NSO LEVEL-1 Booklet For Class-IX

Class 9 15th

Set A Year 2012

15th NSO - SET A

2

Mental Ability 9

 1  r + 4 

3 ⋅ 3− r

1.

r



(A) 3

2.

If f(x) = x – 2x + 3x – ax + b is a polynomial such that when it is divided by (x – 1) and (x + 1), the remainders are respectively 5 and 19. Determine the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 2).



(A) 5

3.

Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is a businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The student is between the professor and the advocate.



Counting from the left, the author is at place _______.



(A) First

4.

In the given figure, if AB || CD and EF || DQ, then ∠PDQ is _______. (A) 48° (B) 34° (C) 72° (D) 68°

= k , then the value of k is_______.

3 ⋅ 3− r

(C) 33

(B) 32 4

3

(D)

r

3

2

(B) –8

(C) 10

(B) Second

(D) 8

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

C

F

Q

P 34°

D 78°

A

E

B

5. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ?

1 2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3 (B) 4 (C) 2



(A) 3

6.

Find the value of



(A)

7.

In the given figure, x + y = _______. (A) 270° (B) 230° (C) 210° (D) 190°

13 21

(D) 5

2 4  5 3 1 5 4 − . + 2 ÷ 7 − 5  ÷ 22 + 10 × 5 9   12 4 2 18  5 (B)

16 35

(C)

8 19

(D) 1 B

C

80° A

40°

O

x°

y°

70° D

8. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 14 cm, then the height of

the parallelogram is _______. (A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm

9.

Select a figure from amongst the options which will continue the series established by Problem

(C) 6 cm

Figures.

Problem Figures

?



(D) 10 cm

(A)



(B)



(C)



(D)

15th NSO - SET A

3

10. A retailer increases the selling price by 25% due to which his profit percentage increases from

20% to 25%. The percentage increase in cost price is _______. (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 25% 3

3

(D) 50%

3

11. If a + b + c = 6, the value of (2 – a) + (2 – b) + (2 – c) – 3(2 – a) (2 – b) (2 – c) is ______. (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2 12. Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water-image of the given combination. 0

2

9

(B)

B

K

5

0

RP

BK50RP62 B 5 2 (C) K 0 9

R

K

RP

P

2 9

(D)

B

K

5

(A)

5

0

R



B

P

9

2

13. In the adjoining figure, PQRS is square and MS = RN and A, P, Q and B lie on the same line. Also AP = MS and AP is the radius of the circle. Find the ratio of the area of two circles to the area of the square.

(A) p : 3

(B) 2p : 3

(C) 3p : 2

(D) 6 : p

14. In DABC, E is the mid-point of median AD such that BE produced meets AC at F. If AC = 10 cm,

then AF = (A) 3 cm

(B) 3.3 cm

(C) 2.5 cm

(D) None of these

15. A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the given bar-graph. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of Talcum

powders in 1995 ? (A) 7 : 2

(B) 5 : 2



(C) 4 : 3

(D) 2 :1

SCIENCE 16. A force F1 acts on a particle to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. The force F1 is then replaced

by force F2 which decelerates it to rest. Which of the following statements is true? (B) F1 may be equal to F 2 (A) F1 must be equal to F 2 (C) F1 must be unequal to F 2 (D) None of these

17. A person sitting on a chair in a satellite feels weightless. It is because (A) The normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth's attraction (B) The normal force is zero (C) The person in the satellite is not accelerated (D) Cannot say 18. The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. The (A) (B) (C) (D)

maximum acceleration in m/s2 is 4 3 2 1

19. Which quantity of a two particles system depend only on the separation between the two particles? (A) Kinetic energy (B) Total mechanical energy (C) Potential energy (D) Both (A) and (B)

15th NSO - SET A

4

20. An object of mass 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B by a distance 5 m. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, then what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? (A) 50 J (B) 100 J (C) 60 J (D) Zero. 21. A plane lamina is freely suspended from point P. The weight of the lamina is 2.0 N and the centre of gravity is at C. PC = 0.50 m, PQ = 0.40 m and QC = 0.30 m. The lamina is displaced to the position shown. What is the moment that will cause the lamina to swing? (A) 0.60 Nm clockwise (B) 0.80 Nm anticlockwise (C) 1.0 Nm clockwise (D) 1.0 N m anticlockwise 22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : A person seated in a moving train is at rest with respect to another train moving in the opposite direction. Statement 2 : If the train covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time then it moves with uniform acceleration. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 23. A sound wave passes from a medium A to a medium B. The velocity of sound B is greater than that in A. Assume that there is no absorption or reflection of the boundary. As the wave moves across the boundary, the ______. (A) Frequency of sound will increase (B) Wavelength of sound will increase (C) Wavelength of sound will decrease (D) Intensity of sound will increase 24. The energy required to change liquid water into water vapour at the same temperature is called latent heat of vaporisation. What does this energy do? (A) It increases the average separation of the water molecules. (B) It decreases the average speed of the water molecules. (C) It raises the temperature of the air near the water. (D) It splits the water molecules into their separate atoms. 25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Find its speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth. (A) 3.07 km s–1 (B) 5.67 km s–1 (C) 6.14 km s–1 (D) 1.57 km s–1 26. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : The sun seems to rise before it actually rises above horizon and it seems to set after some time it actually sets below horizon. Statement 2 : A light ray bends towards the normal when it passes from a rarer to denser medium. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 27. A man who is standing at a point X between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram, fires a starting pistol. He hears the first echo after 0.6 s and another one after 0.8 s. How long after firing the pistol will he hear the next echo?

(A) 1.2 s

(B) 1.4 s

(C) 1.6 s

(D) 2.4 s Steam

28. In which conversion do H2O molecules lose speed?

(A) Ice → Water

(B) Ice → Steam



(C) Steam → Ice

(D) Water → Steam

Water

Ice

15th NSO - SET A

5

29. The table shows the results of adding weighed pieces of iron to solutions M and S. What could the aqueous solutions M and S been? M S Solution Initial mass (A) Copper(II) sulphate Silver nitrate of iron (g) (B) Dilute hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride M 5 (C) Iron(II) chloride Calcium chloride S 5 (D) Magnesium chloride Dilute sulphuric acid 30. Few properties of gases

X, Y and Z are given.

Mass of iron after 15 minutes (g) 4 4

Gas X : An extremely suffocating and corrosive gas, released

by burning coal and diesel. Gases X and Y dissolve Gas Y : Given off by petrol engines. in rain water and produce Gas Z : Produced by incomplete combustion of fuels. acid rain. Identify gases X, Y and Z respectively on the basis of the given properties. (B) SO2, NOx, CO (C) NOx, SO2, CO (D) H2, SO2, CO (A) CO2, H2, SO2 31. Two particles X and Y have the composition as shown in the table. The particles X and Y are Particle Number of (A) Metal atoms electrons (B) Non-metal atoms X 10 (C) Negative ions Y 18 (D) Positive ions

Number of

Number of

neutrons

protons

8

8

18

17

32. Mark the correct sequence of substances obtained during fractional distillation of petroleum in

ascending order of their boiling points. (A) Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Petrol, Diesel, Paraffin wax (B) Petrol, Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Light oil, Diesel (C) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil (D) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Lubricating oil, Diesel, Kerosene

33.

