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Practice Questions Therapyed

1. A patient has acute synovitis of the left temporomandibular joint. Mandibular depression is limited. You would also expect to find: A. right lateral excursion to be less than functional. B. left lateral excursion to be less than functional. C. protrusion to be functional. D. protrusion to be less than functional with deflection to the right. 2. With the patient sitting on a therapy ball, training and strengthening the lumbar extensors is best accomplished by A. rolling the ball in a circular pattern B. rolling the ball backward. C. pushing the pelvis backward. D. pushing the pelvis forward. 3. A full-time plumber with low back pain wishes to discontinue physical therapy and return to work. She is receiving worker's compensation benefits. The PT should not discontinue the patient from treatment if she has pain which precludes prolonged: A. standing. B. sitting. C. squatting. D. ambulation on uneven terrain. 4. A patient has loss of the last 15 degrees of elbow extension. To regain motion the PT should implement: A. dorsal glide at the radioulnar joint. B. volar glide of the radius on the humerus. C. dorsal glide of the radius on the humerus D. volar glide at the radioulnar joint 5. History reveals that a patient awoke from an afternoon nap and was very unsteady on her feet. She loses her balance to the right. There is horizontal nystagmus and loss of conjugate gaze on the right with impaired sensation of the contralateral face, limbs and trunk. These clinical manifestations are most suggestive of: A. anterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome. B. superior cerebellar artery syndrome. C. lateral medullary syndrome. D. medial medullary syndrome 6. A patient has difficulty during the early swing phase of gait. She circumducts her leg to bring it through swing. A likely cause of this problem is: A. flexor withdrawal reflex B. hamstring spasticity C. knee pain with decreased ROM. D. dysmetria. 7. An investigator wants to study the effectiveness of a post-coronary rehabilitation program on both male and female patients. The variables in this study are: A. ordinal B. nominal C. interval D. ratio 8. The patient population that would most likely have decreased effectiveness in generating a cough are those with: A. longstanding Parkinson's disease. B. complete spinal lesions at T12 Confidential

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C. Down syndrome D. sickle cell anemia. 9. You receive a referral from an osteopath. In this situation A. You receive a referral from an osteopath. In this situation B. you need a referral from a non-osteopathic primary care physician. C. both the osteopathic and a primary care physician referral are required to begin the examination. D. you can proceed with the patient examination 10. The factor that would disallow the use of ultrasound in an 11 year-old boy with patellar tendinitis is: A. open epiphysis at the knee. B. sexual immaturity. C. potential for metagenesis D. ineffectiveness of ultrasound as a modality for those younger than 12 years of age. 11. A patient with a past medical history of recurrent pneumonia is referred to physical therapy with new symptoms of cough and sputum production. The examination technique that would provide the least important information in this case is: A. vital sign measurement B. auscultation. C. Sa02 measurement D. thoracic excursion. 12. You are to examine a two-year-old for fine and gross motor skills. The appropriate standardized test to use in this case is the: A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scales B. Alberta Infant Motor Scales. C. Denver Developmental Screening Test D. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory. 13. A 15 year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy will exhibit all of the following except: A. Gower's sign. B. hyperactive DTRs. C. increased lumbar lordosis. D. minimal ambulation capability. 14. During an adaptive seating clinic, you are asked to examine a child who is wheelchair-bound. Your findings include asymmetrical shoulders and a forward, flexed head. Based on these findings, the next thing you would do is: A. check to see if the pelvis is symmetrical and supported. B. recommend an abduction wedge for the chair. C. recommend a high back with head supports for the chair. D. a scoliosis screening 15. A fee from a payer for each insured member per month regardless of number or duration of visits would be considered: A. capitation. B. case rate. C. fee-for-service. D. diagnostic related grouping. 16. A therapist that you supervise has been arriving 10-15 minutes late each day for the past week. The clinic hours are 8:00AM to 5:00 PM. This tardiness occurs on Monday of the following week. In this case you should: Confidential

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A. B. C. D.

say nothing as the therapist usually stays until 5:20 each day. ask the therapist to meet with you during a schedule break. ask the therapist to meet with you immediately. discuss the issue with the therapist during lunch in the cafeteria.

17. You should inform a building contractor on the need for a resting platform on a wheelchair ramp every: A. 45 feet B. 12 feet C. 24 feet D. 30 feet 18. The balance test which specifically discriminates for vestibular dysfunction is the: A. Timed Up and Go Test B. Berg Balance Test. C. Clinical Test for Sensory Interaction in Balance. D. Multidirectional Reach Test. 19. Your preprosthetic examination of a patient with a transfemoral amputation reveals arching of the lumbar spine when in the supine position. It is most likely this is a result of: A. weak back extensors and weak hip flexors. B. tight back extensors and weak hip extensors. C. tight hip flexors and weak abdominals. D. tight hip extensors and weak abdominals. 20. A 22 year-old male suffered a traumatic above-knee amputation as a result of a collision with a train. In the patient's adjustment to this physical loss, he is experiencing a stage of grief. This period is often characterized by: A. hostility and anger towards family and caregivers. B. depression and exaggerated self-blame over what had occurred. C. denial of the loss and fantasizing that the extremity had been restored. D. regression into more dependent behaviors. 21. In a child diagnosed with spastic cerebral palsy, use of a prone stander would be appropriate if the child could do all of the following except for: A. active trunk flexion. B. active trunk extension. C. bear weight when standing or kneeling. D. have the use of the upper extremities for weightbearing or activities. 22. You examine a teenager in an outpatient brace clinic. A recent diagnosis of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has been confirmed. The adaptive device that would benefit this individual the most would be: A. a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a drop ring lock. B. a shoe fit with a Thomas heel and metatarsal bar. C. an ankle-foot orthosis with a varus correction strap. D. a Toronto hip abduction orthosis. 23. On the second day following surgery a patient begins to take a few steps at bedside. Suddenly, the patient present with hemoptysis. This is most likely the result of: A. pulmonary edema B. pulmonary embolus C. pleural effusion D. pleural empyema 24. When designing the hydrotherapy area in a private practice, the electrical components critical to include are: Confidential

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A. B. C. D.

wall outlets with ground fault interrupters. three-slotted electrical outlets. surge protectors. rheostats.

25. You are examining an eight year-old girl with spastic diplegia. An indication that the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is integrated would be if the child can: A. maintain gaze at both hands held in front. B. turn her head from side to side with no corresponding limb movement. C. ventroflex the neck while both shoulders flex. D. turn her head from side to side as the shoulders alternately extend. 26. To improve abduction and external rotation of the shoulder, the best diagonal PNF pattern to use is: A. D2 extension B. D1 flexion. C. D1 extension. D. D2 flexion. 27. A patient with peripheral vascular disease has an ulcer located on the medial malleolus. This is most likely indicative of: A. arterial insufficiency. B. a pressure ulcer. C. an indurated ulcer. D. venous insufficiency. 28. A therapist wants to determine the interrater reliability of force measurements using a modified sphygmomanometer. Three examiners evaluated isometric force of elbow and hip extensors. Intraclass correlation coefficients that would reflect a moderate degree of reliability in measuring both sets of muscles are: A. .75 (elbow) and .50 (hip). B. .87 (elbow) and .80 (hip) C. .48 (elbow) and .70 (hip). D. .70 (elbow) and .64 (hip). 29. When descending stairs, the type of contraction performed by the quadriceps femoris of the stance limb is: A. eccentric B. isometric C. isotonic D. concentric 30. A women with a fixed deformity of minus ten degrees of plantar flexion would have the greatest difficulty: A. walking barefoot B. ascending a ramp C. walking with one inch heels D. walking down stairs 31. If a women developed a postnatal diastasis recti of less than two centimeters, all of the following exercises would be appropriate except for: A. head lifting with posterior pelvic tilting in the supine hooklying position. B. head lifting in the supine hooklying position. C. posterior pelvic tilting in the quadruped position. D. pelvic floor exercises. 32. To improve artistic performance, you should advise an opera singer to strengthen the: Confidential

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A. B. C. D.

muscles of inspiration abdominal muscles oblique muscles muscles of expiration

33. You are a private practitioner and have been treating a 55 year-old construction worker for bicipital tendonitis. He now reports to you that he has been waking up almost every night with significant aches and pains in his low back. While at work, the back pain is constant and is not relieved by rest. As his therapist you should: A. seek approval to treat this patient for facet joint impingement using deep heat and mobilization techniques. B. ask the patient to touch his toes. If the motion is full and pain does not increase, refer him back to his primary care physician for further evaluation. C. ask the patient to touch his toes. If the motion is full and pain does not increase, inform his primary care physician that you believe that patient is showing signs of malingering. D. try to identify comfortable positions for the patient and instruct him in using safe and proper body mechanics on the job which should ease his discomfort. 34. Excessive femoral anteversion will result in standing posture characterized by: A. external rotation of the hip and toeing-out. B. external rotation of the hip and toeing-in. C. internal rotation of the hip and toeing-in. D. internal rotation of the hip and toeing-out. 35. When a patient with quadriplegia is positioned sidelying, the areas of the body that are least susceptible to pressure are the: A. medial malleoli B. lateral malleoli C. scapulae D. knees 36. A primary care physician refers a 38 year-old woman to you. This patient is having recent difficulty in properly positioning her cane, which she has used for many years. The most important aspect of the physical therapy examination is this patient's: A. proprioceptive sensation B. visual acuity C. tactile localization D. figure-ground discrimination 37. Risk factors for the development of coronary artery disease include: age, gender, family history, cigarette smoking, obesity, physical inactivity and blood lipid abnormalities. The distribution of lipoproteins associated with a lower risk of heart disease are: A. low levels of HDL and LDL. B. high levels of HDL and LDL. C. high level of HDL and low level of LDL. D. low level of HDL and high level of LDL. 38. Following trauma, extreme care must be taken in the management of myositis ossificans. The muscle most often affected is the: A. triceps B. biceps brachii C. quadriceps femoris D. brachialis Confidential

