NTSE(STAGE-I) CLASS-X PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2
Time : 1½ Hr.
Max. Marks : 100
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. Paper carries 100 questions. 20 question from Mathematics (1–20), 20 question from Science(21-50), 20 question from Social Science (51–70) & 30 question from Mental Ability (71–100) each of 1 (one) mark. 4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
5. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 6. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet. 7. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
PCCP OFFICE : Address : C-8, Lakshya, Nursery Plots, Talwandi, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 Tel. No. :. +91-0744-3022244,3022245, Fax : 022-39167222 | Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail :
[email protected]
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2 (NTSE) 1.
A distributes Rs.180 equally among a certain number of people. B distributes the same sum but gives to each person Rs. 6 more than A does, and gives the same sum to 40 persons less than A does. How much does A give to each person ? (A) Re.1 (B) Rs.3 (C) Rs.5 (D) Rs.4
2.
If 25x–1 = 52x –1 – 100, then the value of x is (A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 1
3.
The difference between two numbers is 160. When the larger is divided by the smaller one the quotient is 7 and the remainder is 10. Find the numbers. (A) 150, 10 (B) 170, 10 (C) 185, 25 (D) 25, 185
4.
If aabb is a four digit number and also a perfect square then the value of a + b is (A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 9
5.
The four digit number 2652 is such that any two consecutive digits from it make a multiple of 13. Another number N has this same property, is 100 digits long, and begins in a 9. The last digit of N, is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9
6.
The expression 2
3 3 2 – 2 when simplified reduces to 2 2
(A) an irrational number (C) a rational which is not an integer 7.
If x is a positive integer less than 100, then the number of x which make 1 2 3 4 x an integer is: (A) 6
8.
(B) a whole number (D) a natural number
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
If (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 + (z – 5)2 + (t – 7)2 = 0, then xyzt + 16 is equal to : (A) 52 (B) 92 (C) 112
(D) 122
9.
If the difference of (1025 – 7) and (1024 + x) is divisible by 3 then x is equal to (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 1
10.
Let 0 < a < b < c be 3 distinct digits. The sum of all 3-digit numbers formed by using all the 3 digits once each is 1554. The value of c is : (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #1
11.
The value of p for which x + p is a factor of x2 + px + 3 – p is : (A) 1
12.
(B) – 1
(B) Not coprime
(C) Odd numbers
(D) Even numbers
3 3 3 3 = 1
(A) 3 16 14.
(D) – 3
If a, b are coprime, then a2, b2 are : (A) Co - prime
13.
(C) 3
15
16
(B) 3 16
8
(C) 3 15
(D) 3 15
V is product of first 41 natural numbers. A = V + 1. The number of primes among A + 1, A + 2, A + 3, A + 4 .................... A + 39, A + 40 is : (A) 1
15.
810 410 64 2 4 9 16
(A) 8 18.
(B) 220 – 1
(C) 240 – 1
(D) 260 – 1
(B) 84
(C) 76
(D) 88
(C) 36
(D) 256
is equal to (B) 16
How many pairs of natural numbers are there so that difference of their squares is 60 ? (A) 4
19.
(D) 0
If a + b + c = 6 and ab + bc + ac = 8, find the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc. (A) 72
17.
(C) 3
Let m = 280 – 1 and n = 2120 – 1 then H.C.F. (m, n) is : (A) 210 – 1
16.
(B) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
The sum of any three distinct natural numbers arranged in ascending order is 200 such that the second number is a perfect cube. How many possible values are there for this number ? (A) 4
20.
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
If x = 2 and x = 3 are roots of the equation 3x2 – 2kx + 2m = 0 then (k, m) = : (A) (
15 , 9) 2
(B) (9,
15 ) 2
(C) (
9 , 15) 2
(D) (15, )
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #2
21.
22.
In the figure shown: (A) current will flow from A to B
(B) current may flow from B to A
(C) current may flow from A to B
(D) the direction of current will depend on r.
In the given network shown in the figure, the equivalent resistance is:
(A) R/3 23.
(B) 2 R/3
(C) 5 R/3
(D) none
Some students set up the circuit shown to investigate how a variable resistor affects an electrical circuit.
If the variable resistance is increased : ammeter reading
24.
voltmeter reading
(A)
decreases
decreases
(B)
decreases
increases
(C)
increases
decreases
(D)
increases
increases
In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A and B are joined by a wire the current in this wire will be A
B 24Volt
(A) 1A.
(B) 2A.
(C) 4A.
(D) zero.
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #3
25.
Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the remaning 59 are connected again in series across the same supply. The illumination will be:
26.
