para samplex 2nd sem.doc

PARASITOLOGY HEMA MODULE 1. Which of the following malarial stages is highly susceptible to primaquine phosphate? A. Hypnozoites B. Ookinete C. Mature trophozoites D. Immature trophpozoites 2. Which of the following is NOT a current strategy for malarial control? A. Vaccine development B. Mass drug administration C. Rapid diagnostic test development D. Blood transfusion 3. Which of the following statements regarding severe malaria is FALSE? A. Cerebral malaria is just one manifestation of severe malaria. B. Treatment for sever malaria is with intravenous quinidine. C. Manifestations include renal failure and jaundice. D. Cerebral malaria is usually caused by Plasmodium malariae. 4. A friend going to Puerto Galera in Mindoro asks you to prescribe an anti-malarial agent for prophylaxis. Being a good friend, you prescribe doxycycline and instruct him to take one tablet: A. Daily, 2 days before until he leaves the area B. Daily, for the entire duration of this stay up until 4 days after C. Weekly, 2 weeks before up until 4 weeks after D. Daily, 2 days before until 4 weeks after 5. Which of the following is NOT considered an anti-malarial drug? A. Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine B. Atovaquone-proguanil C. Trimethoprim-sulfametoxazole D. Artemisin/Arthemeter 6. When administering anti-malarial drugs, resistance patterns should be considered especially when considering which species? A. Plasmodium falciparum + ovale B. Plasmodium vivax + falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale + malariae D. Plasmodium malariae + vivax 7. All of the following statements about the hemoflagellates are true EXCEPT: A. They are arthropod borne parasites. B. They carry an extra-nuclear DNA. C. All stages of development are provided with the undulating membrane. D. None of the above.

8. Which of the following Trypanosoma species is NOT pathogenic to humans? A. Trypanosoma brucei brucei B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense 9. In leishmaniasis, which of the following is the infective stage? A. Amastigote B. Promastigote C. Epimastigote D. Trypomastigote 10. Evasion of the host immune responses occurs in African trypanosomiasis due to the ability of the parasites to: A. Produce isoenzymes B. Produce variant surface glycoproteins C. Invade the central nervous system D. All of the above 11. During the initial infection with African trypanosomiasis, there is enlargement of the posterior cervical lymph nodes known as: A. Mott reaction B. Romana’s sign C. Winterbottom’s sign D. Kerandel sign 12. Which of the following is associated with Reduviid bugs? A. South American trypanosomiasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. None of the above GI MODULE 1 1. Capillaria philippinensis is an example of a parasite with a life cycle that has: a. Typical female adults b. Atypical female adults c. Both a and B d. Neither a nor b 2. Taenia solium infection is likely absent among the following groups of people: a. Christians b. Hindus c. Muslims d. Baptists 3. Abdominal pain may be a manifestation of: a. Hookworm infection b. Giant roundworm infection

c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 4. Capillaria philippinensis has potential to be introduced to a previously non-endemic area through: a. Migrants from an endemic area b. Fish-eating bird c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b 5. All of the following statements about enterobiasis are true EXCEPT: a. Pruritusani is caused by the female adult worm laying eggs in the perianal area b. The eggs become infective a few days after being laid. c. Hand-to-mouth and inhalation of eggs are modes of transmission d. It is prevalent in both tropical and temperate regions 6. Which of the following statements applies to the cellulose tape swab? a. It is useful in the diagnosis of enterobiasis alone. b. It indicates true negativity if no eggs are seen doing the test for 7 consecutive days. c. It is highly sensitive in the diagnosis of Enterobius and other soiltransmitted helminthes. d. It is best done during the night when pinworms are known to lay eggs. 7. Enterobiasis may be transmitted through the following modes of transmission: a. Contact-borne b. Direct transmission c. Airborne d. All of the above 8. All of the following factors are contributory to the spread of enterobiasis EXCEPT: a. absence or sanitary toilets b. lack of personal hygiene c. lack of adequate water supply d. overcrowding 9. Which of the following is the best preventive measure for ascariasis? a. Washing hands before eating b. Cooking food well c. Boiling water prior to drinking d. None of the above 10. Loffler’s syndrome may be seen in which of the following conditions? a. Ascariasis b. Hookworm infection c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 11. Cholecystitis may be a complication of infection with:

a. b. c. d.

Trichuris trichuria Ascarislum bricoides both a and b neither a nor b 12. Which of the following has a peanut-shaped egg? a. Capillariap hilippinensis b. Enterobius vermicaularis c. Necator americanus d. Ancyclostoma duodenale 13. Heavy infection with Diphyllobothriumlatum may lead to: a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia c. Lymphocytic leukemia d. Aplastic anemia 14. Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of cestode and most trematode infections? a. Albendazole b. Praziquantel c. Mebendazole d. Metronidazole 15. Which of the following is the parameter used to determine success in the treatment of tapeworms? a. Release of gravid segments b. Absence of eggs from the stools c. Recovery of the scolex d. All of the above GI MODULE 2 1. A liver biopsy or a patient with hepatomegaly revealed a… 1cm worm with a cone-shaped demarcated from the body. This parasite most probably belongs to which cpecies? a. Fasciola b. Clonorchis c. Schistosoma d. Opisthorchis 2. Which of the following is the natural habitat of the infective stage of Fasciola just before… a. herbivorous animals b. fresh water snails c. watercress d. fresh water fisher 3. A CT-scan of the liver and biliary tract showed a liver abscess. Which of the following will tell your consultant as a proof that this just might be amoebic in origin? a. Large, solitary cyst