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39. A classical sign indicative of congenital hip dysplasia in the newborn is: A. limited passive adduction B. limited external rotation C. excessive internal rotation D. limited passive abduction 40. A child with brain damage shows evidence of mental retardation, tactile defensiveness and proximal joint instability. Activities that the physical therapist can best utilize in this case include: A. repetitive brushing and joint traction B. firm pressure and joint approximation C. very light touch and weightbearing D. neutral warmth and rhythmic stabilization 41. Use of the pivot prone position in a child with severe cerebral palsy might help lead to the long-term goal accomplishment of: A. improvement of righting reflexes B. rolling from prone to supine C. functional crawling D. anteroposterior pelvic shifting 42. During a phonophoresis treatment of the shoulder, a patient reports to you that he is experiencing a deep aching pain. This situation is best remedied by: A. using a smaller sound head but doubling the exposure time. B. adding more coupling agent and moving the sound head more rapidly. C. reducing the power and moving the sound head over a large area. D. decreasing the frequency and moving the sound head more rapidly. 43. Following an ankle sprain, a therapist elects to use contrast baths. To help promote circulation in the subacute stage, the procedure should begin with: A. hot water at 102 degrees F for 4 minutes followed by cold water at 60 degrees for one minute and alternating for 20 minutes ending with hot immersion. B. cold water at 60 degrees F for one minute followed by hot water at 102 degrees F for 4 minutes and alternating for 20 minutes ending with cold immersion. C. cold water at 40 degrees F for 4 minutes followed by warm water at 96 degrees F for one minute and alternating for 30 minutes ending with cold immersion. D. warm water at 96 degrees F for one minute followed by cold water at 40 degrees F for 4 minutes and alternating for 30 minutes ending with warm immersion. 44. The device least likely you help deal with the specific disability that results from a lesion to the deep peroneal nerve is a: A. spring assist ankle-foot orthosis. B. plastic spiral ankle-foot orthosis. C. posterior leaf spring ankle-foot orthosis. D. metal ankle-foot orthosis with a posterior stop. 45. In ordering a wheelchair for someone with pronounced flexor spasticity, the components which ordinarily should not be included are: A. web heel loops. B. removable arm rests. C. detachable, swing-away foot rests. D. elevating leg rests.

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46. An obstetrician refers a patient to you for prenatal exercises. During your examination, the patient says that she belongs to an HMO and her primary care physician had referred her to the obstetrician. Your physical therapy report should go first to the: A. primary care physician. B. HMO medical records department. C. patient. D. referring obstetrician. 47. During gait, a patient is observed using quadratus lumborum action to compensate for unilateral lower extremity extensor spasticity. In planning a gait training program, the physical therapist should consider applying: A. manual contact to limit upward pelvic motion during stance phase. B. manual contact to enhance upward pelvic motion during stance phase. C. manual contact to limit upward pelvic motion during swing phase. D. manual contact to enhance upward pelvic motion during swing phase. 48. Management of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy may include all of the following activities with the exception of: A. positioning in left sidelying while exercising. B. bridging from the supine position. C. posterior pelvic tilting done while standing with the back against a wall. D. aerobic swimming programs. 49. In order to differentiate between pain originating in the sacroiliac joints as opposed to hip pathology, it would be best to employ the: A. Noble Compression Test. B. compression-distraction tests. C. Fabere Test. D. straight leg test. 50. You are to treat a patient with a large posterolateral protrusion of a herniated nucleus pulposus. Examination reveals decreased sensation, radiating pain and 1+ Achilles DTR in the left lower extremity. Trunk flexion is limited to 45 degrees and pain increases with sitting of more than 15 minutes. Based on this symptomatology, it would be best if treatment stressed: A. Williams flexion exercises, posterior pelvic tilting and hamstring stretch. B. hip shifting to the right followed by prone and standing trunk extensions. C. posterior pelvic tilting, bridging, diagonal curl ups and gradual increase in sitting tolerance. D. prone and standing trunk extensions followed by hip shifting to the left. 51. The most important stimulus which will result in an increase in ventilation is: A. diminished arterial PCO2. B. diminished arterial PO2. C. increased arterial PCO2. D. the Hering-Breuer reflex. 52. The parents of an eight year-old girl with Down syndrome have asked for your advice about recreational activities for their daughter. You could recommend all of following except for: A. soccer B. ballet dancing C. softball D. horseback riding

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53. As a result of a left cerebral vascular accident, an 83 year-old patient has right hemiplegia and severe global aphasia. As her therapist, you could use: A. visual representations or pictographs of what you wish to communicate. B. oral communication, since the patient is able to comprehend but is nonfluent in speech C. written communication. since the patient is unable to comprehend oral speech. D. oral communication that only requires simple yes or no responses. 54. A patient with chronic rheumatoid arthritis lacks self-esteem and seems uninterested during physical therapy treatment session. In this case: A. remind the patient that others with similar disorders have greater limitations. B. get the patient involved in making choices regarding day to day treatment options. C. keep the patient fully informed of the therapeutic outcomes you envision. use appropriate behavior D. modifications if there are any signs of depression or withdrawal. 55. You have evaluated a nine-month-old who cannot assume or maintain the quadruped position without assistance. The parents insist that the child has already begun to walk with assistance. You suspect that what the parents are describing is most likely the result of: A. spontaneous stepping. B. protective extension downward. C. the positive supporting reaction. D. the negative supporting reaction. 56. Following a CVA, a 75 year-old man is having motor control difficulty and is fearful when descending stairs. Early in the relearning process, effective strategies to be employed by a therapist to address these problems could include all of the following EXCEPT: A. mental practice of the task to help decrease fear. B. use of a more open environment in which to practice the skill. C. guided movement to help position the involved extremity on the proper step. D. provision of feedback which focuses on correct aspects of performance. 57. A 79 year-old female received a Colles' fracture as a result of a fall on an outstretched hand. Now six weeks later, the fracture is well healed and the cast has been removed. The patient was referred to physical therapy because radiographs revealed osteoporosis of the forearm and wrist and complaints of pain in the hand, which could be indicative of developing reflex sympathetic dystrophy. The best strategy the physical therapist could employ to deal with these problems is: A. use of TENS and progressive resistance exercises to strengthen the wrist extensors. B. progressive weightbearing stress loading of the forearm and wrist. C. use of friction massage and ultrasound at the fracture site. D. paraffin application followed by progressive squeezing and release of silly putty or a tennis ball. 58. You are treating a 16 year-old female athlete for patellofemoral malalignment syndrome. During competition, the orthosis that would be most helpful in aiding this situation is a: A. knee orthosis with an offset hinge joint. B. derotation brace. C. knee orthosis with a hinge joint. D. patellar stabilizing brace.

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59. An athlete experiences a first degree strain of the right quadriceps muscle. Ice packs were applied for the first two days. At the end of this time, there was no indication of inflammation or reports of pain. However, there was decreased active and passive range of motion and the athlete reported tightness. It would be best if you recommended that the athlete: A. use ice massage for five minutes prior to stretching the muscle group. B. continue to apply cold packs twice daily for 20 minutes and do no stretching. C. apply a hot pack for 20 minutes immediately before stretching the muscle group. D. apply a hot pack for 20 minutes and, for optimal results, wait an additional 20 minutes before stretching the muscle group. 60. Six weeks following a Colles' fracture, the cast is removed when healing is complete. A rehabilitation program. including joint mobilization, is to be instituted. In this case, the mobilization techniques that would be of most benefit to enhance accessory motions include: A. medial and lateral glides of the distal radiocarpal joint. B. anterior and posterior glides of the distal radioulnar joint. C. anterior and posterior glides of the distal radiocarpal joint. D. joint traction at the midcarpal joints. 61. The most important goal for a patient in Phase Two of a cardiac rehabilitation program is: A. achievement of target heart rate during exercise. B. ability to self-monitor exercise response by taking a carotid pulse. C. ability to walk up and down one flight of stairs, twice a day. D. improvement in functional capacity. 62. Activities to teach the parents of a preterm infant to help them deal with the postural and movement deficits associated with prematurity include all of the following except for placing the infant in: A. supported sidelying position and encourage reaching activities which facilitate crossing the midline. B. supported sidelying position and encourage reaching activities which facilitate shoulder protraction. C. an infant jumper to facilitate upright posture and stimulate trunk extension. D. supported sidelying while sleeping to help avoid Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. 63. A construction worker seeks physical therapy treatment for pain and weakness in the right upper extremity. The physical therapy examination of the right upper extremity reveals the pain distribution to be in the lateral forearm, weakness in elbow flexion and wrist extension and a decreased brachioradialis reflex. Based on these findings, the next thing the physical therapist should do is: A. institute a program of muscle strengthening and sensory facilitation for the involved areas. B. a cervical screening examination. C. check upper torso and neck postural alignment. D. immediate referral to a physician for EMG studies. 64. To locate the pulse of the dorsalis pedis artery, it would be best to palpate on the foot: A. lateral to the tibialis anterior and medial to the extensor digitorum brevis. B. posterior to the medial malleolus. C. medial to the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus. D. just anterior to the lateral malleolus and lateral to the extensor digitorum longus. 65. When establishing a treatment plan for a patient who also demonstrates paranoid reactions, it could be important for you to consider that this individual might: A. deny or refuse to recognize he has any orthopedic disability. B. express false beliefs or imagine that he is being persecuted. C. repeatedly say the same words or do the same act. D. have an impairment of intelligence and be unable to safely follow directions.

