Pance Review Q&A
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A PANCE REVIEW b Study online at quizlet.com/_9h06b 1.
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"pencil in cup" deformities
proximal phalanx on radiograph in psoriatic arthritis
ABI of peripheral artery disease
decreased libido
28.
ADRs of Niacin
facial flushing Increase in serum uric acid levels ( x gout patients) increase in gastric acid secretion ( x gerd patients) abnormal LFTs
29.
Adult hemoglobin
2 alpha 2 beta chains
alcoholic with DOE, heart failure
primary dilated CM
alcoholic with palpitations, arrhythmia
afib (holiday heart)
17.
18.
19.
Risk factors: local arterial trauma septic emboli endocarditis hypercoagulable state
80% of primary sclerosing cholangitis is assoc with?
IBD, generally UC
90% of acute bronchitis is caused by?
viruses: rhinovirus, coronavirus, RSV
abdominal pain that improves with food
duodenal ulcer (gastric ulcer-pain worsens with food)
ABI indicative of PAD
5days w/o fever
acute bronchitis.
cough which persists for 3 months in 2 successive years
chronic bronchitis
cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis
Measles (rubeola)
crescendodecrescendo holosystolic at LSB radiating to back
Tetralogy of Fallot
Crescendodecrescendo systolic murmur heard best at 2nd IC space
congenital aortic stenosis
CREST
calcinosis cutis Raynauds Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangectasia
212.
CT of epidural hematoma
lens-shaped, convex hyperdensity
213.
Cushings disease psych sx's?
irritability agitation hypomania panic attacks
214.
CXR finding of adenocarcinoma lung ca
small peripheral lesions
CXR finding of klebsiella/aspiration pneumonia
Right upper lobe abscess
216.
CXR finding of Large cell lung ca
Large peripheral lesions
217.
CXR finding of small cell lung ca
mediastinal mass/lymph nodes or Coin lesion
218.
CXR finding of squamous cell lung ca
Central bronchus solitary tumor
219.
CXR of acute bronchiolitis
can be normal or air trapping peribronchial thickening
220.
CXR of aortic valve disorders
LAE and ventricular hypertrophy
221.
CXR of mitral valve disorders
atrial enlargement alone
222.
CXR of mycoplasma or viral infections
patchy diffuse infiltrates
CXR of pneumococcal pneumonia
lobar consolidation
CXR of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
diffuse interstitial infiltrates
CXR: fibrocavitary apical disease, nodules, infiltrates, posterior and apical segments of the right upper lobe, apical-posterior segments of the left upper lobe, superior segments of the lower lobes.
Reactivation TB
CXR: homogeneous infiltrates, hilar/paratracheal lymph node enlargement, segmental atelectasis, cavitations with progressive disease
primary TB
215.
criteria used to dx infective endocarditis
Dukes
cryptococcus pneumonia pts are at risk for developing what
meningitis
cryptococcus pneumonia tx
amphotericin B
223.
CSF lab findings in bacterial meningitis
appearance: cloudy WBCs: elevated (PMNs) Glucose: decreased (bacteria eat glucose)/ Protein:increased pressure: increased
224.
CSF opening pressure in bacterial vs viral meningitis
Bacterial: increased Viral: normal
CT chest of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
diffused patchy fibrosis with pleural based honeycombing
225.
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229. 230.
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237. 238.
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DASH diet
low saturated fat, cholesterol, and total fat increased fruits, vegetables fat-free/low-fat milk increased fiber
DDAVP challenge test in central vs nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
central: decrease urine output and increase urine osmolarity nephrogenic: will not decrease urine output.
deadly complication of Graves
thyroid storm
decreased active and passive ROM
adhesive capsulitis
definition of chronic mesenteric ischemia (CMI)
blood supply is present but insufficient to meet the needs of the intestine
definition of preload
volume of blood in ventricle at end-diastole
Definitive dx for PCP pneumonia
Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid eval (PCR)
definitive dx of TB requires
identification of mycobacterium tuberculosis from cultures or by DNA/RNA amplification techniques
definitive tx for varicose veins 300mOsm
non-ketotic hyperglycemia or hyperosmolar coma
most common inherited cause of unconjugated hyperbillirubinemia
Gilberts disease
most common interstitial lung disease
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most common joints involved in pseudogout
knee wrist elbow
660.
667.
668.
669.
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672.