Read the following statements and mark the correct answer. I. Artificially prepared synthetic fibre which resembles silk is known as terylene. II. Rayon is not considered as a synthetic fibre as it is regenerated from cellulose. III. PET bottles and jars are made up of polyesters. (A) Statement I is false, II and III are true. (B) Statement I is true, II and III are false. (C) Statements I and II are false, III is true. (D) Statement II is true, I and III are false.

34. A piece of charcoal is burnt and kept in a watch glass. The burning charcoal is covered by an inverted gas jar. It is observed that the charcoal stops burning after some time. Take out the jar and add some water to it. Test the solution

with red and blue litmus paper. What do you observe? (A) Solution turns red litmus blue, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was basic oxide. (B) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was acidic oxide. (C) Solution does not change the colour of litmus paper, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was neutral. (D) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was basic oxide.

35. The relative atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is not a whole number. What is the reason

for this? (A) Chlorine atoms can have different numbers of neutrons. (B) Naturally occurring chlorine cannot be obtained pure. (C) Chlorine is unstable. (D) The mass of the electrons has been included.

15th NSO - SET A

6

36. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I (Mixture) Column-II (Technique used to separate the components)

(a) Ammonium chloride and salt

(i)



(b) Iron in its ore

(ii)



(c) Drugs in blood

(iii)



(d) Ethyl alcohol and water

(iv)



(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)



(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

37. The given diagram shows a boat made from iron. Some magnesium blocks are attached to the iron below the water line to prevent rusting. Why?

(A) Magnesium reacts in preference to the iron.



(B) The magnesium forms an alloy with the iron.



(C) Magnesium reacts to form a protective coating of magnesium hydroxide on the iron.



(D) The magnesium stops oxygen in the water from getting to the iron.

38.

Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features? (A) Presence of two layers of membrane (B) Presence of green pigments (C) Presence of DNA (D) Plastids are present in plant cell while mitochondria are present in animal cell.

39.

Given below are four statements regarding external fertilization. (i) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously. (ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium. (iii) Water is the medium of fertilization in majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization. (iv) Offsprings developed from external fertilization have better chances of survival than those developed from internal fertilization. Which of the given statements are correct?



(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iii)

(i)_ or by a machine called ___ (ii)_ . In the 40. Harvesting in our country is either done manually by ___ (iii) next step, the grain seeds are separated from the cut crop. This process is called _____ . This is (iv) carried out with the help of a machine called ___ __. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above paragraph. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Hoe Cultivator Winnowing Combine (B) Sickle Cultivator Threshing Seed drill (C) Hoe Harvester Winnowing Seed drill (D) Sickle Harvester Threshing Combine

15th NSO - SET A

41.

7

Select the incorrect statement regarding AIDS. (A) It is an immunodeficiency disease. (B) HIV has RNA as its genetic material. (C) AIDS can be transmitted to an infant from the infected mother through her milk. (D) The time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from week to month.

42. Which of the following options is correct about India alligator and Indian giant squirrel? (A) Both are examples of extinct species. (B) Both are found in Satpura National Park. (C) Both are examples of endemic species. (D) Both are examples of exotic species. 43. Inorganic fertilizers are applied each year to fields bordering a lake. The fertilizers run off into the lake and cause the following six changes which together cause high mortality of fishes. (i) Aerobic bacteria feed on dead plants. (ii) Algae reproduce faster. (iii) Light cannot penetrate the water. (iv) Oxygen level falls. (v) Water becomes green. (vi) Plants under water die. Which of the following shows the correct order of the changes taking place? (A) (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) (B) (ii) → (v) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (C) (v) → (ii) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (D) (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (iv) → (vi) → (i) 44. The given box contains some diseases caused by different pathogens such as bacteria, virus, fungi and protozoa. (i) Typhoid, (ii) Athlete’s foot, (iii) Tuberculosis, (iv) Anthrax,

(v) Malaria,

(vi) Common cold, (vii) Amoebic dysentery, (viii) Yellow vein mosaic, (ix) Influenza, (x) Pneumonia

Which of the following shows the correct category of diseases and their causative agents? Viral Protozoan Bacterial Fungal (A) (vi) (vii) (iv) (ii) (B) (i) (vi) (iv) (iii) (C) (v) (viii) (x) (ii) (D) (x) (vi) (ix) (iii)

45. Leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion all have segmented body organization, but still they cannot be classified in one group. Which of the following is the correct basis for the classification of these organisms into different groups? (A) Leech and Nereis belong to the phylum annelida because they have metamerically segmented body. (B) Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion belong to phylum arthropoda, as they possess jointed appendages. (C) Leech, Nereis and Scolopendra belong to phylum annelida because they possess closed blood vascular system. (D) Both (A) and (B). 46.

Refer the given figure and read the following statements. (i) The part labelled P modifies into pseudopodia in WBC and helps in movement. (ii) The part labelled Q is absent in mature red blood cells in humans. P (iii) The parts labelled R and U help in production of energy. (iv) The part labelled S enlarges during maturity. Q (v) The part labelled T is spindle shaped with pointed ends in S muscle cells. T Which of the given statements are incorrect regarding this? R (A) (iii), (iv) and (v) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

U

47. Goitre can occur either due to hypothyroidism (endemic goitre) or hyperthyroidism (exophthalmic goitre). Which of the following is a correct comparison among the both? Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism (A) High body temperature Low body temperature (B) Low blood pressure High blood pressure (C) Increased appetite Bulging of eye balls (D) Bulging of eyeballs Tendency towards obesity

15th NSO - SET A

49.

Given below are some characteristics of vessels and tracheids. (i) Multicellular with wide lumen (ii) Dead cells (iii) Cell walls are lignified (iv) Discontinuous lumen due to presence of end walls (v) Long, cylindrical tube-like structure (vi) Elongated cells with tapering ends Categorize the above characteristics with vessels (X) and tracheids (Y) and select the correct option. (A) X – (i), (ii), (iii), (v); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi) (B) X – (i), (iii), (vi); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) X – (i), (iv), (v); Y – (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (D) X – (i), (ii), (v), (vi); Y – (i), (iii), (iv), (vi) Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure? (A) It is a type of cropping pattern called intercropping. (B) The given cropping pattern increases the productivity of crops per unit area. (C) The given cropping pattern helps in maintaining soil fertility and makes better use of resources. (D) None of these.

50. An ecologist studied the effects of sewage effluent on the levels of oxygen concentration, bacterial population and algal growth in a fresh water stream. The given graph is plotted based on his findings.





Increase (arbitrary unit)

48.

8

Select the correct statement regarding the given graph. (A) There is a fall in oxygen concentration between 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 point Y and 4 km downstream because it is utilized Point Y Distance down the stream (km) by algae for respiration during day. (Entry Oxygen concentration Key: of (B) There is a rise in oxygen concentration between 4 km Sewage) Algae and 8 km downstream because bacterial usage of oxygen Bacteria for respiration is lower. (C) Bacterial population never recovers from 8 km onwards because all the oxygen is used up by algae. (D) There is decrease in the level of bacteria between 5 km and 7 km downstream because all the oxygen and organic matter has been used up by algal population. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 9 15th

Set B Year 2012

15th NSO - SET B

1

meNtal ability 1. The value of

(A) 1

1 1 1 1 1 is _________. − + − + 3− 8 8− 7 7− 6 6− 5 5 −2 (B) 2 (C) 0

(D) 5

2. Read the information carefully, then use it to answer the question that follows: I. Rahul, Mohit, Rohit, Amit and Karan all collect stamps. II. Rahul has twice as many as Mohit. III. Amit and Karan have the same number. IV. Rohit has fewer than Amit. V. Mohit has half as many as Rohit. If the above statements are true, only one of the sentences below must be true. Which one is true? (A) Rohit and Karan have same number of stamps. (B) Mohit has more stamps than Amit. (C) Rahul has fewer stamps than Amit. (D) Rahul have as many stamps as Mohit. 3.