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66. Exercise guidelines for the well-trained, well-controlled insulin dependent athlete with diabetes recommend all of the following except: A. decreasing or omitting the insulin dose just following the exercise or athletic activity. B. decreasing or omitting the insulin dose just prior to exercise or athletic activity. decreasing or C. omitting carbohydrate snacks just following intense exercise or activity. D. ingesting up to 30 grams of additional carbohydrate for every 30 minutes interval of intense exercise or activity. 67. While on vacation, a 37 year-old steel worker is seriously injured in a fall. The man will be unable to return to work for months. He is being seen as an outpatient by a local private physical therapy clinic and his wife is taking care of him at home. They have had to remortgage their house to help pay for living expenses. In this case, the third party payer that would provide assistance is: A. Private health Insurance. B. Worker's Compensation. C. Medicare Part B D. Medicaid. 68. A resting pulse rate of 40-60 beats per minute would unlikely to be found in: A. marathon runners B. patients taking digitalis. C. elderly individuals with arteriosclerotic heart disease. D. children under five years of age. 69. A patient using an ankle-foot orthosis demonstrates excessive stride width during stance phase. To try and correct the problem, an appropriate strategy would be to: A. correct the foot inset B. correct the foot outset. C. have the patient try a walking aid such as a cane. D. lower the height of the medial upright. 70. At discharge from physical therapy, when formulating a home program for a patient, the most important element of consideration is the: A. age of the patient. B. home environment of the patient. C. informed consent of the patient. D. ability of the patient to carry out the plan independently 71. You are seeing a patient on the third day following an anterior cruciate reconstructive surgery. The patient has a 15-20 degree extension leg on the operated side. The most appropriate treatment to address this problem would be: A. vastus medialis strengthening and inferior patellar glide. B. ice application and high volt galvanic stimulation. C. ultrasound plus bilateral knee press to tolerance. D. ice application and knee extension from the sitting position. 72. A patient developed tarsal tunnel syndrome secondary to a pre-existing pes valgus. All of the following shoe modifications might help to correct this problem except for a: A. scaphoid pad B. heel insert C. rocker sole. D. medial heel wedge.

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73. Six weeks following a Smith's fracture the cast is removed when healing is complete. A rehabilitation program, including joint mobilization, is to be instituted. In this case, the mobilization techniques that would be of most benefit to enhance joint play include: A. anterior and posterior glides of the radioulnar joint. B. anterior and posterior glides of the radiocarpal joint. C. medial and lateral glides of the radiocarpal joint. D. joint traction at the midcarpal joint. 74. Bronchial hygiene for a patient with cystic fibrosis could consist of all of the following except for administration of: A. supplemental oxygen B. postural drainage C. ultrasonic nebulization D. mucolytic agents

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75. A chronic wound developed a covering of thick, necrotic tissue. There was no infection and drainage was minimal. The best way to debride this type of wound is by use of: A. wet-to-wet gauze dressings B. pulsed lavage C. dry-to-dry gauze dressings D. sharp debridement techniques 76. All of the following factors may impact the ability of a geriatric exercise group to learn new aquatic exercise routines EXCEPT for: A. increased sensitivity to glare and light making it difficult to see the group leader. B. decreased auditory processing of information making it more difficult to follow instructions. C. decreased pain thresholds or increased joint receptor sensitivity resulting in a lack of caution when performing new exercises. D. short-term memory impairments when learning new tasks making it more difficult to master the exercises. 77. The only activity which is appropriate for a physical therapist assistant to perform is to: A. discharge a patient from home physical therapy care if the assistant feels that the patient has achieved maximum benefit. B. immediately discontinue any treatment procedures which, in the assistant's judgment, appears to be harmful to the patient. C. write the discharge plan for the patient. D. alter the treatment plan if, in the assistant's judgment, it would benefit the patient. 78. On day two following a total hip replacement, a 75 year-old patient tells the surgeon she wants to go home immediately. The most important reason for the surgeon to refuse to discharge the patient to home at this time would be the: A. patient's inability to climb stairs with the bathroom located on the second floor. B. fact that the patient lives alone. C. patient's inability to ambulate partial weightbearing on the operated side. D. patient's inability to ambulate more than 20 feet. 79. Following a stroke or trauma, a patient who develops reflex sympathetic dystrophy of the upper extremity would least benefit from: A. weightbearing activities through the upper extremity. B. counterirritation induced by massage of the part. C. TENS administered at appropriate acupuncture points. D. hand splinting to prevent deformity. 80. You are examining the shoulder of a referred patient. The patient experiences maximal pain after 150 degrees of active abduction. This pain pattern is most characteristic of: A. acromioclavicular sprain. B. subacromial bursitis. C. supraspinatus tendinitis. D. glenohumeral subluxation. 81. A patient with a complete spinal cord lesion at the C4 level exhibits signs of headache, flushed face, increased blood pressure and irritability. As a therapist, the first thing you should consider or check for is: A. a cervical collar which is too tight. B. trunk or extremity positioning which may aggravate spasticity. C. the patency of the urinary catheter. D. the possibility of fecal impaction.

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82. One of your evaluative findings of a patient reveals hypoesthesia in the midpalmar region and the terminal phalanges of the index and middle fingers. These symptoms are most characteristic of: A. carpal tunnel syndrome. B. scalenus anticus syndrome. C. Guillain-Barré Syndrome. D. alcoholic peripheral polyneuropathy.

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83. When treating the low back of a patient with infrared, you lower the lamp from 36 inches to 18 inches. The illumination intensity the patient will now receive increases by: A. 50% B. 400% C. 100% D. 200 84. A 17 year-old gymnast has been diagnosed with an unstable spondylolisthesis involving L5 on S1. Appropriate management of this problem by a physical therapist should include: A. joint mobilization emphasizing lumbar rotation in both supine and sidelying. B. back extension exercises. C. abdominal strengthening and flexion exercises. D. lumbar extension mobilization using hand pressure directed anteriorly. 85. Following a thoracotomy, a patient developed right-sided atelectasis. To improve oxygenation to the right lung, it would be best to position this patient: A. supine. B. left sidelying. C. prone. D. right sidelying. 86. A 6 year-old child with myelomeningocele at the L5 level and minimal complications should be expected to ambulate with: A. an ankle-foot orthosis with crutches or a Rollator walker. B. a shoe insert to maintain proper foot alignment and no ambulatory aid. C. a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with crutches. D. a reciprocating gait orthosis with a Rollator walker. 87. The pathological progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy often results in a clinical picture at age 6-7 characterized by: A. lumbar lordosis, tightness of the heel cords and knee flexors and need for bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses during ambulation. B. kyphoscoliosis, weakness of hip flexors and knee extensors and need for bilateral ankle-foot orthoses during ambulation. C. kyphoscoliosis, a positive Gower's sign and an antalgic gait pattern. D. lumbar lordosis, tightness of the heel cords and hip flexors and a waddling gait pattern. 88. If a patient has longstanding rheumatoid arthritis of the cervical spine, the complication that is most likely to be seen and of concern is: A. subluxation. B. disk herniation. C. spinal stenosis. D. facet joint impingement. 89. As a result of a diving accident, a child has a complete spinal cord lesion at T4. The patient is independent in wheelchair mobility and one of the therapist's long term goals is for the patient to become independent in physiological standing. The parents insist that the child should be able to walk independently like other children. You should: A. tell the parents that the child is unable to ambulate with this level of lesion. B. agree with the parents that this is the ultimate goal but continue your treatment focus on physiological standing. C. begin to train the patient to ambulate to demonstrate the possibilities to the parents.

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D. explain to the parents that ambulation for very short distances might be possible with assistance; however, walking independently like other children is an unrealistic expectation.

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90. A patient enters your private practice with a chief complaint of low back pain. He had been treated with chemotherapy for adrenal carcinoma about two years ago and claims to be disease free. Your examination also reveals a history of recent episodes of urinary incontinence. In this case, you should: A. refuse to treat the patient since you believe the recent back pain might be a result of metastatic disease. B. treat the patient appropriately for his back pain which may also help to correct the incontinence. C. treat the patient for back pain and refer him to his primary care physician if symptoms do not improve after one month. D. not begin treatment and have the patient see his primary care physician immediately. 91. A patient with hemiplegia, who uses an ankle-foot orthosis, is experiencing recurvatum and toe drag during ambulation To correct these problems, adjustments should be made to the: A. anterior stop. B. knee locking mechanism. C. posterior stop. D. metal calf band. 92. You would expect a patient with congestive heart failure to exhibit all of these signs and symptoms EXCEPT for: A. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and productive morning cough. B. bronchospasm with audible rales. C. weight gain and diaphoresis. D. flushed appearance and heat intolerance. 93. The clinical status of a truck driver with a posterior herniated nucleus has improved if: A. there is flattening of the lumbar lordosis. B. peripheral pain increases only when lumbar extension is attempted. C. peripheral pain occurs only with straight leg raising. D. pain centralizes with passive hyperextension of the spine. 94. A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. The acute injury is now healed but the pain persists. Often, the best way to prevent this situation from transforming into a chronic or central pain syndrome is to employ a primary treatment strategy that tries to: A. correct dysfunction by normalizing movement patterns. B. control pain by use of TENS or counterirritation. C. protect the foot by limiting weightbearing. D. increase blood flow to the foot by use of superficial heat. 95. A patient is lifting a heavy barbell doing a military press with the arms directly overhead. The weight shifts and the vertical line of gravity moves posterior to the hip joint. To stabilize the body and compensate for this shift in the line of gravity the muscles that must exert the most force are the: A. ankle plantar flexors. B. hip extensors. C. hip flexors. D. knee flexors. 96. A realistic long term goal for an eight year-old with a diagnosis of spina bifida at the T2 level would be independence in: A. playing in a kneeling position with no assistive devices. B. wheelchair mobility with splints to maintain good foot position. C. physiological standing with no assistive devices. D. ambulation with a reciprocating gait orthosis.

