Ob Gyne FinalA

November 2, 2017 | Author: vaegmundig | Category: Childbirth, Menstrual Cycle, Pregnancy, Ovarian Cancer, Uterus
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Which of the following is the correct flow of blood from the uterine wall to the endometrium? A. Uterine artery arcuate artery radial artery straight & coiled spiral artery B. Uterine artery radial artery arcuate artery straight & coiled spiral artery C. Uterine artery arcuate artery straight artery radial & coiled spiral artery D. Uterine artery straight artery arcuate artery radial & coiled spiral artery


What is the functional life span of the corpus luteum? A. 7 + 2 days B. 14 + 2 days C. 21 + 2 days D. 28 + 2 days


What hormone is secreted by the dominant ovarian follicle? A. estriol B. estrone C. estradiol D. progesterone


During the embryonic period, where is the formation of blood first demonstrable? A. bone marrow B. yolk sac C. liver D. spllen


During the secretory phase, what is the uppermost layer from the uterine cavity ? A. Zona compacta B. Zona basalis C. Zona spongiosa D. Decidua basalis What stage of human development is implanted in the uterine cavity? A. blastomeres B. embryo C. blastocyst D. morula How many new primary oocytes are there during puberty? A. 0 B. 1,000 C. 10,000 D. 100,000 What is the important event that occurs prior to implantation? A. Formation of daughter cells B. Extrusion of the polar body C. Accumulation of fluid between blastomeres D. Disappearance of the zona pellucid






At what phase does regresson of the corpus luteum occur? A. At the end of the proliferative phase B. At the end of the secretory phase C. During menstruation D. After ovulation


A 34 year old G4P4 delivered vaginally an 8 lb baby at home assisted by a hilot. The placenta was delivered without difficulty. However, a few minutes later, there was profuse vaginal bleeding and the patient wa rushed to the hospital. In the ER, the patient was hypotensive, tachycardic and pale. On abdominal examination, the uterine fundus was soft and above the umbilicus. There were no vaginal or cervical lacerations. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. uterine inversion B. retained placental fragments C. uterine rupture D. uterine atony


A 33 year old G3P2 PU 18 weeks consulted at the ER because of watery vaginal discharge accompanied by hypogastric pain. Vital signs were normal. Speculum exam revealed pooling of watery discharge. I.E. revealed an open cervix, palpable fetal parts at the os, uterus enlarged to 18 weeks AOG. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Recurrent abortion B. Incomplete abortion C. Inevitable abortion D. Threatened abortion


At what part of the fallopian tube does tubal rupture occur earliest? A. Interstitial B. B. Ampullary C. Isthmic D. Fimbria


What is the most commonly associated condition for abruption placenta? A. External trauma B. Pregnancy- induced hypertension C. alcohol consumption D. Short cord


Which of the following transvaginal utrasonographic cervical findings correlate positively with preterm delivery? A. negative transfundal pressure B. funneling C. 2.7 cm cervical length D. T- shaped cervix


Preterm infant is an infant who is: A. less than 2000 grams at birth B. less than 2500 grams at birth C. less than 37 weeks AOG D. less than 38 weeks AOG A 35 year old G1P0 had an infertility work-up fro which she was prescribed clomiphene citrate. She got pregnant and was diagnosed to have twin pregnancy. What is the most probable type of twinning? A. Monozygotic B. Dizygotic



C. Conjoined D. Locked 17.

Which of the following is the most important parameter in the assessment of patient in true labor? A. intactness of the amniotic membrane B. cervical dilatation and effacement C. presenting part D. bony pelvis


The level of the presenting part in the birth canal described in relationship to the ischial spines, which is halfway between the pelvic inlet and the pelvic outlet is called A. position B. B. effacement C. Dilatation D. station


The characteristic curve pattern of cervical dilatation in a normal labor is described as: A. A. hyperbolic B. sigmoidal C. diagonal straight D. horizontal


A 30 year old G1P0, term was admitted for labor pains. FH- 34 cm, FHT140 bpm. IE- cervix is 4 cm dilated, 60% effaced, cephalic, station -2, rupture BOW. Uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, moderate. After 2 hours, IE- cervix 4-5 cm dilated, 70 % effaced, station -2. After 2 hours, IEcervix is 5-6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, station -1.Describe the progress of labor. A. Normally progressing B. Protracted cervical dilatation C. Protracted descent D. Arrest in descent


What phase of the active labor reflects the feto-pelvic relationship? A. latent phase B. B. acceleration phase C. phase of maximum slope D. deceleration phase


A 19 year old G1P0 PU 40 weeks, not in labor, was seen at the OPD for decreased fetal movement. She was hooked to an electronic fetal monitor and tracing showed: Baseline FHT- 140’s, good variability, with more than 2 accelerations of 20 bpm lasting for 20 secs. The tracing is interpreted as: A. reactive B. non-reactive C. positive D. negative


Fetal tachycardia is defined as a baseline heart rate greater than: A. 140 bpm B. 150 bpm C. 160 bpm D. 170 bpm



What is the presentation type when the fetal head is artially flexed with the anterior fontanel or bregma is presenting? A. face B. vertex C. brow D. sinciput


You were the intern on duty in the ER and you did an abdominal exam on a 22 year old G2P1 PU 37 weeks who consulted because of hypogastic pain. You found out that the fundus is occupied by a hard ballotable mass. What Leopold’s maneuver did you perform? A. LM 1 B. LM 2 C. LM 3 D. LM 4


There is an increase in the size of cardiac silhouette in X-ray during pregnancy because the heart is displaced to the: A. left and upward B. left and downward C. right and dowmward D. right and upward


During pregnancy, the diaphragm rises by A. 2 cm B. 4 cm C. 6 cm D. 8 cm


Impaired gall bladder contraction during pregnancy is due to A. estrogen B. estrogen and progesterone C. progesterone D. anatomical change in gall bladder


Naegele’s rule is use to estimate the expected date of delivery by ____. A. adding 3 days to the first day of PMP and count back 7 months B. adding 7 days to the first day of PMP and count back 3 months C. adding 7 days to the first day of bleeding and count back 3 months D. adding 7 days to the first day of LMP and count back 3 months


Which of the following is proven teratogen? A. Vitamin A derivatives B. Metronidazole C. Cephalosporins D. Ampicillin


Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? A. Pneumococus B. Hepatitis B C. Influenza D. Mumps, measles, rubella



The preferred method for the delivery of the aftercoming head is A. Piper’s forceps extraction B. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit Manuever C. Bracht maneuver D. Prague maneuver


You were assigned to deliver the baby of a 25 year old G1P0 PU 38 weeks. You applied the forceps on the fetal head with the following findings: head was at station +2 with the sagittal suture at left occiput anterior position. This is classified as A. outlet forceps delivery B. low forceps delivery C. midforceps delivery D. high forceps delivery


A 22 year old G1P0 patient at 39 weeks AOG was admitted for elective Cesarean Section for breech presentation. She requested to her obstetrician that a transverse suprapubic abdominal incision be done to her. This type of incision is called A. Kerr B. Kronig C. Pfannensteil D. Classical


Which of the following is one of the requirements that must be present before obstetric forceps must be used? A. The membranes should be intact B. Cephalic presentation C. The fetal head must be floating D. The cervix must be fully dilated and retracted


