 minute (3) 60 minute (4) Infinite

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84. Consider the following statements regarding complex reaction : I. A complex reaction proceeds through several steps. II. The molecularity of reaction is the sum of molecularity of each step. III. Order of a complex reaction is determined by the fastest step in its mechanism. Choose the correct statement(s) (1) I & II (2) II & III (3) Only I (4) I, II & III 85. Collodion is (1) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of alcohol and ether (2) 95.5% solution of ethanol (3) Colloidal solution of gold (4) A type of semipermeable membrane 86. Choose the correct statement(s) (1) Eocell is zero for concentration cell (2) Ecell  0 , when cell reacti on approaches equilibrium (3) Specific conductance of all electrolytes decreases on dilution

(4) All are correct 87. During rusting following redox reaction takes place : 1  2  2H   O2  Fe  H2O  Fe   ;Eo  1.67V 2

What is G° of the reaction? (1) –322.31 kJ (2) –161.155 kJ (3) 322.31 kJ (4) +161.155 kJ 88. Which of the following has the highest Kf? (1) Camphor (2) Water (3) Chloroform (4) Benzene 89. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 0.63 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such a solution at 27°C is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. What will be the approx molar mass of the protein? [R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1] (1) 61022 g mol–1 (2) 30520 g mol–1 (3) 15255.5 g mol–1 (4) 122044 g mol–1 90. 31 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 500 g of water. What will be the freezing point of water? [Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1] (1) 269.14 K (2) 271.29 K (3) 275.01 K (4) 273.95 K

[ BIOLOGY ] 91. Elaioplasts, amyloplasts and aleuroplasts (1) Contain ds DNA molecule (2) Store nutrients and pigments (3) Store starch, fat and protein respectively (4) Divide by multiple fission 92. Which of the following statements are correct?

93. Which of the following organelle is not bounded by two lipoprotein membranes? (1) Nucleus

(2) Golgi body

(3) Mitochondria

(4) Plastid

94. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? a. Colchicine inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle.

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis.

b. Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm of dicot plants during interphase.

b. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesised on free ribosomes.

(1) Only a is correct

(2) b and c are correct

(3) Only b is correct

(4) a and c are correct

c. In eukaryotic cell there is an extensiv e compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the presence of membrane bound organelles

c. Cell cycle is under the genetic control.

95. Prophase of the mitotic division is (1) Longer and more complex than prophase-I of meiosis

d. ER is found prominently in human eggs and sperms.

(2) Shorter and less complex than prophase-I of meiosis

(1) All are correct

(2) b and d

(3) a, b and d

(4) a and c

(3) Longer and less complex than prophase-I of meiosis (4) Shorter and more complex than prophase-I of meiosis 9/16

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96. Choose the incorrect match

103. Conjoint type of vascular bundles are present in

(1) Synapsis

–

Zygotene

(1) Root, stem

(2) Root, leaves

(2) Phragmoplast

–

E.coli

(3) Stem, leaves

(4) Root only

(3) DNA replication

–

S-phase

(4) Pachytene

–

Crossing over

97. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is provided by a living tissue called

104. Which of the following functions are performed by heart wood? a. Mechanical support b. Durable

(1) Collenchyma

(2) Aerenchyma

c. Conduction

(3) Chlorenchyma

(4) Sclerenchyma

d. Pathogen resistant

98. Dicot root is different from monocot root in having (1) Fewer xylem bundles (2) Polyarch condition (3) Large and well developed pith

(1) a, c and d

(2) a, b, c and d

(3) a, b and c

(4) a, b and d

105. Undifferentiated mesophyll is present in the leaf of (1) Potato

(2) Sunflower

(3) Pea

(4) Wheat

(4) Pericycle 99. Pick the odd one out (1) Glyoxysome –  oxidation of fatty acid

106. Discovery of nucleus is credited to

(2) Peroxisome – Enzyme for peroxide synthesis

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Leeuwenhoek

(3) Sphaerosome – Synthesise and storage of fats

(3) Robert Brown

(4) Purkinje

(4) Mitochondria – Absence of enzymes in outer membrane 100. Choose correct option with respect to origin and position of meristem responsible for the regeneration of parts removed by the grazing herbivores.

107. Along with genomic DNA, small circular DNA is present in (1) Chlorella

(2) Spirogyra

(3) Spirullina

(4) Chlamydomonas

108. Which of the following microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells?

101. Companion cells are (1) Thin, parenchymatous, enucleated cells

(1) Sphaerosomes

(2) Glyoxisomes

(3) Peroxisomes

(4) Centrosomes

109. Cells which do not divide further will show which of the following transition in the cell cycle?

(2) Thick, sclerenchymatous, nucleated cells

(1) G1  S

(2) G2  M

(3) Thin, parenchymatous, nucleated cells

(3) G1  G0

(4) G0  S

(4) Thick, collenchymatous, enucleated cells 102. From the given options choose the cells/tissue which loose their protoplasm during the maturation.

