NSTSE Booklet For Class IX

Q.P.-2015

Paper Code: UN412(1 - 24)

(Code: 412) Q.P.-2016

Paper Code: UN415(1 - 24)

(Set A - Code: 415) Q.P.-2016

Paper Code: UN418(1 - 24)

(Set B - Code: 418) Q.P.-2016

Paper Code: UN421(1 - 24)

(Set C - Code: 421)

Key & Solutions

Class–II

C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Mathematics

What is the probability of not getting 1 or 6 in a single toss of a die? (A)

1 2

1 3

(B)

(C)

1 6

(D)

4 6

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at E. If ∠ BEA = 80o, ∠ DBC = 60o and ∠ BCD = 40o, which of the following statements is true? (A) BD bisects ∠ ADC

(B) AB = BC

(C) DA = DC

(D) AC bisects ∠ BCD

In the figure, AF ED BC and E is the middle point of AB. AM ⊥ BC. If the area of the ∆ ABC = 20 cm2, find the area of the parallelogram BCDE. A

E

B

(A) 10 cm If

x 3

N

M

(B) 40 cm

2

F

2

D

C

(C) 20 cm2

(D) 30 cm2

= x2, the value of x can be which of the following?

(i) –

1 (ii) 0 3

(iii)

1 3

(A) Only (i)

(B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (iii)

(D) Only (ii) and (iii) Paper Code: UN412

1

C L A S S : IX

In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle. A 0

y

300

B

O

x0

D

C

Find x and y. (A) 30o, 120o (B) 60o, 60o In the given figure, KN

(C) 60o, 90o

JL and LM

(D) 135o, 30o

JL . If the lengths of

LN and LM are equal, what is the value of x? l L K J

(A) 90o

125o

xo N

(B) 75o

M

t

(C) 45o

(D) 70o

Lokesh planned to drive a distance of x km. After driving 120 km, Lokesh stopped for petrol. What fractional part of the trip had Lokesh covered when he stopped? (A)

x

x 120

(B) ( x + 120 ) 1

(C) ( x + 120 )

(D)

120 x

Space for rough work

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

If all the sides of a triangle are increased by 200%. By how much the area of the triangle will increase? (A) 400%

(B) 600%

(C) 800%

(D) 200%

Find the length of the diagonal of the largest possible cube inscribed in a hemisphere of radius 4 2 cm. (A) 12 cm

(B) 6 cm

(C) 8 cm

(D) 4 cm

In a single throw with two dice, what is the probability of throwing a 11? (A)

2 9

(B)

1 36

(C)

1 9

(D)

1 18

pq = 6 and p and q are positive integers, which of the following could not be a value of (p – q)? If

(A) 0

(B) –9

(C) 8

(D) 5

If AB = BC and BD bisects AC in the given figure, which of the following CANNOT be concluded? B o xo y

A

(A) w = x o

o

wo

o

D

(B) w = z o

o

z

C

(C) xo = yo

(D) AD = DC

Space for rough work

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Which of the following is the nearest point from origin? (A) (2, –3)

(B) (5, 0)

(C) (2, –1)

(D) (1, 3)

For the numbers listed, the only mode is 5 and the median is 6. Which of the following could be the value of n EXCEPT? 5, 6, 5, 6, 7, 5, 5, n, 6

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Which of the following is true about the equations 3x – 4y = 5 and 12x – 16y = 20? (A) No common solution (B) Exactly one common solution (C) Exactly two common solutions (D) More than two common solutions ABCD is a parallelogram of area S. E and F are the middle points of the sides AD and BC respectively. If G is any point on the line EF, what is the area of ∆ AGB? (A)

S 2

(B)

S 3

(C)

S 4

(D)

3S 4

If the area of a parallelogram with sides x and y is α and that of a rectangle with sides x and y is β , which of the following is true? (A) α < β

(B) α = β

(C) α > β

(D) α > 2 β

Space for rough work

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

If a point P lies in between A and B, identify the most appropriate statement.

1 (A) AP = AB 2

1 (B) BP = AB 2

(C) AP + PB = AB

(D) AP = BP

The given right circular cylinder has diameter d and height h. Which option represents the volume of the smallest rectangular box that completely contains the cylinder?

h

(A) dh

(B) d 2 h

d

(C) dh 2

(D) d 2 h 2

In the given figure, arc SBT is one quarter of a circle with center R and radius 6. If the length, width and diagonal of the rectangle ABCR are integers and perimeter of ABCR is 14, find the perimeter of the shaded region. S A

B

6

(A) 8 + 3 π

R

C

(B) 10 + 3 π

T

(C) 14 + 3 π

(D) 1 + 6 π

Space for rough work

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C L A S S : IX

If x + y + z = 0, what will be the value of (A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 2

x2 + y2 + z2 x2 − yz ? (D) 8

Which of the following statement is true?

(i) (ii) (iii)

Product of any two irra onal numbers is an irra onal number. Product of any two ra onal numbers is a ra onal number. Product of any two natural numbers is a natural number.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

What is the probability that a number selected from the numbers 1, 2 .... 25 is a prime number? (A)

4 25

(B)

16 25

(C)

9 25

(D)

18 25

Space for rough work

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

In the given figure, AB

CD and AC

BD. If ∠ EAC = 40o,

∠ FDG = 55o, ∠ HAB = xo, find the value of x.

H A

E

(A) 50

o

x

B

C

D

K (B) 165o

F

G (C) 85o

(D) 95o

In the given figure, ∠ B = ∠ C = 55o and ∠ D = 25o, identify the correct statement. A

B (A) BC < CA < CD

C

(C) BC < CA, CA > CD

D (B) BC > CA > CD (D) BC > CA, CA < CD

Space for rough work

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Physics

A box of mass 2 kg is pushed horizontally and its speed is increased from 3 m s–1 to 7 m s–1. What is the increase in kinetic energy? (A) 4 J

(B) 16 J

(C) 40 J

(D) 48 J

The diagram shows a cat shaking its body from head to tail to shed the water when it gets wet.

The cat shakes water from its coat using (A) the concept of inertia. (B) the concept of equilibrium of forces. (C) the principle of conservation of energy. (D) the principle of conservation of momentum. Choose the correct statement of mass. (A) The force with which it is attracted towards the earth (B) It is always constant (C) S.I. unit is Newton (D) Measured with a spring balance Which object has the lowest momentum? Objects

Velocity

Mass

P

5 m s–1

1.2 kg

Q

2 m s–1

1.5 kg

(A) S

(B) Q

(C) R

Paper Code: UN412

(D) P 8

C L A S S : IX

Observe the given figures that shows the different speeds of two buses and two cars.

Bus I 70 km/h

Bus II 80 km/h

Car I 0 km/h

Car II 70 km/h

Which statement is not correct ? (A) Car I has no kinetic energy. (B) Bus I has more kinetic energy than Car II. (C) Bus II has the most kinetic energy. (D) Bus I and car II have the same kinetic energy. A car picks up speed from rest and moves to point X at a distance of 100 metres after 20 seconds. Calculate the acceleration of the car. (A) 0.20 m s–2

(B) 0.25 m s–2

(C) 0.56 m s–2

(D) 0.87 m s–2

A lightning strikes some distance away from an observer. Given that the observer hears the thunder 2.5 seconds after seeing the lightning. What is the approximate distance of the lightning from the observer ? (A) 500 m

(B) 825 m

(C) 1600 m

(D) 2000 m

Why does a sharp knife enable us to cut through things more easily? (A) The pressure exerted is lesser when the same force is used (B) The pressure exerted is greater when the same force is used (C) The sharp edge can pass through the material slowly (D) The sharp edge is not felt when cutting through the material Paper Code: UN412

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Identify the safety measures used in vehicles to reduce negative effects of inertia.

(i)

Car seats are fi ed with head rests to cushion forces that are exerted on the head when the car changes its mo on suddenly. (ii) Heavy vehicles like buses have restricted speed limits and maximum loads to reduce inertia. (iii) All passengers in a car must wear seat belts so that they are not thrown forward in the event of the vehicle stopping suddenly. (A) Only (i) and (ii)

(B) Only (i) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

What type of energy conversions occur when a bow is stretched to release an arrow from it ? (A) Chemical, kinetic

(B) Potential, chemical

(C) Potential, kinetic

(D) Kinetic, potential

Which of the given materials has the greatest inertia? (A) Copper (B) Wood

(C) Aluminium (D) Glass

A boy used a simple machine to lift a 1000 N weight to a height of 2 m in 5 seconds. (i) The average power to li the weight will increase. (ii) The work will be completed in a shorter me. (iii) The chemical poten al energy in the boy will be used up faster.

What will happen if the boy applies a higher force? (A) Only (i) and (ii)

(B) Only (i) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Read the given table. Substances

Mass (g)

Volume (cm3)

P

65

15

Q

80

20

R

60

12

Arrange the three substances in order, starting with the least dense substance. (A) R, P, Q (B) P, R, Q (C) R, Q, P (D) Q, P, R Ultrasound is sent from a ship directly downwards into the water. The diagram given below shows the duration for ultrasound to return back to the receiver on the ship as the ship travelled from point X to point Y along the surface of the water.

At which position is the water deepest ? (A) S (B) Q (C) R

(D) P

Which situation has no work done? (A) (B) (C) (D)

An apple falls from a tree due to gravity. A space ship cruise in space. A saw cuts a piece of wood. A boy drags his bag along the floor.

Identify a type of motion of an object that has a constant speed but a varying velocity. (A) Circular motion (B) Linear motion (C) Vertical motion (D) Slow motion Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

When sound waves travel from air into water, how do the frequency, wavelength and speed change ? Frequency

Wavelength

Speed

(A)

No change

Decreases

Decreases

(B)

Increases

No change

Decreases

(C)

No change

Increases

Increases

(D)

Increases

No change

Increases

An iron block weighing 24 N has the following measurements, 6 cm × 8 cm × 10 cm. What is the pressure exerted on the smallest base ? (A) 0.2 N cm–2

(B) 0.5 N cm–2

(C) 2 N cm–2

(D) 5 N cm–2

A fat boy collided with a thin boy while trying to grab the same object. Who experiences a greater force during the collision? (A) Fat boy (B) Thin boy (C) A greater force acts on the one who ran faster (D) The forces acting on them are equal in magnitude A girl weighing 300 N jumps and steps on the same place on the ground. How much work has she done ? (A) 0 J

(B) 150 J

(C) 300 J

(D) 350 J

2 kg of iron and 2 kg of feathers are put into sack X and sack Y respectively. Which statement is true ? (A) Sack X has a larger volume than sack Y (B) Sack X has a larger mass than sack Y. (C) Sack Y is denser than sack X. (D) Sack Y has the same weight as sack X. Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

An eskimo is pulling a sledge of mass 15 kg across level snow with a horizontal force of 90 N and the constant force of friction is 60 N. What is the acceleration of the sledge ? (A) 0.0 m s–2 (B) 2.0 m s–2 (C) 4.0 m s–2

(D) 6.0 m s–2

Which velocity-time graph represents the non-uniform acceleration of the truck? Velocity

Velocity

(B)

(A) Tim e

Tim e

Velocity

Velocity

(C)

(D) Tim e

Tim e

A man walks 8 m to the east for 2 s followed by another 6 m to the south for 3 s. What is the average speed and velocity of the man ? Average speed

Velocity

(A)

–1

2.8 m s

2.0 m s–1

(B)

2.8 m s–1

2.8 m s–1

(C)

3.0 m s–1

2.0 m s–1

(D)

3.0 m s–1

3.0 m s–1

In which place, the object will weigh the heaviest? (A) On the Moon

(B) At the equator

(C) At the north pole

(D) In outer space

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Chemistry

Class : IX Which isotope is used as a fuel ? (A) Cobalt-60

(B) Carbon-14

(C) Uranium-235

(D) Phosphorus-32

Which method is used to separate a mercury, ethanol mixture? Mel ng point / C

Boiling point / C

Solubility in water

Mercury

–38

357

No

Ethanol

–114

78

Yes

(A) Filtration

(B) Distillation

(C) Separating funnel

(D) Paper chromatography

The figure given below shows the apparatus used to study the diffusion of a number of gases at the same temperature and pressure. Porous barrier

...... ......... ......... ......... ...... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ..Gases . . . . . . .X. . . .... ........ ......... ......... ...... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... .... ...... ...... ...... .... ............. .... ...... ...... ...... ....

Identify a pair of gases X that would diffuse at the same speed. (A) NH3 and CO2

(B) H2 and N2

(C) N2 and CO

(D) N2 and SO2

What is the relative atomic mass of neon from the given data? Neon-20 (90%), Neon-21 (1%), Neon-22 (9%)

(A) 18.26

(B) 19.43

(C) 20.19

Paper Code: UN412

(D) 21.57 14

C L A S S : IX

Gas molecules at room temperature are able to move at very high velocities. However, when a bottle of perfume is opened at the end of a large room, it may take several minutes before its smell can be detected at the other end. Which option explains this phenomenon ? (A) Random collisions among perfume molecules. (B) Increase in space occupied by perfume molecules. (C) Random collisions of perfume molecules and air molecules. (D) Attractive forces between the air and the perfume molecules. How many H atoms are found in 0.8 moles of glucose, C6H12O6? (A) 3.25 × 1023 atoms

(B) 5.76 × 1024 atoms

(C) 7.13 × 1023 atoms

(D) 9.48 × 1024 atoms

Identify a suspension. (A) Soap solution

(B) Zinc in copper solution

(C) Milk of magnesia

(D) Copper sulphate solution

The given diagram shows the arrangement of electrons in a particle. Electron Nucleus containing 7 protons and 7 neutrons

What is the symbol of the particle ? (A) N 3–

(B) F–

(C) O 2–

(D) Ne

Potassium nitrate has a solubility of 60 g per 100 g of water at 40 oC. How much potassium nitrate would dissolve in 25 g of water to produce a saturated solution at 40 oC ? (A) 6 g

(B) 15 g

(C) 30 g

Paper Code: UN412

(D) 60 g 15

C L A S S : IX

The proton number of chlorine is 17. What is the electron arrangement of a chloride ion ? (A) 2.8 (B) 2.8.1 (C) 2.8.8 (D) 2.8.7.1 What happens when an oxygen atom becomes an oxygen ion? (A) (B) (C) (D)

It gains a positive charge. Its atomic mass decreases. Its nucleon number increases. Its atomic number remains the same.

Which process gives out heat energy and involves the largest change in volume ? (A) Boiling (B) Diffusion (C) Sublimation (D) Condensation Element T has 12 protons. Which statement is true about element T ? (A) T will react with oxygen to form an oxide with the formula TO2. (B) T will react with chlorine to form TCl2. (C) T will form a negative ion of charge –2. (D) T is a non-metal. Carbon has three naturally occurring isotopes, carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14. Which statement about carbon-14 is incorrect ? (A) It is found as carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. (B) It reacts with oxygen to form carbon monoxide. (C) It has the same electronic structure as the other isotopes. (D) It contains the least number of neutrons amongst the three isotopes of carbon. The melting point of pure substance ‘X’ is 1535 oC. It is most likely to be (A) ice.

(B) iron.

(C) copper.

Paper Code: UN412

(D) wax. 16

C L A S S : IX

Identify a pure compound. (A) Ethanol (B) Petrol

(C) Steel

(D) Tap water

The stability of an isotope nucleus depends on its (A) atomic mass. (C) number of neutrons.

(B) atomic number. (D) neutron-to-proton ratio.

Alum is a substance added to water to (A) (B) (C) (D)

reduce the acidity of water. kill bacteria. cause clay particles to clump together. prevent freezing of water.

The given figures show the electron structures of atoms X and Y. 12 p 12 n

9p 10 n

X

Y

Key: electron p proton n neutron

What is the mass of one mole of the compound formed between X and Y ? (A) 30 g (B) 43 g (C) 62 g (D) 67 g An inflated balloon will get smaller over time because gas molecules can diffuse through the rubber material of the balloon. A balloon is filled with equal volumes of the gases helium and nitrogen. Which statement is true ? (A) After some time, there will be less nitrogen left in the balloon than helium. (B) After some time, there will be more nitrogen left in the balloon than helium. (C) All of the helium leaks out immediately, leaving all of the nitrogen in the balloon. (D) After some time, there will still be equal volumes of nitrogen and helium in the balloon. Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Biology

Look at the given diagram.

Which of the following best describes the area marked P? (A) It contains genes. (B) Most of the cell processes takes place here. (C) It controls the substance entering and leaving the cell. (D) It protects the cell. Study the given information. This is a single cell organism that has both plant and animal characteristics. It has a very distinctive red eye sp o t a nd it s si n g le h a ir l ike str u ct u re p r o p el s it forward.

Which of these fits the given description? (A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium (C) Plasmodium (D) Euglena Which of these reproduce through flowers? (A) Monocots (C) Moulds

(B) Mosses (D) Fern’s

Which of the following is NOT a Fungi? (A) Mushroom (C) Mucor

(B) Marchantia (D) Penicillium Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Mitochondria are organelles found in cells. Cells with high activity rate, such as muscle cells, contain a lot of these organelles. What is the function of the mitochondria? (A) To store food and waste (B) To produce energy (C) To produce protein (D) To support the shape of the cell Which of the following specific characteristics are found only in insects? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

They have a pair of wings. They lay eggs. They have six legs. They have three body parts.

(A) Only (i) and (iii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii)

(B) Only (ii) and (iv) (D) Only (iii) and (iv)

The increase in food grains production after the introduction of improved varieties of crops is often referred to as (A) White revolution (B) Green revolution (C) Yellow revolution (D) Blue revolution Which of these is a cold-blooded animal?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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C L A S S : IX

Identify X and Y in the given diagram. Cell

X

Y

System

Organism

Identify the given diagram.

(A) It is a vertebrate. (B) It is an invertebrate with jointed legs. (C) It is a worm with soft skin. (D) It is a insect. The table shows the structures of cell P and cell Q.

Which of the following statements is true? (A) Q is a plant cell. (B) P can carry out the respiration process. (C) Q can carry out photosynthesis. (D) P is a nerve cell. Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

The figure shows three different types of cells

P Q R Which of the following statements is NOT true about the given cells? (A) All of them have a nucleus. (B) All of them carry out life processes. (C) All of them are animal cells. (D) P is a nerve cell. The science of classification is called (A) demography. (C) cytology.

(B) taxonomy. (D) phylogeny.

The diagram shows stages in the transmission of the malarial pathogen.

Which numbers represent a host, a parasite and a vector? Host

Vector

1

4 3

3

2

4

1 Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Which of the following are mammals? (A) Bat, dolphin (C) Stringray, squid

(B) Spider, cockroach (D) Frog, fish

Identify the relationship between tapeworm and man. (A) Commensalism (C) Parasitism

(B) Mutualism (D) Symbiosis

What can you infer from the given figure?

(i) It is a dicotyledon plant. (ii) It is a monocotyledon plant. (iii) The root of the plant shows tap root system.