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most common ocular disorder of MS
optic neuritis
most common opportunistic infection in HIV
PJP
Most common organism in septic arthritis? Tx?
Staph Aureus. Dicloxacillin
most common organism of bacterial septic arthritis
s. aureus
most common organisms of otitis media
strep. pneumoniae H. inlfuenza Moraxella cat
most common overuse injury of the elbow
lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
most common pathogen of acute cholangitis
E. coli
most common presenting sign signs of primary sclerosing cholangitis
jaundice and pruritis
most common primary benign bone tumor of the hand
enchondroma (cartilaginous tumor)
most common primary malignant bone tumor? presentation?
osteosarcoma. pain and a mass in the distal femur or proximal tibia.
most common reason for intraoperative MI?
hypotension
most common salter harris fx
Type 2 (metaphysis and physis)
most common secondary cause of hyperparathyroidism
phosphate retention in chronic kidney diseaseleads to renal osteodystrophy
most common site for a talus fracture
neck-risk of osteonecrosis
most common site of aortic dissection
infra-renal
most common site of prostate cancer
peripheral zone
most common site of scoliosis
1. right thoracic curves at T7 or T8 2. double major (right thoracic & left lumbar)
most common spinal cord tumor
ependymoma
most common symptom of scleroderma
raynauds
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Most common symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis
Ptosis (pupil size is always normal) diplopia jaw fatigue dysarthria
most common tarsal fx
calcaneus (r/o spine injury)
most common tumor that causes ectopic ACTH
small cell carcinoma of the lung- produces hypercortisolism and hypokalemia
most common type of bronchogenic carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
700.
most common valvulopathy assoc with angina
aortic stenosis
701.
most people with MI will die of what
V-fib
702.
Most sensitive cardiac biomarker
Troponin I
703.
most sensitive lab test to dx herpes simplex virus?
PCR
704.
most sensitive test for detecting ACL injury
Lachmans test
Most specific cardiac biomarker
CK-MB
Moth eaten bone destruction
osteomyelitis
motor deficit from herniation to L3-L4?
quadriceps
motor deficit from herniation to L4-L5?
dorsiflexion
motor deficit from herniation to L5-S1?
plantar flexion
mousy urine
PKU
mucopurulent cercicitis and a red, swollen and fraible cervix - dx and tx?
gonorrhea. tx with ceftriaxone
multiple hamartomas or polyps scattered throughout the entire GI tract.
peutz-jeughers syndrome
murmur & hx of rheumatic heart disease
mitral stenosis#1 tricuspid stenosis #2
murmur associated with aortic regurgitation
austin flint murmur
murmur associated with Ebstein anomaly
Tricuspid regurgitation
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706. 707.
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murmur of pulmonary hypertension
Graham steell murmur- high pitched early diastolic decrescendo murmur heard over the left upper to left midsternal area.
murmurs that get louder with exhalation
Aortic and mitral murmurs
murmurs that get louder with inspiration
pulmonic and tricuspid murmurs- increases venous return
murmus of mitral valve prolapse
systolic click and late systolic murmur
muscles assoc with deQuervains disease
abductor pollicis longus extensor pollicus brevis
muscles involved in lateral epicondylitis
tendinous insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis
muscles involved in medial epicondylitis
flexor-pronator muscles
Muscles of rotator cuff? tests associated on PE
Supraspinatus-Empty can test (pain with extension of arm and inward rotation Infraspinatus-Elbow to side, resist external rotation of the forearm Teres Minor-external rotation Subscapularis-internal rotation
narrow splitting and accentuation of the second heart sound and a systolic ejection click
pulmonary hypertension
Neer classification
assesses humeral fractures
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus tx
HCTZ ameloride indomethacin
nerve affected in carpal tunnel
median
neuro complications of sarcoidosis
cranial mononeuropathy (Bells Palsy) peripheral neuropathy hypothalmic inflammation with central diabetes insipidus
new murmur after MI
mitral regurgitation (papillary muscle rupture)
newborn after the first month of life when lacrimal duct does not open
dacryostenosis (usually resolves by 9 months of age- tx: warm compress/massage)
Newborn infant with meconium ileus
think CF
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723. 724.
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727.