The single most significant risk factor in the development of post-partum pelvic infection is A. early rupture of membranes B. Prolonged labor C. Cesarean delivery D. Multiparity


The process by which the uterus returns to its normal size, tone and position after delivery is called A. involution B. puerperium C. subinvolution D. atony


What is the mechanism behind the increase in cardiac output right after delivery? A. maternal exhaustion B. increase caval compression C. sympathetic stimulation D. autotransfusion


Congenital rubella syndrome is more likely common during which AOG? A. 8-10 weeks B. 12-14 weeks C. 16-18 weeks


D. 36-38 weeks 40.

What is the diagnostic procedure of choice for identifying gallstones in pregnancy? A. CT Scan B. X-Ray C. Ultrasound D. MRI


A patient consulted because her husband is a seaman and will be coming home in 2 months for a 1-month vacation. She just had her menses 2 days ago. What is the most effective reversible form of contraception will you give? A. combined oral contraceptive B. calendar rhythm method C. Depo-Provera D. combined oral contraceptives


A 30 year old G1P1 consulted at the OPD for Pap smear. According to her, she had an IUD in-situ for 1 year. On PE, you can not visualize the tail of the IUD string. What is the best thing to do for this patient? A. Assume that the device has been expelled B. Assume that the patient is telling a lie C. Perform an transvaginal ultrasound D. Assume that the device has been expelled and perform the Pap smear


A 35 y.o., G3P3 (3-0-0-3) complained of scanty menstrual flow and continuous severe cramping throughout the menstrual period after undergoing cryotherapy due to chronic cervicitis. What is the most likely cause of her complaint? A. pelvic inflammation B. ectopic endometrial tissue C. cervical stenosis D. stress and tension


A 21 y.o. patient, nulligravid , single came in because of severe vaginal bleeding of 2 days duration. What is the management of choice in this case? A. D & C B. High dose progestins C. High dose estrogen D. Hysteroscopy


The most common cause of DUB in the premenarcheal and postmenopausal woman is _____. A. Ovulatory B. Anovulartory C. Organic D. Iatrogenic


A 32 y.o., G2P2 (2-0-0-2) consuted for amenorrhea since delivery up to almost 1 year after. Breastfeeding was not practiced.The last pregnancy was delivered via NSD with history of uterine atony and blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhea? A. Asherman’s syndrome B. Sheehan’s syndrome


C. Simmond’s syndrome D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome 47.

Menometrorrhagia is defined as: A. Abnormal uterine bleeding occurring at regular intervals B. Prolonged uterine bleeding at irregular intervals C. Normal amount of vaginal bleeding at frequent intervals D. Decreased amount of vaginal bleeding at frequent intervals


Which of the following statements is true of DUB? A. Anovulatory bleeding is the most common cause in the premenarcheal years B. There is continuous estrogen production without corpus luteum formation C. Halban’s syndrome is a common cause of DUB D. It is usually associated with severe dysmenorrhea


The most common histologic type of vaginal cancer is: A. Squamous carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Sarcoma


A 69- year old G4P4 (4004) consulted for an ulcerated mass on the right labium majus. She had been to several physicians who have prescribed unrecalled topical creams and solutions without relief. Upon seeing the patient, your recommendation would be: A. Observation B. Steroid topical cream C. Excision biopsy of the mass D. Simple vulvectomy


The area of the cervix that is most prone to precancerous and cancerous neoplasms is the: A. Histologic portio B. Transformation zone C. Histologic endocervix D. Isthmus


Which of the following HPV Types is associated with high oncogenic potential? A. HPV Type 1 B. HPV Type 5 C. HPV Type 6 D. HPV Type 18


A 37 year old, G3P3 was admitted because of vaginal bleeding. Pregnancy test is negative. She underwent diagnostic curettage. While doing the curettage humps and bumps were noted. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. intramural myoma B. subserous myoma C. submucous myoma D. broad ligament myoma E.



A 68 year old woman has a biopsy result of atypical complex hyperplasia. What is the most appropriate treatment for her? A. Judicious observation B. Repeat fractional D&C after 6 months C. Give cyclic progestin therapy to promote monthly withdrawal bleeding D. Perform TAHBSO


This granulose-theca cell tumor has this characteristic inclusion body. A. Psamomma bodies B. Call-Exner bodies C. Schiller Duvall bodies D. keratin pearls


A 33 year old nulligravid patient consulted in your clinic because of cervical mass. She was diagnosed as a case of prolapsed myoma . What is the best management for her case? A. Do myomectomy by laparotomy B. Do subtotal hysterectomy C. Do transcervical resection of the myoma D. Do total abdominal hysterectomy only


A 28 year old, single, nulligravid patient consulted in the OPD for the result of her pelvic ultrasound. It revealed a 18mm x 10mm x 14mm and a 13mm x 16mm x 10 mm intramural myomatas. She is asymptomatic.


How will you manage the patient? A. Work up the patient , then schedule her for myomectomy B. Give her GnRH agonists C. Reevaluate the patient at 6-month interval to determine the rate of growth D. Perform fractional D & C


This is the diagnostic procedure of choice for endometrial cancer. A. Progesterone challenge test B. Ultrasound C. Pap smear D. Fractional D&C


This is the drug of choice for syphilis. A. Oral doxycycline B. Oral tetracycline C. Oral Penicillin D. Parenteral Penicillin G


A 29 year old sexually active female consulted in your clinic because of vulvar lesion. History revealed that it started as paresthesia of the vulvar skin then papule and subsequent vesicle formation. Simple clinical inspection revealed ulcers which are painful when touched with cotton-tipped applicator. The most likely diagnosis is _____. A. Syphilis B. Granuloma inguinale C. LGV D. Genital herpes


What are the most important goals of the medical therapy of acute PID? A. prevention and treatment of the disease


B. early diagnosis and prompt treatment of the disease C. prevention of the disease and preservation of tubal function D. resolution of symptoms and preservation of tubal function 63.

This occurs when increased intraabdominal pressure is not transmitted equally to the bladder and the functional urethra. A. detrussor instability B. urethral sphicteric dysfunction C. genuine stress incontinence D. true incontinence


This occurs when a bladder is overdistended because of its instability to empty. A. true incontinence B. overflow incontinence C. genuine stress incontinence D. detrussor instability


A 35 year old G1P0 (0-0-1-0) consulted because failure to become pregnant 1 year after her abortion. Her condition is considered A. unexplained infertility B. primary infertily C. secondary infertility D. normal after an abortion


The first drug to offer in women with anovulation is A. bromocriptine B. GnRH C. Gonadotrophins D. clomiphene citrate


The most common cause of tubal/peritoneal factors of infertility is A. surgery on the tubes B. tuberculosis C. PID D. endometriosis


Among the factors causing female infertility, the easiest to diagnose and manage is A. cervical factors B. uterine factors C. ovulatory factors D. tubal/peritoneal factors


An absolute contraindication to hormone replacement therapy is: A. Thromboembolic disease B. Bronchial asthma C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension


Over the counter pregnancy test kits will test for which placental hormone? ((Baja-Panlilio Chapter 6, p. 64) A. estrogen B. progesterone C. human placental lactogen D. human chorionic gonadotropin



Mefenamic acid taken by pregnant women may result in the closure of what structure? (Baja-Panlilio, Vol I pp. 82-83) A. ductus venosus B. foramen ovale C. ductus arteriosus D. ventricular septal defect


