Objective Type Questions On

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ON CONSTITUTION OF INDIA 1. The Supreme Court of India upheld the decision to implement the quota for other backward glasses (OBCs) in higher educational institutions. The court, however, excluded the "creamy layer" from being a beneficiary. The reason is: (a) Creamy layer is not an OBC; it is a forward caste (b) Creamy layer is politically powerful (c) It can compete with others on equal footing (d) The inclusion of creamy layer would be unjust. 2. Which Article authorises the Parliament to form new States, and alter areas, boundaries or names of existing States? (a) Article 2 (b) Article 3 (c) Article 6 (d) Article 8 3. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as (a) yielding the floor (b) crossing the floor. (c) anti-defection (d) decoram 4. All-India Services come under Article: (a) 310 (b) 312 (c) 316 (d) 319 5. What is the duration of 'zero hour' in Lok Sabha? (a) 15 minutes (b) Half-an-hour (c) One hour (d) Not specified. 6. The State which bas the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is (a) Bihar. (b) Gujarat. (c) Uttar Pradesh. (d) Madhya Pradesh. 7. Which of the following Constitutional posts is enjoyed for a fixed term? (a) President

(b) Chief Justice (c) Prime Minister (d) Governor 8. Which of the following exercises, the most profound influence, in framing the Indian Constitution? (a) British Constitution (b) US Constitution (c) Irish Constitution (d) The Government of India Act, 1935. 9. From which Constitution was the Concept of a Five Year Plan borrowed into the Indian Constitution? a) USA b) USSR c) UK d) Ireland 10. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975 by amending the a) Preamble b) Directive Principles c) Fundamental Rights d) All of the above ………………………………………………………………………. SELF STUDY KIT About 5000 objective type questions and answers About 300 short answer questions and answers About 100 essays CLAT 2008 LLM PAPER (solved) Solved questions from LLM Entrance exams conducted by various national law schools LAWEXAMS.IN LAWEXAMS.IN www.lawexams.in CONTRACT 1. The term contract is defined as “an agreement enforceable by law” in section _________of Indian Contract Act. a. 2(e) b. 2(h) c. 2(d) d. 2(g) Ans.b.

2. According to section 2(e) every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is __________ a. Contract b. Agreement c. Offer d. Acceptance Ans.b. 3. A proposal when accepted becomes a. Offer b. Contract c. Promise d. Agreement Ans.c. 4. A promise not supported by consideration is called a. Nudum pactum b. Acceptance c. Agreement d. Proposal Ans.a. 5. A minor’s agreement is void. This proposition is made in a. Nihal Chand Vs. Jan Khan b. Sreekrishnan Vs. Kurukshethra University c. Mohari Beevi Vs. Dharmodas Khosh d. Nanjappa Vs. Muthuswamy Ans.c. 6. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties, but not at the option of the other or others is a. Void agreement b. Voidable contract c. Valid contract d. Nudum pactum Ans.b. 7. When the consent of a party to a contract has been obtained by undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation the contract is a. Legal b. Voidable c. Void d. Enforceable Ans.b. 8. The term ‘proposal or offer’ has been defined in section a. Section 2(a) b. Section 2(b) c. Section 2(c) d. Section 2(d)

Ans.a. 9. A bid at an auction sale is a. An implied offer to buy b. An express offer to buy c. An invitation to offer to buy d. An invitation to come to bid Ans.a. 10. Who said “every agreement and promise enforceable at law is a contract”? a. Austin b. Bentham c. Pollock d. Salmond Ans.c. …………………………………………………………………………… CLAT LLM 2009 SELF STUDY KIT CRIMINAL LAW (OBJECTIVE) LAWEXAMS.IN www.lawexams.in CRIMINAL LAW 1. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or do an act by illegal means such an act amounts to a. Criminal conspiracy b. Criminal indictment c. Abetment d. Constructive liability Ans.a 2. In kidnapping, the consent of minor is a. Partly material b. Wholly material c. Party immaterial d. Wholly immaterial Ans.d 3. P committing a murder removed some ornaments from the dead body. Though the accused P was guilty of an offence of murder. The removal of ornaments amounts to a. Theft b. Mischief c. Misappropriation d. Robbery Ans.c 4. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship under section 361 of IPC can be

a. Of a person of unsound mind b. Of a person under 18 years of age if female c. Of a person under 16 years of age if male d. All the above Ans.d 5. Right of private defence of property against robbery continues a. As long as the offender continues in the commission of criminal trespass or mischief b. As long as the fear of instant death or of instant hurt or of instant personal restraint continues c. As long as the offender causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint d. Both b. and c. Ans.d 6. Assault or criminal force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable under section ____ of IPC a. 356 b. 378 c. 379 d. 384 Ans.a 7. Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and there by facilitates the commission there of, is said to _____ a. Conspire the doing of that act b. Aid the doing of that act c. Abet the doing of that act d. Instigate the doing of that act Ans.b 8. X knows Y to be behind a bush. Z does not know it. X intending to cause or knowing it to be likely to cause Y’s death, induces Z to fire at the bush. Z fires and kills Y. Here Z may be guilty of no offence, but ____ a. X has not committed any offence b. X has committed the offence of culpable homicide c. Z has committed offence of murder d. Has committed the offence of abetment Ans.b 9. In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court held that “brutality is

inbuilt in every murder but in case of every murder death sentence is not imposed”? a. Regu Mahesh Vs. Rajendra Pratap (2004) 1 SCC 46 b. Union of India Vs. Madhusudan Prasad (2004) 1 SCC 43 c. State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Lalit Tandon (2004) 1 SCC 1 d. Prem Sagar Vs. Dharambir (2004) 1 SCC 113 Ans.d 10. Whoever induces or attempts to induce a candidate or voter to believe that he or any person who he is interested will become or will be rendered an object of Divine displeasure or spiritual censure commits the offence of a. Affray b. Illegal gratification c. Bribery d. Undue influence Ans.d ………………………………………………………………………………….. CLAT LLM 2009 SELF STUDY KIT LEGAL THEORY (OBJECTIVE) LAWEXAMS.IN www.lawexams.in LEGAL THEORY 1. Statues are “sources of law------- not parts of the law itself”. This statement is made by (a) Savigny (b) Austin (c ) Gray (d) Pound. 2. According to Salmond, legal sources of law 1. are recognized as such by the law itself II. lack formal recognition by the law III. operate mediately IV. are the only gates through which new principles can find entrance into the law of the above statements. (a) I and III are correct (b) I and IV are correct © I, III and IV are correct (d) only I is correct 3 “Custom as a source of law comprises legal rules which have neither been promulgated by legislation nor formulated by professionally trained

judges, but arises from popular opinion and is sanctioned by long usage”. Who amongst the following defined custom as above? (a) Prof. Carter (b) Austin © Henry Maine (d) Vinogradoff. 4. Blackstone says that the legislation of the ----- Parliament is Supreme according to English law for “what the Parliament doth, no authority upon earth can undo”. Choose the suitable word from the following to fil up the gap, in the above sentence: (a) State (b) Central © Colonial (d) Imperial 5 Delegation of legislative power to the representative body/authority “for the purposes of the Act” is (a) known as constitutional legislation (b) known as Henary VIII clause. © valid delegated legislation (d) invalid delegated legislation. ……………………………………………………………………………….. PART-2 300 SHORT NOTES “The life of the law has not been logic, it has been experience”;(NALSAR 2007) The great Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, Jr. penned a host of memorable aphorisms that summarize his legal philosophy: “The life of the law has not been logic, it has been experience”; “The prophecies of what the courts will do in fact, and nothing more pretentious, are what I mean by the law”; “The duty to keep a contract at common law means a prediction that you must pay damages if you do not keep it-and nothing else”; “I often doubt whether it would not be a gain if every word of moral significance could be banished

from the law altogether, and other words adopted which should convey legal ideas uncolored by anything outside the law.” Most memorably of all, “If you want to know the law and nothing else, you must look at it as a bad man, who cares only for the material consequences which such knowledge enables him to predict, not as a good one, who finds his reasons for conduct, whether inside the law or outside of it, in the vaguer sanctions of conscience.” The Common Law. Written over the course of several years (actually, a reworking of various essays and articles, some for the American Law Review) and finally published in 1881, The Common Law remains a benchmark of legal thinking. Indeed, the noted legal historian F.W. Maitland said of the work that "For a long time to come [it] will leave its mark wide and deep on all the best thoughts of Americans and Englishmen about the history of their common law." Holmes was, at the time of its writing, in practice at Shattuck, Holmes and Munroe, following his professorship at Harvard Law School and prior to his appointment to the Supreme Judicial Court of Massachusetts. His inducement to write came in the form of an invitation to deliver a series of lectures at the Lowell Institute in Boston, twelve lectures given over the course of six weeks. The invitation came in the winter of 1879, for the lecture series to take place the following winter. At first reluctant, Holmes nevertheless saw this as an opportunity to finally collect his various writings on the common law into one work. He accepted the invitation and began his writing that summer. On November 23, 1880 Holmes delivered his first of the twelve Lowell Lectures and a few months later, the book based on his lectures was published. The Common Law is by no means a perfect piece of legal scholarship.