Given that 6x3 + 5ax – 12a leaves a remainder of – 4 when divided by (x – a), the possible value of a is _______.



(A) –2

(B)

1 2

(C) −

2 3

(D) Both (A) and (B)

4. Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to one another in the form of a/an _______ . (A) Axiom (B) Definition (C) Postulate (D) Proof 5.

Which of the following options will replace the question mark in the figure matrix?



(A)



(B)



(C)



(D)

?

6. If the code of ROUTINE is VMRGFLI, then the code of CRUELTY is _______. (A) VPVCZRL (B) VPCVZRL (C) WPCVZRL (D) None of these 7.

In the given figure, if AB ^ BC, then x = _______ .     



(A) 18°



(B) 22°



(C) 25°



(D) 32°

8.

The given question consists of two sets of figures. Figures (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) constitute the Problem Set. There is a definite relationship between figures (i) and (ii). Establish a similar relationship between figures (iii) and (iv) by selecting a suitable figure from the options that would replace (?) in figure (iv).



(A)

S



(B)

S G



(C)

S



(D)

S

9. A square ABCD has an equilateral triangle drawn on the side AB (interior of the square). The

triangle has vertex at G. What is the measure of the angle DGC? (A) 160° (B) 150° (C) 75°

(D) 90°

15th NSO - SET B

2

10. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle with co-ordinates of B and C as B(–3, 0) and C(3, 0). The co-ordinates of the vertex A are _______.

(A) (0, 3 3)



(B) (0, 3)



(C) ( 3, 3)



(D) (3 3, 0)

11. The area of a rhombus whose perimeter is 80 m and one of whose diagonal is 24 m is _______. (B) 384 m2 (C) 483 m2 (D) 463 m2 (A) 364 m2 12. Decimal expansion of a rational number cannot be ________. (A) Non-terminating and non-recurring (B) Non-terminating and recurring (C) Terminating (D) None of these 13. If the markup percentage of an article is 50% and discount is also 20%, then the profit percentage

will be _______ . (A) 10%

(B) 0%

(C) 30%

(D) 20%

14. In the given figure, if AB || CD then the measure of x is ________.   

(A) 28°



(B) 18°



(C) 10°



(D) 15°

15. P and Q invest some amount under S.I. and C.I. respectively but for the same period at 6% per annum. Each gets a total amount of ` 65,000 at the end of 6 years. Which of the following is definitely true? (i) Q's initial principal is less than that of P. (ii) Q's initial principal is equal to that of P. (iii) P's percentage earnings is less than that of Q. (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (iii) only (D) None of these

Science 16. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.

Statement 1 : If an earth satellite moves to a lower orbit, the speed of satellite increases.



Statement 2 : The speed of satellite is a constant quantity for all orbits of earth. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

17. Ships use sound waves to find the vertical distance to the seabed. A pulse of sound waves is sent out and the echoes are detected. A ship emits a pulse of waves lasting 0.50 s. The waves have a

frequency of 3600 Hz. How many complete wavelengths does the pulse contain? (A) 1800 (B) 3600 (C) 7200 (D) 18000

18. The given apparatus shows a heavy piston supported by gas trapped in a cylinder. The cross-sectional area of the piston is 4.0 × 10–4 m2 . The pressure of the gas inside the cylinder is 1.5 × 105 Pa and atmospheric pressure is 1.0 × 105 Pa. Find the mass of the piston (Take g = 10 m s–2). (A) 1 kg (B) 2 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg

15th NSO - SET B

3

19. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a function of time t is given by



(A)

1 v  2 m t 2  t1 

v  (B) m   t 2  t1 

2

(C)

1  mv  2 t 2  t1 

(D)

t  1 mv 2   2  t1 

2

20. The distance of a particle as a function of time is shown here. The graph indicates that (A) The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops (B) The velocity of the particle is constant throughout (C) The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout in the direction of motion (D) The particle starts with some constant velocity, the motion is accelerated, and finally the particle moves with some constant velocity 21. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of

400 m in 20 s. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes. (A) 7000 N (B) 14000 N (C) 28000 N

(D) 3500 N

22. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure. A ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at angle q to the normal. For



what value of q the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection from

the vertical mirror? (A) 60° only

(B) 30° only

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

23. Two identical balls are at rest side by side at the bottom of a hill. Sometime after ball A is kicked up the hill, ball B is given a kick up the hill. Ball A is headed downhill when it passes ball B

headed up the hill. At the instant when ball A passes ball B, it has the same _______. (A) Position and velocity as ball B (B) Position and acceleration as ball B (C) Velocity and acceleration as ball B (D) Displacement and velocity as ball B

24. A boy dropped a stone in a well 45 m deep. If speed of sound is 340 m s–1, then after how much

26. A manometer is connected to a gas supply. Pressure can be measured in cm of water. The pressure of the gas is (A) 8 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure (B) 12 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure (C) 8 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure (D) 12 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure

(D) 10 m s–1 Connected to gas supply

Air

Water

4 cm

25. A ball of mass 200 g is thrown with a speed of 20 m s–1. The ball strikes a bat and rebounds along the same line at a speed of 40 m s–1. Variation of the interaction force, as long as the ball remains in contact with the bat is as shown in the figure. What is the speed of the ball at the instant the force acting on it is, maximum? (B) 30 m s–1 (C) 20 m s–1 (A) 40 m s–1

(D) 4.13 s

8 cm



time, he will hear the splash ? (Take g = 10 m s–2). (A) 1.13 s (B) 2.13 s (C) 3.13 s

27. Which of the following reasons is true about the electric charge acquired by cloud? (A) By the ultraviolet rays of sun falls on them. (B) Air molecules rub against water molecules. (C) Cold currents of air rub against hot currents of water. (D) Both (B) and (C)

15th NSO - SET B

4

28. See the figure given below and select the correct statements regarding polymers.



1. 2.



3. Figure (X) shows structure of a linear polymer while (Y) shows structure of a cross-linked polymer. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) All are correct.

Figure (X) shows structure of a monomer while figure (Y) shows structure of a polymer. Small boxes in the structure represent monomers which are joined to give a polymer.

29. The graph shows the change in temperature with time when ice at –20°C is heated to 120°C.

Which entry in the options shows the correct change

taking place between the points? Points Change (A) P to Q Average energy of particles remains constant (B) Q to R Ice melting (C) R to S The volume of steam is increasing (D) T to U Water boiling 30. Ritwik was given four inflammable substances P, Q, Substance R and S. He was asked to hand over them to Ramesh P who was the resident of an hot area (temperature 46°C). Q Ritwik collected the data about the substances as shown R in the table. Which substances Ritwik should not carry to the hot S area where Ramesh lives? (A) P and Q (B) R and S (C) P and S

Ignition temperature 40°C 38°C 52°C 59°C (D) P, Q, R and S

31. Geeta poured 20 g of salt into 200 mL of water in a beaker. She stirred the water to dissolve the salt completely. Then she heated the solution until it was reduced to half. How many grams of salt can be recovered from the remaining solution?

