Phy 1 (15)
Short Description
dgf...
Description
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Q.1.
ˆ 1 R 2I( k) U1 = - 1.B 0 ˆ 2 R2I(i) U2 = - 1.B R2IB0
U = R2IB0 = =2 Q.2.
1 mR 2 2 2 2
IB0 m
Fm B a B a.B 0 ˆ ˆ 4 ˆj) 0 ( 8 / 3iˆ yj).(3i y=2
Q.3.
0 2I 0I . 4 R 2R 0I 2 = 2R
B=
Mutual inductance M = Q.4.
Q.5.
0 2 . I 2R
If T is the tension in the loop, for equilibrium of a small part of it 2T sin = dF = BidL for an element sin and d2 = 2R, 2T = BI 2R T = BIR [L = 2R] BIL 1 1.57 0.5 T= = 0.125N 2 2 3.14 Current is clockwise.
dF
T R
If the particle is projected perpendicular to the B field. The angular velocity, is
qB m
2ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ 3 B 17 17
T
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ 2i 2 j 3k B tesla 3
Q.6.
Fm B a B a.B 0 ˆ ˆ 4 ˆj) 0 ( 8 / 3iˆ yj).(3i y=2
Q.7.
B = oni B 1 1 10 7 turns / m 7 oi 4 10 1 4 ni At the ends B = 2 n
Q.8.
Q.9.
I = I0 (1 – e-Rt/L) 1 1 U = LI2 , Umax = LI20 2 2 1 U = Umax 4 1 2 1 2 LI LI0 I = I0 / 2 2 8 I From (i) 0 = I0 (1 – e-Rt/L) 2 L t = ln 2 = 5 ln2 = 3.47 s R
…(i)
Iabjˆ Ibc cos 450 ˆj Ibc sin 450 ˆi
1 ˆ 1 ˆ i 1 12ˆj 8 j 2 2 4 2 ˆi 4 3 2 ˆj A m2 1 4 2
Magnitude 16 2 16 6.7 11.8 Am2 I 1 1 ˆ 1 ˆ Q.10. B 0 kˆ i j 8 R1 R2 R3 I 1 1 1 B 0 2 2 2 8 R1 R2 R3
Q.11. Fm B a B a.B 0 ˆ ˆ 4 ˆj) 0 ( 8 / 3iˆ yj).(3i y=2
B = oni
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Q.12. | | = MBsin = niAB sin = (0.04) (2) sin 900 = 0.25 N- m
Q.13. Fm B a B a.B 0 ˆ ˆ 4 ˆj) 0 ( 8 / 3iˆ yj).(3i y=2 Q.14. Magnetic induction at point A, 2I(2r )2 B1 = 0 4 [2r 2 d2 ]3 / 2 and due to coil B, 2Ir 2 d B2 = 0 . 2 [ r = tan where 2 = solid angle] 2 4 [r (d / 2)2 ]3 / 2 B 1 1 . B2 2 Q.15. (a) The loop must wind around the 1A wire twice as many times as it winds around the 2A wire, but in the opposite sense. (b) In this case the net current linked by the loop is found to be 4A: 16 10 7 4 107 4 One way to get this would be to go around the 1A wire twice and the 2A wire once in the same sense Q.16. B =
1A
1A
2A
2A
0i i 0 4r1 4r2
0i r1 r2 . 4 r1r2
Q.17. | | = MBsin = niAB sin = (0.04) (2) sin 900 = 0.25 N- m Q.18. The given loop can be considered as combination of the two loops as shown in figure. 2 z
40 cm
(1)
(2) 10 cmy 25 cm
Total vector dipole moment
x
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P P1 P2 iA1kˆ iA 2ˆj Where A1 = 0.25 0.4 = 0.1 m2 A2 = 0.40 0.10 = 0.04 m2 P B 0.2kˆ 0.08ˆj 0.2ˆi 0.5ˆj 3kˆ = - 0.34ˆi 0.04ˆj 0.016kˆ Nm
Q.19. (a) mv = 2Em = 8 910 10-25 qB 2m = T= m qB For minimum value of B electron will strike S after one full rotation GS = V|| T 2m V cos 2m 0.1 = v cos B= = 4.74 10-3 T. qB 0.1 e Q.20.