Indeed, for many it is more a work of philosophy than a work of law, which is not surprising given Holmes's deep interest in philosophical thinking. The fact of its imperfections, however, has not dulled its influence. Initially received with only lukewarm praise, critics noted how large areas of law were left out (which Holmes acknowledges in his preface) including Equity, Bills & Notes, and Partnership. There was also some differentiation in tone throughout, due no doubt to the nature of the work, that is, a compilation of articles written over many years. There were also complaints about uneven handling of certain topics, a certain sense of hyperbole in others, and an aggressive disregard for viewpoints in opposition to his own. And yet, as Sheldon Novick writes in Honorable Justice: The Life of Oliver Wendell Holmes (Little Brown, 1998), "The force of the presentation overwhelmed all these defects. Beneath its immense burden of learning and its detailed expositions of history, The Common Law was a work of art more than it was a work of scholarship. It was a coldly passionate expression of intuitions. Holmes saw the landscape of the common law illuminated by his thought as by a beacon. The force of his certainty infused every word." Novick also notes that even Holmes's harshest critic, Yosal Rogat, called the work "The most important book on law ever written by an American." A mere twenty years later, however, Holmes himself pronounced that The Common Law was "dead", noting that the "theories and points of view that were new in it, now have become familiar to the masters and even to the middle-men and distributors of ideas -- writers of textbooks and practical works..." Was he expressing dismay, or an ironic acknowledgement that even after harsh initial criticism, ideas fostered in his work had, in fact, made their

way into mainstream legal thought? Possible, considering this remark from Felix Frankfurter in Of Law and Men (Harcourt Brace, 1956), "The book is a classic in the sense that its stock of ideas has been absorbed and become part of common juristic thought ... they placed law in a perspective which legal scholarship ever since has merely confirmed." For if anything, it is this common if gradual acceptance of his precepts that has made Holmes's work a classic, even now, almost 125 years later. CLAT/LLM ENTRANCE 2009 SELF STUDY KIT ESSAYS ( Part-1) 1. Judicial Activism 2. Hart's Concept of Law and the Indian Constitution (NALSAR 2004)(NALSAR 2006) 3. Transitional jurisprudence: the role of law in political transformation. 4. Women’s Reservation Bill 5. Freedom of press in India : Constitutional Perspectives 6. Should Euthanasia be Legalised in India? 7. Doctrine of pleasure and its proviso article 311 of Indian Constitution 8. The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel – Application to the Government. 9. Legal Aid under the Constitution of India 10. Dual Citizenship (CLAT 2008) 11. Writ of Habeas corpus 12. Austin’s Concept Of Sovereignty in Indian constitution(CLAT 2008) 13. Uniform Civil Code 14. Principles of Jermy Bentham and Supreme Court of India -Case Comment on Olga Tellis and Ors. v. Bombay Municipal Corporation and Ors. 15. Sustainable Development and Indian Judiciary: (NLSU 2007) 16. I. R. Cohelo Vs. State Of Tamilnadu: Analyse the Case Relating To 9th Schedule Under Indian Constitution 17. Write a comment on State of Madras Vs Smt.Champakam Dorairajan(AIR1951 Supreme Court 226) 18. Justice delayed is justice denied…Explain 19. Do the Judges make or declare law with reference to Hart & Dworkin’s Principle in Indian legal System? 20. Right to privacy Vs Right to know…which will prevail?(NLSU 2007)

21. Explain the Doctrine of Prospective over ruling 22. Write a note on Waman Rao Vs Union of India 23. Right to strike 24. Euthanasia 25. IS the foetus a human being with a fundamental right to life? 26. Legalizing live-in-relationships 27. Write a note on Moore’s concept law and morality (NALSAR 2003) 28. Should Right To Information Have Been Granted as a Fundamental Right?( NALSAR 2003) 29. The Hart-Fuller Debate.(CLAT 2008) 30. The Relationship between Constitutional Law and Administrative Law. 31. Ordinance-making power: whether reviewable? 32. Executive Discretion And Article 356 Of The Constitution Of India: 33. Right to information and Judiciary 34. Law relating to Contempt of Court in India 35. Truth As Defence To Contepmt Of Court: In Re: Arundhati Roy & Court On Its Town Motion Vs M.K.Tayal 36. Judicial review as a basic structure 37. Law of torts in India 38. Education as a fundamental right(NALSAR 2006) 39. The right to speedy trial 40. State liability in tort 41. Write a comment on Fundamental right Case 42. Social Rights and the Constitution of India. 43. Is The Supreme Court Disproportionately Applying The Proportionality Principle?( Wednesbury test) 44. Changing perceptions of secularism 45. Judicial Review of Presidential Proclamation under Article 356. 46. Are Articles 15(4) and 16(4) Fundamental Right? 47. Appointment Of Non-Member Of Parliament Or State Legislature As Minister—Scope 48. Reservations (CLAT 2008) 49. Torture as a challenge to civil society and the administration of justice 50. Oriental and occidental approaches to law 51. Sentencing Discretion and IPC 52. Supreme Court of India and Social Jurisprudence 53. Need for socialistic jurisprudence 54. Rule of law and Democracy (NALSAR 2006) 55. Death Penalty 56. Fundamental duties 57. Write a note on the Amendments introduced in CR.P.C by 2005 Amendment Act 58. Reforms in Christian law of succession in India. 59. Developments in Muslim Law:

60. Ceremonial Validity of Hindu Marriages: Need for Reform. 61. Christian Law of Succession and Mary Roy's Case. 62. Treaty making power of a government. 63. Passing of Property in International Sale Contracts. 64. DNA Technology and Its Application in the Administration of Justice: Problems and Prospects. 65. Lawyers and the Boycott of Courts. 66. Engagement of Supreme Court judges after retirement. 67. Independence of Judiciary – 68. Judicial Reform in Justice-Delivery System. 69. Ban on smoking at public places. 70. Alternate Dispute Resolution in India.(NLASU 2007) 71. Police and Personal Liberty 72. GATT AND INDIAN CONSTITUIONAL ISSUES (NALSAR 2007). 73. Discuss the historical school of jurisprudence (NALSAR 2007). 74. WOMEN'S EMPOWERMENT—ROLE OF JUDICIARY AND LEGISLATURE (NALSAR 2007). 75. Criminalization of politics (NALSAR 2004 & 2007) 76. Legal positivism.(NALSAR 2004) 77. “Minorities right to establish and administer educational institutions. (NLSU 2006) 78. Judicial legislation (NALSAR 2007) 79. Political Parties in Indian context (NLSU 2006). 80. Changing Face Of The Legal Profession In India In The Era Of Globalization (NLSU 2006)(Opening up of legal profession to foreign competition-CLAT 2008) 81. Law as an instrument of social change (NLSU 2004 & 2007). 82. Human Rights Jurisprudence and Criminal Law (NLSU 2007). 83. NARCO ANALYSIS AND SELF INCRIMINATION (CLAT 2008). 84. PLEA BARGAINING (CLAT 2008) 85. Office of Profit under Indian Constitution (CLAT 2008) 86. Power to pardon…(CLAT 2008) 87. Comment on P.A.Inamdar Case(NALSAR 2003) 88. Theory of Justice and Rawl ( NALSAR 2006) JUDICIAL ACTIVISM The concept of judicial activism which is another name for innovative interpretation was not of the recent past; it was born in 1804 when Chief Justice Marshall, the greatest Judge of the English-speaking world, decided Marbury v. Madison1. Marbury was appointed Judge under the Judiciary Act of 1789 by the U.S. Federal Government. Though the warrant of appointment was signed it could not be delivered. Marbury brought an action for issue of a