110. Choose the correct time duration for the given below phases of cell cycle in human cell (1) C, K  2 hr; G1, S, G2 >95%

(1) Collenchyma, sclerenchyma

(2) G1, C, K  1 hr; G0, S, G2  23 hr

(2) Aerenchyma, chlorenchyma

(3) G1, S, G2  5%; C, K  95%

(3) Sclerenchyma, bast fibres

(4) C, K  1 hr; G1, S, G2 >95%

(4) Sclereids, xylem parenchyma

[where C-Cytokinesis, K-Karyokinesis, S-Synthetic phase, G1-Gap 1 phase, G2-Gap 2 phase]

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111. What is the site of DNA and centriole duplication respectively?

118. How many of the following events occur in the meiosis twice?

(1) Nucleus, nucleus

a. Karyokinesis

(2) Nucleus, cytoplasm

b. Cytokinesis

(3) Cytoplasm, nucleus

c. DNA duplication d. Centriole duplication

(4) Nucleus, nucleolus 112. Spindle f ibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during (1) Early prophase

(2) Anaphase

(3) Metaphase

(4) Telophase

113. Choose the correct sequence of steps which occurs during anaphase: a. Chromatids move b. Chromatids separate

e. Condensation of chromatin f.

Bivalent formation

(1) Four

(2) Five

(3) Three

(4) Six

119. Mention the DNA content of cell at the S, prophase I, prophase II of meiocyte. (1) 4C, 4C, 2C

(2) 2C, 1C, 2C

(3) 4C, 2C, 2C

(4) 1C, 4C, 2C

120. Interkinesis is a short phase between

c. Centromere split

(1) Prophase I and prophase II

(1) a  b  c

(2) c  b  a

(3) b  c  a

(4) a  c  b

114. Reformation of nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER occurs during (1) Anaphase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Prophase

(4) Telophase

115. What would be the DNA content in the cell at G1, G2, anaphase stage, when the content after mitotic phase is 40 Pg? (1) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 40 Pg (2) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg

(2) Meiosis I and meiosis II (3) Telophase I and prophase II (4) More than one option is correct 121. How many bivalents are formed in meiocyte of human? (1) 2

(2) 23

(3) 46

(4) 21

122. How many chromosomes and DNA content will the cell have in G 1 phase, after S-phase and after M-phase respectively, if root tip cells possess 14 chromosomes? (1)

14 28 14 , and 2C 4C 4C

(2)

14 14 14 , and 2C 4C 2C

(3)

14 14 7 , and 2C 2C 2C

(4)

28 28 14 , and 4C 8C 2C

(3) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 40 Pg (4) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg 116. Mitosis is usually restricted to diploid cells.However, haploid cells also divide by mitosis in some (1) Lower plants (2) Social insects (3) Colonial insects (4) More than one option is correct 117. In which of the following phase of the cell cycle recombinase enzyme is activated? (1) Leptotene

(2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

123. The most dramatic period of the cell cycle which involves a major reorganisation of virtually all components of the cell, is (1) Pre-mitotic phase (2) Post-mitotic phase (3) Synthesis phase (4) M-phase

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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124. Mitosis is also called equational division since the (1) Chromosomes are shortest and thickest in metaphase (2) Condensation of chromosomes completes on equator (3) Number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same

(2) High nucleocytoplasmic ratio (3) Low surface area/volume ratio (4) More than one option is correct 129. Match the following correctly Column I

Column II

a. First phase of prophase-I (i) Diakinesis

(4) Alignment of tractile fibres with chromosomes occurs on equator

b. Formation of synaptone- (ii) Diplotene

125. In the light of given diagrams A and B, select the correct events

c. Terminalisation start pha- (iii) Zygotene se

mal complex

d. Fully condensed and meiotic spindle assem-

(iv) Leptotene

bled phase (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 130. Metaphase-I is different from metaphase in (1) A – Condensation completes

of

chromosomes

(1) Attachment of spindle fibres with kinetochores

B – Spindle fibres attach to centromeres

(2) Arrangement of monad chromosomes on single metaphase plate

(2) A – Cells do not show Golgi complexes, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope

(3) Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on the equatorial plate

B – Each chromosome is connected by two chromosomal fibres (3) A – Cells show Golgi bodies, chromosomes and ER at the end of this phase B – Centromere divides (4) A – Spireme stage of chromosomes B – Congression of chromosomes and centrosomes 126. G0 phase or quiescent stage is characterised by (1) Presence of metabolically inactive cells with no synthesis of RNA and protein (2) Metabolically active and non-proliferating cells (3) Presence of metabolically inactive cells with synthesis of RNA and protein

(4) Having fully decondensed stage of chromosomes 131. The tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossing over can be observed in (1) Metaphase I

(2) Anaphase I

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

132. Actual phase of the reduction in chromosomes number during meiosis is (1) Prophase I

(2) Anaphase I

(3) Anaphase II

(4) Telophase I

133. Identify the given diagrams marked by A and B with respect to stages of cell division

(4) Exit of cells from S-phase 127. Division of centromere and poleward movement of chromatids is characterised by (1) Anaphase and Metaphase I (2) Anaphase and Anaphase I (3) Anaphase I and Anaphase II (4) Anaphase and Anaphase II 128. Cell growth is maximum in G1 phase which results in developing (1) High surface area/volume ratio

(1) A – Anaphase I,

B – Telophase I

(2) A – Anaphase II,

B – Telophase I

(3) A – Anaphase I,

B – Telophase II

(4) A – Anaphase II,

B – Telophase II

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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134. Meiosis involves all, except (1) Two sequential cycles of DNA replication

c. Tachypnea

(iii) No breathing

d. Eupnea

(iv) Painful breathing except in upright position

(2) Single cycle of DNA duplication (3) Two sequential cycles of cell division

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(4) Twice duplication of centrioles

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

135. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? (1) Mitosis–Equational division

140. Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to left due to all of the following factors except

(3) Meiosis I–Reduction division

(1) Increase in partial pressure of oxygen and decrease in partial pressure of CO2

(4) Meiosis II–Heterotypic division

(2) Increase in pH

(2) Meiocytes–Sporophytes in Bryophytes

(3) Excess of DPG

136. Gastric glands are found in

(4) Low body temperature

(1) Mucosa and submucosa

141. Find the correct statement

(2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

(1) Ventral respiratory group is located in medulla and controls the switch off point of inspiration

(3) Mucosa (4) Muscularis externa

(2) Dead space is the amount of air left in lungs after normal expiration

137. Mark the incorrect match Deficiency Disease

Deficient nutrient

Symptoms

(3) Mountain sickness is due to decreased partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude

(1)

Beri beri

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Inflammation of peripheral nerves, weakness of limb muscles, paralysis

(4) Hering-Breuer’s reflex is mainly a protective mechanism for preventing excessive deflation of lungs

(2)

Cheilosis

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth

142. Which of the following can be measured with the help of simple spirometer?

(3)

Pellagra

Nicotinamide

Canine or black tongue disease in dogs

a. FRC

b. RV

c. TLC

d. VC

Less rhodopsin in rod cells, no vision in dim light

(1) c only

(2) d only

(3) a and b only

(4) c and d only

(4)

Nyctalopia

Vitamin A (Retinol)

138. Select the incorrect statement

143. Incomplete double circulation is found in

(1) Pepsinogen has no proteolytic activity, unless activated into pepsin

(1) Amphibians and reptiles

(2) Bile is a watery greenish fluid containing bile pigments, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids

(3) Mammals

(3) In stomach, hydrochloric acid denatures the salivary amylase and prevents further breakdown of carbohydrates (disaccharides) (4) Bilirubin and biliverdin are formed from the breakdown of globin protein of haemoglobin molecule 139. Match the following Column I

(2) Fishes (4) Birds 144. Bundle of His comprises of (1) Right and left bundle on the top of interventricular septum (2) Right and left bundle branches along with Purkinje fibres (3) Right and left bundle in the atrioventricular septum (4) Purkinje fibres only

Column II

a. Apnea

(i) Rapid shallow breathing

b. Dyspnea

(ii) Normal breathing

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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145. Cardiac output of an athlete during exercise is much higher than an ordinary man. It means that human body has the ability to alter

149. The duct of gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver, together form _____ (1) Common hepatic duct

a. Stroke volume b. Heart rate

(2) Common bile duct

c. Duration of cardiac cycle

(3) Cystic duct

Choose the correct options

(4) Hepatopancreatic duct

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b only

(4) a, b and c

146. Which of the following cardiac functions can be moderated by neural signals from special neural centre in the medulla oblongata? a. Rate of heart beat b. Cardiac output c. Speed of conduction of action potential d. Strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output (1) a and b