Niacin deficiency
Pellegra (4 D's-dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death), bright red tongue
nonpharmacologic measures in CHF
progressive aerobic exercise low-sodium diet stress reduction
nonbilious vomiting that is projectile
pyloric stenosis
noncaseating granulomas
sarcoidosis
Normal FEV1/FVC ratio
70%
Nosocomial bacterial pneumonia
Pseudomonas
numbness and tingling in ulnar distribution (4 and 5 digits)
cubital tunnel syndrome
obstructive vs restrictive lung disease in regards to FEV/FVC
>70% = restriction 250 Arterial PO2 40inches in men, >35 in women. 2. triglycerides >150 3. HDL200
What is the treament of Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Ursodiol and endoscopic management of stricture liver transplant is the only treatment with a known survival benefit
1245.
what is the virus of EBV
human herpes 4 transmitted by saliva
1246.
what is Virchow's node
Supraclavicular LAD (L>R), metastatic abdominal cancer
what is vision like in a pt with macular degeneration. What can it be measured with?
Metamorphopsia is the phenomenon of wavy or distorted vision and can be measured with an Amsler grid.
What lab finding do you have with PCP pneumonia
Elevated LDH
what lab findings in stool denote an inflammatory process
WBCs
What lab should you check when starting Lithium therapy
BUN/CR q 2-3 months for first 6 months, then avery 6-12 months.
what lab testing will confirm hashimotos thyroiditis autoimmune disease
antithyroid peroxidase antithyroglobulin antibodies
what may be elevated in hepatic carcinoma
AFP
what med can be given to close a PDA
indomethacin
what med can cause pyloric stenosis in an infant
macrolides (clarithromycin)
what med can worsen claudication
Bblockers
what med could cause wheezing and cough in a pt with asthma
beta blockers
1240.
1241.
1242.
1243.
1244.
what is the most common extranodal site for non-hodgkins lymphoma
stomach
what is the most common lab finding in gastric adenocarcinoma
IDA
what is the most common primary malignant bone tumor? second?
1. multiple myeloma 2. osteosarcoma
what is the most infection stage of pertussis
catarrhal stageinsidious onset of sneezing, coryza, loss of appetite, malaise with hacking cough at night. Often misdiagnoses as URI
1247.
1248.
what is the most prevalent form of primary osteoporosis
Type 1 postmenopausal
what is the most sensitive imaging modality for pancreatitis
ERCP
what is the most spastic artery in the body
brachial artery
what is the preferred approach to recurrent SVT
radiofrequency ablation
what is the preferred tx of permanent control of hyperthyroidism. who is it contraindicated in?
Radioactive iodine (131I) ablation. CI in pregnant patients-surgery is preferred.
1249.
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what med should be administered to a pt with Type 1 VWF to control bleeding BEFORE a surgical procedure?
intranasal desmopressin acetate
what med should you give prophylactically when giving chemo
allopurinol (tumor lysis syndrome)
what medications can cause pancreatitis
HIV antiretroviral meds
what meds can exacerbate psoriasis
lithium bblockers anti-malarials
1273.
1274.
1275.
What meds can increase serum Lithium concentrations
HCTZ Metronidazole NSAIDS (except ASA)
what motor nerve root evaluates strength of ankle and great toe dorsiflexion
L5
what must be ruled out in polymyalgia rheumatica
Giant cell arteritis
what must you do while initiating anti-malarial meds
eye exam- can damage rods and cones
1276.
1277.
1278.
1279.
what nerve root is tested by evaluating ankle reflexes and sensation at the posterior calf and lateral foot
S1-weakness of plantar flexion
what other comorbidities are berry aneurysms associated with
polycystic kidney disease coarctation of the aorta
what phase is first half of menstrual cycle?
proliferative estrogen predominant
1280.
1281.
What phase is the second half of menstrual cycle?
secretoryprogesterone predominant. occurs only after ovulation.
What should be avoided in acute diverticultis
barium enema-may cause perforation and peritonitis
what should be considered in adults with dermatomyositis
underlying malignancy
what should not be administered to pts with acute angle closure glaucoma
atropine (mydriatics)
What should you avoid a few days post MI
corticosteroids-can predispose to ventricular wall rupture
1282.
