Pharmacology Board Exam 2009

Question:Class of 131-iodine is: A. Beta-lactamase inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Antivirals D. Antithyroid agents E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Antithyroid agents Question:Class of 13-cis retinoic acid is: A. Beta blockers B. Lipid lowering drugs C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Anticonvulsants E. Retinoids The correct answer is: Retinoids Question:Class of 5-fluorocytosine is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Substituted pyrimidines C. Polyenes D. Inotropic agents E. Antidepressants The correct answer is: Substituted pyrimidines Question:Class of 5-fluorouracil is: A. Alkylating agents B. Vasodilators C. Antimetabolites D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Hydantoins The correct answer is: Antimetabolites

Question:Class of acarbose is: A. Analgesics B. Cathartics C. Taxanes D. Oral hypoglycemics E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics Question:Class of acarbose is: A. Analgesics B. Cathartics C. Taxanes D. Oral hypoglycemics E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics Question:Class of acetaminophen is: A. H2 antagonists B. Antidepressants C. Non-Opioid Analgesic D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Non-Opioid Analgesic Question:Class of acetazolamide is: A. Lipid lowering drugs B. Antiprotozoan agents C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Inotropic agents E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Question:Class of actinomycin D is: A. Topoisomerase I inhibitor B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors C. Sulfonamides D. Polyenes E. Anti-asthmatic agents The correct answer is: Topoisomerase I inhibitor Question:Class of albuterol is: A. Benzodiazepine antagonist B. Inotropic agents C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Glucocorticosteroids E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents Question:Class of alfentanil is: A. Cephalosporins B. Analgesics C. Lipid lowering drugs D. Loop diuretics E. Cathartics The correct answer is: Analgesics

Question:Class of amoxicillin is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Antimycobacterial C. Penicillins D. Antivirals E. Macrolides The correct answer is: Penicillins

Question:Class of amphetamine is: A. Beta blockers B. Antiprotozoan agents C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Barbiturates E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of amphotericin B is: A. Anthelmintic agents B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Tetracyclines E. Polyenes The correct answer is: Polyenes Question:Class of amyl nitrite is: A. Thyroid agents B. Aminoglycosides C. Antidepressants D. Vasodilators E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Vasodilators Question:Class of ansamycin is: A. Anthracyclines B. Anticoagulants C. Sulfonamides D. Antimycobacterial E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial

Question:Class of aspirin is: A. Salicylate B. Tetracyclines C. Antithyroid agents D. Cathartics E. Cephalosporins The correct answer is: Salicylate Question:Class of atropine is: A. Beta blockers B. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Analgesics E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of bendroflumethiazide is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Inotropic agents C. Ca channel blockers D. Thiazides E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Thiazides Question:Class of bisacodyl is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Antivirals C. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis D. Cathartics E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Cathartics

Question:Class of bismuth subsalicylate is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Antacids C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Antidiarrheal agents E. Sulfonamides + antifolates The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents Question:Class of budesonide is: A. Lipid lowering drugs B. Macrolides C. Methylxanthines D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents Question:Class of budesonide is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Methylxanthines C. Antivirals D. Glucocorticosteroids E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Glucocorticosteroids Question:Class of buspirone is: A. Benzodiazepines B. Antivirals C. Sedatives D. Anticonvulsants E. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis The correct answer is: Sedatives

Question:Class of calcitonin is: A. Vasodilators B. Lipid lowering drugs C. Tetracyclines D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis Question:Class of canrenone is: A. Penicillins B. K sparing diuretics C. Antimalarial agents D. Analgesics E. Thiazides The correct answer is: K sparing diuretics Question:Class of carbachol is: A. Sedatives B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Beta blockers D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of carbenicillin is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Antivirals C. Penicillins D. Analgesics E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Penicillins

Question:Class of castor oil is: A. Anticonvulsants B. Antimalarial agents C. Cathartics D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Cathartics Question:Class of cefixime is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Anthelmintic agents C. Cephalosporins D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Cephalosporins Question:Class of ceftriaxone is: A. Antimalarial agents B. Antivirals C. Antimycobacterial D. Cephalosporins E. K sparing diuretics The correct answer is: Cephalosporins Question:Class of cefuroxime is: A. Beta blockers B. Quinolones C. Cephalosporins D. Antiprotozoan agents E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Cephalosporins

Question:Class of cephalexin is: A. Antivirals B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Analgesics D. Lipid lowering drugs E. Cephalosporins The correct answer is: Cephalosporins Question:Class of chloroquine is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Beta blockers C. Antimalarial agents D. Epipodophyllotoxins E. Topoisomerase I inhibitor The correct answer is: Antimalarial agents

Question:Class of chlorpropamide is: A. Sulfonamides + antifolates B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Antidiarrheal agents D. Oral hypoglycemics E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics

Question:Class of chlorthalidone is: A. Antivirals B. Vasodilators C. Vancomycin D. Antimycobacterial E. Thiazides The correct answer is: Thiazides

Question:Class of cilastin is: A. Immunosuppressive agents B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Sedatives D. Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors E. Analgesics The correct answer is: Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors Question:Class of cimetidine is: A. Antidepressants B. Inotropic agents C. Laxatives D. Prokinetic agents E. H2 antagonists The correct answer is: H2 antagonists Question:Class of cisapride is: A. Quinolones B. Lipid lowering drugs C. Osmotic diuretics D. Prokinetic agents E. Oral hypoglycemics The correct answer is: Prokinetic agents Question:Class of cis-platinum is: A. Penicillins B. Alkylating agents C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Tetracyclines E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Alkylating agents

Question:Class of clavulanate is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Quinolones C. Beta-lactamase inhibitors D. Inotropic agents E. Lipid lowering drugs The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase inhibitors Question:Class of colestipol is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Antimalarial agents C. Lipid lowering drugs D. Azoles E. Analgesics The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs Question:Class of cyclophosphamide is: A. Aminoglycosides B. Antimycobacterial C. Analgesics D. Penicillins E. Alkylating agents The correct answer is: Alkylating agents

Question:Class of cycloserine is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Sulfonamides C. Aminoglycosides D. Immunosuppressive agents E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial

Question:Class of cycloserine is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Sulfonamides C. Aminoglycosides D. Immunosuppressive agents E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial Question:Class of cyclosporine A is: A. Inotropic agents B. Colony stimulating factors C. Antiprotozoan agents D. Immunosuppressive agents E. Procoagulant drugs The correct answer is: Immunosuppressive agents Question:Class of cytoxan is: A. Antivirals B. Cephalosporins C. Alkylating agents D. Cathartics E. Iminostilbenes The correct answer is: Alkylating agents Question:Class of dapsone is: A. Nonclassified B. Antidiarrheal agents C. Anthracyclines D. Sulfonamides E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Sulfonamides

Question:Class of demeclocycline is: A. Topoisomerase I inhibitor B. Antidepressants C. Antithyroid agents D. Aquaretics E. Antivirals The correct answer is: Aquaretics Question:Class of Desyrel is: A. Antidepressants B. Polyenes C. Vinca alkaloids D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Cathartics The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of dipyridamole is: A. Taxanes B. Antiplatelet agents C. Cephalosporins D. Tetracyclines E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Antiplatelet agents Question:Class of doxepin is: A. Beta blockers B. Analgesics C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Antidepressants E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of doxorubicin is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Antimycobacterial C. Analgesics D. Anthracyclines E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Anthracyclines Question:Class of doxycycline is: A. Aquaretics B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Beta-lactamase inhibitors D. Lipid lowering drugs E. Tetracyclines The correct answer is: Tetracyclines Question:Class of EHDP is: A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis B. Analgesics C. Laxatives D. Antidepressants E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

Question:Class of enoxacin is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Antidiarrheal agents C. Vasodilators D. H2 antagonists E. Quinolones The correct answer is: Quinolones

Question:Class of epinephrine is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Antidepressants C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Beta blockers E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of esmolol is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Beta blockers C. Procoagulant drugs D. Antiarrhythmic agents E. Proton pump inhibitors The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of ethacrynic acid is: A. Anticonvulsants B. Loop diuretics C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Antidepressants E. Anthracyclines The correct answer is: Loop diuretics Question:Class of ethanol is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Loop diuretics C. Tetracyclines D. Aquaretics E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Aquaretics

Question:Class of ethosuximide is: A. Succinimides B. Hydantoins C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Antivirals E. Sedatives The correct answer is: Succinimides Question:Class of ethosuximide is: A. Iminostilbenes B. Antivirals C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Succinimides E. Benzodiazepines The correct answer is: Succinimides Question:Class of etoposide is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Analgesics C. Glucocorticosteroids D. Epipodophyllotoxins E. Antivirals The correct answer is: Epipodophyllotoxins Question:Class of etretinate is: A. Inotropic agents B. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis C. Penicillins D. Retinoids E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Retinoids

Question:Class of famotidine is: A. Miscellaneous antifungals B. Penicillins C. Beta blockers D. Loop diuretics E. H2 antagonists The correct answer is: H2 antagonists Question:Class of fansidar is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Antidepressants C. Penicillins D. Sulfonamides + antifolates E. Analgesics The correct answer is: Sulfonamides + antifolates

Question:Class of FK506 is: A. Aquaretics B. K sparing diuretics C. Beta blockers D. Immunosuppressive agents E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Immunosuppressive agents Question:Class of flecainide is: A. Vasodilators B. Antivirals C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Beta blockers E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents

Question:Class of flumazenil is: A. Anticoagulants B. Lipid lowering drugs C. Quinolones D. Benzodiazepine antagonist E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Benzodiazepine antagonist Question:Class of flunisolide is: A. Anticonvulsants B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Immunoglobulins D. Methylxanthines E. Glucocorticosteroids The correct answer is: Glucocorticosteroids

Question:Class of fluvastatin is: A. Penicillins B. Antidepressants C. Beta blockers D. Lipid lowering drugs E. Antivirals The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs Question:Class of foscarnet is: A. Sulfonamides B. Antivirals C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Cephalosporins E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Antivirals

Question:Class of fosinopril is: A. Loop diuretics B. Antidepressants C. Anticonvulsants D. Antimycobacterial E. ACE inhibitors The correct answer is: Loop diuretics Question:Class of gemfibrozil is: A. Aquaretics B. Retinoids C. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis D. Antivirals E. Lipid lowering drugs The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs Question:Class of griseofulvin is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Antiplatelet agents C. Antidepressants D. Miscellaneous antifungals E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Miscellaneous antifungals Question:Class of HPMPC is: A. Vasodilators B. K sparing diuretics C. Antidepressants D. Antivirals E. Ca channel blockers The correct answer is: Antivirals

Question:Class of hydralazine is: A. Antidepressants B. Aminoglycosides C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Antivirals E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Vasodilators Question:Class of hydroflumethiazide is: A. Thiazides B. Beta-lactamase inhibitors C. Loop diuretics D. Oral hypoglycemics E. Retinoids The correct answer is: Thiazides Question:Class of hydromorphone is: A. Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors B. Analgesics C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. K sparing diuretics E. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of indacrinone is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Loop diuretics C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Anthelmintic agents E. Antidepressants The correct answer is: Loop diuretics

Question:Class of indinavir is: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Antivirals C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Retinoids E. Alkylating agents The correct answer is: Antivirals

Question:Class of interferon alpha is: A. Inotropic agents B. Antiplatelet agents C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Interferons The correct answer is: Interferons Question:Class of interferon gamma is: A. Inotropic agents B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Interferons D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis The correct answer is: Interferons Question:Class of ipratropium bromide is: A. Antidepressants B. Procoagulant drugs C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Glucocorticosteroids E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of isoetharine is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Aminoglycosides D. Oral hypoglycemics E. Methylxanthines The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents Question:Class of isoniazid is: A. Loop diuretics B. Sulfonamides C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Antimycobacterial E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial

Question:Class of kaolin is: A. Antivirals B. Inotropic agents C. Antidepressants D. Antidiarrheal agents E. Anticonvulsants The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents Question:Class of lansoprazole is: A. Antithyroid agents B. K sparing diuretics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Antimycobacterial E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Proton pump inhibitors

Question:Class of lisinopril is: A. Aminoglycosides B. ACE inhibitors C. Prokinetic agents D. Colony stimulating factors E. Anticonvulsants The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors Question:Class of lithium is: A. Aquaretics B. Beta blockers C. Vasodilators D. Thyroid agents E. Antidepressants The correct answer is: Aquaretics Question:Class of Ludiomil is: A. Antidepressants B. Antimycobacterial C. Osmotic diuretics D. Inotropic agents E. Ca channel blockers The correct answer is: Antidepressants Question:Class of mebendazole is: A. Hydantoins B. Immunosuppressive agents C. Antiplatelet agents D. Barbiturates E. Anthelmintic agents The correct answer is: Anthelmintic agents

Question:Class of metformin is: A. Cephalosporins B. Polyenes C. Penicillins D. Immunoglobulins E. Oral hypoglycemics The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics Question:Class of methacholine is: A. Antithyroid agents B. Cephalosporins C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Beta blockers The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of methadone is: A. Loop diuretics B. Barbiturates C. Anticonvulsants D. Analgesics E. Anthracyclines The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of methazolamide is: A. Anticonvulsants B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Antidepressants E. Beta blockers The correct answer is: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Question:Class of methylcellulose is: A. Antidepressants B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Analgesics D. Laxatives E. Lipid lowering drugs The correct answer is: Laxatives Question:Class of metoprolol is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Beta blockers D. Antithyroid agents E. Antivirals The correct answer is: Beta blockers

Question:Class of mexiletine is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Antithyroid agents D. Antidepressants E. Anthelmintic agents The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of moexipril is: A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis B. Quinolones C. Loop diuretics D. Antidepressants E. ACE inhibitors The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors

Question:Class of muscarine is: A. Anti-asthmatic agents B. Antivirals C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Inotropic agents E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of muzolimine is: A. Inotropic agents B. Quinolones C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Analgesics E. Loop diuretics The correct answer is: Loop diuretics

Question:Class of nafcillin is: A. Penicillins B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Vasodilators E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of nedocromil is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Beta-lactamase inhibitors C. Antivirals D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Methylxanthines The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of nevirapine is: A. Retinoids B. Antiplatelet agents C. ACE inhibitors D. Antivirals E. Chloramphenicol The correct answer is: Antivirals Question:Class of nitrogen mustard is: A. Alkylating agents B. ACE inhibitors C. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis D. Inotropic agents E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Alkylating agents Question:Class of nitroglycerin is: A. Sulfonamides B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Vasodilators D. Monoclonal antibodies E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Vasodilators

Question:Class of nitrosourea is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Lipid lowering drugs C. Thyroid agents D. Antivirals E. Alkylating agents The correct answer is: Alkylating agents

Question:Class of nizatidine is: A. Antidepressants B. Antiprotozoan agents C. Anthracyclines D. H2 antagonists E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: H2 antagonists Question:Class of norfloxacin is: A. Succinimides B. Penicillins C. H2 antagonists D. Quinolones E. Anticonvulsants The correct answer is: Quinolones Question:Class of Norpramin is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Aminoglycosides C. Antidepressants D. Prokinetic agents E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Antidepressants Question:Class of nystatin is: A. Antidepressants B. Antivirals C. ACE inhibitors D. Polyenes E. Prokinetic agents The correct answer is: Polyenes