B B1ˆi B2ˆj B3kˆ Hence q v ˆi B1ˆi B2ˆj B3kˆ qvB 3ˆj 4kˆ B2kˆ B3 ˆj 3Bˆj 4Bkˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ Also q v j B i B j B k qvB 3 i
Let
Hence
1
2
3
B2 = 4B, B3 = 3B
B2kˆ B3 ˆi 3B ˆi B1 = 0 B 4Bˆj 3Bkˆ B 4 3 B ˆj kˆ 5 B 5
Q.21. (a) At P due to current in (1), magnetic field is in upward direction and due to current in (2), magnetic field is downward direction. At Q due to current in (1) magnetic field is downward and due to current in (2), magnetic field is also downward direction. 20 o 30 Therefore at P, B1 - B2 = o = 2 10-5 N/Ampmeter, along positive z-axis 2 0. 1 2 0. 3 o 20 o 30 at Q, B1 + B2 = = 1 10-4 N/Ampmeter, along negative z-axis 2 0.1 2 0.3 30 o 20 at R, B2 - B1 = o = 4.7 10-5 N/Ampmeter, along positive z-axis 2 0.1 2 0.3 Q.22. d dx.v.
0I 2 x
oIv a L dx 2 a x
0Iv a L n 2 a
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Q.23.
B = B1 + B2 I I 3 0 I = 0. . = 0 3 8a 4 a 2 4 2a 2
1 7 10 5 T 2 3
ˆ ˆj+ k] ˆ Newtons = ( ˆi k) ˆ Newtons. Q.24. F IL B = ˆj× [i+
Q.25. (a) The loop must wind around the 1A wire twice as many times as it winds around the 2A wire, but in the opposite sense. (b) In this case the net current linked by the loop is found to be 4A: 16 107 4 10 7 4 One way to get this would be to go around the 1A wire twice and the 2A wire once in the same sense
1A
1A
2A
2A
Q.26. The force is given by the vector relation F i B F = i B sin where is the angle between and B F = (3.0A) (5 10-2 m) (10-3 Wbm-2) 0.5 = 7.5 10-5 N The direction of this force is perpendicular to the plane which contains both and B . Q.27. F I(L B )
The angle between F and B is 1800 0 The angle between BA and B is 0 For both these L B 0 For ED, FED I(L B) ILB sin 90 0 ˆi ILB ˆi Similarly, FCB I(L B) = ILB sin 2700 = - ILB ˆi FED FCB 0 FDC I(L B) = I[L ˆi Bˆj ] = ILB kˆ FAB FBC FCD FDE FEF ILBkˆ The magnitude of the two required force is ILB and it is directed along +ve z-axis.
Q.28. The force is given by the vector relation F i B F = i B sin where is the angle between and B F = (3.0A) (5 10-2 m) (10-3 Wbm-2) 0.5 = 7.5 10-5 N The direction of this force is perpendicular to the plane which contains both and B .
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Q.29. The repulsive force on the side ps of the current-carrying loop, due i1 p to current i1 is ii L 20 16 0.15 F1 o 1 2 (2 10 7 ) 2.4 10 4 N 2 d 0.04 i2 This force will be towards RHS and to the current-carrying wire ps. s Similarly, the attractive force acting on the side qr of the loop, due to current I1 is (Here R = d+b = 10 cm = 0.1 meter) d 20 16 0.15 7 F2 (2 10 ) 0.10 4 0.96 10 N . Direction of this force will be towards LHS and to current-carrying wire qr. The forces acting on the sides pq and rs of the loop will be equal and opposite.
q
a
r b
Thus net force on the loop = F1 F2 = (2.4 0.96) 104 = 1.44 104 N (Acting away from the current-carrying wire) When the direction of current in the loop becomes clockwise, the net force on the loop remain same, but its direction now becomes towards the current-carrying wire. Q.30. Here the angle between v and B is = 450 hence the path is a helix the axis of the helix is along x-axis (parallel to B ).
Q.31. (a) Field due to a single coil (along x) 0IR 2 4 0I = ( i ) ( i ) 2(R 2 R 2 / 4) 3 / 2 5 5R I Field due to infinite wire 0 j 2R 4 0I I Total magnetic field = ( i ) + 0 j 2R 5 5R Q.32. A conducting rod 'OA' of mass 'm' and length 'l' is kept rotating in a vertical plane . . . . . any other resistance. (a)
1 2 Bl = e 2
(b) E = iR + L
di dt
Rt log(E iR) c L E iR = EeRT/L E i= 1 e RT / L R 1 1 i = Bl2 1 e RT / L R 2
dt di L E iR
i=
Bl2 2R
at t steady state
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Power = Torque () i2 R = J i2R B2l42R + torque due to weight of the rod 4R2 B2l4 B2l4 J= + torque due to weight of the rod = + Mg (/2)cos t 4R 4R
J=
Q.33.
