Pioneer Recalls

Hello, Renz and Brylle! Ito mga recalls na natatandaan ko and nung friend ko. Yung iba exact questions, yung iba naman related lang and must-know. 23 lang per subject kasi kukuha sana ako ng iba dun sa recalls mo, Renz. Okay lang ba?  Tapos dinagdagan ko rin yung sa ISBB para sayo, Renz, hehe! Sorry, talagang wala na kaming maextract na recall sa MTLE-Histopath. 

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 1.

What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical methods? a. Internal quality control b. External quality control c. Sensitivity d. Specificity

2.

In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data. a. Mean b. Median c. F-test d. T-test

3.

It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present. a. Calibrator b. Reagent c. Standard d. Control

4.

This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory. a. Gaussian Curve b. Cumulative Sum Graph c. Youden/Twin Plot d. Levey-Jennings Chart

5.

This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days. a. Trend b. Shift c. Outliers d. None of the above

6.

The independent variable is plotted along the: a. Horizontal axis b. Vertical axis c. Y-axis d. Ordinate

7.

A value of 11.2 µg/dL thyroxine is equivalent to _________ in SI units. a. 135 nmol/L b. 135 µmol/L c. 145 nmol/L d. 145 µmol/L

8.

The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood glucose value during the preceding: a. One to three weeks b. Two to three weeks c. Three to six weeks d. Eight to twelve weeks

9.

Apolipoprotein B-100 is the primary component of: a. VLDL b. LDL c. IDL d. HDL

10.

According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation for HDL cholesterol should be on what range? a. ≤ 2% b. ≤ 3% c. ≤ 4% d. ≤ 5%

11.

This is considered as a one-step method for cholesterol determination: a. Liebermann – Burchardt b. Abell – Kendall c. Schoenheimer Sperry d. Bloors

12.

Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for cholesterol determination? a. Chemical methods b. Enzymatic methods

13.

LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following except _________ by the Friedewald formula: a. Total cholesterol b. VLDL c. HDL d. Triglyceride

14.

Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific? a. Colorimetric: kinetic b. Colorimetric: end point c. Enzymatic: UV d. Enzymatic: H2O2

15.

This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effect as the serum protein electrophoretic pattern. a. Multiple myeloma b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Hepatic cirrhosis d. Pulmonary emphysema

16.

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma? a. Conjugated bilirubin b. Unconjugated bilirubin c. Delta bilirubin d. B and C

17.

Creatine kinase is under what enzyme category? a. Oxidoreductases b. Hydrolases c. Lyases d. Transferases

18.

For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall _________& and pCO2 will rise _________%. a. 7, 3 b. 3, 7 c. 2, 5 d. 5, 2

19.

Confirmatory test for acromegaly: a. Physical activity test b. Insulin tolerance test c. Somatomedin C d. Glucose suppression test

20.

An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest _________ triglyceride levels. a. Increased b. Decreased

21.

The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is: a. Morphine b. NAPA c. Benzoylecgonine d. Primidone

22.

Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate? a. Cyclosporine b. Methotrexate c. Phenobarbital d. Acetaminophen

23.

The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech). a. 0.09 – 0.25

b. 0.18 – 0.30 c. 0.27 – 0.40 d. 0.35 – 0.50

MICROBIOLOGY 1.

What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans? a. Amastigote b. Trypomastigote c. Promastigote d. Sporozoites

2.

The third Taenia spp.: a. T. asiatica b. T. crassiceps c. T. taeniaeformis d. T. saginata

3.

Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus? a. Urease medium b. Rice agar c. Czapek’s agar d. Blood agar

4.

This presumptive test for Candida uses serum. a. Germ tube test b. Latex agglutination c. Hair perforation test d. Chlamydospore test

5.

In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus neoformans in wet preparations of patient specimens, what should be used? a. Methylene blue b. India ink c. Malachite green d. Safranin

6.