(A) More with 40 bulbs than 39 bulbs
(B) More with 39 bulbs than 40 bulbs
(C) Equal in both cases
(D) In ratio 402 : 392
Several lenses with the same diameter are shown below. Which of these lenses would bring a beam of light to a spot closest to the lens?
(A)
27.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following figure shows the use of a concave mirror as a shaving mirror
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #4
28.
29.
Which of the following diagram correctly represents the passage of a ray of light through a concave lens?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Water drop as shown will behave as
water drop
(A) convex lens 30.
(B) concave lens
(C) Glass plate
(D) Diverging lens
An object is place at a distance x1 from the focus of a concave mirror. Its real image is formed at a distance x2 from the focus. Hence, the focal length of the mirror is
x1x 2 (A) x x 1 2
(B)
x1x 2
(C)
x1 x 2 2
(D) x1 – x 2
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #5
31.
Molecules having same number of atoms and same number of electrons are called (A) isodiapheres (B) isobars (C) isosteres (D) isotones
32.
Slaked lime reacts with chlorine to give (A) Baking soda (B) Washing soda
(C) Bleaching powder
(D) Cement
33.
Potash alum, which is used to separate the suspended particles from water, is a double salt of (A) potassium and sodium (B) aluminium and nitrogen (C) potassium and aluminium (D) potassium and nitrogen
34.
According to thomson model, mass of an atom is mainly due to (A) negative charge (B) positive charge (C) electrons
(D) neutrons
35.
Sodium carbonate is not used in baking powder because (A) taste of food become bitter. (B) it explode on heating. (C) it liberate H2 gas. (D) it is thermally stable.
36.
The percentage of P2O5 in diammonium hydrogen phsphate is (A) 53.78 (B) 46.96 (C) 77.58
(D) 23.48
The number of oxygen atoms in 25 g CaCO3 (A) 6.91×10 23 (B) 7.22 ×1023
(D) None of these
37. 38.
(C) 4.52 × 1023
5.6 litres of oxygen at NTP is equivalent to ? (A) 1 mole
(B)
1 mole 2
(C)
1 mole 4
(D)
1 mole 8
39.
CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 The mass of calcium chloride formed when 2.5 g of calcium carbonate are dissolved in excexss of hydrochloric acid is – (A) 1.39 g (B) 5.18 g (C) 2.78 g (D) 17.8 g`
40.
Which of the following forms basic salt solution ? (A) SnCl2 (B) NaCl (C) NH4Cl
(D) CH3COONa
Myelin sheath is a covering of (A) muscle cell (B) axon
(C) blood vessels
(D) osteocyte
Synapse is a close proximity of (A) two veins (B) two arteries
(C) two neurons
(D) two lymphatics.
The largest part of brain is (A) Cerebrum (B) Medulla oblongata
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Corpora quadrigemia
41. 42. 43. 44.
Which of the following is called as stress hormone ? (A) ABA (B) IAA (C) GA Space for rough work
(D) None
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #6
45.
Cerebellum is a part of– (A) fore brain
46.
48.
50.
(B) geotropism
(C) heliotropism
(D) phototropism
(A) Lamarck, Hugo de Vries and Carl Correns.
(B) Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns and E.V. Tschermak
(C) Morgan, Beadle and Tatum
(D) Hugo de Vries, Morgan and Carl Correns
Mendel conducted his hybridization experiments with (B) pigeon pea
(C) garden pea
(D) wild pea
Somatic variations occur due to (A) change in somatic cells
(B) change in germ cells
(C) unknown factors
(D) all of them are correct
The traits expressed in F1 generation is called as (A) dominant trait
51.
(D) none of these
Mendel’s laws were rediscovered by
(A) chick pea 49.
(C) hind brain
The movement of plant organs in response to the force of gravity is called (A) hydrotropism
47.
(B) mid brain
(B) recessive trait
(C) both are incorrect
(D) both are correct
Which of the following statements is not true about the Jallianwalla Bagh incident? (A) General Dyer blocked all exit points, and opened fire on the peaceful crowd, killing hundreds (B) Gandhiji went on indefinite fast to stop the repression by the British (C) As a reaction, crowds took to the streets in many Indian towns, attacking the police and government buildings (D) Dyer’s aim was to produce a moral effect of great terror and awe in the minds of the satyagrahis
52.
Read the following statements carefully. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Non-Cooperation Movement started by Gandhiji(A) Non Coperation Movement was started by Gandhiji in 1920 (B) Khilafat issue was taken by Gandhiji to make Hindu & Muslims united. (C) The decision to launch Non- Cooperation Movement was taken in Lucknow session (D) Many people left their jobs and titles.
53.
Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna : (A) Britain
(B) Russia
(C) Prussia
(D) Switzerland
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #7
54.