(a) B = B1 – B2 I I = 0 . ( ) 0 . ( ) = 4 r 4 2r (b) B = B1 + B2 I 3 0 I = 0. = . 4 a 2 4 2a 2
0 I 1 0I 1 4r 2 8r 0I 1 7 3 10 5 T 8a 2 3
Q.34. If I1 & I2 be the currents in circular and straight part respectively & B1, B2 the magnetic fields due to them, then I 2 I B1 = 0 1 0 1 2R 3 3R 0 I2 30 I2 B2 = [2 sin 600 ] o 2R 4[R cos 60 ]
I R O 240
o
I2 I
I1
For the total field at 'O' to be zero 0I1 30 I2 I 3 3 1 3R 2R I2 2 22 2 I1 R2 r2 2 r1 Now, I2 R1 1 r2 12 r1 Required ratio =
I1 1 I 2 2
4 4 2 = 2R sin 60o = 3R, 1 = R R 3 3 1 4 2 3 3
Required Ratio =
3 3 4 = 2. 2 3 3
Q.35. If r be the resistance per unit length the effective resistance ‘R’ of the half loop, connected across A and B will be 2 R = b a 2(b a) r 3 3 R = 5.6 .
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ V Hence, I (current in the loop as indicated) = ba = 5A. R If be the torque on one- half of the loop connected across A & B, total torque = 2 b I = 2 {2r sin( / 6)} 0 I dr (- ˆi ) 2r a = - 0 II' (b – a) ˆi = -7.5 107 ˆi N-m.
A dr r /6
O
2r sin /6
B
Q.36. F q( v B ) For the first case 106 –(52 103 N) kˆ = (105 C) m / s (ˆi ˆj) (B x ˆi B y ˆj B zkˆ ) 2
10 ˆ [Bz i B z ˆj (B y B x )kˆ ] = 2 Bz = 0, By - Bx = -103 T . . . . (1) For the second case Fy ˆj (10-5C) (106 m/s) ( kˆ ) [(Bx ˆi B y ˆj B zkˆ )] Fy ˆj 10 (B x ˆj B y ˆi )
Fy = 10 Bx , By = 0 using (1) we get Bx = 10 3 T Thus B = (103 T) ˆi Also Fy =10 Bx = 102 N. Q.37. The surface charge density is q/r2. Hence the charge within a ring of radius R and width dR is q 2q dq 2 (2RdR ) 2 (RdR ) r r The current carried by this ring is its charge divided by the rotation period, dq q di 2 [R.dR ] 2 / r The magnetic moment contributed by this ring has the magnitude dM = a |di|, where a is the area of the ring. dM = R2 |di| = q. w/r2 (RdR)
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Q.38. Separation = 2 sin /2 = x (say) i2 0i2 Force = 0 2x 2(2 sin / 2) downward force = mg = ()g F 0 i2 tan /2 = E FG ( 4 sin / 2)g
/2
… (i)
F
… (ii)
mg /2
I 3 Q.39. (a) | B | 0 2 in outward direction of plan of paper. 4 R 2
Q.40. F q( v ) (B x ˆi B y ˆj Bzkˆ ) Case- I when v is along x.