(A) Only (i) and (ii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii)

(B) Only (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Which of these connects a bone and a muscle? (A) Cartilage

(B) Tendon

(C) Ligament

(D) Synapse

Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

The information below shows the characteristics of an organism W. Consists of one cell Simple life processes Does not produce its own food

Organism W is most probably (A) Yeast.

(B) Spirogyra.

(C) Hydra.

(D) Chlamydomonas

The diagram shows a simple version of the energy flow through a food web. Sunlight Plants

Animals Decomposers

What happens to the energy leaving the decomposers? (A) It is lost as heat. (B) It is reflected from the surface of the plants. (C) It is stored as carbohydrates. (D) It is used to power industrial processes.

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

General Awareness

The ozone layer restricts (A) visible light (C) X-ray U-Gammaray

(B) infrared radiation (D) Ultravoilet radiation

Who has won the Shanthi Swarup Bhatnagar Award 2014 for Biological science? (A) Dr. S. Venkata Mohan (B) Dr. Anurag Agarwal (C) Dr. Roop Mallik (D) Dr. K. Ramakrishna Prasad Which day is celebrated as World Polio Day? (A) Oct. 24th (B) Oct. 25th (C) Oct. 26th (D) Oct. 27th Which veteran Indian cricketers has recently been conferred the life time achievement award at the house of Lords in London? (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Ravi Shastri (C) Kapil Dev (D) Navjot Singh Sidhu Sourav Goshal, Harinder Pal Singh Sadhu, Kush Kumar and Mahesh Manaonkar have bagged a gold medal in Asian Games 2014. What game do they represent? (A) Boxing (B) Archery (C) Squash (D) Shooting Which country has won the Sultan of Johar Cup Under-19 Hockey title 2014? (A) India (B) Germany (C) Iran (D) Great Britan In which planet’s orbit did Mangalyaan entered? (A) Mercury (B) Mars (C) Uranus (D) Jupiter India has recently approved the agreement an Electric Power Trade with (A) Myanman (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Srilanka Who is the present Chairman of ISRO? (A) V. Adimurthy (B) K. Radhakrishnan (C) G. Madhavan Nair (D) K. Kasturi Rangan With which sport Anirban Lahiri is associated with? (A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Golf (D) Badminton Paper Code: UN412

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX 1.

Mathematics

ABCD is a trapezium whose area is a2 – b2. If AB = a, DC = b and parallel sides ? (A) (a – b) (C) 2(a – b)

2.

(B) (a + b) (D) 2(a + b)

AB = 2r is the diameter of a circle. If a chord CD intersects AB at right angle at a point P in the ratio 1 : 2, then CD is equal to : (A) (C)

3.

, what is the distance between the

3 " 3

r

(B)

4 H !

r

(D)

" 3 r 3

ABCD is a rhombus in which AC = 16 cm and BC = 10 cm. Find the length of the diagonal BD. (A) 16 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 10 cm Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

4.

If the length of the largest side of a triangle is 12 cm, find the possible values of its other two sides. (A) 4.8 cm, 8.2 cm (B) !.2 cm, 6.5 cm (C) 2.9 cm, 7.2 cm (D) 4.1 cm, !.9 cm

5.

Given four points such that no three of them are collinear, what is the number of lines that can be drawn through them ? (A) 2 lines (B) 4 lines (C) 6 lines (D) 8 lines

6.

Find the value of N – yN – y when N = 2 and y = –2. (A) 18 (B) –18 (C) 14 (D) –14

7.

The perpendicular distance of a point from the N-axis is 4 units and its perpendicular distance from the y-axis is 5 units. What are the co-ordinates of such a point if it lies in the II Quadrant ? (A) (–4, 5) (B) (–5, 4) (C) (–4, –5) (D) (5, –4) Space for rough w ork

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C L A S S : IX

8.

The numerator of a fraction is 6N + 1, the denominator is 7 – 4N and N can have any value between –2 and 2, both included. The value of N for which the numerator is greater than the denominator are :

! < N ≤2 5 (C)  < N ≤

! ≤ N≤2 5 (D)  ≤ N < (B)

(A)

9.

In the given figure, PQ 2 RS and EF 2 QS. If ∠ Q = 60o, find the measure of ∠ RFE. R

P Q

(A) 115o (C) 60o 10.

60o

E

F

S

(B) 120o (D) 180o

When is the quadrilateral formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of a quadrilateral PQRS, taken in order, a rectangle ? (A) PQRS is a Hectangle. (B) PQRS is a paHallelogHam. (C) Diagonals of PQRS aHe peHpendiculaH. (D) Diagonals of PQRS aHe equal. Space fo r rou gh w ork

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C L A S S : IX

11.

A circle with radius 2 units is intersected by a line at points R and T. Find the maximum possible distance between R and T. (A) 1 unit (B) 2 π units (C) 4 π units (D) 4 units

12.

The perimeter of a rhombus is 52 cm and one of its diagonals is 24 cm. Determine the length of the other diagonal. (A) 24 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 2

13.

1 cm 6

(D) 12 cm

If ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ DEF by S.S.S. congruence rule, which of the following options holds true ? (A) ∠ A > ∠ D (B) ∠ A = ∠ D, ∠ B = ∠ E, ∠ C = ∠ F (C) ∠ B < ∠ E (D) ∠ C = ∠ F

14.

If N2015 + 2015 is divided by (N + 1), what is the remainder ? (A) 2014 (B) 1 (C) 2016 (D) 2015 Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

15.

If N N (A)

16.

! 2

N

(

= N N

)

(B)

N

, find the value of N.

2 9

9 4

(C)

(D)

4 9

In the given figure the scale on the X-axis is 1 : 3 and the scale on the Y-axis is 1 : 2. Find the area of ∆ PQR on the Cartesian plane in square units. Y P R O

(A) ! Sq. units (C) 18 Sq. units 17.

Q

X

(B) 9 Sq. units (D) !6 Sq. units

An exterior angle of a triangle is 115o. If one of the interior opposite angles is 35o, what are the other two angles ? (A) 80o, 65o (B) 75o, 65o (C) 90o, 55o (D) 45o, 100o Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

18.

In the given figure, what is the area of parallelogram ABCD ? D

N

L

B

C

M

A

(A) AB × BM (C) DC × DL

(B) BC × BN (D) AD × DL

19.

‘O’ is the centre of a circle, ∠ BOA = 90o and ∠ COA = 110o. Find the measure of ∠ BAC. (A) 70o (B) 80o (C) 120o (D) 50o

20.

If N3 + y3 + z3 – 3Nyz = k (N + y + z) {(N – y)2 + (y – z)2 + (z – N)2} , find k. (A) 1

21.

(B)

1 4

(C)

1 2

(D)

1 !

If p & q are real numbers, the equation 3N – 5 + p = qN + 1 has a unique solution N: (A) foH all p & q

(B) if p ≠ 2q

(C) if p ≠ 6

(D) if q ≠ ! Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

22.

JUMP is a square with ∠ JUP = 45o. Find ∠ PUM. (A) 45o (B) 90o (C) !5o (D) 15o

23.

The points A(–a, –a), B(a, –a) C(–a, a), D(a, a) form a polygon. Where does the origin lie ? (A) On the veHtex of the polygon. (B) On the side of the polygon. (C) Outside the polygon. (D) At the point wheHe the diagonals of the polygon meet.

24.

An isosceles right triangle has area 8 cm2. What is the length of its hypotenuse ?

25.

(A)

!2 cm

(B)

16 cm

(C)

48 cm

(D)

24 cm

ABCD is a square of side 3 cm, E and F are the mid points of sides AB and BC respectively. What is the area of the quadrilateral EBFD ?

A

B F

D (A) 2.25 cm2 (C) 4 cm2

C (B) ! cm2 (D) 4.5 cm2

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX 26.

Physics

The densities of four substances are given below in the table. In what order would they settle, starting from the bottom when poured/placed into a measuring cylinder ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

!

Liquid

Density (g/cm )

Glycerine

1.26

Mercury

13.6

Ice

0.92

Wood

0.8

Wood, ice, glyceHine, meHcuHy MeHcuHy, glyceHine, ice, wood Ice, wood, meHcuHy, glyceHine GlyceHine, ice, wood, meHcuHy

27.

Why is the boy placing his ear to the railing able to hear two sounds when a girl taps once on the railing ? (A) The sound wave is HefHacted thHough the Hailing cHeating two sounds. (B) The sound tHavels thHough the aiH and also thHough the Hailing. (C) The sound itself and also the echo that it pHoduces inside the Hailing. (D) The sound wave is Heflected off the gHound cHeating two sounds.

28.

If P and Q are two objects with masses 60 kg and 34 kg respectively then, (A) P has moHe ineHtia than Q. (B) Q has moHe ineHtia than P. (C) P and Q have the same ineHtia. (D) None of the two has ineHtia. Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

29.

Which object has the greatest resultant force acting on it ? (A)

(C) 30.

20 N

20 N

25 N

5N

(B)

(D)

20 N

30 N

80 N

30 N

Given below is the speed-time graph of a cyclist. Speed (km/h)

30

0

Time

Which statement cannot be used to describe the cyclist’s journey ? (A) The fastest speed at which the cyclist tHavelled was !0 km/h. (B) The cyclist staHted fHom a stationaHy position. (C) AfteH 9 am, the cyclist came to a sudden stop. (D) The cyclist tHavelled at a constant speed foH only a paHt of the jouHney. 31.

Who weighs the lightest ? (A) A 70-kg astHonaut at outeH space (B) A 10-yeaH old boy standing at the NoHth Pole (C) A 10-yeaH old boy staying at the South Pole (D) (B) and (C) aHe both the lightest Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

32.

In a block of flats, the lift travels from the ground floor to the tenth floor in 20 seconds. If each floor is 3 m high, what is the average speed of the lift between the ground floor and the tenth floor ? (A) 1.0 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s (C) 2.0 m/s (D) !.0 m/s

33.

An artificial satellite is constantly moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. What is its speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth in km/s ? (A) 1.07 (B) !.07 (C) 5.07 (D) 7.07

34.

Which energy conversion takes place when a guitar string is plucked ? (A) Potential eneHgy → Kinetic eneHgy + Heat eneHgy (B) Potential eneHgy → Kinetic eneHgy + Sound eneHgy (C) Kinetic eneHgy → Potential eneHgy + Heat eneHgy + Sound eneHgy (D) Chemical eneHgy → Potential eneHgy + Kinetic eneHgy

35.

We (A) (B) (C) (D)

cannot hear on the moon because it is small. it has no habitation. it has no mateHial medium. of all the above Heasons. Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

36.

A girl falls from a tree. What is the change of energy before she hits the floor ? (A) GHavitational potential eneHgy → kinetic eneHgy (B) GHavitational potential eneHgy → theHmal eneHgy (C) Kinetic eneHgy → gHavitational potential eneHgy (D) Chemical potential eneHgy → kinetic eneHgy

37.

A density-distance graph represents (A) light waves. (B) longitudinal waves. (C) tHansveHse waves. (D) all of these

38.

A rock of iron has a mass of 79 grams on Earth. If the density of iron is 7.9 gram/cm3, which of the following statements is true ? (A) The volume of the Hock is 10 cm!. (B) The Hock will float on wateH on the Moon. (C) The mass of the Hock is slightly less on the Moon. (D) Both (B) and (C)

39.

Two equally strong forces act on a box. The box was initially at rest, and starts to move when the forces are applied to it. Which of the following statements is possible ? (A) The two foHces pull the box in opposite diHections to each otheH. (B) The two foHces push the box in opposite diHections to each otheH. (C) Both of them aHe actually weak foHces. (D) One of them is zeHo foHce.

40.

When an object is at rest, there is no work done by the object because (A) theHe is no foHce acting on the object. (B) theHe is no distance moved by the object. (C) theHe is no fHiction exeHted by the flooH. (D) the flooH is fHictionless. Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

41.

Which ball is easier to catch eventhough all of them are moving with the same velocity ? (A) Tennis ball (B) CHicket ball (C) Basket ball (D) Both cHicket and basket ball

42.

The time taken for the planets in our solar system to orbit the sun is (A) shoHteH foH the inneH planets and longeH foH the outeH planets. (B) longeH foH the inneH planets and shoHteH foH the outeH planets. (C) shoHteH foH lighteH planets and longeH foH heavieH planets. (D) longeH foH lighteH planets and shoHteH foH heavieH planets.

43.

The part of the medium in which the pressure and density are maximum when a sound wave travels through it is a (A) cHest. (B) tHough. (C) HaHefaction. (D) compHession.

44.

How much is the smallest force needed to lift a cup of tea of 500 grams ? Lift

(A) 0.5 N (C) 10 N

Weight

(B) 5 N (D) 20 N

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

45.

The hands of a clock cover (A) equal distances in unequal time inteHvals. (B) unequal distances in equal time inteHvals. (C) equal distances in equal time inteHvals. (D) none of these.

46.

A boy drops a paper ball in air. What is going to happen to the speed and acceleration of the paper ball during the first few seconds of the fall ?

Speed

Acceleration

(A)

Decreases

Decreases

(B)

Decreases

Increases

(C)

Increases

Decreases

(D)

Increases

Increases

47.

The work done by a man in holding a 15 kg suitcase while waiting for a bus for 45 minutes is (A) 675 J. (B) 405 J. (C) 450 J. (D) zeHo.

48.

Which of these frequencies has the ‘lowest pitch’ ? (A) 2.5 kHz (B) 0.02 MHz (C) 250 Hz (D) 0.05 kHz

49.

All the following objects are less dense than water except (A) oil. (B) pebbles. (C) icebeHgs. (D) aiH bubbles.

50.

A body does 30 joules of work in 5 seconds. What is its power ? (A) 2 W (B) 4 W (C) 6 W (D) 12 W

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

Chemistry

Class : IX 51.

52.

53.

If a magnesium ion has a charge of +2, how many electrons does it possess ? The atomic number and mass number of magnesium is 12 and 24 respectively. (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 22 o Substance Z freezes at 79 C and boils at 537 o C. Which option shows the correct state of Substance Z at 80o C and 600o C respectively ?

At 80 C

At 600 C

(A)

Liquid

Liquid

(B)

Liquid

Gas

(C)

Solid

Liquid

(D)

Solid

Gas

Which particle is represented in the diagram shown ?

Key ` :e p : proton n : neutron

54.

55.

(A) Ne (B) Co!+ (C) Al (D) Al!+ Which mixture does not form a solution ? (A) Alcohol and wateH (B) SugaH and wateH (C) BHomine and wateH (D) StaHch and wateH Which atom has the same electronic configuration as the ions formed when potassium and chlorine react to form the compound potassium chloride ? (A) Atoms of neon (B) Atoms of aHgon (C) Atoms of kHypton (D) All the thHee

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

56.

It is observed that when a saturated glass of salt water is heated, it can take in more salt. How do you explain this ? (A) The solubility of salt in wateH incHeases with tempeHatuHe. (B) The salt alHeady pHesent in the wateH decomposes with heat theHefoHe wateH can dissolve moHe salt. (C) The salt alHeady pHesent in the wateH Heacts with the wateH and changes the pHopeHty of the wateH which enables it to dissolve moHe salt. (D) None of the above

57.

50 ml of water is mixed with 50 ml of alcohol. The total volume of the mixture is less than 100 ml. Why ? (A) Alcohol does not occupy space. (B) WateH and alcohol can be mixed togetheH. (C) WateH and alcohol paHticles move Handomly. (D) TheHe aHe spaces between wateH and alcohol paHticles.

58.

35 17

X and 3717Y is an example of an

(A) isotope. (C) isobaH.

(B) isotones. (D) none of the above

59.

Distillation is a separating technique used when we want to separate (A) two solid substances of diffeHent sizes. (B) solid substances soluble in a liquid. (C) two soluble liquids of diffeHent boiling points. (D) two insoluble liquids of diffeHent boiling points.

60.

What mass of carbon dioxide (CO2) will contain 3.011 × 1023 molecules ? (A) 11.0 g (B) 22.0 g (C) 4.4 g (D) 44.0 g Paper Code: UN 415

15

C L A S S : IX

61.

Lithium is a soft and reactive metal. Its atoms have an electronic configuration of 2.1. Which of the given statements are correct ?

(A) I and III only (C) I, II and IV only

(B) I and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV

62.

What is the order of the method applied to separate the components of a mixture of salt, sand and ammonium chloride ? (A) Dissolving in wateH, filtHation, evapoHation and sublimation (B) Dissolving in wateH, evapoHation and sublimation (C) Sublimation, dissolving in wateH, filtHation and evapoHation (D) Moving a magnet, dissolving in wateH and sublimation.

63.

A certain element has a symbol of 178 X . Which statement is true about the element ? (A) 8 pHotons, 8 neutHons, 8 electHons (B) 8 pHotons, 8 neutHons, 9 electHons (C) 8 pHotons, 9 neutHons, 8 electHons (D) 8 pHotons, 9 neutHons, 9 electHons

64.

Which ion has the most shells that contain electrons ? (A) Al!+ (B) N!– (C) Be2+ (D) S2– Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

65.

What can you conclude about the following atoms ? 36 16

(A) (B) (C) (D) 66.

S

37 17

Cl

38 18

Ar

39 19

K

They have the same atomic mass. They have the same numbeH of neutHons. They have the same numbeH of electHon shells. They have the same total numbeH of electHons, pHotons and neutHons.

Matter is made up of atoms of different elements. Each of these atoms has a different mass. The relative mass of the hydrogen atom (H) compared to atoms of other elements is 1.

24

H 64 Cu

0.5

Mg

1.33 0.5

C

1.5 0.5

S

0.75

O

From the above puzzle, which key gives the correct relative mass of the atoms of three elements sulphur (S), oxygen (O) and carbon (C) ? (All the relative masses must be correct.)

Sulphur (S)

Oxygen (O)

Carbon (C)

(A)

64

32

12

(B)

36

24

18

(C)

32

16

12

(D)

64

16

24

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

67.

Fractional distillation cannot be used to (A) sepaHate the components of liquid aiH. (B) Hefine cHude oil. (C) sepaHate methanol and wateH. (D) test the puHity of a substance.

68.

The cap of a bottle of carbonated soda is left open. After a day has passed, the soda has lost its bubbly texture. Why does this happen ? (A) The bottle of soda was oxidised when exposed to aiH. (B) The bottle of soda was Heduced when exposed to aiH. (C) The caHbon dioxide in the soda escaped. (D) None of the above

69.

An ice-cube floats in a glass of water. If the surface of the water is exactly at the brim of the glass, what will happen when the ice has completely melted ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) 70.

The suHface of the wateH will Hemain at the same level. A little amount of wateH will be spilt out. The suHface of the wateH will be less than befoHe. Ice will be foHmed at otheH paHts inside the glass.

Which substance is made up of more than one state of matter ? (A) A can of fizzy dHink (B) An exeHcise book (C) Oxygen in the aiH (D) A wooden cube Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Biology

71.