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97. An elderly patient with Parkinson's disease is in a skilled nursing facility and is being seen daily by a physical therapist. The patient is taking L-Dopa. The optimal time for the therapist to treat this patient would be in: A. the morning, prior to breakfast and administration of the medication. B. the morning, one hour after breakfast and administration of the medication. C. midafternoon, just after administration of the medication. D. late afternoon, one hour after a snack and administration of the medication.

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98. At 24 months of age, the parents are concerned that their child cannot kick a ball. As the therapist you should: A. write a home program that addresses the motor delay problems. B. suggest that the parents consult with a pediatric neurologist. C. arrange for outpatient physical therapy to address the motor delay problems. D. tell the parents that there is probably nothing to worry about. 99. When performing percussion and vibration on a post surgical patient, the chest tube falls out during the treatment. The first thing the therapist should do is: A. clamp off the catheter. B. immediately turn off the suction. C. cover the defect in the chest wall. D. gently reinsert the tube. 100. As part of a home program, a patient has been instructed in performing mechanical cervical traction. When the therapist arrives for a home visit, the patient indicates that the cervical condition seems to be improving as a result of the traction; however, there is now discomfort in the area of both temporomandibular joints. The physical therapist should: A. have the patient discontinue the traction but continue with other exercises. B. instruct the patient to place a soft pad between the teeth during traction. C. have the patient demonstrate the procedure used and check to see if the angle of pull is correct. D. have the patient decrease the amount of weight used during traction. 101. As a physical therapy department director, you are interviewing a physical therapist for a vacant staff position. During the interview, the applicant states that he has been employed as an unlicensed therapist in a skilled nursing facility in another state for over two years. He has no P.T. license in any state. Your primary ethical responsibility in this situation is to inform the: A. human resources department in your facility that the candidate is unsuitable. B. state licensing board in the state where the therapist is currently practicing. C. Judicial Committee of the American Physical Therapy Association. D. administrator of the skilled nursing facility which currently employs the therapist. 102. Following trauma, prolonged cold application (> 1 hour) in the area of the fibular head, could result in unwanted: A. neurapraxia. B. vasoconstriction. C. elevated pain threshold. D. decrease in tissue metabolism. 103. During a patient interview, an auto mechanic states that, I get dizzy when working and reaching overhead. As part of the assessment your should screen for: A. vertebral artery compression. B. scalenus anticus syndrome. C. cervical rib syndrome. D. cervical spine disc herniation. 104. The final evaluation of a therapist's performance to determine eligibility for a merit raise in salary should be: A. subjected to peer review. B. reviewed only by the Human Resources Department. C. circulated among all supervising therapists for approval. D. discussed with the therapist

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105. A patient is placed on an isokinetic exercise program to improve quadriceps strength. Two weeks into the program, the therapist increases the angular velocity during exercise. This change will initially result in: A. an increase in the peak torque the patient can generate. B. an increase in resistance to exercise. C. a limitation in the total knee range of motion available during exercise. D. a decrease in the peak torque the patient can generate.

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106. A 17 year-old female softball player had an anterior glenohumeral dislocation on her dominant side. Now in her third week of rehabilitation, it would be most important to advise her to: A. not participate at all in softball practice until eight weeks post injury. B. avoid underhand throwing of the ball. C. avoid any pushing motions on the involved side. D. avoid overhand throwing of the ball. 107. A patient with a C6 lesion is referred for physical therapy after being fit with a halo device. The first functional mat activity to work on would be: A. rolling. B. sliding board transfer with assistance. C. stand-pivot-sit transfer with assistance. D. sitting balance. 108. You are examining a patient with facet impingement in the right lumbar region who complains of pain which follows a dermatomal distribution. When upright, the patient assumes a protective posture of left sidebending and right trunk rotation. Pain and restriction of motion increase when you ask the patient to move in the opposite direction. This opposite motion results in: A. both facets opening. B. both facets closing. C. closing of the right facet and opening of the left. D. opening of the right facet and closing of the left. 109. During the early recovery of a patient with hemiplegia, the therapist should assist the patient when sitting on a bed or a mat table by positioning the affected arm in: A. shoulder extension, abduction, external rotation with the elbow near full extension. B. shoulder extension, abduction, internal rotation with elbow flexion. C. shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation with the elbow near full extension. D. shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation with elbow flexion. 110. You are a therapist in a physician-owned hospital. You are concerned that some physicians are routinely overprescribing treatment modalities without consideration of the patient's condition. You fear that your job may be in jeopardy if you complain. In this case it would be best to: A. meet with your colleagues to enact a policy that restricts modality use. B. report the physicians to the appropriate state licensing agency. C. report fraudulent care to JCAHO and HCFA. D. contact each physician that is overprescribing and explain your concerns. 111. A patient presents with a diagnosis of piriformis syndrome accompanied by localized pain and spasm and radiating tingling in the left lower extremity. You elect to teach the patient a gentle, self stretching regimen to be done at home. In this instance, stretching is best done with the patient: A. sitting, with the soles of the feet together and the knees pressed to the floor. B. sitting, with the left leg crossed over the right. C. sidelying on the right, with the uppermost hip flexed, and then moved into adduction and internal rotation. D. long sitting, with the left leg extended and the trunk leaning toward the extended knee. 112. EMG biofeedback may be useful in managing all of the following situations except for: A. providing functional electrical stimulation to increase muscle activity in patients with incomplete spinal cord lesions. B. increasing a patient's ability to control spastic muscle activity during passive or active stretch. C. enhancing quadriceps setting exercises following knee arthroplasty. D. decreasing deformity and improving function in patients with idiopathic torticollis.

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113. A firefighter is referred to your work hardening program. She has been unable to work for three weeks as a result of glenohumeral impingement syndrome. Goals for expected functional outcomes should be established in a way that are: A. measurable and time-related to goal achievement. B. non-measurable and not time-related to goal achievement. C. non-measurable but time-related to goal achievement. D. measurable but not time-related to goal achievement. 114. A. B. C. D.

The lateral chest X-ray of a patient with chronic pulmonary disease would typically not reveal: patchy infiltrates. hyperlucency. flattened diaphragms. increased chest diameter.

115. You are preparing an in-service for nursing students in order to demonstrate the proper methods of transferring patients immediately following total hip replacement. The best way to accomplish your task is by supplementary use of: A. 35 mm slides. B. overhead transparencies. C. flip charts. D. a videotape. 116. A patient with a spinal cord injury has accomplished all anticipated goals in the plan of care. The patient is to be discharged from the rehabilitation center; however, the family insists that the patient is not ready to go home. They are willing to pay out-of-pocket for additional physical therapy. As the physical therapist working with this patient you should: A. have the family discuss additional physical therapy with the physician-in-charge. B. continue with maintenance activities if the family pays. C. discharge the patient from physical therapy. D. reformulate the discharge plan to reflect a change in the plan of care. 117. A child with cerebral palsy demonstrates a strong extensor pattern with thrusting. Maintenance of sitting in the wheelchair may be improved if: A. the seat platform and seat back are tilted backward 15 degrees as a unit. B. an adjustment if made to allow only the front part of the feet to touch the foot pedals. C. the seat width is reduced to increase stability of the pelvis. D. an electric reclining back is used frequently to alter trunk position. 118. You receive a referral from a family practitioner to evaluate and treat a patient. The diagnosis is listed as subdeltoid bursitis. Your examination reveals a rotator cuff strain, but no bursitis. The most appropriate action to take in this case is to: A. refer the patient back to the family practitioner and do no treatment B. refer the patient to a physician specializing in musculoskeletal problems and begin treatment for bursitis until the diagnosis is changed. C. tell the patient to get an opinion from another family practitioner and begin treatment for a rotator cuff strain. D. explain your findings to the patient and family practitioner and begin treatment for a rotator cuff strain. 119. A patient on an HMO plan is being discharged from the hospital, but requires additional physical therapy to improve ambulation endurance and Activities of Daily Living skills. In this case, the best strategy for the physical therapist to take is to: A. write a home program for the patient to follow. B. request the HMO for an extension of the hospital stay to complete the necessary therapy. C. have the patient seen at home by a physical therapist with prior approval of the HMO. Confidential

