Objective Type Questions(800)Document (2)(1)

Objective Type Questions Q 1 First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world (a) 1976 (b) 1931 (c) 1971 (d) 1944 Q2

BCAS came into existence in the year of (a) 1934 (b) 1937 (c) 1987

(d)

2001

Q3

BCAS came into existence after the recommendation of (a)B N Kirpal Singh committee (b) B D Pandey committee (c) R P Singh Committee (d) Arun mishra committee

Q 4.

Deployment of CISF is a result of ……… a) IC814 hijack b) Kaniska incident c) First hijack d) none of these

Q 5.

Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of ……… a) IC814 hijack b) Kaniska incident c) First hijack d) none of these

Q6

Ramamrithan committee formed at ….. a) 1979 b)1980 c) 1981 d)1982

Q7

When was CISF inducted at airports? a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’1999 c) 10 March 2000 d) 3 Feb’2001

Q8

To provide Training on aviation security is the responsibility of ? a) CASO b) BCAS c) APD d) AAI Appropriate authority on Safety in India? a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports c) BCAS d) DGCA

Q9

Q 10 Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking…? a) Deployment of sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF c) PEC d) SLPC Q 11 In which year the first convention formed? a) 1937 b) 1944 c) 1947 d) 1934 Q12

How many conventions are there ? a) One b) Four c) Five

d) Eight

Q 13 Which one is the Standard Practice? a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC

d) SSLC

Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice? a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC

d) EVD

Q 15.

The explosion at Chennai airport took place in the year a) 2 Aug 1984 b) 2 Aug 1982 c) 24 Dec 1999 d) 11 Sep 2001

Q 16 Allocation of bays is the duties of? a) Apron control b) CISF c) Airline d) None of these Q 17 Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"? a) Hijacking b) Sabotage c) Disruption of communication facility d) pilferage Q 18 A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is a) Pier b) Ramp c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area Q 19 The large no. of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………? a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba Q20

The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is controlled a) Airside b) Land side c) Security hold area d) Sterile area

Q21

How many hijackings reported yet in India a) 15 b) 13 c) 14

d) 12

Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of a) 1976 b) 1931 c) 1971 d) 1944 Q23

Aircraft Rule was framed in India in the year of a) 1934 b) 1937 c) 1963 d)

1944

Q24. Which airline was connected in Kanishka incident a) Air India b) Indian Airlines c) Jet Airways

d) Kingfisher Airlines

Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident a) Kanishka Incident b) Kandhar incident c) Lokerbie Incident d) None of the above Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident a) Demolition of twin tower b) Kanishka Incident c) Kandhar incident d) Lokerbie Incident Q27.

An area used for landing/takeoff the aircraft is a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area d) Apron

Q28

An area used for taxing the aircraft is a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area

Q29

The Definition of Hijacking is defined in a) Article 3 of hijacking act 1982 c) CrPC

d) Apron b) Indian Penal Code d) Indian evidence Act

Q30 Q31

The duties of Pilot in command is defined in a) Rule 90 b) rule 156 c) Rule 141

d) Rule 24

The term Aircraft in Service is defined in a) Chicago Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Montreal Convention d) All of the above

Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to a) Chicago Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Hague Convention d) All of the above Q33

The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security of aircraft operation. a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above

Q34

The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft. a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 24 d) None of the above

Q35

The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above

Q36

The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 141 d) None of the above

Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in a) Rule 78 of aircraft act 1937 b) Rule 90 of aircraft rule 1937 c) Rule 24 c of aircraft rule 1937 Q38. CASO stands for a) Chief Airport Security Officer c) Commissioner of Airport Security Officer

b) Chief Aviation Security Officer d) None of the above

Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of a) 1944 b) 1970

c) 1971

d) 1963

Q40. Hague convention was held in the year of a) 1944 b) 1970

c) 1971

d) 1963

c) 1971

d) 1963

c) 1988

d) 1963

Q41

Montreal convention was held in the year of a) 1944 b) 1970

Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of a) 1944 b) 1970 Q43

Tokyo convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft c) Define what is hijacking d) None of the above

Q44. Hague convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft c) Define what is hijacking d) None of the above

Q45. Montreal convention related with a) Establishment of ICAO b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft c) Define what is hijacking d) Suppression of unlawful act against safety of civil aviation Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under which aircraft Rule. a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q48. Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78 Q49. Entry into public aerodrome a) 24 b) 90

c) 19

d) 78

Q50. COSCA stands for: a) Commissioner Of Security Civil Aviation b) Committee On Security Civil Aviation c) Both a & b d) None of these Q51. ASG stands for: a) Anti Sabotage Group c) Anti Sabotage Gadget Q52

b) Aviation Security Group d) None of these

ICAO came into existence in which of the following year: a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1944

d) 1963

Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft : a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these Q54

PTI in aviation security stands for : a) Positive Target Identification c) Press Trust of India

Q55. PETN stands for : a) Penta Erithrotol Tetra Nitrate c) Both a& b

b) Positive Trainee Identification d) All the above b) Poly Ethyle Tri Nitrate d) None of these

Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft, at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities. a) Competent authorities

b) Regulated Authority

c) Appropriate Authority

Q57

B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident: a) Second hijacking in India b) First hijacking in India c) After Kaniska Incident d) After IC 814 hijacking

Q58 DCAS in India was formed in a) 1979 b) 1978 Q59

d) BCAS

c) 1980

d) None of these

Air India aircraft Kanishka was sabotaged in the year: a) 1985 b) 1988 c) 1986

d) 198

Q60

Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee c) Pandey committee d) None of these

Q61

Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975 c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these

Q62

Anti hijacking Act 1982 was amended in the year a) 1994 b) 1993 c) 1992

d) 1990

Q63 Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975 b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994 c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994 d) All the above Q64

Which Annexure contains the SARP on Aviation Security a) Annexure 15 b) Annexure 16 c) Annexure 17 d) Annexure 18

Q65 Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA Q66 Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft a) Tokyo Convention c) Chicago Convention

b) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q67 Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft a) Tokyo Convention b) Chicago Convention c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Convention Q68

Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q69 Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q70 “Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP” comes under the subject head of which of the following a) Recommended Practice b) standard Practice c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q71 What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive. Q72

Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an Offence. a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q73

Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol

Q74

Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for a) Development of NCASP b) Implementation of NCASP c) Maintenance of NCASP d) All the above

Q75

In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil Aviation security matters in India a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934

Q76

Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with a) Prohibition of Smoking in the Aircraft c) Security and Safety of unclaimed baggage

b) Inspection of the Aircraft d) None of the above

Q77

Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with a) Penalty for failure to comply with Direction issued under Section 5 A b) Power to Issue Directions c) Central Government can make Rules under this Act d) Penal Provisions

Q78

Rule 8 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with a) Operators to have access b) Aerodrome Manual c) Carriage of Arms, Explosives & Dangerous Goods d) Passenger Service Fees

Q79

Rule 24 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with a) Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft b) Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft d) Cancellation, Suspension of Certificate of Carriers

Q80

Rule 24 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with a) Provision for Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder b) Provision for Carriage of Prisoners in Aircraft c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft d) None of the above

Q81

Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937. a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C

Q82

Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with a) Power of Enquiry Officer b) Passenger service fees c) Investigation of an Incident d) Notification of Incidents

Q83

Rule 78 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with a) Entry into public Aerodromes b) User deployment fees c) Aerodrome manual d) Passenger Service fees

Q84

Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937 a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A

Q85

Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937 a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A

Q86

Terminal building comes under a) Landside b) Airside

Q87 Q88 Q89

c) Operational area

Annexure 17 deals with a) Aviation safety b) Aviation security

c) Airport manual

d) Aircraft manual

NCASQCP deals with a) Civil aviation security

c) PAX

d) Aircraft

b) Safety

First recorded hijacking took place at a) Delhi b) Peru

c) Viet nam

Q90. Aircraft act come into …….. in the year a) 1932 b) 1933 c) 1934 Q91 Q92

d) Both (a) & (b).

Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year. a) 1934 b) 1935 c) 1936

d) Chicago d) 1935 d) 1937

Which section of Aircraft Act empowers DGCA to frame rule. a) Sec – 5 b) Sec – 5(a) c) Sec – 5(b) d) Sec – 5(c)

Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934. a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9 Q94

Provision of carriage of prohibited items is described in which rule. a) Rule – 8 b) Rule – 8a c) Rule – 8b d) Rule – 8c

Q95

In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel. a) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds

Q96. Entry into domestic airdrome is mentioned in which aircraft rule a) Rule- 78 b) Rule- 81 c) Rule – 85 d) Rule – 90 Q97

Guarding of deportee /inadmissible pax at refusal room is responsibility of a) ASG b) Airlines c) Airport operator d) Local police

Q98. Provision of carriage of bird & reptiles into aircraft is given in a) Rule – 24 b) Rule – 24a c) Rule – 24b d) Rule – 24c Q99. Provision of carriage of prisoner in the aircraft is mentioned in

a) Rule 24

b) Rule 24(A)

Q100 Airport is mainly divided intoa) Landside b) Airside

c) Rule 24 (B)

d) Rule 24(C)

c) Landside and airside

Q101 Airport include a) Movement area b) Maneuvering area

d) Public place

c) None of the above

Q102 What is movement area a) Runway b) Taxiway

c) Apron

d) All of the above

Q103. What is maneuvering area a) Runway b) Taxiway

c) Apron

d) Both (a) & (b)

Q104 BMA is located in which part of the airport a) Landside b) Airside c) Departure side of T.B

d)Both (a) & (b)

d) Arrival side

Q105 Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference is (a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling Q106 Categorizing pax into threathing & non-threating category by way of systematic observation is (a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety Q107 When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is (a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax (c) Tansit pax (d) Tansfer pax Q108.