It is the smallest RNA virus: a. Enterovirus b. Picornavirus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Togavirus

7.

Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?

a. b. c. d.

Fonsecaea pedrosoi Microsporum audouinii Trichophyton rubrum Epidermophyton floccosum

8.

Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of: a. Chlamydospore b. Urease c. Germ tube d. Inositol

9.

Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum? a. Paragonimus westermani b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Taenia saginata d. Ascaris lumbricoides

10.

Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting: a. A 24-hour urine collection b. A first morning stool with proper preservative c. Capillary blood d. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region

11.

Heart-lung migration except: a. Roundworm b. Whipworm c. Hookworm d. Seatworm

12.

Rose gardener’s disease: a. Sporotrichosis b. Histoplasmosis c. Coccidioidomycosis d. Blastomycosis

13.

Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis? a. Flowerette conidia b. Asteroid body c. Sclerotic body d. Germ tube

14.

Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by: a. Size b. Ether stability c. Ribonuclease treatment d. Acid resistance

15.

Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:

a. b. c. d.

Snail Fish Freshwater crab Vegetation

16.

Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Taenia saginata d. Spirometra

17.

Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using: a. Monkey kidney cells b. A549 cells c. Human embryonic fibroblasts d. Embryonated hen’s eggs

18.

The definitive host to Plasmodium is the: a. Tsetse fly (Glossina) b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles) d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)

19.

Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of: a. Stool b. Urine c. Bone marrow d. Blood

20.

For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, how many units of bacitracin is used? a. 10.00 b. 0.02 - 0.04 c. 5.00 d. 1.00 – 2.00

21.

Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as C. diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)? a. C. ulcerans b. C. minutissimum c. C. jeikeium d. C. urealyticum

22.

Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5 µg novobiocin? a. S. aureus b. S. epidermidis c. S. saprophyticus d. S. pyogenes

23.

Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for bacteria and virus?

a. b. c. d.

Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP) Hank’s balanced salt solution Eagles minimum essential medium Stuart’s medium

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 1.

If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other type of abnormal crystal may be precipitated: a. Bilirubin b. Sulfonamide c. Leucine d. Cystine

2.

Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding because: a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temperature b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increase after prolonged exposure to light c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine d. Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

3.

Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an: a. Incubator b. Cool dry place c. Refrigerator d. Freezer

4.

SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation” a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+

5.

A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface: a. Calcium oxalate b. Uric acid c. Cystine d. Phosphate

6.

Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes: a. Berger’s disease b. Wegener’s granulomatosis c. Goodpasture syndrome d. Membranous glomerulonephritis

7.

The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately _________ of the head and covers approximately _________ of the nucleus. a. One half, two-thirds b. One third, one half c. Two-thirds, one fourth d. One fourth, one third

8.

Transitional epithelial cells seen rare/few/moderate/many by using the: a. Scanner field b. Low power field c. High power field d. Oil immersion field

9.

In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the finding? a. Rare b. Few c. Moderate d. Many

10.

In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the finding? a. Rare b. Few c. Moderate d. Many

11.

Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine sperm cell: a. Vertical movement b. Lateral movement c. Circular movement d. Velocity and trajectory

12.

Florence test, which detects choline, uses which reagent? a. Potassium iodide b. Picric acid c. Trichloroacetic acid d. Silver nitroprusside

13.

Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip? a. Blood b. Bilirubin c. Leukocytes d. All of the above

14.

Ascending sequence of casts: a. Waxy - hyaline – coarsely granular – finely granular – cellular

in

urine

specimens

may

be

reported

using

b. Coarsely granular – finely granular – hyaline – waxy – cellular c. Hyaline – cellular – coarsely granular – finely granular – waxy d. Cellular – hyaline – finely granular – coarsely granular - waxy 15.

The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to: a. Albumin b. Bence Jones protein c. Mucoprotein d. Globulin

16.

The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with large amounts of water for at least ________ minutes then seek medical attention. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30

17.