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D. have the patient return to physical therapy as an outpatient and pay on his own. 120. Following surgical reconstruction of a ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, on postoperative days 2-4, the treatment program should not include: A. active knee extension from 90 to zero degrees. B. passive knee extension from 70 to zero degrees. C. passive knee flexion from zero to 70 degrees. D. multi-angle quadriceps isometrics at 90, 60 and 40 degrees. 121. A patient is unable to initiate active abduction of the left shoulder and when you passively position the arm in 90 degrees of abduction, the patient is unable to lower the arm slowly and in a controlled manner. You suspect that the patient most likely has: A. an anterior inferior dislocation of the shoulder. B. a rotator cuff tear. C. an injury to the long thoracic nerve. D. a C7 nerve root lesion. 122. A soccer player wishes to begin a muscle-strengthening program for the lower extremities. This heavy weight lifting regime will employ both eccentric and concentric exercises. For best results you should advise this athlete to do these exercises: A. 1-2 times per week. B. daily. C. 5 times per week. D. 3 times per week. 123. A woman in midpregnancy, with no complications, should have vital sign measurements such that: A. resting pulse rate is lower, aerobic exercise pulse rate is lower and resting blood pressure is higher than nonpregnancy. B. resting pulse rate is higher, aerobic exercise pulse rate is higher and resting blood pressure is higher than nonpregnancy. C. resting pulse rate is lower, aerobic exercise pulse rate is higher and resting blood pressure is lower than nonpregnancy. D. resting pulse rate is higher, aerobic exercise pulse rate is lower and resting blood pressure is lower than nonpregnancy. 124. Following the application of a split thickness skin graft to cover a full thickness burn of the elbow and forearm, vascularization and adherence of the graft should be greater if management includes: A. active exercises to the involved arm at least twice a day. B. whirlpool twice a day at 100 degrees F. C. friction massage around the graft perimeter. D. use of pressure dressings. 125. An obese, 57 year-old man with a long history of heavy smoking and alcoholic abuse was admitted with a diagnosis of bronchitis. Some findings included copious green sputum production, dyspnea, coarse rales in both lower lobes and severe deconditioning. PaO2 was 62mmHg and FEV1:FVC ratio was 39%. At discharge, though medically stable, his basic symptoms persisted. The physical therapy discharge plan should have as its highest priority short term goal: A. an increase in airway patency via self-administered bronchopulmonary hygiene. B. education to decrease smoking, alcoholic intake and weight. C. improvement in breathing patterns including mechanics, control and relaxation. D. aerobic exercise of , at least, 20 consecutive minutes per day to help decrease shortness of breath 126. A 54 year-old man has been discharged to home following treatment of pathological fracture of the tibia. He has metastatic carcinoma of the lung. Home nursing and physical therapy is being provided. Confidential

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During one home care session, the patient's wife seems upset and frustrated and she tells the therapist she doesn't think she can cope with the current situation. It would be best if the therapist recommend that she: A. place her husband in a skilled nursing facility. B. talk with the physician to get more information about her husband's condition and prognosis. C. think about placing her husband in a hospice facility. D. seek help from a community based cancer support group. 127. The inflammatory disorder very often characterized by an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, decreased red blood cell count and dryness of the mucous membranes is: A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. Sjogren's syndrome. C. polymyositis. D. systemic lupus erythematosus. 128. You have determined that a patient needs some adaptive equipment for home use. The most appropriate way to deal with this situation is to: A. give the patient freedom to choose any medical equipment vendor; however, offer advice and recommendations if the patient asks you for guidance. B. order the most cost effective equipment as needed and bill the charges to the patient's insurance carrier. C. suggest to the patient that they order the equipment from the medical supply company that is used by your department since it will arrive more quickly. D. have at home care physical therapist decide what is needed once the patient is back in the home environment. 129. A single mother has a two year-old child with severe athetoid cerebral palsy. She has asked you, the owner of a nearby private outpatient physical therapy clinic, to provide pro bono services for her child. In this case: A. pro bono care is legally required if the mother cannot pay for services for her child. B. pro bono care should ethically be provided if the mother lacks the ability to pay and the practice situation is able to permit necessary care. C. pro bono care is legally required only if the physical therapy clinic can provide the services needed. D. pro bono care should ethically be provided to all children whose parents are uninsured or unable to pay. 130. During phase II of a cardiac rehabilitation program, an appropriate activity to meet the metabolic goals of this treatment level would be: A. walking on a level surface at 4.5 miles per hour. B. walking on a level surface at 2.5 miles per hour. C. stationary bicycle riding at 5 miles per hour. D. exercise with 2 or 3 pound weights. 131. A patient is having difficulties combing her hair as a result of weakness and tightness of her shoulder girdle musculature. All of the following would be appropriate to incorporate into the management of this problem with the exception of: A. strengthening the upper trapezius and pectoralis major muscles. B. strengthening the serratus anterior and anterior deltoid muscles. C. stretching the pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles. D. stretching the rhomboids and pectoralis minor muscles. 132. In treating contaminated, open abrasions in athletes involved in contact sports, the least effective antimicrobial agent to apply to the wound would be: A. benzalkonium chloride. B. hydrogen peroxide. C. povidone-iodine solution. D. Neosporin ointment. Confidential

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133. Your patient sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the femur as a result of a fall. She underwent open reduction, internal fixation three weeks ago. In an effort to better manage her pain, you began a program of very slow ambulation in a therapeutic pool with the water level chest high. You now have permission to increase weightbearing to tolerance. To initiate this change of treatment in the pool you would ambulate the patient: A. at the same water depth, but have the patient wear ankle weights. B. in deeper water. C. at the same water depth, but increase the velocity of ambulation. D. in shallower water. 134. In order to lose weight using a moderate to vigorous running, swimming or circuit program, a frequency and duration must be at least: A. five times per week for 30-40 minutes. B. three times per week for 50-60 minutes. C. three times per week for 20-30 minutes. D. two days per week for 50-60 minutes. 135. You are requested to take a culture from a partial thickness burn wound. The proper technique to follow when collecting the specimen is to swab the: A. wound exudate in the area of the immediate surrounding tissue. B. wound and immediate surrounding tissue. C. wound, immediate surrounding tissue and any exudate on nearby bed linen. D. actual wound site only. 136. You are gait training a patient for the first time following a recent cerebrovascular accident. The patient is having great difficulty advancing the leg on the hemiplegic side. The type of feedback most suitable in this situation is: A. guided movement by actually advancing the affected extremity to the correct position. B. demonstration followed by verbal feedback encouraging the patient to perform the gait pattern correctly. C. intermittent feedback which allows for self correction. D. positive feedback given only after correct behavior. 137. Defining the specific knowledge and skills that a group of physical therapy students from different programs should possess after attending a regional conference on prosthetics will help the physical therapist lecturer in all of the following areas except: A. determining the content of the program. B. communicating the purpose of the program to the students. C. determining the needs of the students attending the conference. D. evaluating the results of the presentation. 138. You are managing a patient following a mastectomy. Intermittent compression is being used for postmastectomy lymphedema. In this case, a four week course of compression would best be done: A. at home, every day for at least two hours. B. on an outpatient basis, three times per week, two hours each session. C. on an outpatient basis, two times per week, four hours each session. D. at home, during every night for at least six hours. 139. You are using electrical stimulation as a tool to help facilitate and re-educate various muscle groups The patient is hypersensitive to electrical stimulation. The current parameters that would be best to use in this case are: A. interrupted monophasic with a wide pulse width and low intensity. B. high voltage, monophasic twin-spiked. C. interrupted biphasic with a wide pulse width and low intensity. Confidential

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D. Russian stimulation modulated to 70 pulses per second. 140. You are the owner of a small private physical therapy practice. You usually will require the patient's consent regarding their medical record information: A. if a portion of the record is to be released to a law enforcement official. B. when the record is to be transferred to another health care facility. C. if it is to be accessed for quality assurance purposes. D. if the record is used for research and anonymity of the patient is preserved. 141. A 68 year-old woman was seen at home by a physical therapist following a transtibial amputation. Inspection of the residual limb reveals redness and edema. The patient complains of malaise and chills. Based on these findings, the therapist should be concerned about this patient experiencing: A. early signs of herpes zoster. B. early signs of herpes zoster. C. cellulitis. D. dermatitis. 142. A patient with a below-the-knee prosthesis exhibits excessive knee flexion at heel strike on the prosthetic side. The situation might be corrected by: A. replacing the plantar flexion bumper or heel cushion if either is too firm or stiff. B. setting the prosthetic foot in more dorsiflexion. C. tightening the extension aid. D. loosening the supracondylar cuff suspension. 143. Following an automobile accident, a patient has multiple rib fractures and a flail chest on the left. This painful condition has resulted in secondary atelectasis of the lateral basal segments of the left lower lobes. The best positions for treating this problem would be: A. secretion removal in right sidelying, 1/4 turn forward, with the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches followed by coughing in the sitting position. B. secretion removal in left sidelying with the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches followed by coughing in the long sitting position. C. secretion removal in the prone position with the bed flat followed by assisted coughing in the supine position with hips and knees flexed. D. secretion removal in right sidelying, 1/4 turn backward, with the foot of the bed elevated 16 inches followed by coughing in the sitting position using a pillow as a splint.

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144. Following an automobile accident, a female patient has residual vestibular dysfunction. She has strong religious beliefs and refuses to allow a male physical therapist to touch her when instructing and guarding her during gait training. In this case, the male physical therapist should: A. continue with other supervised activities that do not require contact; however, discontinue any attempts at gait training. B. ambulate the patient without any contact using extra caution. C. explain to the patient about safety and other considerations that may require touching during ambulation and proceed with the training in a very professional manner. D. not ambulate the patient and consult with the supervising therapist about the situation. 145. The lower part of a prosthesis is excessively rotated in an outward direction. If not corrected, the patient would most likely demonstrate: A. knee instability. B. a medial whip. C. a lateral whip. D. lateral rotation of the prosthesis at heel strike. 146. Following a femoral fracture, which had been immobilized, a patient experienced moderate atrophy of the quadriceps femoris. The plan of care included neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) to address this problem. In this case, the duty cycle of the stimulation should be: A. 1:1. B. 1:3. C. 1:5. D. 1:10. 147. Following a stroke, a 77 year-old woman has lapses in memory. She can ambulate independently; however, she often forgets such things as the floor she lives on in her high rise apartment building. As her therapist, the best strategy to help deal with this problem is to: A. always have her arrange for an escort when she leaves her apartment. B. provide visual cues to help her overcome memory lapses such as putting colored tape next to her floor button in each elevator. C. refer her to occupational therapy for help in overcoming topographical disorientation. D. teach her to always carry or have attached to her a small memory log of important pertinent personal information. 148. A. B. C. D.

