Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-A)

for

2015 Practice Paper for Test No. 3 (Code-A) TOPICS OF THE TEST Physics Chemistry

Biology

Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organellesstructure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ PHYSICS ] 1.

2.

3.

Planets A and B have same average density. Radius of A is twice that of B. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of A and B is (1) 2:1

(2) 1:2

(3) 1:4

(4) 4:1

(1) 4 × 1015 m2/s

(2) 3 × 1015 m2/s

(3) 1015 m2/s

(4) 2 × 1015 m2/s

Two particles A and B of equal mass m each are separated by a distance r. If they are executing unif orm circular motion due to their mutual gravitational attraction then orbital speed of B is Gm r

(2)

Gm 2r

(3)

(4)

Gm 3r

9.

B

(1)

(2) 2

7 6

(4) 1

An ideal gas absorbs Q heat in an isobaric process. If adiabatic exponent of the gas is , then what fraction of heat is used to perform work ? (1)

1 

(2)

 1 

(3)

  1

(4)

1  1

The P-V diagram of 8 g of Helium gas for a certain process A  B is shown in figure. Heat given to the body during process A  B is

(2) V

V

B

B

(3)

(4) V

V

The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoing process PV1/2 = constant is

(1)

15 R 2

7 R (3) 2

6.

8.

1 Gm 2 r 4

(1) 5 (3)

A sample of gas follows process represented by PV2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B, then which of the following graph is correct ? B

5.

For the given composite arrangement of two different materials at steady state. The ratio of temperature gradient is (symbols have their usual meanings)

If the area enclosed by earth's orbit in one year (3.5×107 s) is 7 × 1022 m 2, then find the ratio of earth's orbital angular momentum to its mass

(1)

4.

7.

(2)

23 R 2

(1) 12P0V0

(2) 6P0V0

(3) 4P0V0

(4) 15P0V0

10. If a gas is compressed adiabatically, then (1) The internal energy of the gas increases

(4) Zero

Two gases have same initial pressure, volume and temperature. They expand to the same final volume, one adiabatically and the other isothermally (1) The final pressure is greater for isothermal (2) The f inal temperature is greater f or the isothermal process (3) The work done by the gas is greater for the isothermal process (4) All of these

(2) The internal energy of the gas decreases (3) The internal energy of the gas does not change (4) Work done by the gas is positive 11. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ? (Density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of rubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) (1) 18 m (2) 90 m (3) 180 m

(4) 9 m

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

12. Choose the incorrect statement, regarding the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases (1) Gas molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion (2) Gas molecules travel in a straight line (3) There is force of attraction between gas molecules (4) Volume of a molecule is neglected in comparison to volume of gas 13. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is (= density of water)

(1)

v2 

(3)

v2 

P 

(2)

v2 

2P 

(4)

v2 

P 

(3)

g 2TL

(4) T × L 17. 20 g of ice at 0°C mix with 30 g of water at 20°C. The final temperature of mixture is (latent heat of ice 80 cal/g, specific heat capacity of water 1 cal/g °C) (1) 10°C (2) 0°C (3) 20°C (4) 5°C 18. W hen a diatomic gas is allowed to expand at constant pressure, it does work of 280 J. Total heat supplied to the gas is equal to (1) 780 J (2) 880 J (3) 380 J (4) 980 J 19. Change in internal energy of the ideal gas in the process ABC is 30 J. Change in internal energy in the process CDA is

2P 

P (kPa)

14. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material and same length is shown in the figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line

Load

100

O

(1) OD

D

0

C B A

(2) OC

(3) Zero

(4)

TL g

(2)

2TL g

50

150

V (cc)

(2) –30 J

(3) +30 J

(4) +40 J

P V1 V2 T (1) V1 = V2 (3) V1 < V2

mv 2 4

(2) V1 > V2 (4) V1  V2

R from 3 earth's surface, the change in potential energy is (R = radius of earth, g = gravitational acceleration at earth surface)

21. If a body of mass m is sent to a height of

16. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in figure. Wire CD can slide without friction. The mass to be hung from CD to keep it in equilibrium is (1)

C

D

(1) –40 J

(3) OB (4) OA 15. A particle of mass m moving horizontally strikes the bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l. After the impact, particle sticks to the bob. If the compound mass just completes a vertical circle, then initial velocity of the particle is (1) mv2

B

20. An ideal gas is undergoing two processes at constant volume V1 and V2 as shown in figure. Which of the following relation is correct?

