PMP Exam Cram Test Bank

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Preface

PREFACE

.................................................... Dear Reader www.pmptools is excited to have published PMP®: Exam Cram Test Bank, what we believe is the first of its kind in the field or project management. Just as the project Management Institute is committed to establishing measurable standards for certifying project management professional with the PMP® Exam, www.pmptools.com is happy to help assist professionals with the knowledge needed to meet those standards. This test bank assumes you have at least read the Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®) and the PMP Exam Cram and have some general project management skills. While this book will assist you in preparing for the PMP® Exam, it will not act as substitute to the PMBOK® only a complement. We highly recommend that you obtain the PMBOK® if you do not currently have a copy.

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Preface

COPYRIGHT INFORMATION

.................................................... Copyright 2002 www.pmptools.com. World rights reserved. No part of this publication may be stored in a retrieval system, transmitted, or reporduced in any way, including but not limited to photocopy, photographs, magnetic, or other record, without the prior agreement and written permission of the publisher. The author and publisher have made their best efforts to prepare this book. The author and publisher make no representation or warranties of any kinf with regards to the completeness or accuracy of the contents herein and accept no liability of any kind including but not limited to performance, merchantability, fitness for any particular purpose, or any losses or damages of any kind caused or alleged to be caused directly or indirectly from this book. Trademarks: www.pmptools.com has attempted throughout this book to distinguish propriety trademarks from descriptive terms by following the capitalization style used by the manufacturer.

Preface

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

1

S AMPLE T EST 1

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................................... 1. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____. A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake D. Occurrence, frequency and cost

2. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events. A. Address B. Classify C. Assign D. Resolve 3. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP® Professional Code of Conduct? A. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in. B. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision. C. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided D. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety. 4. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control? A. Organizational procedures B. Performance reports C. Project plan updates D. Performance measurement 5. _____________ invloves using statitical relationship between historical data and other variables . A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric estimating D. Bottom up estimating

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

6. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until your project is completed. You should: A. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee's new management to develop a good transition plan B. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed. C. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed D. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the project will not suffer 7. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____________. A. Magnitude of the impact on the project B. Project manager's perception of risk C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk D. Use of more or less contractors 8. Which is an input to resource planning? A. Historical information B. Cost baseline C. Cost management plan D. Chart of accounts 9. _____________ involves allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 10. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project

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Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

11. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project. A. Manager B. Detriment C. Schedule D. Budget 12. _____________ /top-down estimating is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating 13. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response? A. Mitigation B. Acceptance C. Transference D. Avoidance 14. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 15. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be: A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract. B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost. C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

16. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken? A. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices B. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address interpretations and disputes C. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor D. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer 17. The most rapid cost estimating technique is: A. Square foot estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Analogous estimating 18. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be: A. Compromise B. Forcing C. Controlling D. Confrontation 19. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination

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Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

20.An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team. 21. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Planning include of the following except? A. Avoidance B. Expert judgment C. Transference D. Acceptance 22. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as: A. Sources of risk B. Potential risk events C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. Expected monetary value 23. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts. 24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique. A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

25. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but: A. Checklists B. Delphi technique C. Triggers D. Interviewing 26. What are the inputs to Project Plan Execution? A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action. C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action. D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned. 27. Change control requests: A. Must be relayed in writing B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled C. Are always initiated externally D. Are inputs to integrated change control 28. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies 29. _____________ is another term for top down estimating. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

30. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. Suppose your sponsor is also the vice president for engineering. You should: A. Use the customer's test matrix. B. Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer. C. Use the engineering test matrix and inform the customer. D. Tell your sponsor that you want to set up a meeting with the customer to resolve the conflict. 31. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives. A. Likely events B. Complex activities C. Complex schedules D. Uncertain occurrences 32. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs? A. Esteem B. Self-Actualization C. Physiological D. Social 33. Which of the following choices would indicate that your project was 10% under budget? A. The BCWS was 110, and the BCWP was 100 B. The ACWP was 100, and the BCWP was 110 C. The BCWS was 100, and the ACWP was 110 D. The ACWP was 110, and the BCWP was 100 34. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is A. Bidder Negotiations B. Bidder Auction C. Bidder Conference D. Bidder Selection

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

35. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes A. Planning core processes B. Planning facilitating processes C. Controlling core processes D. Controlling facilitating processes 36. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes? A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk assessment D. Risk response planning 37. The project plan: A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope change B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones C. Is used to manage project execution D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions 38. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. This is done as a tool and technique during? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Risk identification C. Risk management planning D. Risk monitoring and control 39. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot 40. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is: A. CPPC B. FPI C. CPIF D. CPFF

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

41. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should: A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate. 42. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean? Project "B" Activities

LOW

MOST LIKELY

HIGH

Gather requirements

40

45

80

Write specifications

35

50

100

Review specifications

10

15

30

Build model

18

25

50

Inspect model

10

20

40

Prepare defects/issues list

10

25

60

Resolve defects/issues

15

20

40

A. 216 B. 225 C. 246 D. 400 43. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

44. The communication management plan is a document that provides: A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store information B. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and conventions/definitions to be used C. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and develops D. All of the above 45. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 46. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur? A. Risk management plan B. Project plan C. Corrective action plan D. Contingency plan 47. ____________ involves determing the information and communication of stakeholders. A. Communications planning B. Process control C. project status reports D. Information distribution planning 48. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development? A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical information C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project plan D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

49. The objective with which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its execution of the risk response plan is based on the? A. Overall risk ranking for the project B. Probability rating C. Risk assessment score D. Acceptable threshold for risk 50. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives. may be: A. Instability of project progress information B. Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors C. Conflict between project manager and customer D. All of the above 51. Parametric cost estimating involves: A. Using the work breakdown structure as the basis for estimating B. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle C. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package D. Using rates and other factors based on lesson learned/historical data to estimate costs 52. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information. A. Project communication management B. Quality standards C. Process control D. Project quality control 53. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of: A. Risk management plan B. Different project strategies C. Different network paths D. Individual activities

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-11

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

54. What is the Delphi forecasting technique? A. Regression analysis on historical information B. Intuitive expert opinion C. Simulation models D. Probabilistic sensitivity analysis 55. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development? A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail 56. Project Integration Management A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfully B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated 57. To maintain the customer's schedule, massive overtime will be required between Christmas and New Years. Many of your team members have put in for vacation during this time. You should: A. Let the schedule slip and inform the customer B. First give the employees the choice of working overtime C. Make the employees cancel their vacation plans and work overtime D. Hire temporary employees for the overtime 58. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation. A. Operability and durability B. Lawful use of the product and safety of use C. Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution D. Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

59. Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a $10,000 bonus to be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should: A. Provide everyone with an equal share B. Provide everyone a share based upon their performance C. Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided D. Ask the sponsor to make the decision 60. Inputs to risk quantification include which of the following? A. Stakeholder risk tolerance B. Sources of risk C. Potential risk events D. Historical data 61. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority? A. Functional B. Weak Matrix C. Projectized D. Strong Matrix 62. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stake holder's personal concerns or grievances it may necessary to: A. Ask for a written description of the problem and submit it through the project office B. Schedule a project review session with the entire project team C. Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder D. Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator 63. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is: A. CPIF B. FPI C. FFP D. CPFF 64. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers? A. IFQ B. IFB C. RFP D. RFQ

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-13

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

65. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. 20.0 B. 22.5 C. 25.0 D. 27.5 66. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance: A. Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses B. Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk D. Is indeterminable because of insufficient data 67. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed 68. The output from resource planning includes: A. Salary options B. Job descriptions and responsibilities C. Resources required D. Current job openings 69. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

70. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____. A. Statistically dependent B. Variance distributed C. Statistically independent D. Deterministic 71. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much: A. High than the ACWP B. Higher than the BCWS C. Lower than the ACWP D. Lower than the BCWS 72. Project cost management includes all of the following functions except: A. Resource planning B. Resource leveling C. Cost estimating D. Cost budgeting 73. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Quantitative risk analysis D. Risk control management 74. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-15

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75. The project is one with many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no method of avoiding potential for damages. The project manager should consider _____ as a means of deflecting the risk. A. Abandoning the project B. Buying insurance for personal bodily injury C. Establishing a contingency fund D. Establishing a management reserve 76. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC 77. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time. A. Work-authorization system B. Organizational procedures C. Status review D. Project planning 78. Tools and techniques used in Quantitative Risk analysis include all of the following except? A. Interviewing B. Sensitivity analysis C. Decision tree analysis D. Avoidance 79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is: A. Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars C. Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars D. Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

80. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract. A. Letter, formal B. Fixed price, cost plus C. Cost plus, fixed price D. No-fault, no obligation 81. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____. A. An automobile accident B. An accident on commercial premises C. Slander or libel D. All of the above 82. For Christmas, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the responsibility to: A. Comply with the law. B. Comply with regulations. C. Provide accurate information. D. Protect conflict of interest. 83. Earned value can be described as: A. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date B. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date C. A method of measuring project performance D. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date 84. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-17

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

85. Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts 86. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compression B. Crashing C. Program evaluation and review technique D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path 87. Which of the following is an input to the team development process? A. General management skills B. Inputs to performance appraisals C. Staffing pool description D. External feedback 88. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project. A. Researching, reviewing and acting on B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to C. Reviewing, monitoring and managing D. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding 89. Which is not another term for contract? A. Agreement B. Purchase Order C. Proposal D. Memorandum of Understanding 90. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect: A. Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages B. Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights C. Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent D. All of the above

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

91. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to: A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details 92. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project 93. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should: A. Determine the risks associated with the violation B. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation C. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results D. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response 94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include: A. Learning upgrades of new system B. The immediacy of the need for information C. The availability of technology D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-19

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

95. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring: A. $3,500 B. $4,000 C. $5,000 D. $7,500 96. Outputs to Risk Response Planning include all of the following except? A. Risk response plan B. Corrective action plan C. Contractual agreements D. Residual risks 97. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion. A. Project plan completion model B. Performance reporting C. Administrative closure D. Process control 98. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion. A. Retained at the remaining dollar level B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget 99. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

100. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated? A. 13 % B. 6 % C. 100 % D. 72%

ANSWERS

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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

C. PMBOK 2000, page 134 A. PMBOK 2000, page 143 B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct D. PMBOK 2000, page 48 C. PMBOK 2000, page 204 A. C. A. PMBOK 2000, page 84 C. PMBOK 2000, page 89 C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct B. PMBOK 2000, page 207 C. PMBOK 2000, page 72 C. PMBOK 2000, page 207 B. PMBOK 2000, page 86 A. PMBOK 2000, page 48 B. C. PMBOK 2000, page 88 D. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-162 B. A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct B. PMBOK 2000, page 128 C. C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct B. PMBOK 2000, page 88

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-21

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25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62.

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Answers

C. PMBOK 2000, page 132 B. PMBOK 2000, page 42 D. PMBOK 2000, page 48 A. PMBOK 2000, page 90 A. PMBOK 2000, page 88 D. D. PMBOK 2000, page 127 C. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-165 B. PMBOK 2000, page 123 C. PMBOK 2000, page 154 B. PMBOK 2000, page 33 C. PMBOK 2000, page 128 C. PMBOK 2000, page 42 A. PMBOK 2000, page 134 B. PMBOK 2000, page 88 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-228 B. PMBOK 2000, page 89 C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /3 = 138 + 200 + 400 /3 = 246 D. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct D. PMBOK 2000, page 117 A. PMBOK 2000, page 85 D. PMBOK 2000, page 199 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-181 D. PMBOK 2000, page 42 A. PMBOK 2000, page 139 D. PMP Exam Cram, page 3-58 D. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-101 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-181 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-211 B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-205 B. PMBOK 2000, page 42 C. PMBOK 2000, page 41 B. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-236 C. D. PMBOK 2000, page 128 C. PMBOK 2000, page 19 C.

Sample Test 1

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Answers

63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81.