writ of mandamus. By then, Marshall became the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court having been appointed by the outgoing President, who lost the election. Justice Marshall faced the imminent prospect of the Government not obeying the judicial fiat if the claim of Marbury was to be upheld. In a rare display of judicial statesmanship asserting the power of the Court to review the actions of the Congress and the Executive, Chief Justice Marshall declined the relief on the ground that Section 13 of the Judiciary Act of 1789, which was the foundation for the claim made by Marbury, was unconstitutional since it conferred in violation of the American Constitution, original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to issue writs of mandamus. He observed that the Constitution was the fundamental and paramount law of the nation and "it is for the court to say what the law is". He concluded that the particular phraseology of the Constitution of the United States confirms and strengthens the principle supposed to be essential to all written Constitutions. That a law repugnant to the Constitution is void and that the courts as well as other departments are bound by that instrument. If there was conflict between a law made by the Congress and the provisions in the Constitution, it was the duty of the court to enforce the Constitution and ignore the law. The twin concepts of judicial review and judicial activism were thus born. Judicial creativity may yield good results if it is the result of principled activism but if it is propelled by partisanship, it may result in catastrophic consequences generating conflicts which may result in social change. In 1857 when the American Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice Taney ruled in Dred Scott v. Sandford that negros were not equal to whites and the rights

guaranteed under the Constitution were not available to them, the decision had accelerated the civil war between the Northern and Southern States ultimately resulting in the abolition of slavery and strengthening of the Union. The function of the American Judiciary was intended to be proscriptive to block the enforcement of an unjust law or action instead of being prescriptive giving directions as to how remedial actions should be taken by the Executive. The Fifth Amendment to the American Constitution mandating inter alia that no one shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without due process of law was in the beginning understood as applicable only to the Union. It however was extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to the States also. As a result of this decision, the responsibility of the American Supreme Court to interpret the legislative and executive actions in the light of the due process clause became very great. In the initial stages, only in respect of substantive laws, the doctrine of due process was applied but later the procedural laws also were brought within its purview. Between 1898 and 1937, the American Supreme Court declared 50 Congressional enactments and 400 State laws as unconstitutional. Freedom of contract and individual rights to property came to be viewed by Judges as paramount and sacred. As a result, several welfare laws including the one pertaining to restriction of hours of labour for bakery workers were struck down. The commerce clause came in very handy for the Supreme Court to strike down several progressive legislative measures commonly called "New Deal Legislation". Restraints on manufacturing processes also came to be struck down under the commerce clause. This active posture of the Supreme Court made the President to devise a

method to increase the number of Judges by what is popularly called "court packing plan". The proposal was to retire every Judge who completed the age of 70 years and in his place to appoint two Judges with the consequence that the majority of the Judges of the Supreme Court Bench would be the nominees of the President. The President expected support from his nominees. Although this plan did not materialise, it yielded the desired result in that the court reversed its trend. In fact, this was perceived as a success for the Executive vis-...-vis the Judiciary. The next important development in judicial activism in the United States was noticed in the first and second Brown cases, when the Court, under the leadership of Chief Justice Earl Warren, disallowed racial segregation in public schools and extended that prohibition to all public facilities. The earlier position taken in Plessy v. Ferguson that blacks could be treated as a separate class but must be provided with equal facilities - separate but equal - founded on racial discrimination was rejected by the Supreme Court at the risk of disturbing the institutional comity and delicate balance between the three organs of the State - the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary. These decisions highlight the judicial statesmanship of Chief Justice Earl Warren, who declared that his appointment to the Supreme Court was "a mission to do justice". After the American Government adopted the policy of affirmative action in order to improve the economic conditions of the blacks and also remove the sense of injustice blacks as a group had nurtured, the Supreme Court sustained the legislative measures enacted in this regard. In H. Earl Fullilove v. Philip M. Klutzniok a provision in the Public Works Employment Act, 1977 requiring States to procure services or supplies from businesses owned by minority group members was upheld declaring that it is a necessary step to

effectuate the constitutional mandate for equality of economic opportunity. This progressive trend appeared to have received a setback in the very next year, i.e., 1978 in the Regents of the University of California v. Allen Bakke. Allen Bakke, a white, who failed to secure admission to the University of California Medical School challenged a provision by which 16% of the seats were reserved in favour of disadvantaged members of certain minority races as violative of the equality clause. The Court although accepted the principle that race-conscious admission programmes for the purpose of remedying the effects of past discrimination were legally permissible, sustained the challenge and granted a declaratory relief. This decision indicates the anxiety of the Supreme Court to retain its progressive image by not departing from the earlier precedents but at the same time trying to effectively set at naught the beneficial measures intended for the advancement of the disabled sections. This was achieved by the court by putting the blame on the University that it could not produce evidence to demonstrate that the preferential qualification in favour of the disadvantaged sections was either needed or geared to promote the stated goal of delivering health care services to the communities currently underserved. Both these cases are examples of judicial activism: one to render substantive justice and the other formal justice. Fortunately, this trend came to a halt in 1989 when the Supreme Court sustained an ordinance adopted by the Virginia City Council under which non-minority contractors were required to give subcontracts at least to the extent of 30% to one or more of the minority business enterprises. Judicial activism was made possible in India, thanks to PIL (Public Interest Litigation). Generally speaking before the court takes up a matter for adjudication, it must be satisfied that the person who approaches it has

sufficient interest in the matter. Stated differently, the test is whether the petitioner has locus standi to maintain the action? This is intended to avoid unnecessary litigation. The legal doctrine 'Jus tertii' implying that no one except the affected person can approach a court for a legal remedy was holding the field both in respect of private and public law adjudications until it was overthrown by the PIL wave. PIL, a manifestation of judicial activism, has introduced a new dimension regarding judiciary's involvement in public administration. The sanctity of locus standi and the procedural complexities are totally side-tracked in the causes brought before the courts through PIL. In the beginning, the application of PIL was confined only to improving the lot of the disadvantaged sections of the society who by reason of their poverty and ignorance were not in a position to seek justice from the courts and, therefore, any member of the public was permitted to maintain an application for appropriate directions. After the Constitution (Twenty fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, by which primacy was accorded to a limited extent to the Directive Principles vis-...-vis the Fundamental Rights making the former enforceable rights, the expectations of the public soared high and the demands on the courts to improve the administration by giving appropriate directions for ensuring compliance with statutory and constitutional prescriptions have increased. Beginning with the Ratlam Municipality case the sweep of PIL had encompassed a variety of causes. Ensuring green belts and open spaces for maintaining ecological balance; forbidding stone-crushing activities near residential complexes; earmarking a part of the reserved forest for Adivasis to ensure their habitat and means of livelihood; compelling the municipal authorities of the Delhi Municipal Corporation to perform their statutory obligations for protecting the health of

the community; compelling the industrial units to set up effluent treatment plants; directing installation of air-pollution-controlling devices for preventing air pollution; directing closure of recalcitrant factories in order to save the community from the hazards of environmental pollution and quashing of a warrant of appointment for the office of Judge, High Court of Assam and Guwahati are some of the later significant cases displaying judicial activism. A five-member Bench of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in D. Satyanarayana v. N.T. Rama Rao has gone to the extent of laying down the proposition that the executive is accountable to the public through the instrumentality of the judiciary. Consistency in adhering to earlier views despite the amendment of the law is an aspect - though not a brighter one - of judicial activism. Illustrative of this in the Indian context is the decision of the Supreme Court in Bela Banerjee case in which even after the Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955 specifically injuncting that no law concerning acquisition of property for a public purpose shall be called in question on the ground that the compensation provided by that law is not adequate, the Supreme Court reiterated its earlier view expressed in Subodh Gopal and Dwarkadas cases to the effect that compensation is a justiciable issue and that what is provided by way of compensation must be "a just equivalent of what the owner has been deprived of". Golak Nath case is also an example of judicial activism in that the Supreme Court for the first time by a majority of 6 against 5, despite the earlier holding that Parliament in exercise of its constituent power can amend any provision of the Constitution, declared that the fundamental rights as enshrined in Part III of the Constitution are immutable and so beyond the reach of the amendatory process. The doctrine