3 B , Bz = +B/2 2
we get By = Case – II We get, Bx = 0, Bˆ
Bz = B/2
3ˆ 1ˆ j k 2 2
Q.41. (a) Magnetic moment due to loop KLM =
R 2 ( i ) 2
R 2 ( j) 2 R 2 m= [ i j] 2
Magnetic moment due to loop KNM = net magnetic moment
(b) = m B R 2 = ( i j) (3i 6 j 3k ) 2 R 2 = [ 3i 3 j 9k ] 2 Torque about x-axis is
R 2 [ 3 j 9k ] . 2
Q.42. Let A = acceleration & v = instantaneous velocity. 3mg – T = 3m A & T- Fm = mA where Fm = vl2B2/ R = V ( putting the values) Integrating , v = 3g [ 1 – e- t/4 ] Q.43. [ i ]Force on AD = 0I1 I2/ 2 2a
Force on AB =
0 II I1I 2 dx / x 0 1 2 ln 2 2 2 a
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ [ii ] Net torque about BC = 0 as the force passes through the axis of rotation & torque due to forces on AB & CD cancel one another. Angular acceleration = 0 The required time is infinite. Q.44. For A,
2I B1(due to P at A ) 0 ( kˆ ) 2d I B2 (due to Q at A ) 0 (ˆj ) 2d 0I B3 (due to R at A ) ( ˆj ) 2 (3d) Resultant field B B1 B2 B3
=
0I 1 I 2 2( kˆ ) ˆj ( )ˆj 0 ˆj 2( kˆ ) 2d 3 2d 3
For B,
2I B1(due to P at B) 0 (kˆ ) 2d 0I ˆ B 2 (due to Q at B) ( j) 2(3d) I B3 (due to R at B) 0 ( ˆj) 2d Resultant field B B1 B2 B3
=
0I ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ 0I 2 ˆ 2k j j ( j) 2kˆ 2d 3 2d 3
Q.45. F qv B x ˆi B y ˆj Bzkˆ Case - I When V Vi We get B 3B, Y Case - II When V Vj
we get
Q.46.
B 0 x B 3 4 Bˆ ˆj kˆ 5 |B| 5
B z 4B
B z 4B
(a) B1 field due to a single coil (along x) = 0iNR2 40Ni 2 2 3/ 2 2(R R / 4) 5 5R Field due to both coils , B0 B2 + B1 = 2B1 = 4.49 10-3 T
80Ni 5 5R
R A
x
B
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ 1 3 ˆ (b) If a particle has the velocity v = 106 ˆi j 2 2 qv 0B0 3 ˆ 8 0Ni ˆ and the field is B = k, i .& the force, F qv B 2 5 5R = 3.89 10-3 N. a x
Q.47. =
x
0I Ia a x ady 0 ln 2y 2 x
I
Ia a = 0 ln 1 2 vt Ia vt a = B 0 dt 2 a vt vt 2 0Ia I= 8 t a vt
di Bv dt di dx L B dt dt B i= x L Magnetic force on the rod, B2 2 Fm = iB = x L d2 x B 2 2 m 2 x L dt d2 x B2 2 x dt 2 m2L B = . mL
x
v y dy
Q.48. L
A
B
(Force is in opposite direction of v )
Q.49. Let the current be in the outer coil. The field at centre B =
0 I 2b
The flux through the inner coil =
0Ia2 2b
The induced emf produced in the outer coil =
D
d dt
0 a2 d 2 a2 t 2t 2 0 2b dt b
Current induced in the outer coil =
20 a 2 t R bR
v m C
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ t
Heat developed in the outer coil = I2Rdt 0
2 0
2
4 2
2 2 0 2
4
3
4 a t Rdt 4 a t = 2 2 b R bR 3 0 t
=
Q.50. (i) Velocity of wire frame when it starts entering into the magnetic field. V1 =
2gh =
210 5 = 10m/s.
And the time taken is 2h 25 t1 = 1s g 10
l
(ii) When the frame has partially entered F into the field, the induced e.m.f. produced is = Blv Blv I= (anti - clockwise) mg R R B2 l 2 v Ampere’s force F = (upward) R B 2 2 v Net acceleration downward = g mR Putting m = 0.5 kg, B = 1 T, l = 0.25 m, v = 10 m/s, R = 1/8 12 0.25 2 10 5N We get, F = 1/ 8 Since, mg = (0.5)(10) = 5 N
Therefore, using Newton’s second law , the acceleration of the wire frame while entering into the magnetic field is zero. Thus time taken to completely enter into the field is 2 t2 = 0.2s 10 (iii) When the frame has completely entered into the field, the current becomes zero and thus, the ampere’s force also become zero. The frame accelerates under gravity only. 15 = 10t3 + 5 t 23 or or t3 = 1s t 23 2 t 3 3 0 The total time taken is T = t1 + t2 + t3 = 1 + 0.2 + 1 = 2.2 s Q.51. Kinetic energy of ions =
1 Mv2 = eV 2
Mv 2 R combining (i) and (ii)
And also Bev =
The radius of the path traversed : R =
. . . (i) . . . (ii) 2VeM 2 2
B e
2VM B2 e
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ In mass spectroscope U236 ion will follow a semicircular path of radius 2VM236 R1 = B2 e and radius of U239 ,
R2 =
2VM239 B2 e
Separation between the pouches S = 2(R2 – R1) 2VM239 2VM236 S = 2 2 Be B2 e = 1.98 10-2 Wb/m2.