Question:Class of OKT-3 is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Quinolones D. Antimalarial agents E. Monoclonal antibodies The correct answer is: Monoclonal antibodies Question:Class of ondansetron is: A. Vancomycin B. Macrolides C. Inotropic agents D. Antiemetic agents E. Colony stimulating factors The correct answer is: Antiemetic agents Question:Class of ondansetron is: A. Topoisomerase I inhibitor B. Antiemetic agents C. Aminoglycosides D. Antivirals E. Antimalarial agents The correct answer is: Antiemetic agents

Question:Class of oxacillin is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Vasodilators C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Penicillins E. Antidiarrheal agents The correct answer is: Penicillins

Question:Class of oxycodone is: A. Sedatives B. Analgesics C. Beta blockers D. Anticonvulsants E. Interferons The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of ozolinone is: A. Penicillins B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Inotropic agents D. ACE inhibitors E. Loop diuretics The correct answer is: Loop diuretics Question:Class of ozolinone is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Loop diuretics D. K sparing diuretics E. Sulfonamides The correct answer is: Loop diuretics Question:Class of paroxetine is: A. Osmotic diuretics B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Tetracyclines D. Antidepressants E. Anti-asthmatic agents The correct answer is: Constipation

Question:Class of pectin is: A. Laxatives B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Benzodiazepine antagonist D. Antidiarrheal agents E. Beta blockers The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents Question:Class of penicillin V is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Antiemetic agents C. Analgesics D. K sparing diuretics E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of pentamidine is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Aquaretics C. Antithyroid agents D. Beta blockers E. Antiprotozoan agents The correct answer is: Antiprotozoan agents Question:Class of phenelzine is: A. Colony stimulating factors B. Penicillins C. Monoclonal antibodies D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Antidepressants The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of phenobarbital is: A. Sedatives B. Oral hypoglycemics C. Barbiturates D. Cathartics E. Benzodiazepines The correct answer is: Barbiturates Question:Class of phenolphthalein is: A. Cathartics B. Antivirals C. Antidepressants D. Clindamycin E. Benzodiazepines The correct answer is: Hydrocephalus Question:Class of phenoxybenzamine is: A. Topoisomerase I inhibitor B. Oral hypoglycemics C. Beta blockers D. Antiarrhythmic agents E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of phenytoin is: A. Aminoglycosides B. Hydantoins C. Sedatives D. Benzodiazepines E. Quinolones The correct answer is: Hydantoins

Question:Class of phosphorus is: A. Procoagulant drugs B. Antivirals C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Lipid lowering drugs The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis Question:Class of physostigmine is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Cephalosporins C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Quinolones E. Anti-asthmatic agents The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of pindolol is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Anticoagulants C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Beta blockers E. Oral hypoglycemics The correct answer is: beta blockers Question:Class of piretanide is: A. Thiazides B. Sedatives C. Loop diuretics D. Quinolones E. Antimetabolites The correct answer is: Loop diuretics

Question:Class of praziquantel is: A. Aquaretics B. Anthelmintic agents C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Glucocorticosteroids E. Antivirals The correct answer is: Anthelmintic agents Question:Class of procainamide is: A. Oral hypoglycemics B. Beta blockers C. Penicillins D. Antiarrhythmic agents E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of procaine penicillin is: A. Chloramphenicol B. K sparing diuretics C. Anti-asthmatic agents D. Barbiturates E. Penicillins The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of propafenone is: A. Antivirals B. Benzodiazepines C. Antithyroid agents D. Antiarrhythmic agents E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents

Question:Class of propylthiouracil is: A. Antithyroid agents B. Thyroid agents C. Analgesics D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis The correct answer is: Antithyroid agents Question:Class of Prozac is: A. Sulfonamides + antifolates B. Beta blockers C. Antidepressants D. ACE inhibitors E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of psyllium is: A. Antivirals B. Proton pump inhibitors C. Laxatives D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Interferons The correct answer is: Laxatives

Question:Class of pyrimethamine is: A. NSAID B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Antifolates E. Sedatives The correct answer is: Antifolates

Question:Class of quinapril is: A. Antithyroid agents B. Beta blockers C. Benzodiazepines D. Thiazides E. ACE inhibitors The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors Question:Class of ramapril is: A. Antimetabolites B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors C. Quinolones D. ACE inhibitors E. Penicillins The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors

Question:Class of ranitidine is: A. Immunoglobulins B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Analgesics E. H2 antagonists The correct answer is: H2 antagonists Question:Class of rapamycin is: A. ACE inhibitors B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Aminoglycosides D. Loop diuretics E. Immunosuppressive agents The correct answer is: Immunosuppressive agents

Question:Class of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator is: A. Cathartics B. Vasodilators C. Penicillins D. Thrombolytics E. Quinolones The correct answer is: Thrombolytics Question:Class of ritodrine is: A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis B. Antiarrhythmic agents C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Lipid lowering drugs E. Beta blockers The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of ritodrine is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Cathartics C. Beta blockers D. Aminoglycosides E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of salmeterol is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Glucocorticosteroids D. Hydantoins E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of sargramostim is: A. Penicillins B. Autonomic nervous system drugs C. Antivirals D. Anticonvulsants E. Colony stimulating factors The correct answer is: Colony stimulating factors

Question:Class of scopolamine is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Azoles C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Antiarrhythmic agents E. Beta blockers The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of sodium valproate is: A. Sedatives B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Sulfonamides D. Anticonvulsants E. Succinimides The correct answer is: Anticonvulsants Question:Class of sotalol is: A. Antidepressants B. Beta blockers C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Antithyroid agents E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents

Question:Class of sufentanil is: A. Autonomic nervous system drugs B. Antidiarrheal agents C. Analgesics D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Antiplatelet agents The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of sulbactam is: A. Antidiarrheal agents B. Beta-lactamase inhibitors C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Penicillins E. Aminoglycosides The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase inhibitors Question:Class of sulfasalazine is: A. Antimycobacterial B. Antivirals C. Sulfonamides D. Thyroid agents E. Retinoids The correct answer is: Sulfonamides Question:Class of tazobactam is: A. H2 antagonists B. Cephalosporins C. Osmotic diuretics D. Antidepressants E. Beta-lactamase inhibitors The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase inhibitors

Question:Class of terbutaline is: A. Beta blockers B. Cathartics C. Antiarrhythmic agents D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Inotropic agents The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of theophylline is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Oral hypoglycemics C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Anti-asthmatic agents E. Anticonvulsants The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agent Question:Class of tocainide is: A. Inotropic agents B. Penicillins C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Beta blockers E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of Tofranil is: A. Analgesics B. Antivirals C. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis D. Antidepressants E. Antithyroid agents The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of tramadol is: A. Topoisomerase I inhibitor B. Vinca alkaloids C. Antithyroid agents D. Analgesics E. Anti-asthmatic agents The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of tranylcypromine is: A. Thrombolytics B. Anticonvulsants C. Antidepressants D. H2 antagonists E. Autonomic nervous system drugs The correct answer is: Antidepressants Question:Class of triamcinolone is: A. Barbiturates B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Methylxanthines D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Antimycobacterial The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents Question:Class of trimipramine is: A. Macrolides B. Sedatives C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Analgesics E. Antidepressants The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of tubocurarine is: A. Vasodilators B. Anti-asthmatic agents C. Autonomic nervous system drugs D. Anticoagulants E. Antiarrhythmic agents The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of valcyclovir is: A. Penicillins B. Macrolides C. Antivirals D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Sulfonamides The correct answer is: Antivirals Question:Class of vinblastine is: A. Antiarrhythmic agents B. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis C. Anticonvulsants D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Vinca alkaloids The correct answer is: Vinca alkaloids Question:Class of vincristine is: A. Macrolides B. Vinca alkaloids C. Nonclassified D. Lipid lowering drugs E. Vasodilators The correct answer is: Vinca alkaloids

Question:Class of warfarin is: A. Glucocorticosteroids B. Loop diuretics C. Anticoagulants D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis E. Antifolates The correct answer is: Anticoagulants Question:Class of zafirlukast is: A. Ca channel blockers B. Glucocorticosteroids C. Anthracyclines D. Autonomic nervous system drugs E. Anti-asthmatic agents The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of Zoloft is: A. Epipodophyllotoxins B. Sulfonamides C. Vasodilators D. Antidepressants E. Thiazides The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Contraindication of cinoxacin is: A. Diabetes B. Gout C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Diabetes mellitus E. Pregnancy The correct answer is: Pregnancy

Question:Contraindication of etretinate is: A. Hyperlipidemia B. Late pregnancy C. Gout D. Childbearing potential E. Pregnancy The correct answer is: Childbearing potential Question:Contraindication of hydrochlorothiazide is: A. Decreased seizure threshold B. Childbearing potential C. Hyperlipidemia D. Liver disease E. Pregnancy The correct answer is: Hyperlipidemia

Question:Contraindication of hydroflumethiazide is: A. Gout B. Pregnancy C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Active GI disease E. Hearing impairment The correct answer is: Gout Question:Contraindication of isotretinoin is: A. Pregnancy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Late pregnancy D. Childbearing potential E. Active liver disease The correct answer is: Pregnancy

Question:Contraindication of lovastatin is: A. Active GI disease B. Active liver disease C. Hearing impairment D. Peptic ulcer disease E. Liver disease The correct answer is: Acute Liver disease Question:Contraindication of metolozone is: A. Liver disease B. Late pregnancy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency E. Childbearing potential The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus Question:Contraindication of norfloxacin is: A. Late pregnancy B. Pregnancy C. Gout D. Hyperlipidemia E. Lactation The correct answer is: Pregnancy

Question:Contraindication of pravastatin is: A. Hyperlipidemia B. Peptic ulcer disease C. Gout D. Renal disease E. Active liver disease The correct answer is: Active liver disease

Question:Contraindication of warfarin is: A. Late pregnancy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gout D. Pregnancy E. Peptic ulcer disease The correct answer is: Pregnancy

Question:Effect of albuterol is: A. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50% B. Enhances mucociliary clearance C. Decreases intraocular pressure D. Decreases heart rate E. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30% The correct answer is: Enhances mucociliary clearance Question:Effect of cascara is: A. B. C. D. E.

May decrease heart rate Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50% Increases transit time Increases gut motility Decreases heart contractility

The correct answer is: Increases gut motility

Question:Effect of castor oil is: A. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25% B. Inhibits propulsion C. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20% D. Enhances smooth muscle motility of proximal GI tract E. Decreases water absorption The correct answer is: Decreases water absorption

Question:Effect of cimetidine is: A. May increase triglycerides B. Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cells C. Increases fluid secretion D. Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion E. Heart rate decrease The correct answer is: Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion Question:Effect of disopyramide is: A. Increases PR interval B. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30% C. Prolongs APD D. Increases QRS interval E. Reduces phase IV automaticity The correct answer is: Reduces phase IV automaticity Question:Effect of etretinate is: A. Decreases water absorption B. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25% C. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle D. Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis E. Decreases sebum production The correct answer is: Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis Question:Effect of gemfibrozil is: A. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25% B. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone C. Decreases triglycerides by 25-30% D. Decreases neuromuscular excitability E. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12% The correct answer is: Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

Question:Effect of isotretinoin is: A. Decreases water absorption B. Reduces fatigue C. Decreases sebum production D. Increases PR interval E. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50% The correct answer is: Decreases sebum production Question:Effect of metaclopramide is: A. beta antagonist B. Increases HDL cholesterol by 2-4% C. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone D. Decreases heart rate E. beta-1 antagonist The correct answer is: Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone Question:Effect of nicotinic acid is: A. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12% B. May decrease heart rate C. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 15-20% D. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25% E. Increases PR interval The correct answer is: Decreases LDL cholesterol by 15-20% Question:Effect of phenolphthalein is: A. Increases HDL cholesterol by 4-8% B. Decreases sebum production C. Decreases heart contractility D. Increases fluid secretion E. Increases PR interval The correct answer is: Increases fluid secretion

Question:Effect of procainamide is: A. Muscarinic antagonist B. Decreases AV conduction C. Decreases arachidonic acid pathway products D. Increase HDL cholesterol by 10-20% E. beta antagonist The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist Question:Effect of propafenone is: A. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30% B. Decreases intraocular pressure C. Decreases heart contractility D. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20% E. Increases QRS interval The correct answer is: Increases QRS interval Question:Effect of propranolol is: A. Muscarinic antagonist B. Decreases water absorption C. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle D. Decreases neuromuscular excitability E. Reduces phase IV automaticity The correct answer is: Decreases neuromuscular excitability Question:Effect of propranolol is: A. Prolongs repolarization B. Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis C. beta antagonist D. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25% E. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle The correct answer is: beta antagonist

Question:Effect of simvastatin is: A. Reduces phase IV automaticity B. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25% C. Increase HDL cholesterol by 10-20% D. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12% E. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20% The correct answer is: Decreases triglycerides by 10-20% Question:Effect of terbutaline is: A. Promotes normal differentiation B. Decreases vascular permeability C. May increase triglycerides D. beta-1 antagonist E. Decreases neuromuscular excitability The correct answer is: Decreases vascular permeability Question:Effect of triamcinolone is: A. Increases HDL cholesterol by 4-8% B. Increases gut motility C. Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cells D. Reduces drowsiness E. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle The correct answer is: Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cells

Question:Half-life of carbamazepine is: A. 1.5 days B. 10 minutes C. 4-20 hours D. 8 hours E. 6-12 hours The correct answer is: 4-20 hours

Question:Half-life of chloroquine is: A. 7-14 days B. 7 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours E. 7 days The correct answer is: 7 days Question:Half-life of clofazimine is: A. 3 hours B. 70 days C. 3-4 hours D. 16 hours E. 150 hours The correct answer is: 70 days

Question:Half-life of etretinate is: A. 1 minute B. 24 hours C. 3-36 hours D. 60-170 days E. 150 hours The correct answer is: 60-170 days Question:Half-life of furosemide is: A. 25-35 minutes B. 6-7 hours C. 6 hours D. 7-20 hours E. 1 hour The correct answer is: 1 hour

Question:Half-life of interferon gamma is: A. 7 days B. 1.1 hours C. 1 hour D. 25-35 minutes E. 4 - 16 hours The correct answer is: 25-35 minutes Question:Half-life of phenobarbital is: A. 21 days B. 24 hours C. 6-12 hours D. 2-4 days E. 40 hours The correct answer is: 2-4 days Question:Half-life of phenytoin is: A. 4-20 hours B. 13-103 days. C. 19 hours D. 24 hours E. 6-12 hours The correct answer is: 24 hours Question:Half-life of vancomycin is: A. 11 hours B. 16 hours C. 2-4 hours D. 6 hours E. 100 hours The correct answer is: 6 hours

Question:Half-life of warfarin is: A. 1 hour B. 40 hours C. 60-170 days D. Variable, depending on the dosage E. 16 hours The correct answer is: 40 hours

Question:Indication of 131-iodine is: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Graves disease C. Hypertensive crisis D. Glaucoma E. Endemic goiter The correct answer is: Graves Disease

Question:Indication of 5-fluorocytosine is: A. Insomnia B. Glaucoma C. Cryptococcosis (disseminated and meningitis) D. Primary hyperaldosteronism (diagnosis) E. Major depression The correct answer is: Cryptococcosis (disseminated and meningitis) Question:Indication of acetaminophen is: A. Hyperaldosteronism B. Inflammation C. Cancer chemoprevention D. Fever E. Severe thyrotoxicosis (thyroid crisis) The correct answer is: Fever