Which one of the following is not a character of a xerophytic plant ? (A) Leaves aHe modified to spines (B) Deep penetHating Hoots (C) Stomata on both sides of leaves (D) Stem have a thick cuticle

72.

Number of which of the following cell component remain fixed for a particular species. (A) MitochondHia (B) ChHomosome (C) Cytoplasm (D) Lysosome

73.

Which one of the following does not belong to the phylum of other three ? (A) EelwoHm (B) EaHthwoHm (C) HookwoHm (D) HaiHwoHm

74.

Meristematic tissues of plants include (A) matuHe fHuits, tips of stem and leaves, coHk cambium (B) stem and Hoot tips, inteHnodes of stem, coHk cambium (C) vasculaH cambium, coHk cambium, tips of matuHe leaves (D) tips of matuHe leaves and matuHe fHuits

75.

What is/are the likely consequences of deforestation ? (A) CaHbon dioxide in the aiH incHeases. (B) DestHuction of habitats takes place. (C) MineHal salts in the soil aHe washed away. (D) All of the above

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

76.

Identify P, Q and R from the information given below.

P – A colourless liquid-like jelly substance Q – Maintains the shape of a cell R – Contains genetic information

(A) (B) (C) (D)

P Nucleus Cell wall Nucleus Cytoplasm

Q Cell wall Cytoplasm Cytoplasm Cell wall

R Cytoplasm Nucleus Cell wall Nucleus

77.

These are membrane bound sac like organelles, they are concerned with the waste disposal system of the cell. The cell organelles referred to in the above description are (A) MitochondHia. (B) Golgi bodies. (C) PeHoxisomes. (D) Lysosomes.

78.

Which organism has the water vascular system as a distinctive feature ? (A) EchinodeHm (B) Annelida (C) ChoHdata (D) Mollusca

79.

Which of the following is a communicable disease ? (A) Hepatitis (B) KwashioHkaH (C) MaHasmus (D) PellagHa

80.

Identify the tissue that is present in the bone. (A)

(B)

(C)

Paper Code: UN 415

(D)

20

C L A S S : IX

81.

Osmosis is the passage of water through a semipermeable membrane from (A) HigheH concentHation of wateH molecules to loweH concentHation (B) LoweH concentHation of wateH molecules to higheH concentHation (C) Equal concentHation of wateH molecules (D) None of the above.

82.

How many cells are there in a Hen’s egg ? (A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000

83.

Identify 1, 2 and 3 in the given boxes.

3

2 1

Plants with seed

Vascularised plant (A) (B) (C) (D) 84.

Plants without seed

1–BHyophytes 2–PteHidophytes !–GymnospeHm 1–PteHidophytes 2–BHyophytes !–GymnospeHm 1–PteHidophytes 2–GymnospeHm 2–AngiospeHm 2–GymnospeHm 1–PteHidophytes 2–AngiospeHm

Binomial system of nomenclature means that every organism has (A) One scientific and one populaH name (B) A name given by two scientists (C) One scientific name consisting of genus and the species name (D) A numbeH in an inteHnational catalogue by which an oHgaanism is identified Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

85.

Identify the organism that contains nerve cell. (A) Yeast (B) SpiHogyHa (C) EaHthwoHm (D) Amoeba

86.

Which cell organelle is the site of respiration within the cell ? (A) NucleaH membHane (B) MitochondHia (C) Lysosome (D) ChloHoplast

87.

Which of the following is a bacterial disease ? (A) AIDS (B) Lock jaw (C) AHthHitis (D) Sleeping sickness

88.

What are the functions of the stomata ? (i) Take in water (ii) Trap sunlight (iii) Take in oxygen (iv) Give out oxygen

(A) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

89.

Which is the useful functional association between fungi and roots of higher plants ? (A) Root nodules (B) CoHalloid Hoots (C) MycoHhiza (D) Lichen

90.

The shape of the cell is determined by the function it performs. Which of these best represents the shape of a red blood cell ? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

General Awareness

91.

Telangana government has signed a Power Purchase Agreement (PPA) with which state government for supply of 1000 MW Power for 12 years ? (A) JhaHkhand (B) ChhattisgaHh (C) AndhHa PHadesh (D) Rajasthan

92.

Which Indian state is first to install earthquake early warning system ? (A) UttaH PHadesh (B) UttaHakhand (C) Himachal PHadesh (D) Assam

93.

Who has been recently appointed as the coach of the Indian national Under-19 cricket team ? (A) Sachin TendulkaH (B) Rahul DHavid (C) VVS Laxman (D) SauHav Ganguly

94.

The famous tagline “The Joy of Flying” belongs to which of the following ? (A) KingfisheH AiHlines (B) AiH India (C) Jet AiHways (D) SpiceJet

95.

Which city held 24th annual Miss India world wide 2015 ? (A) Mumbai (B) BangaloHe (C) New Delhi (D) Kolkatta

96.

In a unique initiative to save girl child in Haryana, where the sex ratio has been dismally low, a village panchayat in _______ has started a contest for clicking “selfie with daughter.” (A) HisaH (B) KaHnal (C) RewaHi (D) Jind

97.

What is the capital city of Syria ? (A) Aleppo (B) Damascus (C) TadmuH (D) PalmyHa Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

98.

What does the acronym SMS stand for ? (A) Simple Message Sending (B) Simple Messaging SeHvice (C) ShoHt Message SeHvice (D) ShoHt Message Sending

99.

Which Indian movie has been selected as India’s official entry to the Best Foreign Language Category of Oscars 2016 ? (A) CouHt (B) BajHangi Bhaijaan (C) Pk (D) Bahubali

100.

Name the application that Indian Railways launched for women safety. (A) R-Seva (B) R-MitHa (C) R-SuHaksha (D) R-Suvidha Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 415

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C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Mathematics

1.

Which of the following is true about the ordinate ? (A) It is positive above N-axis. (B) It is positive below N-axis. (C) It is positive to the right of the origin. (D) It is negative to the left of the origin.

2.

In ∆ DEF, PQ is a line segment drawn through mid-points of DE and DF respectively. If EF = 7.6 cm, find the length of PQ. (A) 3.8 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C) 7.2 cm (D) 2.6 cm

3.

Area of a given triangle is x1 square units. If the sides of this triangle are doubled, the area of the new triangle becomes x 2 square units. Calculate the percentage increase in the area. (A) 100 2 % (C) 300 %

4.

(B) 200 % (D) 400 %

p If 2.5252525 ..... = q (in the lowest form) what is the q value of p ? (A) 0.4 (B) 0.42525 (C) 0.0396 (D) 0.396 Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

1

C L A S S : IX

5.

If (x – 1) is a factor of polynomial f(x) but not of g(x), it must be a factor of which of the following polynomials ? (A) f(N) g(N) (B) –f(N) + g(N) (C) f(N) – g(N) (D) {f(N) + g(N)}g(N)

6.

Which of the following is true about two distinct lines ? (A) Always intersect. (B) Always either intersect or are parallel. (C) Always have two common points. (D) Always parallel.

7.

In the given figure, find the ratio ∠ ABC : ∠ ACD. A

D B

(A) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2

C

(B) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1 Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

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C L A S S : IX

8.

In ∆ ABC, AB = 7.2 cm, BC = 4.8 cm, AM ⊥ BC and CL ⊥ AB. If CL = 4 cm, find the measure of AM. (A) 12 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 6 cm

9.

O is the centre of the circle as shown in the figure. ∠ORP = 35° and the distance between P and Q through 'O' is 4 cm. What is the measure of ∠ROQ ?

35

o

R

O

P

(A) 55° 10.

yo

(B) 35°

All the angles of a convex However, not all sides are quadrilateral is it ? (A) Parallelogram (C) Rectangle

Q

(C) 105°

(D) 70°

quadrilateral are congruent. congruent. What type of a (B) Square (D) Trapezium

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

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C L A S S : IX

11.

If OP is a ray standing on a line QR such that ∠ POQ = ∠ POR, what is the measure of ∠ POQ ? (A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 75° (D) 90°

12.

The side of an isosceles right angled triangle of hypotenuse 5 6 cm is _______. (A) 5 cm (C) 5 6 cm

13.

(B) 3 6 cm (D) 5 3 cm

In the given graph, ∆ ABC and ∆ ABD are equilateral triangles. y C N’

(–a, 0) A

(a, 0) B

O

N

D y’

Find the respective coordinates of points C and D. (A) (C)

(0, a 3 ) (0, a 3 ) (0, a 3 ) (0, − a 3 )

(B) (D)

(0, − a 3 ) (0, a 3 ) (a 3,0 ) (−a 3,0 )

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

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C L A S S : IX

14.

If 4N – 4N (A) 5 5

–1

= 24, what is the value of (2x)N ? (B)

5

(C) 25 5

(D) 125

15.

When x3 – 2x2 + ax – b is divided by x2 – 2x – 3, the remainder is x – 6. Find the values of a and b. (A) –2 and –6 (B) 2 and –6 (C) –2 and 6 (D) 2 and 6

16.

Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Two line segments having the same length are congruent. (B) Two squares having the same side length are congruent. (C) Two circles having the same radius are congruent. (D) All the above.

17.

E and F are the midpoints of the sides AB and AC respectively of ∆ ABC ; G and H are midpoints of the sides AE and AF respectively of ∆ AEF. If GH = 1.8 cm, find BC. (A) 0.9 cm (B) 3.6 cm (C) 7.2 cm (D) 5.4 cm Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

5

C L A S S : IX

18.

A park, in the shape of quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠C = 90o, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m and AD = 8 m. How much area does it occupy ? (B) 6 40 m2

(A) 36 35 m2 (C)

(6

35 + 30 ) m2

(D) (30 5 + 6 ) m2

19.

Two parallel chords on the same side of the centre of a circle are 10 cm and 24 cm long and their distance apart is 7 cm. Determine the radius of the circle. (A) 13 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 7 cm

20.

In the figure, AB = AC, CH = CB and HK 2 BC. If the exterior angle CAX is 140°, find the measure of the angle HCK. X

A H

140° K

B

(A) 45° 21.

(B) 55°

C

(C) 50°

(D) 30°

Which quadrilateral is formed by joining the points (1, 1), (2, 4), (8, 4) and (10, 1) ? (A) A triangle (B) A square (C) A rectangle (D) A trapezium Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

6

C L A S S : IX

22.

Two planes start from a city and fly in opposite directions, one averaging a speed of 40 km/hour greater than the second. If they are 3400 km apart from 5 hours, find the sum of their average speeds. (A) 680 km/h (B) 360 km/h (C) 320 km/h (D) 640 km/h

23.

In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and L is the mid-point of DC. If ar (ABCL) is 72 cm2, find ar (ADC). D

A

(A) 24 cm2

L

C

B

(B) 48 cm2

(C) 36 cm2

(D) 54 cm2

24.

The chord of a circle is equal to its radius. What is the angle subtended by this chord at the minor arc of the circle ? (A) 60o (B) 75o (C) 120o (D) 150o

25.

Three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, 3 times the second and 4 times the third together make 191. Find the least of the consecutive numbers. (A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 19 (D) 20 Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

7

C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Physics

26.

Alcohol has a density of 0.8 g/cm3. If we fill half of a 100–cm3 measuring cylinder with alcohol, what would be the mass of alcohol inside ? (A) 8 g (B) 40 g (C) 80 g (D) 800 g

27.

Which statement about sound energy is true ? (A) In a gas explosion, some chemical potential energy is converted to sound energy. (B) A loudspeaker converts sound energy to electrical energy. (C) A microphone converts electrical energy to sound energy. (D) Headphones convert kinetic energy to sound energy.

28.

Object 1 needs a bigger force to accelerate than object 2 in the absence of any opposing force. We can say that object 1 has a (A) higher volume than object 2. (B) higher density than object 2. (C) higher inertia than object 2. (D) lower mass than object 2.

29.

Distance travelled by a body is always (A) positive. (B) negative. (C) zero. (D) none of these

30.

When a plane takes off to the sky, what changes occur to its kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy ? (A) Increase, increase (B) Increase, decrease (C) Decrease, increase (D) Decrease, decrease Paper Code: UN 418

8

C L A S S : IX

31.

Which would require a greater force – accelerating a 10 g mass at 5 m s–2 or a 20 g mass at 2 m s–2 ? (B) F1 > F2 (A) F1 = F2 (C) F1 < F2 (D) Both (A) and (B)

32.

How do the directions of velocity and acceleration act when brakes are applied to a moving cycle ? (A) Opposite to each other (B) In the same direction (C) Perpendicular to each other (D) Parallel to each other

33.

What is true about the speed of sound as it travels through solids, liquids and gases ?

Solids

Liquids

Gases

(A)

Slowest

Medium speed

Fastest

(B)

Same speed

Same speed

Same speed

(C)

Fastest

Medium speed

Slowest

Slowest

Fastest

(D) Medium speed 34.

Ten glass marbles are put in water and they sink. Which statement is true ? (A) The density of glass is the density of the displaced water divided by ten. (B) The volume of one marble is the volume of the displaced water divided by ten. (C) Glass is denser than water. (D) Both (B) and (C)

Paper Code: UN 418

9

C L A S S : IX

35.

By how much does the kinetic energy of a particle increases if the velocity is increased by a factor of three ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

36.

A bus in motion increases its speed from 30 km h-1 to 60 km h-1 in 20 seconds. Find its acceleration. (A) 0.21 m s–2 (B) 0.42 m s–2 (C) 0.63 m s–2 (D) 0.84 m s–2

37.

In which of these materials would sound travel the fastest ? (A) Oxygen (B) Lead (C) Seawater (D) Plastic foam

38.

The diagram given below shows two solid balls, L and M, that are balanced at the ends of a metre rule.

Which statement about the balls is true ? (A) Ball L is lighter than ball M. (B) Both the balls have the same mass. (C) Ball L is denser than ball M. (D) Both the balls have the same density. 39.

A 10 N force applied on a body produces in it an acceleration of 2 m s–2. What is the mass of the body ? (A) 20 kg (B) 0.2 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 200 g

Paper Code: UN 418

10

C L A S S : IX

40.

A boy lifts a book of known weight from the surface of a table. To calculate the work done, what does he need to know ? (A) The mass of the book (B) The height (C) The cost of the book (D) The time taken by him

41.

Let D = density, M = mass and V = volume of an object. Which key gives the correct formula for all the three quantities ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) 42.

Density M V M×V V M M V

Mass D×V D V D×V V D

Volume M D D M D M D M

A wave is travelling along a coiled spring. In what way is this similar to a sound wave travelling ? (A) The wave in the spring travels at the same speed as a sound wave. (B) It shows that sound travels best through solids like springs. (C) It shows the force associated with sound as the spring is squashed. (D) It shows the squashes and stretches of a sound wave.

Paper Code: UN 418

11

C L A S S : IX

43.

A rock on the moon is brought to the Earth where the gravitational field is stronger. On the Earth, the rock will have the same (A) inertia and mass. (B) mass and weight. (C) inertia and weight. (D) weight and acceleration.

44.

A body will have zero speed when it (A) has uniform acceleration. (B) has non-uniform acceleration. (C) is always under rest. (D) is always under motion.

45.

A box of mass 2 kg is moving at a constant speed of 3 m s–1. What is the kinetic energy of the box ? (A) 2 J (B) 3 J (C) 9 J (D) 18 J

46.

The frequency of sound from a vibrating guitar string is 700 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the wavelength of the sound wave produced ? (A) 0.182 m (B) 0.285 m (C) 0.397 m (D) 0.485 m

47.

Which statement about mass is WRONG ? (A) Mass is related to the number of molecules. (B) The mass of an object is equal to the product between density and volume of the object. (C) Mass is affected by gravity. (D) Mass has no direction.

Paper Code: UN 418

12

C L A S S : IX

48.

What is the change of energy while operating a motor ? (A) Chemical → thermal energy (B) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy (C) Kinetic energy → electrical energy (D) Electrical energy → kinetic energy

49.

A cyclist does not come to rest immediately after he/she stops pedalling due to the inertia of (A) rest. (B) motion. (C) direction. (D) none of these

50.

The distance-time graphs of two cyclists moving along a straight line meet at a point. What can be inferred from this ? (A) They collide. (B) They move with the same speed. (C) They are at rest. (D) They start from rest. Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

13

C L A S S : IX

Chemistry

Class : IX 51.

Identify a gas that is not made up of molecules. (A) Argon (B) Oxygen (C) Hydrogen (D) Chlorine

52.

A substance has the same temperature for its (A) melting point and freezing point. (B) freezing point and boiling point. (C) melting point and boiling point. (D) boiling point and condensation point.

53.

How many protons and electrons does (A) (B) (C) (D)

20 10

X 2+ have ?

10 protons, 8 electrons 8 protons, 10 electrons 10 protons, 12 electrons 12 protons, 10 electrons

54.

Which substance is not a compound ? (A) Ammonia (B) Rust (C) Water (D) Air

55.

Four identical beakers were filled with water. They were left in four different places with different conditions. After several hours, which place has beaker with the least amount of water ? (A)

(C)

Sunny

Cloudy

(B)

(D)

Paper Code: UN 418

Sunny and Windy

Cloudy and Windy 14

C L A S S : IX

56.

The following elements form positively charged ions except (A) sodium. (B) silver. (C) oxygen. (D) hydrogen.

57.

By which process can we separate camphor from ammonium chloride ? (A) Filtration (B) Sublimation (C) Dissolution and evaporation (D) Distillation

58.

Carbon has two isotopes 1$ C and !$ C each with an abundance of 98.9% and 1.1% respectively. What is the closest value of the atomic mass of carbon ? (A) 12 amu (B) 12.01 amu (C) 12.02 amu (D) 12.03 amu

59.

Given below are diagrams of different forms of matter. Which diagram represents a heterogeneous mixture ? Atom A

Atom B

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Paper Code: UN 418

Atom +

15

C L A S S : IX

60.

Which set of particles have the same electronic configuration ? (B) S2–, Cl–, K+ (A) F–, Cl–, Br– (C) Be2+, Mg2+, Ca2+ (D) H+, H, H–

61.

How many different types of atoms are present in one molecule of ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2+O3 ? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 9

62.

(D) 14

The table given below shows the melting points and the boiling points of three substances.

Substance  !

o

Boling point ( C)  $# "

'   %&

At which temperature will all the substances be in the same state ? (A) 25 oC (B) 80 oC (C) 75 oC

(D) 100 oC

63.

What is the mass number of nitrogen ? (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 14

64.

What kind of change is undergone when an electric bulb glows ? (A) A physical change (B) A chemical change (C) Both a physical and a chemical change (D) A permanent change Paper Code: UN 418

16

C L A S S : IX

65.

Given below is a list of substances. At room temperature (27 o+) which substance will be in its gaseous state ?

Substance

Boiling Temperature

(A)

Water

100 oC

(B)

Nitrogen

–138 oC

(C)

Mercury

356.58 oC

(D)

Carbon

4827 oC

66.

Identify the pair of substances having the same formula unit mass. (A) Calcium chloride, potassium carbonate (B) Calcium oxide, hydrochloric acid (C) Carbon monoxide, ammonia (D) Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide

67.