(A) 0 g (C) 20 g

Salt solution

(B) 10 g (D) 40 g

Bunsen burner

32. Each beaker contains two metal strips of same size fastened together and immersed in hydrochloric acid. After 5 minutes, which beaker contains the least amount of zinc ions?



(A)

(B)



(C)



(D)

33. A spoon is kept in contact with ice cubes for sometime. Later, the same spoon was held over the flame of a candle. The figure shows the observation. What do you infer from the figure? (A) Spoon is an inflammable substance. (B) Burning of candle is a spontaneous process. (C) CO2 is a product of combustion. (D) Water vapour is a product of combustion.

15th NSO - SET B

5

34. Select the incorrect statements among the following. (i) Bitumen is used for metalling the roads. (ii) Some inexhaustible natural resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas formed from the dead remains of living organisms are known as fossil fuels. (iii) Many useful substances are obtained from coal (commercial importance), so it is also called as 'Black gold'. (iv) Natural gas is used as a starting material for the manufacture of a number of chemicals and fertilizers. (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) 35. Which element has the greatest number of electrons in the outermost shell (energy level) of its atoms? (A) Fluorine (B) Helium (C) Lithium (D) Potassium 36. The given figure illustrates three experimental set up X, Y and Z to investigate the sacrificial protection of iron.

Water Iron nail Copper

In which test-tube(s) will the iron rust? (A) X only (B) Y only (C) X and Z (D) Y and Z

(X)

Water Iron nail Magnesium (Y)

Water Iron nail Zinc (Z)

37. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?

(A) 28

(B) 44

(C) 72

(D) 99NTAL

ABILITY

38. Ali performed an experiment in which he put two different cells P and Q in pure water. Cell P swelled up and burst eventually while cell Q became tight and firm but did not burst. Which of the following is the most appropriate inference? (A) Cell sap of cell P is isotonic to the pure water. (B) Cell sap of cell Q is isotonic to pure water. (C) Cell P has been obtained from a plant. (D) Cell Q is a bacterium. 39.

Observe the given figures of three different plant tissues and select the correct option. (A) 'a' and 'b' consist of living cells while 'c' consists of dead cells. (B) Cytoplasm is present in cells of 'a' while it is absent in cells of 'b' and 'c'. (C) Cell walls of 'a', 'b' and 'c' bear uniform thickening of suberin. (D) 'a' provides mechanical strength to the plant while 'b' and 'c' serve as storage tissues.

40. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z? W X Y Z (A) Ulothrix Marsilea Selaginella Cycas (B) Riccia Marsilea Cycas Ipomoea (C) Lycopodium Marchantia Pinus Ipomoea (D) Spirogyra Dryopteris Funaria Pinus 41. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Hepatitis (i) Ulcers in stomach and duodenum (b) Typhoid (ii) Reduction in natural immunity of the body (c) Helicobacter pylori (iii) TAB vaccine (d) AIDS (iv) Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest (e) Lyssavirus (v) Acute inflammation of liver caused by virus (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), c-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), c-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v) (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), c-(iii), (d)-(v), (e)-(i)

15th NSO - SET B

6

42. The given cycle represents circulation of nitrogen in

the environment. Identify X, Y and Z in the cycle and select the correct option.



(A) X - Denitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Nitrogen fixation



(B) X - Nitrate, Y - Denitrification, Z - Ammonification



(C) X - Nitrate, Y - Nitrogen fixation, Z - Ammonification



(D) X - Nitrification, Y - Ammonification, Z - Denitrification

43. Complete the given statements by selecting the correct words from the options given below. (i)_ is a traditional method of irrigation. (a) ___ (b) __(ii) ___ is a common weedicide. (iii) (c) In ________, water escapes from revolving nozzle and falls like rain on the crops.

(iv) (d) __ ___ is a technique for developing new varieties of crops by cross-breeding two different varieties. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Dhekli Agent orange Drip irrigation Broadcasting (B) Dhekli DDT Chain pump Crop rotation (C) Rahat Siniazine Moat Mixed cropping (D) Rahat Metachlor Sprinkler system Hybridization 44. Read the following statements about four kinds of microorganisms P, Q, R and S.

(i) P converts milk into curd.



(ii) Q is used for making antibiotics.



(iii) R contains RNA as genetic material and causes reduction in immunity of its host.



(iv) S is used to manufacture wine and beer.



Identify P, Q, R and S and select the correct option. (A) P is yeast and R is HIV. (B) Q is Lactobacillus and R is yeast. (C) P is Lactobacillus and Q is Penicillium. (D) Q is HIV and S is yeast.

45. Rohan conducted an experiment in which two visking tubes A and B made up of semi-permeable membrane were filled with starch solution and kept in two separate test tubes containing water. These test tubes were then placed in water bath. Fresh saliva was added to visking tube A and boiled saliva was added to visking tube B. What result he would most likely obtain after 10 minutes of conducting experiment? (A) Starch will be found outside visking tube A. (C) Starch will be found outside visking tube B.

(B) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube B. (D) Maltose sugar will be found outside visking tube A.

46. The menstrual period of a woman, having regular 28 days, started on March 1st . When is she most likely to ovulate and when will her next menstrual period start? Ovulation Menstrual period March 21st (A) March 7th th (B) March 14 March 29th (C) March 10th March 26th th (D) March 14 April 4th

15th NSO - SET B

7



(A) X represents male and Z represents female.



(B) Z represents male and X represents female.



(C) Y represents male and Z represents female.



(D) Z represents male and Y represents female.

48. The given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. The river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________.

(A) P



(C) R

(B) Q



(D) S

Amount of pollutants

47. The given Venn diagram represents the changes that occur at puberty in adolescents. Which of the following options is correct regarding this?

Q S

R

P Number of years

49. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Extensive use of fossil fuels poses dual problem, it increases air pollution and depletes fuel resources. Statement 2 : Fossil fuels release oxides of nitrogen and sulphur on burning that cause acid rain and smog. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. 50. The given graph shows changes in concentration of two substances X and Y in a river polluted by sewage. Which of the following options most appropriately identifies X and Y? (A) X-Carbon dioxide, Y-Nitrogen compounds (B) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Carbon dioxide (C) X-Nitrogen compounds; Y-Oxygen (D) X-Oxygen; Y-Nitrogen compounds SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 9 16th

Set A Year 2013

Mental Ability 1.

If a = 0.1001000100001... and b = 0.101001000100001......, then which of the following is true? A. a and b are both irrational numbers and a > b. B. Two irrational numbers between a and b are 0.1002000100001000001... and 0.10021001000100001... . C. a and b both are rational numbers and a < b. D. None of these

7.

8.



The polynomials ay 3 + 3y 2 – 3 and 2y 3 – 5y + a when divided by (y – 4) leaves the remainder P1 and P2 respectively. Find the sum of digits of denominator of a if 2P1 – P2 = 0. A. 9 B. 10 C. 8 D. 127



3.

If a3 + b 3 + c 3 = 3abc and a + b + c = 0, then

9.



(b + c) 2 (c + a ) 2 (a + b) 2 + + =? 3bc 3ac 3ab A. 0 B. 1 C. – 1 D. Not defined

2.

4.