Hydroureter during pregnancy is more marked on the right than on the left because of: (Baja panlilio Chapter 8 Page 107) A. renal artery crossing the ureter on the right B. dextrorotation of the uterus C. sigmoid colon on the right D. majority of fetus staying on the right maternal side


In which of the following are relatively low levels of hCG detected in maternal blood? (Baja Panlilio Chapter 6 page 64) A. Down syndrome B. hydatidiform mole C. multiple gestation D. Impending abortion


The majority of spontaneous abortions are due to: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 27, p. 317) A. chronic infections B. endocrine abnormality C. chromosomal defects D. uterine synechial


A 39 year old, G4P3 (3003) patient with a history of repeated episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease was diagnosed to have an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. The cause of her ectopic pregnancy is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 28, p. 327) A. uterine tumor B. adhesions C. ovarian tumor D. salpingitis


The best basis for the diagnosis of Preterm Labor in this patient is the presence of: (Baja Panlilio Chapter 37 , page 355) A. mucoid vaginal discharge B. painful uterine contractions C. contractions occurring every 10 to 15 minutes D. cervical dilatation and effacement


A blood pressure of 160/110 mmhg. Proteinuria of 4 gm/day, with elevated liver enzymes is classified as: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p 231) A. preeclampsia mild B. preeclampsia severe C. chronic hypertension D. gestational hypertension



A 29 year old G1P0, consulted for the 1st time on her 28 weeks AOG. Her BP was 160/120 mmHg. She had severe headache and her fundic height was only at the level of the umbilicus. The appropriate laboratory exams to be done initially is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 337 A. non-stress test B. doppler velocimetry C. biophysical profile D. liver enzymes


A 35 year old, G6P5 (5005) on her 12th week of pregnancy was diagnosed on ultrasound to have an h-mole. What will be the management for this case? ((Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 30, p. 350) A. single agent chemotherapy B. hysterotomy C. suction curettage D. hysterectomy, followed by prophylactic chemotherapy


When the long axis of the fetus parallels the longitudinal axis of the uterus, the lie of the fetus is called: (Panlilio, Textbook of Obstetrics (Pathologic and Physiologic) 2nd ed, Page 210) A. transverse B. longitudinal C. cephalic D. breech


The tracings showed that the fetus: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 21 pp. 237

A. B. C. D. 82.

has normal tracings has a late deceleration has an early deceleration has a variable deceleration

In intrapartum monitoring, the management for severe bradycardia preceded by late deceleration and absent variability is done by: (BajaPanlilio, Chapter 21 pp. 236 A. giving oxygen inhalation at 3-4 L/mins. B. infusion of intravenous fluids C. immediate termination of pregnancy D. placing patient at left lateral decubitus



A 25 year old G1P0, 38-39 wks. AOG consulted at the emergency room due to labor pains. She has no prenatal check-ups and family history revealed diabetes mellitus in sister and mother. Abdominal exam revealed fundic height = 40 cm, uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, 4550 secs. duration. Internal exam has remained unchanged at 6 cms dilated, fully effaced, station -2, cephalic, (-) BOW for the past 2 ½ hrs. The serious complication during vaginal delivery of this baby where there is arrest in delivery of the shoulder is: (Baja-Panlilio, . 421-422) A. Shoulder dystocia B. Deep transverse of the head C. Erb’s palsy D. Prolonged second stage of labor


A well-nourished patient on her third trimester of pregnancy has a Hemoglobin value of 10.5 gms/dl. This low value could be explained by: (Baja Panlilio 2nd Ed Chapter 8 page 112) A. iron deficiency anemia B. increase in blood volume C. no increase in RBC production D. bone marrow failure during pregnancy


Iron supplementation during pregnancy is mandatory because of: (Baja Panlilio 2nd Ed Chapter 8 page 112) A. increased physiologic Fe loss during pregnancy B. poor Fe absorption during pregnancy C. increased demand by the increased production of RBCs D. poor bone marrow response to anemia


Pregnancy is said to be a diabetogenic state because of: (Baja Panlilio 2nd Ed Chapter 8 page 114) A. decreased insulin production B. increased caloric intake of the mother C. increased fat utilization D. increased insulin resistance


An increase in the following hormone is an indication of Thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy: (Baja Panlilio 2nd Ed Chapter 54 page 595 A. free Thyroxine hormone B. total Thyroxine hormone C. thyroid Stimulating Hormone D. thyroid Releasing Hormone


A puerpera came for her postnatal follow up 2 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The following are expected findings on her physical examination: (Panlilio, Textbook of Obstetrics (Pathologic and Physiologic) 2nd ed, Pages 295-298) A. uterus at the level of the symphysis pubis B. lochia alba C. cervix open and thick D. bipedal edema


A week after delivery by emergency cesarean section after a prolonged labor, a patient came because of fever of 38 ۫ C. Puerperal infection is suspected if she has: (Panlilio, Textbook of Obstetrics (Pathologic and Physiologic) 2nd ed, Pages pages 556-561) A. breast engorgement


B. foul smelling lochia and tender uterus C. milk fever D. thrombophlebitis 90.

A 42 year old G2P1 at her 32 weeks gestation with known renal disease and hypertension presents with BP of 220/120 mmHg but is asymptomatic. The diagnostic test you will perform to detect chronicity of her illness is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 342) A. Doppler velocimetry B. urine protein C. fundoscopy D. elevated serum creatinine


The monitoring done to detect increased severity of preeclampsia is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35, p. 336) A. maternal fibronectin B. urine protein C. serum uric acid D. serum creatinine


The most common pathophysiologic mechanism in perimenopausal bleeding is: (Compre Gyne, 1082) A. cervical ancer B. endometrial cancer C. anovulation D. abnormal pregnancy states


A 34 yo G3P3 (3-0-0-3) presents with episodes of missed period for 2 cycles then irregular and profuse bleeding for the past two weeks. Her pregnancy test is negative with unremarkable pelvic exam findings except for the moderate bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis: (Compre Gyne, p. 1082-1083) A. threatened abortion B. hydatidiform mole C. dysfunctional uterine bleeding D. endometrial cancer


A 60 yo G5P5 (5-0-0-5) has been menopausal for the past 12 years presents with minimal vaginal bleeding. What diagnostic exam will you recommend? (Compre Gyne, p. 1082-1083) A. colposcopy B. laparoscopy C. diagnostic Dilatation and Curettage D. Transvaginal Ultrasound


An adnexal cystic mass was seen appreciated on TVS, 6 cm in diameter, in a 24 yo patient who presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Compre Gyne, p. 506-507) A. follicular cyst B. dermoid cyst C. serous cyst D. corpus luteum cyst


A 5 year old child was initially treated with antibiotics for purulent vaginal discharge for a week. On follow up, the discharge was noted to be foul smelling and bloody. The most probable cause is: (Comprehensive Gynecology, 4th ed, page 274-277)


A. B. C. D.

monilial infection child molestation foreign body in the vagina precocious puberty


A mother is concerned with the appearance of whitish, non puritic vaginal discharge on her 11 year old child noted since 8 month preceding menarche. It is best to; (Comprehensive Gynecology, 4th ed, page 276) A. do gram stain on the discharge B. advise vaginal douche C. prescribe oral antibiotics D. reassure the mother and the child that the discharge is normal