Russian stimulation may be used late in rehabilitation as an adjunct to: strengthen a weak muscle decrease tone in a spastic muscle group enhance sensory awareness help reduce edema

149. A patient with a C6 spinal cord lesion is being taught to use a sliding board. After the sliding board session is over, the therapist observes redness on the patient's ischial tuberosities. In this case, the therapist should delay the use of sliding board transfers and: A. have the patient use momentum to swing rather than slide while transferring. B. switch training to a stand pivot sit method of transfer. C. resume work on gaining independence in sitting balance. D. increase emphasis on strengthening the shoulder depressors. 150. An outpatient with multiple sclerosis becomes fatigued, agitated and irritable during a treatment session. Your best response as a therapist in this situation would be to: A. continue the treatment with no modifications; however, move to a cooler room. B. discontinue the treatment and have the patient return home until the next scheduled session.

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C. after a short rest, continue the treatment with no modifications since these characteristics are expected with multiple sclerosis. D. after a short rest, continue the treatment; but, reduce the intensity of the activities.

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151. In a patient with severe right spastic hemiplegia with persistence of the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex, the most likely complication might be: A. varus deformity of the right foot. B. dislocation of the right shoulder. C. subluxation of the skull side hip. D. subluxation of the jaw side hip. 152. A. B. C. D.

The cause of the deep aching pain during ultrasound treatment can be attributed to: sound head friction irritating sensory nerves. cavitation resulting in bubble formation within the tissue. shearing of the sound waves at the bone/periosteum interface. penetration of the sound waves to too great a depth.

153. As a mail clerk, a woman must be able to lift up to 50 pounds. She has injured her back at work and her company has referred her to a work hardening program. To return to full duty, she must have no restrictions. As her physical therapist, you should be most concerned with: A. past history of low back injuries and missed work. B. her ability to lift up to 50 pounds from floor to waist level with no complaints of discomfort. C. her stated dislike and mistrust of her supervisor. D. her ability to lift 50 pounds from floor to waist using safe and proper body mechanics. 154. A chronic wound developed a covering of thick necrotic tissue. There was no infection and drainage was minimal. The least effective way to try and debride this wound is by use of: A. topical application of enzymes. B. sharp debridement using scalpel and forceps. C. autolytic dressings enabling macrophages to digest the necrotic tissue. D. vigorous whirlpool jet agitation. 155. A patient with diabetes has developed a grade III arterial insufficiency ulcer on the lateral aspect of the right foot. When using whirlpool to help in the debriding process, the water temperature should be in the range of: A. 89-92 degrees Fahrenheit. B. 95-98 degrees Fahrenheit. C. 99-102 degrees Fahrenheit. D. 102-105 degrees Fahrenheit. 156. After many years of treating patients with Alzheimer's Disease, a therapist wishes to publish a booklet on home care for these patients. The first thing to do is: A. determine the approximate number of families or others who might benefit from such a booklet. B. to decide upon the most important areas to be discussed in the booklet C. determine if other materials already exist that covers the same content. D. figure out the costs associated with production and distribution of the booklet. 157. A 55 year old overweight female experiences pain on the 2nd, 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads during weightbearing. This patient's problem is most likely a result of: A. Morton's neuroma. B. a depressed transverse arch. C. hammer toes. D. plantar warts. 158. A 72 year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has a fracture of the right tibia/fibula and is in a cast. She is currently ambulating using a walker, nonweightbearing on the right lower extremity. The best short term goal the physical therapist should try to achieve with this patient is: A. increase muscle strength. Confidential

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B. ambulation with a cane. C. increase range of motion. D. decrease pain at the fracture site.

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159. A patient is seen in physical therapy with a diagnosis of severe sprain of the anterior longitudinal ligament. Symptoms include: muscle spasm, pain radiating to the upper arms, nystagmus, tinnitus and difficulty swallowing. The most likely mechanism of injury for this type of sprain is A. diving into a shallow pool and hitting the head on the bottom. B. an automobile collision in which the patient's car was hit from behind while stopped at a traffic light. C. an automobile collision in which the patient's car hit a lamppost head-on D. being hit forcefully on the top of the head during a robbery attempt. 160. As a physical therapist, you have left instructions for a physical therapist assistant to help ambulate a nursing home resident a minimum of twice a day. While ambulating, the patient tripped and fell, fracturing her skull. The individual(s) most negligent under these circumstances would be the: A. patient who was careless and caused the accident. B. owners of the nursing home who are responsible for the actions of all employees. C. physical therapist who delegated this task to the physical therapist assistant. D. physical therapist assistant who was ambulating the patient. 161. Following a two month admission for tibial osteomyelitis, a 6 year-old boy is discharged. You have developed a home program. The most important thing to assess prior to instructing the boy's parents is: A. whether or not both parents work. B. the home environment. C. their level of formal education. D. their willingness to comply with the program. 162. A patient had increased tone and tightness of the back extensors. Use of a gymnastic ball might be most helpful if the therapist: A. sits the child on the ball and rolls the ball backward. B. positions the child prone and rolls the ball forward. C. positions the child supine and rolls the ball backward. D. sits the child on the ball and rolls the ball forward. 163. A provider delivers bills and is paid for each discrete increment of service provided to a patient. Payment is calculated for each increment billed and combined to create a total billed amount. This payment method is called: A. per diem. B. cost-based. C. capitation. D. fee-for-service. 164. During a maximal inspiratory effort, a patient with a complete spinal cord lesion at the C5 level demonstrates reduced chest expansion. This is most likely a result of dysfunction of the: A. diaphragm. B. abdominal muscles. C. scalene muscles. D. intercostal muscles. 165. A patient has a complete spinal cord injury at the C6 neurological level. He has been fitted with a tenodesis orthosis that will enhance hand function. The motion required to operate this device is: A. elbow extension. B. wrist extension. C. wrist flexion. D. metacarpal phalangeal flexion. 166. Following disruption of blood flow to the brain, the patient you are evaluating demonstrates ipsilateral deafness, nystagmus, vertigo and Horner's syndrome. The blood vessel which has been affected is the: Confidential

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A. B. C. D.

basilar artery. anterior inferior cerebellar artery. middle cerebral artery. superior cerebellar artery.

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167. A patient was receiving physical therapy as an inpatient. Once a patient is discharged from the hospital, the best way to follow-up on the patient is to: A. put the patient on a home program. B. schedule the patient for a return visit as an outpatient. C. make a phone call to the patient to ensure that everything is going well. D. have the patient go to an outpatient clinic near to home. 168. A patient has muscle weakness in elbow flexion: yet, pronation and supination strength is normal. In this case, the muscle that is the weakest is the: A. brachioradialis. B. biceps brachii. C. brachialis. D. coracobrachialis. 169. Written informed consent should be provided to the patient or the patient's proxy and contain all of the following information except for: A. the approximate number of visits required to ensure success of the treatment. B. costs involved and whether treatment procedures are covered by insurance. C. risks and consequences that may be associated with the treatment. D. benefits that may result from the treatment. 170. A 68 year-old woman with a history of varicose veins developed venous insufficiency ulcers on the medial aspects of both ankles. The least useful way to manage these ulcers would be: A. active exercise for both lower extremities. B. application of Unna's boot. C. daily intermittent compression therapy. D. whirlpool, twice a day. 171. A somewhat confused and disoriented homebound 86 year-old female spends a great deal of time in bed. The visiting physical therapist has explained the prevention and possible symptoms of pressure sores to the patient. On a subsequent visit, the therapist detects a stage one decubitus ulcer on the patient's sacrum. In this case, the most likely reason for noncompliance is: A. inadequate verbal instructions in terms of specific and understandable things for the patient to do to prevent pressure sores from developing. B. lack of motivation as evidenced by the patient staying in bed most of the day C. lack of written instructions to accompany and expand upon the verbal instructions. D. insufficient open-ended discussion to ascertain the patient's comprehension level of the therapist's explanation about pressure sores to the patient. 172. The rehabilitation of a patient with chronic asthma has incorporated a progressive walking program. During a treatment session, you are monitoring the patient for walking tolerance. The best measure to use is: A. a perceived shortness of breath scale. B. respiratory rate. C. oxygen consumption based on the number of METs required for the activity D. comparative walking distance. 173. Upon standing up prior to ambulation, a 42 year-old male inpatient, with resolving pneumonia, suddenly complains of dyspnea and anxiety and he turns pale. As a physical therapist you should: A. have an aide transport the patient back to his room. B. administer supplemental oxygen. C. have the patient take slow and deep breaths. D. sit the patient down, take vital signs and reassure him.

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174. A 16 year-old male walks into your outpatient sports physical therapy department claiming to have twisted his ankle during a basketball game. In this case you: A. provide first aid in the form of ice, compression and elevation of the ankle but do nothing else. B. examine but not treat the patient without permission. C. tell the athlete you need written permission from his parents to evaluate and treat the problem. D. get verbal permission via telephone from the parents to evaluate and treat the problem.