+hlorine has 17 electrons in total. How many electrons exist in its third orbital ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

68.

Which statement about the element mercury is NOT true ? (A) Mercury is a metal. (B) Mercury is a solid at room temperature. (C) Mercury is a good conductor. (D) Mercury is toxic.

69.

The elements present in AgNO3 are (A) lead, nitrogen and oxygen. (B) silver, nitrogen and oxygen. (C) silver, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. (D) argon, nitrogen and oxygen. Paper Code: UN 418

17

C L A S S : IX

70.

All materials were made of four ‘elements’, namely, fire, air, earth and water. Each of these four elements contained two of the four properties of hot, cold, wet and dry. FIRE Hot Dry WATER

AIR

Wet

Cold

EARTH

Which key gives the correct properties of all the four ‘elements’ ?

Fire

Air

Earth

Water

(A) Hot, cold

Wet, dry

Wet, cold

Hot, wet

Hot, dry

Wet, dry

Hot, cold

Wet, cold

(C) Hot, cold

Dry, wet

Cold, hot

Dry, wet

Cold, wet

Wet, hot

(B)

(D) Hot, dry

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

18

C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

Biology

71.

During severe winters when food supplies run low, herbivores such as rabbits can gnaw away at the bark of trees for food, removing the outer regions of tree trunks. Such damaged trees often die within a couple of months. Why ? (A) Water cannot be transported up to the shoots and leaves. (B) The tree roots are deprived of amino acids and sugars. (C) The removal of the bark causes instability and toppling of the tree. (D) The removal of the bark takes away essential nutrients needed for survival.

72.

Which organelle is composed of cristae and matrix ? (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleolus (C) Mitochondrion (D) Nucleus

73.

Identify the tissue that transports water to the plant body. (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Cambium (D) all of these

74.

Which of these move with the help of pseudopodia ? (A) Paramecium (B) Euglena (C) Amoeba (D) Plasmodium

75.

Which of the following processes involve(s) Meiosis ? 1. Production of pollen grains 2. Formation of the zygote 3. Production of ova 4. Formation of new potato plants from buds on an existing tuber (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Paper Code: UN 418

19

C L A S S : IX

76.

Which is a diploblastic animal ? (A) Hydra (B) Leech (C) Ascaris (D) Planaria

77.

Identify P, Q and 4.

P

Carbon dioxide in the air Q Fuel

R

Green plants (A) (B) (C) (D)

P–Respiration, Q–Photosynthesis, R–Combustion. P–Respiration, Q–Combustion, R–Photosynthesis. P–Combustion, Q–Decay, R–Respiration. P–Decay, Q–Respiration, R–Photosynthesis.

78.

How does photosynthesis help to maintain the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ? (A) By giving off carbon dioxide and absorbing oxygen. (B) By giving off oxygen and absorbing carbon dioxide. (C) By releasing oxygen and carbon dioxide. (D) By absorbing oxygen and carbon dioxide.

79.

Identify the pathogen that cause malaria. (A) Paramoecium (B) Plasmodium (C) Flavi-virus (D) Bacteria Paper Code: UN 418

20

C L A S S : IX

80.

Which statement is true about the process shown below ?

Food + oxygen

carbon dioxide + water + energy

(A) It is caused by the decay of organic substances. (B) It is an important process in the nitrogen cycle. (C) It is carried out by non-green plants and certain bacteria. (D) It is an essential process in living organisms to provide energy and in maintaining the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. 81.

In which phenomenon some organisms escape detection from enemies by resembling other organisms. (A) Homology (B) Mimicry (C) Artificial selection (D) Natural selection

82.

Which labelled cell is found in the nervous system ?

83.

84.

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S Which of these connects bones and muscles ? (A) Tendons (B) Ligament (C) Collagen (D) Cartilage “Omnis cellula e cellula”, an idea of 4udolf Virchow means that (A) All organisms are composed of cells. (B) All living cells arise from pre-existing cells. (C) Cells are basic units of life. (D) Every organism starts its life as a single cell. Paper Code: UN 418

21

C L A S S : IX

85.

Which cell organelles is/are absent in an animal cell? (A) A nucleus (B) A cell wall (C) A chloroplast (D) Both (B) and (C)

86.

The information given below shows the organisation of cells in the human body.

Cells

Tissue

System

P

Which of the following are examples of stage P? (A) Stomach, platelet, eye (B) Kidney, sperm, ear (C) Liver, ovum, lung (D) Uterus, skin, nose 87.

Which cell organelle is involved in protein synthesis? (A) Chromosome (B) Lysosome (C) Ribosome (D) Mesosome

88.

Identify ‘T’ in the given water cycle. Water vapour Oceans

(A) Melting (C) Evaporation

T Clouds

(B) Condensation (D) Precipitation

89.

Which of the following cells can change shape when carrying out its function ? (A) Phloem cell (B) Root hair cell (C) White blood cell (D) Neuron

90.

Which of the following organs contain(s) smooth muscles ? (A) Iris of eye (B) Uterus (C) Bronchi (D) All of the above Paper Code: UN 418

22

C L A S S : IX

Class : IX

General Awareness

91.

The movie "Kai Po +he" is based on which novel of +hetan Bhagat ? (A) Three Mistakes of My Life (B) Two States (C) Revolution 20-20 (D) Night at the call centre

92.

With reference to fashion and clothing what are loafers and sneakers types of ? (A) Belts (B) Sunglasses (C) T-shirts (D) Shoes

93.

If someone is standing facing the sun early in the morning in Mumbai, in which direction will their shadow fall ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

94.

The given logo belongs to which company ?

(A) Toyota (C) BMW

(B) Mazda (D) Mahindra

95.

Who is the current +EO of Face book ? (A) Alan Isaac (B) Mark Zuckerberg (C) Jan Koum (D) Bill gates

96.

Whom did Amit Shah replace as president of the Bharatiya Janata Party in 2014 ? (A) Nitin Gadkari (B) Lal Krishna Advani (C) Arun Jaitley (D) Rajnath Singh Paper Code: UN 418

23

C L A S S : IX

97.

Which planet has the longest day among all planets in the solar system ? (A) Neptune (B) Saturn (C) Venus (D) Jupiter

98.

What does the acronym BSNL stand for ? (A) Bharat Sarkar Nigam Limited (B) Bharat Sarkar Nirman Limited (C) Bharat Suvidha Nigam Limited (D) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

99.

Where were the IIFA awards held in 2015 ? (A) Toronto, Canada (B) Tampa, USA (C) Las Vegas, USA (D) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

100.

Which team is the winner of 8th IPL match ? (A) Chennai Super Kings (B) Royal Challengers Bangalore (C) Kolkata Knight Riders (D) Mumbai Indians Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN 418

24

CLASS : 9

Class : 9

Mathematics

1.

In a parallelogram ABCD, AB = 4 cm and BC = 7 cm. Each of its diagonals is less than which of the following ? (A) 3 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 7 cm (D) 11 cm

2.

A line AB intersects a circle with centre O and radius 2 cm at a point B. C is any other point on the circle in line with O and A. Find the measure of AC. A

45°

B O C

3.

(A) 4 cm

(B) 2 + 2 cm

(C) 4 + 2 cm

(D) 2 + 2 2 cm

If ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ PQR, which of the following is true ? (A) AB = RP (B) CA = RP (C) AC = RQ (D) CB = QP Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

1

CLASS : 9

4.

In the given figure, what is the value of ∠A + ∠B + ∠C + ∠D + ∠E + ∠F ? A D

E

B

C F

(A) 360o 5.

6.

(B) 270o

(C) 540o

(D) 180o

1 1 = a + b and x − = a − b , which of the x x following is true ? (A) ab = 1 (B) a = b (C) ab = 2 (D) a + b = 0 If x +

Which of the following statements is true about a median of a triangle ? (A) It divides the triangle into two triangles of equal area. (B) It divides the triangle into two congruent triangles. (C) It divides the triangle into two right triangles. (D) It divides the triangle into two isosceles triangles. Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN421

2

CLASS : 9

7.

5

What is the rationalizing factor of (A)

#

a!b c

(B)

(C)

!

a!b c

(D)

"

a2b3 c4 ?

a!b c a!b c

8.

Which of the following quadrants has/have points with a positive abscissa ? (A) I and II quadrants (B) I and IV quadrants (C) I quadrant only (D) IV quadrant only

9.

Where does the point of the form (p, p) ∀ p ≠ 0 always lie ? (A) N – axis (B) origin (C) on the line y = N (D) on the line N + y = 0

10.

If PQ and RS are two perpendicular diameters of a circle, what is PRQS ? (A) A rectangle (B) A trapezium (C) A square (D) A rhombus but not a square Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN421

3

CLASS : 9

11.

The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b + 5), (a + b) and (2b – a + 2). What is the area of the triangle ? (A)

3 ×a 4

(B)

3 ×b 4

(C)

3 × 49 4

(D)

! × & "

12.

In ∆ ABC, if AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC, which of the following is true ? (A) AB > AC (B) AD = AB (C) AB = AC (D) AD = AC

13.

In the figure given, what is the measure of p ? S T

5

° p –1

p–

5°

R

p – 30°

p –10° O

p

(A) 30°

(B) 40°

q

(C) 50°

(D) 60°

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

4

CLASS : 9

14.

If (N – 2) is one factor of N2 + aN – 6 = 0 and N2 – 9N + b = 0, find a + b. (A) 15 (B) 13 (C) 11 (D) 10

15.

For which condition does the equation p N + qy + r = 0 represent a linear equation in two variables ? (B) q ≠ 0, p = 0 (A) p ≠ 0, q = 0 (C) p = 0, q = 0 (D) p ≠ 0, q ≠ 0

16.

Which of the following figures is obtained by joining mid-points of adjacent sides of a rectangle of sides 8 cm and 6 cm ? (A) A rectangle of area 24 cm2. (B) A square of area 25 cm2. (C) A trapezium of area 24 cm2. (D) A rhombus of area 24 cm2.

17.

An equilateral ∆ PQR is inscribed in a circle with centre O. Find ∠ QOR. (A) 60 o (B) 120o (C) 30 o (D) 90 o Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

5

CLASS : 9

18.

N

+1

If 10N = 64, find the value of 10 2 . (A) 18

(B) 42

(C) 80

(D) 81

19.

Identify the incorrect statement. (A) If a point P lies in between A and B, then AP < AB and BP < AB. (B) A line segment has fixed length. (C) One point always determines a unique line. (D) A line segment can be produced indefinitely on either side.

20.

In the figure given, D divides the side BC of ∆ ABC in the ratio 3 : 5. What is the area of ∆ ABD ? A

B

(A) (C)

D

C

× =H)*+

(B)

! × =H)*+ #

5 × ar(ABC) 8

(D)

3 × ar(ABC) 8

#

Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

6

CLASS : 9

21.

The sum of the first 2016 positive odd integers is ______. (B) 22 × 10082 (A) 2 × 10082 (C) 5 × 10082 (D) 6 × 10082

22.

In the given figure AB and CD are diameters of a circle with centre O. If ∠ OBD = 50o, find the ∠ AOC.

D

50

o

B

O A (A) 50 o 23.

(B) 80 o

C (C) 30 o

(D) 45 o

Find the sum of all 100 roots of ( N + 1)( N – 2)( N + 3) ........ ( N – 98)( N + 99)( N –100) = 0. (A) 100 (B) 50 (C) –50 (D) –100 Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

7

CLASS : 9

24.

If a ∆ ABC, A (6, –3) and mid point of BC is D = ( –3, 9), find the centroid of ∆ ABC. (A) (3, 2) (B) (1, 5) (C) (0, 5) (D) (2, 5)

25.

ABCD is a rectangle with AB = 16 units and BC = 12 units. F is a point on AB and E is a point on CD such that AFCE is a rhombus. Find the measure of EF. (A) 10 units (B) 12 units (C) 14 units (D) 15 units Space for rough w ork

Paper Code: UN421

8

CLASS : 9

Class : 9

Physics

26.

A block of steel is 5 cm long, 4 cm wide, and has a certain thickness. What can be determined with the given information ? (A) The volume of the block (B) The mass of the block (C) The amount of expansion as the block is heated (D) Whether the block will sink or float in water

27.

After a tuning fork is struck, its handle was quickly and gently brought into contact with a table surface. Which observation cannot be made ? (A) The tuning fork only makes a sound after it is struck. (B) The energy from the vibration of the tuning fork passes through the air. (C) The prongs of the tuning fork stop vibrating the moment the handle touches the table surface. (D) The tuning fork produces a louder sound when its handle is in contact with the table surface.

28.

Which object has the least inertia ? (A) Pencil (B) School bag (C) Book (D) Table

29.

A particle is travelling with a constant speed. What does this mean ? (A) The position of the particle remains constant as time passes. (B) The particle covers equal distances in equal time intervals. (C) The acceleration of the particle is zero. (D) The particle does not change its direction of motion. Paper Code: UN421

9

CLASS : 9

30.

A girl carries a 2-kg book as she walks along a straight path 5 metres long.

How much work has she done to carry the book ? (A) 0 J (B) 5 J (C) 10 J (D) 20 J 31.

A force of a given magnitude acts on a body. On what factors does the acceleration of the body depend ? (A) Density (B) Volume (C) Mass (D) Shape

32.

A car has a hole in the petrol tank and petrol is dripping off the tank at a constant interval.

Which statement is true ? (A) The car is moving at a constant speed. (B) The car is accelerating. (C) The car is decelerating. (D) The car is moving at an irregular speed.

Paper Code: UN421

10

CLASS : 9

33.

How are bats able to fly in the dark ? (A) They produce infrasonic waves. (B) They can hear ultrasonic sounds. (C) They produce infrared waves. (D) They can hear infrared waves.

34.

A ball is thrown up from the ground. It reaches the maximum height and starts to fall down again. Which observation is not true ? (A) Gravity begins acting on the ball only when it reaches the maximum height. Hence, the ball starts to fall down. (B) The speed of the ball decreases and then increases again. (C) The energy conversion is: Kinetic energy → Potential energy → Kinetic energy (D) All of the above

35.

Potential energy of an object at a height is given as

1 mv2 2 (C) Ep = w (A) Ep =

36.

(B) Ep = mgh (D) All of these

A machine shoots a ball vertically upwards. If the ball takes 2 s to reach its highest point, what is the speed of the ball when it is at the highest point ? (Take g = 10 m s–2) (B) 5 m s–2 (A) 0 m s–2 (C) 8 m s–2 (D) 10 m s–2

Paper Code: UN421

11

CLASS : 9

37.

A box is being pushed horizontally on a smooth surface by a 10 N force for 6 m. What is the work done on the box ?

10 N 6m (A) 0.6 J (C) 16 J

(B) 1.7 J (D) 60 J

38.

Which quantity remains the same when you bring an object from the Earth to the Moon ? (A) The weight of the object (B) The mass of the object (C) The gravitational force (D) The pressure

39.

When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at a high speed, we tend to get thrown to one side because (A) we tend to continue in our straight line motion. (B) an unbalanced force is applied by the engine of the motorcar that changes the directon of motion of the motorcar. (C) we slip to one side of the seat due to the inertia of our body. (D) all of these

40.

Sun is said to be the ultimate source of energy. Solar energy gets transformed into (A) chemical energy during photosynthesis. (B) heat energy in drying food grains. (C) electrical energy in solar cells. (D) all of these

Paper Code: UN421

12

CLASS : 9

41.

What could be the possible density of iron ?

(A) 600 kg m–3 (C) 8000 kg m–3

(B) 1000 kg m–3 (D) 14000 kg m–3

42.

Speed of sound (A) decreases when we go from solid to gaseous state. (B) increases with increase in temperature. (C) depends upon properties of the medium through which it travels. (D) all these statements are correct.

43.

What force would be needed to produce an acceleration of 4 m/s2 on a ball of mass 6 kg ? (A) 3 N (B) 9 N (C) 24 N (D) 56 N

44.

A car travels for 10 m in the first 2 seconds followed by 20 m in the next 1 second. What is the average speed of the car ? (A) 5 m s–1 (B) 10 m s–1 (C) 12.5 m s–1 (D) 20 m s–1

45.

A particle shows a value of 46.0 m s–1. What can it be ? (A) Force (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Momentum

Paper Code: UN421

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CLASS : 9

46.

Which one is the correct relation between S.I. and commercial unit of energy ? (A) 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J (B) 1 kWh is the energy consumed in one hour at the rate of 1000 J s–1 (C) 1 kWh = 1 unit of electrical energy (D) All the three statements are correct

47.

A musician goes to a recording studio to record a song. Which characteristic is not required in a recording studio ? (A) Its walls must prevent sounds from escaping. (B) Its walls must prevent external sounds from entering. (C) Its walls must contain vacuum. (D) Its walls must prevent the reflection of sound waves.

48.

Which action best explains why people can perform the ‘bed of nails’ stunt (lying on the sharp ends of nails without getting hurt) ? (A) Their skin has become used to the sharp points of the nails. (B) Their weight is spread out over the area in contact with the nails. (C) The nails do not exert a force on their bodies. (D) They can reduce the force of gravity so that they float above the nails.

49.

An electrical appliance of 500 W is used for 5 hours per day. Energy consumed in 30 days will be (A) 2.5 kWh (B) 25 kWh (C) 75 kWh (D) None of these

50.

Rockets work on the principle of conservation of (A) energy. (B) mass. (C) momentum. (D) all of these Paper Code: UN421

14

CLASS : 9

Chemistry

Class : 9 51.

How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in one mole of acetic acid ? (A) 1 mole (B) 3 moles (C) 2 moles (D) 6 moles

52.

A gas has no definite shape or volume because (A) it cannot be seen. (B) it can be compressed. (C) it is too light to have a fixed shape or volume. (D) its particles are moving in all directions all the time.

53.

Which molecules have the same number of protons? (A) O2 and N2 (B) Cl2 and Br2 (C) CO2 and SO2 (D) CH4 and NH3

54.

Identify a solid-in-solid colloid. (A) Shaving cream (B) Milk of magnesia (C) Milky glass (D) Cheese

55.

Which factor can be used in an experiment that compares how quickly water evaporates from different sized beakers ? (A) The same volume of water used (B) The same temperature to begin with (C) The length of time for exposure (D) All the three

56.

Which ion is NOT divalent ? (A) Sulphate (B) Phosphate (C) Hydrogen phosphate (D) Carbonate

Paper Code: UN421

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CLASS : 9

57.

Both cooking oil and water are liquids at room temperature. By which of the given characteristics are they different chemically ? (A) Same colour and flammability (B) Odour and inflammability (C) Solubility and similar taste (D) Odour and flammability

58.

The nucleus of an atom (A) is positively charged. (B) is negatively charged. (C) is neutral. (D) has both positive and negative charges.

59.

Identify an element. (A) Salt (C) Water

(B) Iron (D) Hydrochloric acid

60.

Electrons in an atom orbit around the nucleus in levels. Each level has a specific number of electrons. Phosphorus has 15 electrons in total. How many electrons exist in its second orbital ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

61.