Question:Indication of acetaminophen is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Pain C. Inflammation D. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent E. Rheumatic fever The correct answer is: Pain Question:Indication of adenosine is: A. Generalized motor seizures B. Vitamin D deficiency in diet C. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise D. Glaucoma E. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias The correct answer is: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias Question:Indication of amoxicillin is: A. Legionella pneumophila B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Tuberculosis D. Congestive heart failure E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa The correct answer is: Haemophilus influenzae Question:Indication of antacids is: A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B. Paget's disease C. Hypertriglyceridemia D. Major depression E. Streptococcus pneumoniae The correct answer is: GERD

Question:Indication of Ascendin is: A. Major depression B. Severe heart failure C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Babesia E. Hypercholesterolemia The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of atropine is: A. Decongestant B. Bartter's disease C. Topical hair growth stimulation D. Sinus tachycardia E. Gastric ulcer The correct answer is: Gastric ulcer Question:Indication of budesonide is: A. Allergic rhinitis B. Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal) C. Myoclonic seizures D. Neisseria gonorrheae E. Asthma The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of calcium is: A. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activation B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypophosphatemia D. Vitamin D resistance E. Vitamin D deficiency in diet The correct answer is: Vitamin D resistance

Question:Indication of camptothecin is: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Ewing's sarcoma C. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma D. Primary hyperaldosteronism (diagnosis) E. Neoplasm The correct answer is: Neoplasm Question:Indication of carbachol is: A. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activation B. Toxoplasmosis C. Eye surgery D. Acute hypertension E. Spasticity in denervation syndromes The correct answer is: Eye surgery Question:Indication of carbamazepine is: A. Tuberculosis B. Status epilepticus C. Bipolar disorder D. Hypophosphatemia E. Alcohol withdrawal The correct answer is: Bipolar disorder Question:Indication of cinoxacin is: A. Urinary tract infections by gram-negative bacteria B. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent C. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) D. Asthma E. Idiopathic edema The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Question:Indication of cis-platinum is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Subarachnoid hemorrage C. Gram-negative bacteria D. Falciparum malaria E. Neoplasm The correct answer is: Neoplasm Question:Indication of clarithromycin is: A. Angina B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) E. Streptococci group A The correct answer is: Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) Question:Indication of codeine is: A. Myocardial ischemia B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Cough D. Hypertension E. Chronic renal disease The correct answer is: Cough Question:Indication of colestipol is: A. Hypertension B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Pathologic thrombosis D. Toxic multinodular goiter E. Hypertriglyceridemia The correct answer is: Hypercholesterolemia

Question:Indication of cromoglycate is: A. Refractory hypertension B. Asthma C. Chlostridia D. Partial motor seizures E. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activation The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of cyclosporine A is: A. Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome B. Head and neck cancer C. Partial complex seizures D. Renal failure E. Myocardial ischemia The correct answer is: Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome Question:Indication of dapsone is: A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Haemophilus ducrei C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Nocardia E. Legionella pneumophila The correct answer is: Mycobacterium leprae Question:Indication of desipramine is: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Diabetes mellitus type II D. Tuberculosis E. Major depression The correct answer is: Major depression

Question:Indication of diazepam is: A. Hypertensive crisis B. Partial complex seizures C. Myocardial ischemia D. Partial motor seizures E. Insomnia The correct answer is: Insomnia Question:Indication of digoxin is: A. Severe volume overload with oliguria B. Shock C. Severe heart failure D. Congestive heart failure E. Generalized absence seizures The correct answer is: Congestive heart failure Question:Indication of doxycycline is: A. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent B. Falciparum malaria C. Neoplasm D. Hypercalcemia E. Water intoxication The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent Question:Indication of e-aminocaproic acid is: A. Increased osteolysis B. von Willebrand's disease C. Duodenal ulcer D. Mild Hemophilia E. Minor surgical procedures in hemophiliacs The correct answer is: Minor surgical procedures in hemophiliacs

Question:Indication of EMB is: A. Tuberculosis (in AIDS patients) B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Tuberculosis E. Lassa fever virus The correct answer is: Tuberculosis Question:Indication of epinephrine is: A. Hypokalemia B. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) C. Stage fright D. Measurement of bronchial hyperactivity in bronchoscopy E. Local anesthesia The correct answer is: Local anesthesia Question:Indication of epinephrine is: A. Stage fright B. Tuberculosis C. Anaphylactic shock D. Toxic thyroid adenoma E. GI hyperactivity The correct answer is: Anaphylactic shock Question:Indication of erythromycin is: A. Hypercalcemia B. Neisseria gonorrheae C. Chlamydia D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Streptococci group A The correct answer is: Streptococci group A

Question:Indication of ethambutol is: A. Tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Neoplasm D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Chlostridia The correct answer is: Tuberculosis Question:Indication of famciclovir is: A. Herpes zoster B. HIV C. Influenza A D. Chronic and recurrent urinary tract infections E. Angina The correct answer is: Herpes zoster Question:Indication of fansidar is: A. B. C. D.

Systolic hypertension in the elderly Pneumocystis carinii Raynaud's disease Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae) E. Toxoplasmosis The correct answer is: Toxoplasmosis Question:Indication of fentanyl is: A. Delirium tremor B. Tachyarrhythmias in association with myocardial infarction C. Pain D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Cough The correct answer is: Pain

Question:Indication of flunisolide is: A. Condyloma acuminatum B. Myocardial infarction C. Allergic rhinitis D. Asthma E. Central diabetes insipidus The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of fluoxetine is: A. Diabetes mellitus type II B. Water intoxication C. Major depression D. Tuberculosis E. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of ganciclovir is: A. Herpes zoster B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis D. Ancylostoma duodenale E. Respiratory syncytial virus The correct answer is: Cytomegalovirus retinitis Question:Indication of griseofulvin is: A. Major depression B. Pulmonary edema C. Hypercholesterolemia D. Dermatophytes E. Lassa fever virus The correct answer is: Dermatophytes

Question:Indication of imipramine is: A. Chlostridia B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Neisseria gonorrheae D. Trematodes E. Major depression The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of indinavir is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Peptic esophageal ulcer C. Influenza A D. HIV E. Herpes zoster The correct answer is: HIV Question:Indication of interferon alpha is: A. Nephrolithiasis B. Hypertension C. Eye surgery D. Condyloma acuminatum E. Chronic granulomatous disease The correct answer is: Condyloma acuminatum Question:Indication of interferon alpha is: A. Hydrocephalus B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Chronic granulomatous disease D. Hypoparathyroidism E. Angina The correct answer is: Kaposi's sarcoma

Question:Indication of ipratropium bromide is: A. Herpes simplex virus II B. Asthma C. Hereditary prolonged QT syndrome D. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome E. Allergic rhinitis The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of isoetharine is: A. Topical hair growth stimulation B. Gastric ulcer C. Allergic rhinitis D. Streptococci group A E. Asthma The correct answer is: Asthma

Question:Indication of lidocaine is: A. Cardiac resuscitation for ventricular failure B. Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugs C. Raynaud's disease D. Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis) E. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise The correct answer is: Cardiac resuscitation for ventricular failure

Question:Indication of lithium is: A. Water intoxication B. HIV C. Increased osteolysis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery The correct answer is: water intoxication (or severe thyrotoxicosis)

Question:Indication of loperamide is: A. Sedation B. Herpes simplex virus II C. Condyloma acuminatum D. Diarrhea E. Pathologic thrombosis The correct answer is: Diarrhea Question:Indication of lovastatin is: A. Chlostridia B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Head and neck cancer D. Myocardial ischemia E. Asthma The correct answer is: Hypercholesterolemia Question:Indication of mefloquine is: A. Generalized absence seizures B. Candidiasis (oropharyngeal, mucocutaneous, esophageal) C. Amebiasis D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Malaria The correct answer is: Malaria Question:Indication of meperidine is: A. Myocardial ischemia B. Necator americanus C. Edema D. Pain E. Cough The correct answer is: Pain

Question:Indication of milrinone is: A. Shock B. Partial motor seizures C. Raynaud's disease D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias E. Severe heart failure The correct answer is: Severe heart failure Question:Indication of minoxidil is: A. Myocardial ischemia B. Generalized motor seizures C. Neurosurgical anesthesia D. Topical hair growth stimulation E. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy The correct answer is: Topical hair growth stimulation

Question:Indication of nadolol is: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia provoked by emotion or exercise B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Neoplasm D. Hypertension E. Stage fright The correct answer is: Hypertension Question:Indication of nalidixic acid is: A. Blastomycosis B. Gastric ulcer C. Chlostridia D. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) E. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Question:Indication of nedocromil is: A. Streptococci group A B. Hypercalcemia C. Asthma D. Severe volume overload with oliguria E. Allergic rhinitis The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of nitroprusside is: A. Biliary colic B. Chronic renal disease C. Aortic dissection D. Chlamydia E. Esophageal spasm The correct answer is: Aortic dissection Question:Indication of nitrosourea is: A. Edema B. Neoplasm C. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage E. Post myocardial infarction The correct answer is: Neoplasm Question:Indication of norepinephrine is: A. Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Migraine C. Nephrolithiasis D. Decongestant E. GI hyperactivity The correct answer is: Decongestant

Question:Indication of nystatin is: A. Amebiasis B. Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal) C. Disseminated blastomycosis D. Diarrhea E. Disseminated cryptococcosis The correct answer is: Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal) Question:Indication of OKT-3 is: A. Symptomatic arrhythmias due to mitral valve prolapse B. Asthma C. Acute rejection of organ transplant D. Blastomycosis (mild to moderate, in immunocompetent patients) E. Rheumatoid arthritis The correct answer is: Acute rejection of organ transplant Question:Indication of oxycodone is: A. Haemophilus ducrei B. Cough C. Pain D. Refractory hypertension E. Failure of formation of vitamin D in skin The correct answer is: Pain

Question:Indication of phenobarbital is: A. Lassa fever virus B. Partial motor seizures C. Partial complex seizures D. Muscle relaxation E. Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen The correct answer is: Partial motor seizures

Question:Indication of phenoxybenzamine is: A. Migraine prophylaxis B. Nephrolithiasis C. Pheochromocytoma D. Post myocardial infarction E. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery The correct answer is: Pheochromocytoma Question:Indication of physostigmine is: A. Systolic hypertension in the elderly B. Congestive heart failure C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Pheochromocytoma E. Atropine poisoning The correct answer is: Atropine poisoning Question:Indication of pravastatin is: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) D. Nocardia E. Hypercholesterolemia The correct answer is: Hypercholesterolemia Question:Indication of primidone is: A. Generalized absence seizures B. Sinus tachycardia C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Generalized motor seizures E. Muscle relaxation The correct answer is: Generalized motor seizures

Question:Indication of reserpine is: A. Vitamin D deficiency in diet B. Sinus tachycardia C. Rickets D. Hypertension E. Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias The correct answer is: Hypertension

Question:Indication of Rogaine is: A. Migraine B. Congestive heart failure C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Neurosurgical anesthesia E. Topical hair growth stimulation The correct answer is: Topical hair growth stimulation Question:Indication of salbutamol is: A. Asthma B. Malaria C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Allergic rhinitis E. Hypercholesterolemia The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of scopolamine is: A. Increased osteolysis B. Hypophosphatemia C. Eye surgery D. Measurement of bronchial hyperactivity in bronchoscopy E. Motion sickness The correct answer is: Motion sickness

Question:Indication of simvastatin is: A. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery B. Myocardial ischemia C. Hypertriglyceridemia D. Idiopathic edema E. Acute mountain sickness The correct answer is: Hypertriglyceridemia Question:Indication of streptokinase is: A. Hypertension B. Neisseria gonorrheae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Hypertensive crisis E. Pathologic thrombosis The correct answer is: Pathologic thrombosis Question:Indication of succinylcholine is: A. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) B. Hereditary prolonged QT syndrome C. Asthma D. Hypertension E. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia provoked by emotion or exercise The correct answer is: Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) Question:Indication of tetracycline is: A. Diabetes mellitus type II B. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent C. Failure of formation of vitamin D in skin D. Water intoxication E. Duodenal ulcer The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Question:Indication of ticarcillin is: A. Nocardia B. Renal failure C. Necator americanus D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Bipolar disorder The correct answer is: Haemophilus influenzae

Question:Indication of tocainide is: A. Acquired neutropenias (chronic idiopathic neutropenia)(investigational) B. Migraine prophylaxis C. Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugs D. Symptomatic arrhythmias due to mitral valve prolapse E. Alcohol withdrawal The correct answer is: Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugs Question:Indication of Tofranil is: A. Chronic renal disease B. Coccidiomycosis C. Amnesia induction D. Major depression E. Malaria The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of tolbutamide is: A. Pathologic thrombosis B. Superficial mycoses C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypertensive crisis E. Diabetes mellitus type II The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus type II

Question:Indication of tramadol is: A. Paget's disease B. Cough C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Gram-negative bacteria E. Pain The correct answer is: Pain Question:Indication of triamcinolone is: A. Malaria B. Asthma C. Allergic rhinitis D. Hypertriglyceridemia E. Increased osteolysis The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of triamterene is: A. Neoplasm B. Systolic hypertension in the elderly C. Edema D. Hyperaldosteronism E. Spasticity in denervation syndromes The correct answer is: Edema Question:Indication of tubocurarine is: A. Breast cancer B. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise C. Streptococci group A D. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) E. Asthma The correct answer is: Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation)

Question:Indication of vinblastine is: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia C. Germ cell tumors D. Hypophosphatemia E. Lymphomas The correct answer is: Germ cell tumors

Question:Interactions with other drugs of acyclovir is: A. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism B. Amphetamine: enhances analgesia, decreases sedation C. Inhibits P450 D. Calcitonin: increases renal excretion E. probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-life The correct answer is: probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-life Question:Interactions with other drugs of amikacin is: A. succinylcholine - augments neuromucsular paralysis B. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures. C. Antihistamines: enhance analgesia D. beta-lactam antibiotics - synergism E. Inhibits P450 The correct answer is: beta-lactam antibiotics - synergism

Question:Interactions with other drugs of amiodarone is: A. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugs B. Cimetidine: decreases renal clearance C. Indomethacin: decreases potency D. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism E. Aluminum hydroxide gel: decreases absorption The correct answer is: Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugs

Question:Interactions with other drugs of ansamycin is: A. Induces P450 B. ethacrynic acid - augments ototoxicity C. cyclosporin - augments nephrotoxicity D. Calciferols: increase absorption E. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension The correct answer is: Induces P450 Question:Interactions with other drugs of calcium is: A. Aspirin (high doses): decreases potency B. Growth hormone: decreases renal excretion C. amphotericin B - augments nephrotoxicity D. Glucocorticoids: increase renal excretion E. Ethanol: decreases absorption The correct answer is: Ethanol: decreases absorption Question:Interactions with other drugs of cimetidine is: A. sympathomimetics B. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension C. Inhibits P450 D. Desipramine: enhances analgesia E. Glucocorticoids: increase renal excretion The correct answer is: Inhibits P450 Question:Interactions with other drugs of diazepam is: A. Acetazolamide: increases renal excretion B. NSAID: enhance analgesia C. Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism D. meperidine E. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysis The correct answer is: Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

Question:Interactions with other drugs of digitoxin is: A. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolism B. Indomethacin: decreases potency C. Vasodilators: augment hypotension D. Antibiotics: increase serum concentration E. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension The correct answer is: Antibiotics: increase serum concentration Question:Interactions with other drugs of fentanyl is: A. cyclosporin - augments nephrotoxicity B. Inhibits P450 C. Desipramine: enhances analgesia D. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism E. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures. The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia Question:Interactions with other drugs of furosemide is: A. Loop diuretics: increase renal excretion B. Propranolol: inhibits activation C. Increases cardiac glycoside plasma levels D. Aminoglycosides: augment hearing impairment E. Indomethacin: decreases potency The correct answer is: Indomethacin: decreases potency Question:Interactions with other drugs of hydromorphone is: A. Beta blockers: offset increase in heart contractility B. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures. C. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism D. Lactose: increases absorption E. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension The correct answer is: Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension

Question:Interactions with other drugs of hydromorphone is: A. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism B. Desipramine: enhances analgesia C. Increases carbamazepine plasma levels D. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism E. Estrogens: decrease renal excretion The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia Question:Interactions with other drugs of methadone is: A. Vasodilators: augment hypotension B. PALA augments therapeutic effect by inhibiting de novo synthesis of pyrimidine precursors C. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism D. Carbamazepine: stimulates metabolism E. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures. The correct answer is: Rifampin: stimulates metabolism Question:Interactions with other drugs of mexiletine is: A. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugs B. Amiodarone: inhibits activation C. Increases digoxin serum levels D. Antiseizure drugs: stimulate metabolism E. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism The correct answer is: Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism Question:Interactions with other drugs of oxycodone is: A. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolism B. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism C. Ca channel blockers D. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures. E. Desipramine: enhances analgesia The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia

Question:Interactions with other drugs of procainamide is: A. Decreases theophylline clearance B. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolism C. Cimetidine: decreases renal clearance D. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugs E. Increases carbamazepine plasma levels The correct answer is: Cimetidine: decreases renal clearance Question:Interactions with other drugs of rifabutin is: A. cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity B. Induces P450 C. Amiloride: decrease renal excretion D. amphotericin B - augments nephrotoxicity E. Rifampin - augments hepatotoxicity The correct answer is: Induces P450 Question:Interactions with other drugs of sulfisoxazole is: A. Increases quinidine plasma levels B. NSAID: enhance analgesia C. Usually used in combination with pyrimethamine for treatment of malaria and toxoplasmosis D. Displaces tolbutamide from carrier proteins - hypoglycemia E. Decreases theophylline clearance The correct answer is: Displaces tolbutamide from carrier proteins - hypoglycemia Question:Interactions with other drugs of tranylcypromine is: A. Ethanol: potentiates CNS toxicity B. Decreases theophylline clearance C. buspirone D. Iron: decreases absorption E. Increases warfarin serum levels The correct answer is: buspirone

Question:Interactions with other drugs of trimethoprim is: A. Ca channel blockers B. succinylcholine - augments neuromucsular paralysis C. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysis D. Ethanol: potentiates CNS toxicity E. Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole The correct answer is: Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole Question:Interactions with other drugs of verapamil is: A. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysis B. Increases carbamazepine plasma levels C. Increases digoxin serum levels D. probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-life E. Increases cyclosporine A plasma levels The correct answer is: Increases carbamazepine plasma levels

Question:Mechanism of action of 5-fluorocytosine is: A. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing B. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter C. Induces RNA mistranslations D. Muscarinic agonist E. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme The correct answer is: Induces RNA mistranslations Question:Mechanism of action of acetaminophen is: A. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase B. beta antagonist C. Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis D. Induces RNA mistranslations E. Inhibits cyclooxygenase The correct answer is: Inhibits cyclooxygenase

Question:Mechanism of action of acetazolamide is: A. Opiate agonist B. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats C. Inhibits calcineurin D. Inhibits carbonic anhydrase E. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site The correct answer is: Inhibits carbonic anhydrase Question:Mechanism of action of acyclovir is: A. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing B. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase. C. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase D. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme E. Inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymerase The correct answer is: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Question:Mechanism of action of alendronate is: A. Inhibits macrophages B. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts C. Activates plasminogen D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Directly damages cell membrane (at higher doses) The correct answer is: Inhibits macrophages Question:Mechanism of action of amoxapine is: A. serotonin reuptake inhibitor B. Muscarinic agonist C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase D. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors E. monoamine reuptake inhibitor The correct answer is: monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Question:Mechanism of action of amphotericin B is: A. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores B. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition C. Inhibits calcineurin D. beta-2 agonist E. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores. The correct answer is: Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores Question:Mechanism of action of amrinone is: A. beta agonist B. Inhibits Na/K ATPase C. Inactivates pepsin D. Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis E. Inhibits phosphodiesterase III The correct answer is: Inhibits phosphodiesterase III Question:Mechanism of action of aspirin is: A. alpha antagonist B. Calcium L-channel antagonist C. Inhibits reverse transcriptase D. Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels E. Inhibits cyclooxygenase The correct answer is: Inhibits cyclooxygenase Question:Mechanism of action of atenolol is: A. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter B. Stimulates guanylate cyclase C. beta agonist D. Muscarinic antagonist E. beta-1 antagonist The correct answer is: beta-1 antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of Aventil is: A. Leukotriene antagonist B. Inhibits DNA qyrase C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor D. Inhibits monoamine oxidase E. monoamine reuptake inhibitor The correct answer is: monoamine reuptake inhibitor Question:Mechanism of action of AZT is: A. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase B. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase C. Interferes with parasite's energy generation D. Inhibits reverse transcriptase E. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase. The correct answer is: Inhibits reverse transcriptase Question:Mechanism of action of benzathine penicillin is: A. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin K B. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex C. Stimulates guanylate cyclase D. muscarinic antagonist E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of captopril is: A. beta-1 antagonist B. Inhibits phospholipase A2 C. Stimulates basal insulin secretion D. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme E. Inhibits monoamine oxidase The correct answer is: Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

Question:Mechanism of action of carbamazepine is: A. Mitotic spindle poison B. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition C. Alkylation of DNA D. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitation E. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing The correct answer is: Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

Question:Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is: A. Inhibits macrophages B. Potassium channel agonist C. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme D. Forms methemoglobin E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefixime is: A. alpha antagonist B. dopamine antagonist C. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Reduces calcium influx into neurons The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefotaxime is: A. Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies B. Reduces calcium influx into neurons C. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytes D. Blocks K channels E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of cefotaxime is: A. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores. B. Inhibits transpeptidase C. Opiate agonist D. beta-2 agonist E. Blocks K channels The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of ceftazidime is: A. Inhibits monoamine oxidase B. Stimulates guanylate cyclase C. Inhibits phospholipase C D. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefuroxime is: A. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition B. Inhibits transpeptidase C. beta-2 agonist D. Potassium channel agonist E. Inhibits topoisomerase II The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cephalexin is: A. Inhibits DNA gyrase B. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats C. Interferes with parasite's energy generation D. Adenosine antagonist E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of cephazolin is: A. alpha antagonist B. Inhibits transpeptidase C. Inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymerase D. H1 antagonist E. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of chloroquine is: A. Inhibits bone resorption B. Inhibits reabsorption of bile acids C. Muscarinic antagonist D. Inhibits peptidyl transferase E. Unknown The correct answer is: Unknown Question:Mechanism of action of cilastin is: A. Inhibits dehydropeptidase I B. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex C. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase D. Opiate agonist E. Disrupts microtubules The correct answer is: Inhibits dehydropeptidase I Question:Mechanism of action of cimetidine is: A. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors B. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Interferes with parasite's energy generation The correct answer is: Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

Question:Mechanism of action of clarithromycin is: A. Inhibits bone resorption B. opiate agonist C. Inhibits glycolysis D. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing E. Inhibits translocase The correct answer is: Inhibits translocase Question:Mechanism of action of clavulanate is: A. Inhibits beta-lactamase B. Inhibits DNA gyrase C. Inhibits reverse transcriptase D. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase E. monoamine reuptake inhibitor The correct answer is: Inhibits beta-lactamase Question:Mechanism of action of clofazimine is: A. Induces translation misreadings B. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion C. inhibits topoisomerase I D. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis E. Unknown The correct answer is: Unknown Question:Mechanism of action of codeine is: A. opiate agonist B. inhibits topoisomerase I C. Reduces calcium influx into neurons D. Disrupts microtubules E. Induces translation misreadings The correct answer is: opiate agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of curare is: A. Unknown B. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors C. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker D. beta-2 agonist E. Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal The correct answer is: Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker Question:Mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide is: A. Alkylation of DNA B. Inhibits phosphodiesterase C. Synthetic hormone D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Induces translation misreadings The correct answer is: Alkylation of DNA Question:Mechanism of action of cycloserine is: A. Substitution for patient's defiecient immunoglobulins B. Muscarinic agonist C. Induces translation misreadings D. Unknown E. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis The correct answer is: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis Question:Mechanism of action of cytoxan is: A. Induces translation misreadings B. Activates plasminogen C. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase D. Irradiates and destroys thyroid gland E. Alkylation of DNA The correct answer is: Alkylation of DNA

Question:Mechanism of action of desipramine is: A. Inhibits DNA gyrase B. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptor C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase D. dopamine antagonist E. alpha antagonist The correct answer is: alpha antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of dicloxacillin is: A. Mitotic spindle poison B. Inhibits phospholipase A2 C. Inhibits translocase D. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of digoxin is: A. Inhibits phosphodiesterase III B. Blocks K channels C. beta agonist D. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis E. Inhibits Na/K ATPase The correct answer is: Inhibits Na/K ATPase Question:Mechanism of action of diltiazem is: A. Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin B. Calcium L-channel antagonist C. Blocks Na channels D. Potassium channel agonist E. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytes The correct answer is: Allergic reactions

Question:Mechanism of action of disopyramide is: A. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion B. Inhibits transpeptidase C. beta-1 antagonist D. beta antagonist E. Blocks Na channels The correct answer is: Blocks Na channels

Question:Mechanism of action of doxepin is: A. Inhibits phospholipase A2 B. Inhibits monoamine oxidase C. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion D. alpha antagonist E. serotonin reuptake inhibitor The correct answer is: alpha antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of doxycycline is: A. monoamine reuptake inhibitor B. Inhibits ADH action C. alpha antagonist D. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site E. Inhibits nucleoside uptake The correct answer is: Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site

Question:Mechanism of action of enoxacin is: A. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme B. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptor C. Inhibits transpeptidase D. Inhibits DNA gyrase E. Inhibits DNA qyrase The correct answer is: Inhibits DNA gyrase

Question:Mechanism of action of epinephrine is: A. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex B. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. Adrenergic agonist D. Unknown E. Muscarinic agonist The correct answer is: Adrenergic agonist Question:Mechanism of action of etidronate is: A. Adrenergic agonist B. Increases catecholamine levels C. Inhibits macrophages D. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts E. Inhibits bone resorption The correct answer is: Inhibits bone resorption

Question:Mechanism of action of famotidine is: A. Inhibits viral protease B. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter C. Inhibits bone resorption D. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors E. Inhibits viral uncoating The correct answer is: Competitively inhibits H2 receptors Question:Mechanism of action of fentanyl is: A. opiate agonist B. beta antagonist C. Activates plasminogen D. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter E. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrations The correct answer is: opiate agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of fluconazole is: A. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis B. Inhibits transpeptidase C. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase D. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytes E. Reduces calcium influx into neurons The correct answer is: Inhibits ergosterol synthesis Question:Mechanism of action of flunisolide is: A. Inhibits iodine uptake by thyroid gland B. Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPase C. beta-2 agonist D. Inhibits phospholipase A2 E. Inhibits phosphodiesterase The correct answer is: Inhibits phospholipase A2 Question:Mechanism of action of foscarnet is: A. Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase B. Inhibits phospholipase A2 C. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase D. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase. E. Serotonin antagonist The correct answer is: Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase Question:Mechanism of action of foscavir is: A. Inhibits viral protease B. serotonin reuptake inhibitor C. Inhibits mRNA capping D. Inhibits reverse transcriptase E. Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase The correct answer is: Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase

Question:Mechanism of action of furosemide is: A. Calcium L-channel antagonist B. Irradiates and destroys thyroid gland C. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter D. muscarinic antagonist E. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter Question:Mechanism of action of griseofulvin is: A. Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa B. Disrupts microtubules C. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing D. Inhibits phospholipase A2 E. Stimulates guanylate cyclase The correct answer is: Disrupts microtubules Question:Mechanism of action of hydralazine is: A. Damages mitochondrial DNA B. Potassium channel agonist C. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome D. Stimulates guanylate cyclase E. Unknown The correct answer is: Unknown

Question:Mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide is: A. Inhibits peptidyl transferase B. Inhibits calcineurin C. monoamine reuptake inhibitor D. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter E. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptor The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

Question:Mechanism of action of hydromorphone is: A. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition B. beta-2 agonist C. opiate agonist D. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase E. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion The correct answer is: opiate agonist Question:Mechanism of action of indinavir is: A. Inhibits reverse transcriptase B. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase C. Inhibits viral uncoating D. Inhibits viral protease E. Inhibits topoisomerase II The correct answer is: Inhibits viral protease Question:Mechanism of action of ipratropium bromide is: A. Enhances presynaptic release of GABA B. Induces RNA mistranslations C. muscarinic antagonist D. Inhibits phospholipase A2 E. Increases catecholamine levels The correct answer is: muscarinic antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of isoniazid is: A. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter B. Inhibits glycolysis C. Inhibits transpeptidase D. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase E. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex The correct answer is: Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole

Question:Mechanism of action of lansoprazole is: A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter B. Reduces calcium influx into neurons C. alpha antagonist D. beta-2 agonist E. Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPase The correct answer is: Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPase Question:Mechanism of action of mannitol is: A. Aldosterone antagonist B. Osmotic diuretic C. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors D. Unknown E. Inhibits phospholipase C The correct answer is: Osmotic diuretic Question:Mechanism of action of metaclopramide is: A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter B. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Promotes release of acetylcholine The correct answer is: Promotes release of acetylcholine Question:Mechanism of action of methylcellulose is: A. Directly damages cell membrane (at higher doses) B. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. Holds water in stool D. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats E. opiate agonist The correct answer is: Holds water in stool

Question:Mechanism of action of metoprolol is: A. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion B. alpha antagonist C. beta-1 antagonist D. Blocks K channels E. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats The correct answer is: beta-1 antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of muscarine is: A. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase B. Muscarinic agonist C. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis D. beta-2 agonist E. beta-1 antagonist The correct answer is: Muscarinic agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of norepinephrine is: A. Muscarinic agonist B. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion C. beta-2 agonist D. alpha-agonist E. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase The correct answer is: alpha-agonist Question:Mechanism of action of norfloxacin is: A. Being positively charged, binds and inactivates negatively-charged heparin. B. Inhibits DNA qyrase C. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitation D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Inhibits DNA gyrase The correct answer is: Inhibits DNA gyrase