82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

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S A M P L E TE S T 1

C. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-228 A. PMBOK 2000, page 153 C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /3 C. PMBOK 2000, page 142 A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct C. PMBOK 2000, page 84 D. PMBOK 2000, page 90 C. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-110 B. PMBOK 2000, page 84 C. PMBOK 2000, page 127 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-182 B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-202 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-106 A. PMBOk 2000, page 47 D. PMBOK 2000, page 128 B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-211 B. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-228 D. A tort is defined as damage, injury, or a wrongful act done willfully, negligently, or in circumstances involving strict liability, but not involving breach of contract, for which a civil suit can be brought. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct C. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-107 B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-105 B. PMP Exam Cram, page 4-82 D. PMBOK 2000, page 115 B. PMBOK 2000, page 127 C. PMBOK 2000, page 156 D. PMBOK 2000, page 183 A. PMP Exam Cram, page 5-181 B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct D. PMP Exam Cram, 8-184 C. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-210 B. PMBOK 2000, page 128 C. PMP Exam Cram, page 8-191 B. PMBOK 2000, page 73

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Sample Test 1 1-23

1

S A M P L E TE S T 1

Answers

99. A. PMBOK 2000, page 88 100. D. 85% scope change, 85% project not being terminated = .85 * .85 = .72 or 72%

1-24

Sample Test 1

http://www.pmptools.com

2

S AMPLE T EST 2

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................................... 1. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique. A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot

2. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 3. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False 4. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 5. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives. A. Likely events B. Complex activities C. Complex schedules D. Uncertain occurrences

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 2

2-31

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

6. _____________ is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating 7. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration: A. Start-to-start B. Finish-to-finish C. Start-to-finish D. None of the above 8. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work B. Increased to meet the unidentified surprises C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget 9. Contract close-out contains: A. Contract documentation B. Procurement audits C. Formal acceptance and closure D. All of the above 10. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service

2-32

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

11. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments 12. Which process is not included in Project Time Management? A. Activity definition B. Activity sequencing C. Schedule development & schedule control D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) 13. Performance improvements include all but: A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in individual skills C. Improvements in team behaviors D. Improvements in team capabilities 14. Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts 15. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-33

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

16. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout 17. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is: A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule development B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates 18. The core planning processes are: A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control D. Scope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration 19. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 20. Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. All of the above

2-34

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

21. The process that is not a part of time management is: A. Activity Definition B. Resource Planning C. Schedule Development D. Activity Sequencing 22. The outputs from schedule control include all except: A. Schedule updates B. Revisions C. Corrective action D. Lessons learned 23. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. A. Project plan update B. Project scope management C. Scope change control D. Product description 24. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 25. A resource pool description provides: A. The unit cost for each resource B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns C. Performance of the pool resources D. Duration of the project

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-35

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

26. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process 27. An output of scope definition is: A. Work breakdown structure B. Scope statement C. Scope management plan D. Corrective action 28. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project. A. Manager B. Detriment C. Schedule D. Budget 29. A RAM is defined as: A. Random access memory B. Rapid air movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix 30. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

2-36

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

31. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events. A. Address B. Classify C. Assign D. Resolve 32. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process 33. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required 34. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____. A. Statistically dependent B. Variance distributed C. Statistically independent D. Deterministic

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-37

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

35. Topics that deal with people include: A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with people C. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource function D. All of the above 36. An output of the scope change control process is: A. Scope statement B. Lessons learned C. Formal acceptance D. Work breakdown structure 37. Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments 38. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating 39. Operations and projects share many characteristics. A. True B. False

2-38

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

40. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests. A. True B. False 41. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create. A. Resource plan B. Project charter C. Project description D. Scope statement 42. Outputs from the initiation process are: A. Project manager identified/assigned B. Constraints C. Assumptions D. All of the above 43. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart 44. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-39

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

45. Project Scope Management includes which processes: A. Initiation B. Project Plan Execution C. Overall Change Control D. Performance Reporting 46. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating

47. Project Integration Management A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfully B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated 48. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project. A. Researching, reviewing and acting on B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to C. Reviewing, monitoring and managing D. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding

2-40

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

49. Inputs to contract administration do not include: A. Contract B. Change requests C. Work results D. Market conditions 50. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned to them. A. True B. False 51. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called: A. Scope development B. Scope planning C. Project development D. Project selection 52. Project selection criteria cover management concerns such as: A. Financial return B. Market share C. Public perception D. All of the above 53. The WBS is: A. An organization oriented family tree of the project. B. A task oriented family tree of the project. C. A cost centered structure of the project. D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct.

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-41

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

54. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management? A. Closeout B. Estimating C. Budgeting D. Control 55. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 56. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning? A. Scope statement B. Contract C. Product design D. Market conditions 57. A project can best be defined as: A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives. B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a wellestablished end point. C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints." 58. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Deliverables C. Activities D. All of the above 2-42

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

59. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC 60. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____. A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake D. Occurrence, frequency and cost 61. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end 62. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement 63. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-43

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

64. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are: A. Product analysis B. Project schedule development C. Expert judgment D. Project budget 65. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except: A. Commercial duration databases B. Project files C. Project team knowledge D. Outside consultants 66. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 67. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Schedule control D. Project controls 68. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope

2-44

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

69. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response Development 70. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is: A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope 71. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. 20.0 B. 22.5 C. 25.0 D. 27.5 72. The scope management provides: A. A basis for future decisions about the project. B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures. C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes. D. All of the above. 73. Project Procurement Management includes: A. Procurement planning B. Solicitation planning C. Solicitation D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-45

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

74. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False 75. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to: A. See what mistakes others have made B. See how others have solved problems C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives" D. All of the above 76. The major project scope management processes include: A. Change order control B. Initiation C. Program evaluation D. Scope statement 77. A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram 78. Which is an input to resource planning? A. Historical information B. Cost baseline C. Cost management plan D. Chart of accounts

2-46

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

79. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing? A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C. Expert judgment D. Network templates 80. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 81. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart 82. You have a choice of accepting a fixed price contract for $115,000 with a liquidated damages clause or $100,000 without the clause. There is a 60% chance your cost will be $90,000 and a 40% chance your cost will be $80,000. There is a 98% chance of meeting your schedule but the penalty if missed is $50,000. Which is the best contract choice and how much profit would you make? A. Contract without the clause; profit is $14,000 B. Contract without the clause; profit is $27,980 C. Contract with the clause; profit is $14,000 D. None of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-47

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

83. An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building or facility D. Providing technical support 84. Inputs to Team Development include all but A. Project staff B. Reward and recognition systems C. Performance reports D. Project plan 85. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team 86. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies A. Finish-to-start B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-finish D. Start-to-finish 87. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection? A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system

2-48

Test 2

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

88. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory 89. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end. A. Punch list B. Closing process C. Project completion checklist D. Stakeholder buyoff 90. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies 91. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first. A. True B. False 92. The closing process scope includes: A. Contract closeout B. Final reporting C. Punch list D. Exit interview

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-49

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

93. An input to the scope planning process is: A. Product description B. Project schedule C. Strategic plan D. Historical information 94. Scope planning is: A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope D. Planning project milestones 95. Activity definition inputs include all except: A. Work breakdown structure B. Product description C. Constraints D. Assumptions 96. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest 97. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot

2-50

Test 2

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

98. The most rapid cost estimating technique is: A. Square foot estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Analogous estimating 99. _____________ is another term for top down estimating. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 100. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope Definition D. Scope verification

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-51

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

ANSWERS

ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

2-52

Test 2

B. Bottom up estimating B. False B. False C. Parametric modeling D. Uncertain occurrences C. Analogous estimating D. None of the above A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work D. All of the above D. Developing a new product or service A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked A. Cost management plan D. Executing process A. Procurement planning C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition D. Cost control D. All of the above B. Resource Planning B. Lessons learned B. Project scope management B. False B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns A. Initiating process A. Work breakdown structure B. Detriment D. Responsibility assignment matrix A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

ANSWERS

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63.

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

A. Address C. Planning process D. What type of resource planning is required C. Statistically independent D. All of the above B. Lessons learned A. Impacts of weather B. Contract negotiation A. True A. True C. Project description D. All of the above B. Process A. Resource planning A. Initiation A. Analogous estimating C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to D. Market conditions A. True B. Scope planning D. All of the above B. A task oriented family tree of the project. A. Closeout C. Cost budgeting B. Contract D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints." D. All of the above A. Cost baseline C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service A. A strong matrix organization D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-53

2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

ANSWERS

64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

C. Expert judgment D. Outside consultants B. Cost estimating B. Project performance B. Project verification B. Solicitation A. Project scope C. 25.0 D. All of the above. D. All of the above A. True D. All of the above B. Initiation D. Histogram A. Historical information C. Expert judgment D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. 81. B. Controlling process 82. D. None of the above 83. C. Constructing a building or facility 84. B. Reward and recognition systems 85. D. Dedicated project team 86. A. Finish-to-start 87. C. Payment system 88. A. Staffing management plan 89. B. Closing process 90. A. Managing changes when they occur 91. A. True 92. A. Contract closeout 93. A. Product description 94. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions 95. B. Product description 96. B. Staff age 97. B. Bottom up estimating

2-54

Test 2

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

ANSWERS

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S A M P L E TE S T 2

98. C. Computerized estimating 99. A. Analogous estimating 100. B. Scope Planning

PMP® Exam Cram Test bank

Test 2 2-55

2

2-56

Test 2

S A M P L E TE S T 2

ANSWERS

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

S AMPLE T EST 3

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...................................

3

1. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring: A. $3,500 B. $4,000 C. $5,000 D. $7,500 2. Project Procurement Management includes: A. Procurement planning B. Solicitation planning C. Solicitation D. All of the above 3. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives. A. Monthly update reports B. Executive top-down reporting C. Performance reviews D. Performance reporting

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3

3-57

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

4. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the _____________ of the project. A. Quality, schedule B. Objectives, organization C. Management, product D. Customer requirements stakeholders 5. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required 6. Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. All of the above 7. The Risk Management Plan does not include: A. Risk management procedures B. Risk identification C. Alternative strategies D. Allocation of reserves 8. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above

3-58

Test 3

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

9. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur: A. Risk management plan B. Project plan C. Corrective action plan D. Contingency plan 10. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include: A. Reserves B. Corrective action plan C. Contractual agreements D. Risk management plan 11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory 12. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end 13. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following: A. Probability that the risk event will occur B. Alternative possible outcomes C. Expected timing of the event D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-59

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

14. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection: A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system 15. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. A. Process control model B. Work breakdown structure C. Checklist D. Project plan 16. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the project objectives is: A. Control charts B. Quality tolerance checklist C. Scope statement D. Product description 17. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control 18. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies

3-60

Test 3

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

19. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response Development 20. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control 21. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how it is measured by the quality control process. A. Operational B. Process control C. Quality policy D. Hierarchical system model 22. Topics that deal with people include: A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with people C. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource function D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-61

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

23. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standars D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique. A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot 25. An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building or facility D. Providing technical support 26. Which is not input to Risk Identification: A. Historical information B. Cost estimates C. Product information D. Checklists 27. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome. A. Critical path method B. Contemporaneous scheduling C. Design of experiments D. Benchmarking

3-62

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

28. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart 29. A RAM is defined as: A. Random access memory B. Rapid air movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix 30. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called: A. Project controls B. Project information management systems (PIMS) C. Informational distribution systems D. Project distribution systems 31. The process that is not a part of time management is: A. Activity Definition B. Resource Planning C. Schedule Development D. Activity Sequencing 32. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Schedule control D. Project controls

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-63

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

33. Inputs to Team Development include all but A. Project staff B. Reward and recognition systems C. Performance reports D. Project plan 34. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects. A. True B. False 35. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented. 36. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include: A. Procurement B. Expert judgment C. Insurance D. Alternative strategies 37. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated? A. 13 % B. 6 % C. 100 % D. 72 %

3-64

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

38. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout

39. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC 40. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. A. Executive management updates B. Project status reports C. Information distribution D. Process control 41. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of: A. Risk management plan B. Different project strategies C. Different network paths D. Individual activities

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-65

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

42. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality, as formally expressed by top management. A. Top-down reporting B. Project management procedure C. Quality policy D. Quality assurance 43. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 44. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as: A. Sources of risk B. Potential risk events C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. Expected monetary value 45. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process 46. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team