All samples of pure water contain hydrogen and oxygen in the mass ratio of 1 : 8. The above statement is in agreement with the law of (A) conservation of mass. (B) constant proportion. (C) multiple proportion. (D) both (A) and (C)

Paper Code: UN421

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CLASS : 9

62.

Which statement describes apple juice ? (A) It has no definite shape but has a definite volume. (B) It has a definite mass but does not have a definite volume. (C) It has no definite shape or volume. (D) It has a definite mass, shape and volume.

63.

An element has an atomic number 20. How many electrons will be present in K, L, M and N shells of its atom ? (A) 2, 8, 6, 4 (B) 2, 8, 7, 3 (C) 3, 7, 7, 3 (D) 2, 8, 8, 2

64.

Identify a chemical change. (A) Dent produced on car body by cricket ball (B) Stretching of rubber band (C) Brinjals and apples become dark on exposure to atmosphere (D) Formation of salts by collecting sea water in shallow pits

65.

Which of these substances condenses at a temperature below 80 oC and freezes at a temperature above 30 oC ? o

) * + , 66.

o

Substance Melting point ( C) Boiling point ( C) 2 !# %$ 3  $ 4 # #' 5 &!

The chemical formula for hydrated magnesium sulphate is MgSO 4.7H 2O. The number of atoms present in this compound are (A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 27 (D) 28 Paper Code: UN421

17

CLASS : 9

67.

The letters X, Y and Z represent different atoms. 40 X 39 Y 19 19

40 Z 20

What can be deduced from the proton numbers and nucleon numbers of X, Y and Z ? (A) X and Y are the same elements. (B) X and Z are the same elements. (C) X has more protons than Y. (D) Z has more neutrons than Y. 68.

Identify the characteristics of gaseous state. (A) Closely packed, incompressible, fixed shape (B) Highly compressible, no fixed volume and shape (C) Fixed size and shape, incompressible (D) Fixed volume, compressible, definite shape

69.

By which process the drugs from the blood are separated ? (A) Distillation (B) Chromatography (C) Sublimation (D) Separating funnel

70.

What is the ratio of the number of atoms of elements potassium, chlorine and oxygen respectively present in 245 g of KClO3 ? (A) 2 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1 : 3 (C) 39 : 36 : 48 (D) 1 : 2 : 6

Paper Code: UN421

18

CLASS : 9

Class : 9

Biology

71.

Which microorganism causes ringworm ? (A) Bacteria (B) Protozoa (C) Fungi (D) Virus

72.

Identify the cell organelle that reduces the number of old worn-out cell organelles ? (A) Glyoxisome (B) Centrosome (C) Lysosome (D) Peroxisome

73.

The table given below shows a list of organisms and its method of reproduction.

Organism Sponge Planaria Hydra

Method of reproduction P Q R

What do P, Q and R represent ? (A) P-Fission, Q-Budding, R-Regeneration (B) P-Fission, Q-Regeneration, R-Budding (C) P-Binary fission, Q-Sporulation, R-Regeneration (D) P-Gemmules, Q-Regeneration, R-Budding 74.

Basic unit of classification is (A) species. (B) genus. (C) phylum. (D) family

75.

Which of these tissues insulate the body against heat loss ? (A) Adipose (B) Fibre (C) Nervous (D) Muscle

Paper Code: UN421

19

CLASS : 9

76.

Which process does not take place in animals ? (A) Movement (B) Respiration (C) Excretion (D) Photosynthesis

77.

Which one of the following lists the structures which are present both in animal and plant cells ? (A) Cell wall, chromosomes, cytoplasm, chloroplasts (B) Cell membrane, chromosomes, cytoplasm, mitochondrion (C) Cell membrane, chloroplast, chromosomes, cytoplasm (D) Cytoplasm, mitochondrion, cell wall, chromosomes

78.

Which group of plants bear flowers ? (A) Pteridophytes (B) Angiosperms (C) Thallophytes (D) Bryophytes

79.

In the absence of decomposers, functioning of the ecosystem is adversely affected due to (A) blocking of the mineral cycle. (B) blocking of energy flow. (C) blocking of solar energy to herbivores. (D) increase in the rate of decomposition of other compounds.

80.

In most of the Aschelminthes, the respiratory and circulatory systems are absent. Which of these statements support the given information ? (A) They can absorb oxygen directly from air. (B) They do not have fluids to circulate in their body. (C) They are mostly parasites, and use the two systems from their host. (D) They do not need oxygen to live.

Paper Code: UN421

20

CLASS : 9

81.

Match the following diseases in Column-I with their pathogens in Column-II.

Column-I a. Measles b. Cholera c. Kalaazar (A) a-1, b-3, c-2 (C) a-2, b-1, c-3 82.

83.

84.

Column-II 1. Protozoa 2. Virus 3. Bacteria (B) a-1, b-2, c-3 (D) a-2, b-3, c-1

Axon is concerned with (A) conduction of impulses. (B) transformation of energy. (C) reception of the impulse. (D) providing energy for impulse. Which of the following are conducting tissues ? (A) Parenchyma and collenchyma (B) Collenchyma and sclerenchyma (C) Xylem and phloem (D) Xylem and Parenchyma What is the function of the chloroplast in the process of photosynthesis ? (A) To absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. (B) Trap light energy. (C) To absorb food. (D) To form protein and amino acids in the presence of sunlight. Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

21

CLASS : 9

85.

What is the function of the part labelled P in the given figure ?

(A) Nutrition (C) Osmoregulation

(B) Respiration (D) Both (A) and (C)

86.

Which of these are protective food and regulate metabolism in our body ? (A) Guava, tomato and citrus fruits (B) Oil, fats and sugar (C) Oil, fats and jaggery (D) Sugar, oil and guava

87.

Which is not an amphibian ? (A) Lizard (B) Frog (C) Salamander (D) Newt

88.

Which of these statements is true for dicotyledons ? (A) They have tap roots (B) Their leaves have network of veins (C) They are flowering plants (D) All of these

89.

Care and management of honeybees is called (A) horticulture. (B) apiculture. (C) sericulture. (D) pisciculture.

90.

Which of these crops is not cereal ? (A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Maize (D) Pea Paper Code: UN421

22

CLASS : 9

Class : 9

General Awareness

91.

Which sport is associated with Indian Super League ? (A) Football (B) Tennis (C) Badminton (D) Formula 1

92.

US Space agency NASA recently observed Liquid water on which planet of the solar system ? (A) Jupiter (B) Mars (C) Neptune       (D) Saturn

93.

National War Memorial is going to be build near which place in New Delhi ? (A) India Gate (B) The Red Fort (C) Lodi Gardens (D) Purana Qila

94.

The Prime Minister’s ‘Jan Dhan Yojana’ has provided 170 million people the first step towards their economic empowerment and development. This is done by providing _______. (A) banking access (B) sanitation access (C) solar energy (D) irrigation access

95.

What is your relation with your grandmother’s granddaughter ? (A) Aunty (B) Mother (C) Sister (D) Niece

96.

Who is the first batsman to score double century in World Cup history? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Ricky Ponting (C) Chris Gayle (D) Virat Kohli

Paper Code: UN421

23

CLASS : 9

97.

The given logo belongs to which brand ?

(A) Titan (C) Tiffany & Co.

(B) Malabar Gold (D) Tanishq

98.

Why are the Nobel Prize Award Ceremonies on December 10th each year ? (A) It was Alfred Nobel’s birthday. (B) It was that day Alfred Nobel got his patent for dynamite. (C) It was the day that Alfred Nobel died. (D) It was the birth day of the Swedish king.

99.

Which road connects Rastrapati Bhawan to India gate and National stadium in New Delhi ? (A) Janpath (B) Race course road (C) Parliament street (D) Rajpath

100.

The digital version of which of the following scriptures has been launched by Prime Minister Mr. Narendra Modi recently ? (A) Mahabharat (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Ramcharitmanas (D) Ramayana Space fo r rou gh w ork

Paper Code: UN421

24

UNIFIED COUNCIL A n I S O 9 0 0 1 : 2008 C e r t i f i e d O r g a n i s a t i o n

NATIONAL LEVEL SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION - 2015 (UPDATED) Paper Code: UN412 Solutions for Class : 9 Mathematics 1.

(D)

From (i) and (ii),

Probability of getting 1 or 6 in a single toss 2 = 6

BC × NM

= 1 × BC × AM 2

2 4 Probability not getting = 1 − = 6 6

2.

(D)

D E A

80o

∴

C

40o 60o B

(D)

For x = 0 and x =

5.

(A)

The diagonals of a rectangle are equal in length and the rectangle being a parallelogram, its diagonals bisect each other. ∴ AC = BD

∴ In ∆ DEC, ∠ ECD = 180o – 80o – 80o = 20o

1 1 AC = BD 2 2

∴ AC bisects ∠ BCD.

⇒

AF, ED and BC are parallel lines and AB, AM are transversals. As AE = EB, by Equal Intercepts Theorem, AN = NM. So, AM = 2NM.

⇒ OC = OD

A

E

B

M

But ∠ ODC = ∠ OBA = 30o (Since AB P DC). ∴ xo = 30o

D

Now, yo = ∠ AOB = ∠ COD (opposite angles) = 180o – xo – xo (sum of three angles of ∆ ODC is 180o)

C

1 Now, ar( ∆ ABC) = × base × altitude 2 1 × BC × AM ..... (i) 2 ar(parallelogram BCDE) = base × altitude = BC × NM ... (ii) =

∴ In ∆ ODC, ∠ ODC = ∠ OCD = xo

F N

1 (verify by substitution) 3

4.

∠ DEC = ∠ AEB = 80o

(C)

ar(parallelogramBCDE) NM = =1 1 20 cm2 × 2NM 2

∴ ar(parallelogram BCDE) = 20 cm2

In ∠ BCD, ∠ BDC = 180o – 40o – 60o – 80o

3.

ar(parallelogramBCDE) ar(ÄABC)

= 180o – 30o – 30o = 120o 6.

(D)

∠ NML = 180o – 125o = 55o

Since, LN = LM ∠ LNM = ∠ NML = 55o

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So, the value of n can be any value other than 6 as mode of the given list is 5.

∴ ∠ NLM = 180o – 55o – 55o = 70o

∠ KLN = 180 – 90 – 70 = 20 o

o

o

o

∴ In ∆ KLN, xo = 180o – 20o – 90o = 70o

7.

(D)

120 of the planned distance. x

8.

(C)

Area =

15. (D)

b1 −4 1 = = b2 −16 4

s (s − a )(s − b )(s − c ) = A

c1 5 1 = = c2 20 4

a+b + c where s = and a, b, c are sides of 2 the triangle.

a

(a + b + c ) 3a + 3b + 3c = 3s = 3= 2 2

A1 =

s 1 (s 1 - 3a )(s 1 - 3b )( s 1 - 3c )

b

c

1 1 1 Since, a = b = c , 2 2 2

When the sides are increased by 200%, the sides become 3a, 3b and 3c.

s1 =

a1 3 1 = = a2 12 4

The given equations are coincident lines. ∴ There are more than two solutions.

16. (C)

AB P CD P EF ⇒ ar. ∆ AGB =

= 3s.3 ( s − a ) .3 (s − b ).3 (s − c )

A

1 P gm AEFB 2 B

= 9 s (s − a)(s − b )(s − c ) = 9A E

∴ Increase in area = 9A – A = 8A or 800%

9.

(C)

Edge of the cube = a

2 2 =4 2× 3 3

D

= 10. (D)

3×

3 (edge)

8 = 8 cm 3

area ∆ AGB = 17. (A)

(5, 6), (6, 5) i.e.,

12. (A)

Since, AB = BC ⇒ wo = zo

Since, h < x ⇒ y × h < x × y ∴ α ∠ ABC ⇒ BC > AB and BC > AC

19. (B)

h

∴ BC > CA and CA < CD

h

Physics 26. (C)

d d

Initial kinetic energy = =

Hence, the dimensions of rectangular box is d × d × h.

21. (C)

Final kinetic energy =

Since, x + y + z = 0

=

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + zx) = 0 ∴ x2 + y2 + z2

= –2(x × –x + yz)

∴

22. (D)

Of the given statements only (ii) and (iii) are true.

23. (C)

A : Getting prime number A = (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23)

27. (A)

A cat that has become wet shakes its body from head to tail to shed the water from its coat by moving its head and tail on right and left sides respectively to make the water droplets to fall down. It is based on the concept of inertia of motion.

28. (B)

Statements (A), (C) and (D) are not true of mass. Mass of an object is always constant whether it is on the earth, the moon or even in outer space.

29. (C)

The momentum of a body is the product of its mass and velocity ( P = m × v ). The momentum of four objects P,Q,R and S are calculated below.

n(A) = 9, n(S) = 25 ∴ Required probability

Object P = Mass × velocity =

n (A ) 9 = n (S) 25

0.3 kg × 5 m s–1 = 1.5 kg m s–1

∠ FDG = ∠ KCD (corresponding angles)

Object Q = Mass × velocity =

= P (A ) =

= ∠ ECA (vertically opp. angles)

0.6 kg × 2 m s–1 = 1.2 kg m s–1

⇒ ∠ ECA = 55o

Object R = Mass × velocity =

∠ EAC = 40o (given)

1.2 kg × 0.3 m s–1 = 0.36 kg m s–1

∴ ∠ E = 180o – (55o + 40o) = 85o

Object S = Mass × velocity =

xo = 85o (corresponding angles) 25. (D)

1 (2 )(7 )2 = 49 J 2

= 40 J

(Since, x + y + z = 0) = 2(x2 – yz) x 2 + y 2 + z2 =2 x2 − yz

1 mv 2 2

Increase in kinetic energy = 49 J – 9 J

= –2 (xy + yz + zx)

= –2[x(y + z) + yz]

24. (C)

1 (2 )(3 )2 = 9 J 2

∴ Volume of rectangular box = d2h

20. (Del)

1 mv2 2

1.5 kg × 1.8 m s–1 = 2.7 kg m s–1

∠B= ∠C

So, object ‘R’ has the lowest momentum.

⇒ AB = AC

30. (D)

∠ CAD = 30o ∴ ∠ CAD > ∠ CDA

⇒ CD > AC

(In a triangle, greater angle has longer side opposite to it)

Car I is not moving, so it has no kinetic energy. Bus I has a bigger mass than car II, so bus I has more kinetic energy even though they are moving at the same speed. Bus II has the same mass as bus I, but it is moving at the fastest speed, so it has the

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most kinetic energy. Bus I and car II are moving at the same speed, but car II has less kinetic energy because it has a smaller mass. 31. (Del) 32. (B)

energy point of view, the faster the energy has gone to work, the faster will the energy of the boy be used up. 38. (D)

Time taken for sound to travel from the lightning to the observer = 2.5 s

The correct order of density of three substances P, Q, R from least to most dense is Q, P and R. Density of a substance =

Speed of sound in air is approximately 330 m/s.

Mass of substance Volume of substance

Therefore, distance travelled by the sound = speed × time

Density of substance P =

65 = 4.33 ...... (2) 15

= 330 × 2.5 = 825 m 33. (B)

Pressure = Force / Area, the smaller the area, the greater the pressure.

Density of substance Q =

80 = 4 ...... (1) 20

34. (D)

Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) are the safety measures, few are inbuilt in the vehicles and some are to be followed by passengers moving in various vehicles to reduce the negative effects of inertia.

Density of substance R =

60 = 5 ...... (3) 12

The speed and weight limits for heavy vehicles are strictly enforced. For example buses, lorries etc., are allowed to travel at a maximum speed of 90 kmh –1. This is because the above vehicles have greater mass and if they travel at high speeds, it will difficulat for them to stop the vehicle. 35. (C)

Potential energy is stored in the bow. To release an arrow from the bow, there is a change in the shape of stretched string of the bow. Hence, potential energy of the bow is converted to kinetic energy to stretch the string and release an arrow from it.

36. (A)

Mass is a measure of the inertia of a body. Mass = Density × volume.

39. (B)

Point Q has the deepest water because ultrasound took the longest time to return back to the receiver on the ship.

40. (B)

Work done is the product of the applied force and the distance moved by the object in the direction of the force. When the spaceship is cruising in space, although there is distance travelled but there is no force acting on it. As a result, no work is done.

41. (A)

If an object moves with a constant speed along a circular path, then its velocity will not be constant because velocity changes in a specified direction. So, the object moving in a circular path has a variable velocity.

42. (C)

The frequency will not change as the source is not being disturbed. Sound travels faster in water than in air as vibrations travel faster when the particles are closer together. According to the relationship v = f λ , when the frequency is constant, the speed increases and the wavelength will also increase.

43. (B)

The smallest base area = 6 × 8 = 48 cm2

Density in g cm3 Copper – 8.9

Aluminium – 2.7

Glass – 2.4 to 2.8

Wood – 0.48

The heaviest material copper has the greatest inertia. 37. (D)

Pressure = Force / Area

Power = work done ÷ time = force × distance ÷ time. When the applied force on the weight is higher, the power used to do the work will increase. Force = mass × acceleration. When a higher force is applied, the weight will move at a higher acceleration. In other words, the object will move faster and thus the work can be completed in a shorter time. The energy used to lift the weight comes from the boy. From the conservation of

= 24 / 48 = 0.5 N cm–2

44. (D)

Net force = Mass × acceleration

45. (A)

Work is force times displacement. Since, the girl does not displace at all from her initial point, the work done remains at zero.

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Common mistake occurs when we think that the work done by the girl depends on the distance travelled by her as she jumps. Displacement is a different term with distance, and they are often used ambiguously. In this case, the initial and final position of the girl remains unchanged, which means she does not displace at all, i.e, her displacement iz zero. 46. (D)

Based on the fact that iron must have a higher density than feathers and the formula of “density = mass ÷ volume” and “weight = mass × gravitational acceleration”, a table of the situation is given below. Material

Density

Mass

Volume

Weight

Sack X

iron

high

2 kg

low

20 N

Sack Y

feathers

low

2kg

high

20 N

47. (B)

50. (C)

Due to flattening of the earth at the poles, radius is minimum and ‘g’ is maximum at the poles. An object when weighed at the north pole will be the heaviest. Chemistry 51. (C)

Uranium-235 isotope is used as a fuel in the reactors of nuclear power plants for generating electricity.

52. (C)

Mercury-ethanol is an immiscible liquid mixture. Hence, it can be separated by a separating funnel. (i) Distillation is the process of heating a liquid to form vapour, and then cooling the vapour to get back the liquid e.g., salt water. Both salt and water can be recovered by this process. (ii) Fractional distillation is the process of separating two or more miscible liquids based on the difference in their boiling points. Mercury-ethanol is an immiscible liquid mixture which cannot be separated either by distillation or fractional distillation.

Applied force – opposing force = Resultant force = ma 90 – 60 = 15a ; a = 2 m s–2

48. (D)

When the speed of a truck changes in an irregular manner, then the velocity-time graph is a curved line.