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined: a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen c. After addition of salicylic acid d. After the specimen cools to room temperature

18.

Normal value. a. b. c. d.

synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ________ mg/dL lower than the blood 5 10 15 20

19.

Arsenal fire: a. Type A fire b. Type C fire c. Type E fire d. Type F fire

20.

Soluble in ether, except: a. Red blood cells b. Lipids c. Chyle d. Lymphatic fluid

21.

Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except: a. Red blood cells b. Amorphous phosphates c. Calcium carbonates d. White blood cells

22.

Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is based on refractive index? a. Total solids meter b. Hydrometer c. Reagent strip d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

23.

Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement” a. 4.0 b. 3.0 c. 2.0 d. 1.0

HEMATOLOGY 1.

Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy: a. 0.5 – 1.0 inch b. 1.0 – 1.5 inches c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches d. 2.0 – 2.5 inches

2.

In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from the label or end of the slide should be: a. 1.0 cm b. 2.0 cm c. 3.0 cm d. 4.0 cm

3.

Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion field a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+

4.

12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear. How do report this finding? a. Positive b. Rare, few, moderate, many c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+ d. Average number / OIO

5.

Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell diameter” a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+

6.

Polychromasia grading: 1+

a. b. c. d.

1% 3% 5% 10%

7.

How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear? a. 4-10 b. 6-15 c. 8-20 d. 10-30

8.

Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit: a. Plasma b. Buffy coat c. Fatty layer d. Packed red cells

9.

Platelet estimate: 100,000 – 149,000 a. Low normal b. Slight decrease c. Normal d. Moderate decrease

10.

If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 1012/L, what is the approximate hemoglobin value? a. 12 g/dL b. 14 g/dL c. 15 g/dL d. 20 g/dL

11.

What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell anemia? a. Aplastic crises b. Infectious crises c. Vaso-occlusive crises d. Bleeding

12.

Hematopoietic stem cell marker: a. CD10 b. CD34 c. CD35 d. CD56

13.

Condition in which blood escapes into large areas of skin and mucous membranes, but not into deep tissues: a. Petechiae b. Purpura c. Ecchymosis d. Hematoma

14.

Five-part differential: a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythrocytes b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

15.

MCHC: 28 g/dL a. Outside reference range and considered normal b. Within reference range and considered normal c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal d. Within reference range and considered abnormal

16.

Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification of anemia? a. MCV b. MCHC c. MCH

17.

Normal value for template bleeding time: a. 3 – 6 minutes b. 6 – 10 minutes c. 2 - 4 minutes d. 7 – 15 minutes

18.

A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer, and 15,000 WBC/µL were counted. When the differential count was performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100 total WBC. Calculate the corrected WBC count. a. 10,000 WBC/uL b. 11,500 WBC/uL c. 12,000 WBC/uL d. 12,500 WBC/uL

19.

Similarity of factors V and VIII: a. Vitamin-K dependent factors b. Present in serum c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins d. Labile factors

20.

If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as high as 100 to 300 x 10 9/L, a __________dilution is used. a. 1:10 b. 1:100 c. 1:200 d. 1:250

21.

How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9/L? a. 50 b. 100

c. 150 d. 200 22.

A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows the following abnormal distribution, except: a. Over 10% eosinophils b. Below 2% basophils c. Over 11% monocytes d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children

23.

Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visible: a. Metamegakaryocyte b. Megakaryocyte c. Promegakaryocyte d. Megakaryoblast

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY 1.

Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant: a. 21 days b. 35 days c. 42 days d. None of the choices

2.

Major advantage of gel technology: a. Decreased sample volume b. Improved productivity c. Enhanced sensitivity and specificity d. Standardization

3.

Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear background” a. 4+ b. 3+ c. 2+ d. 1+

4.

Identify the blood type based on the following reactions: FORWARD GROUPING Anti-A Anti-B 0 4+ a. b. c. d.