Hijacking is – (a) Hostage taking on aircraft (c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground

(b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight (d) Hostage taking at airport

Q109 In an airport, Apron area is within (a) T.B (b) Airside (c) ATS

(d) Fuel Storage

Q110 The area of an airport and building to which both traveling pax and the non-traveling public have unrestricted access is known as ……. (a) Apron (b) Airside (c) T.B. (d) Landside Q111 The main aim of aviation security is . (a) Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference (b) Detect crime (c) Check drug trafficking (d) To maintain law & order . Q112 First Hijacking in India took place? a) 30th January 1971 b) 24th February 1951 c) 30th January 1931 d) Not yet Q113 Which step is not taken after Kandhar Hijacking a) Locked cockpit door b) Deployment of sky marshal

c) Revised contingency plan d) Security of BMA

Q114 Which is not Emerging threat to civil aviation a) Use of an aircraft as a missile for mass destruction b) Cyber attack

c) Hijacking d) Biological and chemical war

Q115 What are the major threats to civil aviation a) Hijacking b) Sabotage at airport c) Sabotage at air navigation facilities d) All of the above Q116 How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ? a. 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices b. 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices c. 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices d. 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices Q117 Head Quarters of ICAO is located at a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India

c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA

Q118 The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year? a)1982 c) 1944 b)1987 d)1999 Q119 Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this Act. a)Section 5 c)Section 10 b)Section 5 A d)Section 18 Q120 Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions a) Passengers b) Aircraft

c) Airport d) Environment

Q121 Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937 a)Rule 24 C c)Rule 24 B b)Rule 24 A d)Rule 24 Q122 Who is the president of ICAO a) Wan ki Moon b) Barrack Obama c) Mr Roberto Kobeh González d) John Maccem. Q123 According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ? a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970 c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c Q124 Baggage Reconciliation is the duty of ?

a) APSU c) CASO

b) APD d) Airlines

Q125 What is the color of the sticker for cooling off cargo? a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green Q126 What is the color of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo? a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green Q127 Security of Cargo is related to? a) Airport Operator b) Airlines & Regulated agent c) APSU d) All Q128 AEP are issued by …….. a) BCAS c) APSU

b) AAI d) NONE OF THESE

Q129 SLPC is practice ? a) Recommended practice c) a & b

b) Standard Practice c) None of these

Q130 Apron guarding is a duty of …. a) ASG c) BCAS

b) AIRLINE d) AAI

Q131 Guarding is being done for …… a) Psychological deterrent b) is to protect the vulnerable points c) physical deterrent d) all Q132 Which one is not the aim of terrorists? a) Publicity b) Discredit the govt. c) Broaden the base d) to pose as a VIP at airport Q133 Security of Parked Aircraft is done by. a) CISF b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI Q134. What was the main result of Chicago Convention? a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b Q135 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI Q136 Vehicle should be searched for a) Narcotics c) Prohibited items

b) Contraband items d) All above

Q137 Explain BIPPS a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad d) Biometric integrated passenger permit system Q138 What do you mean by STP a) Satellite test programme c) Screeners test package

b) Standardise training package d) Security training programme

Q139. IGI Airport falls under which category? a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport Q140 Which is not the duty of Airline Security? a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered screening c) Surveillance at BMA d) Reconciliation Q141 Access point should contain? a) RT set & communication facility c) Magazine to read & relax Q142 Which is not a duty of BCAS? a) Planning c) Guiding

b) Radio for entertainment d) News papers for latest news

b) Monitoring d) Training

Q143 J & K Airport falls under which category? a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitive

d) Red alert airport

Q144 Operational control on ASG is the duty of.. a) Airport operator b) BCAS c) Local Police d) CISF Q145 Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of? a) ASG b) NSG c) CISF d) Local Police Q146 Hijacking mock drill is done by………………..? a) QRT b) ASG c) NSG d) All the above Q147 The duty of QRT is ? a) To avoid the take off of hijacked flight c) Quick response at the time of crisis

b) To prevent intrusion d) All the above

Q148 The transponder code for Hijacking? a) 7500 b) 7000 c) 1500 d) 2000 Q149 Airport entry permit does not contain ? a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder c) Area of Validity d) Permanent address

Q150 Who give 3 degree angle for landing of flight? a) ILS b) Localizer c) Glide path d) Outer marker Q151 Which color ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area? a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) None of these Q152 What do you mean by APSU a) Airport Security Unit c) Airport Security Union

b) Airport Sterile Unit d) Airport Safety Unit

Q153 Head of ASG at a particular Airport? a) CASO b) BCAS c) COSCA d) APD Q154 While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action? a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO Q155 Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is? a) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee c) Gate no show d) Transit passenger Q156 Aircraft security is concerned with? a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airline security Q157 To cross the runway at non-operational time? a) Require permission from ATC b) permission not required c) Permission from CASO d) a & c Q158 CTX stands for? a) Complex topographic X-Ray c) Computerized tomography X-Ray

b) Crystal trace X-Ray d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray

Q159 What do you mean by BCAS a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Security c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security

b) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety d) Bureau of Central aviation Security

Q160 Which color pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports? a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue Q161 Which rule belongs to power of pre-embarkation check. a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 1937 d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937 Q162 Blue color pass holder can enter in ? a) All area except SHA b) All areas c) Only in operational area d) only till checking area

Q163 The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage Q164 When you should man access control points a) Only manned during daylight b) Only manned at night c) Manned at all times d) Whenever required Q165 Access Control point should contain? a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers c) Only Gates d) Nothing Q166

Every vehicle, which is running in operational area a) Need to have light or flag b) no need of light c) Need not to have ADP d) none of these

Q167 To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs? a) ADP b) Driving License c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD Q168 How many gates are required for better access control? a) As less as possible b) More gates are required c) 10 d) 8 Q169 What is common at every duty post? a) Barrier b) DFMD c) Standing order d) HHMD Q170 Mock exercises are done for? a) Check the preparedness for contingency b) To show more people in uniform at airport c) It's a duty d) To keep busy force personnel Q171 The airport are categorized as per their sensitivity a) Normal b) Sensitive c) Hyper Sensitive

d) All of the above

Q172 What are the features are to be checked in PIC a) Access Gates b) Tally the Photograph c) Area of operation d) none of the above Q173 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit a) Access Gates b) Signature of issuing authority c) Tally the Photograph d) None of the above Q174

Categories of people requiring legitimate access a) Airlines Employee b) Airport Employee c) Custom Employee d) All of the above

Q175 Security of unattended aircraft is the responsibility of a) ASG b) Airport operator c) Airline operator d) None of the above

Q176 Airport employees are authorized to by-pass access control point a) Whenever they require, after disclosing their agency. b) They don’t need to show any authority while on duty. c) They need to display PIC/Temporary pass d) None of the above Q177 Access control to the airport is the responsibility of a) Airport operator b) Airlines c) APSU/ ASG Q178 Access control to the Aircraft is the responsibility of a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned Airlines c) Airport Operator

d) BCAS d)None of these

Q179. Light green (C) passes are issued to the a) Crew members b) Courier service c) Concessionaries employees Q180 Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points: a) whenever they are in uniform b)whenever they are on duty c) not ever d) on emergency Q181 Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA b)Both are same c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety d)Totally different Q182 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security programme is approved by a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCA Q183 The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without passing through security controls. c) Both the above d) None of above Q184 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing b)In carry on baggage or checked in baggage c)None of above d) both a & b Q185 Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function a) Ticketing of the passenger b)Provides security control for Cargo c)Conducts business with the aircraft operator for freight forwarding d)approved by COSCA Q186 Passenger profiling is a)Checking of passenger, baggage and documents b)Both of above c)Observation of passenger, baggage and documents d) None of the above. Q187 The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building or portions thereof , access to which is ______ is called (a)Restricted b)control c) Prohibited d) Controlled Q188 An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Ariculture,construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial advertisement (a) mentioned (b) nominated (c) Specialised (d) concerned

Q189

A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice

Q190 A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or false that the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device. a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous Q191 Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft. a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items Q192 The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight. a) loading

b) acceptance

c) boarding

d) entry

Q193 A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an aircraft or to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and thereby disturbs the good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called (a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements Q194 The landside of an airport is defined as a) the area in front of the passenger terminal where passenger get off an aircraft. b) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has free access. c) that part of runway where an aircraft lands. d) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has controlled access. Q195

Access control points are located a) terminal building b) only at the cargo complex c) only at vulnerable points d)within a building, such as a terminal and on the perimeter of airport boundary

Q196 Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members Q197 Main Components of an IED are a) weapon, explosive, dangerous article and dangerous substance b) explosive, detonator, mechanism and battery/power source. c) ignition, incendiary material and mechanism d) None of above Q198 ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk a) Employees while entering the operational area b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area c) Employees while entering SHA d) All of above Q199 Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey. a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted

Q200 Ultimate authority for airport entry passes are a) APSU/ASG b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport operator Q201 On the basis of color, passes can be divided in to a) six b) five c) seven Q202 Color code of the PIC’s indicate a) Organization of the holder c) Rank of the holder

d) Eight

b) Area of validity d) None of these

Q203. A passenger can access to the airport from the a) Vehicle gate of the airport b) Entrance to the terminal c) From any entrance to the airport d) None of these Q204 Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by Parliament secretariat a) Employees of the parliament b) Honorable Member of parliament c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel Q205 Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of a) Not more than a month b) For one day c) Not more than three days d) For three Month Q206 PIC’s are issued by BCAS only after a)Recommendation of the airport operator c) On individual’s request

b) Background checks of the applicant d) Recommendation of ASG

Q207. Features of an AEP’ doesn’t include a) Holder’s name b) Name of the organization c) Father’s name of the holder d) Designation of holder Q208 As per BCAS guidelines honorable Member of Parliament a) Can have access up to arrival and departure hall of terminal on their ID card. b) Can have access up to boarding gate of the terminal on their ID card. c) Can have access up to the entry gate of the aircraft on their ID card. d) None of the above Q209 Orange (C) passes are issued to the a) Concessionaries b) Crew members c) Courier service d) Cargo employees Q210 As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labor can have access at airport with the Authority of a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labor photo pass . c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by a) DGCA b) BCAS c) Airport operator d) None of these Q212 At an airport, Airside vehicle access control point are manned by a) Airport operator b) ASG/APSU d) Immigration/Custom d) Local police

Q213 Secondary ladder point check is the responsibility of the a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned airlines c) Regulated agent d) Airport operator Q214 Large area required to be secured for the screening concept a) Holding area plan b) Concourse plan c) Boarding gate plan c) Security hold Area plan Q215. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA b) Both are same c) One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety d) None of the above Q216 As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under the jurisdiction of a) BCAS b) Airline operator c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Airforce Q217 No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security programme is approved by a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCA Q218 Authority to drive a vehicle in the operational area (Airside) is a) Airport entry permit b) Vehicle permit c) Airside Driving Permit d) Driving license Q219 AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty c) none of above d) Both a & b Q220. Security of the Aircraft is the responsibility of the a) Airport operator b) BCAS c) Aicraft operator d) ASG Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without passing through security controls. c) Both the above d) None of the above Q222 Passenger profiling is a) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents. b) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents. c) None of the above. d) Both a & b Q223 The designated area of an airport used to takeoff/landing of an aircraft is a) Land side b) Airside c) Runway d) Taxiway Q224 Connecting way between runway and apron is called a) Land side b) Airside c) Apron

d) Taxiway

Q225 Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) Taxiway Q226 Which is not the responsibility of BCAS a) Planning b) Evaluation c) Training

d) Anti hijacking duties

Q227. Which is not the responsibility of ASG a) Anti hijacking duties b) Anti sabotage duties c) patrolling and guarding d) Advisory Q228 Which is not the responsibility of Airline Operator? a) Security of catering supplies b) security of cargo c) Security of registered baggage d) Communication facilities Q229. Which is not the responsibility of Airport Operator? a) Provide infrastructure b) Administration of the airport c) Passenger facilitation d) Security of BMA Q230 All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as: a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand c) Both a & b d) None of these Q231 Which of the following is not an ingredient of Hijacking: a) Hijacker should be on board in aircraft b) Lawfully exercises the control of the aircraft c) Use of force, threat of force and aims other form of intimidation d) Unlawfully taking the command of the aircraft from the Pilot-in- command Q232 Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft with the person to whom it belongs. a) Transfer baggage c) Unclaimed baggae

b) Unidentified baggage d) unaccompanied baggage

Q233 Which one is not a component of ASG a) Anti Hijacking Group c) Protection Group

b) Support Group d) Anti Sabotage Group

Q234 Which of the following is not an essential component of vehicle permit a) Name of the agency b) Approved airside safety status c) Permit serial number d) Photo of the vehicle Q235 Which of the following is an essential component of an AEP a) Photo of the holder b) Identification mark of the holder c) Permanent address of the holder d) None of these Q236 Which of the following is an airside land side boundary a) Access gates b) Terminal building c) Perimeter wall d) All the above