5. 6.



Garima, Latika and Priya are standing at the corners of an equilateral triangle drawn in an open farm.

N W

Select the correct answer. The three steps from solids to points are A. Solids – surfaces – lines – points B. Solids – lines – surfaces – points C. Solids – surfaces – elements – points D. Solids – elements – surfaces – points V

In the given figure, TR || VS, TU || RS, ∠RPQ is twice of ∠UVS, then find a + b. 165º 185º 225º 155º

In a certain code language te da ka ni means intelligence is in genes, se po lo ni means genes are not responsible and ba da fu te means intelligence is through experience. What does ka stand for in that code language? A. genes B. through C. intelligence D. in

Garima

A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to form cones, each of height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. The number of cones is A. 450 B. 1350 C. 4500 D. 13500

A. B. C. D.

Select the correct match for the statement. In DPQR, ∠P = 70º, ∠R = 30º, then A. PQ > PR as ∠P > ∠R B. PQ > QR as ∠P > ∠R C. QR > PR as ∠Q > ∠R D. PR > PQ as ∠Q is the greatest, greater angle has longer side opposite to it.

b T

25º

U

S

90º

R P

a

Q

E S

Latika



Priya

If they run along the sides in clockwise direction 1 and stop after covering sides 1 . Now which of 2 the following statements is true? A. Latika is to the west of Priya. B. Garima is to the south-west of Latika. C. Garima is to the south-west of Priya. D. Latika is to the north-west of Garima.

10. Study the following information to answer the given question: (i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing centre. (ii) F is between A and D. (iii) C is between E and B. (iv) E is not between D and C. (v) D is second to the left of C. Which of the following is D's position? A. Second to the right of A B. Next to the right of B C. Third to the left of B D. Fourth to the right of A

16th NSO - 2013

2

11. How many m's are preceded and followed by m? mnmnnmmnmnmmmuumnmnnmmmn A. 1 B. 2 C. None D. 3 12. Which of the following figures will complete the series given below?



A.



B.



C.



D.



of origin are _______ as point is _______. A. (– 5, 6), (– abscissa, – ordinate) B. (5, 6), (ordinate, – abscissa) C. (– 5, – 6), (abscissa, – ordinate) D. (5, – 6), (abscissa, ordinate)

14. If the sides of a triangle are 60 m, 100 m, 140 m then length of the longest altitude is

A.



C.

50 3 m 50 3 m 6

B.

500 3 m

D.

80 3 m

15. Four views of a cube are given below. Which symbol will be opposite to ?

1

13. The co-ordinates of a point whose ordinate is 6 units below of origin and abscissa is 5 units right



A. C.



2

3

4

B. D.

Science 16. A car covers one-third of its journey with speed x, next one-third with speed y and the last one-third with speed z. The average speed of the body during the entire journey is 2xyz A. xy + yz + xz

B.

3xyz xy + yz + xz



C.

xyz xy + yz + xz



D.

3( x + y + z ) xyz

19. A girl stands between the two walls and claps her hands as shown in the figure. If S is less than 60 m and the time between the first and the second echo is 0.25 s, then find the value of S. Velocity of sound in air is 344 m s–1.

17. The diagram shows a wave on a string with two points A and B marked on the string. If the wave is moving in the direction as shown then what will happen next ?



A. B. C. D.

A A B B

will will will will

move move move move



10 push-ups in 30 s. Find his average power output during this time interval. A. 5 W B. 15 W C. 50 W D. 500 W

to the right up to the right up

18. An athlete is doing push-ups. He applies a force of 300 N as he pushes up a distance of 0.5 m. He does



A.

17 m



B.

25 m



C.

29 m



D.

35 m

20. A motor cycle and a car are moving on a horizontal road with the same velocity. If they are brought to rest by the application of brakes, which provided equal retardation, then

A.

Motor cycle will stop at shorter distance



B.

Car will stop at a shorter distance



C.

Both will stop at the same distance



D.

Nothing can be predicted.

16th NSO - 2013

3

21. Three plane mirrors are mounted on the three walls forming an isosceles right triangle as shown in the figure. How many images of object A are formed in all?

A.

5



B.

6



C.

7



D.

8

A.



Statement 1 : A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has attained a certain height in the sky. Statement 2 : The atmospheric pressure decreases with height and becomes zero when maximum height is attained. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

23. A cluster of clouds at a height of 1000 m above the earth burst and enough rain fell to cover an area of 106 m2 with a depth of 2 cm. How much work have been done in raising water to the height of clouds. (Take g = 9.8 m s–2 and density of water = 103 kg m–3)

A. B. C. D.

1.96 × 1011 J 1.96 × 109 J 1.5 × 1011 J 2.5 × 1013 J

24. A block of mass M is supported by a cord A from a rigid support and another cord B is attached to the bottom of the block as shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is correct ? A. If you give a sudden jerk to B, it will break. B. If you give a sudden jerk to B, A will break. C. If you pull on B steadily, chord B will break. D. Both options A and C are correct. 25. Which of the following graphs between the square of the time period and cube of the distance of planet from the sun is correct ?



B.

22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.



C.







D. 26. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) A fibre obtained by (i) Melamine chemical treatment of wood pulp. (b) A fibre stronger (ii) Acrylic than steel wire (c) A fibre known as (iii) Rayon artificial wool (d) A fire-proof plastic (iv) Nylon A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 27. A flask containing a liquid X is heated until it boils as shown in the figure.

Heat





Choose the incorrect statement about the particles of the substance during the process. A. Energy is absorbed by particles in the liquid X. B. The particles loss kinetic energy. C. Eventually, the particles throughout the liquid have enough energy to overcome the forces holding them together. D. Both A and B

16th NSO - 2013

4

28. Nandita has a substance Y which boils at 388 K and is immiscible with water. Y does not react with water. Which of the following separation methods will Nandita adopt to separate Y from a mixture containing another substance Z which boils at 278 K? (Both Y and Z are miscible).

31. In Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment, a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°. What did he conclude from this observation? A. All the positive charge and mass of the atom occupy very little space. B. Most of the space inside the atom is empty. C. All the positive charge and mass of the atom were concentrated in a very small volume. D. Both A and B.

A.



B.



32. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Hottest zone (i) Zone of unburnt wax of candle flame vapours (b) Yellow zone of (ii) Non-luminous zone candle flame (c) Black innermost (iii) Incomplete zone of the candle combustion zone flame A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii) C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii) D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)



C.







D.



30. An element L has 9 protons and its valency is 1. Another element M has valency 3 and 5. What is the difference in the number of electrons in L and M? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3



29. In a science project, Aditya has to make a chart, illustrating various elements and their atomicity. Aditya decided to show elements of different atomicity by different shapes. Monoatomic → Diatomic

→

Triatomic

→

Tetratomic

→

33. Naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are obtained from X . These days, Y , a petroleum product, is used in place of X for metalling the roads. What are X and Y respectively ? A. Coke, coal B. Coal, coke C. Bitumen, coal tar D. Coal tar, bitumen 34. Schematic atomic structures of three elements are given below.

Polyatomic → Pick the element which is shown incorrectly.

A.

Cl



C.

P



B. D.

Al S



Which of the following is the correct formula of the compound formed by the given three elements ? A. Na3PO4 B. Na2CO3 C. Na2SO4 D. Na2SO3

16th NSO - 2013

5

35. Refer the given figure and select the correct option regarding it. P Q



B.