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175. You are writing a home program for an 81 year-old male who has been referred for cardiovascular reconditioning. His diagnosis is intermittent claudication. The physician has limited activities to less than 5 METs. In this case, it would be best to structure exercise frequency and duration to: A. 1-2 times per week for a total of 50-60 minutes each session. B. 3 times per week, B.I.D., for a total of 40-50 minutes each session. C. 3 times per week for a total to 50-60 minutes each session. D. 5-6 times per week for a total of 20-30 minutes each session. 176. A 58 year-old male with a history of cardiac disease and a demand-type pacemaker is referred to physical therapy. Your examination reveals severe pain and spasm of the lumbar paraspinal musculature. Treatment of this problem rules out the use of: A. ice massage and Hubbard tank immersion. B. ultrasound and lumbar traction. C. ultrasound and fluidotherapy. D. Tens and pulsed short wave diathermy. 177. You note in the medical record that a patient is on a regimen of digoxin, furosemide and calcium channel blockers. This would most likely indicate medical management of: A. congestive heart failure. B. endocarditis. C. cor pulmonale. D. Emphysema 178. You are ambulating a patient two days post coronary artery bypass graft. Following ambulation, the patient complains of pain at the inguinal incision site. You inspect the area and note redness and detect induration. You suspect this patient has: A. an inguinal hernia. B. deep venous thrombosis. C. superficial thrombophlebitis. D. femoral artery thrombosis. 179. Following a radical mastectomy, you are treating a woman who has complained to you of a deep, aching pain in her thighs. The woman is scheduled for a bone scan which, in this case, is most likely needed to check for the presence of: A. metastatic lesions. B. primary osteosarcoma. C. bone cysts. D. malalignment. 180. Following a total hip replacement, you are teaching a patient bed to chair transfers. Suddenly, the patient experiences dyspnea and chest pain These symptoms are followed by cyanosis and some hemoptysis; however, breath sounds remain normal. It is most likely, that, under the circumstances, this patient has: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. C. a pleural effusion. D. a pulmonary embolus. 181. A. B. C. D.

To increase left rotation of the L4 vertebra, spinal mobilization can be carried out by contacting the: spinous process of L4 and pushing the left ilium forward. left transverse process of L4 and gliding posteroanteriorly. spinous process of L4 and pulling the left ilium posteriorly. right transverse process of L4 and gliding posteroanteriorly.

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182.

The results of a study are as follows: Group A N = 250 Moderate Exercise Supine Position Mean stroke volume = 160ml SD±20 Range: 140-180ml

Group B N = 125 Moderate Exercise Upright Position Mean stroke volume = 145ml SD±10 Range: 135-155ml

The interpretation of this study could mean: A. the force of gravity has no effect on the stroke volume during exercise. B. the force of gravity has the same impact on stroke volume whether exercising in the upright or supine position. C. the force of gravity in the upright position acts to counter return flow of blood to the heart. D. differences in standard deviation indicate that, in the upright position, the force of gravity acted to counter return blood flow to the heart less than in a horizontal position. 183. While performing a clinical research project to determine electrical activity of muscle groups during gait of normal individuals, you would expect to find: A. minimal or no activity of the quadriceps muscle during midstance. B. strong activity of the pretibial muscles during late stance. C. strong activity of the gastrocnemius muscle during middle to late swing. D. maximal activity of the quadriceps muscle during late stance. 184. Following trauma, a patient developed unilateral subtalar arthritis. While ambulating, it is most likely that the patient would experience the least pain: A. on uneven terrain. B. going up an incline. C. at pushoff on the involved side. D. at heel strike on the involved side. 185. A visiting nurse has indicated in the medical record that a patient is exhibiting reduced turgor. When you see this patient at home on the following day, you should be alert for signs of: A. dehydration. B. ecchymosis. C. pitting edema. D. Anemia 186. You are lecturing to a large group of physical therapist assistants on the advantages and disadvantages of different kinds of ambulatory aids. To increase the impact of the information presented, it would be best to: A. toward the end of the lecture, go over five case studies and applying the criteria just taught tell the group the best choice of ambulatory aid in each situation. B. give everyone a handout with pictures of all ambulatory aids discussed at the end of the lecture. C. toward the end of the lecture, have each participant write down five examples from their own experiences and why they should have selected a different aid based on what they had just learned. D. at the end of the lecture, give out a questionnaire seeking feedback as to whether or not the information presented was relevant to the participants' current practice situation. 187. You instruct a patient to abduct the left shoulder and the patient is unable to initiate the movement. When you passively position the arm in 90 degrees of abduction, the patient is able to maintain the position for a brief period without assistance. You suspect that the patient: A. has a rotator cuff tear. B. does not understand your instructions. C. has an acromioclavicular separation. Confidential

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D. has a lesion affecting the C7 nerve root.

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188. A therapist elected to use ultrasound to assist in reabsorbing calcium deposits with a patient diagnosed with calcific bursitis. In this situation: A. phonophoresis using cortisol will enhance the calcium reabsorption as opposed to just using ultrasound alone. B. ultrasound should not be used since there is no evidence that it is of any use in cases of calcific bursitis. C. ultrasound is the treatment of choice in this case and will help with calcium reabsorption. D. treatment with ultrasound may be helpful in this case; but, further research is needed. 189. In the performance of a PNF chopping pattern to facilitate upper trunk flexion and rotation to the right, the major muscle components employed in this pattern include the rectus abdominis and the: A. left external and left internal obliques. B. left external and right internal oblique. C. right external and right internal obliques. D. right external and left internal obliques. 190. To apply three-point pressure to help correct kyphosis, a single force directed at the point of deformity will exert: A. the same amount of pressure as each counterforce. B. the same amount of pressure as the combined counterforces. C. half the amount of pressure as the combined counterforces. D. twice the amount of pressure as the combined counterforces. 191. If a premature infant is at 35 weeks gestational age and has sufficient coordination to suck and begin bottle feedings, the therapist should instruct the mother to feed the infant: A. in a supported upright position with the neck extended, while applying light stroking away from the lips. B. in a supported sitting position with the neck semiflexed while applying deep stroking toward the mouth. C. in a sidelying position with the neck semiflexed, while applying no stimulation to the cheeks. D. cradled in a supine position with neck hyperflexed, while applying deep upward and backward finger pressure on the cheeks. 192. An active, 73 year-old female with degenerative joint disease, had a cementless total hip replacement performed. Now six days post-operative, the patient is independent in transfers and is to be discharged home. Partial weightbearing on the operated side is permitted. The ambulatory aid best suited for this patient at discharge would be: A. Lofstrand crutches. B. a standard walker. C. a cane used on the operated side. D. a cane used on the nonoperated side. 193. You are to see a 13 year-old young woman for training in crutch ambulation. She fractured the right distal tibia and was placed in a short leg cast two hours ago. Now in physical therapy, she complains of pain which is intensified when her toes are stretched; she cannot actively dorsiflex her toes and there is pallor of the foot. All of the following are likely causes of this symptomatology except for: A. edema. B. compression of the common peroneal nerve. C. displacement of the fracture. D. a cast that is too tight. 194. When training a newly hired physical therapy aide to properly clean a whirlpool after use by a patient with an open, draining lesion, the first thing to do is: A. have the aide clean a whirlpool with you providing guidance and feedback throughout the procedure. B. have the aide read a manual on whirlpool disinfection. C. explain the proper procedure and demonstrate what is to be done. D. ask the aide about any previous experiences in cleaning and disinfecting whirlpools. Confidential

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195. A 16 year-old male has been admitted to a major medical center following traumatic brain injury. The patient is incubated and has been assessed at Glasgow Coma Scale 5 and Rancho los Amigos Cognitive Functioning II. Physical and occupational therapy has begun. The parents ask you, the physical therapist, when functional recovery will be complete. You respond that though accurate prediction is difficult, functional outcomes will more or less be complete: A. between three to six months following injury B. usually in one month's time. C. between one to three months following injury. D. up to one year following injury. 196. Following a myocardial infarction, a patient demonstrates signs of left ventricular failure. All of the following are characteristic of this problem except for: A. bradycardia. B. dyspnea with exercise. C. increased diastolic blood pressure. D. pleural effusion. 197. Following traumatic brain injury, an 18 year-old male demonstrates signs of ideational apraxia. To evaluate the extent of this type of apraxia, it would be most appropriate to ask the patient to: A. identify familiar objects, such as a clock both by sight and sound. B. pick out a fork from a group of different utensils. C. wash his hands with soap and water. D. draw in the hands on a clock picture to indicate a particular time. 198. A child with spastic diplegia has bilateral hip and knee flexion contractures. The ambulatory device that would be most helpful in promoting upright posture during ambulation would be: A. bilateral small-based quad canes B. an anterior rolling walker C. offset crutches D. a posterior rolling walker 199. Knee flexion contractures have developed in a 10 year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. The intervention strategy that would be least appropriate is: A. ultrasound to the flexor insertions to increase tissue extensibility prior to stretching. B. gentle passive stretching during non-acute stages providing that end-feel is stretchy C. use of dynamic splinting. D. use of short arc quadriceps exercises to increase strength. 200. You are treating an obese, 52 year-old woman with a diagnosis of chronic low back pain. After a few weeks of outpatient treatment, the patient began to complain of midback pain located between the scapulae and discomfort in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The organ which is the most likely potential source of this new symptomatology is the: A. kidney. B. spleen. C. gall bladder. D. pancreas.