239
236
U
U
S
I I Q.52. (a) B1 0 1 nˆ1 , B2 0 0 nˆ2 , 2r1 2r2 Since I2 is absent B B1 B2 As B1 and B2 are oppositely directed 1 1 B [B1 B2 ]nˆ = 0 r12 r22 nˆ 2 Ar1 Ar2 0Ia = nˆ where, A = R2, and a is the separation of the two centres. 2A (b) For any point p inside the cavity, if r1 and r2 be the position vectors of p with respect to C1 and C2 then, magnetic field at p would be 0 0 [ J r1] [ J r2 ] 2 2 = 0 [ r1 r2 ] [where J is the current density vector] 2 0 Ia = nˆ1 2 A
Q.53. The electric force Fe qE 1.6 10-19 102.4 103 kˆ -19 6 -2 FB q v B = 1.6 10 1.28 10 8 10 kˆ = 1.6 10-19 102.4 103 kˆ so net force F Fe FB =0 a=0 Hence the particle will move along + x axis with constant velocity v = 1.28 106 m/s so the distance traveled by the particle in time 5 10-6 sec. x0 = vt = (1.28 106) (5 10-6) = 6.40 m Hence the position of the particle will be (6.4, 0, 0) m
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Q.54. Charge contained by a ring of radius x and thickness dx is dq = 2x dx dq dq The equivalent current i = = T 2 / and the corresponding magnetic moment dq 2 d = iA = x 2 3 = x dx 1 Total magnetic moment = d = R4 4 0i 0 similarly dB = = 2x dx 2x 2 x 2 1 B = dB = 0R . 2 Q.55.
x
(a) As the initial velocity of the particle is perpendicular to the field the particle will move along the arc of a circle as shown.
v0i
300
If r is the radius of the circle, then m
v 20 r
B0k
r
q v 0B0
x=L
r 0
30
Also from geometry, L = r sin 30°
r = 2L
or
L=
m v0 2q B0
(b) In this case L =
2.1 mv 0 r 2q B0
L >r
Hence the particle will complete semi-circular path and emerge from the field with velocity –v0 ˆi as shown. Time spent by the particle in the magnetic field r m = v0 q B0 The speed of the particle does not change due to magnetic field. T
-v0i
Q.56. For conductor with current into the plane for a circle of radius a in the cross-section of conductor current flowing within it a
I=
2xdx 0 (x/R) 0
20 a 3 = R 3
B O a
P B0
d-a
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ For all point on the circle of radius a due to symmetry B is same. Applying Ampere's law 2 a 0 20 a3 B . d = I B = 0 0 2a R 3 0 At P, field B is to OP upward as shown Now field B0 due to wire must balance it, B0 must be downward opposite to be B of same magnitude current in wire should also be into the plane of paper, Let it be I0 . 2I0 B= 0 4 d a B B0 = 0 | B0 || B |
0 2 I0 20 a 2 0 4 d a 2 R 3 20 2 I0 = a (d a) . 3R
2 ˆi kˆ (1) 2 2 2 2 ˆi kˆ Area vector of loop B = (1) 2 2 2 Hence net vector dipole moment ˆi kˆ = 10 5 /2 + 10 5 /2 2 2 25 ˆ =i A-m2 2 (b) Net torque acting on the system : 25 ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ i i j k MB = 2 25 ˆ ˆ = ( j k ) Nm. 2
Q.57. (a) Area vector of loop A =
2I0 B= 0 4 d a B B0 = 0 | B0 || B |
0 2 I0 20 a2 0 4 d a 2 R 3 20 2 I0 = a (d a) . 3R
ˆi kˆ 2 2
http://www.rpmauryascienceblog.com/ Q.58. Charge particle will move from outside of the ring when xcoordinate will be maximum and x R0 i.e. x = R[1 – cos ] = R[1 – cos ] = 2R mv sin xmax = 2R = 2 qB i.e. t = i.e. t = m/qB m z = v cos t = v cos qB R Hence z v cos R0 cot 2v sin 2
y R x
x
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