Elongation

mv 2 (2) 2

A

200

A

B

D

C L

(1)

mgR 3

(3) mgR

(2)

mgR 4

(4)

3mgR 4

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

22. For the same area of cross-section and for a given load, the ratio of depression for beam of a square cross-section and circular cross-section is 3 

(2)

 3

(3) 1

(4)

1 

(1)

(3)

(1) Hdg

(2) hdg

(3) (H–h)dg

(4) (H–h)dg cos

24. Two soap bubbles having diameter D1 and D2 in vacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. The diameter of the new bubble is

(3)

D1  D2 2

D12  D22

(2)

(4)

D12  D22 2

(1) 5 cm

(2) < 5 cm

(3) > 5 cm

(4) 5 cos 

26. A U-tube is rotating with constant angular velocity  about a vertical axis xy as shown. The difference in the height of liquid column in two vertical limbs is ( = density of liquid)

22 2 3g

A1  H H (2) A  g  3g   2  

A1  4H 4H  (3) A  g  3g   2  

A1  H H (4) A  2g  6g   2  

(1)

(3) 29.

31.

32.

(2)

A1  2H 2H  (1) A  g  3g   2  

28. A point isotropic radiating source of power P is kept at centre of a spherical shell of radius r and thickness t (t CO2 > NH3 > H2

61. Given the following information, rank the ‘activity’ of the metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with NiBr2 and CdBr2, but not with ZnBr2. Cd reacts with NiBr2 but not with ZnBr2 or CrBr3.

(3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4

(1) Zn > Cr > Cd > Ni (2) Ni > Cr > Cd > Zn (3) Zn > Cr > Ni > Cd (4) Zn > Cd > Cr > Ni

(4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2 66. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride. This is because (1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction (2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel (3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which seals the blood vessel (4) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood vessel is sealed

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

67. Gold number is a measure of the (1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal on lyophobic colloid (2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on lyophilic colloid (3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard red gold solution (4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution 68. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids in CCP unit cell is (1)

a 2

(2)

3a 2

a (4) All of these 2 69. Choose the incorrect match (3)

(1) Freezing point of pure solvent : TQ (2) Boiling point of pure solvent : TR (3) Elevation in boiling point : TS– TR (4) Depression in freezing point : TR – TP 70. An electrolyte AB undergoes 50% dissociation and 50% dimerisation in solution then van’t Hoff factor (i) would be (1) 1.25 (2) 1 (3) 0.90 (4) 1.50 71. If ‘i’ is van’t Hoff factor and m is the number of solute particles obtained after the dissociation of 1 molecule then degree of dissociation () is given by i1 (1) 1  1 m

(2)

i 1 m 1

2 c m m  2  (2) m  1  o   m 

2

(1)

c 1    2 c m

(3) o o   m m m





(4) All of these

o 73. In the equation m  m  Ac1/2 , the constant ‘A’’ depends on (1) Nature of solvent (2) Temperature (3) Type of electrolyte (4) All of these 74. In the electrochemical cell, Cd + Sn+4  Cd+2 + Sn+2 Increase in the concentration of Sn+2 (1) Increasing the emf of cell (2) Decreasing the emf of cell (3) No change in emf of cell (4) Unpredictable 75. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction is given by (1) 1 + e–kt (2) e–kt –kt (3) 1 – e (4) ekt 76. The “collodion” solution is (1) 4% solution of picric acid in ether (2) 4% solution of starch in alcohol (3) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of alcohol and ether (4) 4% solution of As2S3 in dilute HCl 77. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution? (1) Froth (2) Butter (3) Pumice stone (4) Mixture of gases 78. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe+3 by number is nearly (1) 15% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 25% 79. Which of the following is a molecular solid? (1) SiC (2) Diamond (3) AlN (4) I2 80. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s) crystals is/are (1) Metal excess defect (2) Frenkel defect (3) Schottky defect (4) Both (2) & (3) 81. Which of the following graph is correct for an ideal binary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute?