The most frequent symptoms of endometrial hyperplasia is: (Compre Gyne, p. 870) A. foul smelling vaginal discharge B. abnormal vaginal bleeding C. pelvic pain D. alternating constipation and diarrhea


A 46 yo G4P4 (4-0-0-4) with a nodular uterus, enlarged to 20 weeks AOG presents with menorrhagia. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Comprehensive Gynecology Chapter 18 Page 502) A. Subserous myoma B. Submucous myoma C. Adenomyosis D. Abnormal pregnancy


A 65 year old nulligravida consulted at the emergency room due to postmenopausal bleeding for 3 yrs. She’s obese and known to be hypertensive for 10 years. Her menstrual history revealed irregularly irregular cycles. She was treated for breast cancer 6 years ago and has been taking tamoxifen for the past 5 years. The most probable cause of her bleeding is a pathology in the: (Compre Gyne, p. 860-867) A. Cervix B. Endometrium C. Ovary D. Vagina


A 35 year old, G6P6 (6006) wife of a seaman, consulted due to postcoital bleeding. Speculum exam revealed a flat warty lesion along the posterior cervical lip. Histopathology of cervical punch biopsy done revealed dysplastic cells involving nearly the whole thickness of the epithelium. The most probable diagnosis is CIN? (Compre Gyne, 802-803) A. I B. II C. III D. IV A 65 year old nulligravida consulted at the emergency room due to postmenopause bleeding x 3 yrs. She’s obese and known to be hypertensive for 10 years. Her menstrual history revealed irregularly irregular cycles. She was treated for breast cancer 6 years ago and has been taking tamoxifen for the past 5 years. The most appropriate diagnostic test is: (Compre Gyne, 870-871) A. Pap smear



B. Cervical punch biopsy C. Fractional curettage D. Transvaginal ultrasound


A 25 year old, G6P0 (0060) consulted at the emergency room due to postcoital bleeding x 3 months duration. She’s a victim of child prostitution. On pelvic exam, there was a 2 cm cauliflower – like lesion on the anterior lip of the cervix. The vagina and parametria are smooth. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test? (Compre Gyne, p. 844) A. pap smear B. colposcopy with biopsy C. direct punch biopsy D. cone biopsy


A 20 year old commercial sex worker presented at the clinic due to painful shallow ulcers in the vulva associated with burning sensation during urination. She also has multiple oral ulcers at the time of consultation. The most likely diagnosis is: (Compre Gyne, , Chapter 22, page 656) A. Herpes simplex infection B. granuloma inguinale C. Lymphogranuloma venereum D. Syphilis


A 38 year old diabeteic patient presented at the clinic due to vaginal pruritus and whitish vaginal discharge. On examination, the vulva is beefy red in appearance with whitish curdled discharge. The most likely diagnosis is: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 669) A. Trichomoniasis B. Candidiasis C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Mucopuruloent Cervicitis


The presence of heavy concentration of coccobacilli surrounding vaginal epithelial cells with loss of distinct cell margins is the appearance of; (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 671) A. Donovan bodies B. Clue cells C. chancre D. inclusion cells


A patient with chronic ulcers in the vulva had smears done taken from the ulcers. Findings shows presence of dark staining bacteria with a bipolar appearance found in the cytoplasm of large mononuclear cells .These are diagnostic of ; (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 660 A. Granuloma inguinale B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Chancroid D. Syphilis


A patient with painless vulvar ulcers came with a positive screening test for syphilis. Confirmatory test that should be done can either be any of the following except: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 664) A. RPR B. TPI C. FTA-ABS




According to CDC, treatment of patients diagnosed with HIV includes the following except: (Compre Gyne Chapter 22, page 686) A. behavioral B. psychosocial C. emotional D. medical


A patient diagnosed with gonorrhea should: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 692) A. be treated with Chloramphenicol B. also be treated for Chlamydia infection C. have follow-up cultures done for asymptomatic women D. not have serologic test for syphilis if cultures for gonorrhea are positive


Linda, 65 year old, G7P7 came to your clinic complaining of vaginal itching with burning discomfort. This condition may be due to a decrease in what hormone? (Compre Gyne, p.1223) A. LH B. progesterone C. estrogen D. FSH


Linda, 18 year old, delivered an 8 lbs baby. There was note of laceration on the lateral wall off the vaginal vault with profuse vaginal bleeding. There was a sudden drop of BP. Post partum there was note of amenorrhea. Lab examination shows destruction of the pituitary gland. Linda has what syndrome? (Compre Gyne p. 1116) A. Simmonds syndrome B. Sheehan’s syndrome C. Edward’s syndrome D. Asherman’s syndrome


Factors promoting puerpueral infection include: A. prolonged rupture of membranes B. limited number of vaginal examination C. normal hemoglobin levels D. normal labor Textbook of Obstetrics (Baja-Panlilio, et al), p. 517-8


The fetal heart tones can be best heard in this area if the following were the Leopold’s findings: L1- large nodular mass L2 – hard, resistant structure at the right side of the mother Small, irregular, mobile parts on the left side of the mother L3 – movable hard round mass L4 – tips of the fingers able to meet A. right lower quadrant B. left lower quadrant C. right upper quadrant


D. left upper quadrant Textbook of Obstetrics (Baja-Panlilio, et al), p. 122-123



The patient with abnormal uterine bleeding is a: A. 18 y.o. whose interval of menses is 24 to 30 days B. 41 y.o. whose menses last 8 to 10 days C. 29 y.o. on DMPA with occasional vaginal spotting D. 22 y.o. leukemic patient with menstrual blood loss of 80 ml Compre Gyne 4th ed, p. 1079-80 A 55 y.o. G5P5 (5005) consulted for fish-wash like vaginal discharge and on-and-off vaginal bleeding. Pelvic exam showed the cervix to be converted to a 6 x 5 cm nodular, fungating mass extending to the R lateral fornix, the right parametria nodular and fixed while the left was free. Based on the information given, this patient can be clinically staged as A. IIB B. IIIA C. IIIB D. IVA Compre Gyne 4th ed, p. 897


A 53 y.o. G1P1 (1001) underwent exploratory laparotomy for an ovarian new growth. Intraoperative findings showed the right ovary to be converted to a 10 cm predominantly cystic mass with excrescences on its outer capsule. The left ovary was grossly normal. All other abdominopelvic organs were grossly normal. Based on the information given, the Intraoperative stage of this patient is A. IA B. IB C. IC D. IIA Compre Gyne 4th ed, p. 966


Speculum exam of a 27 y.o. complaining of leucorrhea showed copious frothy greenish vaginal discharge with strawberry-like mucosa. This is most likely due to: A. candidiasis B. trichomoniasis C. gonococcal infection D. bacterial vaginosis Compre Gyne 4th ed, p. 672-73


The main arterial blood supply of the uterus is a branch of : A. pudendal artery B. external iliac C. ovarian artery D. hypogastric artery


The uterus is derived from the: A. Wollfian duct


B. Gartner’s duct C. Mullerian duct D. Urogenital sinus


The violaceous discoloration of the vagina during pregnancy is called: A. Godell’s sign B. Hegar’s sign C. Chadwick’s sign D. Pawlik’s sign