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b. Cyst with multiple septations c. Cyst with a thick capsule d. Presence of fever in the patient Which of the following would NOT help you differentiate Fasciola from Clonorchis? a. Morphology of the eggs b. Common biliary obstruction symptoms c. Treatment drugs used d. Morphology of adults The acute phase of Fascioliasis is due to which process? a. Migration of juvenile larvae b. Passage of eggs through the biliary tract c. Ingestion of infective stage d. Reactions to the drugs used for treatment A Thai suffers from cholangiocarcinoma. Which of the following parasitic agent will you likely suspect as the etiologic agent? a. Fasciola b. Clonorchis c. Schistosoma d. Opisthorchis e. multiple caseous material seen on the liver parenchyma during open biopsy Which of the following may be given as empiric drug of choice for pyogenic liver abscess? a. Metronidazole + Fluoroquinolone b. Beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitors c. Carbapenems d. Any of the above Amoebic liver abscess results from invasion of the liver parenchyma by: a. Entamoeba coli and Entamoeba histolytica b. Entamoeba coli only c. Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar d. Entamoeba histolytica only

FEMALE REPRO 58. Trichomoniasis vaginalis must be clinically differentiated from which of the following conditions? a. candidiasis b. bacterial vaginitis c. moniliasis d. all of the above 59. Scabies and phtiriasis infestations are transmitted through all of the following methods EXCEPT: a. close body conatact

b. sexual intimacy c. sharing of bed and clothing d. none of the above 60. Which of the following organisms have been incriminated to cause the “gay bowel syndrome” a. Salmonellae b. Entameoba histolytica c. Giardia lamblia d. all of the above 61. All of the following are drugs of choice in the treatment of trichomoniasis EXCEPT: a. metronidazole b. gamma benzene hexachloride c. tinidazole d. albendazole 62. The fact that trichomoniasis has venereal transmission has been supported by studies showing all of the following results EXCEPT: a. High prevalence is observed among groups of sexually active individuals. b. Infection is observed to occur with other sexually transmitted diseases. c. Appearance of infection among household contacts but not sexual partners. d. Cure rate is high when sexual partners are simultaneously treated. NEURO 1. Which of the following groups of parasites are NOT known to cause diseases? a. Protozoans b. Tapeworms c. Roundworms d. NOTA 2. Hydatid disease is caused by a parasite belonging to which of the following classes? a. Cestodes b. Protozoa c. Trematodes d. Nematodes 3. A patient presents [with] a stiff neck and with a CSF profile high in eosinophils. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his condition?

a. b. c. d.

Cestode Protozoan Trematode Nematode

4. What would happen if we ingest Taenia solium cysts from poorly cooked infected meat products? a. We may develop sleeping sickness. b. We can die within a few days. c. We can pass out gravid proglottids. d. We can develop neurocysticercosis. 5. In the management of Echinococcus infection, the PAIR method can be utilized. In this procedure, the “R” stands for: a. Reabsorption b. Reaspiration c. Removal of cyst d. Reinstallation of scolicidal agent 6. The definitive diagnosis of coenurus can be made with which of the following techniques? a. Microscopy b. CT scan c. Plain X-ray d. Ultrasound 7. An AIDS patient suffers from localized but progressive paresthesia and weakness. Which of the following is the most common agent that can be attributed to this disease? a. Toxoplasma b. Echinococcus c. Naegleria d. Acanthamoeba 8. Tsetse flies are notorious for bringing which kind of CNS parasitic disease? a. Leishmaniasis b. Trypanosomiasis c. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalopathy d. Echinococcosis 9. A few days after wading in a lake, a patient complains of headache and loss of taste. Which of the following would be your treatment regimen? a. Pentamidine combination therapy b. Praziquantel therapy c. Amphotericin B therapy

d. Chloroquine therapy 10. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat neurocysticercosis? a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Corticosteroids d. NOTA INTEG MODULE 1. Which of the following anthropods burrows and feeds on human dermal scales? a. Sarcoptes scabiei b. Phthirus pubis c. Pediculus d. All of the above 2. Which of the following mosquitoes prefers to bite humans during daytime? a. Anopheles b. Culex c. Aedes d. Mansonia 3. Which of the following is also known as house dust mite? a. Demodex folliculorum b. Sarcoptes scabiei c. Dermatophagoides d. Acarus siro 4. Which of the following refers to the bedbug bite? a. Cimicosis b. Pediculosis c. Scabies d. Ascariases 5. All of the following are biological vectors EXCEPT: a. Mosquitoes b. Houseflies c. Rat fleas d. Kissing bugs 6. Which of the following is known to cause allergic rhinitis? a. Caterpillar b. Hornet c. House dust mite

d. Flea 7. Which of the following causes urticaria? a. Beetle b. Spider c. Wasp d. Caterpillar 8. Which of the following is NOT a property of anthropod saliva? a. Causes painful bite b. Anticoagulant c. Aids in digestion d. Lubricaiton of mouth parts 9. Which of the following is associated with painfulness of stings? a. Hyaluronidase b. Mellitin c. Serotonin d. Histamine 10. a. b. c. d.

Pruritic lesions are caused by which of the following? Sarcoptes Pediculus Both a & b None of the above