i1 i 1 (4) m 1 m 1 72. The degree of dissociation  can be approximated to

(3)

the ratio of molar conductivity m at the concentration m c to the limiting molar conductivity om as   o . m

The dissociation constant for acetic acid can be represented as

Total V.P.

(1) XA=1

X A=0

XB=0

X B=1

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 86. Consider the f ollowing statements regarding electrochemical cell Zn(s)|Zn2(+)(aq) || Cu2(+)(aq)|Cu(s) I. Electrons move from Zn to Cu II. Concentration of Zn2(+) will increase and that of Cu2(+) will decrease when cell operates

Total V.P.

(2) XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

Total V.P.

(3) XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

(4) All are correct

82.

Which of the following is correct about van’t Hoff factor of A, B & C? (1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC (3) iA > iB < iC (4) iA = iB = iC 83. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Pt electrode (1) pH of the solution will decrease (2) pH of the solution will increase (3) pH of the solution will remain constant (4) pH of solution may increase or decrease 84. Which of the following is intensive property?

III. When cell becomes dead, Eocell  0 Choose the correct statement(s) (1) I, II & III (2) I & III (3) I & II (4) II & III 87. Match column I to column II Column-I Column II a. Osmosis (i) Movement of dispersed phase particles towards opposit ely charged electrode b. Dialysis (ii) Movement of solvent particles through SPM towards concentrated solution side c. Electrophoresis (iii) Colloidal sol formation d. Peptisation (iv) Purification of colloids (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 88. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe, 2  3  2  2.20V 0.77V FeO 4    Fe     Fe   o the value for EFeO 24  /Fe2   will be

(1) 7.37 V (2) 3.685 V (3) 2.456 V (4) 1.843 V 89. Consider the following graph

(2) Eocell (3) Molarity (4) All of these 85. Which of the following graph is correct for Freundlich adsorption isotherm? (1) Ecell

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Choose the incorrect statement(s) (1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e., H = –ve (2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x – y (3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the reaction (4) All of these 90. If r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radius of sphere forming ccp, then which of the following relation is correct considering that the ccp structure is not disrupted? (1) r = 0.414R (2) r = 0.314R (3) r = 0.732R (4) r = 0.225R

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ BIOLOGY ] 91. Examine the figure given below and select the part correctly matched with its function/structure (D) (C)

95. Match the column I with column II Column I

Column II

a. Lysosomes

(i) Cell inclusions

b. Transosomes

(ii) Carotenoids

c. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Triple membrane bound organelle d. Chromoplast

(iv) Cathepsin

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(A)

(B) (1) Part (A) : Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S subunits (2) Part (C) : RER - principally performs the function of packaging materials (3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through which movement of RNA takes place in one direction only (4) Part (B) : SER - synthesis of steroidal hormones 92. In plasma membrane, quasi-fluid nature of lipid (1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins (2) Is essential for endocytosis only (3) Enables lateral movement of proteins (4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements of proteins 93. Which of the following combination is correct? (1) Xenobiotics – Rough endoplasmic reticulum (2) Plasma membrane – 52% lipid of RBC (3) Mitochondria – Protein synthesis (4) Glyoxysomes – Photorespiration 94. Which of the following statement for eukaryotic flagellum is correct? (1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules (2) It emerge from a centriole like structure called axoneme (3) In axoneme, central tubules are connected by bridge (4) It has a number of microfibrils running parallel to the long axis