Which of the following is markedly increased by about 28 weeks gestation? A. fetal movement B. plasma volume C. amniotic fluid D. human chorionic gonadotropin


This maneuver is done to promote extension of the fetal head: A. Wood’s maneuver B. Mauriceau’s maneuver C. Ritgen’s maneuver D. Robert’s maneuver


One of the following is a presumptive sign of pregnancy: A. softening of the isthmus B. outlining of the fetus C. violaceous vaginal mucosa D. ballottement


The fundus of the uterus is at this level at 12 weeks gestation: A. Just below the umbilicus B. Above the symphysis C. At the level of the symphysis D. Midway between the symphysis and the umbilicus


During the second and third trimester, daily caloric intake should be increased by: A. 400 B. 300 C. 200 D. 100


Lightening is the result of : A. dilatation of the cervix B. descent of the fetus C. increase in Braxton Hicks contractions D. expulsion of bloody show


The relation of the point of direction to the right and left of the maternal birth canal is called: A. presentation B. posture C. position D. station



Which ligament is considered as the strongest support of the uterus? A. Cardinal B. broad C. utero-sacral D. round


Average duration of the first stage of labor in primigravidas: A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. 8 hours D. 5 hours


Average duration of the third stage of labor among multiparous patients: A. 5 minutes B. 20 minutes C. One hour D. Two hours


Milk ejection is the result of the action of: A. Oxytocin B. prolactin C. estrogen D. human placental lactogen


Complete anesthesia for abdominal delivery necessitates a block from: A. T10 to S5 B. T10 to S1 C. T8 to S1 D. T8 to S5


The motor pathways to the uterus leaves the spinal cord at the level of: A. T9T10 B. T7T8 C. T6 D. T7


Phase 0 of parturition is characterized by: A. uterine tranquility B. ripening of the cervix C. development of the lower uterine segment D. progesterone withdrawal


Secondary arrest of cervical dilatation is cessation of cervical dilatation for: A. one hour or more B. two hours or more C. three hours or more D. 12 hours or more


TRUE of hypertonic uterine contractions EXCEPT: A. absence of basal hypertonus B. usually respond to sedation C. distorted gradient pressure D. absence of fundal dominance


Method of delivery in a 19 year old primigravid patient, 39 weeks pregnant, transverse lie in labor: A. internal podalic version under general anesthesia


B. emergency low transverse cesarian section C. emergency classical cesarian section D. internal podalic version with complete breech extraction


Significant oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of ____ cm. or less: A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5


Patient with heart disease without any obstetrical indication are best delivered by: A. cesarian section under general anesthesia B. normal spontaneous delivery under pudendal block C. outlet forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia D. cesarian section under epidural anesthesia


Which antihypertensive is NOT recommended during pregnancy? A. methyl- dopa B. ace inhibitors C. hydralazine D. nifedipene


The following are beta agonist tocolytic agents EXCEPT: A. Ritrodrine B. salbutamol C. indomethacin D. terbutaline


Which of the following is NOT true in the use of corticosteroids in premature labor? A. delivery is best delayed 24 hours after the last dose of the drug B. betamethasone is given at a dose of 12 mg. im every 24 hours X 2 doses C. it produces induction of fat cells that regulate fetal lunf maturity D. it affects biochemical systems within type II cells that produce surfactants


Complete expulsion of sperm stored in the reproductive tracr beyond the interrupted vas deferens takes about _____ ejaculations: A. 2 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30


A form of gestational trophoblastic disease characterized by excessive trophoblastic proliferation and edema of the villous stroma without excessive local invasion is: A. H. mole B. Invasive mole C. Choriocarcinoma D. Placental site trophoblastic tumor



Internal examination in cases of abruption placenta maybe done to determine: A. location of placenta B. if bag of water has ruptured C. cervical dilatation D. All of the above


In uterine atony, the source of bleeding is the: A. uterine lacerations B. placental implantation site C. cervical lacerations D. myometrium


What maneuver in shoulder dystocia involves flexing the maternal thighs on the abdomen? A. Woods B. Pinard C. Zavanelli D. McRoberts


A woman using the oral contraceptive pills for the first time should be advised to start taking it : A. on day 1 of menses B. on day 5 of menses C. on day 7 of menses D. anytime as long as she is not pregnant


Management of choice for procidentia uteri in a 60 year old multiparous patient with marked cystorectocoele: A. observation and close follow up B. vaginal hysterectomy C. vaginal hysterectomy with anterior-posterior repair D. total abdominal hysterectomy with anterior-posterior repair


The following are characteristics of Rokitansky syndrome EXCEPT: A. phenotypically female B. normal ovaries C. normal uterus D. absent vagina


The following are congenital anomalies of the mullerian duct EXCEPT: A. imperforate hymen B. transverse vaginal septum C. unicornuate uterus D. uterus didelphys


The so called psammoma bodies are found in: A. serous cystadenoma B. mucinous cysadenoma C. clear cell carcinoma D. mucinous cystadenoma


Abnormal uterine bleeding during the pubertal and perimenarcheal period is due to: A. polycystic ovaries


B. failing ovarian function C. delayed,aynchronous hypothalamic maturation D. exogenous estrogen stimulation


Most common cause of vaginal bleeding among postmenopausal women: A. endometrial carcinoma B. endometrial hyperplasia C. endometrial polyp D. atrophic endometrium


A woman with postmenopausal bleeding warrants: A. an endometrial biopsy B. observation and Pap’s smear yearly C. total hysterectomy D. total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingooophorectomy


In Meig’s syndrome, the ovarian newgrowth is a: A. Fibroma B. mature teratoma C. immature teratoma D. cystadenoma


Drug of choice for pregnant patients with Chlamydia infection: A. Doxycycline B. azythromicin C. erythromycin D. ampicilin


The so called tobacco pouch appearance of the fallopian tube is seen in: A. gonorrhea infection with tubo ovarian abscess B. Chlamydia infenction with tubo ovarian abscess C. Pelvic tuberculos D. Old tubal ectopic gestation


Type of endometrial hyperplasis which is mot likely to progress to endometrial carcinoma: A. simple hyperplasis with atypia B. cystic hyperplasia with atypia C. complex hyperplasia without atypia D. complex hyperplasia with atypia


A post coital test is best done: A. pre menstrual B. right after menses C. periovulatory period D. anytime during the cycle


Hysterosalpingography is best done: A. periovulatory period B. before menses C. after menses D. anytime during the cycle


Which of the following Pap’s smear will definitely require colposcopic examination of the cervix:


A. B. C. D.



Which of the following is considered a precursor of cervical carcinoma: A. Metaplasia B. dysplasia C. eversion D. severe eroisions


Endometrial carcinoma is LEAST likely if endometrial thickness is: A. 5 mm B. 40 IU/ml D. tonically raised LH MPL 0.5 p: 1100


What is a contraindication to hormonal replacement therapy? A. history of pulmonary thromboembolism B. hot flushes, insomnia in a 50 year old with irregular menses C. history of fibrocystic disease of the breast D. elevated serum lipids MPL 0.33 p: 1249


Which of these is the most likely site for implantation of endometriosis? A. omentum


B. appendix C. bladder mucosa D. peritoneum of culdesac MPL 0.5 p: 536 349.

Which disease of the vulva is best treated with wide excision? A. hidradenitis suppuritiva B. invasive vulvar cancer C. angioma D. contact dermatitis MPL 0.5 p: 489