Question:Mechanism of action of Norpramin is: A. alpha antagonist B. serotonin reuptake inhibitor C. Reduces calcium influx into neurons D. Inhibits monoamine oxidase E. Inhibits cyclooxygenase The correct answer is: alpha antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of nystatin is: A. monoamine reuptake inhibitor B. Blocks K channels C. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores D. beta-2 agonist E. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores. The correct answer is: Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores. Question:Mechanism of action of oxacillin is: A. Inhibits Na/K ATPase B. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis C. muscarinic antagonist D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of oxacillin is: A. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome B. beta-1 antagonist C. beta antagonist D. beta-2 agonist E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of oxycodone is: A. Anti-idiotype antibodies against autoantibodies B. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors C. opiate agonist D. inhibits topoisomerase I E. Inhibits beta-lactamase The correct answer is: opiate agonist Question:Mechanism of action of ozolinone is: A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter B. alpha antagonist C. opiate agonist D. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme E. Benzodiazepine antagonist The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter Question:Mechanism of action of Paxil is: A. Muscarinic agonist B. serotonin reuptake inhibitor C. monoamine reuptake inhibitor D. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing E. alpha antagonist The correct answer is: serotonin reuptake inhibitor Question:Mechanism of action of penicillin V is: A. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrations B. opiate agonist C. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex D. Activates plasminogen E. Inhibits transpeptidase The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of phenoxybenzamine is: A. Inhibits phosphodiesterase B. Muscarinic antagonist C. beta-2 agonist D. alpha antagonist E. Reduces peripheral insulin resistance The correct answer is: alpha antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of phenytoin is: A. muscarinic antagonist B. Reduces calcium influx into neurons C. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitation D. Inhibits viral uncoating E. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition The correct answer is: Reduces calcium influx into neurons Question:Mechanism of action of procainamide is: A. beta-1 antagonist B. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion C. monoamine reuptake inhibitor D. beta antagonist E. Blocks Na channels The correct answer is: Blocks Na channels

Question:Mechanism of action of propranolol is: A. beta-1 antagonist B. Being positively charged, binds and inactivates negatively-charged heparin. C. opiate agonist D. Blocks Na channels E. beta antagonist The correct answer is: beta antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of Prozac is: A. Unknown B. monoamine reuptake inhibitor C. H1 antagonist D. Inhibits translocase E. serotonin reuptake inhibitor The correct answer is: serotonin reuptake inhibitor Question:Mechanism of action of ranitidine is: A. Inhibits transpeptidase B. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme C. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors D. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition E. Promotes release of acetylcholine The correct answer is: Competitively inhibits H2 receptors Question:Mechanism of action of salmeterol is: A. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland B. Inhibits phospholipase C C. Inhibits phospholipase A2 D. beta-2 agonist E. Inhibits calcineurin The correct answer is: beta-2 agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of scopolamine is: A. beta-1 antagonist B. beta antagonist C. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase D. Muscarinic antagonist E. Acetylcholinesterase carbamate inhibitor The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of sertraline is: A. H1 antagonist B. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter C. Stimulates guanylate cyclase D. serotonin reuptake inhibitor E. alpha antagonist The correct answer is: serotonin reuptake inhibitor Question:Mechanism of action of sodium valproate is: A. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site B. Enhances presynaptic release of GABA C. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition D. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitation E. Enhances effects of catecholamines The correct answer is: Enhances presynaptic release of GABA Question:Mechanism of action of sulbactam is: A. Inhibits hydroxyapatite crystal formation, aggregation, and dissolution B. Alkylation of DNA C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor D. Inhibits DNA gyrase E. Inhibits beta-lactamase The correct answer is: Inhibits beta-lactamase Question:Mechanism of action of sulfasalazine is: A. beta-1 antagonist B. Inhibits cyclooxygenase C. muscarinic antagonist D. beta agonist E. Inhibits phospholipase A2 The correct answer is: Inhibits cyclooxygenase

Question:Mechanism of action of terbutaline is: A. Inhibits phospholipase A2 B. Inhibits reabsorption of bile acids C. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase D. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker E. beta-2 agonist The correct answer is: beta-2 agonist Question:Mechanism of action of tetracycline is: A. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site B. Inhibits ADH action C. Induces catecholamine release from axonal terminal D. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats E. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme The correct answer is: Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site Question:Mechanism of action of tocainide is: A. beta antagonist B. muscarinic antagonist C. Blocks Na channels D. Inhibits phospholipase A2 E. Blocks K channels The correct answer is: Blocks Na channels

Question:Mechanism of action of tramadol is: A. opiate agonist B. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts C. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition D. Inhibits beta-lactamase E. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme The correct answer is: opiate agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of triamcinolone is: A. beta-2 agonist B. muscarinic antagonist C. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter D. Inhibits phospholipase C E. Increases catecholamine levels The correct answer is: Inhibits phospholipase C Question:Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is: A. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome B. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase D. Inhibits transpeptidase E. Potassium channel agonist The correct answer is: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase Question:Mechanism of action of valcyclovir is: A. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase. B. Inhibits viral protease C. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase D. beta agonist E. Induces release of stored factor VIII and von Willebrand factor The correct answer is: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase. Question:Mechanism of action of vancomycin is: A. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin K B. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis C. alpha antagonist D. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland E. Stimulates basal insulin secretion The correct answer is: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question:Mechanism of action of vinblastine is: A. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase B. monoamine reuptake inhibitor C. Reduces calcium influx into neurons D. GM-CSF E. Mitotic spindle poison The correct answer is: Mitotic spindle poison

Question:Mechanism of action of warfarin is: A. Stimulates lipoprotein lipase B. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrations C. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin K D. Activates heparin cofactor II which inhibits thrombin (at high concentrations) E. Blocks Na channels The correct answer is: Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin K

Question:Mechanism of resistance of amikacin is: A. Increased synthesis of normal precursors of dUMP B. Tolerance C. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthase D. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acid E. Ribosomal mutations The correct answer is: Ribosomal mutations

Question:Mechanism of resistance of amikacin is: A. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria B. Tolerance C. Mutations of viral protease D. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) E. Acetylation The correct answer is: Acetylation

Question:Mechanism of resistance of amikacin is: A. Mutation of viral DNA polymerase B. Beta-lactamase C. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthase D. Tolerance E. Acetylation The correct answer is: Acetylation Question:Mechanism of resistance of ansamycin is: A. Ribosomal mutations B. RNA polymerase gene mutations C. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase D. katG (catalase-peroxidase) deletion E. Adenylation The correct answer is: RNA polymerase gene mutations Question:Mechanism of resistance of chloroquine is: A. Development of thymine dependence B. Tolerance C. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acid D. Phosphorylation E. Mutation in multi-drug resistance protein The correct answer is: Mutation in multi-drug resistance protein

Question:Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is: A. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) B. Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metabolite C. Beta-lactamase D. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria E. Mutations in M (matrix) protein The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) Question:Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is: A. Decreased affinity of dihydropteroate synthetase for the drug B. Increased synthesis of dihydropteroate synthetase C. Adenylation D. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) E. Beta-lactamase The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) Question:Mechanism of resistance of interferon gamma is: A. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acid B. Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metabolite C. Tolerance D. Antibodies E. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) The correct answer is: Antibodies Question:Mechanism of resistance of oxacillin is: A. Adenylation B. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) C. Tolerance D. Beta-lactamase E. Not all cells are in S phase at the same time The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

Question:Mechanism of resistance of penicillin G is: A. Beta-lactamase B. RNA polymerase gene mutations C. Transport protein mutations D. Increased synthesis of dihydropteroate synthetase E. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) The correct answer is: _______________________ Question:Mechanism of resistance of streptokinase is: A. Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection B. Phosphorylation C. Mutations in M (matrix) protein D. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase E. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria The correct answer is: Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection Question:Mechanism of resistance of sulfadoxine is: A. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acid B. Acetylation C. Phosphorylation D. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase E. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthase The correct answer is: ____________________ Question:Mechanism of resistance of tetracycline is: A. Adenylation B. Transport protein mutations C. Genetic alteration of bacterial active transport system D. Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection E. Tolerance The correct answer is: Genetic alteration of bacterial active transport system

Question:Side effect of 5-fluorocytosine is: A. Leukopenia B. Hyponatremia C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone pain E. Closed-angle glaucoma The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity Question:Side effect of 5-fluorocytosine is: A. Sexual dysfunction B. Myelosuppression C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypertension E. Insomnia The correct answer is: Myelosuppression Question:Side effect of adenosine is: A. Bronchoconstriction B. Sleep disturbance C. Edema D. Hypoglycemia E. GI toxicity The correct answer is:___________________ Question:Side effect of antacids is: A. Diarrhea B. Blue-gray skin discoloration C. Anxiety D. Hypotension E. Flushing The correct answer is: Diarrhea

Question:Side effect of aspirin is: A. Constipation B. Hepatitis C. Cardiac arrhythmias D. Palpitations E. Bronchospasm The correct answer is: Hepatitis

Question:Side effect of atropine is: A. Arthrotoxicity (in children) B. Hypoglycemia C. Difficulty in concentration D. Dry skin E. Tremor The correct answer is: Dry skin

Question:Side effect of benazepril is: A. Vomiting B. Hypotension C. Fatigue D. Adult respiratory distress syndrome E. ECL cell hyperplasia The correct answer is: Hypotension.

Question:Side effect of bendroflumethiazide is: A. Myelosuppression B. Hypokalemia C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Flush E. Myalgia The correct answer is: Hypokalemia Question:Side effect of bretylium is: A. Dysphoria B. Ataxia C. Aggravation of symptoms of reduction of peripheral arterial flow D. Tachycardia E. Sexual dysfunction The correct answer is: Tachycardia Question:Side effect of calcitonin is: A. Cataracts B. Nephrolithiasis C. Defective bone mineralization D. Lupus E. General malaise The correct answer is: General malaise

Question:Side effect of captopril is: A. Neuromuscular paralysis B. Sleep disturbance C. Uterine atony D. Fractures E. Hypotension The correct answer is: Hypotension

Question:Side effect of carbamazepine is: A. Gum hyperplasia B. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome (erythema multiforme) C. Ataxia D. Heartburn E. Hypercalcemia The correct answer is: Ataxia Question:Side effect of carbamazepine is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Sexual dysfunction C. Aplastic anemia D. Hypertrichosis E. Embryopathy The correct answer is: Aplastic anemia

Question:Side effect of chlorthalidone is: A. Pruritus B. Nausea C. Hyperlipidemia D. Seizures E. Ototoxicity The correct answer is: Hyperlipidemia

Question:Side effect of colestipol is: A. Blood dyscrasias B. Myalgia C. Bloating D. Respiratory suppression E. Flushing The correct answer is: Bloating

Question:Side effect of desipramine is: A. Insomnia B. Reye's syndrome C. Hypokalemia D. Paralytic ileus E. Priapism The correct answer is: Paralytic ileus Question:Side effect of desipramine is: A. Torsades de pointes B. Hypertension C. Sexual dysfunction D. Respiratory suppression E. Sedation The correct answer is: Sedation Question:Side effect of digitoxin is: A. CNS toxicity B. Arthralgia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Angina E. Angioedema The correct answer is: CNS toxicity Question:Side effect of dihydrotachysterol is: A. Nausea B. Respiratory suppression C. Myelosuppression D. Polyuria E. Facial swelling The correct answer is: Polyuria

Question:Side effect of doxepin is: A. Insomnia B. Toxic megacolon C. Anxiety D. Tachycardia E. Bradycardia The correct answer is: Tachycardia Question:Side effect of doxepin is: A. Anxiety B. Extrapyramidal side effects C. Cough D. Hypotension E. AV block The correct answer is: AV block Question:Side effect of Elavil is: A. Candida albicans infections of mouth and throat B. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Seizures D. Insomnia E. Tardive dyskinesia The correct answer is: Seizures Question:Side effect of EMB is: A. Allergic reactions B. Nausea and vomiting C. Orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, soft contact lenses D. Brain ischemia E. Peripheral neuropathy The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy

Question:Side effect of enalapril is: A. Idiosyncrasy: skin rash, drug fever, joint pain, lymphadenopathy B. GI toxicity C. Angioedema D. Sexual dysfunction E. Alopecia The correct answer is: Angioedema Question:Side effect of ethacrynic acid is: A. Hyperkalemia B. Congestive heart failure C. Hepatotoxicity D. Hypertension E. Nausea The correct answer is: Nausea Question:Side effect of ethambutol is: A. Small bowel thickening => abdominal pain B. Reddish-blue skin pigmentation C. Hypertrichosis D. Tachycardia E. Retrobulbar optic neuritis The correct answer is: Retrobulbar optic neuritis Question:Side effect of etoposide is: A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Vomiting D. Bradycardia E. Blue-gray skin discoloration The correct answer is: Vomiting

Question:Side effect of filgrastim is: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Bone pain C. Apprehension D. Hypertension E. Bleeding The correct answer is: Bone pain Antifungal Question:Side effect of fluconazole is: A. Hyperglycemia B. Inhibits steroid hormone synthesis C. Hypotension D. Hepatotoxicity E. Tachycardia The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity Question:Side effect of furosemide is: A. Priapism B. Seizures C. Tachycardia D. Nausea E. Hearing impairment The correct answer is: Nausea Question:Side effect of ganciclovir is: A. Asthenia B. Nephrolithiasis C. Urinary tract complications D. Nausea and vomiting E. Testicular toxicity The correct answer is: Testicular toxicity

Question:Side effect of imipramine is: A. Extrapyramidal side effects B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Defective bone mineralization D. Tachycardia E. Hypergastrinemia The correct answer is: Tachycardia Question:Side effect of indacrinone is: A. Tachycardia B. Nausea C. Myelosuppression D. Hearing impairment E. Lupus The correct answer is: Nausea Question:Side effect of indacrinone is: A. Seizures B. Diarrhea C. Ventricular arrhythmias D. Hearing impairment E. Vomiting The correct answer is: Vomiting Question:Side effect of indinavir is: A. Lightheadedness B. Local irritation C. Asthma D. Nephrolithiasis E. CNS toxicity The correct answer is: Nephrolithiasis

Question:Side effect of indinavir is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Anemia C. Abdominal pain D. Hypotension E. CNS toxicity The correct answer is: Abdominal pain Question:Side effect of indinavir is: A. Hypercalciuria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Metastatic calcifications D. Nausea E. Mutagenicity The correct answer is: Nausea Question:Side effect of indinavir is: A. Bilirubinemia B. Nausea and vomiting C. Nervousness D. Thrombocytopenia E. Blood dyscrasias The correct answer is: Bilirubinemia Question:Side effect of interferon alpha is: A. Photosensitivity B. Myalgia C. Polyuria D. Flu-like acute phase reaction E. Hepatotoxicity The correct answer is: Myalgia

Question:Side effect of interferon gamma is: A. CNS toxicity B. Free water retention with hyponatremia C. Hypercholesterolemia D. Headache E. Reddish-blue skin pigmentation The correct answer is: Headache Question:Side effect of ipratropium bromide is: A. Hypoglycemia B. Nausea C. Chills D. Tremor E. Blurred vision The correct answer is: Blurred vision Question:Side effect of isoproterenol is: A. Weight gain B. Angina C. Anxiety D. Lactic acidosis E. Beta blocker withdrawal syndrome The correct answer is: Angina Question:Side effect of isotretinoin is: A. Neutropenia B. Hyponatremia C. Dysphoria D. Peripheral neuropathy E. Dry eyes The correct answer is: Dry eyes

Question:Side effect of lisinopril is: A. Acidosis B. Urinary retention C. Angioedema D. Vasculitis E. Proteinuria The correct answer is: Angioedema Question:Side effect of lithium is: A. Fluid overload B. Asthma C. Hypokalemia D. Hypothyroidism E. Aggravation of symptoms of reduction of peripheral arterial flow The correct answer is: Hypothyroidism Question:Side effect of Ludiomil is: A. Myelosuppression B. Anemia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Restlessness E. AV block The correct answer is: AV block Question:Side effect of metolozone is: A. Urinary retention B. Anemia C. Hyperuricemia D. Diarrhea E. Myalgia The correct answer is: Hyperuricemia