C.



D.

Using radiation technology to kill certain pathogens Exposure of food to extremely low temperature to retard growth of microorganisms Exposure of food to 70°C for short period and then cooling it quickly to destroy harmful microbes.

R S



A.



B. C.



D.

P are dead sclerenchyma fibres that provide mechanical strength. Q helps in maintaining pressure gradient. R is the main conducting part of the phloem formed of cylindrical cells. S is living parenchyma cell that stores food.

36. Study the following table regarding different species and their status. Select the correct option for a-e. Status Species a Passenger pigeon Endemic b Critically endangered c d Giant golden mole e Hippopotamus A. a - Extinct; b - Hog badger c - Thick billed parrot; d - Endangered e - Vulnerable B. a - Vulnerable; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct e - Endangered C. a - Endangered; b - Hog badger c - Thick billed parrot; d - Vulnerable e - Extinct D. a - Extinct; b - Thick billed parrot c - Hog badger; d - Extinct e - Endangered 37. Agricultural fields must maintain their fertility in order to keep up productivity. Which among the following is the most effective method that farmers can adopt to keep the soil fertile? A. Repeatedly growing the same crop in the field. B. Providing adequate irrigation facilities and drainage system. C. Regular tilling of the field so that it holds more air and water. D. Rotating crops in the field. 38. Pasteurization is a technique for food preservation which was invented in 1862. It mainly involves A. Exposure of food to high temperature (around 135°C) to inactivate enzymes that spoil the food during storage

39. Read the following characteristics of an organism. (i) Soft, dorsoventrally flattened, leaf-like body. (ii) Head lobe bears mouth surrounded by oral sucker. (iii) Absence of digestive system and sense organs. (iv) Presence of excretory pore at the posterior end of the body. (v) Considerable osmotic adaptability. Based on the above characteristics, identify the animal and select the correct option. A. Taenia solium B. Fasciola hepatica C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Leucosolenia 40. Acid rain is produced when rain mixes with gases such as sulphur dioxide. This will eventually result in A. Lowering of pH and changes of temperature in ponds B. Raising of pH in ponds, encouraging growth of microorganisms C. Lowering of pH in ponds, limiting survival of aquatic organisms D. Raising of pH in ponds, limiting development of organisms. 41. Mrs. Mehra, who is 32 years old, underwent a surgery to get her oviducts removed after having girl. Now she wants to have another baby. Do you think she can have another baby? A. Yes, she can have another baby as her ovaries are still functional to produce eggs. B. No, she cannot have another baby because fertilization of egg takes place in the oviduct. C. Yes, she can have another baby because the surgery can be reversed. D. No, she cannot have another baby as the hormones associated with the oviduct will not be present. 42. Bio fuels are the fuels which are obtained from plants. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this? A. Seeds of the plant Jatropha yield oil and are used to make bio-diesel. B. Jatropha is a cultivated plant which requires only certain specific soil to grow and also requires much irrigation. C. Bio-fuels are an environment-friendly alternative to fossil fuels. D. Animals usually do not eat the plant Jatropha.

16th NSO - 2013

6

43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.



B.

Column-I Column-II (a) Infectious disease causing (i) AIDS ulceration and inflammation of intestinal tract (b) Rapid and uncontrolled (ii) Chicken pox growth of cells (c) Infection of respiratory (iii) Typhoid system causing inflammation of lungs (d) Communicable disease (iv) Cancer characterised by itchy rashes and vesicles on body (e) Viral infection leading to (v) Pneumonia severely low immunity A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv), (e) - (v) B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (v), (e) - (i) C. (a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii), (e) - (i)



C.

44. Anaya took a few stalks of celery and immersed them in solution X. After 10 minutes the stalks became swollen. Similarly she immersed some celery stalks in solution Y, which after 10 minutes became shrunken. What can you deduce from this observation? A. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is hypertonic for celery stalks.



D.

Solution X is hypertonic, while solution Y is hypotonic for celery stalks. Solution X is isotonic, while solution Y is hypertonic for celery stalks. Solution X is hypotonic, while solution Y is isotonic for celery stalks.

45. Fill up the blanks and select the correct option from the codes given below. (a)

(i) is decomposed mixture of cattle excreta and urine along with straw and fodder.

(b)

(ii) is made from vegetable wastes and animal wastes decomposed by aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms.

(c)

(iii) is prepared by sowing certain crop seeds and then ploughing them back in the soil.

(d)

(iv) is made by decomposition of plant and animal refuse with the help of earthworms.

(i) (ii) A. Vermi- Farmyard compost manure B. Farmyard Compost manure C. Green Compost manure D. Compost Green manure

(iii) (iv) Green Compost manure Green Vermimanure compost Farmyard Vermimanure compost Farmyard Vermimanure compost

Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. At present the primary nutrient which limits the agricultural yield is nitrogen (N). Some plants are capable to produce more N2 than they consume. These plants show symbiotic relationship with N2-fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium. These bacteria produce root nodules in leguminous plants and convert atmospheric N2 into nitrogenous compounds. Rhizobium bacteria are gram negative bacteria, which show host specificity and fix N2 in the presence of a red pigment called leghaemoglobin. It protects nitrogen fixing enzyme nitrogenase from oxygen. 46. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Leghaemoglobin functions as oxygen scavenger during N2 -fixation. B. Enzyme nitrogenase, which is required to fix atmospheric N2 is active in the presence as well as absence of oxygen.



C.



D.

N, P and K are referred to as critical elements for crop plants as they easily become deficient in soil due to higher plant requirement and repeated cultivation. The coordinated activities of the legume and Rhizobium bacteria depend on chemical interactions between the symbiotic partners.

47. Read the given statements and select the correct answer. Statement 1 : Rhizobium bacteria can also live freely in the soil and carry out N2-fixation by themselves. Statement 2 : Such Rhizobium bacteria are called free-living N2-fixing bacteria. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

16th NSO - 2013

7

48. The speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction is shown here. Three equal intervals of time are represented by 1, 2 and 3. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude?

A.

Interval 1



B.

Interval 2



C.

Interval 3



D.

Interval 1 and 3

49. Fill in the blanks : The effect of rotation of the earth is ______ at the equator and _______ at the poles. If the earth stops rotating, the weight of a body would ________ due to the absence of ________ force.



A. B. C. D.

Minimum, maximum, Maximum, minimum, Maximum, minimum, Minimum, maximum,

decreases, gravitational increases, centrifugal decreases, centrifugal increases, gravitational

50. Small pieces of different metals P, Q, R and S are dropped in beakers containing different reagents.



Identify the metals P, Q, R and S respectively. A. Zn, Mg, Ca, Cu B. Na, Cu, Mg, Ca C. Mg, Ca, Zn, Na D. Zn, Ca, Na, Mg

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 9 16th

Set B Year 2013

Mental Ability 1

1. 2.

3.

4.



5.

-1

Two positions of a dice are shown below. What will be the number of dots on the top of the dice if 5 is in the bottom? A. 5 B. 1 C. 6 D. 3 All the three quadrilaterals I, II and III are squares. If the area of I = x2 and area of II = y 2 (x2 > y 2), then the area of III is _____. A. 2x2 B. 2(x2 – y2) C. x2 + y2 D. x2 – y2 Which of the following options best indicates the logical relationship amongst the following three?