of "prospective overruling", a feature of the American Constitutional Law, was invoked by the Supreme Court to avoid unsettling matters which attained finality because of the earlier amendments to the Constitution. The declaration of law by the Supreme Court that in future, Indian Parliament has no power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution became the subject-matter of very animated discussion. Kesavananda Bharati had given a quietus to the controversy as to the immutability of any of the provisions of the Constitution. By a majority of seven against six, the Court held that under Article 368 of the Constitution, Parliament has undoubted power to amend any provision in the Constitution but the amendatory power does not extend to alter the basic structure or framework of the Constitution. Illustratively, it was pointed out by the Supreme Court that the following, among others, are the basic features: (i) Supremacy of the Constitution; (ii) Republican and Democratic form of Government; (iii) Secularism; (iv) Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; and (v) Federal character of the Constitution. Supremacy and permanency of the Constitution have thus been ensured by the pronouncement of the summit court of the country with the result that the basic features of the Constitution are now beyond the reach of Parliament. The judicial power under our Constitution is vested in the Supreme Court and the High Courts which are empowered to exercise the power of judicial review both in regard to legislative and executive actions. Judges cannot shirk their responsibilities as adjudicators of legal and constitutional matters. How onerous the exercise of judicial power was was very aptly stated by Chief Justice Marshall: "The judiciary cannot, as the legislature may, avoid a measure because it approaches the confines of the Constitution. We cannot pass it by because it

is doubtful. With whatever doubts, with whatever difficulties, a case may be attended, we must decide it, if it be brought before us. We have no more right to decline the exercise of jurisdiction which is given, than to usurp that which is not given. The one or the other is treason to the Constitution." A common criticism we hear about judicial activism is that in the name of interpreting the provisions of the Constitution and legislative enactments, the judiciary often rewrites them without explicitly stating so and in this process, some of the personal opinions of the judges metamorphose into legal principles and constitutional values. One other facet of this line of criticism is that in the name of judicial activism, the theory of separation of powers is overthrown and the judiciary is undermining the authority of the legislature and the executive by encroaching upon the spheres reserved for them. Critics openly assert that the Constitution provides for checks and balances in order to pre-empt concentration of power by any branch not confided in it by the Constitution. Every Judge must play an active role in the discharge of his duties as "adjudicator of disputes". His role as an interpreter of law and dispenser of justice according to law should not be allowed to be diminished either because of the perceived notions of the other two wings of the State the legislature and the executive or any section of the public. But this cannot be termed judicial activism. Laws enacted by the legislature must be implemented by the executive and their interpretation is within the province of the judiciary. That is the reason why judiciary has always been treated as the least dangerous branch and sometimes it is also described as the weakest of the three branches with no control either on the purse or on the sword. By reason of judicial activism,

much good or harm could be brought about by the Judges by resorting to innovative interpretation. Decisions rendered by courts generally receive public acceptance in every democracy adhering to the concept of rule of law. The criticism occasionally voiced that the judiciary does not have a popular mandate and, therefore, it cannot play a prescriptive role which is the domain of the elected law-making body sounds at first blush sensible. Even so, the prescriptive role of the judiciary sometimes receives public approbation because the role played by it sustains what the Constitution mandates and averts the evils the basic document seeks to prohibit. Interpretation of the Constitution is radically different from the interpretation of an ordinary legislative provision. The Constitution being the basic document incorporating the enduring values the nation cherished inevitably contains open-ended provisions which afford wider scope for the judiciary in the matter of interpretation. "We must never forget", observed Chief Justice Marshall, "that it is a Constitution we are expounding ... intended to endure for ages to come and consequently to be adapted to the various crises of human affairs." In line with this thought was the view of Justice Cardozo, another great Judge: "A Constitution states or ought to state not rules for the passing hour but principles for an expanding future." The role of the Judge in interpreting law has been graphically described thus: "Judges must be sometimes cautious and sometimes bold. Judges must respect both the traditions of the past and the convenience of the present. Judges must reconcile liberty and authority; the whole and its parts." Where the public opinion asserts itself against the decisions of the judiciary, the question immediately surfaces as to the legitimacy of the judiciary since it lacks popular mandate. That is the reason why judiciary was cautioned by

eminent legal philosophers to exercise great restraint while declaring the actions of the legislature unconstitutional. Judicial veto must not be exercised except in cases that "leave no room for reasonable doubt". Very eminent Judges like Holmes, Brandeis and Frankfurter always adhered to the theory of reasonable doubt believing firmly that what will appear to be unconstitutional to one person may reasonably be not so to another and that the Constitution unfolds a wide range of choices and the legislature therefore should not be presumed to be bound by any particular choice and whatever choice is rational, the court must uphold as constitutional. No legislature can with reasonable certainty foresee the future contingencies and necessarily every enacted law, on a closer scrutiny, will reveal several gaps which the judiciary is expected to fill. This is popularly called judicial legislation. Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, while admitting this self-evident truth observed: "... I recognise without hesitation that judges do and must legislate, but they can do so only interstitially; they are confined from molar to molecular motions." A delicate problem arises as to what constitutes a rational view according to the Constitution or an irrational view at variance with the constitutional prescriptions? To sustain a legislation or to strike it down, often times, the concept of "public interest" is relied upon by the judiciary. How slippery this doctrine of public interest is was graphically described by Justice Holmes thus: "... (it is) a fiction intended to beautify what is disagreeable to the sufferers." and this was resorted to as part of the unwillingness of the Judges "to grant power" and "to recognise it when it exists". According to Justice Holmes, law, including constitutional law, "is crystallised public opinion".

Subjectivity, it is now unanimously accepted, must be eschewed in the judicial process. But this is easier said than done. Often times, private notions of judges take the shape of legal principles. Judicial activism can be compared with legislative activism. The latter is of two types: (i) activist law-making; and (ii) dynamic law-making. Activist lawmaking implies the legislature taking the existing ideas from the consensus prevailing in the society. Dynamic law-making surfaces when the legislature creates an idea outside the consensus and before it is formulated, propagates it. Dynamic law-making always ordinarily carries with it legitimacy because it is the creation of the legislators who have the popular mandate. Judges cannot play such a dynamic role; no idea alien to the constitutional objectives can be metamorphosed by judicial interpretation into a binding constitutional principle. Without resorting to a preference in favour of any particular value choice and thereby inviting criticism of entering into the constitutionally forbidden area of judicial activism, the court can always draw lines at new angles by dexterously resorting to innovative interpretative processes. The resultant situation may sometimes bring credit to the judicial institution and sometimes it may prove counter-productive. Examples of both categories are found even in the British constitutional law where the judiciary cannot go into the legality of a legislative measure enacted by Parliament. In the Indian context although it is not difficult to categorise cases under the above heads, the author refrains from doing so but nonetheless he is tempted to mention one decision as a great example of judicial boldness. Independence of the judiciary is recognised as the basic feature of the Constitution and when a person who was not qualified to become a High Court Judge was about to be sworn into the office, the Supreme Court intervened and permanently injuncted him from assuming the office and the Union of India and other