49. (A)

Distance is the total length travelled by the man whereas displacement is the position of the man as compared to his original position.

Ini al posi on

As radius is maximum at the equator, the value of ‘g’ will be minimum at the equator.

53. (C)

8 m to the east (2 s)

Among the three states of matter, the rate of diffusion is very fast in gases. The particles in gases move very quickly in all directions. The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its density. Lighter gases diffuse faster than heavier gases. Nitrogen and carbon monoxide are a pair of gases which diffuse into the vacuum at the same speed due to their equal molecular weights.

6 m to the south (3 s)

Nitrogen (N2) = 2 × 14 = 28 Carbon monoxide (CO) = Carbon 12, Oxygen 16 = 28 54. (C)

Final position

20 × 90 + 21 × 1 + 22 × 9 = 20.19 90 + 1 + 9

Total Distance = 8 m + 6 m = 14 m Total time = 2 s + 3 s = 5 s Average speed = total distance ÷ total time = 14 m ÷ 5 s = 2.8 m s–1 Displacement =

8 2 + 6 2 = 10 m

Velocity = displacement ÷ time = 10 m ÷ 5 s = 2.0 m s–1

Relative atomic mass of neon =

55. (C)

The perfume molecules travel only short distances in straight lines before they collide with another molecule, change direction to collide again and so on. Infact at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, a perfume (gas) molecule in the air experiences several billion collisions per second. As the room is very large, slow diffusion occurs and perfume molecules travel in haphazard paths. So, it takes

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several minutes before its smell can be detected at the other end. 56. (B)

+ 2 electrons O Oxygen atom Protons = 8 Electrons = 8

Number of glucose molecules = (no. of moles) × (6.0 × 1023)

2–

O Oxide ion Protons = 8 Electrons = 10

Overall charge = 0

= 0.8 × 6.0 × 1023 = 4.8 × 1023 One glucose molecule contains 12 H atoms.

Oxygen atom

2 Oxide / oxygen ion

–

–2

Hence, total number of H atoms = 4.8 × 1023 × 12 = 57.6 × 1023 atoms = 5.76 × 1024 atoms 57. (C)

Soap solution is a colloid.

E.C. 2, 6 E.C. [2, 8]–2

Brass is a solution of zinc in copper, a solid in a solid metallic alloy. Milk of magnesia is a sol, i.e., a collidal suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water. Copper sulphate dissolves in water, it is a true solution. 58. (A)

The atomic number of the element = 7, which is nitrogen, N. The number of electrons in the particle = 10. Hence, the atom has gained 3 e– to form a nitride ion = N3– .

59. (B)

60 g of KNO3 dissolves in 100 g of water at 40 oC

An atom gains or loses the right number of electron to produce an ion with a complete outer shell of electron or a stable octet. 62. (D)

Condensation and freezing both involve the loss of heat energy by particles of a substance. However, the change of state from a gas to a liquid/solid involves the larger change in volume as particles in gaseous state are far apart, and when they condense, they come very close together to form a liquid/solid.

63. (B)

Element ‘T’ has 12 protons. It is magnesium, a metal

............. ? g of KNO 3 dissolves in 25 g of water at 40 oC =

(i) Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form an oxide MgO not MgO2.

60 × 25 = 15 g 100

2 Mg + O2 → 2MgO (ii) Magnesium reacts with chlorine to form Magnesium chloride (Mg Cl2)

So, 15 g of KNO3 dissolves in 25 g of water to produce a saturated solution at 40 oC. 60. (C)

Chlorine atom has 7 electrons in its outermost shell. It needs 1 more electron to achieve the 8-electron configuration or octet. So, the chlorine atom gains (accepts) 1 electron to form a chloride ion, Cl – having an inert gas electronic configuration of 2, 8, 8. + 1 electron

Cl Chlorine atom Protons = 17 (+charge) Electrons = 17 (–charge) Overall charge = 0

61. (D)

Cl Chloride ion Protons = 17 (+charge) Electrons = 18 (–charge)

(iii) Magnesium forms a dipositive ion with charge +2 (Mg+2) by losing 2 electrons. (iv) Magnesium is a metal. 64. (D)

Carbon 12

Carbon 13

Carbon 14

Protons

6

6

6

Neutrons

6

7

8

Carbon 14 has 8 neutrons, highest but not the least among the three isotopes of carbon.

Overall charge = 1–

An atom gains or loses electrons when it becomes an ion. The number of protons before the gain/lose of electrons in an atom is same. Its atomic number or protan number remains the same as shown below.

It has the highest nucleon number, indicating the largest number of neutrons, since the isotopes share the same number of protons.

65. (B)

The melting point of pure substance ‘X’ is 1535 oC. It belongs to iron. Melting point of ice is 0 oC

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Melting point of copper is 1083 oC

helium will have escaped from the balloon, compared to the heavier nitrogen, thus leaving behind a higher proportion of nitrogen. Helium diffuses faster as it has a smaller molar mass.

Melting point of wax is 63 oC 66. (A)

67. (D)

68. (C)

69. (C)

Ethanol is a compound made up of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen elements chemically bonded together - C 2 H 5 OH . Petrol is a mixture of C5 – C10 hydrocarbons (alkanes). Steel is an alloy made up of iron and 1–2% of carbon. Tap water has dissolved minerals, chloride and fluoride ions. Isotopes are the atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers. The number of protons and electrons are equal in an atom but the number of protons and neutrons inside the nucleus differ due to increase in the number of neutrons. The stability of an isotopic nucleus depends on its neutron-to-proton ratio. In the purification of water, some alum is added to the sedimentation tank. The heavy particles of dissolved alum deposit on the suspended clay particles in water. The suspended clay particles in water get clumped with alum particles, become heavy and settle down at the bottom of the sedimentation tank. (i) The electron structure of atom ‘X’ is magnesium. Its atomic number is 12 and mass number is 24. (ii) The electron structure of atom ‘Y’ is fluorine. Its atomic number is 9 and mass number is 19 (iii) Valency of magnesium is +2 and fluorine is –1 (iv) Atoms ‘X’ and ‘Y’ combine to form one molecule of compound called Magnesium fluoride (MgF 2). Mg

F

2

1

N2 = 2 × 14 = 28 g/mole He = 1 × 4 = 4 g/mole He

Rate = N = 2

Biology 71. (B)

In the given figure the part labelled as P is the cytoplasm. Most of the cell processes take place here.

72. (D)

Euglena is a single called organism that has both plant and animal characteristics.

73. (A)

Monocotyledons are the flowering plants that are reproduced through flowers.

74. (B)

Marchantia is a bryophyte.

75. (B)

Mitochondria produce energy by cellular respiration. They are also called power houses of the cell.

76. (D)

All insects body is divided into three parts head, thorax and abdomen. They have six legs. Birds, fishes, amphibians and reptiles reproduce by laying eggs. A pair of wings are present in birds and mammal like bat.

77. (B)

The increase in food grains production after the introduction of improved varieties of crop production is called green revolution.

78. (B)

Frog is a cold blooded animal.

79. (A)

Cell → Tissue → organ → system → organism. Cell → Muscles → Heart → System → organism.

80. (B)

Centipedes “from latin prefix centihundred” and Pedere, foot are arthropods with jointed legs.

81. (B)

The mass of one molecule of compound MgF2 is 62 g.

As per the given information, Cell P is a plant cell and cell Q is an animal cell. Respiration takes place in plant cell all the time.

82. (A)

Helium and nitrogen have different molecular masses. Helium (Mr=4) is much lighter than nitrogen (Mr=28) and thus will diffuse faster out of the balloon. Over the same period of time, more of the lighter

The given figures P is a nerve cell, Q a RBC and R is a sperm cell. Red blood cell does not have a well defined nucleus.

83. (B)

The science of classification is called taxonomy.

(v) Atomic mass of magnesium Atomic mass of fluorine (2 × 19)

= 24 g = 38 g ––––––– = 62 g –––––––

70. (B)

28g / mole = 2.6 4g / mole

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84. (D)

In the given diagram 4 represents the host 3 pathogen and 1 vector.

85. (A)

Bat and dolphin are mammals.

86. (C)

Tapeworm is a parasite. The relationship between the tape worm and the man is called parasitism.

87. (B)

88. (B)

The characteristic feature of dicotyledonous plants is the reticulate type of venation and tap root system. By observing the leaves we can identify the plant as dicotyledenous plant.

89. (A)

Organism W is most probably yeast because yeast is a single called organism that does not produce its own food.

90. (A)

Energy leaving the decomposer is lost as heat.

99. (Del) The chairman of ISRO was K. Radhakrishnan at the time of questionpaper setting, but he had retired on December 31st, 2014. So, now the present chairman of ISRO is A.S. Kiran Kumar. Hence, the question is deleted.

Tendon is the inelastic band which connects muscle and bone together and is able to withstand tension. Tendon and muscle works together to exert a pulling force.

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UNIFIED COUNCIL A n I S O 9 0 0 1 : 2008 C e r t i f i e d O r g a n i s a t i o n

NATIONAL LEVEL SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION Paper Code: UN415 Solutions for Class : 9 Mathematics 1.

b

D

(C)

3.

C

A

h A

B

a

Given, area of ABCD = a – b

2

Given, BC = 10 cm ∴ OB = BC2 − OC2

1 (a + b)h 2

= 100 − 64 = 36 = 6 cm

1 ⇒ ( a + b ) (a − b ) = ( a + b )h 2 ∴ h = 2(a – b)

⇒ OB = OD = 6 cm

BD = OD + OB = 6 cm + 6 cm = 12 cm

Hence, the distance between the parallel lines is 2(a – b).

∴ The length of diagonal BD = 12 cm.

4.

C

(C)

(A)

r A

L

r O

C

OA = OC = 8 cm

1 Area of ABCD = (a + b) × h 2 ⇒ a 2 – b2 =

O 16 cm B

2

2.

D

(C)

Sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third size. Given length of side = 12 cm

B

(A) (4.8 + 8.2)cm = 13 cm (B) (3.2 + 6.5) cm = 9.7 cm

D

(C) (29 + 7.2) cm = 10.1 cm

AL : LB = 1 : 2 and AB = 2r

(D) (4.1 + 3.9) cm = 8 cm

∴ x + 2x = 2r or x =

Hence, the possible values of other two sides are 4.8 cm and 8.2 cm

3

⇒ LO = AO – AL = r –

r 3

r=

 r 3

In ∆ CLO, OC2 = CL2 + LO2

1 or CL = OC – LO = r – r2 9 2

or CL =

2

2

2

5.

(C)

It is evident that 6 lines can be drawn through three non-collinear points.

6.

(D)

Given x = 2, y = – 2 x – yx – y = 2 – (–2)2 – (–2)

4 2 8 2 2 2 r r = r ∴ CD = 2CL = 3 9 3 website : www.unifiedcouncil.com

= 2 – (–2)(2 + 2) = 2 – (–2)4 = 2 – 16 = – 14

7.

(B)

13. (B)

y

(–5, 4)

4

4 units

–5

Congruence ⇒ ∠A = ∠D

The co-ordinates of the point are (–5, 4). (A)

x> x> (B)

∠ C = ∠ F [Corresponding parts of congruent triangles.]

14. (A)

= (–1) + 2015 = 2014 15. (C)

6 10 3 5

)

x

1

⎛ ⎝

⎞

N

3 2

The maximum distance between the points R and T is the length of the diameter of the circle.

3

x 2

Since, the bases are equal powers are also equal.

∠FSQ = 120o

!

N2 =

When the diagonals of a quadrilateral PQRS are perpendicular. The quadrilateral, formed by joining the mid-points of its sides, is a rectangle.

R

⎠

⇒ xx = x

∠PQS + ∠FSQ = 180o

!N 2 1

⇒ N ⋅ ( N)2 =

3N 2

2

9 ⎛3⎞ ⇒ N=⎜ ⎟ = 4 ⎝2⎠ 16. (C)

Height of triangle = 9 units PQ = 4 units

1 x9x4 2 = 18 sq. units

Area of ∆ PQR =

2 units T

17. (A)

Exterior angle of a triangle is equal to sum of interior opposite angles.

∴ Maximum distance between R & T

Let x & y be the other two angles.

= 2(r)

⇒ 35o + x = 115o

= 2 × 2 units

⇒ x = 80o

= 4 units 12. (B)

(

= x x

x

1 2

and ∠RFE = ∠FSQ = 120o [Corresponding angles since EF 2 QS ]

11. (D)

xx

N N( N) = ⎜ N(N)2 ⎟

⇒ ∠FSQ = 180o – 60o

10. (C)

Let p(x) = x2015 + 2015 ⇒ p(–1) = (–1)2015 + 2015

6x + 1 > 7 – 4x 10x > 6

9.

∠B = ∠E

N

5 units

8.

Given, ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ DEF by S.S.S.

x + y + 35 o = 180 o (Sum of angles in a triangle)

Given perimeter of a rhombus is 52 cm, 5 = 13 cm. each side of the rhombus = 4 Area of rhombus

= 2 25 (25 − 24 )(25 − 13)(25 − 13)

⇒ y = 180o – 35o – 80o = 65o

∴ The other two angles are 80o, 65o. 18. (C)

The area of parallelogram ABCD = DC × DL.

= 120 sq.cm. Area =

1× product of diagonals 2

⇒ 120 =

1

× 4 × d ⇒ d = 10 cm

∴ The other diagonal is 10 cm. website : www.unifiedcouncil.com

Hence, it is clear that the given points form a square and the origin lies at the point where the diagonals of the square intersect.

C

19. (B)

 o

0

O

24. (A)

A

A

B

∠OAC = ∠OAB =

180o − 110o o

Given area of ÄABC = 8 cm2

o

180 − 90 = 45o 2

⇒

o

∠BAC = 35o + 45 = 80o 20. (C)

x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = K (x + y + z) [(x – y)2 + (y – z)2 + (z – x)2]

⇒ AB = 4 cm = BC AC2 = AB2 + BC2

⇒ AC2 = (4)2 + (4)2 ⇒ AC2 = (16 + 16) cm2

= K (x + y + z) [2x2 + 2y2 + 2z2 – 2xy – 2yz – 2xz] = 2K (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – xz)

1 Hence, K must be equal to . 2 3x – 5 + p = qx + 1 ⇒ (3 – b) x + p = 6 Comparing the cofficients on both the sides 3 – q = 0 and p = 6 ⇒ q = 3

∴ If q = 3, the coefficient of x will be

⇒ AC =

P

(Total area of square – sum of the areas of triangles ADE and DCF) will give the area of the quadrilateral. 1 × 3 × 1.5) = 4.5 cm2 9 – (2 × 2

26. (B)

Among the four given substances, mercury being the densest will settle first at the bottom of the measuring cylinder followed by glycerine. Ice and wood being lighter float in the measuring cylinder.

27. (B)

Two sounds are heard as the sound travels through the railing and the air. It travels through the railing (solid) much faster than through the air (gas).

28. (A)

Mass is the measure of inertia. The greater the mass of the object (or the heavier is the object), the more is its inertia. As object P has more mass than object Q, object P has more inertia than Q.

29. (D)

The overall force on the object is 80 N – 30 N = 50 N.

Physics

M

U

J

1 o (90 ) = 45o = ∠PUM 2 Given points are A(–a, –a), B(a, –a), C(a, a) and D(–a, a) ∠JUP =

23. (D)

Y D (–a, a)

–a

a

C (a, a)

O

a

X

–a A (–a, –a)

32 cm

25. (D)

cancelled on both the sides, i.e., x will vanish. Thus, for unique solution q ≠ 3. 22. (A)

1 × AB × BC = 8 cm2 2

⇒ (AB)2 × 16 cm2 (3 AB = BC)

= K (x + y + z) [x2 + y2 – 2xy + y2 + z2 – 2yz + z2 + x2 – 2xz]

21. (D)

C

B

= 35o

B (a, –a)

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30. (C)

At 8.30 am, the cyclist started from 0 km/h, i.e. from a stationary position. He accelerated until he reached a speed of 30 km/h at 9 am, then he travelled at a constant speed of 30 km/h from 9 am to 9.30 am. After that, he decelerated until he reached 0 km/h at 10 am. Constant speed is indicated by a horizontal line on the speed-time graph.

31. (A)

Mass is different from weight. Weight depends on gravity. Even though the mass of the astronaut in option (A) is much bigger than the boy in options (B) and (C), but in outer space there is no gravity. Hence, the astronaut weighs the lightest.

32. (B)

The tenth floor is at a distance of 10 × 3 = 30 metres from the ground floor. The lift travels this distance in 20 seconds. As speed =

distance time

=

30 m 20 s

34. (B)

A guitar string stores potential energy. When a guitar string is plucked, potential energy is converted into kinetic energy (vibration) and sound energy.

35. (C)

We cannot hear the sound on the moon because there is no material medium to propagate the sound. Sound travels through a medium that is continuous and elastic.

36. (A)

When the girl is on the tree, she possesses gravitational potential energy. When she falls down due to the gravitational pull, her speed increases constantly. During the process, gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

37. (B)

Longitudinal wave is represented by density-distance graph as shown below. The horizontal line OX represents the normal density of air. All the points above this line represent greater density. In a compression of a longitudinal wave, the density of the particles is high. So, here A and C represent compressions. All the points below the line OX represent less density (than normal). In a rarefaction, the density of the particles is less than that in the normal. So, here B and D represent rarefactions.

1.5 m/s.

33. (B)

Y

Radius of circular orbit (r)= 42250 km

∴ Distance travelled in one revolution around the earth = 2πr = 2 ×

22 7

Normal density

O

Density less than normal

× 42250

Compression

Compression

A

C B

D

Rarefac on

Rarefac on

X

Y'

= Time taken to revolve around the earth = 24 h = 24 × 60 × 60 s We know, Speed =

Density greater than normal

Distance travelled Time taken

22 2× × 42250 22 42250 7 = = 2× × 24 × 60 × 60 7 24 × 60 × 60 = 3.07 km/s

38. (A)

The mass, volume, and density of a matter will not change as they do not depend on gravity. The relation between the mass, volume, and density, is given by: volume = mass ÷ density. volume = 79 ÷ 7.9 which gives us the volume of the rock to be 10 cm3.

Thus, the speed of the artificial satellite revolving around the earth is 3.07 km/s.

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39. (C)

40. (B)

41. (A)

When two equally strong forces act in opposite directions to each other (whether they are pulling or pushing), the total force is zero, and hence the box will not move. Option (D) is also impossible since the question has already stated that the two forces are equally strong, which implies that the total force is also zero.

43. (D)

Compression is the region of high pressure and rarefraction is the region of low pressure. Pressure is related to the number of particles of a medium in a given volume. More density of the particles in the medium gives more pressure and vice versa. Thus, propagation of sound is based on density or pressure variations in the medium.

Both of them can be weak forces, but as long as they do not act in opposite directions to each other, the box will move.

44. (B)

The smallest force needed will be equal to the weight of the cup of tea, which is 0.5 kg × 10 m/s2 = 5 Newton.