Question:Side effect of metoprolol is: A. Blurred vision B. Asthma C. Cardiotoxicity D. Urinary retention E. Fatigue The correct answer is: Fatigue Question:Side effect of metoprolol is: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Depression D. Beta blocker withdrawal syndrome E. Ventricular arrhythmias The correct answer is: Depression

Question:Side effect of milrinone is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Increased ventricular response rates in patients with atrial fibrillation C. Hepatotoxicity D. Thrombocytopenia E. Nephrotoxicity The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity Question:Side effect of morphine is: A. Tachycardia B. Palpitations C. Respiratory suppression D. Dry mouth E. Myelosuppression The correct answer is: Respiratory suppression

Question:Side effect of Norpramin is: A. Sexual dysfunction B. Anxiety C. AV block D. Hypothyroidism E. Restlessness The correct answer is: AV block Question:Side effect of Norpramin is: A. Non-ketotic hyperglycemic coma B. Tachycardia C. Extrapyramidal side effects D. Nervousness E. Insomnia The correct answer is: Tachycardia Question:Side effect of Paxil is: A. AV block B. Restlessness C. Edema D. Diarrhea E. Urinary retention The correct answer is: Restlessness Question:Side effect of phenytoin is: A. Aortic dissection B. Hypertrichosis C. Aplastic anemia D. Ataxia E. Hypokalemia The correct answer is: Hypertrichosis

Question:Side effect of phosphorus is: A. Extrapyramidal side effects B. Metastatic calcifications C. Paralytic ileus D. Polyuria E. Pruritus The correct answer is: Metastatic calcifications

Question:Side effect of pravastatin is: A. Cardiac arrhythmias B. Asthenia C. Myalgia D. Nausea E. Constipation The correct answer is: Myalgia Question:Side effect of primidone is: A. Hypertrichosis B. Hypocalcemia C. Cognitive dulling D. Hepatotoxicity E. Anorexia The correct answer is: Cognitive dulling Question:Side effect of procaine penicillin is: A. Seizures B. Seizures (when administered IV) C. Dry mouth D. Diarrhea E. AV block The correct answer is: Seizures (when administered IV)

Question:Side effect of propafenone is: A. CNS toxicity B. Corneal deposits C. Allergic reactions D. Hypotension E. Granulocytopenia The correct answer is: Granulocytopenia Question:Side effect of propranolol is: A. GI toxicity B. Hypertrichosis C. Fatigue D. Orthostatic hypotension E. Hypokalemia The correct answer is: Fatigue Question:Side effect of propranolol is: A. Photosensitivity B. Fever C. AV block D. Hyperthyroidism E. General malaise The correct answer is: AV block Question:Side effect of propranolol is: A. Urinary retention B. Blurred vision C. Bradycardia D. Fetal goiter E. CNS toxicity The correct answer is: Bradycardia

Question:Side effect of quinine is: A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD-deficient patients B. Urinary retention C. GI toxicity D. Fatigue E. Cinchonism The correct answer is: Cinchonism Question:Side effect of quinine is: A. Cinchonism B. Diarrhea C. GI toxicity D. CNS toxicity E. Pericardial effusions The correct answer is: Headache Question:Side effect of sertraline is: A. Urinary retention B. Sedation C. Insomnia D. Restlessness E. Weight loss The correct answer is: Restlessness Question:Side effect of sodium valproate is: A. Hyponatremia B. Depression C. Diplopia D. Dysphoria E. Hepatotoxicity The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity

Question:Side effect of sotalol is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Hypokalemia C. Blood dyscrasias D. Sexual dysfunction E. Hypotension The correct answer is: Congestive heart failure Question:Side effect of tetracycline is: A. Anticoagulation B. Anemia C. Folate deficiency D. Peripheral neuropathy E. Chelates with calcium - deposition in teeth and bones The correct answer is: Chelates with calcium - deposition in teeth and bones Question:Side effect of thiabendazole is: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Vomiting C. Depression D. Leukopenia E. Restlessness The correct answer is: Leukopenia Question:Side effect of timolol is: A. Lupus B. Nervousness C. Hypoglycemia D. Vestibulotoxicity E. GI toxicity The correct answer is: Hypoglycemia

Question:Side effect of tocainide is: A. Bradycardia B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Epistaxis D. Pulmonary fibrosis E. AV block The correct answer is: Pulmonary fibrosis Question:Side effect of tramadol is: A. Dysphoria B. Thyroiditis C. Color blindness D. Aggravation of myocardial ischemia E. Hypertension The correct answer is: Dysphoria

Question:Side effect of triamcinolone is: A. Bradycardia B. Cataracts C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Cardiac arrhythmias E. Tachycardia The correct answer is: Cataracts

Question:Side effect of triamcinolone is: A. Osteoporosis B. Bronchospasm C. Apprehension D. Growth retardation in children E. Hepatotoxicity The correct answer is: Growth retardation in children

Question:Side effect of urokinase is: A. Angina B. Dysphoria C. Thrombocytopenia D. Skin rash E. Anaphylaxis The correct answer is: Skin rash Question:Side effect of vinblastine is: A. Defective bone mineralization B. Dysphoria C. Myelosuppression D. Hepatotoxicity E. Peripheral neuropathy The correct answer is: Myelosuppression Question:Side effect of vincristine is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Myopathy / muscle necrosis C. Myelosuppression D. Arthralgia E. Tachycardia The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy

Question:Side effect of zalcitabine is: A. Diarrhea B. Myalgia C. Dysphonia D. Peripheral neuropathy E. Nausea and vomiting The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy

Question:Subclass of ampicillin is: A. Broad spectrum penicillins B. Organic nitrates C. Carbapenems D. Long-acting penicillins E. Broader spectrum penicillins The correct answer is:_____________ Question:Subclass of aztreonam is: A. Long-acting penicillins B. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins C. Fluoroquinolones D. Type I E. Monobactam The correct answer is: Monobactam Question:Subclass of cefotaxime is: A. IC B. 2nd generation C. Sulfonylureas D. 1st generation E. 3d generation The correct answer is: 3d generation

Question:Subclass of cefoxitin is: A. 1st generation B. Type I C. 3d generation D. Aldosterone antagonists E. 2nd generation The correct answer is: 2nd generation

Question:Subclass of ceftazidime is: A. 1st generation B. Fluoroquinolones C. Sulfonylureas D. 2nd generation E. 3d generation The correct answer is: 3d generation Question:Subclass of cephalexin is: A. Organic nitrates B. Fluoroquinolones C. 2nd generation D. 3d generation E. 1st generation The correct answer is: 1st generation Question:Subclass of cephazolin is: A. Type II B. 1st generation C. 2nd generation D. 3d generation E. Organic nitrates The correct answer is: 1st generation

Question:Subclass of fluconazole is: A. III B. Fluoroquinolones C. Imidazoles D. Type II E. Triazoles The correct answer is: Triazoles Question:Subclass of metformin is: A. Sulfonylureas B. III C. Biguanides D. Carbapenems E. Pioglitazones The correct answer is: Biguanides Question:Subclass of methylcellulose is: A. Fluoroquinolones B. Type I C. Emollients D. Bulk-forming laxatives E. Aldosterone antagonists The correct answer is: Bulk-forming laxatives Question:Subclass of norfloxacin is: A. IC B. Fluoroquinolones C. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors D. Sulfonylureas E. Bile acid sequestrant The correct answer is: Fluoroquinolones

Question:Subclass of oxacillin is: A. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins B. Surface active agents C. IC D. Broad spectrum penicillins E. Broader spectrum penicillins The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins Question:Subclass of penicillin V is: A. Sulfonylureas B. Long-acting penicillins C. Phenylpiperidine D. Broader spectrum penicillins E. Orally available penicillins The correct answer is: Orally available penicillins Question:Subclass of procaine penicillin is: A. Carbapenems B. Long-acting penicillins C. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins D. 2nd generation E. II The correct answer is: Long-acting penicillins Question:Subclass of psyllium is: A. Emollients B. Broader spectrum penicillins C. Broad spectrum penicillins D. Organic nitrates E. Bulk-forming laxatives The correct answer is: Bulk-forming laxatives

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Accutane: A. Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial showed that flecainide resulted in a threefold increase in cardiac death. B. Active metabolite - acitretin - binds to cellular retinoic acid binding proteins. C. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure. D. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL. E. Have to adjust dose in renal failure. The correct answer is: 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure. Question:Which of the following statements refers to acebutolol: A. Onset of analgesia in 1 hour, peak in 2-3 hours. B. Activates ATP/ADP-dependent potassium channel in the pancreas. C. Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise. D. Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism. E. Take once a day The correct answer is: Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise. Question:Which of the following statements refers to acetaminophen: A. As a result of high doses used in clinical settings, is not as specific for fibrinbound plasminogen as the natural tPA is B. No anti-inflammatory effect C. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia. D. 50% bound to albumin E. Is rapidly hydrolyzed to salicylic acid The correct answer is: No anti-inflammatory effect Question:Which of the following statements refers to amphotericin B: A. Na+ and K+ should be monitored. B. Gray baby syndrome: cyanosis, hypotension and death in newborns. C. Used for maintenance/prophylaxis. D. Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants. E. Skeletal half-life is hundreds of days. The correct answer is: Na+ and K+ should be monitored.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to antacids: A. Require frequent administration B. Cough and angioedema do not develop due to lack of effects on substance P and bradykinin. C. No significant tissue reservoirs. D. Low efficacy E. Is metabolized by CYP3A4 The correct answer is: Require frequent administration Question:Which of the following statements refers to aspirin: A. Binds to DNA B. 50% bound to albumin C. Elderly are more sensitive to the drug. D. Highly lipophylic. E. No anti-inflammatory effect The correct answer is: 50% bound to albumin Question:Which of the following statements refers to atenolol: A. B. C. D.

More expensive than other aminoglycosides No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. May exacerbate coronary artery disease Effects: 1. Inotropic 2. Increased automaticity 3. Impaired AV node conduction (indirect) 4. Decreased heart rate (indirect) 5. Vasoconstriction 6. Vasodilation 7. Diuretic E. No first pass effect. The correct answer is: No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. Question:Which of the following statements refers to atenolol: A. Long half-life. B. Lipid profile may worsen. C. Experimentally used for severe heart failure. D. Dose: 1. Gland weight(g) times 80 mcCi / 24h uptake time 2. Empirical (10 mCi) E. Poorly lipid soluble. The correct answer is: Poorly lipid soluble.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Aventil: A. May work when other antidepressants fail. B. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis). C. Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral. D. Has some stimulant (amphetamine-like) effects. E. Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression. The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral. Question:Which of the following statements refers to AZT: A. Is acid unstable - needs to be administered with antacid or a buffer. B. T4 half-life is longer in hypothyroid state. If a dose is missed, can be taken later in the day or next day. In extreme cases, can be taken once a week. C. Non-linear kinetics D. Less anticholinergic effects and less QT prolongation than quinidine. E. Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization The correct answer is: Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization Question:Which of the following statements refers to aztreonam: A. No cross-allergenicity with penicillins B. Risk factors for allergic reactions: 1. Previous reactions 2. Atopy 3. Older patients 4. Topical > parenteral > oral C. Idiosyncrasia in AIDS patients is due to low acetylation in the liver - more drug available for conversion to toxic metabolites D. Potential applications: 1. Pulmonary hypertension 2. Thrombotic stroke (infarct reduction) 3. Esophageal spasm 4. Biliary colic 5. Asthma E. Only 10% is metabolized. The correct answer is: No cross-allergenicity with penicillins

Question:Which of the following statements refers to bendroflumethiazide: A. Has longer half-life than PTU. B. Hepatitis is more prevalent older people and in slow acetylators (5% of Eskimos, 83% of Egyptians, 50% of Caucasian Americans). Usually reversible. C. Possesses antihypertensive effect independent from diuretic effect. D. Decrease calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and, perhaps, in prevention of osteoporosis). E. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis). The correct answer is: Decrease calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and, perhaps, in prevention of osteoporosis). Question:Which of the following statements refers to bismuth subsalicylate: A. May act as binding agent or act to absorb excess fluid in gut lining or absorb enterotoxins. B. Lipid profile may worsen. C. Advantages over quinidine for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias: 1. Comparable efficacy 2. Little or no hemodynamic depression 3. No QT prolongation 4. Absence of vagolytic effects D. May bind enterotoxins, particularly from strains of toxigenic E. coli. E. H1 antagonist - central. The correct answer is: May bind enterotoxins, particularly from strains of toxigenic E. coli. Question:Which of the following statements refers to bretylium: A. Dose dependent kinetics. B. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility; increase renin secretion; sodium and water retention. C. Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and cardioversion have failed. D. Is concentrated by follicular cells so that thyroid half-life is longer than serum half-life. E. Hypotension may result from fast IV administration. The correct answer is: Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and cardioversion have failed.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcitonin: A. Dosage: 2.25 mcg/kg q/day. Start with lower dose in patients with ischemic heart disease. B. Recommended Ca daily allowance for males: 1. 1-10 years: 800 mg 2. 11-18 years: 1200 mg 3. 19-50 years: 1000 mg 4. > 51 years: 1000 mg C. 1st generation biphosphonate. D. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it. E. Primary and seconcary ("rebound" after long-term treatment) resistancies can develop. The correct answer is: Primary and seconcary ("rebound" after long-term treatment) resistancies can develop. Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcium: A. B. C. D.

Fever and lymphocytopenia are reversible. Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis. Poor availability in CSF and eye. Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrate E. Skeletal half-life is hundreds of days. The correct answer is: Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrate Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcium: A. May be useful in acute/chronic treatment of supraventricular tachycardias and atrial fibrillation. B. Salmon and eel calcitonins are more potent, partly because of lower clearance. C. Binds DNA D. Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals. E. Diarrhea appears only in case of oral administration. The correct answer is: Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to chloroquine: A. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum. B. Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent. C. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum. D. Metabolism follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics - accumulation can occur. E. Inexpensive. The correct answer is: Inexpensive. Question:Which of the following statements refers to chloroquine: A. Is taken as tertiary amine and converted to secondary amine by the liver. B. Frequent side effects at doses required to treat established disease. C. Dosage: 2.25 mcg/kg q/day. Start with lower dose in patients with ischemic heart disease. D. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum. E. Widely available. The correct answer is: Widely available. Question:Which of the following statements refers to cinoxacin: A. B. C. D.