3-66

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

47. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning: A. Scope statement B. Contract C. Product design D. Market conditions 48. The core planning processes are: A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control D. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration 49. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest 50. Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments 51. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except: A. Team-building activities B. General management skills C. Role and responsibility assignments D. Rewards and recognition systems

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-67

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

52. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion. A. Project plan completion model B. Performance reporting C. Administrative closure D. Process control 53. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments 54. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but: A. Comprehensive checklists B. Benefit/cost analysis C. Flowcharting D. Benchmarking 55. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 56. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress. A. Performance reviews B. Status reviews C. Weekly progress meetings D. Progress informational update meetings

3-68

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

57. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False 58. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process 59. Performance improvements include all but: A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in individual skills C. Improvements in team behaviors D. Improvements in team capabilities 60. Project management process can be organized into: A. Initiating process B. Planning process C. Controlling and executing process D. All of the above 61. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade is: A. A system to measure operational planning techniques B. A category for quality improvement C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for quality D. A check list for quality management techniques

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-69

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

62. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management? A. Closeout B. Estimating C. Budgeting D. Control 63. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project. B. Developing final inspections for quality. C. Striving to do the best job possible. D. Conducting quality circle activities. 64. A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram 65. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 66. _____________ is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating

3-70

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

67. Inputs to risk quantification do not include: A. Stakeholder risk tolerance B. Sources of risk C. Potential risk events D. Historical data 68. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and determines how to satisfy them. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control 69. An input to the quality assurance process is: A. Customer satisfaction B. Quality management plan C. Product description D. Standards and regulations 70. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests. A. True B. False 71. Operations and projects share many characteristics. A. True B. False 72. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-71

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

73. Contract close-out contains: A. Contract documentation B. Procurement audits C. Formal acceptance and closure D. All of the above 74. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information. A. Project communication management B. Quality standards C. Process control D. Project quality control 75. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement 76. Quality is defined as: A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs B. Verifying the customers requirements are met C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget 77. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but: A. Checklists B. Risk assessment C. Flowcharting D. Interviewing 3-72

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

78. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk qualification D. Risk response development 79. The quality management processes do not include: A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Overall change control 80. The communication management plan is a document that provides: A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store information B. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and conventions/definitions to be used C. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and develops D. All of the above 81. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is: A. CPM B. Flowchart C. Bar chart D. Network diagram 82. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are: A. Performance reviews B. Earned value analysis C. Trend analysis D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-73

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

83. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include: A. Expected monetary value B. Decision trees C. Simulation D. All of the above 84. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating

85. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean: Project "B" Activities

LOW

MOST LIKELY

HIGH

Gather requirements

40

45

80

Write specifications

35

50

100

Review specifications

10

15

30

Build model

18

25

50

Inspect model

10

20

40

Prepare defects/issues list

10

25

60

Resolve defects/issues

15

20

40

A. 216 B. 225 C. 246 D. 400

3-74

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

86. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to measure performance. A. Process adjustments B. Operational definitions C. Benchline parameters D. Benchmarking 87. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 88. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings. A. Informational retrieval systems B. Informational distribution systems C. Project records D. Project informational systems 89. Project Scope Management includes which processes: A. Initiation B. Project Plan Execution C. Overall Change Control D. Performance Reporting

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-75

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

90. An outputs from the quality planning process is: A. Quality improvements B. Quality management plan C. Acceptance decisions D. Process adjustments 91. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service 92. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 93. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction 94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include: A. Learning upgrades of new system B. The immediacy of the need for information C. The availability of technology D. All of the above

3-76

Test 3

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

95. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. A. Quality planning B. Quality standards C. Process control D. Project quality management 96. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Deliverables C. Activities D. All of the above 97. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart 98. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process 99. Inputs to contract administration do not include: A. Contract B. Change requests C. Work results D. Market conditions

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-77

3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

100. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project: A. Owner B. Buyer C. Seller D. Stakeholder and the vendor

3-78

Test 3

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

ANSWERS

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

C. $5,000 D. All of the above D. Performance reporting C. Management, product D. What type of resource planning is required D. All of the above C. Alternative strategies D. All of the above D. Contingency plan B. Corrective action plan A. Staffing management plan C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service D. All of the above C. Payment system C. Checklist C. Scope statement B. Quality assurance A. Managing changes when they occur B. Solicitation C. Quality control A. Operational D. All of the above D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. B. Bottom up estimating C. Constructing a building or facility D. Checklists C. Design of experiments B. Controlling process D. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Informational distribution systems

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-79

3

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62.

3-80

Test 3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

ANSWERS

B. Resource Planning B. Project performance B. Reward and recognition systems B. False A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. Expert judgment D. 72 % A. Procurement planning A. Cost baseline C. Information distribution A. Risk management plan C. Quality policy B. False C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. Executing process D. Dedicated project team B. Contract A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition B. Staff age A. Impacts of weather C. Role and responsibility assignments C. Administrative closure A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually A. Comprehensive checklists C. Parametric modeling A. Performance reviews A. True C. Planning process A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked D. All of the above C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for quality A. Closeout

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

ANSWERS

63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96.

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S A M P L E TE S T 3

A. Planning it into the project. D. Histogram D. Cost control C. Analogous estimating D. Historical data A. Quality planning B. Quality management plan A. True A. True B. False D. All of the above A. Project communication management A. A strong matrix organization A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs D. Interviewing C. Risk qualification C. Quality control D. All of the above B. Flowchart D. All of the above D. All of the above B. Contract negotiation C. 246 D. Benchmarking C. Cost budgeting A. Informational retrieval systems A. Initiation B. Quality management plan D. Developing a new product or service B. False C. The overlapping of project phases D. All of the above D. Project quality management D. All of the above

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 3 3-81

3

97. 98. 99. 100.

3-82

Test 3

S A M P L E TE S T 3

ANSWERS

B. Process B. Solicitation process D. Market conditions B. Buyer

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

4

S AMPLE T EST 4

.....

...................................

1. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean? Project "B" Activities

LOW

MOST LIKELY

HIGH

Gather requirements

40

45

80

Write specifications

35

50

100

Review specifications

10

15

30

Build model

18

25

50

Inspect model

10

20

40

Prepare defects/issues list

10

25

60

Resolve defects/issues

15

20

40

A. 216 B. 225 C. 246 D. 400 2. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end. A. Punch list B. Closing process C. Project completion checklist D. Stakeholder buyoff

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4

4-83

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

3. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development? A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical information C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project plan D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 4. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____. A) Magnitude of the impact on the project B) Project manager's perception of risk C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk D) Use of more or less contractors 5. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion. A) Retained at the remaining dollar level B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work C) Decreased to reduce the accounting work D) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget 6. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except: A. Team-building activities B. General management skills C. Role and responsibility assignments D. Rewards and recognition systems

4-84

Test 4

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

7. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan, performance reports and change request B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned C. Project plan, project reports and change request D. Product plan, performance reports and change request 8. Project Scope Management is: A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or service C. Is synonymous with change control management D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders 9. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-85

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

10. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination 11. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process? A. Project Schedule B. Cost estimates C. Resource requirements D. WBS 12. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart 13. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required

4-86

Test 4

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

14. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution? A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures B. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures C. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures D. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information 15. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-87

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

16. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?

PV

EV

AC

$10,000

$12,000

$15,000

A. -$3,000 B. $5,000 C. $3,000 D. -$2,000 17. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure. 18. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes? A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk assessment D. Risk response planning

4-88

Test 4

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

19. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project B. Developing final inspections for quality C. Striving to do the best job possible D. Conducting quality circle activities 20. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X? A. Trust B. Safety C. Self Esteem D. Self Actualization 21. Cost estimating is: A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance D. Analyzing positive and negative variances 22. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development? A. Supporting plan and the WBS B. Project plan and historical information C. Project Plan and supporting detail D. Supporting detail and lessons learned 23. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli? A. Pretending to show interest in the other side B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't C. Means the same as acting in good faith D. Compromised agreement

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-89

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

24. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that: A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions D. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance 25. What is the Delphi forecasting technique? A) Regression analysis on historical information B) Intuitive expert opinion C) Simulation models D) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis 26. Which is not a facilitating process? A. Solicitation planning B. Quality planning C. Communications planning D. Resource planning 27. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Company? A. $22.40 B. $26.60 C. $29.12 D. $30.33 28. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12 % interest is: A. $4,702 B. $4,982 C. $5,287 D. $5,394

4-90

Test 4

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

29. Outputs of organizational planning are: A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates B. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balances C. Project organization charts and lessons learned D. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned 30. Which scope management process creates the WBS? A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope definition D. Scope verification 31. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed 32. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 33. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-91

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

34. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: A. When a problem surfaces B. After the schedule is published C. During the close-out phase D. During the planning phase 35. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept? A. Performance standard is zero defects B. Quality must be inspected in C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act 36. An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team. 37. Core processes: A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project B. Have clear dependencies C. Must be preformed simultaneously D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project 38. Poor scope definition may cause all but: A. Rework B. Increased productivity C. Schedule delays D. Low morale

4-92

Test 4

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

39. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project 40. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method of scheduling is the: A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line D. There is no difference 41. Collocation can mean: A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team B. Team members work better at different locations C. Multiple locations are connected by local area networks D. None of the above 42. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method: A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule B. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations C. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic ties D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration 43. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented. PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-93

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

44. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area? A. Communications Management B. Procurement Management C. Change Control Management D. Project Integration Management 45. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____. A) An automobile accident B) An accident on commercial premises C) Slander or libel D) All of the above 46. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned B. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned C. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure D. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings 47. The role of advertising in the solicitation process: A. Is required by state law B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders C. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes D. Finds the cheapest contractor available 48. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence. A. Formal procedure B. Informal procedure C. Exchange procedure D. Monitoring procedure

4-94

Test 4

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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S A M P L E TE S T 4

49. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations 50. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to: A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes C. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget D. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget 51. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include A. Budgetary considerations B. Internationalization C. Activity based costing D. Matrix organization 52. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract. A) Letter, formal B) Fixed price, cost plus C) Cost plus, fixed price D) No-fault, no obligation

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-95

4

S A M P L E TE S T 4

53. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk qualification D. Risk response development 54. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to: A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details 55. Procurement documents should be structured to: A. Describe the desired form of response B. Include a complete statement of work C. Outline cost criteria D. A and B 56. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance: A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses B) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk D) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data

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57. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include: A. Economic models & comparative approaches B. Economic models & linear programming methods C. Linear programming methods & cost basis models D. Linear programming models & economic models 58. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces? A. 31.74 B. 34.13 C. 68.26 D. 95.46 59. Characteristics of a code of account are: A. It includes work packages B. It is a numbering system C. It is the same as a cost account D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS 60. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____. A) Contract B) Specification C) Statement of work D) Work breakdown structure 61. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution? A. Work results and status review meetings B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned C. Work results and project knowledge D. Work results and change requests PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 4 4-97

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62. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much: A. High than the ACWP B. Higher than the BCWS C. Lower than the ACWP D. Lower than the BCWS 63. Which is not another term for contract? A. Agreement B. Purchase Order C. Proposal D. Memorandum of Understanding 64. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process? A. Project charter B. Constraints C. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM 65. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to: A. Revise project plan B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis C. Conduct a needs analysis D. Increase the estimated cost 66. A precise description of a deliverable includes a: A. Specification B. Baseline C. Work package D. WBS element

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67. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope Change Control D. Scope verification 68. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team 69. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is A. Bidder Negotiations B. Bidder Auction C. Bidder Conference D. Bidder Selection 70. The lowest level of the WBS is: A. Control account B. Code of accounts C. Work Package D. Deliverable 71. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are: A. Fringe benefits B. More vacation time C. Completion bonus D. A sense of personal achievement

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72. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: A. Constraints B. Project charter C. Product description D. Budget/cost analysis 73. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compression B. Crashing C. Program evaluation and review technique D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path 74. Change control requests: A. Must be relayed in writing B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled C. Are always initiated externally D. Are inputs to integrated change control 75. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent: A. Behind schedule B. Over budget C. Ahead of schedule D. Under budget 76. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development? A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail

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77. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the project during the: A. Closeout phase B. Development phase C. Execution phase D. Concept phase 78. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except: A. Product analysis B. Status reporting C. Progress reporting D. Forecasting 79. The primary outputs of team development are: A. Improved project performance B. Improved team morale C. Better performance appraisals D. Better working conditions 80. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 81. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation. A) Operability and durability B) Lawful use of the product and safety of use C) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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82. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction 83. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 84. The scope management plan includes: A. An assessment of the stability of the project scope B. How changes will be integrated into the project C. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified D. All of the above 85. Scope change is defined as: A. Change in project personnel B. Change in technical specifications C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS D. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB 86. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be: A) Instability of project progress information B) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors C) Conflict between project manager and customer D) All of the above

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87. Contract closeout documentation includes: A. Technical documentation B. Financial documentation C. All of the above D. None of the above 88. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage? A. Initial phase(s) B. Intermediate phase(s) C. Closing phase(s) D. Staffing phase(s) 89. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is: A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars C) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars D) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars 90. The project plan: A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope change B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones C. Is used to manage project execution D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions 91. Earned Value is: A. The amount future value of a present investment B. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished D. PV-AC

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92. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process? A. Operational definitions B. Quality policy C. Quality audits D. Quality improvement 93. The project schedule is not used to determine: A. The project's budget B. The float of the project C. Occasional changes to the activity listing D. The starting and finishing dates of the activities

94. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect: A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages B) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights C) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent D) All of the above 95. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service. A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessary C. Organized, profitable D. Temporary, unique 96. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost? A. Rework B. Training C. Rejects D. Scrap 4-104

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97. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should: A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate. 98. Constructive team roles include: A. Investigator, clarifier, and closer B. Compromiser, blocker, and closer C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer 99. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution? A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned 100. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above

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ANSWERS

ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. C. 246 2. B. Closing process 3. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 4. C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk 5. B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work 6. C. Role and responsibility assignments 7. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request 8. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully 9. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 10. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program 11. C. Resource requirements 12. B. Controlling process 13. D. What type of resource planning is required 14. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures 15. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. 16. A. -$3,000 17. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input 18. C. Risk assessment 19. A. Planning it into the project 20. B. Safety 21. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service 22. C. Project plan and supporting detail 23. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't 24. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance 25. B) Intuitive expert opinion 26. D. Resource planning 27. C. $29.12

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28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59.

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C. $5,287 A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates C. Scope definition A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. D. Developing a new product or service D. During the planning phase B. Quality must be inspected in A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. Have clear dependencies B. Increased productivity C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. C. Change Control Management D) All of the above A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders A. Formal procedure B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes B. Internationalization B) Fixed price, cost plus C. Risk qualification A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information D. A and B C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk A. Economic models & comparative approaches B. 34.13 D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS

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60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93.

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ANSWERS

D) Work breakdown structure D. Work results and change requests D. Lower than the BCWS C. Proposal C. Alternatives identification D. Increase the estimated cost A. Specification D. Scope verification D. Dedicated project team C. Solicitation selection C. Work Package D. A sense of personal achievement D. Budget/cost analysis B. Crashing D. Are inputs to integrated change control C. Ahead of schedule B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs D. Concept phase A. Product analysis A. Improved project performance B. False D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose C. The overlapping of project phases B. False D. All of the above C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS D) All of the above C. All of the above B. Intermediate phase(s) B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars C. Is used to manage project execution C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished B. Quality policy A. The project's budget

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94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

D) All of the above D. Temporary, unique B. Training B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 100. D. All of the above

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1. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end. A. Punch list B. Closing process C. Project completion checklist D. Stakeholder buyoff 2. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout 3. The most rapid cost estimating technique is: A. Square foot estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Analogous estimating 4. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response Development 5. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned to them. A. True B. False

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6. A resource pool description provides: A. The unit cost for each resource B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns C. Performance of the pool resources D. Duration of the project 7. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope Definition D. Scope verification 8. Project Procurement Management includes: A. Procurement planning B. Solicitation planning C. Solicitation D. All of the above 9. Outputs from the initiation process are: A. Project manager identified/assigned B. Constraints C. Assumptions D. All of the above 10. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to: A. See what mistakes others have made B. See how others have solved problems C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives" D. All of the above

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11. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory 12. Performance improvements include all but: A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in individual skills C. Improvements in team behaviors D. Improvements in team capabilities 13. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects. A. True B. False 14. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____. A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake D. Occurrence, frequency and cost 15. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart

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16. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project: A. Owner B. Buyer C. Seller D. Stakeholder and the vendor 17. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first. A. True B. False 18. A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram 19. The process that is not a part of time management is: A. Activity Definition B. Resource Planning C. Schedule Development D. Activity Sequencing 20. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC

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21. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process 22. The closing process scope includes: A. Contract closeout B. Final reporting C. Punch list D. Exit interview 23. An output of the scope change control process is: A. Scope statement B. Lessons learned C. Formal acceptance D. Work breakdown structure 24. Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments 25. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team

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26. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. 20.0 B. 22.5 C. 25.0 D. 27.5 27. The WBS is: A. An organization oriented family tree of the project. B. A task oriented family tree of the project. C. A cost centered structure of the project. D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct. 28. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating 29. What are the tools and techniques of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process? A. Checklists, flowcharting, interviewing B. Interviewing, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, simulation C. Checklists, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, information gathering techniques D. Interviewing, checklists, assumption analysis, risk probability impact 30. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service

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31. Scope planning is: A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope D. Planning project milestones 32. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments 33. An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building or facility D. Providing technical support 34. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique. A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot 35. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection: A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system

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36. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 37. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management? A. Closeout B. Estimating C. Budgeting D. Control 38. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is: A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope 39. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. A. Project plan update B. Project scope management C. Scope change control D. Product description 40. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False

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41. Which is an input to resource planning? A. Historical information B. Cost baseline C. Cost management plan D. Chart of accounts 42. A project can best be defined as: A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives. B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a wellestablished end point. C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints." 43. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end 44. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are: A. Product analysis B. Project schedule development C. Expert judgment D. Project budget 45. A RAM is defined as: A. Random access memory B. Rapid air movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix

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46. _____________ is another term for top down estimating. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 47. The scope management provides: A. A basis for future decisions about the project. B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures. C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes. D. All of the above. 48. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope 49. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provide the resources to meet the risk events. A. Address B. Classify C. Assign D. Resolve 50. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart

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51. Topics that deal with people include: A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with people C. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource function D. All of the above 52. Project Integration Management A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required to complete the project successfully B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated 53. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process 54. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required

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55. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project. A. Manager B. Detriment C. Schedule D. Budget 56. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing: A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C. Expert judgment D. Network templates 57. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process 58. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest 59. The _____________ are typically defined in terms of the product and can cover the full range of possible management concerns. A. Resource breakdown structures B. Change requests C. Project selection criteria D. Performance measurements

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60. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 61. Which process is not included in Project Time Management? A. Activity definition B. Activity sequencing C. Schedule development & schedule control D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) 62. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____. A. Statistically dependent B. Variance distributed C. Statistically independent D. Deterministic 63. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction 64. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests. A. True B. False

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65. The core planning processes are: A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control D. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration 66. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement 67. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 68. Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts 69. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above 5-124

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70. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented. 71. Inputs to contract administration do not include: A. Contract B. Change requests C. Work results D. Market conditions 72. The outputs from schedule control include all except: A. Schedule updates B. Revisions C. Corrective action D. Lessons learned 73. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives. A. Likely events B. Complex activities C. Complex schedules D. Uncertain occurrences 74. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning: A. Scope statement B. Contract C. Product design D. Market conditions

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75. _____________ is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating 76. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 77. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies 78. Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. All of the above 79. Project management process can be organized into: A. Initiating process B. Planning process C. Controlling and executing process D. All of the above

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80. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 81. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot 82. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Deliverables C. Activities D. All of the above 83. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 84. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called: A. Scope development B. Scope planning C. Project development D. Project selection

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85. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is: A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule development B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates 86. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False 87. An output of scope definition is: A. Work breakdown structure B. Scope statement C. Scope management plan D. Corrective action 88. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 89. Operations and projects share many characteristics. A. True B. False

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90. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work B. Increased to meet the unidentified surprises C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget 91. The major project scope management processes include: A. Change order control B. Initiation C. Program evaluation D. Scope statement 92. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Schedule control D. Project controls 93. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create. A. Resource plan B. Project charter C. Project description D. Scope statement 94. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 5

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95. _____________ is the process of formally recognizing that a new project exists or that an existing project should continue into its next phase. A. Project Scheduling B. Strategic planning C. Initiation D. Project verification 96. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except: A. Commercial duration databases B. Project files C. Project team knowledge D. Outside consultants 97. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project. A. Researching, reviewing and acting on B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to C. Reviewing, monitoring and managing D. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding 98. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 99. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration: A. Start-to-start B. Finish-to-finish C. Start-to-finish D. None of the above

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100. An input to the scope planning process is: A. Product description B. Project schedule C. Strategic plan D. Historical information

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5-131

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S A M P L E TE S T 5

ANSWERS

ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.

B. Closing process A. Procurement planning C. Computerized estimating B. Solicitation A. True B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns B. Scope Planning D. All of the above D. All of the above D. All of the above A. Staffing management plan A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. False C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake B. Process B. Buyer A. True D. Histogram B. Resource Planning A. Cost baseline C. Planning process A. Contract closeout B. Lessons learned A. Impacts of weather D. Dedicated project team C. 25.0 B. A task oriented family tree of the project. B. Contract negotiation B. The Quantitative Risk Analysis process has four tools and techniques: interviewing, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, and simulation. 30. D. Developing a new product or service 31. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

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32. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually 33. C. Constructing a building or facility 34. B. Bottom up estimating 35. C. Payment system 36. B. False 37. A. Closeout 38. A. Project scope 39. B. Project scope management 40. A. True 41. A. Historical information 42. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain constraints." 43. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service 44. C. Expert judgment 45. D. Responsibility assignment matrix 46. A. Analogous estimating 47. D. All of the above. 48. B. Project verification 49. A. Address 50. B. Controlling process 51. D. All of the above 52. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken 53. D. Executing process 54. D. What type of resource planning is required 55. B. Detriment 56. C. Expert judgment 57. A. Initiating process 58. B. Staff age 59. C. Project selection criteria 60. C. Cost budgeting 61. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) 62. C. Statistically independent 63. C. The overlapping of project phases

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ANSWERS

64. A. True 65. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition 66. A. A strong matrix organization 67. C. Parametric modeling 68. A. Cost management plan 69. D. All of the above 70. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. 71. D. Market conditions 72. B. Revisions 73. D. Uncertain occurrences 74. B. Contract 75. C. Analogous estimating 76. D. Cost control 77. A. Managing changes when they occur 78. D. All of the above 79. D. All of the above 80. B. False 81. B. Bottom up estimating 82. D. All of the above 83. A. Analogous estimating 84. B. Scope planning 85. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development 86. B. False 87. A. Work breakdown structure 88. A. Resource planning 89. A. True 90. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work 91. B. Initiation 92. B. Project performance 93. C. Project description 94. B. Cost estimating 95. C. Initiation 96. D. Outside consultants 97. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to

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98. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. 99. D. None of the above 100.A. Product description

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ANSWERS

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S AMPLE T EST 6

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1. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must be applied uniformly on all projects. A. True B. False 2. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as: A. Sources of risk B. Potential risk events C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. Expected monetary value 3. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and not be terminated? A. 13 % B. 6 % C. 100 % D. 72 % 4. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end

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Test 6

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5. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 6. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC 7. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of: A. Risk management plan B. Different project strategies C. Different network paths D. Individual activities 8. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include: A. Learning upgrades of new system B. The immediacy of the need for information C. The availability of technology D. All of the above 9. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process

6-138

Test 6

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10. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required 11. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction 12. Inputs to risk quantification do not include: A. Stakeholder risk tolerance B. Sources of risk C. Potential risk events D. Historical data 13. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is: A. CPM B. Flowchart C. Bar chart D. Network diagram 14. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include: A. Expected monetary value B. Decision trees C. Simulation D. All of the above

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Test 6

6-139

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15. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk qualification D. Risk response development 16. Inputs to Team Development include all but A. Project staff B. Reward and recognition systems C. Performance reports D. Project plan 17. Project Procurement Management includes: A. Procurement planning B. Solicitation planning C. Solicitation D. All of the above 18. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives. A. Monthly update reports B. Executive top-down reporting C. Performance reviews D. Performance reporting 19. Project management process can be organized into: A. Initiating process B. Planning process C. Controlling and executing process D. All of the above

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20. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False 21. Inputs to contract administration do not include: A. Contract B. Change requests C. Work results D. Market conditions 22. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies 23. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event occurring: A. $3,500 B. $4,000 C. $5,000 D. $7,500 24. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 6

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25. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process 26. Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments 27. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but: A. Checklists B. Risk assessment C. Flowcharting D. Interviewing 28. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection: A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system 29. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.