constitutional functionaries not to administer oath despite the warrant of appointment issued by the President. The Court also struck a note of caution that, ordinarily, appointments to the High Court Benches should not be interfered with by the judiciary but in exceptional circumstances, interference becomes necessary. The Supreme Court had extracted the note of the Chief Justice of India who recommended an unqualified person for the office of Judge, High Court, stating that he is a judicial officer and, therefore, he was qualified for appointment. This decision is illustrative of how even high constitutional functionaries sometimes commit egregious mistakes. In glaring contrast to this is the case of A.D.M. v. Shivakant Shukla in which the majority of the judges expressed "diamond bright" hope in the fairness of the executive in matters concerning personal liberty but later lamented for the wrong decision rendered by them. This is neither judicial restraint nor judicial boldness. Perhaps this is a rare example of judicial diffidence. The controversy is still simmering. There is a radical difference between the traditional litigation which was essentially bipolar in which two parties are locked up in a confrontation of a controversy and the role of the judge was perceived to be passive. The modern litigation especially in the constitutional sphere involves judiciary in an active manner. The party who approaches the court not only asserts his right but also expects the court to lay down the norms for future guidance. The manner in which the prescriptive role is played by the court assumes great relevance. There is no justification on the part of anyone to assert that in the guise of judicial activism, the constitutional courts in the country are undermining the theory of separation of powers by encroaching upon the fields reserved for the legislature and the executive. In the wake of this

criticism, one must notice the observations made by the Supreme Court in Asif Hameed v. State of J&K: "Although the doctrine of separation of powers has not been recognised under the Constitution in its absolute rigidity but the Constitutionmakers have meticulously defined the functions of various organs of the State. Legislature, Executive and Judiciary have to function within their own spheres demarcated under the Constitution. No organ can usurp the functions assigned to another. ... Judiciary has no power over sword or the purse nonetheless it has power to ensure that the aforesaid two main organs of the State function within the constitutional limits. It is the sentinel of democracy. Judicial review is a powerful weapon to restrain unconstitutional exercise of power by the legislature and executive. The expanding horizon of judicial review has taken in its fold the concept of social economic justice." (emphasis added) The line of demarcation between the three organs of the State as laid down in the aforesaid ruling of the Apex Court finds clearer expression in its subsequent rulings in Supreme Court Employees' Welfare Assn. v. Union of India and Mallikarjuna Rao v. State of A.P. It is true that in adjudicating public law matters, the court takes into account the social and economic realities while considering the width and amplitude of the constitutional rights. Touching upon this aspect, the Supreme Court in a recent decision, speaking through K. Ramaswamy, J., in C. Ravichandran Iyer v. Justice A.M. Bhattacharjee made very pertinent observations: "In this ongoing complex of adjudicatory process, the role of the Judge is not merely to interpret the law but also to lay new norms of law and to mould the law to suit the changing social and economic scenario to make the ideals enshrined in the Constitution meaningful and reality. Therefore, the judge is required to take judicial notice of the social and economic ramification,

consistent with the theory of law." (emphasis added) The permanent values embodied in the Constitution need interpretation in the context of the changing social and economic conditions which are transitory in nature. The constitutional court undertakes the delicate task of reconciling the permanent with the transitory. It is the duty of the executive to implement faithfully the laws made by the legislature. When the executive fails to discharge its obligations, it becomes the primordial duty of the judiciary to compel the executive to perform its lawful functions. In the recent times, much of the criticism aired against the judiciary concerns this area. When crimes are committed by men in power and attempts are made to conceal them by rendering the official machinery ineffective, recourse to judiciary becomes inevitable. It becomes the duty of the judiciary to take cognizance of the executive's lapses and issue appropriate directions as to the method and manner in which the executive should act as ordained by the Constitution and the laws. If the judiciary fails to respond, it would be guilty of violating the Constitution, a treason indeed. Neither the political executive which is responsible for laying down the policy nor the permanent executive comprising civil servants who are enjoined to carry out the policies of the executive can act in any manner contrary to what the Constitution prescribes. When all the three organs of the State - the legislature, executive and the judiciary - owe their existence to the Constitution, no single organ can claim immunity from accountability. To whom the judiciary is accountable is the next question. The answer to this is found in the Constitution itself. A judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court can be impeached on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity and the power in this regard is vested in Parliament vide Articles 124(4) and

217(1)(b). When a judge is impeached, Parliament acts as a judicial body and its members must decide the guilt or otherwise of the judge facing the indictment objectively uninfluenced by extraneous considerations. When such a judicial function is discharged by Parliament, it is highly debatable whether political parties can issue whips directing their members to vote in a particular manner. An interesting case study in this regard is the impeachment proceedings against Shri Justice V. Ramaswamy which ended unsuccessfully. Judicial creativity even when it takes the form of judicial activism should not result in rewriting of the Constitution or any legislative enactments. Reconciliation of the permanent values embodied in the Constitution with the transitional and changing requirements of the society must not result in undermining the integrity of the Constitution. Any attempt leading to such a consequence would destroy the very structure of the constitutional institutions. Conscious of the primordial fact that the Constitution is the supreme document, the mechanism under which laws must be made and governance of the country carried on, the judiciary must play its activist role. No constitutional value propounded by the judiciary should run counter to any explicitly stated constitutional obligations or rights. In the name of doing justice and taking shelter under institutional self-righteousness, the judiciary cannot act in a manner disturbing the delicate balance between the three wings of the State. The new jurisprudence that has emerged in the recent times has undoubtedly contributed in a great measure to the well-being of the society. People, in general, now firmly believe that if any institution or authority acts in a manner not permitted by the Constitution, the judiciary will step in to set right the wrong.

Judicial activist fervour should not flood the fields constitutionally earmarked for the legislature and the executive. That would spell disaster. Judges cannot be legislators - they have neither the mandate of the ppeople nor the practical wisdom to gauge the needs of different sections of society. They are forbidden from assuming the role of administrators. Governmental machinery cannot be run by the judges. Any populist views aired by judges would undermine their authority and disturb the institutional balance. Fidelity to a political or social philosophy not discernible from the constitutional objectives in the discharge of judicial functions is not judicial activism; it is subversion of the Constitution. Any judicial act which is politically suspect, morally indefensible and constitutionally illegitimate must be curbed. Judicial activism characterised by moderation and self-restraint is bound to restore the faith of the people in the efficacy of the democratic institutions which alone, in turn, will activate the executive and the legislature to function effectively under the vigilant eye of the judiciary as ordained by the Constitution. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. CLAT 2009/LLB ENTRANCE Pattern of the Test Paper Total Marks : 200 Subject areas : Law of Contracts, Law of Torts, Family Law , Criminal Law , Constitutional Law and Legal Theory Number of Questions: i) Objective Type : 50 questions of one mark each ii) Short answers : 10 questions of five marks each iii) Essay : Two questions of 50 marks each (Two sections containing three questions each out of which one from each section to be answered.) This sample question paper on Legal Aptitude is based on previous questions papers for law and LLB entrance exams. This is based on the pattern specified for CLAT (Common Law Admission Test) conducted by institutes like NALSAR. 1. "No action lies against the Government for injury done to an individual in the course of

exercise of its sovereign functions". All of the following actions are covered by the above provision, except 1. improper arrest, negligence or trespass by police officers. 2. loss of movables from government custody owing to negligence of its officers. 3. injury due to the negligence of servants of the government employed in a railway or a dockyard. 4. administration of justice. 2. To secure the enrichment of Hindi, the Constitution, among other things, directs the State to give-primary importance to one of the languages included in the VIII Schedule for the purpose of drawing upon it. This language is 1. Bengali 2. Marathi 3. Sanskrit 4. Urdu 3. Disagreement between the two Houses of Indian Parliament is finally resolved through 1. a joint committee of the two Houses for the purpose. 2. mediatory efforts by the presiding officers of the two Houses. 3. a joint committee of the two Houses for the purpose. 4. mediation by the President. 4. Which of the following Articles of Constitution cannot be amended by a simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament? 1. Article 2 2. Article 3 3. Article 4 4. Article 15 5. Which one of the following Directive Principles is a socialistic principle? 1. Equal pay for equal work to all 2. Protection of the health of workers 3. Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production 4. All of these 6. Originally it was laid down in the Constitution that English shall continue to be used for all the official purposes of the union for a period of 1. 15 years 2. 20 years 3. 25 years 4. 30 years 7. As per Article 100(3), the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is 1. one-fourth of the total number of members of that House. 2. one-fifth of the total number of members of that House. 3. one-tenth of the total number of members of that House. 4. one-third of the total number of members of that House.