55.
India appear to be a ‘unitary state’ during the (A) prime minister rule. (C) emergency
(B) financial crisis (D) chief minister rule
How did history help in creating a feeling of nationalism in India by the end of the 19th century ? (A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves (B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements (C) By urging them to struggle and change the miserable conditions of life under British rule (D) All the above
56.
In the countryside, rich peasants and Jats of Uttar Pradesh actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement because (A) They wanted Poorna Swaraj (B) They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices. (C) They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted (D) The government was forcing land ceiling
57.
The Preamble of our Constituiton reads: India is a
(A) Socialist, Soverign, Secular, Democratic Republic. (B) Secular, Socialist, Soverign, Democratic Republic. (C)Soverign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. (D) Secular, Soverign, Democratic, Socialist. Republic. 58.
‘Young Italy’, the secret society of Italy was set up by (A) Garibaldi
59.
60.
(B) Cavour
(C) Mazzini
(D) Victor Emannuel II
Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation : (A) Treaty of Versailles
(B) Treaty of Vienna
(C) Treaty of Constantinople
(D) Treaty of Lausanne
In what order did the following three movements take place during 1916-1918 by Gandhiji ? (A) Champaran, Kheda, and Ahmedabad
(B) Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda
(C) Kheda, Champaran, and Ahmedabad
(D) Ahmedabad, Champaran and Kheda
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #8
61.
Which of the following in not true about the Rowlatt Act ? (A) It allowed the detention of prisoners for five years without trial. (B) Gave the government powers to repress political activity (C) It passed the Act despite opposition from the Indian members in the Imperial Legislative Council. (D) Led to the launch of a movement under Gandhiji’s leadership.
62.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931? (A) Mahatma Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement (B) Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference (C) The British government agreed to release the political prisoners (D) The British government agreed to grant independence
63.
What was the effect of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the plantation workers in Assam? (A) They left the plantations and headed towards home (B) They went on strike (C) They destroyed the plantations (D) They started using violence
64.
A secular state is the one which: (A) Promotes all religions (B) Promotes a particular religion (C) Remained against any religion (D) Follows the policy of tolerance to all religion
65.
The Simon Commission was boycotted in India because : (A) There was no Indian member in the Commission. (B) It supported the Muslim League (C) Congress felt that people deserved Swaraj (D) There were differences among the members
66.
If a child below 14 years is indulged in child labour, the right which is voilated is the (A) Right to Freedom (B) Right Against Exploitation. (C) Right to Equality. (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
67.
The event that marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement was : (A) The demand for Poorna Swaraj of 1929 (B) The Independence Day pledge of 1930 (C) The violation of Salt Law in 1930
68.
(D) All of these
Gandhiji began fast unto death when Dr. B.R. Ambedkar demanded separate electorate for dalits because (A) Separate electorates would create division in the society. (B) Separate electrorates was already provided to Muslims, Indo-Chritisians & Sikh Community. (C) With separate electrorates, dalits would gain respect in society. (D) The condition of dalits would become better. Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #9
69.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the impact of the First World War on India ? (A) Defence expenditure resulted in increased taxes. (B) Forced recruitment of soldiers was introduced in the villages (C) Income tax was introduced and customs duties increased (D) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act
70.
Which of the following statements is/are true about the Dandi March of Mahatma Gandhi? (A) It started on 12 March, 1930 and ended on 6 April, 1930 (B) Mahatma Gandhi marched over 240 miles with 78 of his trusted followers covering 10 miles a day (C) On 6th April, Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. (D) All the above
Direction (71 to 74) : Find the missing terms – 71.
3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ? (A) 354
72.
(B) 468
(B) VENTURE
31 68 91 10
17 19 22 142
(A) 3 75.
(D) DVENTU
(B) a b c a b
(C) b c a a c
(D) b b c a a
58 61 70 11
(C) 7
(D) 9
87 56 50 ?
(B) 6
If A + B > C + D and B + C > A + D, then it is defines that (A) D > B
76.
(C) VENTUR
–abcb–cac–aba–bcb–ca (A) a b b c a
74.
(D) 554
ADVENTURE, DVENTURE, DVENTUR, ?, VENTU (A) DVENT
73.
(C) 548
(B) C > D
(C) A > D
(D) B > D
If ‘when’ means ‘×’, ‘you’ means ‘÷’, ‘come’ means ‘–’ and ‘will’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of “8 when 12 will 16 you 2 come 10” ? (A) 45
77.
(B) 94
(C) 96
(D) 112
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INSTRUCTION which have as many letters between them as in the English alphabet ? (A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three Space for rough work
(D) Four
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #10
78.