96. Disc-shaped structures present on the sides of centromeres in the chromosomes are called (1) Satellite

(2) Chromatin

(3) NOR

(4) Kinetochores

97. M phase starts with the nuclear div ision, corresponding to the separation of daughter chromosomes and usually ends with (1) Division of cytoplasm (2) Telophase (3) G2 phase (4) Karyokinesis 98. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is (1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides (2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle (3) Called karyokinesis (4) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole duplication 99. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four chromosomes, how many chromosomes would a diploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle? (1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 8

(4) 16

100. Primary oocyte of the human being contains (1) As many chromosomes as sperms (2) Haploid set of chromosomes (3) As many chromosomes as ovum (4) Diploid set of chromosomes 101. Which of the following stage is recognised by the dissolution of synaptonemal complex, so the recombined homologous chromosomes will start separating? (1) Metaphase II

(2) Diakinesis

(3) Diplotene

(4) Pachytene

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

102. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and find out the option (1-4) representing the correct sequence of events in amitotic division. a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm. b. Nucleus of the cell elongates.

(3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle opposite to protoxylem (4) A wavy ring of cambium develops 107. a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem and medullary rays.

c. A constriction appears in the nucleus which gradually deepens and divides the nucleus into two daughter nuclei.

b. Wood of Cycas has vessels.

(1) c a b

(2) b a c

Which of above statement(s) is/are correct?

(3) b c a

(4) a c b

(1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct

103. Mark the correct statement (with respect to lateral meristem)

c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves of sunflower and maize.

(3) Only a is correct

(4) Only c is correct

108. Choose the correct statement

(1) Secondary meristem producing primary permanent tissues

(1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork cambium

(2) Intercalary meristem producing secondary permanent tissues

(2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and protophloem

(3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondary tissues

(3) Primary xylem does not show distinction into protoxylem and metaxylem

(4) Promeristem producing secondary permanent tissues

(4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts off parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead of phellem

104. Match the column I with column II Column I

Column II

a. Xylem parenchyma

(i) Absent in most of the monocots

b. Sclereids

(ii) Long cylindrical tubelike structure

c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins d. Vessel

(iv) Fruit walls of nuts

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 105. In monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue (1) Is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma (2) Is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma (3) Possesses some bulliform cells (4) Is made up of parenchyma cells which lack chloroplasts 106. Which of the following occurs first during secondary growth in dicot root? (1) Primary meristem becomes active present below phloem (2) Cambium strips are formed secondarily from conjunctive tissue lying just below each phloem strand

109. Which of the following is correct statement for intercalary meristems? (1) They lie at tip of root apex (2) They lie at base of stem always (3) They are short lived and consumed during primary growth (4) They are long lived and cause increase in length 110. Girdling experiment cannot be perf ormed in sugarcane plant because (1) Its stem is thin (2) Its vascular bundles are arranged in scattered manner (3) Its stem surface is coated with wax (4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem 111. Match the column I with column II Column I a. Papain

Column II (i) Betula

b. Diffuse porous wood (ii) Quercus c. Lithocysts

(iii) Carica papaya

d. Ring porous wood

(iv) Ficus leaf

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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112. Match the following Column I

a. A – Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening. Column II

a. G1 phase

(i) Longest phase of cell cycle

b. Occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants

b. M phase

(ii) Synthesis of histone proteins

c. Simple permanent tissue

c. S-phase

(iii) Cell quiescence

d. May contain plastids.

d. G0 phase

(iv) Nuclear division

e. Dead mechanical tissue.