8. The age of retirement of a Judge of a High Court in India is 1. 58 years 2. 60 years 3. 62 years 4. 65 years 9. The Rule of Law means 1. existence of written rules to regulate the conduct of government officials. 2. that no person can be punished unless his guilt is established by a fair trial. 3. that the power to make laws vests in the elected representatives of the people. 4. independence of the Judiciary 10. In a particular case, the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is sent back by the President for reconsideration. If the Council of Ministers adhere to their earlier advice, the President 1. can ask for reconsideration of the advice once more 2. can ask for reconsideration of the advice any number of times 3. has no option but to accept such advice 4. must seek the advice of the Supreme Court before rejecting the advice. 11. The writ by which a High Court or the Supreme Court can secure the body of a person who has been imprisoned to be brought before it is 1. Certiorari 2. Habeas Corpus 3. Mandamus 4. Quo Warranto 12. The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is 1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6 13. The term of which of the following Lok Sabha was extended beyond the normal period of five years laid down in the Constitution? 1. Fourth Lok Sabha 2. Fifth Lok Sabha 3. Sixth Lok Sabha 4. Seventh Lok Sabha 14. The High Courts at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras were established under the 1. Indian High Courts Act, 1861 2. Indian High Courts Act, 1865 3. Indian High Courts Act, 1911 4. Government of India Act, 1919 15. In which of the following situations can the President promulgate an Ordinance?

1. There is disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a bill. 2. Both Houses have refused to pass a Bill sponsored by Government with the previous sanction of the President. 3. A Bill has been pending in Parliament for a long period. 4. Parliament is not in session 16. Which of the following events made Gandhiji to launch, for the first time, Civil Disobedience Movement? 1. Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919 2. Killing of peaceful agitators at Chauri Chaura by the British troops in 1922 3. Promulgation of the Rowlatt Act of 1919 4. Failure of talks with the Cripps Mission in 1942 17. Dyarchy as the form of Government at the provincial level was introduced by the 1. Government of India Act, 1919 2. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms 4. Government of India Act, 1935 18. Which of the following Acts of British Parliament envisaged for the first time a closer association of Indians with the administration? 1. Indian Councils Act, 1861 2. Indian Councils Act, 1892 3. Indian Councils Act, 1909 4. Government of India Act, 1919 19. For how long can the President's rule in a State imposed initially? 1. One year 2. Six months 3. Two years 4. Three months 20. In accordance with the provisions of our Constitution, new all-India Services can be created only by the 1. Parliament 2. Process of amendment of the Constitution 3. Union Government in consultation with the U.P.S.C. 4. President on the advice of the Council of Ministers 21. Who presides over the joint session of Parliament? 1. The Speaker 2. The Vice-President 3. The President 4. The deputy chairman of the Rajya Sabha 22. The reference to Hindus in Article 25 of the Constitution does not include 1. Parsees 2. Sikhs 3. Jains 4. Buddhists

23. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is 1. nominated by the President 2. elected by the two Houses of Parliament 3. elected by Parliament and the legislatures of the States jointly 4. elected by the members of Rajya Sabha 24. In India, a tax on agricultural income can be levied by 1. both the Central and State Governments 2. neither the Central nor the State Governments 3. only the State Governments 4. only the Central Government 25. By which amendment, were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens added to the Constitution? 1. Forty-forth Amendment 2. Forty-third Amendment 3. Forty-second Amendment 4. Forty-first Amendment 26. Financial allocation for Education was made for the first time by the Charter Act of 1. 1833 2. 1813 3. 1793 4. 1773 27. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of 1. the Chief Justice of a High Court 2. the Chief Justice of India 3. the Governor 4. the Vice-President 28. In the event of non-enforcement of Directive Principles of the State by the Government, a citizen of India can move the 1. District Court 2. High Court 3. Supreme Court 4. None of these 29. The member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after an enquiry has been conducted by the 1. Supreme Court of India 2. High Court of the State 3. committee appointed by the President 4. committee appointed by the Governor of the State 30. Who can recommend abolition or creation of the Legislative Council in a State? 1. Governor of the State 2. Advocate-General of the State 3. Legislative Assembly of the State 4. The State Council of Ministers 31. The purpose of the Ilbert Bill was 1. to take away the right of the native magistrates to try Europeans and Englishmen

2. to take away the right of the European magistrates to try Indians 3. to remove an anomaly in the Criminal Procedure Code of 1873, according to which no magistrate or sessions judge could try a European or British subject unless he was himself of European birth 4. None of the above 32. The Constitution of India borrowed the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy from the Constitution of 1. Ireland 2. USA 3. UK 4. Canada 33. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 1. There is no provision of referendum in the Indian Constitution 2. The State Legislatures do not possess the right to initiate the amendment of the Constitution 3. The proposal for amending the Constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha 4. The Indian Constitution is partly flexible and partly rigid 34. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as unconstitutional? 1. Article 14 2. Article 17 3. Article 44 4. Article 45 35. Which one of the following is not among the sources of revenue for the Union? 1. Land revenue 2. Custom duties including export duties 3. Duties of excise on tobacco and other goods manufactured or produced in India, except alcoholic liquors, opium, Indian, except alcoholic liquors, opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs 4. Taxes on income other than agricultural income 36. Under which one of the following Articles, the Supreme Court has been given the powers to review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously? 1. Article 130 2. Article 137 3. Article 138 4. Article 139 37. A member elected to Lok Sabha as a candidate of a party crosses the floor of the House. In such a case, 1. his continued membership of the House is not affected in any way 2. he ceases to be a member of the House whether or not he resigns his membership

3. he can continue to be a member of the House if the party on whose symbol he was elected has no objection 4. he will continue to be a member of the House if the Speaker permits 38. The Right to Property was excluded from the Fundamental Rights during the tenure of the Government headed by 1. Charan Singh 2. Morarji Desai 3. Indira Gandhi 4. Rajiv Gandhi 39. Which of the following statements in regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy is correct? 1. Fundamental Rights constitute limitations upon State action, while Directive Principles are in the nature of instruction to the Government to achieve certain ends 2. They are justiciable in certain respects 3. They enjoin on the State to secure a living wage to all workers within a specified period 4. The courts can compel the State to implement some of the important directives 40. The First Official Language Commission, as required under Article 344 of the Constitution, was constituted by the President in 1. 1950 with K.M. Munshi as its Chairman 2. 1955 with B.G. Kher as its Chairman 3. 1960 with M.C. Chhagla as its Chairman 4. 1965 with Humayun Kabir as its Chairman Answer Key 1. 3 2. 3 3. 1 4. 4 5. 4 6. 1 7. 3 8. 4 9. 2 10. 3 11. 2 12. 3 13. 2 14. 1 15. 4 16. 3 17. 1 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 21. 1 22. 1 23. 2 24. 3 25. 3 26. 2 27. 3 28. 4 29. 2 30. 3 31. 3 32. 1 33. 3 34. 2 35. 1 36. 2 37. 2 38. 2 39. 4 40. 2 All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