Q237 The main aim of access control points are: a) To control the movement of people from land side to airside b) To control the movement of vehicle from land side to airside c) Both a & b d) None of these Q238 Which of the following should not be practiced by a security person: a) Being too familiar with staff b) Effective permit control c) Both a & b d) None of these Q239 The airside of an airport is defined as a) The part where traveling and non traveling public have unrestricted access b) Movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain, building and portion thereof access to which is controlled c) Both a and b d) None of these Q240 Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points a) Manned during daylight time only b) Manned only at night c) Manned all the time d) None of these Q241 For operational reasons who can move from land side to airside without security check a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these Q242 What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies Q243 An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of an accident is known as a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by Q244 A white color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these Q245 Blue color AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA c) Both a and b d) None of these Q246 Which of the following does not have Orange AEP a) COSCA b) DG/CISF c) ADG/APS

d) DC/Airport

Q247 What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is entering airside a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security c) Both a and b d) None of these Q248 The main function of localizer is a) To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing b) To give guidelines to the pilot c) Both a and b d) None of these

Q249 What is ARP a) It is a reference point of the airport c) Both a and b

b) It is a brand d) None of these

Q250 Which of the following is not a part of the ILS a) LLZ b) Glide path c) Both a and b

d) Marshaling

Q251 What is the prescribed position of the lights used at perimeter a) Focusing out b) Focused at duty points c) Very dim d) None of these Q252 What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982 a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence c) Only fine d) Both a and b Q253 Which of the following is not a part of act of unlawful interference a) Disrupting communication facilities b) Communication of false information c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground d) Flight having technical problem Q254 Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed a) Airport operator b) Security agency c) Airline operator d) All the above Q255 All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and nonscheduled air transport is known as a) Military aviation b) General aviation c) Both a and b d) None of these Q256 In interline baggage transfer, baggage of passenger is transferred from a) Aircraft of one operator to another operator b) Between two aircraft of same operator c) No change of aircraft d) None of the above Q257 In transfer baggage, baggage of passenger is transferred from a) Aircraft of one operator to another operator b) Between two aircraft of same operator c) No change of aircraft d) None of the above Q258 Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening and non-threatening category is a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counseling d) None of these Q259 Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful interference is a) Security b) Security Audit c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management System Q260 Which of the following is not a suspicious sign of a passenger a) Frequent visit to loo b) Person sitting in isolation c) Avoiding eye contact d) None of these

Q261 What will be the course of action when you notice suspicious sign on a passenger during profiling: a) Notify supervisor b) Deep observation c) Both a and b d) Arrest the passenger Q262 Why courteous behavior is required at airports a) High strata of people travel through the airports b) Passengers expect for good behavior because they have paid a good amount c) Both a and b d) No need of courteous behavior Q263 Which of the following is not a responsibility of CASO a) Deployment of security staff b) Convening APSC c) Both a and b d) He will be the chair person of the BTAC Q264 SLPC is carried out by a) Airport operator

b) ASG

c) Airline security

d) IATA

Q265 What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after Registered Baggage has been X-Ray screened: a) Sealing b) Safeguarding c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above Q266 What are the essential components of Incendairy Device a) Fuzzy match box b) Incendiary chemicals c) Both a and b Q267 BCAS is a a) Regulatory authority for Security c) Administrative authority Q268 Access control system can be a) Automatic b) Manual

d) None of these

b) Competent authority of safety d) None of these c) Automatic and manual

d) None of the above

Q269 Typical external control point will contain a) Control equipment b) Communication system c) Search equipment d) All of the above Q270 States of equipments and records of incidents will be maintained in a) Access control point log b) Beat book c) Personal diary d) None of the above Q271 Airport workers are required to use control points a) Whenever they enter restricted area b) Only when they are off duty c) Only if they do not have a permit d) None of the above Q272 Airline employees are authorized to by-pass access control points a) whenever they are in uniform b) whenever they are on duty c) whenever they are willing to do so d) Never Q273 Access control points are located in a) Within building b) At cargo complex

c) At vulnerable points

d) All of the above

Q274 Airport Rules for vehicle apply to security staff a) At all times b) At all times except when they are on patrol c) At all time except on emergency d) None of the above

Q275 When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway c) Only at night d) At all the times Q276 Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above. Q277 What points to be checked in AEP for people a) Photograph & name c) Signature of issuing authority & holder

b) Airport & expiry date d) All of the above features

Q278. Name the areas of vehicle to be checked for prohibited items a) Interior & chassis of vehicle b) Engine compartment c) Trunk or boot d) All of the above Q279 Vehicle can be searched by a) Trolley mirror c) Explosive detector

b) Physical checking d) All of the above

Q280 What will you check is vehicle pass a) Vehicle registration number c) Valid area & gate to be used

b) Name of organization d) All of the above

Q281 Searching of vehicle entering into airside is done for a) Weapon & explosive b) Drugs & contrabands c) Excess cash d) None of the above Q282 Fire to structure & building at an airport is the example of emergency a) Involving aircraft b) Not involving aircraft c) Natural calamity d) Medical emergency Q283 Is it necessary to take permission from ATC while crossing runway a) Sometimes b) Never c) Necessary when flight is in operation d) Necessary at all the time Q284 It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted a)Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)White Q286 Colour of transferable pass(PIC) is a) Orange b) Blue c) Brown

d) White

Q287 Passes for people are issued by a) ASG b) Airport Operator

c) BCAS

Q288 Vehicle permit are issued by a) Local police b) BCAS

d) Airport Operator

c) DGCA

Q289 Temporary vehicle permit is valid uptoa) 5 yes b) 3 yrs c) 2 yrs Q290 Photo identity card is coded into ------- colour

d) 1 yrs

d) DGCA

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 8

Q291 A person having Green PIC will gain access to a) Departure of T.B. b) In T.B. c) In all area d) Departure check-in and arrival area upto segregation of T.B Q292 Vulnerable Point at airport includes a) All area of airport b) Parking

c) Service road

Q293 Hijacking is – (a)Hostage taking on aircraft (c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground Q294 Typical permit wouldn't contain a) Address of the holder c) Photograph of the holder

d) ATC

(b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight (d) Hostage taking at airport

b) Validity of period d) name of the holder

Q295. Who are not authorized to enter into operational area? a) AAI Employees with valid pass b) Brown and Green Colour Pass holder c) Permanent visitor with valid pass d) White color pass holder Q296 AEP stands for airport Entry Pass a) Aviation Examination Procedure b) Aircraft Entrance Procedure

c) Airport Entry Pass d) None of these

Q297 ADP stands for : a)Airfield Driving Permit b)Airside Driving Plan

d) Advance Departure Program

Q298 BMA stands for : a) Baggage Makeup Area b) Baggage monitoring Area

c) Baggage Maintenance Area d) All the above

c) Anti Doping Procedure

Q299 LTPE stands for : a) Low Temperature Plastic Explosive b) Linear Type Plastic Explosive c) Long Term Plastic Explosive d) None of these Q300 Who of the following is authorized to issue AEPs a) DGCA c) AAI c) BCAS d) ASG Q301 What are LAGs a) Liquids Aerosols and Gels b) Liquids Acids and Gels

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Q302 What are STEBs a) Security Tamper Evident Baggage b) Security Training Establishment Board c) Security Trial Evident Baggage d) None of these Q303 What is the latest aircraft launched by Air Bus Company? a) Air Bus 380 b) Air Bus 320 c) Air Bus 760

d) Air Bus 319

Q304 Which is not the components of APSU? a) Supporting Unit b) Anti-Hijacking Unit c) Inter surveillance Unit d) Anti-Sabotage Unit Q305 Baggage Identification is the duty of ? a) CASO b) Airlines c) APSU

d) APD

Q306 How many categories of airports in India? a) One b) Three c) Four

d) Seven

Q307 Flight IC 814 was hijack from a) Delhi c) Kathmandu b) Kandhar d) Amritsar Q308 Which agency is responsible for secondary ladder point checking a) ASG c) Airlines b) Police d) BCAS Q309 Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security a) Catering security b) Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage c) Pre-embarkation security check d) Screening of hold baggage Q310 Who can carry loaded gun in flight a) PSO of VVIP b) Sky Marshal c) SPG Personnel when accompanying SPG Protectee d) Bonafide passenger holding valid license Q311 Which is not the feature of vehicle entry permit a) Registration number of vehicle matches with the vehicle permit b) Name of organization/agency. c) Area of validity. d) tally the photograph Q312 An access control point have a) Controlling equipment c) Controlling equipment b) Communication systems d) All of the above Q313 Profiling is a systematic observation to a) to identify the person c) to recognize the person b) to categorize the person d) None of the above Q314 ASG took over the charge of Jaipur airport on a) 04-04-2003 b) 03-02-2000 c) 01-04-2000 c) None of the above Q315 Which is Hyper sensitive airport a) Dimapur c) Lucknow b) Shilong d) Agartala

Q316 Which is Sensitive airport a) Delhi c) Ahmedabad b) Varanasi d) Hyderabad Q317 When did India become a contracting state of ICAO a) On 1st March 1947 c) On 7th December 1944 b) On 10th May 1984 d) On 4th April 1947 Q318 COE stands for : c) Controller Of Electronics d) None of these

c) Chief Of Explosive d) Controller Of Explosive

Q319 EOD stands for : a)Entry Of Drivers b)Explosive Ordinance Disposal Q320 LED stands for: e) Lead Entering Door f) All the above

c) Explosive Ordinance Demand d) All the above

c) Light Emitting Device d) Light Emitting Diode

Q321 What is the significance of 24 July 2001 in civil aviation a) Attack on Colombo airport c) Kandhar incidnet b) on Chennai airport d) None of the abobe Q322 Which organization carries Security Audit of Airports Internationally a) BCAS c) ACI b) ICAO d) IATA Q323 Doc 9691 of ICAO refers to a) Manual on Volcanic Ash, Radio Active Material and Toxic Chemical Clouds b) Manual on Airport Security c) Manual on Aircraft Security d) None of these Q324 What are total no. of ICAO Annexes a)15 b)16 c)17

d)18

Q325 “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration to human performance” are called a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance Principles Q326 What are MRTDs a ) Machine Readable Travel Documents b) Memory Readable Text Documents c) Memory Reset Text Device d) None of these Q327 Select weapons in the given items? a) Grenade b) Scissors c) Starter Pistol d) knife with blade of 4"

Q328 In what color explosive will be seen in X-BIS image ? a) Green b) White c) Orange d) Opaque Q329 On how many things, the profiling is done? a) One b) Three c) Six d) Seven Q330 PEC is the practice. a) Recommended practice c) a & b

b) Standard Practice c) None of these

Q331 Boeing Company belongs to which country? a) America b) Britain c) Germany d) Russia Q332 You should not do, when you find a suspicious person? a) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling Q333 What is Blue Dart ? a) Travel Agency c) cargo flight operator

b) Cargo Company d) All the above

Q334 Components of APSU? a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven Q335 Which is not suspicious sign of a person? a) Feeling fear c) Deep observation of security personnel Q336 Gelatin is in form of . . . a) Slurry c) Stick

b) Posing as VIP d) Following procedures

b) Liquid d) Paste

Q337 Safety fuse comes under which category? a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q338 Chisels come under which category? a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q339 Security staff on duty may cross a runway: a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care. b) only when the runway is clear. c) only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower. d) Above all Q340 Passenger can carry liquor in aircraft? a) From Duty free shops at airport c) can’t carry at all

b) Purchase from anywhere d) a & b

Q341 What this word BLR denotes to? a) PORT BLARE b) BANGLORE c) BOMBAY d) CAN'T say Q342