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 113. Choose the correct option for given diagram

(3) a, d and e

(4) a, c, d and e

117. In the vicinity of the guard cells few epidermal cells are specialised in their (1) Shape and size (2) Shape and colour (3) Size and thickening (4) Colour and secretion

(1) A – Meristematic tissue B – Differentiating tissue (2) A – Shoot apical meristem B – Axillary bud (3) C – Reproductive bud B – Leaf primordia (4) B – Differentiating vascular tissue A – Root apical meristem 114. How many from the given components are associated with gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively? Tracheids, Sieve tube, Sieve cells, Companion cells, Albuminous cells (1) 2, 6

(2) 4, 3

(3) 3, 3

(4) 6, 2

115. Choose the correct position of sclereids in the sapota, tea, pea, almond respectively. (1) Pulp, leaves, fruit wall, seed coat (2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall (3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall (4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp 116. For the given tissue, choose correct option

118. Choose odd one with respect to innermost layer of cortex in dicot root (1) Single layered (2) Possesses barrel shaped cells (3) Presence of differential thickening (4) Presence of intercellular spaces 119. Choose correct sequence of layers/tissue from outer to towards the inner side in T.S. of dicot stem. (1) Endodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath (2) Starch sheath  Pericycle  Vascular bundles (3) Hypodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath (4) Cortex  Pith  Vascular bundles 120. Activity of cambium is controlled by (1) Physiological and environmental factors (2) Hormonal and external factors (3) Internal and external factors (4) More than one option is correct 121. During secondary growth in dicot root some part of vascular cambium originates from the tissue located_______ the phloem and a portion of pericycle tissue _____ the protoxylem. (1) Above, below

(2) Below, above

(3) Below, below

(4) Above, above

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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122. How many parts are there in bacterial flagellum and amongst these, which is the longest portion respectively? (1) Two, hook

(2) Two, filament

(3) Three, filament

(4) Three, hook

123. Gas vacuole is present in

(1) A– Central sheath C– Intertriplet bridge (2) B– Plasma membrane D– Central microtubule (3) E– Radial spoke D– Incomplete microfilament

(1) Blue green algae (2) Purple photosynthetic bacteria (3) Green photosynthetic bacteria (4) More than one option is correct 124. Which of the following component of Gram negative bacteria is structurally similar to plants? (1) Cell wall

(4) B– Central sheath C– Interdoublet bridge 128. ER  A  Lysosome In the above given schematic representation of endomembrane system, choose the correct function associated with organelle labelled as ‘A’. (1) Post transcription RNA processing

(2) Capsule

(2) Glycosidation of protein

(3) Plastids

(3) Post translation protein modification

(4) Plasma membrane

(4) Glycosylation of lipids

125. Protein synthesised by RER is (1) Released in luminal compartment

129. Which of the following feature is not associated with centrosome?

(2) Modified in intercellular spaces

(1) Pericentriolar material

(3) Secreted without any modification

(2) Two cylindrical structures

(4) Processed in lysosome and centrioles

(3) Two centriole

126. How many of the given features are associated with mitochondria?

70S ribosome, divide by multiple fission, Outer and inner membranes have their own specific enzymes, enzymes for protein synthesis, single

(4) Lipid bilayer covering 130. One very short (p) arm and one very long (q) arm is found in _______ chromosome. (1) Submetacentric

(2) Metacentric

(3) Acrocentric

(4) Telocentric

131. Interphase nucleus possesses

circular DNA molecule.

(1) Five

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Two

(1) Condensed chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix, centrioles (2) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, sub-spherical nucleoli, stroma

127. Choose the correct labelling for given diagram (3) Extended nucleoprotein fibre, nucleolus, nuclear matrix (4) Condensed chromatin, sub-spherical nucleoli, matrix

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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132. Choose correct option for the stroma (A) and thylakoid (B)

Choose the option which is correct for the layers labelled as A, B, C, D and E (1) A – Serosa