All India Bar Examination Model Question Paper 1: Answers and Explanations Part I Question 1: The correct answer is (c). Section 89 of the CPC expressly provides for alternative dispute resolution. Section 89(1) provides that where a court thinks that parties may be amenable to a settlement, it can formulate the terms of the settlement, and once it receives the

parties’ observations on such terms, it can refer the settlement for arbitration, conciliation, mediation, or judicial settlement, including settlement through a Lok Adalat. (See page 1 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 2: The correct answer is (d). An arbitration agreement, like any other agreement, must meet all the requirements of validity under the Indian Contract Act. Aside from this, the Arbitration Act, 1996 also sets out a number of other requirements for an arbitration agreement to be valid. (See page 2 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 3: The correct answer is (b). Section 36 of the Arbitration Act, clearly provides that an arbitral award can be enforced in the same manner a decree of a civil court. (See page 6 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 4: The correct answer is (d). Section 31 of the Arbitration Act, makes it mandatory for an arbitrator or arbitral tribunal, as the case may be, to provide the reasons on which the award is based. The only exceptions permitted to this are if the parties agree that no reasons have to be given, or if the award is an award on agreed terms under Section 30. (See page 10 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 5: The correct answer is (b). A participated in the arbitration proceedings; if A wished to plead that there was no arbitration clause, she should have done so before participating in the proceedings. (See pages 10-11 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 6: The correct answer is (e). The Arbitration Act covers domestic as well as international commercial arbitrations. There was no agreement between the parties, express or implied, that that Arbitration Act would not apply to the arbitration proceedings. There is no vested right to have the award enforced under the Foreign Awards Act. (See page 12 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 7: The correct answer is (a). A settlement agreement has to be signed by all the parties to the dispute. Unless the agreement is signed and accepted by the parties, it will not have the force of an arbitral award or a decree of a court under the Arbitration Act. (See page 19 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 8: The correct answer is (c). While it is important to be able to identify who the

defendant is, it is not the plaintiff’s duty to produce him before court. (See pages 20-21 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 9: The correct answer is (c). Only suits for compensation are precluded by S.95(2) of the Code. (See page 22 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 10: The correct answer is (d). The principles of res judicata are agnostic as to which party prevailed in the first suit. (See page 23 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 11: The correct answer is (a). See Order VII Rule 11 of the CPC. (See page 29 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 12: The correct answer is (e). One of the requirements for a court to be ‘competent’ is that it should have jurisdiction over the matter. Here, the parties, as well as the property that was the subject matter of the dispute, were situated in another state, over which the High Court which A wanted to approach had no jurisdiction. Therefore, that High Court was not a ‘competent civil court’ for this dispute. (See pages 21-22 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 13: The correct answer is (e). B was merely holding the title deeds in safekeeping, and the facts tell us clearly that she wished to return the title deeds and recover her charges. Though she does not claim the title deeds herself, she would be entitled to institute an interpleader suit to have the court determine whether A or C should get the deeds, and from whom she can recover her charges. (See page 25 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 14: The correct answer is (d). B cannot set off the debt in this action, since the amount was owed to B alone, and did not relate to the other defendant, C, at all. (See page 30 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 15: The correct answer is (b). The right to equality is provided by A.14 of the Constitution. (See page 45 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 16: The correct answer is (c). The right to life is provided by A.21 of the Constitution. (See page 48 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 17: The correct answer is (e). The Supreme Court has the power to issue directions or

orders or writs in such matters. (See page 49 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 18: The correct answer is (d). A.23 of the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour. (See page 50 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 19: The correct answer is (a). A.15(1) of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on the basis of place of birth, but the discrimination in this case was on the basis of residence. Residence is not one of the grounds of discrimination prohibited by A.15(1) of the Constitution. While a government-run college is part of ‘State’ for purposes of Part III of the Constitution, it has clearly not violated A.15(1) of the Constitution in this case. (See page 44 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 20: The correct answer is (c). A.32(1) of the Constitution guarantees the right to approach the Supreme Court for a violation of any fundamental right. There is no requirement for a petitioner to approach a High Court under A.226 of the Constitution before approaching the Supreme Court under A.32 of the Constitution in matters involving the violation of a fundamental right. (See page 50 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 21: The correct answer is (c). The Supreme Court clearly has the authority under A.142(1) of the Constitution of the Constitution to pass the order quashing the proceedings against the judge, if it feels that it is necessary to do so in order to do complete justice in the matter before it. A.142(1) of the Constitution does not mention that this power can only be used in certain types of matters - it states that the Supreme Court has this power in respect of any cause or matter pending before it. (See page 60 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 22: The correct answer is (d). An offer lapses if a counter-offer is made. (See page 79 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 23: The correct answer is (a). Minors are not competent to contract as per S.11 of the Contract Act. (See page 81 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1)

Question 24: The correct answer is (c). S.26 of the Contract Act expressly makes agreements in restraint of marriage void. (See page 85 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 25: The correct answer is (b). S.124 of the Contract Act defines a contract of indemnity as a contract by which a party promises to save another from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor or by the conduct of another person. (See page 95 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 26: The correct answer is (a). A the offeror, had clearly specified that the communication of the acceptance should have been through a letter. B did not communicate the acceptance in the mode prescribed, and, therefore, A is not bound by the offer. (See page 78 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 27: The correct answer is (d). The fact that A had visited a doctor in relation to her heart ailment in the previous year would clearly be a relevant fact for the purposes of an insurance policy. She had knowledge of her medical condition, and she actively concealed it by not marking the box provided in the insurance policy application form. A has committed fraud. (See pages 80 and 81 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 28: The correct answer is (b). It is not reasonable for A to insist that B come to her office in another city to collect the payment for the goods; on the other hand, B has provided a reasonable manner of payment. (See page 88 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 29: The correct answer is (c). Offences under the IPC are often qualified with the terms that indicate they require a mental element to be determined before a person can be said to have committed that offence. (See page 104 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 30: The correct answer is (b). This is provided in S.120-A of the IPC. (See page 107 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 31: The correct answer is (b). Premeditation is not an ingredient of the offence covered by S.304A of the IPC. (See page 114 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1)

Question 32: The correct answer is (c).The commission of theft consists in the moving of a movable property of a person out of his possession without his consent and the existence of a dishonest intent.(See page 114 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 33: The correct answer is (e). (See page 107 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 34: The correct answer is (d). Mistaking C for her identical twin, B, was clearly a mistake of fact. A was acting in the belief that she was bound by the law to arrest C, and therefore, has not committed an offence. (See page 108 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 35: The correct answer is (b). The contention that B was not in the guardianship of her lawful guardian, just because she was alone at home, is not correct. A has committed the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship. (See page 116 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 36: The correct answer is (b). Other laws may also define an offence to be bailable or non-bailable. For instance, S.77B of the Information Technology Act, 2000. (See page 123 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 37: The correct answer is (e). A Chief Judicial Magistrate may not pass a sentence of death. (See page 124 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 38: The correct answer is (a). The words arrest and custody are not synonymous. (See page 125 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 39: The correct answer is (a). For this reason, it has great significance during the course of a trial. (See page 132 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 40: The correct answer is (b). Since the arrest was in relation to a bailable offence, A cannot be denied bail, as long as she agrees to comply with the conditions of the bail. (See page 127 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 41: The correct answer is (e). All the reasons set out in (a) in (d) are relevant, and the court can consider these when deciding whether or not to grant A bail. (See page 128 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 42: The correct answer is (d). Since A was planning to leave the country, there may be a reasonable belief that A would not be present in court for the trial. The court can take this fact All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1.

© 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

into consideration, and issue a warrant for A’s arrest under S.87 of the Cr.P.C. (See page 130 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 43: The correct answer is (c). Amendment cannot be claimed as a matter of right and the power to either grant or refuse amendments is in the discreation of the court. (See page 148 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 44: The correct answer is (d). Order VII Rule 1 of the CPC lays down the mandatory particulars which must be stated in a plaint. (See page 149 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 45: The correct answer is (b). The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 has an inclusive definition of the term ‘conveyance’. (See page 151 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 46: The correct answer is (c). Unless mandated by statute, it is not necessary to the validity of a deed that its execution is attested by any witness. (See page 154 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 47: The correct answer is (a). The word ‘holster’ must be construed in relation to the words found in immediate connection with it - carrying a gun in one’s pocket would not satisfy the condition set down in the statute. (See page 144 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 48: The correct answer is (c). Applying the doctrine of expressio unius est exclusio alterius, it is clear that the mention of citizens implies the exclusion of noncitizens from those having the rights to vote. (See page 145 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 49: The correct answer is (b). That B promised to pay the debt, even if time-barred, is critical to A’s suit. As such, it is a material fact, and not merely a material particular. Failure to mention this in the pleadings is fatal to A’s suit, and she cannot now make good that error by any amount of proof. (See pages 146 and 147 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 50: The correct answer is (b). This per the definition of “proved” in the Evidence Act. (See page 158 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 51: The correct answer is (e). In criminal cases, the accused enjoys a presumption of