Which comes in the category of prohibited articles (a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile (c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella

Q343 Which is electronic gadget is used for surveillance ? a) Radio Set b) CCTV c) Biometric Devices d) Passive Infrared Q344 Which is not a suspicious sign of passenger? a) Nervous behavior b) luring others c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time Q345 The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI Q346 Which is not the way to conceal the prohibited item? a) Disguise b) Dismantle c) Camouflage d) In Suitcase Q347 Vehicle should be searched for a) Narcotics c) Prohibited items

b) Contraband items d) All above

Q348 Nitroglycerine is ……………………….explosive? a) Liquid b) Plastic c) Solid d) Not an explosive Q349. What is physical form of CORDTEX? a) Slurry b) Liquid c) Cord d) Paste Q350 Types of explosives? a) One c) Three

b) Two d) Four

Q351 What is the Natural color of RDX? a) White b) Pale yellow c) Green d) white/black Q352 If a person is denying to be frisked - What is the course of action? a) Let him go for board b) No search No fly c) Use force d) Frisk as a formality Q353

Q354

What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage? a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles The alert status put on place at the time of crisis? a) High alert b) Red alert

c) Bomb Alert

d) Non of these

Q355 What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening? a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that b) Allow passenger to board c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor d) Remove the article and leave the passenger Q356 Match box comes under a) Explosive b) Incendiary c) Dangerous substances d) Weapon Q357 How many types of detonator available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Q358 Prohibited items are classified/divided into a) 4 categories b) 3 categories c) 6 categories d) 9 categories Q359 Weapons are designed primarily to a) Kill b) Injure c) Incapacitate & Immobilize d) All of the above. Q360 The phonetic value of 5 is a) FIVE b) FIVE c) FIF d) FIFE Q361 The phonetic value of 9 is a) NI-NE b) NINET

c) NIN

d) NIN-er

Q362 PTD switch is comes in which category a) Remote control b) Time delay c) Ambient condition d) Anti-handling Q363 Which is the appropriate word stands for I in RT communication? a) Intelligent b) Indigo c) Infinite d) India Q364 Ketone comes under which category of prohibited item ? a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q365 Which is the component of an IED a) Generator b) Detonator

c) Cross Piece

d) CTP

Q366 A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs c) 1000 Mltrs

d) 10000 Mltrs

Q367 Size of Kirpan is a) 6” b) 3”

d) 8”

c) 9”

Q368 An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage a) Knife b) Lighter c) Book

d) Blade

Q369. An item a passenger can not carry in his hand baggage a) Knife b) Lap top c) Walking stick

d) Mobile

Q370 The switch mechanism are classified into a) 2 b) 3 c) 4

d) 1

Q371 Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of a) Anti handling switch b) Delay Mechanism c) Command d) Ambient Q372 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles? a) Starter pistol b) Mobile c) Lap top d) Folding umbrella Q373 Kirpan of 6 inches blade is permitted to a Sikh passenger to be carried in a) Any flight operated from India b) Any registered aircraft in India c) In fully domestic flight in India. d) None of these Q374 Prohibited items are a) Not permitted to be carried while entering an airport. b) Not permitted to be used while aircraft in flight c) Not permitted to be carried on board an aircraft. d) all of the above Q375 Most important measures to prevent weapons, explosives and other dangerous devices from being introduced in an aircraft a) Background checks of the employees working at airport b) Documents checking of the passengers. c) Screening of passengers and carry on baggage d) By profiling of passenger Q376. Immediate Action which is not required on detection of prohibited item during physical inspection a) remain calm and do not panic b ) allow the passenger to board the aircraft c) Notify the supervisor d) none of these Q377 Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are a) In a vehicle, on the pers0on or in clothing b) In carry on baggage or checked in baggage c) Both the above d) None of the above Q378 Starter Pistol is an example of :

a) Dangerous Article c) Dangerous Substance

b) Weapon d) None of these

Q379 Realistic replica of a gun carried by a child will be treated as

a) Weapon c) None of these

b) Dangerous Substance d) Dangerous Article

Q380 What is the Natural color of PETN? a) White b) Pale yellow c) Green d) white/black Q381 Nuckles falls under which category of prohibited item

a) Dangerous Article

b) Weapon

c) Dangerous Substance

d) Explosive

Q382 Category of people who need to be escorted a) Prisoner b) Airport users c) Employee d)None of the above Q383 Which one is not a primary effect of a high explosive explosion:

a) Blast effect c) Translation

b) Fragmentation d) Water soak

Q384 Which one is not a method of concealment of an explosive:

a) Trafficking c) Dismantled

b) Disguised d) Camouflaged

Q385 Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not

primarily design to do so, known as: a) Weapon c) Dangerous substances

b) Dangerous articles d) None of these

Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when

you detect such item: a) Will be removed c) Supervisor should be informed

b) Local police should be informed d) Both a & c

Q387 To use electrical detonators which of the following is essential

a) Match box c) Power source

b) Friction d) None of these

Q388 Detonators are used in which kind of explosives

a) Pyrotechnic c) High explosive

b) Low explosive d) Both a & c

Q389 Which of the following is not used to detect explosives

a) EVD c) Thermal imager

b) ETD d) None of these

Q390 PEK stands for :

a). Plastic Explosive Kirkie c) Both a and b

b) Power Electrode Kirkie d) None of these

Q391 Light sensitive switch is a kind of

a) Remote control switch c) Anti handling switch

b) Ambient condition switch d) None of these

Q392 Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function

a) Specificity

b) Sensitivity

c) Selectivity

d) All the above

Q393 Which among the following, is the sensitivity of the EVD

a) Min 5 gms

b) Min 10 gms

c) Min 15 gms

d) Min 2.5 gms

Q394 How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample

a) 3 sec

b) 2 sec

c) 2.5 sec

d) 5 sec

Q395 To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from

a) Surface wipe for trace particle c) A piece of explosive

b) Box of explosives d) None of the above

Q396 Explosive are – (a) Chemicals (b) Solid chemicals

c) Liquid Chemicals d) All above

Q397 A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is known as a) Disguised b) Dismenteled c) Camoflauged d) Improvised Q398 IED stands for. a) Improvised Explosive Device c) Improvised Explosive Detonator

b) Incendiary Exp. Device d) Improvised Electric Device

Q399 Sound sensitive type of mechanism is a type of a) Delay mechanism c) Remote Control b) Anti handling d) Ambient Switch Q400 Clock is used as switch in which type of mechanism a) Anti handling c) Ambient b) Remote control d) Delay Mechanism Q401 In detonator which type of explosive is used a) High c) Incendiary b) Low d) Both Low and High explosive Q402 Sound sensitive switch is a type of a) Ambient c) Delay b) Remote d) Anti-handling Q403. What is physical form of TNT? a) Crystalline b) Paste c) Jelly d) Block Q404 Original color of TNT? a) White b) Pale yellow c) Green d) white/black Q405 Light sensor is related to which switch mechanism a) Anti handling c) Ambient b) Remote d) Delay Q406 Which is not the effect of explosion c) Blast pressure effect c) Translation Effect d) Thermal effect d) Lightening Effect Q407 A Toy gun carried by an adult will be treated as

a)Dangerous Article b)Weapon

c) Dangerous Substance d ) None of these

Q408 An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism

a)Remote control b) Ambient condition

c) Delay Mechanism d) Anti handling

Q409 What is the color RDX on visual inspection

a)White b)Pale orange

c) Green d) None of these

Q410 What amount of high explosive can be sustained by Simulation Chamber

a) 10 Kgs of RDX b) 5 Kgs of TNT

c) Both a & b d) Cannot with stand the blast

Q411. What is the identification no. of electric detonator a) No. 28 c) No. 32 b) No.30 d) No. 33 Q412. The qualities of high explosive are a) Non-hygroscopic b) Safe to handle c) To be detonated with detonating waves d) All of the above Q413. Actual flight condition are made in – a) Cooling pit c) Cock-pit of aircraft b) Simulation chamber d) Bomb blanket Q414. TATP is an example of a) Weapon b) Dangerous article

c) Liquid explosive d) Dangerous Substance

Q415 Nun-chacks falls under which category? a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives Q416. PTD switch is comes in which category a) Remote control b) Time delay c) Ambient condition d) Anti-handling Q417 In PEK the word K stands for ……………….? a) Knife b) kirkie c) Keton d) None of these Q418 Which one of the following is an example of explosive a) Detonator c) Rifles b) Tear Gas d) Acids Q419 An IED can be conceal a) In hand baggage b) In registered baggage

c) On person d) All the above

Q420 Which is not the advantage of an EVD a) Quick result c) Detect all kinds of explosive b) Light weight easy to carry d) Convenience for pax Q421 Which is not the advantage of an ETD a) Quick result b) Detects explosives up to nano gram c) Detects all kind of explosive

d) Scan the object easily Q422 Types of switches/mechanism that can be used to blast an IED

g) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Q423 All acids fall under which category of prohibited item

a)Weapon b)Explosive

c) Dangerous article d) Dangerous Substance

Q424 Color of SEMTEX is

a)Pale orange b)Red

c) Black d) All the above

Q425 Crackers falls under which category of prohibited item

a) Weapons b) Explosives

c) Dangerous article d) Dangerous Substance

Q426 DMNB is a compound used for

a) Marking of explosives b) Detecting of explosives

c) Searching of explosive d) All the above

Q427 Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight? a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber c) Simulation chamber d) a & b Q428 How many rings of protection are there? a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven Q429 What is the outer ring of protection? a) Perimeter b) Windows of terminal Building c) Apron d) None of these Q430 Which is not a medical emergency in aviation? a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable disease Q431. The main aim to search the SHA is………………..? a) To sterile the area b) Look for left out baggage c) to find Narcotics d) To check cleanliness Q432 The emergency, which is involved with aircraft? a) New born b) Sabotage c) Fire on TB d) None of these Q433 Which is not a medical emergency? a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person c) New Born d) Illness Q434. Emergencies involving aircraft a) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while in flight c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground

b) Sabotage on aircraft d) All of the above

Q435. Emergencies not involving aircraft a) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while in flight

b) Sabotage on aircraft

c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground

d) Fire in structure

Q436. Which is not related with medical emergencies a) Delivery of new born b) Communicable diseases c) Food poisoning d) terrorist attack Q437 Which of the following is an emergency not involving the aircraft

a) Hijacking c) Terrorist attack at airport

b) Technical problem in nose wheel d) None of these

Q438 Which of the following is an emergency involving aircraft

a) Hijacking b) Terrorist attack at airport

c) Technical problem in nose wheel d) Both a and b

Q439 Delivery of a new born is a/an

a) Emergency involving aircraft c) Medical emergency

b) Emergency not involving aircraft d) All the above

Q440 .Which is the example of medical emergency a) Sudden death b) Natural disaster c) Bomb threat d) None of the above Q441. Airside/landside boundary will comes under a) Outer ring b) Middle ring c) Inner ring d) Inner middle ring Q442 .Which is in depth security ring of protection a) Layer of protection b) Centre of protection c) Rings of protection d) None of the above Q443. The main aim of patrolling is a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall c) to help in apprehension

b) To detect the attacks d) None of the above

Q444 .The main aim of guarding is a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall c) to help in apprehension

b) to guard the vital installations d) None of the above

Q445 .How many types of patrolling are there

a) Foot patrolling

b) Vehicle patrolling c) Both a and b

d) None of these

Q446 .Security staff on duty may cross runway :