(1) A–Light reaction

B – Longitudinal muscle layer

B–Dark reaction

C – Circular muscle layer

(2) A–Carbohydrate synthesis

D – Mucosa

B–Dark reaction

E – Submucosa

(3) A–Protein synthesis

(2) A – Mucosa

B–Light reaction

B – Circular muscle layer

(4) A–Dark reaction

C – Longitudinal muscle layer

B–Protein synthesis

D – Submucosa

133. Food vacuole is formed by fusion of

E – Serosa

(1) Phagosome + Lysosome

(3) A – Serosa

(2) Food vesicle + Ribosome

B – Circular muscle layer

(3) Phagosome + Centrosome

C – Longitudinal muscle layer

(4) Food vesicle + Sphaerosome

D – Submucosa

134. During cell cycle the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication: a. Is metabolically active

E – Mucosa (4) A – Serosa B – Longitudinal muscle layer

b. Involves cell growth

C – Circular muscle layer

c. Involves centriole duplication

D – Submucosa

d. Involves chromosome replication

E – Mucosa

Choose the correct option (1) a and b

(2) a and c

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

137. All of the following hormones are secreted by duodenum except

135. Choose incorrect option with respect to cell cycle (1) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase occurs continuously (2) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage

(1) Gastrin

(2) Secretin

(3) GIP

(4) Duocrinin

138. Find the incorrect match with respect to composition of digestive juices (1) Gastric juice

– Pepsin, erepsin, gastric lipase

(2) Pancreatic juice

– Trypsin, carboxypeptidases, ribonuclease

(3) Events are not under genetic control (4) Cell duplicates its genome once 136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of transverse section of gut

A

(3) Succus entericus – Enterokinase, dipeptidase, sucrase (4) Saliva

C B D E

– Lingual lipase, -amylase

139. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus? (1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved (2) Oedema is absent (3) Ribs become very prominent (4) Enlarged fatty liver

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140. Find the incorrect statement with respect to saliva/salivary glands (1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial (2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary glands (3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glands secrete maximum amount of saliva and provide their secretion by means of Wharton’s duct (4) Secretion of saliva is increased by sympathetic nervous system 141. Which of the following functions as true stomach in ruminants? (1) Abomasum

(2) Rumen

(3) Omasum

(4) Both (1) and (2)

142. Consider the following a. Trypsin

145. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere. Body Blood Tissues (deoxyge- (Oxygenated) nated)

Respiratory Atmospheric Alveoli gas air

O2

159

B

40

D

40

CO 2

A

40

C

40

45

Choose the correct option with respect to the values of partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C and D A

B

C

D

(1) 0.3

104

40

52

(2) 32

116

45

45

(3) 0.3

104

45

95

(4) 32

116

45

95

146. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of the human larynx?

b. Carboxypeptidase c. Steapsin

(1) Cartilage of santorini

d. Amylopsin

(2) Cricoid cartilage

The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogen is/are

(3) Corniculate cartilage

(1) a only

(2) a and b

(3) c and d

(4) d only

143. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Emphysema (1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs, causing irreversible, distension and loss of elasticity of alveoli (2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even after expiration (3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy are used to treat emphysema. It can be cured permanently

(4) Cuneiform cartilage 147. Normal expiration involves (1) Contraction of diaphragm (2) Contraction of abdominal muscles (3) Relaxation of phrenic muscles (4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles 148. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of (1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae (2) 5th thoracic vertebrae (3) 7th thoracic vertebrae (4) 10th thoracic vertebrae

(4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due to cigarette smoking

149. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Lymph

144. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types of cells called as pneumocyte type - I and pneumocyte type - II. Type II pneumocytes

(1) It has more amount of CO2 and wastes as that in plasma

(1) Are columnar epithelial cells (2) Form the site of gaseous exchange between alveolus and blood (3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells (4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant

(2) It is a colourless fluid containing abundant lymphocytes which are responsible for immune responses of the body (3) It lacks proteins and RBCs (4) Like blood, lymph can also clot but slowly

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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150. During each cardiac cycle, the SAN generates action potential which stimulates both atria to undergo simultaneous contraction. The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricle by about (1) 60%

(2) 30%

(3) 40%

(4) 75%

151. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Mark the correct statement regarding specific electrical activity of the heart (1) The contraction of the ventricles start shortly after S-wave (2) The end of the T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole

d.