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30. A RAM is defined as: A. Random access memory B. Rapid air movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix 31. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to measure performance. A. Process adjustments B. Operational definitions C. Bench line parameters D. Benchmarking 32. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 33. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called: A. Project controls B. Project information management systems (PIMS) C. Informational distribution systems D. Project distribution systems 34. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following: A. Probability that the risk event will occur B. Alternative possible outcomes C. Expected timing of the event D. All of the above PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 6

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35. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 36. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade is: A. A system to measure operational planning techniques B. A category for quality improvement C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for quality D. A check list for quality management techniques 37. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 38. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings. A. Informational retrieval systems B. Informational distribution systems C. Project records D. Project informational systems 39. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process

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40. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management? A. Closeout B. Estimating C. Budgeting D. Control 41. _____________ is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating 42. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information. A. Project communication management B. Quality standards C. Process control D. Project quality control 43. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team 44. Contract close-out contains: A. Contract documentation B. Procurement audits C. Formal acceptance and closure D. All of the above

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Test 6

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45. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning: A. Scope statement B. Contract C. Product design D. Market conditions 46. Performance improvements include all but: A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in individual skills C. Improvements in team behaviors D. Improvements in team capabilities 47. The quality management processes do not include: A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Overall change control 48. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest 49. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and determines how to satisfy them. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control

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50. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart 51. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False 52. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. A. Process control model B. Work breakdown structure C. Checklist D. Project plan 53. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 54. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance. A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Process control

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Test 6

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55. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart 56. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how it is measured by the quality control process. A. Operational B. Process control C. Quality policy D. Hierarchical system model 57. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project. B. Developing final inspections for quality. C. Striving to do the best job possible. D. Conducting quality circle activities. 58. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout 59. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service

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60. The communication management plan is a document that provides: A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store information B. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and conventions/definitions to be used C. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and develops D. All of the above 61. Operations and projects share many characteristics. A. True B. False 62. The core planning processes are: A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control D. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract administration 63. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish a cost baseline for measuring project performance. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 64. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but: A. Comprehensive checklists B. Benefit/cost analysis C. Flowcharting D. Benchmarking

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Test 6

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65. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. A. Executive management updates B. Project status reports C. Information distribution D. Process control 66. Which is not input to Risk Identification: A. Historical information B. Cost estimates C. Product information D. Checklists 67. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory 68. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome. A. Critical path method B. Contemporaneous scheduling C. Design of experiments D. Benchmarking 69. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique. A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot

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70. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean: Project "B" Activities

LOW

MOST LIKELY

HIGH

Gather requirements

40

45

80

Write specifications

35

50

100

Review specifications

10

15

30

Build model

18

25

50

Inspect model

10

20

40

Prepare defects/issues list

10

25

60

Resolve defects/issues

15

20

40

A. 216 B. 225 C. 246 D. 400 71. An input to the quality assurance process is: A. Customer satisfaction B. Quality management plan C. Product description D. Standards and regulations 72. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur: A. Risk management plan B. Project plan C. Corrective action plan D. Contingency plan

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Test 6

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73. Topics that deal with people include: A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with people C. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource function D. All of the above 74. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response Development 75. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project completion. A. Project plan completion model B. Performance reporting C. Administrative closure D. Process control 76. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Deliverables C. Activities D. All of the above 77. An outputs from the quality planning process is: A. Quality improvements B. Quality management plan C. Acceptance decisions D. Process adjustments

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78. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above 79. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. A. Quality planning B. Quality standards C. Process control D. Project quality management 80. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are: A. Performance reviews B. Earned value analysis C. Trend analysis D. All of the above 81. The Risk Management Plan does not include: A. Risk management procedures B. Risk identification C. Alternative strategies D. Allocation of reserves 82. Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. All of the above

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Test 6

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83. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include: A. Procurement B. Expert judgment C. Insurance D. Alternative strategies 84. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments 85. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress. A. Performance reviews B. Status reviews C. Weekly progress meetings D. Progress informational update meetings 86. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include: A. Reserves B. Corrective action plan C. Contractual agreements D. Risk management plan 87. An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building or facility D. Providing technical support

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88. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except: A. Team-building activities B. General management skills C. Role and responsibility assignments D. Rewards and recognition systems 89. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Schedule control D. Project controls 90. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the _____________ in the project: A. Owner B. Buyer C. Seller D. Stakeholder and the vendor 91. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests. A. True B. False 92. Quality is defined as: A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs B. Verifying the customers requirements are met C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget

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93. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the _____________ of the project. A. Quality, schedule B. Objectives, organization C. Management, product D. Customer requirements stakeholders 94. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the project objectives is: A. Control charts B. Quality tolerance checklist C. Scope statement D. Product description 95. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality, as formally expressed by top management. A. Top-down reporting B. Project management procedure C. Quality policy D. Quality assurance 96. Project Scope Management includes which processes: A. Initiation B. Project Plan Execution C. Overall Change Control D. Performance Reporting 97. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement 6-156

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98. The process that is not a part of time management is: A. Activity Definition B. Resource Planning C. Schedule Development D. Activity Sequencing 99. A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram 100. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating

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Test 6

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ANSWERS

ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

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B. False C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. 72 % C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service C. Parametric modeling A. Cost baseline A. Risk management plan D. All of the above B. Solicitation process D. What type of resource planning is required C. The overlapping of project phases D. Historical data B. Flowchart D. All of the above C. Risk qualification B. Reward and recognition systems D. All of the above D. Performance reporting D. All of the above A. True D. Market conditions A. Managing changes when they occur C. $5,000 B. Quality assurance C. Planning process A. Impacts of weather D. Interviewing C. Payment system A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers. D. Responsibility assignment matrix D. Benchmarking D. Cost control

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ANSWERS

33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64.

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S A M P L E TE S T 6

C. Informational distribution systems D. All of the above B. False C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for quality B. False A. Informational retrieval systems D. Executing process A. Closeout C. Analogous estimating A. Project communication management D. Dedicated project team D. All of the above B. Contract A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked C. Quality control B. Staff age A. Quality planning B. Controlling process B. False C. Checklist D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. C. Quality control B. Process A. Operational A. Planning it into the project. A. Procurement planning D. Developing a new product or service D. All of the above A. True A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity definition C. Cost budgeting A. Comprehensive checklists

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65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97.

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ANSWERS

C. Information distribution D. Checklists A. Staffing management plan C. Design of experiments B. Bottom up estimating C. 246 B. Quality management plan D. Contingency plan D. All of the above B. Solicitation C. Administrative closure D. All of the above B. Quality management plan D. All of the above D. Project quality management D. All of the above C. Alternative strategies D. All of the above B. Expert judgment A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually A. Performance reviews B. Corrective action plan C. Constructing a building or facility C. Role and responsibility assignments B. Project performance B. Buyer A. True A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs C. Management, product C. Scope statement C. Quality policy A. Initiation A. A strong matrix organization

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98. B. Resource Planning 99. D. Histogram 100. B. Contract negotiation

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ANSWERS

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S AMPLE T EST 7

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1. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development? A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail 2. Cost estimating is: A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance D. Analyzing positive and negative variances 3. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include: A. Reserves B. Corrective action plan C. Contractual agreements D. Risk management plan 4. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team

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Test 7

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5. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include A. Budgetary considerations B. Internationalization C. Activity based costing D. Matrix organization 6. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating 7. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments 8. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart

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9. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces? A. 31.74 B. 34.13 C. 68.26 D. 95.46 10. Which type of cost estimate is based on individual activities? A. Top-down B. Bottom-up C. Parametric D. Analogous 11. _____________ is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modeling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating 12. Which of the following is an input to the team development process? A. General management skills B. Inputs to performance appraisals C. Staffing pool description D. External feedback 13. Cost control is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies

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14. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required 15. Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts 16. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process? A. Project Schedule B. Cost estimates C. Resource requirements D. WBS 17. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response? A. Mitigation B. Acceptance C. Transference D. Avoidance 18. Which of the following is not a part of the information distribution process? A. Project plan B. Project records C. Communication skills D. Stakeholder analysis

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19. Which is a tool or technique of the schedule development process? A. Resource pool description B. Supporting detail C. Duration compression D. Activity duration estimates 20. Which is the process that involves documenting project results in order to formalize the acceptance of the product by the sponsor, client, or customer? A. Information distribution B. Scope acceptance C. Performance reporting D. Administrative closure 21. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers? A. IFQ B. IFB C. RFP D. RFQ 22. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all deliverables are approved from the preceding phase. A. True B. False 23. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost? A. Rework B. Training C. Rejects D. Scrap

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24. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X? A. Trust B. Safety C. Self Esteem D. Self Actualization 25. Which scope management process creates the WBS? A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope definition D. Scope verification 26. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts. 27. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart 28. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project? A. Cost baseline B. Project schedule C. Cost management plan D. EAC 7-168

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29. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk qualification D. Risk response development 30. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes A. Planning core processes B. Planning facilitating processes C. Controlling core processes D. Controlling facilitating processes 31. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area? A. Communications Management B. Procurement Management C. Change Control Management D. Project Integration Management 32. The project plan: A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope change B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones C. Is used to manage project execution D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions

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33. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After the contract is awarded, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. You should: A. Use the customer's test matrix B. Listen to your boss because you’re worried he might fire you C. Use the matrix your boss suggested and not discuss further with the customer D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor 34. Project management process can be organized into: A. Initiating process B. Planning process C. Controlling and executing process D. All of the above 35. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end. A. Punch list B. Closing process C. Project completion checklist D. Stakeholder buyoff 36. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be: A. Compromise B. Forcing C. Controlling D. Confrontation

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37. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority? A. Functional B. Weak Matrix C. Projectized D. Strong Matrix 38. Which theory specifies money as an important employee motivator? A. Theory X B. Theory Y C. Theory Z D. Theory Q 39. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process? A. Operational definitions B. Quality policy C. Quality audits D. Quality improvement 40. Project Scope Management is: A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or service C. Is synonymous with change control management D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders 41. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is: A. CPPC B. FPI C. CPIF D. CPFF

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42. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept? A. Performance standard is zero defects B. Quality must be inspected in C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act 43. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan, performance reports and change request B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned C. Project plan, project reports and change request D. Product plan, performance reports and change request 44. Which is not a facilitating process? A. Solicitation planning B. Quality planning C. Communications planning D. Resource planning 45. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests. A. True B. False 46. The lowest level of the WBS is: A. Control account B. Code of accounts C. Work Package D. Deliverable

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47. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process 48. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction 49. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be: A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract. B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost. C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action. 50. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 51. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage? A. Initial phase(s) B. Intermediate phase(s) C. Closing phase(s) D. Staffing phase(s)

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52. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned B. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned C. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure D. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings 53. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence. A. Formal procedure B. Informal procedure C. Exchange procedure D. Monitoring procedure 54. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution? A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures B. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures C. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures D. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information 55. The closing process scope includes: A. Contract closeout B. Final reporting C. Punch list D. Exit interview

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56. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed 57. What are outputs of Project Plan Execution? A. Work results and status review meetings B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned C. Work results and project knowledge D. Work results and change requests 58. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as: A. Sources of risk B. Potential risk events C. Stakeholder risk tolerances D. Expected monetary value 59. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance? PV