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1287.
what should you screen patients for with Lichen planus
Hep C
what size corneal abrasion needs patching and for how long
>5 to 10mm no longer than 24hours
what test is diagnostic for Addison's
simplified cosyntropin stimulation test. A serum cortisol rise of more than 20 after administration of cosyntropin is normal.
what test is done to r/o a achilles tendon rupture
Thompson test
what test is helpful in detecting a meniscal tear
McMurrays and Apleys
what test is used in Sjogrens to test the lacrimal gland. What is a positive test
Schirmers test. wetting of less than 5 mm of filter paper placed in the lower eyelid for 5 min is positive for decreased secretions
what type of anemia is seen in psoriatic arthritis
normocytic normochromic
what type of bone is affected in Type I osteoporosis
trabecular bone
what type of bone is affected in Type II osteoporosis
trabecular and cortical
what type of COPD presents with tachypnea, use of accessory muscles and diminished breath sounds
Emphysema
what type of heart failure is HOCM
Diastolic
what type of leukemia presents with bleeding into the skin and mucosa or overwhelming infection.
ALL
what type of overdose leads to a high anion gap acidosis?
aspirin overdose
what type of patients are at high risk for epiglottitis
diabetics
what type of shoulder problem is common in diabetics
adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
1288.
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1304.
what type of shunt is in cyanotic congenital heart disease
right to left
1305.
what type of tissue is found in the yellow ligaments of the vertebral column and walls of hollow organs, such as large arteries
elastic connective tissue
1306.
what vaccine should COPD patients get
pneumococcal and influenza yearly
what valve is affected in IVDA endocarditis
tricuspid
what valve is most commonly assoc with IVDA endocarditis
tricuspid
what will scaphoid avascular necrosis look like on radiograph
ground-glass appearance of the proximal pole or increased bone density
wheezing, prolonged expiration
asthma
when does a scaphoid fracture require ORIF
displacement >1mm
1312.
when is a posterior dislocation? what is seen on xray
seizures and electrocution light bulb sign
1313.
1307.
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1310.
1311.
When is AFP measured? why
16-18wks, neural tube defects
when placing a pt on hydroxychloroquine (plaquenil) for SLE, what exam must you perform?
retinal exams. caution for retinal toxicity (rare but dose dependent)
When should family members of pts with familial polyposis syndrome be monitored
every 1-2 years beginning at age 10-12
when should thrombolytics be administered in an acute MI
if cardiac cath is >90min or not available.
when to hospitalize in acute bronchiolitis
O2 sats 70 Atelectasis on Chest X-Ray
1317.
where are anal fissures most commonly found
posterior midline
1319.
where are most gastrinomas found
pancreas or duodenum
1320.
where do you find increased alpha feto protein
hepatocellular carcinoma germ cell tumor of the testes neural tube defect
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1315.
1316.
1318.
1321.
where does coarctation mostly occur
proximal thoracic aorta (just below the left subclavian artery)
where does spondylosis most commonly occur
C5-6
where does the injury occur in cauda equina
L4-L5
where is the most common site of bony metastasis
spine
which abx may prolong QT interval?
macrolides and some fluoroquinolones
which heart lesion is considered high risk for development of infectious endocarditis?
VSD
which NSCLC can be detected through sputum cytology?
squamous cell carcinoma bc it presents with hemoptysis
which thyroid cancer has high serum calcitonin and CEA
medullary carcinoma
which type of diabetes is at more risk for renal disease
Type I
which type of lung cancer has the highest survival rate
bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma- a subtype of adenocarcinoma
which type of lung cancer is ctyologic exam of sputum diagnostic?
squamous cell
which type of thyroid cancer causes flushing, diarrhea, fatigue and Cushings syndrome
Medullary carcinoma
Why do a CT for orbital cellulitis
Check for underlying subperiosteal abscess or sinusitis
Why do ACEI cause a cough
they increase bradykinins (ARBs do not increase bradykinins therefore do not cause a cough)
why do anorexic pts have amenorrhea
decreased secretion of GnRH
why does graves dz cause hyperthryroidism
autoantibodies attach to TSH receptors and cause hyperfunction of thyroid (TSH receptor antibodies)
why is anorexia and weight loss assoc with gastric ulcer?
because pain worsens with food
why is local spread of esophageal cancer to the mediastinum common?
bc the esophagus has no serosa
1323.
widened pulse pressure
aortic insufficiency
1324.
widening of the softened area of the isthmus (sign)?
Hegars sign
with standing most murmurs diminish, what are two exceptions? Same for valsalva
HOCM-gets louder. MVP-gets longer and louder.
1326.
XXY
Klinefleters (hypogonadism)
1327.
young person with MI or angina
most likely congenital artery aneurysm or congenital cardiac anomaly
1322.
1325.
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