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care b) Only when the runway is clear c) Only after clearance from ground control or the ATC tower d) None of these Q447 .The main aim of airport protection system is :

a) To protect airport and aircraft from any attack b) To give employment to unemployed people c) To get remuneration d) None of these

Q448.The main purpose of boundary fencing is :

a) To mark the boundary between restricted and non restricted area b) To keep cattle and livestock of the runway c) To prevent people looking at aircraft d) All the above Q449 .Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based

a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas c) Protecting airport with physical barriers d) All the above Q450 .What is the main objective of security patrolling at the airports

a) Ensure effectiveness of physical barriers b) Respond quickly to attacks and attempted attacks c) Deter and prevent unauthorized access d) All the above Q451 .Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports

a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities b) Security of Registered Baggage c) Second ladder point checks d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft Q452 What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight

a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area b) All external doors are locked c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized d) All the above Q453 To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts

of a building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position a) Windows b) Roof sky lights c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above Q454 How can Non-restricted and Restricted Areas separation be achieved

a) Provision of physical barriers such as fences b) Use of buildings and natural obstacles c) Limiting authorized access to controlled gates and designated access points d) All the above Q455 What are designated areas to be patrolled

a) Apron and the baggage make up area c) Airport boundary and outlying vulnerable points

b) Cargo complex d) All the above

Q456 Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions

a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed on board b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q457 The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which

of the following agencies? a) The airline operating the aircraft

b) The airport security unit

c) The local police and military unit

d) None of the above

Q458 Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following

agencies ? a) Airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) Airport security screening staff c) Trained airline security and engineering staff d) All the above Q459 Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect a

parked and unattended aircraft a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed c) All external doors are locked d) All the above Q460 Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an

aircraft? a) Ensure means of access removed b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft d) All the above Q461 Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should

visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft a) Undercarriage wells and wheel assembly c) Engine access panels

b) Fuel intake panels d) All the above

Q462 In an airport, Isolation Bay is used for?

a) An aircraft that has developed technical problems b) An aircraft with a passenger suffering with contagious diseases c) The Hi-jacked aircraft d) An aircraft that is ready to take off Q463 While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action

should be done a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft c) Notify airline representative Q464 Physical barriers are used to a) Separate restricted and non-restricted areas c) Marking of building

b) Immediately notify supervisor d) All the above b) Not to allow any person d) None of these

Q465. Objective of physical barrier are to a) Define area c) Provide access control point

b) Delay intrusion d) All of above.

Q466 Runways & aprons are protected by a) Patrolling b) Gaurding

c) Survellience

Q467 Gaurding and Patrolling inside the airport is done by a) Security personal of ASG b) Airline security c) Airport operator d) Immigration staff

d) All of the above.

Q468 Airport can be protected by a) Effective boundry fencing & security lighting b) Control movement of people &vehicle c) Boundry protected by physical means d) All the above Q469 The main objective of security patrolling a) Deter & prevent unauthorized access c) Protect vital facilities

b) Control movement of people & vehicle d) None of the above.

Q470 Security guarding is done to a) Protect vital facilities c) Detect attacks & attempted attacks

b)Ensure efficiency of physical barriers d)None of the above

Q471 Outer protection ring contain a) Building, fencing& lighting c) Airport

b) Runway and apron d) None of these

Q472. Basic difficulties in protection airport are a) 24 hrs operation c) Non-coperation of passengers

b) Multi agencies are working d) All of the above.

Q473. BCAS is a a) Regulatory authority for Security c) Administrative authority

b) Competent authority of safety d) None of these

Q474 A sterile area must be set up a) Between landside and airside b) Between the passenger check point and passenger screening point c) Only (a) d) None of the above Q475. Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain (a) Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation (b) Make of machine d) None of the above Q476 Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are – (a) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous article (b) Weapon d) Explosive Q477 The outer ring of protection is the responsibility of (a) ASG (b) Airline operator (c) Airport operator (d) ASG & Airport Operator Q478

Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas c) Protecting airport with physical barriers d) All the above

Q479 The landside of an airport is defined as: a) the area in front of the passenger terminal where passengers get off an aircraft. b) that part of an airport and buildings to which the non-travelling public has free access. c) that part of a runway where an aircraft lands. d) None of the above.

Q480 Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport

a. b. c. d.

Large size of the airport and boundary Large number of workers/agencies at an airport 24 hour operations All the above

Q481 The main purpose for boundary fencing is

a) b) c) d)

To keep cattle and livestock off the runway To mark the boundary between landside and airside restricted areas To prevent people looking at aircraft None of the above

Q482 Which vulnerable points in barriers require special protection

a) b) c) d)

Places where natural barriers used as boundary Waterways and storm sewers, service ducts Buildings used to form part of boundary All the above

Q483 Typical location of crash-gate at airport is a) Near T.B. c) Near access control point b) Anywhere at an airport d) Near runway Q484. What is Sterile Area a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly controlled b) The area between check in point and main entrance of terminal building c) The area between ATC and runway where the access is controlled d) All of the above Q485 What are the objectives of physical barriers at the airports

a) Define area to be protected b) Create physical and psychological deterrent c) Delay intrusion and assist detection/apprehension d) All the above Q486 What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises

a) Round the clock patrolling b) Effective lighting

c) Effective access control d) All the above

Q487 The main aim of airport protection system is to protect

a) Airport and Aircraft from attack c) Airport employees b) Airline employees d) None of these Q488 Principle of airport protection is a) Controlling movement of people & vehicle b) Dividing airport in restricted & non restricted area c) Preventing penetration to airport boundaries d) All of the above. Q489. The integrity of barriers are maintained by a) Security guards protecting access points b) By foot patrol c) By mobile patrolling

d) All of the above Q490 In night unattended aircraft can be guarded by a) Locking external doors b) Removing of stairs & loading bridges c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above Q491 How many types of patrolling? a) One b) Two

c) Three

Q492 Why patrolling necessary? a) To prevent penetration c) It is duty of APSU

b) To protect airline property d) Formality

d) Four

Q493 In night, aircraft should be parked in ……… a) Dark area b) well-lit area c) Without guard d) Under camouflage Q494 Why BWAF is required? a) To assess specific and non specific calls c) To maintain perfect data about the caller

b) To assess the Caller d) Formality

Q495 Butter sing means a) Putting Sand bags around the suspected item b) Putting tarpaulin over the suspected item carefully c) Opening all the ventilator's around the suspected item d) Cordoning the area and evacuate all the pax from that area Q496 Searching of furniture fittings comes under a) Waist to head level b) Head to ceiling level c) Floor to waist level d) Floor to head level Q497 Which is not the part of levels of search a) Chest to floor level b) Floor to waist level c) Waist to head level d) None of the above Q498 BTAC stands for:

a) b) c) e)

Bomb Threat Assessment Committee Bomb Threat Action Committee Bomb Threat Action Council Bomb Threat Addition Committee

Q499. BWAF is a document required for:

a) b) c) d)

Access Control Taking action for Bomb Threat Contingency Calibration of DFMD Minutes of Security Committee Meeting

Q500 Which of the following committee is headed by APD:

a) BTAC

b) CCS

c) COSAH

d) All the above

Q501 Appendix “A” of BWAF is filled by

a) Recipients of the bomb threat call c) By airline Personnel

b) By ASG personnel d) None of these

Q502 Which is not the member of BTAC (a) CASO (b) WSO of ATC (c) AWO of DGCA (d) COSAH Q503 Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation

a) AC

b) CC

c) COSAH

d) BTAC

Q504 Among the following who is the chairman of COSAH

a) Cabinet secretary c) Both a and b

b) Principal secretary foreign affairs d) None of these

Q505 DG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation

a) COSAH

b) CMG

c) CC

d) None of these

Q506 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation

a) COSAH

b) CMG

c) CC

d) None of these

Q507 Among the following who is not the member of COSAH

a) Principal secretary to PM c) Secretary Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Secretary Ministry of Defense d) None of these

Q508 The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking

a) CC

b) CCS

c) AC

d) BTAC

Q509 According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to

immobilize the aircraft a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way b) Deflating of tires by personnel coming from the rear end c) Putting off the lights of the runway/taxi way during night d) All the above Q510 Who of the following can be a hoax bomb threat caller

a) Prankster b) Besotted lover

c) One who has planted the bomb d) All the above

Q511 A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its credibility or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures a) Specific call c) Hoax Caller b) Non specific call d) None of the above Q512 What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?

a) b) c) d)

Interrupt in between the communication when the caller is saying something Listen carefully and note down the important information Do gossip with him and kill time, so that he is engaged for more time None of these

Q513 Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports

a) APD c) Customs and Immigration

b) CASO d) All the above

Q514 Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the

aircraft. a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90% b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area c) Both a and b d) None of these Q515 Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground

a) Aircraft to be cordoned c) All action to be under one commander

b) Negotiation team should be formed d) No need to form negotiation team

Q516 If hijacking takes place in Chennai this will be treated as

a) National contingency c) It is not a contingency

b) Contingency of local area only d) None of these

Q517 Who of the following can be a genuine bomb threat caller

a) One who has planted the bomb b) Accomplice of the person who has planted the bomb c) Both a and b d) Only a Q518 Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport

prepares its own Contingency Plan a) AAI b) ASG c) BCAS

d) None of these

Q519 In case of “Specific” Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action

a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB b) ASG will be cordoning the area c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft d) All the above Q520 Which of the following is an action at the time of high alert

a) 100% physical inspection of the vehicle b) Deployment of the personnel will be same as normal c) Both a and b d) None of these Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport

a) 115 cms c) Both a and b

b) 100 cms d) No hand baggage

Q522 Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person,

only by authorization of a)COSCA b) DG/CISF

c)DG/NSG

d)DGCA

Q523 Coordinator of BTAC ?

a) APD

b) COSCA

c) CASO

Q524 The coordinator of BTAC at international airport is a) APD b) CASO c) AWO

d) COMMANDANT d) WSO

Q525 BTAC evaluate the threat with the help of a) Bomb warning assessment form b) By discussion c) By majority d) None of the above

Q526 In case of specific bomb threat call, the aircraft has to be shifted to a) Hanger b) Isolation bay c) New aerobridge d) Away from T.B. Q527 Which of the following committee deals with hijacking a) BTAC b) APSC c) COSAH

d) All of these

Q528 The airport security committee meets every a) Month b) Two months c) Three months

d) Whenever required

Q529 Permissible size of a hand baggage is a) 120 cms b) 115 cms

c) 200 cms

d) 250 cms

Q530 In following, who is not included as a member of Aerodrome committee in District Head Quarter? a) CASO, b) Airline Representative, c) District Magistrate, d) Home secretary of state. Q531 In following, who is not included as a member of Central committee? a) Secretary of ministry of Civil Aviation, b) Joint Director IB, c) ADG ASG, c) IG (Ops) NSG Q532 The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals a) Commissioner of police/DGP c) APD c) Home secretary of state d) CASO Q533. Who is permitted to carry weapon in their hand baggage a) NSG personnel c) ASG b) Airline Security d) Sky Marshal Q534 Chief security officer (CASO) is head of a) Airline security c) BCAS b) ASG/APSU d) DGCA Q535 Question technique in BTCP formed to know a) Details of the bomb threat caller b) a bomb threat call specific or non-specific c) a routine process. d) None of the above Q536 Committee constituted in India to deal with acts of unlawful interference a) CLIP c) CTCP b) BTCP d) COSAH Q537 What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation c) AC c) COSAH d) CC d) All the above Q538 Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security training in India a) BCAS c) COSCA b) DGCA d) CASO