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1. right lateral excursion less than functional. 2. pushing the pelvis forward. 3. squatting. 4. dorsal glide of the radius on the humerus. 5. superior cerebellar artery syndrome. 6. knee pain with decreased ROM. 7. nominal. 8. longstanding Parkinson's disease. 9. you can proceed with the patient examination. 10. open epiphysis at the knee. 11. thoracic excursion. 12. Peabody Developmental Motor Scales. 13. hyperactive DTRs. 14. check to see if the pelvis is symmetrical and supported. 15. capitation. 16. ask the therapist to meet with you during a schedule break. 17. 30 feet. 18. Clinical Test for Sensory Interaction in Balance. 19. tight hip flexors and weak abdominals. 20. depression and exaggerated self-blame over what had occurred. 21. active trunk flexion. 22. an ankle-foot orthosis with a varus correction strap. 23. pulmonary embolus. 24. wall outlets with ground fault interrupters. 25. turn her head from side to side with no corresponding limb movement. 26. D2 flexion. 27. venous insufficiency. 28. .70 (elbow) and .64 (hip). 29. eccentric. 30. ascending a ramp. 31. posterior pelvic tilting in the quadruped position. 32. ask the patient to touch his toes. If the motion is full and pain does not increase, refer him back to his primary care physician for further evaluation. 33. muscles of inspiration. 34. internal rotation of the hip and toeing-in. 35. scapulae. Confidential

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36. proprioceptive sensation. 37. high level of HDL and low level of LDL. 38. brachialis. 39. limited passive abduction. 40. firm pressure and joint approximation. 41. functional crawling. 42. reducing the power and moving the sound head over a large area. 43. hot water at 102 degrees F for 4 minutes followed by cold water at 60 degrees for one minute and alternating for 20 minutes ending with hot immersion. 44. plastic spiral ankle-foot orthosis. 45. elevating leg rests. 46. referring obstetrician. 47. manual contact to limit upward pelvic motion during swing phase. 48. bridging from the supine position. 49. Fabere Test. 50. hip shifting to the right followed by prone and standing trunk extensions. 51. increased arterial PCO2. 52. horseback riding. 53. visual representations or pictographs of what you wish to communicate. 54. get the patient involved in making choices regarding day to day treatment options. 55. spontaneous stepping. 56. use of a more open environment in which to practice the skill. 57. progressive weightbearing stress loading of the forearm and wrist. 58. patellar stabilizing brace. 59. apply a hotpack for 20 minutes immediately before stretching the muscle group. 60. anterior and posterior glides of the distal radiocarpal joint. 61. improvement in functional capacity. 62. an infant jumper to facilitate upright posture and stimulate trunk extension. 63. a cervical screening examination. 64. lateral to the tibialis anterior and medial to the extensor digitorum brevis. 65. express false beliefs or imagine that he is being persecuted. 66. decreasing or omitting carbohydrate snacks just following intense exercise or activity. 67. Private health Insurance. 68. children under five years of age. 69. have the patient try a walking aid such as a cane. 70. informed consent of the patient. Confidential

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71. ice application and high volt galvanic stimulation. 72. rocker sole. 73. medial and lateral glides of the radiocarpal joint. 74. supplemental oxygen. 75. sharp debridement techniques. 76. decreased pain thresholds or increased joint receptor sensitivity resulting in a lack of caution when performing new exercises. 77. immediately discontinue any treatment procedures which, in the assistant's judgment, appears to be harmful to the patient. 78. fact that the patient lives alone. 79. hand splinting to prevent deformity. 80. acromioclavicular sprain. 81. the patency of the urinary catheter. 82. carpal tunnel syndrome. 83. 400% 84. abdominal strengthening and flexion exercises. 85. left sidelying. 86. an ankle-foot orthosis with crutches or a Rollator walker. 87. lumbar lordosis, tightness of the heel cords and hip flexors and a waddling gait pattern. 88. subluxation. 89. explain to the parents that ambulation for very short distances might be possible with assistance; however, walking independently like other children is an unrealistic expectation. 90. not begin treatment and have the patient see his primary care physician immediately. 91. posterior stop. 92. flushed appearance and heat intolerance. 93. pain centralizes with passive hyperextension of the spine. 94. correct dysfunction by normalizing movement patterns. 95. hip flexors. 96. wheelchair mobility with splints to maintain good foot position. 97. the morning, one hour after breakfast and administration of the medication. 98. tell the parents that there is probably nothing to worry about. 99. cover the defect in the chest wall. 100.

have the patient demonstrate the procedure used and check to see if the angle of pull is correct.

101.

state licensing board in the state where the therapist is currently practicing.

102.

neurapraxia.

103.

vertebral artery compression.

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104.

discussed with the therapist.

105.

a decrease in the peak torque the patient can generate.

106.

avoid overhand throwing of the ball.

107.

rolling.

108.

closing of the right facet and opening of the left.

109.

shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation with the elbow near full extension.

110.

contact each physician that is overprescribing and explain your concerns.

111.

sidelying on the right, with the uppermost hip flexed, and then moved into adduction and internal

rotation. 112.

providing functional electrical stimulation to increase muscle activity in patients with incomplete spinal

cord lesions. 113.

measurable and time-related to goal achievement.

114.

patchy infiltrates

115.

a videotape.

116.

discharge the patient from physical therapy.

117.

the seat platform and seat back are tilted backward 15 degrees as a unit.

118.

explain your findings to the patient and family practitioner and begin treatment for a rotator cuff strain.

119.

have the patient seen at home by a physical therapist with prior approval of the HMO.

120.

active knee extension from 90 to zero degrees.

121.

a rotator cuff tear.

122.

2-3 times per week.

123.

resting pulse rate is higher, aerobic exercise pulse rate is lower and resting blood pressure is lower than

nonpregnancy. 124.

use of pressure dressings.

125.

an increase in airway patency via self-administered bronchopulmonary hygiene

126.

seek help from a community based cancer support group.

127.

Sjogren's syndrome.

128.

give the patient freedom to choose any medical equipment vendor; however, offer advice and

recommendations if the patient asks you for guidance. 129.

pro bono care should ethically be provided if the mother lacks the ability to pay and the practice

situation is able to permit necessary care. 130.

walking on a level surface at 4.5 miles per hour.

131.

stretching the pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles.

132.

hydrogen peroxide.

133.

in shallower water.

134.

three times per week for 20-30 minutes.

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135.

actual wound site only.

136.

guided movement by actually advancing the affected extremity to the correct position.

137.

determining the needs of the students attending the conference.

138.

at home, every day for at least two hours.

139.

interrupted biphasic with a wide pulse width and low intensity.

140.

if the record is used for research and anonymity of the patient is preserved.

141.

cellulitis.

142.

replacing the plantar flexion bumper or heel cushion if either is too firm or stiff.

143.

secretion removal in right sidelying, 1/4 turn forward, with the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches

followed by coughing in the sitting position. 144.

not ambulate the patient and consult with the supervising therapist about the situation.

145.

a medial whip.

146.

1:3.

147.

teach her to always carry or have attached to her a small memory log of important pertinent personal

information. 148.

strengthen a weak muscle

149.

increase emphasis on strengthening the shoulder depressors.

150.

after a short rest, continue the treatment; but, reduce the intensity of the activities.

151.

subluxation of the skull side hip.

152.

shearing of the sound waves at the bone/periosteum interface.

153.

her ability to lift 50 pounds from floor to waist using safe and proper body mechanics.

154.

vigorous whirlpool jet agitation.

155.

95-98 degrees fahrenheit.

156.

determine if other materials already exist that covers the same content.

157.

a depressed transverse arch.

158.

increase muscle strength.

159.

an automobile collision in which the patient's car was hit from behind while stopped at a traffic light.

160.

physical therapist assistant who was ambulating the patient.

161.

their willingness to comply with the program.

162.

sits the child on the ball and rolls the ball backward.

163.

fee-for-service.

164.

intercostal muscles.

165.

wrist extension.

166.

anterior inferior cerebellar artery.

167.

schedule the patient for a return visit as an outpatient.

168.

brachialis.

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169.

the approximate number of visits required to ensure success of the treatment.

170.

whirlpool, twice a day.

171.

insufficient open-ended discussion to ascertain the patient's comprehension level of the therapist's

explanation about pressure sores to the patient. 172.

a perceived shortness of breath scale.

173.

sit the patient down, take vital signs and reassure him.

174.

tell the athlete you need written permission from his parents to evaluate and treat the problem.

175.

5-6 times per week for a total of 20-30 minutes each session.

176.

Tens and pulsed short wave diathermy.

177.

congestive heart failure.

178.

superficial thrombophlebitis.

179.

metastatic lesions.

180.

spontaneous pneumothorax.

181.

right transverse process of L4 and gliding posteroanteriorly.

182.

the force of gravity in the upright position acts to counter return flow of blood to the heart.

183.

minimal or no activity of the quadriceps muscle during midstance.

184.

going up an incline.

185.

dehydration.

186.

toward the end of the lecture, have each participant write down five examples from their own

experiences and why they should have selected a different aid based on what they had just learned. 187.

has a rotator cuff tear.

188.

treatment with ultrasound may be helpful in this case; but, further research is needed.

189.

left external and right internal oblique.

190.

the same amount of pressure as the combined counterforces.

191.

in a supported sitting position with the neck semiflexed while applying deep stroking toward the mouth.

192.

Lofstrand crutches.

193.

displacement of the fracture.

194.

ask the aide about any previous experiences in cleaning and disinfecting whirlpools.

195.

up to one year following injury.

196.

pleural effusion.

197.

wash his hands with soap and water.

198.

a posterior rolling walker

199.

ultrasound to the flexor insertions to increase tissue extensibility prior to stretching.

200.

gall bladder.

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