Type O Type A Type B Type AB

REVERSE GROUPING A cells B cells 3+ 0

5.

This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected from the patient before the start of surgery. The patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood may be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete. a. Preoperative b. Normovolemic hemodilution c. Intraoperative salvage d. Postoperative salvage

6.

Bombay phenotype antibodies include: a. Anti-A b. Anti-B c. Anti-H d. All of the choices

7.

Indication for transfusion of neocytes: a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction c. Thalassemia d. Hydrops fetalis

8.

Citrate in ACD functions as: a. Anticoagulant b. ATP source c. RBC membrane stabilizer d. Caramelization inhibitor

9.

Greatest amount of H antigen: a. A1 b. O c. AB d. B

10.

The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is: a. EDTA b. Heparin c. Citrate d. Oxalate

11.

A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is typical of: a. Syphilis b. Herpes simplex c. Candidiasis d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

12.

A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _____ occurring in association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.

a. b. c. d.

1°C or more 1°F or more 3°C or more 3°F or more

13.

The most severe form of HDN is associated with: a. Anti-A b. Anti-B c. Anti-K d. Anti-D

14.

The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is: a. Whole blood b. Packed red blood cells c. Leukocyte concentrates d. Platelet concentrates

15.

What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample? a. O Rh-negative, whole blood b. O Rh-positive, whole blood c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs

16.

The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by: a. Candida albicans b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. Cryptosporidium parvum

17.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an _________ assay. a. Chemical b. Molecular c. Enzymatic d. Biologic

18.

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an _________ assay. a. Chemical b. Molecular c. Enzymatic d. Biologic

19.

Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

20.

Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:

a. b. c. d.

1964 1974 1984 1994

21.

Gamma counter uses these substances as labels: a. Isotopes b. Fluorochromes c. Enzymes d. Immune complexes

22.

What is the most common complement component deficiency? a. C1 b. C2 c. C3 d. C4

23.

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle? a. Chronic active hepatitis b. Primary biliary cirrhosis c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Myasthenia gravis

24.

This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as 1 day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO. a. NS1 b. C c. E d. prM

25.

Percentage of B cells present in the circulation a. 2 – 5 % b. 5 – 10 % c. 10 – 15 % d. 75 – 85 % Other name for “HCV RNA”: a. Viral clade b. Surface antigen c. Viral load d. Core antigen

26.

27.

C3b a. Anaphylatoxin b. Opsonin c. Chemotaxin

28.

Which of the following activates both T and B cells? a. Pokeweed mitogen b. Lipopolysaccharide

c. Concanavalin A d. Phytohemagglutinin 29.

Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result. a. Positive b. Negative c. Doubtful d. Indeterminate

30.

It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay: a. CD2 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD21

HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS 1.

Panunumpa ng Propesyonal: Ako, si __________ ng __________ ay taimtim na nanunumpa… a. Pangalan, Tirahan b. Pangalan, Paaralan c. Pangalan, Bansa

2.

Non-biodegradable wastes are contained in __________-colored bags: a. Black b. Yellow c. Red d. Orange

3.

Instruments used in obtaining cervical samples for Papanicolau smear, except: a. Glass pipette b. Ayre’s spatula c. Laryngeal cannula d. Syringe

4.

Stat means: a. Immediately b. As soon as possible c. Now d. None of these

5.

He invented the Cambridge microtome: a. Minot b. Adams c. Trefall d. Queckett

6.

The following characterizes honing except: a. Heel to toe b. Removal of nicks c. Knife sharpening d. Uses paddle made of horse leather

7.

Clearing is also known as: a. Dealcoholization b. Dehydration c. Infiltration d. Embedding

8.

Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are derived from: a. Rabbit b. Goat c. Pig d. Mice

9.

It is a general purpose fixative. a. Mercuric chloride b. Acetone c. Chromate d. 10% neutral buffered formalin

10.

Most rapid embedding technique: a. Manual b. Vacuum c. Automatic