What ovarian tumor will most commonly cause precocious puberty ? A. teratoma B. luteoma C. granulosa cell tumor D. sertoli leydig tumor MPL 0.5 p: 173


A woman with this type of pelvis is more prone to urethrocoele because of more force of the fetal head on this area during descent in labor A. platypelloid B. anthropoid C. gynecoid D. android MPL 1.0 p: 571


Stage III vaginal cancer means extension of lesion up to A. vaginal wall B. subvaginal tissue C. pelvic wall D. rectal mucosa MPL 0.33 p:1028


On endometrial biopsy, glycogen-rich subnuclear vacuoles were seen in the base of the cells lining the glands. What does this mean? A. the woman is in her late luteal phase B. ovulation has occurred C. she is progesterone deficient D. menstruation is about to set in MPL 0.33 p: 104


Which theory of endometriosis best explains remote sites of the disease such as in the spinal cord, nasal septum or lungs? A. iatrogenic dissemination B. coelomic metaplasia C. immunologic changes D. lymphovascular metastasis MPL 0.33 p: 533


Which is an abnormal semen parameter? A. white cell count of 105 per ml B. sperm morphology 30 % C. sperm count 40 x 106 per ml D. progressive motility in 65 % MPL 0.33 p: 1175



A 32 year old has been having her regular pap smear for the last ten years. Her latest result however revealed low grade SIL. What is the next step to do? A. colposcopic examination B. repeat smear in 4 months C. conization D. laser ablation MPL 0.33 p: 873


A 19 year old was brought to the ER because of acute pain. There was also vaginal spotting. Examination revealed a small tender adnexal mass. Based on the LMP, she is on day 25 of her cycle. Pregnancy test was negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. ectopic pregnancy B. acute salpingitis C. ruptured corpus luteum D. ruptured endometrial cyst MPL 0.33 p: 509


A 28 year old nulligravida with primary infertility and cyclic pelvic pain was diagnosed to have endometriosis. She was placed on hormonal treatment. However, while on this drug, she developed acne, hirsutism, and deepening of the voice. What is a better alternative? A. laparoscopic fulguration B. GnRH agonist C. Progesterone injectables D. Oral contraceptives MPL 0.33 p. 546


A 35 year old consulted because of vesicular lesions in the vulva. She related that several days prior to the appearance of the vesicles, she felt numbing sensation over her vulvar skin. Which is the best treatment? A. metronidazole B. acyclovir C. doxycycline D. penicillin MPL 0.33 p. 659 360.

A 17 year old consulted because of lower abdominal pain of 3 days duration described as constant and dull. On speculum exam, purulent vaginal discharge was noted. Patient was febrile at 38.5 C. Pertinent finding on internal exam: tenderness with motion of the uterus and cervix. What is the most likely etiologic agents? A. Neisseria gonorrheae and Chlamydia trachomatis B. Trichomonas vaginalis and gardnerela C. Anaerobic gram negative bacteria D. Pseudomonas MPL 0.5 p. 724


A woman consulted because of spontaneous milky discharge and missed period of 8 weeks. Pregnancy test was negative. Prolactin levels after appropriate blood collection was 35 ng/ml. What should be the next step in the work-up? A. repeat prolactin in a quiet room B. CT scan of the brain C. Cone view of the sella turcica


D. TSH determination MPL 0.33 p. 1133 362.

A patient was diagnosed to have squamous cell cervical cancer. Clinical evaluation revealed that the disease has involved the upper third of the vagina. Parametrial tissues were indurated. However, there was no evidence of pelvic well involvement. What is the best treatment for her? A. radiotherapy B. chemoradiation C. RHBLND D. Chemotherapy MPL 0.33 p. 905


A 19 year old consulted because of primary amenorrhea. On clinical evaluation, the patient was found to have breast development but absent uterus. Which of the following can best help arrive at diagnosis? A. progesterone challenge test B. GnRH level determination C. Karyotyping D. Gondal biopsy MPL 0.33 p. 1106


A 19 year old, primigravida, at 34 weeks gestation comes in for severe headache and visual blurring. Previous blood pressure on prior prenatal check up was at 140/90 mm Hg. Presently, her blood pressure was 170/110 mm Hg. She presented with bipedal edema. There was no uterine contractions. Then she developed generalized tonic-clonic seizures last for about 40 secs. What is most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic hypertension B. Severe pre-eclampsia C. Chronic hypertension with superimposed hypertension D. Eclampsia MPL 0.5 p. 764


Which of the following conditions can be predicted by cervicovaginal fibronectin? A. pre-eclampsia B. feta growth restriction C. preterm labor D. premature rupture of membrane MPL 0.33 p. 937


A G2P1 with 7 weeks missed period presents with one week diagnosis of vaginal bleeding and hypogastric pains. Cervix is 1 cm open with intact membranes. What is the diagnosis? A. Threatened abortion B. Imminent abortion C. Inevitable abortion D. Incomplete abortion MPL 0.33 p. 243


Which is a cause of polyhydramnios? A. renal agenesis B. prematurity C. abruption D. esophageal atresia


MPL 0.5 p. 526 368.

A 26 year old G3P2, Previous CS I, on her 29th week age of gestation went to the hospital because of episodes of bright red vaginal bleeding upon waking up without other symptoms. Vital signs were normal with no uterine contraction noted. Leopolds maneuver showed a baby in cephalic presentation, floating, FHT was 150/min. What is the diagnosis? A. placenta previa B. placenta abruption C. Premature labor D. Ruptured uterus MPL 1.0 p. 630


A nullipara was admitted on active labor at 5 cms., ruptured bag of waters, station -2. After 3 hours of good contractions, cervix was 5 cms dilated, station -2. What condition is she in? A. prolonged latent phase of labor B. arrest of cervical dilatation C. arrest of descent D. protracted active phase of labor MPL 0.5 p. 499


A patient diagnosed to have asymptomatic bacteriuria is one who has? A. persistently multiplying bacteria in the urine but no symptoms. B. 100,000 organisms in culture specimen with pyuria C. a sterile urine culture with frequency and urgency. D. microscopic hematuria and colony count of 50,000/ml. MPL 0.25 p. 1253


Pigmentation of the face during pregnancy is considered as A. an indication of increased androgen from a male fetus B. a temporary state rapidly regressing postpartum C. a benign but persistent condition D. an indication for immediate hyroxyquinone application MPL 0.33 p. 1430


A 25 year old consulted for vaginal spotting and sharp pelvic pain. History revealed 6 weeks amenorrhea. Pregnancy test was positive. Physical exam elicited cervical wriggling tenderness with a vague mass and tenderness in the left adnexae. Posterior vaginal fornix as full and bulging. BP was 100/60 mm Hg., PR 102/min. What should be done next to this patient? A. culdocentesis B. emergency transvaginal ultrasound C. blood transfusion D. immediate exploration MPL 0.5 p. 890


A woman on her 32nd week of gestation was admitted for threatened preterm labor. Tocolytic management was initiated with magnesium sulfate. Which of the following needs to be monitored closely while on tocolysis? A. SGOT B. Glucose C. Blood pressure D. Potassium


MPL 1.0 p. 714 374.