Nucleic acid

(1) a only

(2) a and b only

(3) a, b and c only

(4) a, b, c and d

154. Which gastric gland cells in humans produce factor essential for absorption of B12? (1) Peptic cells

(2) Mucus neck cells

(3) Oxyntic cells

(4) Chief cells

155. Blood enters into liver through two sources. Which source supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver before it is delivered to the systemic circulation? (1) Hepatic artery 156.

152. Read the following statements having four blanks A, B, C and D. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out

A

approximately

B

of blood which is called as

. The first heart sound (lubb) is associated

C , whereas, the second with the closure of heart sound ‘dup’, is associated with closure of

D

157.

.

The correct option for blanks A, B, C and D is A

B

C

D

(1) 5 litres

Cardiac output

AV valves

Semilunar valves

(2) 5 litres

Cardiac output

Semilunar valves

AV v alv es

(3) 70 ml

Stroke volume

Tricuspid and bicuspid valves

Semilunar valves

(4) 70 ml

Cardiac output

AV valves

Semilunar valves

Maltase

a.

Maltose

b.

Nucleosides

c.

Starch

Glucose + Glucose

Nucleosidases

Amylase

Sugar + Bases

Disaccharides

158.

159.

153. Which of the following reaction/s is/are catalysed by brush border enzymes?

Nucleotides

Choose the correct option

(3) QRS complex represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state (4) T-wave represents repolarisation of atria

Nucleases

160.

(2) Hepatic vein

(3) Hepatic portal vein (4) Mesenteric artery If the incision is done in the small intestine in which order would the physician encounter the layers from outside to inside? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Serosa d. Muscularis externa e. Muscularis mucosa (1) a - e - b - d - c (2) a - b - d - e - c (3) c - d - b - e - a (4) b - a - e - d - c Which duodenal glands or cell secretion neutralise gastric acid and protects the lining of the duodenum? (1) Brunners gland (2) Parietal cells (3) Paneth cell (4) Oxyntic cells W hen there is abnormal f requency of bowel mov ement and increased liquidity of f aecal discharge, reducing the absorption of food it is called as (1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation (3) Indigestion (4) Vomiting Chymotrypsinogen of pancreatic juice is activated to chymotrypsin by (1) HCl (2) Enterokinase (3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin Bohr’s effect promotes ___X___ and Haldane effect __Y___ (1) X – O2 dissociation Y – CO2 dissociation (2) X – O2 association Y – CO2 dissociation (3) X – CO2 association Y – CO2 dissociation (4) X – CO2 dissociation Y – O2 dissociation

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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Percentage saturation of haemoglobin

161. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve. Mark the conditions in which that curve will shift from A to B.

165. During expiration, how many barriers CO2 cross in the course of journey from capillaries to alveoli? (1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Six

166. Occupational lung disease is characterised by (1) Collapsing of alveoli (2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the upper part of lungs (3) Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity (4) Excessive secretion of mucus in alveoli 167. Which chamber of heart has thickest wall? Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

a. Increase in BPG. b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide. c. Low temperature. d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline.

(1) Right atrium

(2) Left atrium

(3) Right ventricle

(4) Left ventricle

168. If the blood flow in the wall of heart is inadequate due to obstruction of coronary artery. In ECG the ST segment is depressed which disorder is the person is suffering from (1) Myocardial ischaemia

(1) a, b

(2) b, c

(2) Angina pectoris

(3) c, d

(4) a, d

(3) Heart failure

162. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by diffusion. Rate of diffusion is dependent on a. The partial pressure gradients of O2 (pO2) and CO2 (pCO2). b. Solubility of gases.

(4) Myocardial infraction 169. Which of the following are thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valve? (1) Trabeculae carneae (2) Columnae carneae

c. Thickness of the diffusion surface. Choose the correct option (1) a only

(2) a and b

(3) b only

(4) a, b and c

163. Which centre of respiration is primarily meant to limit inspiration and can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre?