Q539 Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security? a) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters b) To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme c) To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation d) All the above Q540 As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang b) 10 feet with 2 feet over hang c) 9 feet with 3 feet over hang d) 12 feet with 2 and half feet over hang Q541 In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline engineers and airline security: a)ASG Personnel c) BCAS b)BDDS d) All of the above Q542 The chairperson of group “A” and group “B” Central Committee is a)DGCA c) APD b)COSCA d) All the above Q543 What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the aircraft a) 2-3 minutes c) Can take their own time b)10 minutes d) None of the above Q544 Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as a) Aircraft accident c) Full emergency b) Airport accident d) None of these Q545 Formation of BCAS comes after recommendation of. a) B N Kripal commette c) B N Krisna commette b) B D Pandey commette

d) Arun mishra commette

Q546 CCS Stands for………………………..? a) Constant current supplier c) Cabinet committee of secretaries

b) Cabinet committee of security d) Committee of counselors for security

Q547.The convener of A.C. at airports located in the state capital a) CP/DGP b) APD c) Home secretary

d) CASO

Q548 The chairman of APSC at an international airport is a) APD b) CASO c) Airline Duty Manager

d) DGCA

Q549.The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters a) CP/DM/DC b) APD c) SP/DCP d) CASO Q550 Bomb threat comes under? a) Hijacking b) Sabotage Q551 Convener of APSC? a) APD c) CASO Q552 BTAC is convened by

c) Pilferage

b) Commissioner of BDDS d) Chief of IATA

d) Petty crime

a) APD b) RDCOS c) COSCA d) BDDS Q553 Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call a) Notify supervisor b) Questioning c) Filling appendix “A” d) None of these Q554 Which is the convener of International/Domestic Airport security committee a) Airport Director c) CASO b) RDCOS d) COSCA Q555 In case of unlawful seizure of an aircraft, Which committee meets at the airport a) Central Committee c) Aerodrome Committee b) Airport Security committee d) Secretaries on aircraft hijacking Q556 Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an aircraft a) Fresh boarding cards to be issued b) The aircraft is shifted to the isolation bay c) Check-in and boarding process is to be stopped d) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay Q557 Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an aircraft a) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay b) Boarded pax to be off-loaded and brought back to the check-in counter. c) Search of the aircraft to be done by airlines security & Airline engineers d) Fresh boarding cards to be issued Q558 Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee at state capital a) State Home Secretary c) DGCA b) DCP/DM d) APD Q559 Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee outside District level a) State Home Secretary c) DGCA b) DCP/DM d) APD Q560 To whom pilot gives first information about any crisis a) AC b) ATC c) CC d) CCS Q561 Who is not the member of Group –A of CC a) Joint director, NSG b) Joint director, airport authority of India c) A senior executive of the affected airlines d) None of these Q562 Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in performance of their duties: a) Need not submit to a physical search. b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector. c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers. d) Not required Q563 In boarding gate plan a) There is separate queue for airlines b) all are having the same area c) Main entrance screening is done

d) Screening starts at boarding gate Q564 In concourse plan the screening starts at a) Main entrance b) at boarding gate c) After all Clearance d) not related with boarding Q565 In holding area plan. a) Separate area for SHA c) Main entrance screening is done

b) All are having the same area d) At boarding gate screening starts

Q566 The plan adopted at Srinagar airport is a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse plan c) Holding area plan d) Holding & concourse plan Q567 Which is concerned with basic screening concept a) Concourse Plan b) Holding area plan c) Boarding gate plan d) All of the above Q568. How many screening staff required at each XBIS a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) None of the above Q569 How many people required for a ideal screening team a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4 Q570 Passengers who refuse to be physically searched a) Are within their rights but must not be allowed on the aircraft b) Must be physically restrained by the searcher until the police arrive c) Must be searched very carefully with the hand-held metal detector d) BCAS must be contacted to tackle such passengers Q571 Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India a) Boarding Gate Plan b) Hold Area Plan c) Concourse Plan d) Both b & c Q572 Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan a) More time available b) To be staffed only during screening c) Large number of screening staff/ equipments required d) None of the above Q573 Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan a) To be staffed only during screening b) More time available c) Less pressure to examine passenger d) All of the above Q574 Which is the following is not a disadvantage of a Holding Area Plan a) To be secured when not in use b) Less pressure to examine passenger c) Large area to be controlled and secured d) All of the above Q575 What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area a) Physical search of passenger b)X-Ray examination of baggage c) Physical search of baggage d)All the above Q576 A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times a) At least 60 minutes before the passengers board the aircraft b) At the time the passengers start to board the aircraft c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area

d) All the above Q577 The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons a) In response to an airport bomb threat b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items c) Whenever a high level of threat exists d) None of the above Q578 One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding area is as follows a) Search from floor to waist level b) Search from floor to head level c) Search from waist to ceiling level d) Search from floor to ceiling level Q579 Which among the following are the don’ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal building a) Don’t handle it b) Don’t touch it c) Don’t attempt to open the item d) All the above Q580 The security plan used at airport are a) Concourse plan c) Boarding gate plan

b) Holding area plan d) All of the above

Q581 Prescribed procedure for carry out search of building are a) Flour to waist level b) Waist to head level c) Head to ceiling level d) All of the above Q582 Large no. of screening staff/equipment are required in a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse are plan c) Holding area plan d) None of the above Q583 The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse area plan c) Holding area plan d) None of the above Q584 SHA is secured by a). Pax Screening & searching c). Both a & b above

b). X-rays & physical checking of baggage d). None of these

Q585 Sterility of SHA is maintained by a). Anti sabotage & access control c.) Allowing pax by & goods with out search

b). Effective screening of pax d). Only (a) & (b)

Q586 What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building a) Not to touch b) Marking and informing to supervisor. c) Both (a) & (b) above.

d) Try to open & bring to control room

Q587 A sterile area must be set up a) Between landside and airside b) Between the passenger check point and passenger screening point c) Only (a) d) None of the above Q588 How many passenger-screening systems are followed in world: a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

Q589 Passenger screening is mainly needed: a) to ensure that no unauthorized person passes the landside/airside barrier. b) to ensure that no prohibited items are carried past the screening point. c) to ensure that passengers are not allowed on the aircraft unless their baggage has been checked. d) All of the above Q590 Three passenger screening concept are a) concourse, holding area and boarding gate b) outer , inner and middle protective c) CTCP,BTCP and Anti hijacking contingency d) None of the above Q591 In how many color X-BIS project the image? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Q592 X-RAY moves at the speed of …. a) Electricity b) light c) Rocket d) Wind Q593 In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in. a) Green & Blue b) Orange c) Purple d) all Q594 Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than a) 18min b) 30 min. c) 20 min. d) 40 min. Q595 What is through put rate of registered baggage? a) 300 bag / hr b) 400 bag / hr c) 350 bag / hr d) 450 bag / hr Q596 There are …………… test in CTP a) 4 b) 6 c) 8

d) 9

Q597 TIP stands for a) Threat Image Projection c) Threat Item Protection

b) Threat Item Projection d) Three Image Projection

Q598 Which is not used in security? a) HHMD c) CCTV

b) RT SET d) Laptop

Q599 Which is not a benefit of TIP? a) Motivation c) Alertness

b) Immediate feedback d) Acceptance

Q600 At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP tests? a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it &work c) stop the machine & notify supervisor d) none of these

Q601 If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage a) Take action as per local SOP b) Inform BDDS c) Inform BCAS d) Inform Police Q602. What is the radiation distance from tunnel of X-BIS? a) 1 cm b) 5 cms c) 15 cms d) 25 cms Q603 XBIS stands for a) X-ray Baggage Inspection System c) X-ray baggage screening system Q604

b) X-ray screening of baggage d) X-ray baggage imaging system

XBIS gives colour to different articles based on a) Atomic weight b) Density c) Atomic no. d) Weight of material

Q605 CTP stands for a) Combined test performance c) Computer tomography projection

b) Combined Test Piece d) Comprehensive testing procedure

Q606. Distance between two bags while screening on X-Ray machine should not be less than a) 30 cms b) 40 cms c) 35 cms d) 25 cms Q607 In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible a) .05mm b) .10mm c) 1 mm d) .01mm Q608 Threat image projection is installed on X-Ray machine not to a) To check the individual performance b) To project fictional images b) To provide training regarding real threat objects d) To check machine efficiency Q609 SWG stands for a) simple wire guage c) standard wire guage

b) single wire guage d) steel wire guage

Q610 Which is not the property of X-Ray? a) It is invisible rays b) It moves in a straight line c) It is ionizing radiation d) It reflected with lens and prism Q611 Which is the pre-operation check of the X-BIS a) ensure the inspection tunnel b) ensure the lead curtain c) ensure all emergency switches d) All of the above Q612 What are the items which create difficulties during screening a) Children toys b) Wrapped gifts c) Urns of human remains d) All of the above Q613 Measuring unit of an X-Ray is a) Meter b) Roentgen

c) Milli roentgen

d) None of the above

Q614 Which is the advantage of XBIS a) High penetration rate c) Safe for film food and drugs

b) High resolution d) None of the above

Q615. Which is the requirement of XBIS a) High penetration rate

b) Enable speedy screening

c) Safe for film food and drugs

d) None of the above

Q616 Which is the specification of XBIS a) Speed of the conveyor belt should be 18 to 0.3 mtr/sec b) Convenience to the pax c) Safe for film food and drugs d) None of the above Q617 Which is not the in built safety measures of XBIS a) External housing b) Lead curtain c) Emergency switch d) None of the above Q618 Which is the speed of conveyer belt a) 0.18 mtr/sec. to 0.3 mtr/ sec c) 0.18 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr /sec

b) 0.1 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr/ sec d) None of the above