A 20 year old primigravida at 39 weeks came in due to labor pains. This patient was a diagnosed case of rheumatic heart disease. When should she receive the initial dose of ampicillin-gentamycin? A. about 2-3 hours after admission B. prior to amniotomy C. after the first internal examination D. 30 minutes prior to anticipated delivery MPL 0.25 p. 1189


A puerperal women was rushed to the ER because of profuse bleeding. On examination, a sac-like structure was seen out of the introitus with the placenta still attached. A crater-like depression as noted on abdominal palpation. Which of the following is part of good management? A. immediate removal of the placenta before replacement B. give oxytocin to facilitate replacement C. administer fluids and magnesium sulfate for uterine relaxation D. do a vaginal hysterectomy MPL 0.33 p. 643


A pregnant women consulted because of itchy reddish wheal-like rashes. The lesions were first seen in the abdomen eventually spreading to the rest of the body. She denied having any allergies to food or drugs. What treatment is appropriate? A. antibiotics B. estrogen cream C. corticosteroids D. lindane MPL 0.33 p. 1025


A pregnant woman on her 1st trimester of pregnancy was exposed to a neighbor with german measles. What is the initial step in the management? A. active immunization B. immunoglobulins C. antiviral therapy D. ask history of past infection MPL 0.33 p. 1469


Immediately after an apparently normal labor and delivery, the mother suddenly manifested with dyspnea and went into convulsions. Blood pressure likewise dropped sharply from 120/80 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary arrest rapidly ensued. What is the probable cause? A. cerebrovascular accident B. eclampsia C. amniotic fluid embolism D. postpartum cardiomyopathy MPL 0.33 p. 660


A G5P4 pregnant uterine 39 weeks was in active labor for 3 hours. IE showed cervix 7 cms dilated, fetal head at station -1 to 0. Suddenly, fetal heart rate decelerated and maternal blood pressure dropped from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg. On doing IE, the presenting part appeared to retract. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. abruption placenta


B. spontaneous uterine rupture C. acute cord torsion D. uterine atony MPL 0.5 p. 650 380.

A G2P1 PU 31 weeks came to the clinic with complaints of watery vaginal discharge. After noting some fluid pooling at the culdesac, the clinician requested for an ultrasound. What information can be derived from an ultrasound pertinent to management? A. demonstration of site of bag rupture B. confirmation of fetal maturity C. assessment of amniotic fluid volume D. detection of fetal meconium staining MPL 0.33 p: 526


During clinical pelvimetry, the ischial spines were noted to be prominent, the sidewalls convergent and the sacraosciatic notch is narrow. Of the following, what is the most common consequence of these findings? A. this promotes cord prolapse B. there is increase likelihood for transverse arrest of fetal head C. extreme posterior asynclitism is favored D. production of abnormal presentation is facilitated MPL 0.25 p: 756 382.

Anticipating a large baby, the patient’s legs were removed from the stirrups and sharply flexed upon her abdomen. What will be the effect of this maneuver? A. increase pelvic dimension B. facilitate bearing down effort C. rotates symphysis pubis toward maternal head D. dislodges the posterior shoulder MPL 0.25 p: 461


A primigravida was brought to the ER by the attending midwife after 10 hours of labor. Apparently she has been bearing down for 2 hours already. Exam showed that the fetal scalp is visible at the introitus without separating the labia. The sagittal suture was at AP diameter. The mother appeared weakened by her efforts to bear down. What is the best management? A. strong fundal pressure B. oulet forceps extraction C. cesarean section D. await vaginal delivery MPL 0.25 p: 487


A 20 year old, primigravid, PU 39 weeks presented at the ER in labor for 3 hours. PE revealed multiple vesicular lesions in the vulva and perieal area. IE showed 3 cm cervical dilatation, 50 % effaced, intact bag of waters, cephalic, station -1. Clinical pelvimetry was adequate. What is the best route of delivery? A. cesarean section B. vacuum extraction C. outlet forceps extraction D. spontaneous vaginal delivery MPL 0.5 p: 1496



A 53 A 29 year old, Gravida 5 Para 4 (4-0-0-4), Pregnancy uterine 37 weeks, complaining of hypogastric pain of 2 hours, came in the emergency room. Her vital signs were normal. Fundic height was 35 cms. Fundus is occupied by a hard, round, ballotable mass, fetal back palpated at the left, as well on the right, another hard, round mass on the hypogastric area, fetal heart tones of 143/min heard at the left periumbical area and 152/min heard at the right lower quadrant. On internal examination, the cervix was 5 cms. Dilated, 1 cm long, ruptured bag of waters, cephalic, station -2. All her previous pregnancies were delivered at home. What is the recommended mode of delivery? A. an outright cesarean section B. a vaginal delivery for both C. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then a cesarean section for the second D. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then an internal podalic version for the second of twin MPL 0.25 p: 941 386.

Which of the histological presentation is a characteristic of complete molar pregnancy? A. hydropic degeneration and swelling of the villous stroma B. presence of blood vessels in the swollen villi C. proliferation of trophoblastic epithelium with equal degree D. presence of fetus and amnion MPL 0.25 p: 274 387.

When the fetal breech presents with both legs extended and the hips flexed, it is classified as A. complete breech B. incomplete breech C. frank breech D. footling breech MPL 0.5 p: 567


Procedure where the cephalic presented fetus is converted to a footling breech presentation by grasping the fetal legs and turning the position is called A. external cephalic version B. internal podalic version C. partial breech extraction D. piper’s forceps MPL 0.5 p: 583


Which of the following is associated with Abruptio placenta? A. Long cord B. Hypertension C. Cord prolapse D. High levels of B-hCG MPL 1.0 p: 813


Which of the following conditions in NOT an indications for classical cesarean section? A. Myoma occupying the fundus of the uterus B. Invasive carcinoma of the cervix C. Placenta previa with posterior implantation D. Transverse lie of a large fetus


MPL 0.5 p: 598 391.

What is considered as the major vestibular glands that lie under the constrictor muscles of the vagina A. Paraurethral glands B. Skene’s glands C. Sebaceous glands D. Bartholin’s glands MPL 0.5 p: 17


A 28 year G1P0 sought her first prenatal check up at 12 weeks gestation. Family history is positive for diabetes mellitus (father). When should she have her GCT? A. 16 – 20 wks B. 24 – 28 wks C. 32 – 36 wks D. at term MPL 0.33 p: 1171


What is the most accurate ultrasonographic parameter for fetal aging in the first trimester ? A. femur length B. biparietal diameter C. head circumference D. crown – rump length MPL 0.5 p: 391


What do you call a woman who had 3 pregnancies, all of which were aborted? A. nulligravida B. nullipara C. multipara D. primipara MPL 0.5 p: 207


What is the earliest age of gestation when fetal sex can be identified by gross examination of the external genitalia? A. 6 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 14 weeks D. 20 weeks MPL 0.33 p: 113


What is most common type of the female pelvis? A. android B. anthropoid C. platypelloid D. gynecoid MPL 1.0 p: 35


When does the 2nd stage of labor end? A. when the cervix is fully dilated B. when the baby is fully delivered C. when the placenta is delivered D. right after episiotomy MPL 0.5 p: 423



How much weight does a average weighted woman gain throughout her pregnancy? A. 10 lbs B. 18 lbs C. 24 lbs D. 30 lbs MPL 0.5 p: 452