(3) Chordae tendinae (4) Moderator band 170. In a normal ECG, wav es of def lection are represented by symbol PQRST. Which of these waves have tallest upward deflection? (1) P wave

(2) Q wave

(3) T wave

(4) R wave

171. In double circulation, there is a complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In this case part of blood enters to lungs for oxygenation. Blood will return to heart from lungs in

(1) Apneustic centre (2) Pneumotaxic centre (3) Dorsal respiratory group (4) Ventral respiratory group 164. In which of the following disease, alveolar walls are damaged alveoli remain filled with air even after expiration and there is no permanent cure for the disease?

(1) Right ventricle

(2) Left ventricle

(3) Right auricle

(4) Left atrium

172. Which of the following statement is correct ? (1) Sinoatrial node is known as heart of heart (2) The disorder in the SA node is known as Stokes - Adam syndrome

(1) Asthma

(2) Emphysema

(3) The purkinje fibres have highest resting potential

(3) Pneumonia

(4) Bronchitis

(4) The fall in the blood pressure causes stroke

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A

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173. The intrapulmonary pressure becomes negative with respect to atmospheric pressure during (1) Normal quiet inspiration only

(3) Volume of thorax is increased (4) Ribs and sternum are raised 177. In the following table of secretory products of the stomach, choose the incorrect option.

(2) Normal quiet expiration only (3) Normal quiet inspiration and forced inspiration (4) Forced inspiration and expiration 174. If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following, except a. The pulmonary vein b. An alveolus c. The right atrium d. The right ventricle e. The trachea (1) a and d

(2) c and d

(3) Only a

(4) Only b

178. Which of the following is not a matching pair? (1) Kupffer cells

175. The air from outside moves into the lungs when

– Phagocytic cells in liver

(2) Peyer’s patches – Lymphoid tissue in ileum

(1) Pulmonary volume decreases and intrapulmonary pressure increases

(3) Haustra

– Outpouchings in wall of colon

(2) Pulmonary volume increases and intrapulmonary pressure decreases

(4) Villi

– Present in colon to maximise absorption of water, minerals and vitamins

(3) Diaphragm becomes more arched due to relaxation of phrenic muscles (4) Ribs and sternum move downward and inward 176. Which of the following statements is true regarding the given figure?

179. The upper surf ace of the tongue has small projections called papillae which bear taste buds. Which of the following taste papillae are largest in size and present on the posterior side of tongue? (1) Foliate

(2) Fungiform

(3) Vallate

(4) Filiform

180. Choose the set of enzymes which are functional in alkaline medium? (1) Lipase, aminopeptidase, rennin (2) Ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin (3) Amylopsin, lipase, carboxypeptidase (1) Diaphragm is contracted

(4) DNase, rennin, chymotrypsin

(2) Diaphragm is relaxed

  

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ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3 2015 CODE-A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

(1) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (1) (1) (2) (2) (4) (2) (3) (2) (1) (3) (3) (1) (4) (1) (3) (3) (3) (1) (2) (1) (1) (1) (4)

37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72.

(3) (4) (2) (1) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (2) (2) (1) (4) (1) (2) (2) (2) (3) (3) (2) (1) (1) (4) (1) (4) (1) (1) (4) (4) (1) (4) (4) (1) (4) (4)

73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108.

(4) (2) (3) (3) (4) (1) (4) (4) (3) (4) (2) (4) (4) (3) (2) (4) (4) (4) (4) (3) (3) (3) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3) (3) (2) (2) (4) (4)

109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144.

(3) (2) (4) (2) (1) (3) (3) (2) (1) (4) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (4) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3) (1) (1) (3) (4) (1) (1) (4) (4) (1) (3) (3) (4)

145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180.

(3) (2) (3) (2) (3) (2) (2) (3) (2) (3) (3) (3) (1) (1) (3) (1) (1) (4) (2) (2) (3) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (4) (1) (3) (3) (2) (2) (4) (4) (3) (3)