Q619 How many feed backs we get in TIP a) 2 b) 3 c) 4

d) None of the above

Q620 Feedback of detected object appears in which colour a) Red colour b) Green colour c) Yellow colour d) None of the above Q621 Feedback of missed object appears in which colour a) Red colour b) Green colour c) Yellow colour d) None of the above Q622 Feedback of aborted/cancelled object appears in which colour a) Red colour b) Green colour c) Yellow colour d) None of the above Q623 Tailored training programme is a benefit of a) CTP b) TIP c) OTP

d) None of the above

Q624 In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the perspex sheet a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG Q625 In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge of aluminum a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG Q626 Multi energy test it discriminate the material as per their a) Atomic number b) Atomic weight c) Molecular weight d) None of the above Q627 Which strip should be seen beneath o 26 mm steel in simple penetration test a) Pb b) Tn c) Fe d) Mg Q628 In spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which plate a) copper b) Iron c) Nickel d) None of the above Q629 In thin metal imaging test which mm strip should be seen a) 0.1 b) 0.05 c) 0.01

d) 1.00

Q630 Advantages of XBIS is a) Enable speedy screening c) Safe for Food

b) Convenience to the pax d) All of the above

Q631 In Civil Aviation Security X-BIS is used for a) Screening of a hand baggage c) Screening of cargo

b) Screening of a registered baggage d) All the above

Q632 Which among the following are properties of X-rays a) Invisible electro-magnetic radiations b) Does not get deflected when passed through prism c) Impair or destroy the living cells d) All the above Q633 X-BIS is considered to be safe for the following a) Edible items b) Film and cameras c) Drugs

d) All the above

Q634 As per guidelines of BCAS high resolution of X-BIS is should be a) 26 SWG b) 38 SWG c) 30 SWG d) 40 SWG Q635 Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which comes under which of the following a) One of the requirements of X-BIS b) One of the properties of X-BIS c) One of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS d) None of the above Q636 In X-BIS, what is meant by TIP a) Threat Identification Procedure c) Tested and Identified Packet

b) Threat Image Projection d) Test Identification Parade

Q637 In the X-Ray machines “Lead” is primarily used to a) Absorb radiation b) Detect arms and ammunition c) Detect explosives d) Increase the “Through-Put” Q638 PLX falls under which category of prohibited item a) Dangerous Article b) Weapon c) Dangerous Substance d) Explosive Q639 Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray Baggage Inspection System are detected a) Camera and Mirror System b) Multi Energy System c) Single Energy System d) Trace Detector System Q640 As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the speed of conveyor belt should be? a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec b) 0.18 to 0.30 cm/sec c) 0.20 to 0.35 mtrs/sec d) 0.15 to 0.25 mtrs/hr Q641 Pre-operation check of X-BIS is carried to ensure a) XBIS is working properly b) XBIS will not work without pre-operation check. c) Both (a) & (b)

d) None of the above

Q642 In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with

a) The colour and shape of the image c) Colour of the item

b) The photo of the item d) After the physical examination

Q643 If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify? a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked b) The bag is clear c) The bag has a confirmed threat object d) None of the above Q644 Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visible a) Single wire resolution b) Simple penetration c) Useful penetration d) Spatial resolution Q645 Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the a) Atomic number of the item b) Density of the item c) Colour of the item d) Shape of the item Q646 Which of the following is the advantage of TIP a) Source of motivation for screeners b) Increase alertness c) Records individual performance d) All the above Q647 Sensors are one of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS, what are the functions of sensors in X-BIS? a) External panels b) Prevent X-Rays from being generated c) X-Rays are generated only when there is a bag inside the tunnel d) None of the above Q648 What is the disadvantage of the X-BIS a) Efficiency depends on human factor c) Very costly

b) Only trained staff can operate d) All the above

Q649 What is the main aim of the screening is a) To detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices b) To control movement of people c) To control movement of vehicles d) None of the above Q650 CTP is conducted to check that a) XBIS is working properly c) XBIS will not work without CTP Q651 TIP images are a) Fictional

b) Real

b) XBIS is working as per BCAS specifications. d) None of the above c) Both a & b

d) None of the above

Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening a) Books b) Clothes in bag c) Religious objects d) Water in bag Q653 The image which is not clear in X-ray monitor a) Shall not be allowed to carry in hand baggage c) Pax to be advised to put in registered baggage

b) Should be checked physically d) None of the above

Q654 If X-rayed item is obviously a weapon such as a gun a) Stop the conveyor belt b) Do not stop conveyer c) Call BDDS d) refer for physical checking Q655 If the X-ray operator is IN DOUBT, about an object, he/she should

a) Refer the bag for physical inspection c) Inform the supervisor

b) Stop the conveyor belt d) Inform local police or BDDS

Q656 As per BCAS Circular on procedure, the total no. of trained staff required to man an XBIS in a shift are (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6 Q657 Typical X-ray screening point log will contain (a) Location of screening point (c) Airline flight No & destination (b) Time and date of occurrences (d) All the above Q658 Which is the feature associated with In-Built safety of XBIS (a) Low x-ray dose (b) (c) Collimeter (d)

X-ray generator External housing

Q659 The throughput rate of XBIS machine as per BCAS specifications for hand baggage should be. (a) 150 bags/hr (c) 300 bags/hr (b) 500 bags/hr (d) 100 bags/hr Q660 X-rays are(a) Invisible rays (b) Electro-magnetic radiation

(c) Travel in straight line (d) All the above

Q661 Which of the following item is not allowed in cabin baggage (a) Books (c) I-Pod (b) Calculator (d) 200 ml cold drinks in a bottle Q662 TIP images are helpful to screener because they provide (a) Immediate feedback (c) Both (a) & (b) (b) Tailored training (d) None of the above Q663 Before operating the X-ray equipment (a) Check that nothing is obstructing the conveyor belt (b) Make sure there is a table available for searching for physical inspection (c) Make sure that the conveyor belt and the monitor screen are not dirty (d) All of above. Q664 The ability of X-ray machine to image thin metal is tested by a) Single wire resolution test of CTP c) O.T.P b) Thin metal imaging test of CTP d) Spatial resolution test of CTP Q665 In CTP test, the “material discrimination” ability of XBIS is tested by a) Single wire resolution test c) Multi energy test b) Simple penetration test d) Useful penetration test Q666 ‘SEN’ key in XBIS machine stands for a) Super enhancement b) Specific Enhancement c) Superior Enhancement d) Sector Enhancement

Q667 In XBIS item which can not be penetrated by X-ray appears in a) Blue color c) Dark orange b) Black/opaque d) Green Q668 How many colors are displayed in XBIS monitor a) Green, Blue, Black & Orange c) Green, Black, Purple & Yellow b) Green, Blue, Black & Purple d) Black, Green, Brown & Yellow Q669 Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain a) Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation b) Make of machine d) None of the above Q670 X-Ray machine is safe for……? a) Food & film b) Human being

c)

Pacemaker

d) Pets

Q671 Which among the following is requirements of a X-BIS as per the BCAS guidelines a) Low false alarm rate b) Throughput rate not less than 350 bags per hour c) Should have high penetration of 37 mm steel d) All the above Q672 Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin? a) Mace c) Marshal art device b) Replica of weapon d) All the above Q673 In X-Ray machines, CTP is used to a)To test the performance c) To detect dangerous items b)To detect the Explosives d) To detect a Weapon Q674 What is the colour of RDX when X-Ray examined a) Orange c) Green b) Blue d) None of the above Q675

CTP is not used to a) to test the thickness of steel, the machine about to penetrate b) to distinguish between material of different atomic no. c) to test the efficiency of the x-ray screener d)

to insure the machine performance

Q676 How many types of generators are used in X-BIS? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Q677 Color of metals in X-BIS? a) Green & Blue b) Orange

c) Purple

d) all

Q678 Which one of the following is the properties of X-Ray a) High detection rate b) They are invisible c) Low false alarm d) Integrated imaging device system Q679 Low X-Ray dose is belongs to which of the following a) In –built safety measures c) Requirement of X-ray b) Properties of X-Rays d) None of these

Q680 Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while screening a) Urns containing human remains c) Sword b) Hockey stick d) Cricket bat Q681 Minimum amount of metal should detect by DFMD? a) 35 gms b) 30 gms c) 25 gms d) 20 gms Q682 Distance from DFMD to person? a) 90 cms b) 100cms c) 102cms d) 105cms Q683 The size of the DFMD is a) 2 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr c) 2 Mtr X .70 to .80 Mtr Q684 Threshold mass for DFMD is a) 10gms c) 30gms

b) 3 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr d) None of the above b) 20gms d) None of the above

Q685 How many zones are in MZDFMD is a) Seven b) Eight c) Nine d) None of the above Q686 DFMD detects a) Explosives c) Non metallic item

b) Ferrous and Non ferrous metal d) None of the above

Q687 Which is the part of DFMD a) Transmitter panel c) Lead shielding

b) Lead curtain d) None of the above

Q688 Which is not the part of DFMD a) Transmitter panel c) Cross piece

b) Receiver panel d) Lead curtain

Q689 Size of OTP is a) 10cms X 10cms c) 15cms X 15cms

b) 20cms X 10cms d) None of the above

Q690 Weight of OTP is a) 35gms c) 25gms

b) 30gms d) none of the above

Q691 Preparedness of the DFMD is measured with the a) CTP b) Reference cartridge c) OTP d) None of the above Q692 The DFMD resets after a) 5 Sec c) 3 Sec

b) 3 Hrs d) None of the above

Q693 When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optimum

efficiency a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference d) All the above Q694 The full form of DFMD is a) Door Frame Metal Detector c) Detect Frame Metal detector

b) Door From Metal detector d) Detect & Frame Metal Detector

Q695 Acceptable height of DFMD as per BCAS specification is a) 2 m b) 4 m c) 5 m d) 6 m Q696 Width of DFMD is a) 75 cms to 85 cms

b) 2 m

Q697 DFMD is tested with the help of a) CTP b) OTP

c) 1 m

d) 1.05 m

c) CTX

d) Swab Paper

Q698 As per BCAS guidelines DFMD is calibrated to detect metal upto a) 5 gm b) 10 gm c) 15 gm d) 30 gm Q699 DFMD gives a) Audio alarm

b) Visual alarm

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) None of the above

Q700 Control panel and cross piece are found in (a) DFMD c) X-BIS (b) HHMD d) EVD/ETD Q701 When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be a) 30 cms c) 35 cms b) 90 cms d) 100 cms Q702 ‘Sensitivity & Specificity’ is the term associated with a) XBIS c) DFMD b) HHMD d) ETD/EVD Q702 The full form of HHMD is a) Hand Held Metal Detector c) Held Hand Metal Detector

b) Hand Hold Metal Detector d) None of the above

Q703 The minimum detection capacity of HHMD is a) 5 gm b) 1 gm c) 0.5 gm

d) 2 gm

Q704 As per BCAS specification , weight of HHMD should not exceed a) 250 gm b) 100 gm c) 200 gm d) 500 gm Q705 The HHMD should be kept ……. Away from Pax body while carrying out frisking a) 3.5 cms b) 4 cms c) 2.5 cms d) 5 cms

Q706 The main purpose of access control system at airport is a) To control the movement of pax & vehicle b) Facilitate Pax c) Facilitate VIP d) Control movement of pax and vehicle from landside to airside Q707. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage

a) Union Council of ministers c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees

b) Sky Marshals d) PSOs of President

Q708 What are the primary reasons for escorting people

a) For their own safety when moving in airside b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for a subsequent attack c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q709 What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft) (a) 30 km/hr (b) 20 km/hr (c) 15 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr Q710 Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into aircraft (a) In hand baggage (b) In registered baggage (c) In both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above Q712 SARP on security are given in (a) Annex.18 of ICAO manual (b) Annex.12 of ICAO manual (c) Annex.17 of ICAO manual (d) Annex.9 of ICAO manual Q713 Check the battery is fully charge is applicable to a) DFMD b) HHMD c) X-BIS

d) EVD

Q714 ETD detects a) Metals c) Gases

b) Explosives d) None of the above

Q715 ETD detects explosives by a) Capturing vapour c) Density

b) Traces particles d) None of the above

Q716 The approx weight of EVD is a) 3Kgs c) 5 kgs

b) 2 Kgs d) None of the above

Q717 The approx weight of ETD is a) 30 Kgs c) 40 kgs

b) 25 Kgs d) None of the above

Q718 EDDS Stands for a) Explosive detection and disposal Squad b) Explosive device detection System c) Explosive device detection Squad d) Exposive detection device System Q719 ETD can detect explosive upto a) 5 gm b) .5 gm

c) nanogram level

d) 2 gm

Q720 100% physical baggage checking is required ? a) For British Airlines flight b) on Threat call c) Normal time d) Always According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ? a) Normal b) Sensitive c) Hyper Sensitive d) All the above