The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms. Bactericidal activity requires RNA and protein synthesis - reasons not clear. Expensive; not widely available. Excessive doses are not as bactericidal - possible consequence of inhibition of RNA/protein synthesis by quinolones E. Binds DNA The correct answer is: Bactericidal activity requires RNA and protein synthesis reasons not clear. Question:Which of the following statements refers to cisapride: A. Does not penetrate into CNS B. Tricyclic. C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting. D. No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects. E. Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central. The correct answer is: No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to co-trimoxazole: A. Used in anesthesia. B. More popular than phenobarbital for generalized/partial motor & partial complex seizures. C. Is a mixture of pyrimethamine and sulfodoxine. D. Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users. E. Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole The correct answer is: Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole Question:Which of the following statements refers to DDI: A. Risk factors for allergic reactions: 1. Previous reactions 2. Atopy 3. Older patients 4. Topical > parenteral > oral B. Pyrophosphate analog C. Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hours D. Has the same spectrum as acyclovir plus human cytomegalovirus. E. Absorption is independent of gastric acidity The correct answer is: Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hours Question:Which of the following statements refers to Desyrel: A. Is slightly more effective than aspirin in preventing strokes in patients with transient ischemic attacks, and just as effective in preventing coronary thrombosis B. Gastric upset common at start of therapy. May worsen generalized motor seizures. C. MOA inhibitors - 2nd choice in tricyclic non-responders. D. Has some stimulant (amphetamine-like) effects. E. Low potency The correct answer is: Low potency Question:Which of the following statements refers to diazoxide: A. Active transport into bacteria inhibited by: 1. Acidic environment 2. Anaerobic environment 3. Ca++ ions 4. Chloramphenicol B. Structure - sulfonylbenzamide. C. Metabolized to cyanide which in turn is metabolized into thiocyanate. D. Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization. E. Duration of action 4-20 hours. The correct answer is: Duration of action 4-20 hours.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to diltiazem: A. Is preferred for treatment of arrhythmias to propranolol, digoxin, edrophonium, vasoconstrictor agents and cardioversion. Not as good as adenosine, though. B. Fever and lymphocytopenia are reversible. C. Diet restrictions: cheese, aged meats, red wine, pickled herring (tyrosine is converted to tyramine in aged products). D. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives less than in hypertensives. E. Ineffective in ventricular arrhythmias except for a rare form of monomorphic ventricular tachycardia with a structurally normal heart. The correct answer is: Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives less than in hypertensives. Question:Which of the following statements refers to diltiazem: A. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives. B. Is less likely to cause heart failure than verapamil. C. Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis. D. Is less likely to cause edema than nifedipine. E. Toxic to osteoclasts The correct answer is: Is less likely to cause heart failure than verapamil. Question:Which of the following statements refers to dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate: A. Low molecular weight heparins inhibit factor Xa but not thrombin. They seem to have fewer side effects. They are much more expensive. Unlike heparin, have linear kinetics. B. No significant tissue reservoirs. C. Emollients = stool softeners D. Inhibits mitochondrial peptidyl transferase E. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel syndrome. The correct answer is: Emollients = stool softeners

Question:Which of the following statements refers to domperidone: A. Act chiefly on distal convoluted tubules. B. 2nd generation biphosphonate (amino-biphosphonate). C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting. D. Half-life increases in renal failure E. Does not penetrate into CNS The correct answer is: Does not penetrate into CNS Question:Which of the following statements refers to etretinate: A. Embryopathy: 1. Anotia 2. Microtia 3. Absent external ear canal 4. Microphthalmia 5. Conotruncal heart defects 6. Aplasia/hypoplasia of thymus 7. Neural tube defects (anencephaly, spina bifida). 8. Limb development defects. B. Moderately lipid soluble. C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting. D. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL. E. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure. The correct answer is: Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL. Question:Which of the following statements refers to etretinate: A. Penetrates placenta less readily than MMI B. Embryopathy: 1. Anotia 2. Microtia 3. Absent external ear canal 4. Microphthalmia 5. Conotruncal heart defects 6. Aplasia/hypoplasia of thymus 7. Neural tube defects (anencephaly, spina bifida). 8. Limb development defects C. Analgesic effect half-life - 4 hours. D. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure. E. While serum half-life is 60-170 days, it was found in fat as long as 6 years after the end of the therapy. The correct answer is: While serum half-life is 60-170 days, it was found in fat as long as 6 years after the end of the therapy.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to fansidar: A. Duration of action 4-20 hours. B. Peak plasma concentration in 1-2 hours. C. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake. D. Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole E. Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users. The correct answer is: Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users. Question:Which of the following statements refers to foscarnet: A. Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hours B. Claimed to produce less tabacco than isosorbide dinitrate. C. 75% of patients get better after 1st treatment; 90% - after 2nd; 99% - after 3d and more. D. Pyrophosphate analog E. Acyclovir is seldom used against recurrent HSV infections since the symptoms usually quickly (5-7 days) resolve on their own. The correct answer is: Pyrophosphate analog Question:Which of the following statements refers to glyburide: A. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency. B. 2nd generation C. Slows down intestinal breakdown of carbohydrates. D. Myasthenia gravis and botulism predispose to neuromuscular paralysis E. Minimal side effects. The correct answer is: 2nd generation Question:Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC: A. H1 antagonist - central. B. Beta half-life - 2 hours; gamma half-life - 36 hours. C. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly. D. Cytosine monophosphate analog E. Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza A. The correct answer is: Cytosine monophosphate analog

Question:Which of the following statements refers to hydralazine: A. Neither chemically, nor pharmacologically related to any other sedative. B. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion. C. Mechanism of action probably involves NO. D. For hypertension always used with diuretics and beta blockers. E. Half-life: 1 hour at 100U/kg; 5 hours at 800U/kg The correct answer is: Mechanism of action probably involves NO. Question:Which of the following statements refers to hydrochlorothiazide: A. Hepatitis is more prevalent older people and in slow acetylators (5% of Eskimos, 83% of Egyptians, 50% of Caucasian Americans). Usually reversible. B. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis). C. See bendroflumethiazide D. Decreases sebum production by 90%. E. Weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. The correct answer is: Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis). Question:Which of the following statements refers to Invirase: A. Twice as potent as carbenicillin B. Binds both A and B subunits of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) C. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly. D. Non-linear kinetics E. Very large first-pass effect. The correct answer is: Very large first-pass effect. Question:Which of the following statements refers to isoetharine: A. Duration of action: 1-2 hours B. Is lipid insoluble -> not absorbed in either bronchial tree or GI tract -> few systemic effects. C. Is ion-trapped in basic urine D. Is used for maintenance, prophylaxis E. Binds to BZ1 (benzodiazepine-1) receptor in the brain. The correct answer is: Duration of action: 1-2 hours

Question:Which of the following statements refers to isoproterenol: A. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly. B. Highly lipophylic. C. Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction. D. Effects: 1. Inotropic 2. Increased automaticity 3. Impaired AV node conduction (indirect) 4. Decreased heart rate (indirect) 5. Vasoconstriction 6. Vasodilation 7. Diuretic E. Has been supplanted by more selective agents in treatment of asthma and shock. The correct answer is: Has been supplanted by more selective agents in treatment of asthma and shock. Question:Which of the following statements refers to lidocaine: A. Not well suited for long-term therapy because of risk of lupus (20% per year). B. Distribution half-life - 8 minutes, metabolism half-life - 120 minutes. C. Not shown to reduce sudden death or prolong survival. D. Has been taken off the market due to side effects. E. Binds to SH group of ACE The correct answer is: Distribution half-life - 8 minutes, metabolism half-life - 120 minutes. Question:Which of the following statements refers to mebendazole: A. Is oxidized to active epoxide metabolite to variable extent in different individuals. B. Used only for maintenance/prophylaxis. Systemic steroids are used in case of acute exacerbations. C. Is well absorbed in human GI tract. D. Frequent side effects. E. Minimal GI absorption. The correct answer is: Minimal GI absorption.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to metaclopramide: A. B. C. D.

No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects. Immunosuppressive effects may contribute to efficacy in Graves' disease Half-life increases in renal failure Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis. E. Does not penetrate into CNS The correct answer is: Half-life increases in renal failure Question:Which of the following statements refers to metaproterenol: A. Subclass II of antiarrhythmic agents. B. Duration of action: 3-4 hours C. Most effective in prevention of cold/exercise-induced asthma. D. Excretion is largely unaffected by heart failure. E. Minimal GI absorption. The correct answer is: Most effective in prevention of cold/exercise-induced asthma Question:Which of the following statements refers to metformin: A. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia. B. Low potency C. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency. D. 2nd generation E. Causes weight loss The correct answer is: Causes weight loss. Question:Which of the following statements refers to methazolamide: A. Analgesic "ceiling" effect. B. Stimulates beta-1 stronger than beta-2. C. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency. D. Is seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis. E. Seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis. The correct answer is: Seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to methylcellulose: A. B. C. D.

Efficacy not well documented Relatively good CSF bioavailability - 10% of plasma concentration Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel syndrome. E. Emollients = stool softeners The correct answer is: Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel syndrome. Question:Which of the following statements refers to morphine: A. Pulmonary hypertension - questionable use. B. Penetrates placenta less readily than MMI C. MS Contin - sustained release form. D. Liver failure increases meperidine and normeperidine blood levels. E. Delayed onset P/O 30-60', IV 10-20' The correct answer is: MS Contin - sustained release form. Question:Which of the following statements refers to nedocromil: A. 8-10% of the dose administered is deposited in the airway - the rest is swallowed. B. Inhibits folate synthesis in bacteria C. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake. D. Does not cause bronchodilation. E. No synergy with theophylline - effects simply add up. The correct answer is: Does not cause bronchodilation. Question:Which of the following statements refers to ondansetron: A. No significant tissue reservoirs. B. Balanced arteriolar and venous vasodilator effects. C. May undermine treatment of Parkinsonism D. Lipid profile may worsen. E. Mainly used against chemotherapy side effects. The correct answer is: Mainly used against chemotherapy side effects.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to oxycodone: A. Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central. B. Analgesic effect half-life - 4 hours. C. Lower doses used in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias may be better tolerated. D. Duration of analgesia - 4 hours. E. May work when other antidepressants fail. The correct answer is: Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central. Question:Which of the following statements refers to oxycodone: A. Highly lipophylic. B. Renal failure raises blood concentration. C. Respiratory depression rare. D. Myasthenia gravis and botulism predispose to neuromuscular paralysis E. Is acid unstable - needs to be administered with antacid or a buffer. The correct answer is: Renal failure raises blood concentration. Question:Which of the following statements refers to penicillin V: A. No cross-allergenicity with penicillins B. Triggers autolysins C. AV block - from quinidine-like effect; sedation - from H1 blockage. D. Acid stable E. Administer at least twice daily and restrict salt intake. The correct answer is: Acid stable Question:Which of the following statements refers to pentamidine: A. B. C. D. E.

Possibly terato- and carcinogenic; not confirmed by trials on human subjects. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia. Possibly drug of choice for Giardia lamblia. Liver failure increases meperidine and normeperidine blood levels. Is as effective against PCP as TMP-SMX but is used only as second-line agent due to side effects. The correct answer is: Is as effective against PCP as TMP-SMX but is used only as second-line agent due to side effects.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to phenobarbital: A. Excretion is largely unaffected by heart failure. B. Drug is lipophilic and readily taken up by macrophages C. More popular than phenobarbital for generalized/partial motor & partial complex seizures. D. Induces mixed function oxidases. E. Little relationship between blood concentration and anticonvulsant effect. The correct answer is: Induces mixed function oxidases. Question:Which of the following statements refers to phenobarbital: A. Not active against dormant organisms; therefore not used in long-term therapy B. Tamponade rare in pericardial effusions - mostly asymptomatic. C. Few serious hematologic reactions. D. Provides immediate effective therapy for status epilepticus. E. Little relationship between blood concentration and anticonvulsant effect. The correct answer is: Few serious hematologic reactions. Question:Which of the following statements refers to plicamycin: A. B. C. D. E.

Bioavailability < 5% IV preparations: 1. Ca chloride 2. Ca gluconate Re-sedation may occur. Can usually lower serum calcium levels in 48 hours. Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrate The correct answer is: Can usually lower serum calcium levels in 48 hours. Question:Which of the following statements refers to primaquine: A. Dysphonia - laryngeal myopathy - can be prevented by gargling, slow inhalation, and use of a spacer. B. Poorly lipid soluble. C. The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms. D. Stereoisomer quinidine normally used to treat arrhythmias can be substituted for it in case of emergency. E. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum. The correct answer is: The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to procainamide: A. B. C. D.

Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators. Anti-alpha adrenergic effect may cause hypotension in fast IV administration. Minimal side effects. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it. E. Not necessary to adjust dose in renal failure. The correct answer is: Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to propranolol: A. Renal failure raises blood concentration. B. Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis. C. No first pass effect. D. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it. E. Poorly lipid soluble. The correct answer is: Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis. Question:Which of the following statements refers to propranolol: A. No first pass effect. B. Resistance encountered less frequently than to other aminoglycosides C. Binds to BZ1 (benzodiazepine-1) receptor in the brain. D. Is not effective against hyperthyroidism caused by thyroiditis. E. Lipid profile may worsen. The correct answer is: Lipid profile may worsen.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Prozac: A. Long half-life. B. Blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors: doxepin = amitriptyline > imipramine > nortriptyline > desipramine C. Can prevent recurrent infarction and cardiac death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction. D. MS Contin - sustained release form. E. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited. The correct answer is: Long half-life. Question:Which of the following statements refers to PZA: A. Poor availability in CSF and eye. B. Is rarely used because of toxicity and weak activity C. Side effects rare - only after very large doses. D. Bactericidal E. Semisynthetic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces The correct answer is: Bactericidal Question:Which of the following statements refers to rifabutin: A. Take once a day B. Not active against dormant organisms; therefore not used in long-term therapy C. Structural analog of nicotinamide D. Does not inhibit eukaryotic peptyidyl transferase. E. Structural analog of rifampin, but is more potent. The correct answer is: Structural analog of rifampin, but is more potent. Question:Which of the following statements refers to rifampin: A. Structural analog of nicotinamide B. Serum phosphorus concentrations should be monitored at least daily in case of oral administration. C. Crosses placenta; is excreted in breast milk. D. Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent. E. Uveitis is dose-dependent; rare with doses < 300 mg / day. The correct answer is: Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Rogaine: A. Oral ISDN: onset of action 15-45 min, duration 2-6 hours. B. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel syndrome. C. Duration of action - 12 hours. D. Is not effective against ventricular arrhythmias. E. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion. The correct answer is: Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion. Question:Which of the following statements refers to sodium valproate: A. B. C. D.

Typically given 3-4 times a day. Metabolized by COMT, MAO. Multiple doses per day. Incidence of fatal hepatic necrosis is higher in children under 3 who are taking other anticonvulsants as well. E. Highly lipophylic. The correct answer is: Incidence of fatal hepatic necrosis is higher in children under 3 who are taking other anticonvulsants as well. Question:Which of the following statements refers to spironolactone: A. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake. B. Is a mixture of pyrimethamine and sulfodoxine. C. Low efficacy. Most prone to nephrolithiasis of all K sparing diuretics. D. Acts by stimulating prostaglandin synthesis (hence interactions with NSAIDs). E. Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule. The correct answer is: Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to terbutaline: A. Hypertension effects: 1. Blood pressure - decrease 2. Systemic vascular resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - no change 4. Stroke volume - no change 5. Ejection fraction - no change 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - no change 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone - decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change B. Poor penetration into CSF C. Mechanism of action unknown. Possibly similar to cromolyn. D. May exacerbate coronary artery disease E. Substantial first pass effect. The correct answer is: May exacerbate coronary artery disease Question:Which of the following statements refers to terbutaline: A. 8-10% of the dose administered is deposited in the airway - the rest is swallowed. B. Duration of action: 4-6 hours C. Is active in acidic environment, therefore especially useful for killing intracellular mycobacteria D. Peak plasma concentration in 1-2 hours. E. Inhibits P450 - 2C9 and 3A4. The correct answer is: Duration of action: 4-6 hours

Question:Which of the following statements refers to tocainide: A. B. C. D. E.