45. (C)

The hands of a clock are in uniform motion and cover equal distances in equal intervals of time however small the time intervals may be.

46. (C)

When the paper ball is being released in air, the paper has an initial speed of 0 m s–1 and an acceleration of 10 m s–2. As it travels through air due to the gravitational acceleration, the air resistance will go against the paper ball and the acceleration decreases. Although the acceleration decreases, the paper ball is still increasing its speed but at a lower rate as before (decreasing acceleration)

47. (D)

Work done by a man in holding a suitcase while waiting for a bus, i.e. he is in stationary position. As there is no displacement, no work is done by him.

48. (D)

0.05 kHz = 50 Hz and it is the lowest frequency and therefore has the lowest pitch. The other options have a higher pitch than this.

49. (B)

The density of oil, icebergs and air bubbles is less than that of water having a density of 1 g cm–3. Hence, they float. Pebbles have more density than water, so they sink in water.

50. (C)

Work done = 30 J

Work done is the product of the applied force and the distance moved by the object in the direction of the force. When the object is at rest, there is no distance covered and therefore there is no work done. Being light, the momentum of the tennis ball is very small as compared to that of a cricket ball and a basket ball. Hence, the force required to catch the tennis ball is very small. So, it is easier to catch it in motion.

42. (A)

The motion of the planets in the solar system is governed by Kepler’s laws. The third Kepler’s law states that the time taken for a planet to orbit the Sun (which is called the period), depends on the distance between the planet and the Sun (or the radius); the longer the distance, the longer the period, and vice versa. Since the outer planets have longer orbital radius, they have longer period as well. The period is not affected by the mass of the planet.

Time taken = 5 s Power =

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Work done Time taken

=

30 J 5s

= 6 J/s = 6 W

Chemistry 51. (A)

60. (B)

Atomic number: 12 (number of protons) The number of protons of every atom is equal to the number of electrons. Therefore, initially, magnesium has 12 protons and 12 electrons. However, positively charged magnesium indicates the loss of electrons. The formation of ions only involves the releasing or gaining of electrons by the atom. To have a +2 charge, magnesium will need to lose two electrons. Positively charged magnesium ions will therefore have 10 electrons in total.

52. (B)

At 80o C, Substance Z is at its liquid state as it has passed its freezing point. At 600o C, Substance Z is at its gaseous state as it has possed its boiling point.

53. (D)

It has 13 protons, i.e., its proton number is 13, indicating it is aluminium. There is a net charge of +3, hence it is an Al3+ ion.

54. (D)

A mixture of starch and water is a colloidal solution.

55. (B)

56. (A)

57. (D)

58. (A)

59. (C)

6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 correspond to mass = 44 g 3.011 × 1023 molecules of CO2 correspond to mass = 22 g

61. (A)

The lithium atom has 1 valence electron. The 3 electrons are arranged in 2 shells, indicating the two different energy levels they are in.

62. (C)

When a mixture of salt, sand and ammonium chloride is heated in a china dish by covering an inverted glass funnel on it. Ammonium chloride changes into white vapours which rise up and on cooling get converted into solid ammonium chloride. Salt and sand are added to water. Salt is soluble and sand is insoluble. The salt solution is separated by filtration and sand is obtained as residue on the filter paper. The salt solution is evaporated in a china dish. Water evaporates leaving behind salt crystals.

63. (C)

Charge of X = 0

Potassium and chlorine react to form K+ and Cl– ions of 2.8.8 electronic configuration, which is similar to that of argon (proton number 18).

Number of protons = 8

Solubility of a solute (salt) with its solvent (water) varies with temperature. Generally, the higher the temperature the more soluble the salt is.

Number of neutrons = atomic mass – number of protons = 17 – 8 = 9

There are spaces between the particles of water and alcohol. When they are mixed together, the water and alcohol particles move into these spaces. This causes the final volume to be less than 100 ml. Isotopes are atoms with the same atomic number (same atomic number means same element), but with different number of neutrons. X and Y have the same atomic number of 17, but their neutrons are(35 – 17 =) 18 and (37 – 17 =)20 respectively. Distillation: To separate two soluble/ miscible liquids with different boiling points. The liquid with lower boiling point distils over first and the liquid having higher boiling point distils later.

Number of electrons = number of protons = 8

64. (D)

Ion S

2–

No. of shells occupied

2, 8, 8

3

3+

2, 8

2

3–

2, 8

2

2

1

Al N

Electronic configuration

Be

2+

65. (B)

The number of neutrons is given by the difference between the nucleon number and the proton number. In this case, all of them have 20 neutrons.

66. (C)

The correct relative mass of sulphur is 32, oxygen, 16, and carbon, 12.

67. (D)

Fractional distillation cannot be used to test the purity of a substance.

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68. (C)

69. (A)

70. (A)

The bubbly texture of carbonated soda is due to presence of carbon dioxide dissolved in the drink. When the cap is still closed, the pressure inside the bottle is higher, keeping the carbon dioxide dissolved in the drink. However, when the cap is opened, the pressure in the bottle decreases, allowing the carbon dioxide to slowly escape from the drink. Eventhough a part of the ice-cube floats above the surface, the water level in the glass is exactly the same before and after the ice has melted. This shows that when ice melts, the water formed takes up less space than the ice, and that is exactly the amount of space taken by the submerged ice. The can is a solid. The ‘fizz’ of the fizzy (carbonated) drink is a gas. The drink is a liquid.

Biology 71. (C)

Stomata is absent in Xerophytic plants.

72. (B)

The number of chromosomes are fixed for a particular species.

73. (B)

Earthworm belong to Annelida.

74. (B)

Meristematic tissues of plants include stem and root tips, internodes of stem and cork cambium.

75. (D)

Deforestation increases air pollution, destruction of habitats and mineral salts in the soil are washed away.

76. (D)

P represents cytoplasm, Q - cell wall and R - nucleus.

77. (D)

Lysosomes are concerned with the waste disposal system of the cell.

78. (A)

Echinoderms have the water vascular system as a distinctive feature.

79. (A)

Hepatitis is a communicable disease.

80. (C)

The figure in option C is of bone cell.

81. (A)

The movement of water from higher concentration of water molecules to lower concentration is called osmosis.

82. (A)

Hen’s egg is a single cell.

83. (C,D)

Pteridophytes are the vascularised plants without seeds. Gymnosperm and angiosperm are the vascularised plants with seeds.

84. (C)

Binomial system of nomenclature means that every organism has one scientific name and one species name.

85. (C)

Earthworm contains nerve cell.

86. (B)

In mitochondria cellular respiration takes place.

87. (B)

Lock jaw or tetanus is a bacterial disease.

88. (C)

Stomata helps in the exchange of gases.

89. (C)

The association between fungi and roots of higher plants is called Mycorhiza

90. (C)

The figure in option C represents the shape of a red blood cell. It is disc shaped. Due to its shape it is able to roll or move easily in blood vessels and help in exchange of gases.

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UNIFIED COUNCIL A n I S O 9 0 0 1 : 2008 C e r t i f i e d O r g a n i s a t i o n

NATIONAL LEVEL SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION Paper Code: UN 418 Solutions for Class : 9 Mathematics 1.

2.

(A)

The ordinate (i.e., y-coordinate) is positive above the x-axis and negative below the x-axis.

4.

E

5.

Q 7.6 cm

(A)

F

 Of the given options (x – 1) must be

1 EF 2

=

a factor of f(x) g(x). Since, f(1) g(1) = 0 as f(1) = 0

1  7.6 cm 2

= 3.8 cm

6.

(B)

Two distinct lines can always be either intersecting or be parallel to eachother.

7.

(B)

 ABC &  ADC are Isosceles

Given, area of triangle = x1 sq.units

 x1 

Given (x – 1) is a factor of f(x), but not of g(x)  f(1) = 0 and g(1)  0

Length of PQ =

(C)

p 250 = q 99 q 99 = = 0.396 p 250

D

(A) P

3.

(D)

 ABC = ACD

1 bh 2

& DBC = DCB

Area of new triangle = x2 sq.units

 ABC : ACD = 2ACD : ACD

1 1  x2   26  2h  4 bh 2 2

Hence, ABC : ACD = 2 : 1

Percentage increase =

8.

A

(D)

x2  x1  100% x1

L B

1 1 (4bh)  bh 2 2   100% 1 (bh) 2

M

C

AB = 7.2 cm, BC = 4.8 cm, CL = 4 cm

1 1 Area of  ABC   BC  AM   AB  CL 2 2

1 (3bh)  2  100% 1 bh 2

1 1   4.8  AM =  7.2  4 2 2  AM 

= 300%

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7.2  4  6 cm 4.8

9.

(D)

Since PQ = 4 cm = 2  OQ = 2  radius, PQ is the diameter of circle. Join RQ. PRQ = 90°.

y

13. (C)

(Angle in a semicircle.)

C O, a 3

 ORQ = 90°  35° = 55°

2a

But OR = OQ. x

 ORQ = OQR = 55°

10. (C)

11. (D)

3a

(–a, 0)

1

a

A

y = 180°   55° + 55° = 70°



2a

2a

(a, 0) O a

3a

x

B

2a D O,  a 3

In a rectangle all angles are equal and all sides are not equal only opposite pairs are equal.

1

4

Given OP is a ray on line QR, and POQ = POR ...... (1)

 ABC and  ABC are equilateral.  AB = AC = CB and AB = BD = AD

P

AB = a + a = 2a Q

 AC = BC = AB = BD = AD = 2a

O R

 OA 2 + OC 2 = AC 2

 POQ = POR = 90°

 a2 + OC2 = 4a2

Since, POQ + POR = 180°. 12. (D)

 OC = a 3

A

 The co-ordinates of C(0, a 3 ) and

5 6 cm

B

D(0, – a 3 )

C

14. (C)

4x – 4x–1 = 24  4x –

Ac2 = AB2 + BC2 ( AB = BC)

 4x = 8  4  22x = 25  x =

2



4x = 24 4



 5 6  2 AB2 5 x  2 x  =  2 ×  2  

150  AB   75 2 2

5

2

=5

5

2

= 52 5

1

= 25 5

 Ab  75  5 3 cm

15. (C)

x x  2 x  3 x3  2 x2 + ax  b x3  2 x2  3 x  + + (a + 3) x  b 2

Since remainder is x – 6

 (a+3) x – b = x – 6 i.e., a + 3 = 1 and b = 6 Hence a = –2 and b = 6.

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2

5 2

16. (D)

All the given statements are correct.

17. (C)

140o  70 BHC 2  BCH  180o  140o  40 ABC  ACB 

A G E

H

F

 HCK = 70o – 40o = 30o

B

18. (C)

20. (D)

C

21. (D)

Two pairs of vertices have

Given GH = 1.8 cm

y-component equal.

BC = 2EF = 4GH ( EF = 2GH)

i.e., (1, 1 ); (10, 1 ) and (2, 4 ); (8, 4 )

 BC = 4(1.8) cm = 7.2 cm

 Two pairs of lines are parallel and unequal.

Area of park = Area of  BCD + Area of  ABD

Hence the quadrilateral is a trapezium. 22. (A)

Area of  BCD = 1  12  5 m2 = 30 m2 2 8m

A 9m

Then the speed of other plane is (x + 40) km/hour.

D

13 m

Distance travelled by first plane in 5 hours = Speed  Time = x  5 = 5x

5m

Distance travelled by second plane in 5 hours = (x + 40)5.

o

B

90 C

12 m

Distance travelled by first plane + Distance travelled by the other plane = 3400 km

In  ABD, we have 2s = 9 + 8 + 13 = 30  s = 15  Area of  ABD =

5x + 5(x + 40) = 3400

s  s  a s  b  s  c 

 x=

3200 = 320km / hour 10

Sum of speeds = (320 + 360) km/h

 15  15  9 15  8  15  13 m2 2

Let the speed of one plane be x km/hour.

= 680 km/hour

2

 15  6  7  2 m  6 35 m

23. (B)

 Area of park

3 x = 72 4

= 30 m2 + 6 35 m2

x=

72  4 = 96 3

= ( 6 35 +30) m2

x=

96 = 48 cm2 2

24. (A)

19. (A)

i.e., all the three sides are equal.

x

12 12

Chord of a circle is equal to radius

 The triangle formed with chord and centre is an equilateral triangle.

7 5 5

Hence, angle at the minor are is 60 o.

(x + 7)2 + 25 = r2

25. (D)

2(x – 1) + 3x + 4 (x + 1) = 191

x2 + 144 = r2

 2x – 2 + 3x + 4x + 4 = 191

(x + 7)2 + 25 = x2 + 144

 9x + 2 = 191

x2 + 14x + 49 + 25 = x2 + 144

 9x + 2 = 189

14x = 70

 x = 21

x=5

Least number is x – 1

r=

169 = 13 cm

i.e., 21 – 1 = 20.

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Physics 26. (B)

Mass of alcohol = volume  density = 50 cm3  0.8 g/cm3 = 40 g

27. (A)

When chemicals react and explode, the chemical potential energy is converted to heat, light and sound energy.

28. (C)

29. (A)

30. (A)

31. (B)

35. (D)

Kinetic energy increases by 9 times, if the velocity increases by a factor of three. 

Inertia is the reluctance for objects to start moving and stop moving. An object with high inertia will need more effort to move than an object with lower inertia.

36. (B)

a = 60-30  1000 = 0.42 m s-2 20 3600

37. (B)

The actual length travelled by a moving body irrespective of the direction is called the distance travelled by that body. Distance is a scalar quantity and it is always positive.

Sound travels fastest through the densest solid which is lead, a metal. Plastic foam is a solid but it is less dense than lead. Seawater is liquid and oxygen is a gas.

38. (B)

Both the balls have the same mass as the metre rule is balanced when they are placed at the same distance from the pivot.

39. (C)

10 = 5 kg F = ma, m = Fa = 2

40. (B)

P.E. is involved, mass is known.

When a plane takes off, it needs to increase its speed to increase the lifting force below the wings. Both the speed and height of the plane will increase. Since speed and height are factors of kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy respectively, both kinetic energy and gravitational energy increase during a plane’s take off. First case F = m  a =

So, he requires height.

10 kg  5 m s2 1000

Second case F = m  a =

41. (A)

20 kg  2 m s 2 1000

As F1 > F2, more force is required in the first case.

34. (D)

The correct key shows density = mass = D  V and volume =

= 0.04 N

33. (C)

1 2 1 mv , K.E. 1 = mv12 2 2

1 2 = m  3v  = 9 K.E. 2

= 0.05 N

32. (A)

K.E. =

When brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, its velocity starts decreasing while it moves in the same direction, i.e., it undergoes retardation. This indicates that its acceleration is in a direction opposite to that of its velocity. Sound travels faster in dense materials. Thus it travels the fastest in solids, medium in liquids and the slowest through gases.

M V

,

M D

42. (D)

The coiled spring shows the squashes (compressions) and stretches (rarefactions) of a sound wave.

43. (A)

The mass of an object is constant and does not change from place to place. The mass of an object is the measure of its inertia. Greater the mass, the greater is its inertia. It remains the same whether the object is on the earth, the moon or even in the outer space.

44. (C)

A body under rest always has zero speed and also zero acceleration.

45. (C)

Kinetic energy =

46. (D)

Since the glass marbles sink in water, these imply that the density of glass is higher than water. However the density of glass does not depend on the number of marbles, and cannot be calculated from the amount of displaced water.

1

2

mv 

2 Frequency f = 700 Hz

1 2

(2)(3)2 = 9 J

Speed of sound = 340 m/s We have speed = frequency  wavelength i.e

v = f

 

47. (C)

=

340

= 0.485 m. f 700 Mass is related to the number of

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v

molecules in a matter. It is a scalar quantity, which means it has no direction. It is related to density by the following formula :

54. (D)

A compound contains two or more different types of atoms chemically combined together. Ammonia has two elements nitrogen and hydrogen. Rust has three elements iron, oxygen and water. Water has two elements hydrogen and oxygen. Air is not a compound. It is a mixture of several gases.

55. (B)

The beaker that is left in a sunny and windy environment will have higher temperature and fresh air moving over the surface of the water all the time. This beaker will have the least amount of water.

56. (C)

Hydrogen, sodium and silver form positively charged ions as they have one valence electron in their outermost shell. Hydrogen - 1s1, sodium - 3s1 and silver 5s 1 respectively. Oxygen needs two electrons to complete its octet. It can form an anion.

57. (C)

Camphor and ammonium chloride both sublime on heating, hence they can be separated by pouring the mixture into water(solvent extraction). Ammonium chloride dissolves in water leaving behind camphor. Ammonium chloride is recovered later by evaporating the water slowly.

58. (B)

12  98.9% + 13  1.1% = 12.011 amu

mass = density  volume Though it is often associated with weight, mass does not depend on gravity at all. The mass of an object does not change even if the object is brought from the Earth to the Moon, though the gravity on Earth and on the Moon are different. 48. (D)

49. (B)

50. (A)

Electric motors involve rotating coils of wire which are driven by the magnetic force exerted by a magnetic field on an electric current. They transform electrical energy into kinetic energy. A cyclist riding along a road does not come to rest immediately after he/she stops pedalling. The bicycle continues to move forward due to the inertia of motion. But eventually it comes to rest as a result of the retarding action of friction. If s – t graphs of two cyclists meet at a point, at that time they either pass each other or they collide.

Chemistry 51. (A)

An atom is the smallest particle of the element that can exist independently and retain all its chemical properties. Argon is a monoatomic gas. It does not combine with another atom of argon to form a molecule. Two atoms of same element combine to form a molecule. Oxygen, hydrogen, chlorine, nitrogen are diatomic molecules.

59. (C)

A mixture consists of more than one kind of substances and can be separated to individual substances through physical processes. Heterogeneous mixture is a mixture whose substances are distributed unevenly throughout (more than one phase). An example of a heterogeneous mixture is a mixture of petrol and water.

52. (A)

Melting point and freezing point always have the same temperature for any particular substance. This is because the state change for both is between a solid and a liquid.

60. (B)

The electronic configuration of the ions are: S2– 2.8.8, Cl– 2.8.8, K+ 2.8.8

61. (A)

Ammonium carbonate (NH 4) 2CO 3 molecule has four different types of atoms present in it as given below:

53. (A)

Charge of X is +2 means that it had lost 2 electrons.

Nitrogen - 2- (N 2)

Number of protons = 10

Hydrogen - 8 - (H 4  2)

Number of electrons = number of protons = –2 =10 – 2 = 8

Carbon - 1 - (C) Oxygen - 3 - (O3  1)

Number of neutrons = atomic mass – number of protons = 20 – 10 = 10 websit e : www.unif iedcouncil.com 5

62. (C)

For all the three given substances to be in the same state there are three possibilities.

•

67. (A)

1st orbital = 2 electrons

All of them are in the solid state, which means their temperature must be lower than the lowest melting point (10o C).