-1

a2 + a 2 1- a 2 Simplify : + 1- a 1+ a 1 A. 1- a B. 0 C. –1 2 D. 1- a

6.

If means ‘×’, D means ‘÷’,  means ‘+’, means ‘–’,  means ‘=’ and means ‘less than’, then which of the following is incorrect?



A.

10

37



B.

10

3



C.

10  7



D.

10

7.

Select the correct match.



C.



15 D 3

5

5

79

2

9D3

4

2

82

8D47

8

2

5

5

Column I

Column II

A.

Postulate III

A terminated line can be produced indefinitely.

B.

Postulate II

All right angles are equal to one another.

C.

Postulate IV

A circle can be drawn with any centre and any radius.

D.

Postulate I

A straight line may be drawn from any one point to any other point.

8.

Identify the option in which figure (x) is embedded.



A.

Figure (x)

“DOCTOR, MALE, ACTOR”

A.

4

4D25



B.



C.



D.

9.

If the sides BA and DC of quadrilateral ABCD are produced as shown in the given figure, then A. x + y = a + b B. x – y = a – b x- y C. =a–b 2 D. None of these

B.

D.

None of these

Which of the following is false? A. The x-coordinates of all points to the right of the y-axis are positive. B. The y-coordinates of all points above the x-axis are positive. C. The y-coordinates of all points below the x-axis are positive. D. The x-coordinates of all points to the left of the y-axis are negative.



16th NSO - SET B

2

10. Read the following information and answer the question given below it: A is the father of C. But C is not his son. E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of C. D is the son of B. G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G. Who is the son of F? A. B B. C C. D D. E 11. A statement (I) is given followed by a corresponding statement (II) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as ____. Statement-I : If the area of an equilateral triangle is 81 3 cm 2 , then the side of the triangle is 9 3 cm.



Statement-II : Area of an equilateral triangle is



3 2 a . (where a is side of the triangle). 4 A. If both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I). B. If both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I). C. If Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false. D. If Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.







12. If the day, two days after tomorrow be Thursday, what day would have been two days before yesterday? A. Friday B. Tuesday C. Thursday D. Wednesday 13. The radii of three cylindrical jars of equal height are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Second jar is full with water which is first poured into the first jar. After filling the first jar, water is poured into the third jar. Which of the following statements is true? A. Third jar is half full. B. Third jar is one third full. C. Third jar is two thirds full. D. Third jar is four ninths full. 14. Insert the missing number in the number pattern given below. A. 3.7 B. 3.8 C. 3.9 D. 3.1 15. What is the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 will be their average? 4 8 A. B. 10 10 3 5 C. D. 10 10

Science 16. The figure shows two horizontal forces acting on a block on a frictionless floor. If a third horizontal force F3 also acts on the block, what are the magnitude and left A. B. C. D.



direction of F3 when the block is moving to the with a constant speed of 5 m/s? 2 N leftward 2 N rightward 3N 5N 8 N leftward 8 N rightward

17. A bead starts sliding from A on a frictionless wire with initial velocity of 4 m s–1 as shown in figure. On reaching C, its velocity will be

A.

Zero



B.

2 m s–1



C.

4 m s–1

D.

8 m s–1



18. The velocity of a planet revolving around the sun at three different times of a year is shown in the figure. Which among the following alternatives is correct? v + v3 A. v2 = 1 2 v + v3 B. v1 = 2 2 C. v1 > v2 > v3 D. v1 < v2 < v3 19. In a hospital an ultrasonic scanner is used to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km s–1. The wavelength of sound in the tissue is approximately A. 4 × 10–4 m B. 2 × 10–4 m –6 C. 8 × 10 m D. 2 × 10–6 m

16th NSO - SET B 20. A small block B of mass 1 kg is placed on block A of mass 5 kg and length 20 cm as shown in figure. A constant horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block A. If all the surfaces are assumed frictionless and block B is at the right end of block A, then the time in which block B separates from A is 0.2 s



A. B.



C.

0.5 s 2s



D.

3s

21. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table. Statement-2 : For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

A.



B.



C. D.

Both statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1. Both statements-1 and 2 are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1. Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false. Both statements-1 and 2 are false.

22. The acceleration-time graph for a particle in rectilinear motion is as shown in the figure. Find the average acceleration in first twenty seconds.

3 24. A person is looking at the image of his face in a mirror by holding it close to his face. The image formed is virtual. When he moves the mirror away from his face, the image is inverted. What type of mirror is he using? A. Plane mirror B. Concave mirror C. Convex mirror D. Combination of mirror and lenses 25. The gravitational force between two masses kept in air at a certain distance is x N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them are same. The gravitational force between these masses in water is y N. Then A. x > y B. x < y C. x = y D. Can’t say 26. Different fabrics of same size, wet with same volume of water were left out in the sun for drying.



Arrange the fabrics in order of time taken to dry (from maximum to least). A. Polyester, cotton, acrylic, wool B. Wool, polyester, cotton, acrylic C. Wool, cotton, acrylic, polyester D. Cotton, wool, acrylic, polyester

27. Study the given flowchart carefully. P Y





A. B. C. D.

10 15 20 25

m m m m

–2

s s–2 s–2 s–2

23. A capillary tube C dipped in a liquid that wets it as shown in figure. If we blow air through the horizontal tube H, then what will happen to the liquid column in the capillary tube ?



A. B. C. D.

Level will fall below A. Level will rise above A. Level will remain at A. It is difficult to predict.

Plasma

Q Liquid

Sublimation

g

X



Freezin

Identify P, Q, X and Y respectively. A. Cooling, Vaporisation, Liquid, Gas B. Ionization, Condensation, Solid, Gas C. Heating, Melting, Solid, Liquid D. Sublimation, Freezing, Liquid, Solid

28. Incomplete combustion of fuels gives X. Burning of coal and diesel releases Y, which is an extremely suffocating and corrosive gas. Identify X and Y respectively. A. CO2 , NO2 B. NO2 , CO2 C. CO, SO2 D. SO2 , CO

16th NSO - SET B 29. Ruchi was given four unknown metals P, Q, R and S. She performed the following experiments to check the reactivity of the unknown metals.



If reaction occurred in only beaker 3, then which of the following metals is least reactive? A. P B. Q C. R D. S

30. Choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Natural gas is used as a starting material for the manufacture of a number of chemicals and fertilisers. B. Over millions of years, presence of air, high temperature and low pressure transformed the dead organisms into petroleum. C. Naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are obtained from coal tar. D. Minerals, coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc. are exhaustible natural resources.

4 32. Ranchi prepared a salt solution with concentration 11.2% (mass by mass percentage) in 320 g of water. Abhinav prepared a salt solution by dissolving the same amount of salt (as used by Ranchi), but in 180 g of water. What is the concentration (in mass by mass percentage) of the solution prepared by Abhinav? A. 24.2% B. 19.9% C. 23.8% D. 18.3% 33. Richa has 144 g of ozone, Naina has 0.2 mol of P4 while Ankur has 36.02 × 1023 molecules of N2 . Which of the following is the correct order of number of electrons they have? A. Ankur < Naina < Richa B. Naina < Richa < Ankur C. Ankur < Richa < Naina D. Richa < Ankur < Naina 34. There are four species P, Q, R and S with compositions as given below.