On histopathology, a placenta is found to have dense stroma containing round cells with granular and vacuolated cytoplasm with vascular and eccentric nuclei. What is age of this placenta? A. 8 weeks B. 14 weeks C. 24 weeks D. 40 weeks MPL 0.33 p: 612


What CTG finding is indicative of head compression? A. sinusoidal pattern B. absent beat to beat variability C. early deceleration D. late deceleration MPL 0.25 p: 452


A woman on her 41st week of pregnancy had a BPS with the following findings during the 30 minutes test-sustained breathing movement of 45 secs, five simultaneous limb and trunk movements, 2 episodes of arm flexion and extension, 3 episodes of fetal heart rate accelerations each for 5 secs with fetal movement, amniotic fluid pocket of 3 cms in perpendicular planes. What should be done for this patients based on the BPS score? A. Do a outright cesarean section B. Induce labor first C. Repeat the BPS on the same day D. Repeat the BPS after a week MPL 0.5 p: 1104


When can a puerperal patient start using a hormonal contraceptive method if does not intend to breast feed? A. 2 - 4 weeks postpartum B. 4 - 6 weeks postpartum C. 6 – 8 weeks postpartum D. when she starts menstruating again MPL 0.33 p: 412


On performing the third’s Leopold’s maneuver, the cephalic prominence is palpated on the left lower quadrant and the fetal heart tones is maximally heard at the right lower quadrant, which of the following can be concluded? A. the head is already engaged B. the vertex is presenting C. the head is extended D. the presenting part is the sinciput MPL 0.33 p: 299



On the 2nd postpartum day, a parturient developed a temperature of 39.0 C. Pertinent PE included breast that were edematous, tender, firm, and nodular. What must be done for this patient? A. give analgesic and breast support B. stop breastfeeding immediately C. give antibiotics D. give bromocriptine for 7 days MPL 0.25 P: 413


On physical examination of a pregnant woman, the clinician detected a 2/6 systolic murmur intensifying during inspiration. What should be done for this patient with regards this finding? A. cardiology referral B. ECG C. No intervention needed D. Echocardiogram MPL 0.5 p: 1168


A 21 year old primigravida in labor for 10 hours presented with a 6 cm cervical dilatation. The bag of waters was ruptured and the presenting fetal head was palpated at station 0. What conclusion regarding the pelvis can be made? A. pelvic inlet is adequate B. pelvic midplane is adequate C. pelvic inlet is inadequate D. pelvic midplane is inadequate MPL 0.5 p: 423


What maneuver will the fetal head undergo right after engagement? A. internal rotation B. extension C. flexion D. descent MPL 0.5 p: 416


What part of the uterus forms the lower uterine segment during labor? 21 A. external cervical os B. cornua C. fundus D. isthmus MPL 0.5 p: 21


What diameter of the pelvic inlet can be assessed clinically? A. Obstetric conjugate B. Diagonal conjugate C. Greatest transverse diameter D. Posterior midsagittal diameter of the inlet MPL 0.33 p: 34


What is the major source of progesterone in early pregnancy? A. placental cytotrophoblast B. placental syncytiotrophoblast C. corpus luteum D. placenta MPL 0.25 p: 124



Which of the following antibiotics are contraindicated during pregnancy? A. metronidazole B. tetracycline C. amoxicillin D. erythromycin MPL 0.5 p: 342


Myrna, a primigravida, on her 32nd week AOG, came in for prenatal check-up. Auscultation of the FHT yields negative result and the ultrasound revealed fetal death in utero. How will you manage her? A. hysterotomy B. wait for spontaneous labor * C. prostaglandins D. curettage MPL 0.5 p: 681


In which part of labor does the descent of the presenting part of the fetus is most marked? A. preparatory division of labor B. 1st stage of labor C. pelvic division of labor D. 3rd stage of labor MPL 0.5 p:422


Which of the following maternal changes are decreased during pregnancy? A. gastric emptying time B. maternal circulating blood volume C. maternal insulin D. resting pulse rate MPL 0.25 p: 140


What conclusions can be made when meconium passage in-utero in a term parturient is observed after amniotomy? A. The GIT of the fetus is still immature B. Can be a sign of fetal hypoxia C. Fetal sympathetic system is stimulated D. Esophageal atresia is a consideration MPL 0.25 pp: 675-676


What is the earliest histological evidence of progesterone action in the endometrium A. glandular mitoses B. pseudostratification of nuclei C. stromal edema D. basal vacuolation MPL 0.25 p: 451


Which is the most biologically potent estrogen in the normal menstrual cycle? A. estrone B. estradiol C. estriol D. androstenedione MPL 0.33 pp: 43-44



If her last menstrual period is last Jan 23, 2007, when is her expected date of confinement? A. April 30, 2007 B. June 26, 2007 C. Oct 23, 2007 D. Oct 30, 2007 MPL 1.0 p: 208-209


Lochia serosa is expected to occur A. immediately after birth B. after 3 or 4 days C. after 10 days D. after 1 month MPL 0.33 pp: 696-697


Through what nerve is pain of uterine contractions transmitted? A. S1 - S2 B. S4 - S5 C. T7 - T8 D. T10 - L1 MPL 0.25 p: 477


What is the antidote for magnesium toxicity? A. Calcium gluconate B. Calcium channel blocker C. Diazepam D. Midazolam MPL 0.5 p: 789


Which of the following is utilized for medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy? A. Dexamethasone B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Adriamycin MPL 0.25 p: 262


Of the following, which is most associated with low birthweight infants? A. Placenta previa B. Diabetes mellitus C. Maternal height of < 5 ft D. Smoking in pregnancy * MPL 0.25 p: 354


A 5 year old was referred to you at the ER due to complaints of perineal pain. What is the best way to examine the vagina of this child? A. dorsal lithotomy B. knee-chest position C. lying on her mother’s lap D. standing with one leg raised MPL 0.25 p: 274


Keanna, 32 y/o “sexy dancer” and ramp model complained of burning sensation over her vulva after a lingerie fashion show where she wore “thongs” and stringed nylon bikinis. There was pruritus so she used a newly-launched vaginal wash. Immediately, the burning sensation became worse but she thought it was normal. The next morning, she


found her vulva to be erythematous and inflamed. The redness now reached the peri-anal area. What is the diagnosis? A. Vulva vestibulitis B. Mechanical intertrigo C. Allergic dermatitis D. Fungal vulvo-vaginitis MPL 0.33 p: 487 426.

On cut-section of an ovarian mass in a 26 year old nulligravida, there were ufts of hair, sebum and bony cartilage. What type of ovarian mass is most likely in this case? A. Follicular cyst B. Dysontogenetic cyst C. Cystic teratoma (dermoid) D. Theca lutein cyst MPL 0.33 p: 979


What ulcerative lesion of the genital tract is characterized by the presence of “groove sign”? A. Granuloma inguinale B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Chancroid D. Syphilis MPL 0.33 p: 661


What surgical procedure will prevent a woman from experiencing vaginal coitus? A. Manchester Fothergill B. Colpocleisis C. Vaginal hysterectomy D. Perineorrhaphy MPL 0.25 p: 580


Which is the most common predisposing factor to ectopic pregnancy? A. previous genital infection B. smoking C. contraceptive pills D. douching MPL 0.33 p: 254


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