The group of letters should not contain more than two vowels. (A) BDEJOLY
79.
(C) PRAQEOS
(D) ZILERAM
If in a certain code, ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written as DNRWLUA ? (A) COSGOLT
80.
(B) JKAPIXU
(B) TOGSOLC
(C) CLOSGOT
(D) COLSTOG
If DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 20, ACCIDENT = 16, then CAR = ? (A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Directions (81 to 83) : According to a code language, words in column are written in capital letters. And in column their codes are given. The codes in column are jumbled up. Decode the language and choose the correct code for word given in each question.
81.
Column I
Column II
HEAD
adeh
NOSE
hnor
GHOST
efnqr
ENOUGH
efhnox
MASTER
dhpqrs
ROUTINE
hlonqsx
What is the code for letter H – (A) a
82.
(D) h
(B) f
(C) e
(D) q
(C) p
(D) h
What is the code for letter M – (A) q
84.
(C) e
What is the code for letter G – (A) n
83.
(B) d
(B) d
I am standing at the centre of a circular field. I go down south to the edge of the field and then turning left I walk along the boundary of the field equal to three-eighths of its length. Then I turn west and go right across to the opposite point on the boundary. In which direction am I from the starting point ? (A) North-west
85.
(B) North
(C) South-west
(D) West
A man is facing west. He turns 45o in the clockwise direction and then another 180o in the same direction and then 270o in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now ? (A) South
86.
(B) North-west
(C) West
(D) South west
If South-East become North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will west become ? (A) North-East
(B) South-East
(C) South
(D) South-West
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #11
87.
A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the North. When the post office was 100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla. He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many metres was he away from the post office ? (A) 0
88.
(B) 90
(C) 150
(D) 100
In a march Past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is standing in the middle. (A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) O
Direction (89 to 91) : Read the following information to the answer the given questions : A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place. 89.
90.
91.
Which of the following must be false ? (A) A is at the first place
(B) A is at the second place
(C) A is at the third place
(D) A is at the fourth place
If A is not at the third place, then C has which of the following options ? (A) The first place only
(B) The third place only
(C) The first and third place only
(D) Any of the places
If A and B are together, then which of the following must be necessarily true ? (A) C is at the first place
(B) D is at the first place
(C) C is not at the first place
(D) A is at the third place
Direction : (92 to 95) Study the following information to answer the given questions : (1) In a class of boys and girls, Amar’s rank is 12th and Meeta’s rank is 8th. (2) Amar’s rank among the boys is 6th and Meeta’s rank among girls is 3rd. (3) In the class Meeta’s rank is 52nd from the other end. (4) From the other end, Amar’s rank among the boys is 26th. 92.
How many girls are there before Amar ? (A) 5
93.
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) Can’t be determined
(C) 58
(D) Can’t be determined
How many students are there in the class ? (A) 60
(B) 59
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #12
94.
How many girls are there between Meeta and Amar ? (A) One
95.
(C) Three
(D) Can’t be determined
How many girls are there between Meeta and last rank (assuming it is a boy) in the class ? (A) 24
96.
(B) Two
(B) 26
(C) 28
(D) None of these
If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ? 375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875 (A) 3
97.
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
If the first and second digits in the sequence 5 9 8 1 3 2 7 4 3 8 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your left ? (A) 1
98.
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
In a row at a bus stop, A is 7th from the left and B is 9th from the right. They both interchange their positions. Now A becomes 11th from the left. How many people are there in the row ? (A) 18
99.
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
In a queue of boys Sohan is 9th from the back. Ramesh's place is 8th from the front. Radhey is standing in between the two. What could be the minimum number of boys standing in the queue? (A) 8
100.
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
In the following number series, how many 8's are there which are immediately preceded by a number which does not divide it but followed by a number which divides it ? 28283858853282384715838286 (A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2_PAGE #13
ANSWERKEY NTSE(STAGE-I) CLASS-X PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2
ANSWERKEY NTSE(STAGE-I) CLASS-X PRACTICE TEST PAPER-2
Que s.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans.
B
B
C
B
D
C
B
C
B
B
C
A
B
D
C
Que s.
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
A
B
C
B
A
B,C
A
A
D
B
B
C
C
A
B
Que s.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
Ans.
C
C
C
B
D
A
C
C
C
D
B
C
A
A
C
Que s.
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Ans.
B
B
C
A
A
B
C
D
C
D
B
C
C
C
A
Que s.
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans.
A
D
A
D
A
B
C
A
D
D
B
C
B
C
D
Que s.
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Ans.
B
D
A
C
B
C
B
C
A
D
B
B
B
A
C
Que s.
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Ans.
D
B
B
C
D
B
D
B
B
C