Protons Neutrons Electrons 12 12 10 P 13 14 10 Q 17 18 18 R 16 16 18 S Which of the following forms a compound with X 2Y3 type formula? A. P and Q B. P and R C. Q and R D. Q and S

35. Study the experimental set up shown below.

31. Which of the following statements is correct about the given graph?





A.



B.



C.



D.

Temperature remains same during the change of state. QR represents latent heat of fusion while ST represents latent heat of vaporisation. At QR, substance exists in both solid and liquid states while at ST, it exists in both liquid and gaseous states. All the statements are true.



Which of the following statements is correct regarding the observations made, after the two visking tubes P and Q were placed in dilute iodine solution for 10 minutes? [Key : Visking tube allows the molecules of iodine to pass through it.] A. Solution in visking tube P turns blue-black B. Solution in visking tube Q turns blue-black C. Solution in both the visking tubes P and Q turns blue-black D. Solution in neither of the visking tubes turns blue-black.

16th NSO - SET B

5

36. Acid rain occurs when sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with water vapours in atmosphere and fall as rain. Which of the following is not caused by acid rain? A. Decreased quality of air B. Reduced growth of forests C. Reduced pH of water bodies D. Destruction of marble buildings 37. Read the following differences between lymph and blood. Lymph (i)

Blood

It consists of plasma It consists of plasma, and leucocytes only. e r y t h r o c y t e s a n d platelets only.

(ii)

The concentration of The concentration glucose is higher in of glucose is less in lymph. blood.

(iii)

Amount of metabolic Amount of metabolic wastes is normal. wastes is much more.

(iv)

Its plasma has fewer Its plasma has more proteins, calcium and proteins, calcium and phosphorus. phosphorus.



Which of these difference is/are incorrect?



A.

(i) and (iii)



B. C. D.

(ii) only (iii) only (ii) and (iv)

38. ______ were the first group of animals to evolve lung tissue requisite to support their respiratory needs without the use of supplementary organs. A. Trematoda B. Amphibians C. Reptiles D. Aves 39. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II P. Brown algae (i) Anabaena Q. Blue-green algae (ii) Gelidium R. Green algae (iii) Sargassum S. Red algae (iv) Chlamydomonas

A. B. C. D.

P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)

40. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : Shivam, an environmental researcher, is working in the buffer zone of a biosphere reserve where limited human activity is allowed. Statement-2 : Buffer zone provides space for settlements, farming, fisheries, research and recreation. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. 41. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Dolly, the clone? A. Dolly was developed from a cell taken from mammary gland of Scottish blackface ewe and an unfertilised egg obtained from Finn Dorsett sheep. B. The egg produced by the fusion was implanted into Scottish blackface ewe. C. Dolly was identical to Fin Dorsett sheep and was called its clone. D. None of the above. 42. Study the following table about microorganisms and their role in nitrogen fixation. Select the option that best suits (i)-(iv). Microorganism (i) Nitrosococcus Nitrocystis (iv)

(i)

Role in nitrogen cycle Conversion of nitrate to free nitrogen (ii) (iii) Conversion of free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds

(ii)

A. Pseudomonas Conversion of ammonia to nitrites

B. Pseudomonas

(iii)

(iv)

Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

Rhizobium

Conversion Conversion of dead plant of ammonia protein to to nitrites ammonia

Penicillium

Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

Conversion of nitrate to nitrite

Nitrobacter

D. Azotobacter Conversion of nitrate to nitrite

Conversion of dead plant protein to

Nitrosomonas



ammonia

C.

Azotobacter



16th NSO - SET B

6

43. Refer the given figures and select the correct statement.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

44. Select the option which has the complete set of fresh-water fishes. A. Rohu, Calbasu, Sardine, Eel B. Sanghara, Hilsa, Salmon, Pomphrets C. Mrigal, Catla, Malhi, Rohu D. Mackerels, Tuna, Bombay duck, Flatfish 45. Which of the following statements is correct about the lack of organelles in prokaryotes?

A.

(i) lives in large intestine of humans and infection occurs by ingesting cysts alongwith food and water.

A.

The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that their basic cellular processes are different from eukaryotes.

B.

(ii) lives in blood plasma, enters cerebrospinal fluid and damages the brain.

B.

It suggests that the amount of DNA remains the same throughout the life cycle.

C.

(iii) lives in small intestine of humans and infection occurs by injesting soil infected with its eggs.

C.

Absence of organelles in prokaryotes means that they cannot perform the function of photosynthesis.

D.

(iv) lives in lungs of humans and infection occurs by eating infected pork.

D.

It suggests that they contain more variety of phospholipids in their cell membrane.

achieverS Section DIRECTION (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. The plant body comprises of root and shoot systems which differ in their arrangement in different species of plants. The cells of these systems are arranged in three tissue systems, namely, epidermal, vascular and ground tissue system. Epidermal tissue system secretes cuticle on stem and leaves. It covers and protects the plant. Vascular tissue system is arranged differentially in monocots and dicots and consists of xylem and phloem. It is continuous throughout the plant. Ground tissue system is the most extensive system that acts as a filler between vascular tissue and epidermis. Its function is storage and support. 46. Which of following tissues do you expect to be the most important during droughts and why? A. Vascular tissue because phloem regulates water supply to the plant. B. Ground tissue because water can be stored in sclerenchyma for use during drought. C. Epidermal tissue because it is covered with a waxy cuticle and also bears drought responsive stomata. D. All of these 47. Identify the incorrect statements out of the following and select the correct option. (i) Epidermal tissue system forms the outermost covering of various plant organs.

(ii)

Ground tissue synthesizes organic compounds and controls photosynthesis with the help of collenchyma cells. (iii) Epidermal tissue of leaves is called mesophyll which is made up of two types of cells, palisade and spongy. (iv) Ground tissue system forms interior of plant organs with exclusion of dermal and vascular systems. A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iv) D. (i), (ii) and (iv)

48. Fill in the blanks. The ....(i).... of sound depends primarily on the nature and the temperature of the transmitting medium. The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is called ....(ii)..... . Sound properties such as ....(iii)...., loudness are determined by the corresponding wave properties. ....(iv).... is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of sound. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) reverberation pitch speed A. Loudness B. Speed reverberation pitch loudness C. Reverberation loudness speed pitch D. Pitch loudness reverberation speed

16th NSO - SET B

7

49. Select the correct velocity-time graph for a body whose acceleration-time graph is shown.

A.

C.

B.

D.

50. Study the given flowchart carefully.

Identify P and Q. P A. Compress and cool; B. Expand and heat; C. Compress and heat; D. Expand and cool; SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Q Nitrogen Argon Oxygen Oxygen

Class 9 17th

Set A Year 2014

17th NSO - SET A

2

logical reasoning 1.

6.

Find the missing term in the given series. 19200, 1920, 240, 40, 10, ? A. C.

2.

1 0

B. D.

5 10

Select a figure from the options, which would replace the (?) to complete the pattern in Figure (X). A.

Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.

B.

C.

3.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Manager-Tuesday Clerk-Thursday

8.

B. Officer-Wednesday D. Technician-Monday

Find the missing character, if the given matrix follows a certain rule, row-wise or column-wise. A. B. C. D.

5.

7.

Six persons Aman, Beenu, Charu, Disha, Esha and Giya took up a job with an organization in a week from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined for different posts on different days. The posts were of—clerk, officer, technician, manager, supervisor and sales executive, though not necessarily in the same order. