Pharma 100q.

BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS SELECT THE BEST ANSWER 1. The action of a drug on the body, including receptor interactions, dose receptors phenomena and mechanism of therapeutic and toxic action is: A. toxicology C. pharmacogenetics B. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacodynamics*** 2.True of metabolism: A. aims to make the drug more polar and readily excretable*** B. aims to make the drug more effective C. aims to make the drug stay in the body longer D. aims to make the drug less toxic 3. If the plasma concentration of drug declines with “first order kinetics” this means that: A. there is only one metabolic path for drug disposition B. the half life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration*** C. the drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability D. the drug is not distributed outside the vascular system 4.Distribution of drugs in specific tissues: A. is independent of blood flow to the organ B. is independent of the solubility of the drug in that tissue C. depends on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and the tissue*** D. has no effect on the half life of the drug 5.A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them A. pharmacologic antagonism*** B. physiological antagonism C. partial antagonist D. chemical antagonist 6. A drug that binds a reception to produce an effect is called: A. Agonist*** B. Antagonist C. pro-drug D. metabolite 7. Phase of clinical trial that involves “many doctors & many patients”: A. PHASE I B.PHASE II C.PHASE III*** D.PHASE IV 8. The main excitatory transmitter in the CNS s: A. Glutamate*** B. aspartate C. glycine D. GABA

9. A benzodiazepine which is the drug of choice for status epilepticus: A. Flurazepam B. triazolam C. diazepam*** D. midazolam 10. Benzodiazepines binding to the GABA receptors leads to: A. Increased frequency of GABA chloride channel opening*** B. Prolonged duration of GABA chloride channel opening C. Decreased frequency of GABA chloride channel opening D. Shortens duration of GABA chloride channel opening 11.Effects of hypnotic sedatives on sleep, EXCEPT: A. decreased sleep latency B. decrease duration of slow wave sleep C. increase duration of NREM stage 2 sleep D. increase duration of REM sleep*** 12. True regarding Ethosuximide: A. inhibits sodium channel B. drug of choice in absence seizures*** C. causes neural tube defects D. all of the above 13. Given orally it causes sedation and also ‘resets the biological clock being used for the purpose to counter jet lag: A. nitric oxide B. melatonin*** C. purines D. arachidonic acid 14. Useful for manic-depressive patients; it has its effect by altering intracellular concentration of inositol triphosphate: A.imipramine B. fluoxetine C. isocarboxacid D. lithium salts*** 15.The general mechanism of action of neuroleptic drug is: A. inhibition of GABA receptors B. increase dopamine activity C. decrease dopamine activity*** D. Increase lipid solubility of the drugs 16. This nonselective adrenergic agonist is an effective bronchodilator agent, it is now considered as the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock: A. epinephrine*** C. tertabulline B. isoproterenol D. metaproterenol 17. This mucolytic agent is also used as an antidote for paracetamol poisoning: A. Carbocysteine B. acetylcysteine**** C. bromhexine D. ambroxoll

18.Isoniazid is recommended as a “prophylactic agent for the following, EXCEPT: A. Who are close contacts of an active case of tuberculosis B. in children whose PPD test is positive within 2 years after a documented negative skin test(recent converters) C. who are immunocompromised esp HIV infected and AIDS patients D. children who are malnourished or with no vitamin supplement**** 19.This is the most significant major side effects of isoniazid A. Hepatitis*** C. deafness B. retro bulbar neuritis D. hemolysis 20. Drug A causes a decrease of blood pressure from 10 –20 mm Hg Drug B causes a decrease of blood pressure from 5 –10 mm Hg Drug C at 5 mg can lower the blood pressure from 10- 20 mm Hg Drug D at 10 mg can lower the blood pressure from 5 –10 mm Hg Therefore: A. Drug A is more effective than drug B B. Drug C is more potent than drug D C. Drug B and D are equally effective*** D. all of the above 21.Which one of the following is NOT an example of drug-drug interactions? A. drowsiness caused by diphenhydramine*** B. enhanced toxicity of cardiac glycosides when given with thiazide diuretics C. an increase in the metabolism of oral anticoagulants after phenobarbital administration D. increased central nervous system depression on administration of both a barbiturate and narcotic analgesic 22.Given prior to stage performance, this relieves the symptoms of anxiety such as tremors & tachycardia: A. buspirone C. diazepam B. propranolol*** D. phenobarbital 23. Displacement of this drug from plasma protein binding sites by anticoagulants increases its adverse effects, which include nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia & gum hyperplasia: A. valproic acid C. Phenytoin*** B. Carbamazepine D. lamotrigine 24. Phenytoin toxic level is above: A. 8 mg/dl C. 40 mg/dl*** B. 20 mg/dl D. 100 mg/d

25 Effects of dopamine on the nigrostriatal system is associated with: A. emotions C. endocrine effects B. motor control*** D.. eating control 26. This causes the highest incidence of Extra pyramidal effects: A. chlorpromazine C. haloperidol*** B. thiothexine D. clozapine 27. Indicated for osteomyelitis because of its well bone penetration: A. Chloramphenicol C. Spectinomycin B. Clindamycin*** D. gentamycinl 28.Toxic effects of Chloramphenicol except: A. GIT disturbances C. bone marrow depression B. Vaginal candidiasis*** D. Gray baby syndrome 29.The following agents primarily act on the 30 S ribosomal subunit except: A. Chlortetracycline C. amikacin B. Netilmicin D. chloramphenicol*** 30. The parent compound of all semi synthetic penicillin: A. 6 – aminopenicillanic acid*** C. beta lactam ring B. 7-aminocephalosporanic acid D. penicilloic acid 31.A fourth generation cephalosporin: A. Cefpirome *** B. Cephalexin C. Cefuroxime

D. Trimethoprim

32.The following inhibit cell wall synthesis except: A. Vancomycin C. Amocycillin B. Clindamycin*** D. Cefuroxime 33.The cephalosporins containing methyl thiotetrazole group include the following, except: A. Cefuroxime*** B. Cefotetan C. Cefamandole D. Cefoperazone 34.The following are penicillinase resistant except: A. Cloxacillin B Nafcillin C. Amoxicillin*** D. Methicillin 35. The following are the actions of beta lactams except: A. Inhibits transpeptidation B. activation of PBPs C. activation of autolysins D. inhibits translocation***

36.The only agent in the 2nd generation cephalosporins which can produce sufficient CSF level: A. Cephalexin C. Cefprom B. Cefoperazone D. Cefuroxime*** 37.Toxicity that is more pronounced with doxorubicin than with other agents include this potentially irreversible cumulative, dose related : A. cardio toxicity*** C. neurotoxicity B. nephrotoxicity D. pulmotoxicity 38.An estrogen receptor antagonist which is useful for post-menopausal breast cancer is: A. megastrol C. flutamide B. tamoxifen *** D. leuprolide 39.The major site of alkylation within DNA of alkylating agents is the ____ position of guanine: A. N1 C. N5 B. N 3 D. N7*** 40.TRUE regarding vincristine, EXCEPT A. a spindle poison B. useful in acute leukemia in children C. arrest mitotic cycle D. causes marked bone marrow suppression*** 41.This plant alkaloid is popularly used in ovarian and advanced breast cancer; comes from Western yew and is a mitotic spindle poison: A. etoposide C. Paclitaxel*** B. vincristine D. vinblastine 42. Androgens, estrogens and adrenorecortical hormones all can produce: A. Cardio toxicity C. bone marrow suppression B. fluid retention *** D. nausea and vomiting 43.This antileprosy drug is useful for both multibacillary and paucibacillary type; may cause hemolysis n G6PD deficient patient: A. clofazimine C. Sulfones*** B. Rifampin D. Ofloxaci 44.An adverse effect of sulfonamides in newborns due displacement of bilirubin from binding sites on albumin: A. Photosensitivity C. Hemolytic anemia B. Crystalluria D. Kernicterus***

45.This sulfonamide penetrates ocular tissues and fluids at high concentrations thus is useful in chlamydia trachomatis infection: A. Sulfacetamide*** C. Sulfathiazole B. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole 46.This alkylating related drug is useful in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It has leukemogenic, teratogenic and mutagenic activity. It has a disulfiram like effect and has a MAO inhibitor as its metabolite: A. nitrogen mustard C. Busulfan B. procarbazine*** D. melphalan 47.This anticancer is also useful in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis; its adverse effects can be revered by administration of leucoverin: A. cyclophosphamide C. methotrexate*** B. cytarabine D. Melphalan 48.Parkinson’s Disease can be managed with these dopamine agonist except: A. bromocriptine C. pergolide B. ropinirole D. amantadine*** 49.This cholesterase inhibitor is useful for minizing violent behaviors in Alzheimer’s Disease: A. physostigmine C. arecoline B. neomycin D. donezepil*** 50.The following statements are true in the use of carbidopa in combination with levodopa; EXCEPT: A. reduces the dose needed by about ten fold B. diminishes the peripheral side effects C. conversion to dopamine is largely prevented D. carbidopa rapidly penetrates the brain *** 51. The risk of ischemic heart disease is directly proportional to the concentration of: A. LDL cholesterol*** C. triglycerides B. HDL cholesterol D. VLDL cholesterol 52.MG has an elevated serum cholesterol but with normal triglycerides level. You would prescribed the following: A. clofibrate*** C. Simvastatin B. gemfibrozil D. all of the above 53.ZZ has an elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides. Your choice of hypo lipid agent for ZZ include: A. clofibrate C. niacin B. atorvastatin*** D. all of the above

54. You have prescribed atorvastatin to Mr. Park for his hyperlipedemia. You should advise him to take the drug: A. first thing in the morning C. after breakfast B. last thing before going to bed*** D. any time of the day 55.Atorvastatin causes the following effects EXCEPT: A. decrease hepatic cholesterol synthesis B. increase synthesis of LDL receptors C. decrease clearance of LDL*** D. decrease concentration of LDL cholesterol in plasma 56.Drugs that can be used for the prevention of malaria in travelers, EXCEPT: A. Chloroquine C. mefloquine B. quinine*** D. doxycyline 57.This is an effective luminal amebecidal agent but is not active against tissue trophozoite: A. emetine HCl C. chloroquine B. metronidazole D. diloxanide furoate*** 58.This is a broad-spectrum oral antihelminthis which is the drug of choice for the treatment of hydatid disease and cysticercosis: A. Mebendazole C. thiabendazole B. albendazole*** D. metronidazole 59.Which of the following antimalarial drugs causes a dose-dependent toxic state that includes: flushed and sweaty skin, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, tinnitus, blurred vision, and impaired hearing? A. Amodiaquine C. pyrimethamine B. Primaquine D. quinine*** 60. Antihypertensive agent of choice in a patient with diabetes mellitus and protenuria: A. beta blocker C. diuretics B. ACE inhibitors*** D. calcium channel blockers 61. OF the insulin secretagogues, this is least that cause hypoglycemia as its adverse effect: A. nateglinide*** C. glifizide B. miglitide D. glibenclamide 62. A short acting insulin that can be given intravenously: A. insulin lispro C. insulin ultralente B. regular insulin*** D. insulin glargine

63. Mechanism of action of nitrates in smooth muscles: A. activated adenyl cyclase B. inactivates adenyl cyclase C. activates guanylyl cyclase*** D. inactivated guanylyl cyclase 64. The following are drugs with positive inotropic effect, EXCEPT: A digoxin B. hydrochlorothiazide*** C. amrinone D. dobutamine 65. A 21 year old male sustained a severe head in a car accident and found to have an elevated intracranial pressure. CT scanning showed no intracranial hemorrhage. You would start on: A. amiloride*** B. mannitol C. furosemide D. benzthiazide 66. Most common adverse effect associated with diuretics: A. hypotension C. anorexia B. fluid and electrolyte imbalance*** D. nausea and vomiting 67.Hypokalemia is an adverse effect with the following, Except: A. spironolactone*** C. furosemide B. acetazolamide D. hydrochlorothiazide 68. This binds to a proton pump, H+/K+ATPase located in the luminal membrane of the parietal cells and inhibits it irreversibly: A. ranitidine C. omeprazole*** B. Sucralfate D. misoprostol 69. This nonselective cholinergic blocking agent is an antidote for organophosphate pesticides poisoning: A. trimethaphan C. tubocurarine B. nadolol D. atropine*** 70.This is the metabolic precursors of noradrenaline and adrenaline which functions as a neurotransmitter in its own right in the brain and possibly also in the periphery: A. norepinephrine C. dopamine*** B. epinephrine D. isoprenaline 71 The cholinesterase inhibitor that is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is: A. edrophonium chloride*** C. physostigmine salicylate B. malathion D. ambinonium hydrochlorid 72. The cholinomimetic that is useful for treating postoperative abdominal distention and gastric atony is: A. Acetylcholine C. Carbachol B. Methacholine D. bethanechol***

73. This drug has a very high affinity for the phosphorus atom in parathion and is often used to treat insecticide toxicity: A. Tubocurarine C. scopolamine B. Trimethaphan D. pralidoxime*** 74. Important characteristics of non-depolarizing blocking agents: A. It is reversible by anticholinesterase drugs*** B. Produces initial fasciculation and often postoperative muscle pain C. It is hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterase and is normally very short-acting D. All of the above 75. This IV anesthetic is moderately rapid in its onset and recovery; causes cardiovascular stimulation and increased cerebral blood flow. Emergence reactions impair recovery: A. Etomadate C. midazolam B. ketamine *** D. propolol 76. This inhalational anesthetics has a low blood: gas partition coefficient but is not used for induction of anesthesia because of its pungency, it causes patient to hold their breath? A. sevoflurane C. Halothane B. Isoflurane D. Desflurane*** 77. Most serious toxic reactions to local anesthetics are due to: A. convulsions from excessive blood levels *** B. conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin C. its direct effect on the cardiac muscles D. its toxicity to nerve muscles 78.This is not an action of morphine: A. analgesic effect due to stimulation of mu receptors B. Sedations and euphoria due to the stimulation of mu receptors C. antitussive effects due to depression o the medullary cough center D. decrease in circular muscle tone*** 79. The clinical use of disulfiram depends on its ability to inhibit this enzyme: A. adenylyl cyclase B. cytochrome P450 C. alcohol dehydrogenase D. aldehyde dehydrogenase*** 80. This vasoactive peptide dilates arterioles, contracts veins, intestinal, and bronchial smooth muscle, causes diuresis, and is a transmitter in sensory pain neurons: A. endothelins C. substance P*** B. bradykinin D. vasoactive intestinal peptide