EV

AC

$10,000

$12,000

$15,000

A. -$3,000 B. $5,000 C. $3,000 D. -$2,000

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60. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 61. As the project manager for a very large and highly visible project you receive a preliminary press release for your approval before distribution. You are expected to approve the release without comment. Your review identifies a major discrepancy regarding some key project financial estimates that may mislead the intended recipients. As the project manager it is your responsibility to: A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release B. Approve the release but send a memo to the sponsor advising that you are aware of the discrepancy and will refer any questions your receive to the sponsor C. Completely rewrite the press release and include the correct information D. Approve the release as requested 62. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot 63. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs? A. Esteem B. Self-Actualization C. Physiological D. Social

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64. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Schedule control D. Project controls 65. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development? A. Supporting plan and the WBS B. Project plan and historical information C. Project Plan and supporting detail D. Supporting detail and lessons learned 66. You have been assigned as the project manager to two projects. Because of the nature of the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should: A. Do nothing and tell no one B. Ask to be removed from one of the projects C. Inform your clients and ask them to settle it D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice 67. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process 68. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout

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69. What best defines scope management? A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project. B. Approval of the scope baseline. C. Approval of the detailed project charter. D. Configuration control. 70. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is: A. CPIF B. FPI C. FFP D. CPFF 71. Dual reporting is most likely to occur in which type of organization? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Laissez-faire 72. The quality management processes do not include: A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Overall change control 73. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization to do so. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process

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74. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Cost estimating C. Cost budgeting D. Cost control 75. A RAM is defined as: A. Random access memory B. Rapid air movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix 76. Tools & techniques for risk identification include A.. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques C. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques D. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques 77. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations that use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations that provide the financial resources D. All of the above

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78. Communications is best described as: A. E exchange of information. B. Providing written or oral directions. C. Consists of senders and receivers D. All of the above 79. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but: A. Checklists B. Risk assessment C. Flowcharting D. Interviewing 80. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 81. A method of shortening the duration of the project is: A. Lead B. Creating milestones C. Fast tracking D. Leveling 82. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 83. Quality is defined as: A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs B. Verifying the customers requirements are met C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget 7-180

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84. Earned Value is: A. The amount future value of a present investment B. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished D. PV-AC 85. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service 86. Core processes: A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project B. Have clear dependencies C. Must be preformed simultaneously D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project 87. Characteristics of project phases are: A. Milestones B. Deliverables C. Activities D. All of the above 88. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes? A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk assessment D. Risk response planning

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89. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service. A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessary C. Organized, profitable D. Temporary, unique 90. Which is not another term for contract? A. Agreement B. Purchase Order C. Proposal D. Memorandum of Understanding 91. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution? A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned 92. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating 93. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is: A. $4,702 B. $4,982 C. $5,287 D. $5,394 7-182

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94. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process? A. Project charter B. Constraints C. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM 95. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of 5 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average duration? A. 4 B. 5 C. 5.2 D. 6 96. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope Change Control D. Scope verification 97. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations 98. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory. A. True B. False

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99. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is A. Bidder Negotiations B. Bidder Auction C. Bidder Conference D. Bidder Selection 100. Which method does not use boxes or nodes to represent work or activities? A. PERT B. PDM C. ADM D. GERT

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ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs 2. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service 3. B. Corrective action plan 4. D. Dedicated project team 5. B. Internationalization 6. C. Parametric modeling 7. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually 8. B. Controlling process 9. B. 34.13 10. B. Bottom-up 11. C. Analogous estimating 12. D. External feedback 13. A. Managing changes when they occur 14. D. What type of resource planning is required 15. A. Cost management plan 16. C. Resource requirements 17. C. Transference 18. D. Stakeholder analysis 19. C. Duration compression 20. D. Administrative closure 21. A. IFQ 22. B. False 23. B. Training 24. B. Safety 25. C. Scope definition 26. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. 27. B. Process 28. A. Cost baseline 29. C. Risk qualification 30. B. Planning facilitating processes 31. C. Change Control Management PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62.

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ANSWERS

C. Is used to manage project execution D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor D. All of the above B. Closing process D. Confrontation C. Projectized A. Theory X B. Quality policy A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully A. CPPC B. Quality must be inspected in A. Project plan, performance reports and change request D. Resource planning A. True C. Work Package D. Executing process C. The overlapping of project phases A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract. D. Cost control B. Intermediate phase(s) A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned A. Formal procedure A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures A. Contract closeout A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process D. Work results and change requests C. Stakeholder risk tolerances A. -$3,000 D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release B. Bottom up estimating

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ANSWERS

63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93.

C. Physiological B. Project performance C. Project plan and supporting detail D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice C. Planning process A. Procurement planning A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project. C. FFP C. Matrix C. Quality control B. Solicitation process A. Resource planning D. Responsibility assignment matrix B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques D. All of the above D. All of the above D. Interviewing B. False C. Fast tracking B. False A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished D. Developing a new product or service B. Have clear dependencies D. All of the above C. Risk assessment D. Temporary, unique C. Proposal B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action B. Contract negotiation C. $5,287

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ANSWERS

94. C. Alternatives identification 95. B. 5 96. D. Scope verification 97. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated 98. A. True 99. C. Solicitation selection 100.C. ADM

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S AMPLE T EST 8

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................................... 1. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost? A. Rework B. Training C. Rejects D. Scrap 2. Change control requests: A. Must be relayed in writing B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled C. Are always initiated externally D. Are inputs to integrated change control

3. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are: A. Fringe benefits B. More vacation time C. Completion bonus D. A sense of personal achievement 4. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except: A. Team-building activities B. General management skills C. Role and responsibility assignments D. Rewards and recognition systems 5. Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above

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6. The project plan: A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an approved scope change B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones C. Is used to manage project execution D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions 7. The project schedule is not used to determine: A. The project's budget B. The float of the project C. Occasional changes to the activity listing D. The starting and finishing dates of the activities 8. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on your project. You should: A. Follow instructions B. Inform the corporate auditors C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action D. Try to close down the project 9. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination 10. Poor scope definition may cause all but: A. Rework B. Increased productivity C. Schedule delays D. Low morale

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11. ___________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart 12. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called? A. Duration compression B. Crashing C. Program evaluation and review technique D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path 13. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method of scheduling is the: A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line D. There is no difference 14. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development? A. Supporting plan and the WBS B. Project plan and historical information C. Project Plan and supporting detail D. Supporting detail and lessons learned 15. What is the Delphi forecasting technique? A) Regression analysis on historical information B) Intuitive expert opinion C) Simulation models D) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis

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16. General Management encompasses all but: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service 17. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Company? A. $22.40 B. $26.60 C. $29.12 D. $30.33 18. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be: A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts. B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

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19. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?

Project "B" Activities

LOW

MOST LIKELY

HIGH

Gather requirements

40

45

80

Write specifications

35

50

100

Review specifications

10

15

30

Build model

18

25

50

Inspect model

10

20

40

Prepare defects/issues list

10

25

60

Resolve defects/issues

15

20

40

A. 216 B. 225 C. 246 D. 400 20. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or service. A. Unique, temporary B. Significant, necessary C. Organized, profitable D. Temporary, unique 21. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include A. Budgetary considerations B. Internationalization C. Activity based costing D. Matrix organization

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22. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract. A) Letter, formal B) Fixed price, cost plus C) Cost plus, fixed price D) No-fault, no obligation 23. An example of a conflict of interest would be: A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team. 24. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the following affect: A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages B) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights C) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent D) All of the above 25. Characteristics of a code of account are: A. It includes work packages B. It is a numbering system C. It is the same as a cost account D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS

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26. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development? A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail 27. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization's needs regarding control of the project. A. True B. False 28. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team 29. Which is not a facilitating process? A. Solicitation planning B. Quality planning C. Communications planning D. Resource planning 30. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law and legislation. A) Operability and durability B) Lawful use of the product and safety of use C) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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31. Which scope management process creates the WBS? A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope definition D. Scope verification 32. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to: A. Revise project plan B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis C. Conduct a needs analysis D. Increase the estimated cost 33. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process? A. Operational definitions B. Quality policy C. Quality audits D. Quality improvement 34. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that: A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions D. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance 35. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process? A. Project charter B. Constraints C. Alternatives identification D. Assignment of the PM

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36. Contract closeout documentation includes: A. Technical documentation B. Financial documentation C. All of the above D. None of the above 37. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method: A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule B. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations C. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic ties D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration 38. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management: A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk qualification D. Risk response development 39. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and 8 ounces? A. 31.74 B. 34.13 C. 68.26 D. 95.46 40. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli? A. Pretending to show interest in the other side B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't C. Means the same as acting in good faith D. Compromised agreement

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41. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process A. Initiation B. Scope planning C. Scope Change Control D. Scope verification 42. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project. A. True B. False 43. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept? A. Performance standard is zero defects B. Quality must be inspected in C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act 44. The scope management plan includes: A. An assessment of the stability of the project scope B. How changes will be integrated into the project C. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified D. All of the above 45. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except: A. Product analysis B. Status reporting C. Progress reporting D. Forecasting 46. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an orderly end. A. Punch list B. Closing process C. Project completion checklist D. Stakeholder buyoff

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47. Which is not another term for contract? A. Agreement B. Purchase Order C. Proposal D. Memorandum of Understanding 48. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required 49. Constructive team roles include: A. Investigator, clarifier, and closer B. Compromiser, blocker, and closer C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer 50. Cost estimating is: A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance D. Analyzing positive and negative variances 51. Collocation can mean: A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team B. Team members work better at different locations C. Multiple locations are connected by local area networks D. None of the above 52. Fast Tracking is defined as: A. A method of project scheduling B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization C. The overlapping of project phases D. A method of construction

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53. Outputs of organizational planning are: A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates B. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balances C. Project organization charts and lessons learned D. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned 54. The role of advertising in the solicitation process: A. Is required by state law B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders C. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes D. Finds the cheapest contractor available 55. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project 56. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X? A. Trust B. Safety C. Self Esteem D. Self Actualization

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57. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent: A. Behind schedule B. Over budget C. Ahead of schedule D. Under budget 58. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process? A. Project Schedule B. Cost estimates C. Resource requirements D. WBS 59. Scope change is defined as: A. Change in project personnel B. Change in technical specifications C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS D. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB 60. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience the highest resource usage? A. Initial phase(s) B. Intermediate phase(s) C. Closing phase(s) D. Staffing phase(s) 61. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes? A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk assessment D. Risk response planning

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62. A precise description of a deliverable includes a: A. Specification B. Baseline C. Work package D. WBS element 63. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to: A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the project manager C. Filter the information to remove any details D. Restrict information to specific technical details 64. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 65. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area? A. Communications Management B. Procurement Management C. Change Control Management D. Project Integration Management 66. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the _____. A) Magnitude of the impact on the project B) Project manager's perception of risk C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk D) Use of more or less contractors

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67. Project Scope Management is: A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully B. The features to be included in a product or service C. Is synonymous with change control management D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders 68. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be: A) Instability of project progress information B) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors C) Conflict between project manager and customer D) All of the above 69. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is: A. $4,702 B. $4,982 C. $5,287 D. $5,394 70. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution? A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures B. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures C. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system, lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures D. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons learned based on historical information

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71. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution? A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned 72. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should: A. Do nothing; it's not your problem B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated C. Talk to the corporate legal department D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations 73. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should: A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve. D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate. 74. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence. A. Formal procedure B. Informal procedure C. Exchange procedure D. Monitoring procedure

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75. The lowest level of the WBS is: A. Control account B. Code of accounts C. Work Package D. Deliverable 76. Core processes: A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project B. Have clear dependencies C. Must be preformed simultaneously D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project 77. Earned Value is: A. The amount future value of a present investment B. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished D. PV-AC 78. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to: A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes C. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget D. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget 79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is: A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars C) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars D) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