innocence that the prosecution must disprove to secure a conviction from a Court. It is not enough for the presumption of innocence to remain not proved. (See page 159 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 52: The correct answer is (e). Judicial admissions are made by a party at a proceeding prior to the trial and constitute a waiver of proof being binding on the party that makes the admission. (See page 161 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 53: The correct answer is (b). S.63 of the Evidence Act provides an inclusive definition of secondary evidence. (See page 167 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 54: The correct answer is (e). The fact of B’s illness does not relate to any right or liability in asserted or denied in the prosecution of A for B’s murder. The first three facts, however, could be used to prove A’s liability. (See page 158 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 55: The correct answer is (b). These facts clearly show A’s conduct in relation to her trial for theft. (See page 160 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 56: The correct answer is (d). B has asserted the existence of these facts as the basis of her claim to the land. As such, B must prove these facts. (See page 168 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 57: The correct answer is (a). The Natural Law theory postulates that law consists of rules that are in accordance with reason; that “there exist objective moral principles which depend on the essential nature of the universe and which can be discovered by natural reason.” (See page 174 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 58: The correct answer is (b). Devlin argued that a society has a right of self-defence against any harm that may ensue to the moral code that binds it. (See page 178 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 59: The correct answer is (a). This is the only statement that does not follow from the Hohfeldian framework. (See page 181 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1)

Question 60: The correct answer is (d). While applying the mischief rule, it is critical to keep in mind the situation before the statute and the ‘mischief’ that the statute intended to remedy. (See page of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 61: The correct answer is (c). The literal reading of the enactment results in absurdity, so the golden rule must be applied to address the absurdity. (See pages 184185 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 62: The correct answer is (d). The mischief contemplated by the enactment would be suppressed by this reading, while also advancing the remedies under the enactment. (See page 184 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 63: The correct answer is (e). The general words “other public places” follows specific words that are all in the nature of commercial establishments, so the term “other public places” must be read to mean “other commercial establishments” (See pages 183184 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 64: The correct answer is (e). (See page 186 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 65: The correct answer is (d). There is no prohibition on advocates against running for political office. (See page 187-189 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 66: The correct answer is (d). An advocate may refuse to accept a particular brief in special circumstances. (See page 189 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 67: The correct answer is (c). An advocate must only communicate or negotiate with an opposing party regarding the controversy, through the counsel representing the opposing party. (See page 197 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 68: The correct answer is (c). The Rules of the Bar Council do not prevent an advocate from owning, or having a share in, a business that the advocate has inherited. The advocate may not, however, be personally involved in the management of the business. (See page 188 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 69: The correct answer is (d). A has identified D in the affidavit, and, if the affidavit is

critical to the case, A may be called upon as a material witness to identify D in the suit. A can be disbarred from appearing in the matter. (See page 189 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 70: The correct answer is (c). Since A was not aware of the receipt, he cannot be held responsible for the delay. (See page 194 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 71: The correct answer is (e). A standing timber, as opposed to timber tree, includes only such trees which, if cut, can be used as a timber. (See page 199 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 72: The correct answer is (c). Positive covenants do not run with the land. (See page 203 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 73: The correct answer is (c). A contingent interest is normally transferable; however, if the transferee of a contingent interest dies before obtaining the possession, the interest fails, and therefore, cannot be inherited.(See page 206 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 74: The correct answer is (d). In this form of mortgage, the mortgage is created simply by way of deliverance of the title deed of an immoveable property by the mortgagor to the mortgagee (or the mortgagee’s agent), with the intent of creating a security on such property. (See page 210 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 75: The correct answer is (b). The death of C makes the condition incapable of being satisfied. (See page 206 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 76: The correct answer is (c). The condition is invalid in so far as it exceeds the period of 18 years. Accordingly the income may be disposed off as if the restrictive period has expired.(See page 205 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) Question 77: The correct answer is (e). None of the options is an absolute restraint. (See page 202 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 1) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

-Part II Question 78: The correct answer is (a). Despite some judgments bypassing the classificatory

approach the predominant approach remains the classificatory one. Therefore, since the actions of the authority were in exercise of its legislative functions, the Court would most likely not insist upon adherence to the principles of natural justice. (See pages 2-3 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 79: The correct answer is (b). Power to modify an Act can be delegated, subject to the safeguards that the parent Act lays down the policy according to which the power is to be exercised. (See pages 4-5 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 80: The correct answer is (d). The enactment specifically permits the authority to give retrospective effect to its regulatory notifications. However, enactment does not clearly and specifically provide for retrospective levy of fees. (See page 8 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 81: The correct answer is (b). The principle does not deal with the vires of provisions in the Articles of Association, but rather, the manner in which such provisions may be enforced. (See page 25-26 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 82: The correct answer is (a). The agreement is invalid and A has no remedy, because had A consulted the Articles of Association of the company, A would have detected the defect in the agreement. (See pages 27 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 83: The correct answer is (d). A director of a public company has a fiduciary obligation towards the company and is under a duty to act in the best interest of the company. Duty of good faith implies that all the actions of the directors must be for the benefit of the company and the shareholders of the company. (See page 31 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 84: The correct answer is (c). A holding company can never be the subsidiary of its own subsidiary. (See page 24 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 85: The correct answer is (c). Since the company restricts the right of its members to transfer its shares, it must be a private limited company (S.3(1)(iii) of the Companies Act). Since the question states that the company is in good standing, the excess members must be employees or ex-employees. (See page 23 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 86: The correct answer is (e). A company has a separate legal identity from its

members, and can therefore inter alia own property, whether immovable, intangible or goods, in its own name, and enter into contracts in its own name, even with its members. (See page 22 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 87: The correct answer is (a). Since A was a Muslim at the time of his death, property will only pass to C and not to B. (See page 72 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 88: The correct answer is (a). It is not a defence to urge that the disease was innocently contracted or that it is curable. The ground is satisfied if it is shown that the disease is in a communicable form. (See page 65 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 89: The correct answer is (d). A is a Hindu, but only if he never professed the Christian faith. The mere act of baptism in such cases does not amount to conversion. (See page 78 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 90: The correct answer is (c). The Central Board and the State Boards perform the functions set out in Ss.16 and 17 of the Air Act. S.17(1)(g) empowers the state boards to independently notify emission standards. However, by operation of S.24 of the EPA, the Environment Protection Rule norms take precedence over standards laid down by state boards. (See page 49 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 91: The correct answer is (b). Although S.31A of the Air Act enables the state board to direct closure or discontinuance of the objectionable activity, sealing the unit and preventing access is unauthorised. (See page 49-50 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 92: The correct answer is (d). The Wildlife Protection Act does not extend to all types of lizards and snakes but applies only to scheduled species. A would be acquitted if the articles were not made from the skins of scheduled species. (See pages 57-58 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 93: The correct answer is (a). Indian courts have not generally accepted prior knowledge as an exception to the rule of strict liability. (See page 61 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2)

Question 94: The correct answer is (b). The State is under a duty to provide a lawyer to accused persons who are unable to afford legal services. (See page 89 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 95: The correct answer is (e). This is on the basis of the decision in Bangalore Water Supply & Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa, AIR 1978 SC 548 . (See page 99 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 96: The correct answer is (d). This strike is not illegal, as the conciliation proceedings are before a conciliation officer and not a Board of Conciliation. (See page 101 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 97: The correct answer is (a). The fact that A continued in employment knowing that his work would precipitate injury is irrelevant. Once it is found that the work which A has been doing is to be within the scope of A’s employment, the question of negligence, great or small on A’s part is irrelevant. (See page 115 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) All India Bar Examination, December 2010: Answers and Explanations to Model Question Paper 1. © 2010, Bar Council of India and Rainmaker Training & Recruitment Private Limited. Any unauthorised use or reproduction of these materials shall attract all applicable civil and criminal law remedies.

Question 98: The correct answer is (d). Since B is A’s servant, A is vicariously liable for B’s tortious act and must compensate C. (See page 124 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 99: The correct answer is (c). An Indian company is always resident in India. (See page 142 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) Question 100: The correct answer is (b), since this statement is not an application of the principle described. (See page 142 of the AIBE Preparatory Materials, Book 2) x-x