3rd orbital = 18 electrons

•

All of them are in the liquid state, which means their temperature must be between the highest melting point (65 o C) and the lowest boiling point (78 o C).

Total number of electron in the 1st, 2nd and 3rd orbital is 28, since chlorine has 17 electrons in total; it does not fill up the max. capacity of its 3 rd orbital. The 3 rd orbital only has 7 electrons.

•

All of them are in the gaseous state, which means their temperature must be higher than the highest boiling point (120 o C).

2nd orbital = 8 electrons

From the options provided, the only possible answer is 75o C. At 75o C, all the three substances are in the liquid state. 63. (D)

Mass number = number of protons (7) + number of neutrons (7) = 14.

64. (A)

The filament in an electric bulb glows when electric current is passed through it. The bulb stops glowing if the electric supply is removed. As there is no change in the chemical composition of the bulb or the filament, it is a physical change.

65. (B)

66. (D)

Maximum number of electrons occupied by each orbital level is given by = 2n2 (n is the orbital level)

68. (B)

Mercury is a heavy metal and metal is generally a good conductor. Mercury is toxic. However, mercury is the only metal that is in liquid state at room temperature.

69. (B)

Three elements are present in AgNO 3. Ag-silver, N-nitrogen and O-oxygen.

70. (D)

The correct properties are hot/dry for fire, dry/cold for air, wet, cold for earth and wet/hot for water.

Biology

When the temperature is above its boiling temperature, the substance will be in its gaseous state and when the temperature is below its boiling temperature, the substance will be in its liquid or solid state depending on its melting temperature. The only substance in the list with a boiling point below room temperature is nitrogen. In fact, its boiling point is negative; this is even lower than the melting point of ice.

71. (D)

The removal of the bark takes away the phloem. The phloem carries essential nutrients needed for survival of plants.

72. (C)

Mitochondrion is composed of cristae and matrix.

73. (A)

Xylem is a part of vascular tissue. It conducts water to the plant body.

74. (C)

Amoeba move with the help of a pseudopodia.

75. (B)

Production of gametes like ova and pollen takes place by meiosis.

76. (A)

Diploblastic animals have a body cavity made of two cellular layers – an ectoderm and an endoderm.

Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide have the same formula unit mass.

The cnidarians are diploblastic, whereas all other metazoans are triploblastic. In small, simple cnidarians, such as Hydra, the diploblastic condition is clearly visible.

Option (A) CaCl 2 = 40 + 71 = 111 K2 CO3 = (39  2) + 12 + (16  3) = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138

77. (B)

Option(B) CaO = 40 + 16 = 56 HCl = 1 + 35.5 = 36.5 Option (C) CO = 12 + 16 = 28

In the given figure arrow labelled ‘R’ represents photosynthesis, ‘P’ represents respiration and ‘Q’ represents combustion.

NH3 = 14 + 3 = 17 Option (D) CO2 = 12 + 16  2 = 44 N2O (14  2) + 16 = 44

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78. (B)

During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is used to prepare sugars and oxygen is released into the atmosphere. This helps maintain the percentage of oxygen at around 21% and that of carbon dioxide, at around 0.03% in the atmosphere.

83. (A)

Tendons connect bones and muscles.

84. (B)

Omnis cellula e cullela means living cells arise from pre-existing cells.

85. (D)

A chloroplast and cell wall are absent in animal cell.

79. (B)

Plasmodium causes malaria.

86. (D)

Uterus, skin and nose are the organs.

80. (D)

The given process is an essential process in maintaining the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

81. (B)

82. (A)

Cells  tissues  organs  system. 87. (C)

Ribosomes help in protein synthesis.

88. (B)

The phenomenon in which an organism escapes from predators by resembling other organisms is called mimicry.

The process ‘T’ represents condensation. When water vapour loses heat, it condenses to form water droplets.

89. (C)

P represents nerve cells. It is found in the nervous system.

White blood cells can change their shape when carrying out their function.

90. (D)

Smooth muscles are present in the iris of the eye, in uterus and in the bronchi of lungs.

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UNIFIED COUNCIL A n I S O 9 0 0 1 : 2008 C e r t i f i e d O r g a n i s a t i o n

NATIONAL LEVEL SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (UPDATED) Paper Code: UN 421 Solutions for Class : 9 Mathematics 1.

7.

B

(D)

(A)

Rationalizing factor of 1

C

a

5

a2b3c4 =

5

a3b2c

I and IV quadrants have a positive abscissa.

9.

(C)

The points of the form (p, p)  p  0 always lies on the line y = x. e.g., (5, 5) (16, 16) etc., have their x and y coordinates same. So, they lie on the line y = x.

So, the length of the diagonal must be less than 7 cm + 4 cm = 11 cm. (D)

an p or

(B)

In a  le the sum of any two sides must be greater than the third side.

2.

n

8.

D

Diagonals divide the parallelogram into two congruent  les.

ap is

where n > p.

R.F. of



A

p n

n

10. (C)

Let the diagonals meet at O as shown in the figure.

Join OB, Then OBA = 90° AB2 + OB2 = AO2

P

 OB = AB = 2 cm

R O

Hence AO2 = 22 + 22 or AO = 2 2 cm



3.

(B)

ABC  PQR  CA = RP

4.

(A)

From  ABC and  DEF,,

POS = ROQ = 90° Also OP = OQ = OS = OR, i.e., the diagonals are equal and bisect at right angles. Clearly, PRQS is a square.

A + B + C = 180° and

11. (C)

D + E + F = 180° .  A + B + C + D + E + F = 360°

5.

(A)

Area of an equilateral triangle

 2 x = 2a  x = a

(A)

=

3 (side)2 4

=

3 2 (7) 4

=

3 (49) 4

2 1 = 2b  = b x x

1  x  = a  b  ab = 1 x

6.

By equating the given sides of the equilateral triangle, we get a = 3, b = 4. Each side of the triangle = 2a – b + 5 = 7

1 x + = a+b and x  1 = a  b x x

Similarly,

Q

S



 AC = AO + OC = 2 2 + 2 cm

A median divides the triangle into two triangles of equal area.

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

The required area of the triangle

12. (C)

P

17. (B)

3  49. = 4

O

AD  BC  BD = DC

Given,

In  ABD and  ACD

R

Q

BD = DC (Given) AD = AD (Common side) 

 ABD   ADC

13. (D)

14. (A)

ΡQR is an equilateral triangle.

ADB =  ADC = 90o

 ΡQR = QRP = QPR = 60o

[ S.A.S. congruence ]

 AB = AC

and QOR = 2QPR = 2(60o) = 120o

Here p – 10o + p – 5o + p – 15o + p – 30o = 180o



18. (C)

240° = 60°  p= 4 Given (x – 2) is a factor of x2 + ax – 6 and x2 – 9x + b = 0

QOR = 120o

10x = 64 x

x

1

10 2 = 10 2  101 =

10 x  10

=

64  10 = 80

x2 + ax – 6 = 0  (2)2 + a(2) – 6 = 0

19. (C,D)

 2a = 2 a= 1

A line segment has two end points, so it cannot be produced indefinitely on either side. Its has a fixed length.

x2 – 9x + b = 0  (2)2 + 9(2) + b = 0  b = 14 

15. (D)

16. (D)

One point cannot determine a unique line.

A

20. (D)

a + b = 1 + 14 = 15

The given equation px + qy + r = 0 is a linear equation in two variables if p  0 and q  0.

h

Let ABCD be the rectangle with sides 8 cm and 6 cm. A

4 cm 5c

4 cm 5c m

E

m

B

D

‘D’ divides BC in ratio 3 : 5

3 cm

6 cm F

C

D

Area of ABC =

H 5c

m

5c

m

3 cm

and BD =

C G 8 cm The midpoints of the adjacent sides of ABCD are joined forming a Rhombus EFGH.

3 (BC) 8

B

1

1  BC  h 2

Area of ABC =

1 3   BC  h 2  8 

=

3 (ar(ABC)) 8



Area of Rhombus =   6  8  cm2 2 

 Area of ABC =

= 24 cm2 websit e : www.unif iedcouncil.com 2

3  ar(ABC) 8

21. (B)

Sum of first 2016 positive odd integers x =

= 1 + (1 + 2) + (2 + 3) + (3 + 4) + . . . + (2014 + 2015) + (2015 + 2016)

50 25 = 4 2

D

C

E

st

In the above sequence, the sum of 1 and last term, 2nd and 2nd last term and so on are equal. Thus, we get 1008 (i.e., 2016  2) terms having value (2016 + 2016)

O y

AFCE is a rhombus.

= 1008  2016 (1 + 1)

 DIagonals are perpendicular

= 1008  (2  1008)  2

AC = 20  AO = 10

= 22  10082

( Diagonals aree  r to each other.) st

 The sum of 1 2016 positive odd integers is 22  10082.

22. (B)

Let EF = 2y  OF = y  x2 = 100 + y2

0o at B Cleary, arc AB subtends ABC = 50 and AOD at the centre.

2

 25  y = x – 100 =   – 100  2 2

 AOD = 2 ABC = 100o

Since, CD is a straight line. Therefore, AOC = 80o 23. (B)

= 2 – 1 + 4 – 3 + . . . + 98 – 97 + 100 – 99

625  100 4 625  400 = 4 225 y2 = 4 225 15 y= = 4 2

=1+1+...+1+1

 EF = 15

(x + 1)(x – 2)(x + 3) . . . (x – 98)(x + 99) (x – 100) = 0 has 100 roots.

= 50

Physics

We know that centroid G divides median AD in the ratio 2 : 1 Hence G =

26. (D)

We need the thickness of the steel block to calculate its volume. We need the exact density of steel block as well as its volume to calculate the mass of the steel block. We need the volume of the steel block as well as its coefficient of expansion to calculate the amount of expansion as the steel block is heated. We can determine from the given information whether the steel block will sink in or float on water. As steel is denser than water, a steel block will sink in water.

27. (C)

When a tuning fork is struck, the prongs vibrate. This causes the air molecules around the prongs to vibrate too, producing a sound. Bringing the handle of the tuning fork into contact with a table surface causes the vibrations to pass from the prongs to the molecules of the table. Hence, the sound produced is louder.

2D + A 2 (3, 9) + (6,  3) = 3 3

 6 + 6 18  3  , 3   3

=

= (0, 5) 25. (D)

2

=

Required sum = –1 + 2 – 3 + 4 . . . –97 + 98 – 99 + 100

24. (C)

F 16 – B

A

 Sum = 1008 (2016 + 2016)

2

AC = 256 + 144 = 400  Ac =

400 = 20

Let AF = x AFCE is a rhombus AF = EC = x 122 + (16 – x)2 = x2 32x = 256 + 144 = 400 4x = 50

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28. (A)

29. (B)

Mass is a measure of the inertia of a body or an object. If a body has more mass, it has more inertia. If it has less mass, it has less inertia. Pencil is lighter than school bag, book and table, so it has least/less inertia.

35. (B)

Ep = mgh or P.E. = mgh m = mass of an object g = acceleration due to gravity

A particle moving with constant speed covers equal distances in equal time intervals.

h = height of an object above the surface of earth 36. (A)

The ball gets slower as it increases in height due to the effect of gravity. The ball reaches its maximum height when its speed is zero (cannot move up any more).

37. (D)

Work done = force  distance moved in the direction of the force = 10  6 = 60 J

38. (B)

The mass of an object is independent of its location. The mass of an object is the same everywhere. It does not change from place to place. It is constant. A body or an object contains the same quantity of matter whether it is on the earth, the moon or anywhere in the universe.

39. (D)

When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at a high speed, we tend to get thrown to one side because we tend to continue in our straight line motion and an unbalanced force is applied by the engine of the motorcar that changes the direction of motion of the motorcar. So, we slip to one side of the seat due to the inertia of our body.

40. (D)

Solar energy can be transformed into chemical, electrical, heat or mechanical energy by using suitable equipments.

41. (C)

Material with lower density floats and material with higher density sinks. Since the iron floats on mercury (13600 kg m – 3 ) and sinks in water (1000 kg m –3), its density must be 8000 kg m –3 (between 1000 kg m–3 and 13600 kg m–3).

42. (D)

Speed of sound decreases when we go from solid to gaseous state and increases with increase in temperature. It also depends upon properties of the medium through which it travels.

43. (C)

Acceleration (a) = 4 m/s 2

30. (A)

Work equals to force times displacement. The force here must be the force in the direction of motion. In this case, the girl applies upward force but the displacement is horizontal. Since the force is perpendicular to the displacement, we say that the work done is zero. 31. (C)

From Newton's second law of motion, F = ma , a = F M Since, F is constant, a  1 m For a given magnitude of force, the acceleration produced is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.

32. (A)

The gaps between two drips of petrol are constant. This shows that the car is travelling at constant speed.

33. (B)

Bats can fly in pitch darkness because they hear ultrasonic sounds to produce echoes and detect the surroundings.

34. (A)

When a ball is thrown up, it converts its kinetic energy to potential energy. The conversion is done by gravity. The moment it starts to fall down again, potential energy is converted back to kinetic energy, which is also done by gravity. Gravity acts throughout the journey, and not only when the ball reaches its maximum height.

Potential energy of an object at a height is given as

Mass (m) = 6 kg Force (F) = ? By using the formula, F = m  a, we get

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F = 6 kg  4 m/s2

55. (D)

Average speed = total distance travelled  total time taken

In this experiment, you must keep constant, the initial volume of water, the initial temperature and the length of time for exposure. The final volume of water left in the beaker is the dependent variable.

56. (B)

Phosphate ion PO34 is a trivalent ion.

Average speed = (10 + 20)  (2 + 1) = 10 m s–1

57. (B,D)

Water is a compound and has no odour. Oil is a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid with odour. Oil burns in air whereas water extinguishes fire.

58. (A)

Protons present in the nucleus of an atom have positive charge. Though neutrons are present in the nucleus, they do not have any charge. So, the nucleus of an atom is positively charged.

59. (B)

Salt (NaCl), Water (H2O) and Hydrochloric acid (HCl) are compounds. Iron is an element.

60. (B)

Maximum number of electrons occupying each orbital level is given as

F = 24 kg m/s2 = 24 N So, a force of 24 N is required. 44. (B)

45. (B)

A particle with a value of 46.0 m s –1 represents the velocity of the particle.

46. (D)

1 kWh = 3.6  106 J ; 1 kWh is the energy consumed in one hour at the rate of 1000 J s–1. 1 kW h is commonly referred to as a unit of electrical energy.

47. (C)

A recording studio needs to be soundproof so that sounds cannot escape or enter. Its walls must prevent the reflection of sounds so that echoes, which affect the recording of the song, do not form. Its walls do not have to contain a vacuum, they can contain materials that are able to absorb sound, such as rubber foam.

48. (B)

The larger the surface area in contact, the lesser pressure is exerted.

49. (C)

Power, P = 500 W =

1st orbital = 2 electrons 2nd orbital = 8 electrons Total number of electrons in both 1st and 2nd orbitals is 10, since phosphorus has 15 electrons, its second orbital will be filled up by 8 electrons. There are 5 electrons in the 3rd orbital in phosphorus.

500 = 0.5 kW 1000

Time = 5 hours

61. (B)

Days = 30 Energy consumed = 0.5  5  30 = 75 kWh 50. (C)

This is in agreement with the law of constant proportion.

Rockets are examples of Newton’s third law of motion, i.e. the law of conservation of momentum.

62. (A)

Apple juice is a liquid. A liquid has no definite shape as it takes the shape of the container it is kept in. However it does have a definite mass and volume.

63. (D)

Atomic number 20 belongs to calcium and the number of electrons in

Chemistry 51. (C)

One molecule of CH 3COOH contains 2 oxygen atoms.  One mole of CH 3 COOH contains 2 moles of oxygen atoms.

52. (D)

A gas has no definite shape or volume because its particles are constantly moving randomly in all directions.

53. (D)

The number of protons in CH4 = 6p + 4(1p) = 10 p

64. (C)

The number of protons in NH3 = 7p + 3(1p) = 10 p 54. (C)

All pure samples of water contain hydrogen and oxygen in fixed mass ratio of 1 : 8.

K shell =2 L shell =8 M shell =8 N shell =2 Brinjals and apples become dark due to chemical change. Rest all options represent physical changes only.

Milky glass is a solid-in-solid colloid.

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65. (A)

66. (C)

During condensation, the particles lose their kinetic energy, come closer and attract each other to form a liquid. When a liquid substance is cooled by keeping it in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator, it changes to a solid. The particles lose energy, move slowly, stop moving after it reaches freezing point and vibrate about a fixed position to solidify. The number of atoms present in hydrated magnesium sulphate MgSO4.7H2O are 27 as given below Mg  1  S  1  MgSO4 O 4   6 

H  14   O  7  7H2 O  21 

74. (A)

Species is the basic unit of classification. The group of animals that can reproduce among themselves is called species

75. (A)

Connective tissue like adipose stores fat and insulates the body against heat loss.

76. (D)

Photosysnthesis is the process of synthesising food in the presence of sunlight by green plants.

77. (B)

Cell membrane chromosomes, cytoplasm and mitochondrion are the cell organelles found in both plant and animal cells

78. (B)

Angiosperms are also called flowering plants.

79. (A)

Decomposers feed on dead organic matter and they breakdown the complex organic compounds into simpler substances through the decomposers the elements enter the soil again which in turn are again taken up by the plants

80. (A,C)

Aschelminthes are mostly parasites hence they do not have separate respiratory or circulatory systems. Free living Aschelminthes absorb oxygen directly from air.

81. (D)

Measles is a viral disease, cholera is a bacterial disease and sleeping sickness a protozoan disease.

82. (A)

Axon is concerned with the conduction of impulse.

83. (C)

Xylem and phloem are called complex conducting tissues.

84. (B)

Chloroplasts trap light energy during photosynthesis.

85. (C)

“P” is the contractile vacuole. It is responsible for osmoregulation.

86. (A)

Guava tomato and citrus fruits are protective food. They are rich in vitamins and minerals

87. (A)

Lizard is a reptile

88. (D)

Dicotyledons are flowering plants that have taproots and reticulate venation.

89. (B)

Rearing of honeybees is called apiculture

90. (D)

Pea are pulses.

6 + 21 = 27 67. (A)

Elements X and Y have same proton number, hence, they are the same elements. The number of neutrons of X, Y and Z are 21, 20, 20 respectively.

68. (B)

Gases do not have definite shape and volume due to the absence of any significant interparticle forces. Gases have high compressibility due to the presence of large interparticle empty spaces.

69. (B) 70. (B)

Chromatography process is used to separate drugs from the blood. Molecular weight of KClO3 = 39 + 35.5 + (16  3) = 122.5 245 g of KClO3 = 2 moles. Ratio of number of atoms of K : Cl : O are 1 : 1 : 3.

Biology 71. (C)

Fungi causes ringworm disease.

72. (C)

Lysosome reduces the number of old worn out cell organelles.

73. (D)

Sponges reproduce by gemmules, planaria by regeneration and hydra by budding.

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