81. TRUE regarding heparin, EXCEPT: A. primarily given by parenteral route B. used in pregnancy C. liver is site of action*** D. activates anththrombin III 82. This thrombolytic agent is obtained from bacterial cultures; it forms a complex with endogenous plasminogen and provides the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin: A. streptokinase*** C. warfarin B. urokinase D. t-PA 83.The effects of aspirin does not include: A. reduction of fever B. reduction of prostaglandin synthesis in inflamed tissues C. reduction of bleeding tendency*** D. impaired auto regulation of kidney function 84. Actions of thyroxine do not include: A. acceleration of cardiac rate B. increased appetite C. decreased glomerular filtration rate*** D. stimulation of oxygen consumption 85. The following are effects of the glucocorticoid, EXCEPT: A. altered fat deposition B. inhibition of leukotriene synthesis C. increased blood glucose D. increased skin protein synthesis*** 86. All of the following are recognized effects of combined oral contraceptives, except: A. breakthrough bleeding B. increased risk of ovarian cancer*** C. decreased risk of endometrial cancer D. increased risk of ischemic stroke E. 87.This guanosine analog is used for treatment of mucocutaneous and genital herpes lesion and for prophylaxis in AIDS: A. acyclovir*** C. Zidovudine B. Amantadine D. Interferon 88. Successful therapy of congestive heart failure with digoxin will result in which one of the following? A. decreased heart rate*** B. increased after load C. increased renin secretion\increased after load D. increased sympathetic outflow to the heart

89. Succinylcholine are peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants that are sometimes used to: A. treat trauma to the spinal cord B. treat neuromuscular diseases C. act as adjuncts to general anesthesia*** D. relieve spasms from traumatic injuries 90. Which of the following statements is true with regards to the therapeutic uses of iron: A. enteric coated tablets are better absorbed than the immediately released tablet B. ferrous and ferric salts differ in their bioavailability C. oral ferrous sulfate is the treatment of choice for iron deficiency*** D. medicinal iron preparations are relatively non-toxic to children 91. Anti-arrhythmic agent that can be given intravenously in the treatment of malaria: A. phenytoin B. procainanide C. quinidine*** D. chloroquine 92. What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine as an immunosuppressive agent used in human organ transplantation? A. interferes with DNA synthesis and function B. inhibits T cell generation in response to transplant antigens*** C. intensifies the production of T lymphocytes D. inhibits B cell imunoglobulin production 93 Patients with photophobia , excessive lacrimation, stomatitis, cheilosis and keratitis are usually deficient in: A. ascorbic acid B. cyanocobalamine C. riboflavin*** D. thiamine 94. An anti-thyroid agent that is used days before surgery in order to diminish the size and vascularity the hyperplastic thyroid gland: A. Methimazole C. propylthiouracil B. iodides*** D. liothyronine 95.The drug of choice for the treatment of chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is: A. amphotericin B C. metronidazole B. Ketoconazole D. nystatin*** 96. The most commonly used antibiotic in topical preparation with a very low incidence of hypersensitivity reaction: A. clotrimazole C. griseofulvin B. bacitracin*** D. cephalexin

97. Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be effective in the treatment of an infection caused by S. aureus? A. amoxycillin *** C. cefazolin B. nafocillin D. oxacillin 98. The physiologic functions of thyroid hormones are characterized by the following, EXCEPT: A. insulin like effects B. increased oxygen consumption*** C. hypolipoproteinemic effects D. enhanced basal metabolic rate 99. Malignant hyperthermia is used to be one or the causes of death in anesthesia. This is associated with widespread rigidity and enhanced heat production by muscle. Which of the following drugs is used to counter act this effect: A. neostigmine B. atropine C. dantrolene*** D. succinylcholine 100. What do we call drugs that mimic the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A. antiadrenergics C. adrenergics*** B. cholinergics D. anticholinergics ***** ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS REFERENCES: (1)BASIC & CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY 8TH EDTION BERTRAM KATZUNG (2)BOODMAN & GILMAN’S: THE PHARMACOLOGICAL BASIS OF THERAPEUTICS 10TH EDITION EDITED BY HARMAN & LIMBIRD

REVIEW QUESTIONS DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY FATIMA COLLEGE OF MEDICINE OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITY VALENZUELA CITY