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80. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is: A. When a problem surfaces B. After the schedule is published C. During the close-out phase D. During the planning phase 81. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan, performance reports and change request B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned C. Project plan, project reports and change request D. Product plan, performance reports and change request 82. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by: A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed 83. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal wrong and includes _____. A) An automobile accident B) An accident on commercial premises C) Slander or libel D) All of the above 84. Procurement documents should be structured to: A. Describe the desired form of response B. Include a complete statement of work C. Outline cost criteria D. A and B

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85. A key barrier to team development is: A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. B. A strong matrix management structure. C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets. D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented. 86. The primary outputs of team development are: A. Improved project performance B. Improved team morale C. Better performance appraisals D. Better working conditions 87. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project nears completion. A) Retained at the remaining dollar level B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work C) Decreased to reduce the accounting work D) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget 88. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure. 89. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except: A. Constraints B. Project charter C. Product description

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D. Budget/cost analysis 90. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance? PV

EV

AC

$10,000

$12,000

$15,000

A. -$3,000 B. $5,000 C. $3,000 D. -$2,000 91. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is A. Bidder Negotiations B. Bidder Auction C. Bidder Conference D. Bidder Selection 92. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the project during the: A. Closeout phase B. Development phase C. Execution phase D. Concept phase 93. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by: A. Planning it into the project B. Developing final inspections for quality C. Striving to do the best job possible D. Conducting quality circle activities

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94. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much: A. High than the ACWP B. Higher than the BCWS C. Lower than the ACWP D. Lower than the BCWS 95. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____. A) Contract B) Specification C) Statement of work D) Work breakdown structure 96. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development? A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical information C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project plan D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 97. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include: A. Economic models & comparative approaches B. Economic models & linear programming methods C. Linear programming methods & cost basis models D. Linear programming models & economic models

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98. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance: A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses B) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk D) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data 99. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution? A. Work results and status review meetings B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned C. Work results and project knowledge D. Work results and change requests 100. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include: A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned B. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned C. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure D. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

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ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

B. Training D. Are inputs to integrated change control D. A sense of personal achievement C. Role and responsibility assignments D. All of the above C. Is used to manage project execution A. The project's budget C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program B. Increased productivity B. Controlling process B. Crashing C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line C. Project plan and supporting detail B) Intuitive expert opinion D. Developing a new product or service C. $29.12 C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance. C. 246 D. Temporary, unique B. Internationalization B) Fixed price, cost plus A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally D) All of the above D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other planning outputs B. False D. Dedicated project team D. Resource planning D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose

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31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63.

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ANSWERS

C. Scope definition D. Increase the estimated cost B. Quality policy D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance C. Alternatives identification C. All of the above D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration C. Risk qualification B. 34.13 B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't D. Scope verification B. False B. Quality must be inspected in D. All of the above A. Product analysis B. Closing process C. Proposal D. What type of resource planning is required C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team C. The overlapping of project phases A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. B. Safety C. Ahead of schedule C. Resource requirements C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS B. Intermediate phase(s) C. Risk assessment A. Specification A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before transmitting information

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64. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards. 65. C. Change Control Management 66. C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk 67. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in order to complete the project successfully 68. D. All of the above 69. C. $5,287 70. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures 71. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 72. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated 73. B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared. 74. A. Formal procedure 75. C. Work Package 76. B. Have clear dependencies 77. C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished 78. B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes 79. B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars 80. D. During the planning phase 81. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request 82. A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process 83. D. All of the above 84. D. A and B 85. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers. 86. A. Improved project performance 87. B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work 88. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input 89. D. Budget/cost analysis 90. A. -$3,000 91. C. Solicitation selection 92. D. Concept phase 93. A. Planning it into the project

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94. D. Lower than the BCWS 95. D. Work breakdown structure 96. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 97. A. Economic models & comparative approaches 98. C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk 99. D. Work results and change requests 100. A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned

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S AMPLE T EST 9

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1. Tools & techniques for risk identification include a. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques c. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques d. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques 2. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken? a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and disputes b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address 3. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as: a. Concurrent engineering b. Crashing c. Fast-tracking d. Leveling

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4. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure? a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process d. None of the above 5. Examples of team building activities include: a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict. b. Regular progress reviews. c. Periodic social events for team members. d. All of the above 6. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what _______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities. a. Physical resources, quantities b. Quantities, physical resources c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources 7. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time. a. Organizational procedures b. Status review c. Work-authorization system d. Project planning 8. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include: a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned b. Project plan, project reports and change request c. Product plan, performance reports and change request d. Project plan, performance reports and change request

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9. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client is a. Corrective action b. Inspection c. Product scope management d. Product quality management 10. The risk management plan us a major component of a. The procurement plan b. The project charter c. The project plan d. The project scope 11. Characteristics of a code of accounts are a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure b. It includes work packages c. It is a numbering system d. All of the above 12. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be accomplished? a. After contract negotiation b. During the scope definition effort c. During the cost definition effort d. While creating the work breakdown structure 13. Inputs to contract closeout include a. Contract documentation b. Contract Updates c. Procurement audits d. Procurement management plans

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14. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent a. Twenty percent of all lots must be test b. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the test c. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects 15. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or negative effect on a project. a. Assumption analysis b. Delphi technique c. Risk d. Triggers 16. Outputs of procurement planning include a. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract b. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract c. Procurement management plan and statement of work d. Procurement management plan and contract changes 17. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a a. Weighting system b. Screening system c. Estimating system d. Change control criteria 18. Inputs to quality planning include a. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and regulations b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulations c. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description standards and regulations d. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and regulations

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19. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would a. Still be performed b. Would not be performed c. Would be performed in stages d. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages 20. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by? a. EV/PV b. EV/AC c. ACWS/PV d. PV/EV 21. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by: a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints. c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. 22. Response development is sometimes referred to as a. Response planning & risk mitigation b. Reponses planning and risk control c. Risk control and response mitigation d. Risk mitigation and response control 23. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to thea. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager d. Degree to which team members bond together

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24. The project manager should be assigned during what phase a. Initiation b. Project Planning c. Scope Planning d. Scope Definition 25. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead to a. Reduced productivity b. Increased hostility c. Low morale d. Increased conflict 26. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)? a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities. c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent. d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total float. 27. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination 28. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control? a. Organizational procedures b. Performance measurement c. Performance reports d. Project plan updates

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29. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is the: a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method. b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method. c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line. 30. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques, work breakdown structure c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information, information distribution tools and techniques d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information retrieval systems 31. Inputs to scope definition include a. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information b. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical information c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information d. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information 32. Contracts may be called a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding b. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request c. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding 33. A scope change is defined as a. Change in technical specifications b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure c. Change in product description d. Change in the personnel authorization system

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34. Inputs to communication planning include a. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptions b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions c. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptions d. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change request procedures 35. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. a. Assumption analysis b. Delphi technique c. Risk d. Triggers 36. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should: a. Determine the risks associated with the violation b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation 37. The project charter should be issued by a. The project manager b. Client requesting services c. Manager external to project d. Manager internal to the project 38. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP a. Project Management Policy of Ethics b. Project Management Professional Standards c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct d. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards 39. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables b. Pareto diagrams are histograms c. Pareto diagrams rank order d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule

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40. Inputs to scope verification include the following a. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project plan b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project plan c. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and project plan d. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project performance measurement 41. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that a. One side may try to confuse the other side d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said d. Each side may give upon the other side 42. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include: a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned b. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned c. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure d. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings 43. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from a. Risk management planning b. Risk identification c. Quantitative risk analysis d. Risk response planning 44. One of the outputs of risk identification is a. Potential risk events b. Corrective actions c. Alternate strategies d. Alternative action 45. Tools and techniques for administrative closure include a. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentations b. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentations c. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysis d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations

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46. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution? a. PM Information system b. Organizational procedures c. General management skills d. Change control system 47. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 48. Tools and techniques for scope planning include a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment 49. What is the preferred method of verifying scope? a. Work results b. Inspection c. Acceptance d. Lessons learned 50. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to a. Reduce productivity b. Increase productivity c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources

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51. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for? a. To define the project schedule b. To define who is responsible for completing a task c. To manage scope change d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project 52. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects usually covered contract financing, price and a. Responsibilities/authorities b. Applicable terms and law c. Technical and business management approaches d. All of the above 53. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur? a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project. b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project. c. For the overall project duration to increase. d. All of the above. 54. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution? a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action b. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action c. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 55. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed

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56. Tools and techniques of quality control include a. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis b. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis d. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality improvements 57. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to--a. Prepare a performance report b. Perform an inspection c. Hold a performance review d. Conduct a procurement audit 58. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly are influenced by his/her culture. However, other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to negotiation, this illustrates the importance ofa. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural group b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international negotiations d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences 59. Scope definition is a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components b. Involves communicating changes with the client c. Is the sole responsibility of the project manager d. Is the responsibility of the expeditor

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60. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except a. Personal integrity b. Project integrity c. Product integrity d. Integrity of others 61. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process 62. Monte Carlo analysis is a. Not accurate b. Rarely used c. The basis for most schedule simulations d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame. 63. Inputs to risk management include a. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure b. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure d. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure 64. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members area. Focused on individual project activities b. Politically sensitive to top management's needs c. Problem oriented d. Focused on customer demands

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65. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package? a. 65 weeks b. 70 weeks c. 75 weeks d. 80 weeks 66. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence. a. Informal procedure b. Exchange procedure c. Formal procedure d. Monitoring procedure 67. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the project planning phase/requirements 68. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract 69. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except: a. Variances that are random b. Variances that are always present c. Variances that are predictable d. Variances that are special

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70. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phase a. Initiation b. Scope planning c. Scope definition d. Scope verification 71. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities. b. Occasional changes to the activity listing. c. The total float of the activities. d. The project's budget. 72. Scope definition is necessary to a. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates b. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments c. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control d. All of the above 73. Risk identification should be done a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle b. Early in the planning phase c. In the design phase d. When creating the work breakdown structure 74. Inputs to cost estimating include the following a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policies b. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risks c. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risks d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks 75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package? a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structure b. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structure c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure d. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete

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76. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s) a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project d. Quality improvements need not be identified 77. Outputs from response development could include all except? a. Risk management plan b. Insurance policies c. Contingency plan d. Corrective action 78. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation 79. The level of authority of the project manager: a. Is dependent on corporate policies. b. Varies considerably from company to company. c. Is delegated by senior management. d. All of the above. 80. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit? a. Internal b. System c. Baseline d. Scope 81. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can be determined from these data? a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days. c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days. d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days. 9-230

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82. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects? a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate their needs to functional managers. b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative procedures, and type of contract. c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers. 83. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come d. Allow for random sampling 84. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It includes a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes 85. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances? a. The always impact the schedule and never the cost b. The always impact the cost c. They sometimes impact the schedule d. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost 86. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is toa. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas to perform each task c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure

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87. Steps in effective goal setting are: a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions. d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward and recognition plan. 88. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be: a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be displayed. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too much time now do move the equipment. d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first. 89. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure. 90. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality management plan is toa. Create some regulations to govern the project b. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed

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91. Inputs to procurement planning include a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and expert judgment b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptions c. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and work breakdown structure d. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and procurement documents 92. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements include a. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relations b. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project c. External information needs d. All of the above 93. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been avoided bya. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports d. Developed a communications plan 94. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the a. Performing organization b. Project manager c. Project team d. Product user 95. Inputs to contract administration include a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices b. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoices c. Contracts, work results, contract change control system d. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices

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96. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person shoulda. Be as brief as possible b. Provide options, including the pros and cons c. Remain patient d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed 97. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development? a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical information c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project plan d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 98. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to depict 100 percent of the defects is called: a. Bar chart b. Critical path c. Network chart d. Pareto chart 99. Team development is based on thea. Individual development of each team member b. Training provided to the project team c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust d. Organizational structure of the project 100. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them. Therefore, you must concentrate ona. Active listening b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating room d. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process

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ANSWERS

.................................................... 1. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques 2. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address 3. c. Fast-tracking 4. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented 5. d. All of the above 6. a. Physical resources, quantities 7. c. 8. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request 9. b. Inspection 10. c. The project plan 11. d. All of the above 12. b. During the scope definition effort 13. a. Contract documentation 14. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects 15. c. Risk 16. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work 17. b. Screening system 18. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulations 19. b. Would not be performed 20. a. EV/PV 21. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. 22. a. Response planning & risk mitigation 23. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources 24. a. Initiation 25. d. Increased conflict 26. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." 27. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program 28. b. Performance measurement 29. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line. PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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30. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques 31. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information 32. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding 33. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure 34. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions 35. d. Triggers 36. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation 37. c. Manager external to project 38. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 39. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables 40. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project plan 41. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said 42. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned 43. d. Risk response planning 44. a. Potential risk events 45. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations 46. d. Change control system 47. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 48. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment 49. b. Inspection 50. a. Reduce productivity 51. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project 52. d. All of the above 53. d. All of the above 54. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 55. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. 56. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis 57. c. Hold a performance review 58. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences 59. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components

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60. 61. 62. 63.

64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81.

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d. Integrity of others d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process c. The basis for most schedule simulations c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure c. Problem oriented b. 70 weeks c. Formal procedure c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection d. Variances that are special c. Scope definition d. The project's budget. d. All of the above a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards d. Corrective action b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship d. All of the above d. Scope b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.

82. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers. 83. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come 84. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes 85. c. They sometimes impact the schedule 86. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task 87. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. 88. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.

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89. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their 90. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance 91. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptions 92. d. All of the above 93. d. Developed a communications plan 94. a. Performing organization 95. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices 96. a. Be as brief as possible 97. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 98. d. Pareto chart 99. a. Individual development of each team member 100. a. Active listening

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10

1. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be identified. The project manager should: a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination 2. Scope definition is necessary to a. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates b. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments c. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control d. All of the above 3. Inputs to quality planning include a. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and regulations b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulations c. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description standards and regulations d. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and regulations 4. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for? a. To define the project schedule b. To define who is responsible for completing a task c. To manage scope change d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project

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5. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package? a. 65 weeks b. 70 weeks c. 75 weeks d. 80 weeks 6. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from a. Risk management planning b. Risk identification c. Quantitative risk analysis d. Risk response planning 7. The level of authority of the project manager: a. Is dependent on corporate policies. b. Varies considerably from company to company. c. Is delegated by senior management. d. All of the above. 8. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been avoided bya. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports d. Developed a communications plan 9. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence. a. Informal procedure b. Exchange procedure c. Formal procedure d. Monitoring procedure

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10. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phase a. Initiation b. Scope planning c. Scope definition d. Scope verification 11. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except a. Personal integrity b. Project integrity c. Product integrity d. Integrity of others 12. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except: a. Variances that are random b. Variances that are always present c. Variances that are predictable d. Variances that are special 13. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include: a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned b. Project plan, project reports and change request c. Product plan, performance reports and change request d. Project plan, performance reports and change request 14. Response development is sometimes referred to as a. Response planning & risk mitigation b. Reponses planning and risk control c. Risk control and response mitigation d. Risk mitigation and response control 15. Tools and techniques of quality control include a. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis b. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis d. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality improvements

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16. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas to perform each task c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure 17. Characteristics of a code of accounts are a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure b. It includes work packages c. It is a numbering system d. All of the above 18. One of the outputs of risk identification is a. Potential risk events b. Corrective actions c. Alternate strategies d. Alternative action 19. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly is influenced by his/her culture. However, other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to negotiation, this illustrates the importance ofa. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural group b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international negotiations d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences 20. Team development is based on thea. Individual development of each team member b. Training provided to the project team c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust d. Organizational structure of the project

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21. Inputs to procurement planning include a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and expert judgment b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptions c. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and work breakdown structure d. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs and procurement documents 22. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent a. Twenty percent of all lots must be test b. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the test c. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects 23. Inputs to scope definition include a. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information b. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical information c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information d. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information 24. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur? a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project. b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project. c. For the overall project duration to increase. d. All of the above. 25. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them. Therefore, you must concentrate ona. Active listening b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating room d. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process

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26. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what _______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities. a. Physical resources, quantities b. Quantities, physical resources c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources 27. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM) of scheduling is the: a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method. b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method. c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line. 28. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the project planning phase/requirements 29. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by? a. EV/PV b. EV/AC c. ACWS/PV d. PV/EV 30. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include: a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned b. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned c. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure d. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings

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31. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution? a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action b. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action c. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 32. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead toa. Reduced productivity b. Increased hostility c. Low morale d. Increased conflict 33. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that a. One side may try to confuse the other side d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said d. Each side may give upon the other side 34. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person shoulda. Be as brief as possible b. Provide options, including the pros and cons c. Remain patient d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed 35. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would a. Still be performed b. Would not be performed c. Would be performed in stages d. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages

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36. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the a. Performing organization b. Project manager c. Project team d. Product user 37. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends toa. Reduce productivity b. Increase productivity c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources 38. Scope definition is a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components b. Involves communicating changes with the client c. Is the sole responsibility of the project manager d. Is the responsibility of the expeditor 39. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects? a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate their needs to functional managers. b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative procedures, and type of contract. c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers. 40. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP a. Project Management Policy of Ethics b. Project Management Professional Standards c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct d. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards

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41. Outputs from response development could include all except? a. Risk management plan b. Insurance policies c. Contingency plan d. Corrective action 42. Tools and techniques for administrative closure include a. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentations b. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentations c. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysis d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations 43. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality management plan is toa. Create some regulations to govern the project b. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed 44. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a a. Weighting system b. Screening system c. Estimating system d. Change control criteria 45. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to: a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific communications infrastructure.

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46. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables b. Pareto diagrams are histograms c. Pareto diagrams rank order d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule 47. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client is a. Corrective action b. Inspection c. Product scope management d. Product quality management 48. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)? a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities. c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent. d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total float. 49. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation 50. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the work results. d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed

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51. Tools & techniques for risk identification include a. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques c. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques d. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques 52. The project charter should be issued by a. The project manager b. Client requesting services c. Manager external to project d. Manager internal to the project 53. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members area. Focused on individual project activities b. Politically sensitive to top management's needs c. Problem oriented d. Focused on customer demands 54. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be: a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be displayed. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too much time now do move the equipment. d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first. 55. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right time. a. Organizational procedures b. Status review c. Work-authorization system d. Project planning

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56. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s) a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project d. Quality improvements need not be identified 57. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques, work breakdown structure c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information, information distribution tools and techniques d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information retrieval systems 58. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken? a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and disputes b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address 59. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as: a. Concurrent engineering b. Crashing c. Fast-tracking d. Leveling

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60. Inputs to cost estimating include the following a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policies b. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risks c. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risks d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks 61. The project schedule is not used to determine: a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities. b. Occasional changes to the activity listing. c. The total float of the activities. d. The project's budget. 62. Examples of team building activities include: a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict. b. Regular progress reviews. c. Periodic social events for team members. d. All of the above 63. Contracts may be called a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding b. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request c. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding 64. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances? a. The always impact the schedule and never the cost b. The always impact the cost c. They sometimes impact the schedule d. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost 65. A scope change is defined as a. Change in technical specifications b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure c. Change in product description d. Change in the personnel authorization system

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66. Inputs to risk management include a. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure b. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure d. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure 67. Inputs to scope verification include the following a. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project plan b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project plan c. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and project plan d. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project performance measurement 68. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should: a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire. b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status. c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 69. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to--a. Prepare a performance report b. Perform an inspection c. Hold a performance review d. Conduct a procurement audit 10-252

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70. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. a. Assumption analysis b. Delphi technique c. Risk d. Triggers 71. The risk management plan us a major component of a. The procurement plan b. The project charter c. The project plan d. The project scope 72. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come d. Allow for random sampling 73. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It includes a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes 74. Inputs to communication planning include a. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptions b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions c. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptions d. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change request procedures

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75. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects usually covered contract financing, price and a. Responsibilities/authorities b. Applicable terms and law c. Technical and business management approaches d. All of the above 76. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements include a. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relations b. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project c. External information needs d. All of the above 77. Tools and techniques for scope planning include a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment 78. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process 79. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to thea. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager d. Degree to which team members bond together

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80. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development? a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and historical information c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and the project plan d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 81. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be accomplished? a. After contract negotiation b. During the scope definition effort c. During the cost definition effort d. While creating the work breakdown structure 82. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or negative effect on a project. a. Assumption analysis b. Delphi technique c. Risk d. Triggers 83. Risk identification should be done a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle b. Early in the planning phase c. In the design phase d. When creating the work breakdown structure 84. Monte Carlo analysis is a. Not accurate b. Rarely used c. The basis for most schedule simulations d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.

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85. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package? a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structure b. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structure c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure d. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete 86. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution? a. PM Information system b. Organizational procedures c. General management skills d. Change control system 87. The project manager should be assigned during what phase a. Initiation b. Project Planning c. Scope Planning d. Scope Definition 88. Outputs of procurement planning include a. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract b. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract c. Procurement management plan and statement of work d. Procurement management plan and contract changes 89. What is the preferred method of verifying scope? a. Work results b. Inspection c. Acceptance d. Lessons learned 90. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should: a. Determine the risks associated with the violation b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

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91. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure? a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process d. None of the above 92. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to depict 100 percent of the defects is called: a. Bar chart b. Critical path c. Network chart d. Pareto chart 93. Inputs to contract closeout include a. Contract documentation b. Contract Updates c. Procurement audits d. Procurement management plans 94. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract 95. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can be determined from these data? a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days. c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days. d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days. 96. Inputs to contract administration include a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices b. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoices c. Contracts, work results, contract change control system d. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices

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97. Steps in effective goal setting are: a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions. d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward and recognition plan. 98. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by: a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints. c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work. 99. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit? a. Internal b. System c. Baseline d. Scope 100. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control? a. Organizational procedures b. Performance measurement c. Performance reports d. Project plan updates

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.................................................... 1. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program 2. d. All of the above 3. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and regulations 4. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project 5. b. 70 weeks 6. d. Risk response planning 7. d. All of the above 8. d. Developed a communications plan 9. c. Formal procedure 10. c. Scope definition 11. d. Integrity of others 12. d. Variances that are special 13. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request 14. a. Response planning & risk mitigation 15. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis 16. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task 17. d. All of the above 18. a. Potential risk events 19. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique personality traits and experiences 20. a. Individual development of each team member 21. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other planning outputs, constraints and assumptions 22. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects 23. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information 24. d. All of the above 25. a. Active listening 26. a. Physical resources, quantities 27. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line. 28. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project 29. a. EV/PV PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

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30. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned 31. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action 32. d. Increased conflict 33. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said 34. a. Be as brief as possible 35. b. Would not be performed 36. a. Performing organization 37. a. Reduce productivity 38. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components 39. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers. 40. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct 41. d. Corrective action 42. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations 43. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance 44. b. Screening system 45. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their 46. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables 47. b. Inspection 48. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time." 49. b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship 50. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the correctness of the work results. 51. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques 52. c. Manager external to project 53. c. Problem oriented 54. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling. 55. c. 56. a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards 57. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools and techniques 58. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address

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59. c. Fast-tracking 60. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates, estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks 61. d. The project's budget. 62. d. All of the above 63. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding 64. c. They sometimes impact the schedule 65. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure 66. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure 67. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project plan 68. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer. 69. c. Hold a performance review 70. d. Triggers 71. c. The project plan 72. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come 73. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes 74. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions 75. d. All of the above 76. d. All of the above 77. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment 78. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process 79. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources 80. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM) 81. b. During the scope definition effort 82. c. Risk 83. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle 84. c. The basis for most schedule simulations 85. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure 86. d. Change control system 87. a. Initiation 88. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank

Test 8

10-261

10

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ANSWERS

89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

b. Inspection d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented d. Pareto chart a. Contract documentation b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling. 99. d. Scope 100. b. Performance measurement

10-262

Test 8

PMP® Exam Cram Test Bank