Seldom prescribed due to high frequency (0.2%) of side effects Not used for long-term treatment or treatment of situational anxiety. Lower doses used in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias may be better tolerated. Lipid profile may worsen. Effects in heart failure: 1. Blood pressure - no change/decrease 2. Systemic vascular resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - decrease 4. Stroke volume - increase 5. Ejection fraction - increase 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - increase 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change/decrease The correct answer is: Seldom prescribed due to high frequency (0.2%) of side effects

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Tofranil: A. Diet restrictions: cheese, aged meats, red wine, pickled herring (tyrosine is converted to tyramine in aged products). B. Used in anesthesia. C. Torsades de pointes - 2% of patients, usually the first week. May respond to dose reduction. D. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited. E. Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral. The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to tramadol: A. Is not effective against ventricular arrhythmias. B. No significant tissue reservoirs. C. Poorly lipid soluble. D. Duration of analgesia - 4 hours. E. Analgesic "ceiling" effect. The correct answer is: Analgesic "ceiling" effect. Question:Which of the following statements refers to urokinase: A. Nephrotoxicity is almost always reversible. B. AV block - from quinidine-like effect; sedation - from H1 blockage. C. As a result of high doses used in clinical settings, is not as specific for fibrinbound plasminogen as the natural tPA is D. Activates plasminogen by binding to it and inducing a conformational change leading to "auto-cleavage" E. Activates plasminogen by directly cleaving it The correct answer is: Activates plasminogen by directly cleaving it

Question:Which of the following statements refers to valcyclovir: A. Is a prodrug for acylovir. B. Cytosine monophosphate analog C. In infected cells acyclovir is converted to acyclovir monophosphate by viral thymidine kinase, and subsequently to triphosphate by host cell kinases. D. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake. E. Very large first-pass effect. The correct answer is: Is a prodrug for acylovir. Question:Which of the following statements refers to vancomycin: A. Is less likely to cause bradycardia or AV block than verapamil. B. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake. C. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL. D. A mixture of Al & Mg hydroxides, Ca carbonate, Na bicarbonate. E. Half-life 9 days in anuric patients The correct answer is: Half-life 9 days in anuric patients Question:Which of the following statements refers to verapamil: A. Oxycontin - sustained release formulation. B. Negligible anticholinergic and cardiotoxic effects. C. Is less likely to cause heart failure than calan. D. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives is less than in hypertensives. E. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives. The correct answer is: Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives. Question:Which of the following statements refers to warfarin: A. Balanced arteriolar and venous vasodilator effects. B. Possibly drug of choice for Giardia lamblia. C. Due to its nonlinear kinetics, requires constant therapeutic monitoring. D. Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin time) E. Inhibits extrinsic 80% platelet MOA is inhibited. D. Renal failure raises blood concentration. E. Blockade of muscarinic receptors: doxepin > amitriptyline > imipramine > desipramine, nortriptyline The correct answer is: May work when other antidepressants fail. #3. TOP 200 DRUGS PRESCRIBED IN USA in 2003 Mosby Drugs. In rank column the numbers in parenthesis refer to how many questions in the above test relate to this drug. For example in row #1 (5QA;0QH) means 5 questions on Acetaminophen and zero questions on Hydrocodone. When the drug appears many times as an answer in the above quesions, I indicated [manyA] for many answers). Those drugs where there were no questions (0Q) I colored the row yellow also. The drugs are active links and you can hold the control key down and right click on the word to read about the drug. Rank (Rx Volume) 1 (5QA;0QH) 2 (0Q) 3 (0Q) 4 (3Q) 5 (2Q) 6 (2Q) 7 (3Q) 8 (4Q)

Acetaminophen; Hydrocodone Atorvastatin Levothyroxine Atenolol Amoxicillin Lisinopril Hydrochlorothiazide Furosemide Oral

9 (2Q)

Albuterol Aerosol

10 (0Q) 11 (0Q) 12 (2Q) 13 (0Q) 14 (4Q) 15 (3Q) 16 (5QA;0QP) 17 (2Q) 18 (2Q) 19 (0Q)

Alprazolam Amlodipine Sertraline Azithromycin Metoprolol Succinate Cephalexin Acetaminophen; Propoxyphene-N Simvastatin Lansoprazole Ibuprofen

Generic Drug Name

Brand Name Generic (Vicodin) Lipitor Synthroid Generic (Tenormin) Generic (many) Generic (Prinivil; Zestril) Generic (many) Generic (Lasix) Generic (Proventil; Proventil, others) Generic (Xanax) Norvasc (Norvasc) Zoloft Zithromax Z-Pak Toprol XL Generic (Keflex; Keftab) Generic (Darvocet) Zocor Prevacid Generic (Advil, Motrin)

20 (1QT;3QH) 21 (0Q) 22 (0Q) 23 (3Q) 24 (0Q) 25 (0Q) 26 (1Q) 27 (0Q) 28 (0Q) 29 (0Q) 30 (0Q) 31 (5QA;2QC) 32 (4Q) 33 (0Q) 34 (0Q) 35 (0Q) 36 (0Q) 37 (1Q) 38 (0Q) 39 (0Q) 40 (0Q) 41 (0Q) 42 (0Q) 43 (2Q) 43 (0Q) 44 (2QA;2QC) 45 (2Q) 46 (1Q) 47 (0Q) 48 (0Q) 49 (0Q) 50 (5Q) 51 (0QF;2QS) 52 (0Q) 53 (0Q) 54 (0Q) 55 (3Q) 56 (2QT;0QS) 57 (0Q) 58 (0Q) 59 (0Q) 60 (0Q)

Triamterene; Hydrochlorothiazide Estrogens; Conjugated Prednisone Oral Metformin Zolpidem Levothyroxine Fluoxetine Fexofenadine Celecoxib Ethinyl Estradiol; Norgestimate Esomeprazole Acetaminophen; Codeine Metoprolol Tartrate Lorazepam Cetirizine Montelukast Rofecoxib Alendronate Venlafaxine Extended-Release Sildenafil Gabapentin Potassium Chloride Citalopram Amoxicillin Buproprion Sustained-Release Amoxicillin; Potassium Clavulanate Ranitidine HCl Paroxetine HCl Amitriptyline Clonazepam Pantoprazole Warfarin Fluticasone; Salmeterol Fluticasone Escitalopram Clopidogrel Pravastatin Trimethoprim/Sulfa Trazodone HCl Levofloxacin Cyclobenzaprine Naproxen

Generic (Dyazide; Maxzide) Premarin Tabs Generic (many) Generic (Glucophage) Ambien Levoxyl Generic (Prozac; Sarafem, others) Allegra Celebrex Ortho Tri-Cyclen Nexium Generic (Tylenol #?) Generic (Lopressor; Toprol) Generic (Ativan) Zyrtec Singulair Vioxx Fosamax Effexor XR Viagra Neurontin Generic (many) Celexa Trimox Wellbutrin SR Generic (Augmentin) Generic (Zantac) Paxil Generic (Elavil, others) Generic (Klonopin, others) Protonix Generic (Coumadin; Jantoven) Advair Diskus Flonase Lexapro Plavix Pravachol Generic (Bactrim, others) Generic (Desyrel) Levaquin Generic (Flexeril) Generic (Anaprox; Naprosyn)

61 (1Q) 62 (0Q) 63 (1Q) 64 (2Q) 65 (3Q) 66 (0Q) 67 (0Q) 68 (0QA;1QB) 69 (5Q; manyA) 70 (5QA;6QO) 71 (0Q) 72 (0Q) 73 (5Q) 74 (0Q) 75 (0Q) 76 (0Q) 77 (2Q) 78 (3Q) 79 (0Q) 80 (0Q) 81 (0Q) 82 (1Q) 83 (0Q) 84 (1Q) 85 (0Q) 86 (0Q) 87 (0Q) 88 (0Q) 89 (2Q) 90 (0QV;3QH) 91 (0Q) 92 (0Q) 93 (2QL;3QH) 94 (0Q) 95 (0Q) 96 (0Q) 97 (2Q) 98 (0Q) 99 (5Q) 100 (1Q) 101 (3Q) 102 (0Q)

Enalapril Omeprazole Quinapril Diazepam Fluconazole Ramipril Valsartan Amlodipine; Benazepril Penicillin VK Acetaminophen; Oxycodone Glipizide Extended-Release Potassium Chloride Tramadol Azithromycin Carisoprodol Desloratadine Verapamil Sustained-Release Doxycycline Ethinyl Estradiol; Norelgestromin Valdecoxib Isosorbide Mononitrate Glyburide Methylprednisolone Tablets Paroxetine HCl Controlled-Release Clonidine Allopurinol Pioglitazone Losartan Albuterol Nebulizer Solution Valsartan; Hydrochlorothiazide Ciprofloxacin Rosiglitazone Lisinopril; Hydrochlorothiazide Folic Acid Risperidone Mometasone Nasal Digoxin Rabeprazole Warfarin Benazepril Metformin Extended-Release Fexofenadine; Pseudoephedrine

Generic (Vasotec) Generic (Prilosec) Accupril Generic (Valium) Diflucan Altace Diovan Lotrel Generic (many) Generic (Percocet, Tylox) Glucotrol XL Klor-Con Generic (Ultram) Zithromax Suspension Generic (Soma) Clarinex Generic (Calan; Isoptin; Verelan) Generic (Adoxa; Vibramycin) Ortho Evra Bextra Generic (Imdur; ISMO; Monoket) Generic (Glycron; Micronase) Generic (Medrol, others) Paxil CR Generic (Catapres) Generic (Aloprim; Zyloprim) Actos Cozaar Generic (Proventil; Ventolin) Diovan HCT Cipro Avandia Generic (Prinzide; Zestoretic) Generic Risperdal Nasonex Digitek Aciphex Coumadin Lotensin Glucophage XR Allegra-D

103 (0Q) 104 (0Q) 105 (0Q) 106 (2Q) 107 (0Q) 108 (6Q)

Methylphenidate Concerta Olanzapine Zyprexa Tamsulosin Flomax Amoxicillin Amoxil Promethazine Tablets Generic (Phenergan) Oxycodone OxyContin Amphetamine; DextroamphetamineExtended109 (1QA; (0QD) Adderall XR Release 110 (0Q) Estradiol Oral Generic (Climara; Estrace, others) 111 (0Q) Raloxifene Evista 112 (0Q) Fluticasone Inhalation Flovent 113 (0Q) Temazepam Generic (Restoril) 114 (0QL;3QH) Losartan; Hydrochlorothiazide Hyzaar 115 (0Q) Fenofibrate Tricor 116 (0Q) Glimepiride Amaryl 117 (1QG;3QM) Glyburide; Metformin Glucovance 118 (2QA;4QI) Albuterol; Ipratropium Combivent 119 (1Q) Spironolactone Generic (Aldactone) 120 (0Q) Drospirenone; Ethinyl Estradiol Yasmin 28 121 (0Q) Risedronate Actonel 122 (0Q) Latanoprost Xalatan 123 (2Q) Digoxin Lanoxin 124 (0Q) Doxazosin Generic (Cardura) 125 (0Q) Metronidazole Tablets Generic (Flagyl) 126 (0Q) Valacyclovir Valtrex 127 (0Q) Hydroxyzine Generic (Atarax; Hyzine; Vistaril) 128 (0Q) Quetiapine Seroquel 128 (0Q) Cetirizine Syrup Zyrtec Syrup 129 (2Q) Gemfibrozil Generic (Lopid) 130 (6Q) Triamcinolone Acetonide Topical Generic (Kenalog) 131 (0Q) Metoclopramide Generic (Reglan) 132 (0Q) Meclizine HCl Generic (Antivert) 133 (0Q) Divalproex Sodium Depakote 134 (2QC;0QP) Codeine; Promethazine Generic (None) 135 (0Q) Levothyroxine Levothroid 136 (0Q) Minocycline Generic (Arestin; Minocin) 137 (2Q) Clindamycin Systemic Generic (Cleocin) 138 (0Q) Azithromycin Zithromax 139 (0Q) Metaxalone Skelaxin 140 (5QA;5QT)) Acetaminophen; Tramadol Ultracet 141 (0QB;3QH) Bisoprolol; Hydrochlorothiazide Generic (Ziac) 142 (0Q) Estrogens; conjugated; Medroxyprogesterone Prempro

143 (5QA;6QO) Acetaminophen; Oxycodone 144 (0Q; manyA) Insulin Glargine 145 (0Q) Cefdinir 146 (2QA;2QC) Amoxicillin; Potassium Clavulanate 147 (0Q) Topiramate 148 (0Q) Irbesartan 149 (0Q) Nitrofurantoin 150 (2QA;0QB) Acetaminophen; Butalbital; Caffeine 151 (2Q) Famotidine 152 (0Q) Omeprazole 153 (0Q) Sumatriptan Oral 154 (0Q) Glipizide 155 (0Q) Carvediol 156 (0Q) Human Insulin Isophane (Recombinant) 157 (0Q) Tolterodine long-acting 158 (3Q) Budesonide Nasal 159 (0Q) Terazosin 160 (1Q) Buspirone HCl 161 (8Q) Propranolol HCl 162 (3Q) Diltiazem CD 163 (0Q) Ezetimibe 164 (6Q) Triamcinolone Acetonide Nasal 165 (3Q) Diltiazem Extended-Release 166 (1Q) Fosinopril 167 (0Q) Medroxyprogesterone Tablets 168 (0Q) Ethinyl Estradiol; Levonorgestrel 169 (0Q) Cefprozil 170 (2Q;manyA) Acyclovir 171 (2Q) Clarithromycin Extended-Release 172 (2Q) Lovastatin 173 (0Q) Mupirocin 174 (0Q) Nifedipine Extended-Release 175 (0Q) Insulin Lispro 176 (0Q) Ciprofloxacin HCl 177 (3Q) Fentanyl Transdermal 178 (0Q) Olopatadine 179 (1Q) Paroxetine 180 (0Q) Clotrimazole; Betamethasone 181 (2Q) Captopril 182 (0Q) Polyethylene Glycol 3350 183 (0Q) Cetirizine; Pseudoephedrine 184 (0Q) Atomoxetine

Endocet Lantus Omnicef Augmentin ES-600 Topamax Avapro Macrobid Generic (Esgic; Fioricet) Generic (Pepcid) Prilosec Imitrex Oral Generic (Glucotrol) Coreg Humulin N Detrol LA Rhinocort Aqua Generic (Hytrin) Generic (Buspar) Generic (Inderal) Generic (Cardizem) Zetia Nasacort AQ Cartia XT Monopril Generic (Depo-Provera, Provera) Aviane Cefzil Generic (Zovirax) Biaxin XL Generic (Mevacor) Bactroban Generic (Adalat; Procardia) Humalog Generic (Ciloxan; Cipro) Duragesic Patanol Generic (Paxil) Generic (Lotrisone) Generic (Capoten) Miralax Zyrtec-D Strattera

185 (0Q) 186 (4Q) 187 (0Q) 188 (4Q) 189 (0Q) 190 (0Q) 191 (0Q) 192 (0Q) 193 (0Q) 194 (0Q) 195 (8Q) 196 (0Q) 197 (0Q) 198 (0Q) 199 (0Q) 200 (0Q)

Benzonatate Aspirin; Enteric-Coated Ethinyl Estradiol; Levonorgestrel Phenytoin Sodium Extended Nortriptyline Tizanidine HCl Ferrous Sulfate Pimecrolimus Human Insulin Regular/Isophane (Recombinant) Diclofenac Sodium Propranolol Long-Acting Donepezil Chlorpheniramine Maleate; Hydrocodone Desogestrel; Ethinyl Estradiol Oxybutynin Chloride Extended-Release Phenazopyridine HCl

Generic (Tessalon) Generic (none) Trivora-28 Dilantin Kapseals Generic (Pamelor) Generic (Zanaflex) Generic (none) Elidel Humulin 70/30 Generic (Voltaren) Inderal LA Aricept Tussionex Apri Ditropan XL Generic (Eridium; Urodol)

Good Luck to all and there is no substitute for long hours studying!! Dr. Clark