(2) a, b and c

(3) a, b, c and d

(4) a, b and d

147. Which of the following is the incorrect match with respect to disorders of circulatory system? (1) Heart murmur

– An abnormal sound due to defective AV valves

(2) Angina

– A symptom of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle

(3) Heart failure

– The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body

(4) Stokes-Adams – When SA node fails to generate the cardiac syndrome impulse 148. Find the incorrect statement. (1) There is one pair of parotid gland present beneath and in front of ears which releases secretion in buccal cavity (2) Small intestine is the longest part of alimentary canal (3) The innermost layer lining the alimentary canal is mucosa. This layer forms irregular folds, villi in stomach (4) Secretion of saliva is under autonomic control

150. Although 90% of all water absorption occurs in the small intestine but still, the large intestine absorbs enough of water that makes it an important organ in maintaining body’s water balance. This water absorption in large intestine is by (1) Active transport (2) Osmosis (3) Diffusion (4) Facilitate diffusion 151. Which of the following is the principal enzyme for the digestion of fats? (1) Lingual lipase (2) Gastric lipase (3) Pancreatic lipase (4) Intestinal lipase 152. If the inspiratory capacity is 3000 ml, expiratory capacity is 1500 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml. Find out the vital capacity of a person. (1) 4000 ml (2) 4500 ml (3) 2000 ml (4) 5000 ml 153. The most important function of diaphragm in mammals is to (1) Protect lungs (2) Aid in transport of gases in blood (3) Aid in pulmonary ventilation (4) Divide body cavity into compartments 154. Expiration is a process by which deoxygenated air is expelled out from the lungs. W hich of the following process does not occur during normal or forceful expiration? (1) Relaxation of diaphragm (2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscle (3) Contraction of abdominal muscles (4) Ribs are pulled upward and outward 155. Match the following Column I

Column II

a. Inspiration

(i) Supplemental air

b. IRV

(ii) Active process

c. ERV d. Expiration

(iii) Passive process (iv) Complemental air

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 156. Thoracic breathing is more prominent in (1) Normal healthy man (2) Old age (3) Pregnant female (4) Slow, normal, quiet breathing

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

157. As the size of organism increases one would expect that Heart Cardiac Metabolic rate output rate (1) Decreases Increases Decreases (2) Increases Inceases Decreases (3) Decreases Decreases Increases (4) Increases Decreases Increases 158. The sino-atrial node generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to contract. This increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about (1) 70% (2) 30% (3) 50% (4) 20% 159. What is the maximum number of action potential generated by SAN? (1) 70-75/min (2) 40-60/min (3) 14-16/min (4) 25-30/min 160. Thoracic duct pours lymph into the (1) Right subclavian artery (2) Right subclavian vein (3) Left subclavian artery (4) Left subclavian vein 161. The pulmonary trunk is connected with the aorta by the _ A__ that represent remanant of an embryonic connection __B__ A B (1) Foramen ovale Ductus arteriosus (2) Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis (3) Ligamentum Ductus arteriosum arteriosum (4) Ductus Ligamentum arteriosum arteriosum 162. In a normal person at rest, the cardiac output or amount of blood ejected by each ventricle per minute is (1) 5 L/min (2) 10 L/min 1 L/min 2 163. Which one of the following is a characteristic of myogenic heart? (1) Impulse is generated by special muscular tissue that develops within the heart (2) There are special conducting nerve fibre for spreading the impulse (3) It will stop beating immediately when heart is detached from the body (4) Impulse of heart beat is generated by nervous system but spread by muscles

(3) 2 L/min

(4)

164. Lubb-dubb sound during heart beat are due to (1) Closing of AV valve and opening of semilunar valve respectively (2) Closing of AV valve and closing of semilunar valve respectively (3) Closing of tricuspid valve and closing bicuspid valve respectively (4) Opening of AV valve and closing of semilunar valve respectively 165. Heart beat is accelerated by (1) Cranial nerves and adrenaline (2) Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine (3) Sympathetic nervous system and acetylcholine (4) Xth cranial nerve and acetylcholine 166. In breathing movements, pulmonary volumes can be estimated by (1) Stethoscope (2) Hygrometer (3) Sphygmomanometer (4) Spirometer 167. CO2 dissociates from carbamino haemoglobin when (1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low (2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low (3) pCO2 and pO2 are high (4) pCO2 and pO2 are low 168. A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs. Its effect could be (1) Reduced breathing rate (2) Rapid increase in breathing rate (3) No change in respiration (4) Cessation of breathing 169. The following factors f avour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, except (1) High pO2 (2) Low pCO2 + (3) High H (4) Low temperature 170. Long exposure to stone dust can give rise to inflammation leading to formation of fibrous tissue and thus causing serious lung damage. Such an occupational respiratory disorder is (1) Pneumoconiosis (2) Byssinosis (3) Asbestosis (4) Silicosis 171. As CO2 produced in the tissues combines with H2O in the blood (RBCs) (1) Carbonic acid is formed (2) Cl– enters the RBCs (3) HCO3– leaves the RBCs for the blood plasma (4) All of these are correct