Q721

Q722 What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a passenger

a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation d) All of the above Q723 Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out

a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents of baggage b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment d) All the above Q724 At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked

a) Ask passengers to operate the item b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off d) All the above Q725 Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a baggage

a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely before moving on to the next one. c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q726 Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team

a) Physically inspect items requiring attention c) Issuing the boarding card

b) Supervise a busy screening point d) None of the above

Q727 Before commencing search of pax baggage (a) His/her consent to be taken (b) No need to take consent as it is duty of security staff to check the bag (c) Consent can be obtained depending upon the status of pax (d) Consent should be taken only when the pax in female Q728. While conducting physical search of baggage method should be (a) No special method required (c) Find out the suspicious object only (b) Systematic (d) All of the above

Q729 Airport movement rules for vehicles apply to security staff: (a) at all times. (b) at all times except when they are on patrol. (c) at all times except in an emergency. (d) None of the above Q730 Physical inspection of baggage is required (a) When a prohibited item other than IED is detected (b) When item is not distinguishable in the monitor (c) When screener doubt as to the safety of any article in the baggage (d) All of the above Q731 The person who need not to be escorted… a) VIP b) Person in custody c) Authorized visitor d) Passengers Q732 In night, aircraft should be parked in ……… a) Dark area b) well-lit area c) Without guard d) Under camouflage Q733 Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function a) Ticketing of the passengers. b) Provides security control for Cargo which is accepted and required by appropriate authority. c) Conducts business with the aircraft operator for freight forwarding d) All the above Q734 How is the diplomatic baggage handled

a) The baggage must bear distinct external marks of the Embassy and the name and the address of the consignee b) Diplomatic bags of any classification will not be opened in any case c) Diplomatic bags which are carried as hand baggage by the diplomatic courier shall not be screened provided the diplomatic courier produces certificate to that effect that it is a diplomatice bag and it does not contain any prohibited/ dangerous article d) All the above Q735 Why is cargo considered an attractive target for terrorists

a) Generally very bulky, which is difficult for screening. b) Small amount of explosives could be easily hidden which is sufficient for sabotage c) Generally unaccompanied and therefore can be used as means of sabotage d) All the above Q736 What standard procedure is adopted for security of diplomatic bags

a) Category A bags to be accepted without screening/cooling off restriction subject to production of certificate b) Other than category A to be treated at par with cargo c) In no case should be physically checked d) All the above Q737 What is Sterile Area

a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly controlled b) The area between check in point and main entrance of terminal building c) The area between ATC and runway where the access is controlled d) All of the above

Q738 Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles up to

the tarmac at civil airports in the country a) Protocol grounds b) Medical grounds

c) Security grounds

d) All the above

Q739 What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage

a) PSOs of President c) Sky Marshals on duty

b) PSOs of Vice President d) All the above

Q740 What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage

a) Union Council of ministers c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees

b) Sky Marshals d) PSOs of President

Q741 What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered baggage after it has been screened a) Sealed b) Safeguarded c) Escorted d) All the above Q742 Security personnel will be required to provide an escort as follows a) For carry- on baggage after it has been screened b) For registered baggage after it has been handed over in at the airline counter c) For registered baggage after it has been security screened d) None of the above Q743 Who among the following is responsible for the movement of valuable consignments a) Airport security personnel b) Airline security personnel c) Agency involved d) Both b and c Q744 While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that a) The movement is planned in advance b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment d) All the above Q745 What are the primary reasons for escorting people a) For their own safety when moving in airside b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for a subsequent attack c) Both a and b d) None of the above Q746 The typical categories of people requiring escort are a) Deportee & inadmissible persons b) Person in custody c) VIPs d) All the above Q747 Catering security is ensured by (a) Access control of premises (b) Inspection by BCAS and Airline

c)Transportation under escort d) all of the above

Q748 Security measures for Cargo are (a) Physical check c) Cooling off method (b) X-ray examination d) All the above

Q749 Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle a) All pax c) M. P b) President of India d) Cabinet minister of state Q750 C.M. of state & chief Justice of India will be checked by a) HHMD c) Physical check b) DFMD d) Exempted from security check Q751 For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from a) ASG c) DGCA b) BCAS d) Concerned Airline Q752 MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport a) Aircraft c) All area b) Upto T.B. d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP Q753 The following persons are not exempted from PEC? a) Cabinet Ministers b) Supreme court Judges c) Vice President of Ghana d) Deportee Q754 Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents in respect carriage of dead a) Body onboard an aircraft is b) Embalming certificate by hospital c) Death certificate from competent Medical authority d) All the belongings of the deceased Q755 In-Line Baggage X-Ray screening System is the responsibility of a) ASG c) APSU b) BCAS d) Respective Airport operador Q756 Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold baggage a) On duty police personnel c) Passenger with arms license b) Authorized sports personnel d) On duty Airline security Q757 ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk a) Employees while entering the operational area b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area c) Employees while entering SHA d) All of above Q758

Simulation chamber a) operates on the principle of activating the explosive device in the suspect object by simulating the condition arises during real air journey b) physical conditions c) Detects weapon d) Detects dangerous article

Q759 What document is required for carriage of dead body a) Death certificate c) Police clearance b) Embalming certificate d) All of the above

Q760 Category of people who need to be escorted a) Prisoner c) Employee b) Airport users d) None of the above Q761 A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hold baggage with the permission a) Airline operator c) DGCA b)COSCA d) CASO Q762

In India NCASTP will be implemented by a) All agencies involved in Civil Aviation Operations in India b) All Airline Operators in India c) All Airport Operators in India d None of the above

Q763 Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks a) Member of parliament c) Speaker of Lok Sabha b) President of India d) Cabinet Ministers Q764 A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be your action? a) Take no special action b) Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous c) Unscrew the container and smell the contents d None of the above Q765 Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on board on aircraft a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops b) Lady’s hand bag c) Umbrella and walking stick d) All the above Q766 What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in Aircrafts flying in domestic sector? a) A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches b) A length of max 6 inches with the blades not exceeding 3 inches c) A length of max 9 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm d) A length of max 6 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm Q767 What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected while screening a baggage through X-BIS a) Remain calm and polite – do not alarm passenger b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists d) All the above Q768 The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area must result in: a) Marking the area of location b)Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer c)Clearing the immediate area of vicinity d)All the above

Q769 The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with a)ASG b)Air Operator c)Airport Operator d)Relatives or Dependents of the pax Q770 Which agency has the primary responsibility in moving a deportee? a) Immigration authorities c) Airport Security Unit b)Concerned airline security d) All the above Q771 Significance of 23.02.1931 a) First hijacking in the history of civil aviation b) First sabotage in the history of civil aviation c) ICAO came into existence d) None of these Q772 After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India a) Deployment of Sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports c) Secondary Ladder Point Checking d) All the above Q773 Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircraft is to a) Ask the identity of the person b) Ask the reason for being near the aircraft c) Both a and b d) None of these Q774 Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of a) ASG c) Airport Operator b) Airline Security d) BCAS Q775 Escorting VVIP at airport is the responsibility of a) ASG c) Airport Operator b) Local police d) Both a & b Q776 The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by a) X—ray examination and physical search b) Cooling off methods c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above .Q777 Embalming certificate is required for a) Carrying of prisoner c) Carriage animal b) Carriage of dead body d) None of the above Q778 Baggage reconciliation is – a) Tallying number of baggage’s checked in & accepted for loading in the aircraft with the pax reported for boarding the aircraft. b) Counting of registered baggage c) Counting of hand baggage loaded in the cabin of aircraft. d) Counting of pax at boarding gate. Q779 Who among the following is exempted from PESC a) Chief Justice of high courts c) Both a) & b) b) Chief Justice of India d) None of the above

Q780 Safeguarding of registered baggage is done by a) Sealing after checking b) By surveillance & escorting c) Ensuring the seals at time of loading d) All of the above Q781 . Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but without escort a) Prime Minister c) SPG Protectees b) President d) Chief justice of India Q782 What is not the provision for carriage of prisoner? a) Pilot should be informed b) Escort should be well equipped c) Prisoner shouldt be hand-cuffed d) Prisoner should be boarded first Q783 Baggage Identification is the duty of ? a) CASO b) Airlines c) APSU Q784

d) APD

Which is not exempted from pre embarkation security check a) Prime Minister of India c) Speaker of Lok Sabha b) President of India d) Judges of High Court

Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid to a. Wrapped gifts and presents b. Bottles containing liquids c. Cameras, radios and electrical items d. All the above Q786 Who among the following category of people need to be escorted a) Authorized visitors b) Deportees and inadmissible persons c) VIPs d) All the above Q787 What is the significance of 02-12-1988 in civil aviation history a) Explosion of air craft at Mombasa (Kenya) b) Explosion of Pan-Am aircraft over Lockerbie, Scotland c) Amendment to the Anti Hijacking Act d) None of these Q788 Which is not related with medical emergencies (a) Delivery of new born (c) Communicable diseases (b) Food poisoning (d) terrorist attack Q789 Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of (a) Anti handling switch (b) Delay Mechanism (c) Command

(d) Ambient

Q790 In what circumstances the baggage will be physically checked (a) on the instructions of supervisor (c) When machine is not functioning (b)) on the instructions of seniors (d) none of the Q791 Which is the component of an IED (a) Generator (b) Detonator (c) Cross Piece

(d) CTP

Q792 An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage (a) Knife (b) Lighter (c) Book

(d) Blade

Q793 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit (a) Access Gates (b) Signature of issuing authority (c) Tally the Photograph (d) None of the above Q794 The switch mechanism are classified into a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 Q795 Which comes in the category of prohibited articles (a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile (c) Lap top

(d) Folding umbrella

Q796 Which is not the property of X-Ray (a)is invisible rays (b) It moves in straight line (c) It is ionizing radiation (d) It reflected with lens and prism Q797 Denser the object the image will be (a) Thicker (b) thinner

(c) Darker

Q798 Which is the pre-operation check of the X-BIS (a) ensure the inspection tunnel (c) ensure all emergency switches Q799 Measuring unit of an X-Ray is (a) Meter (b) Roentgen (c) Milli roentgen

(d) None of the above (b) ensure the lead curtain (d) All of the above (d) None of the above

Q800 Barometric is a switch mechanism of (a) Anti handling switch (b) Delay Mechanism (c) Command

(d) Ambient

ANSWER KEYS

a bc d

a b c d

a bc d

1

0 0 0 0

41 0 0 0 0

81

0 0 0 0

2

0 0 0 0

42 0 0 0 0

82

0 0 0 0

3

0 0 0 0

43 0 0 0 0

83

0 0 0 0

4

0 0 0 0

44 0 0 0 0

84

0 0 0 0

5

0 0 0 0

45 0 0 0 0

85

0 0 0 0

6

0 0 0 0

46 0 0 0 0

86

0 0 0 0

7

0 0 0 0

47 0 0 0 0

87

0 0 0 0

8

0 0 0 0

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