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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172. Which of the following is not a structural feature of the left lung? (1) Superior lobe

(2) Cardiac notch

(3) Inferior lobe

(4) Middle lobe

177. Choose the true statement regarding pulmonary surfactant a. It increases the surface tension of the fluid lining alveolar walls. b. It is present in large amount in foetal lungs.

173. In humans, RBCs contain a very high concentration of enzyme X and minute quantity of the same is present in the plasma too. This enzyme facilitates the following reaction in both directions. x

CO2 + H2O

c. It increases in amount after the birth of baby, when air enters into it. d. It increases in amount in smokers. (1) a, b and c are true

H2CO3

(2) Only c is true

Identify the enzyme ‘X’ and its co factor (1) Carbonic anhydrase, Mg2+

(3) c and d are true

(2) Carbonic anhydrase, Zn2+

(4) a and b are true 178. The following are the functions of organs or regions of digestiv e system. Choose the option with incorrect description.

(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase, NAD+ (4) Decarboxylase, Cl–

Organs/regions

174. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to

– Ingests food, grinds food and mixes it with saliva, initiates digestion of carbohydrates; forms and swallows food bolus

(2) Oesophagus

– Transports bolus to stomach by peristalsis, oesophageal sphincter restricts backflow of food

(3) Stomach

– Receiv es bolus f rom oesophagus; churns bolus with gastric juice to form chyme; initiates digestion of proteins and complex sugars

(4) Small intestine

– Receives chyme from stomach, along with bile from liver and pancreatic juice f rom pancreas, absorbs nutrients

(1) Partial pressure of oxygen (2) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (3) Hydrogen ion concentration (4) Temperarture 175. Which of the following centres in brain is primarily responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of respiration in humans? (1) Respiratory rhythm centre in pons (2) Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla (3) Pneumotaxic centre in pons (4) Apneustic centre in pons 176. The given graph is the oxygen dissociation curve for normal adult haemoglobin. In which of the following case, the curve will be towards left?

Functions

(1) Buccal cavity

179. The reflex action in which there is ejection of stomach contents through mouth is regulated by ___A___ present in ___B___ of brain. Choose the correct option for A and B . A

B

(1) Vomit centre

Hypothalamus

(2) Satiety centre

Hypothalamus

a. Foetal haemoglobin

(3) Hunger centre

Hypothalamus

b. Carboxyhaemoglobin

(4) Vomit centre

Medulla

c. Decrease in P50 value d. Increase in

H+

ion concentration

180. The mucosal layer is folded. These irregular, temporary folds in the stomach lining are called

(1) a and c

(2) a and d

(1) Villi

(2) Microvilli

(3) a, b and c

(4) b, c and d

(3) Rugae

(4) Both (1) and (2)

   16/16

ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3 2015 CODE-B 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

(2) (4) (3) (2) (2) (2) (2) (1) (1) (4) (3) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3) (1) (1) (1) (2) (2) (2) (2) (2) (4) (4) (4) (1) (1) (4) (3) (2) (3) (4) (4) (1)

37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

(1) (2) (2) (1) (3) (3) (2) (2) (1)

46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72.

(2) (2) (1) (4) (2) (3) (3) (3) (2) (3) (2) (1) (1) (2) (1) (3) (3) (1) (1) (1) (4) (3) (4) (4) (2) (2) (4)

73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

(3) (4) (2) (3) (3) (1) (1) (3) (3) (2) (4) (3) (1) (4) (1) (1) (2) (2) (1) (4) (2) (4) (2) (2) (1) (1) (4) (4)

101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108.

(3) (3) (3) (4) (4) (3) (3) (3)

109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144.

(3) (4) (2) (3) (2) (4) (2) (4) (3) (1) (1) (4) (2) (2) (4) (3) (2) (2) (4) (3) (1) (3) (4) (2) (1) (1) (4) (3) (2) (4) (1) (3) (3) (2) (1) (2)

145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180.

(4) (3) (4) (3) (2) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (1) (3) (1) (2) (1) (4) (3) (1) (1) (2) (2) (4) (2) (4) (3) (4) (4) (4) (2) (1) (2) (3) (2) (3) (4) (3)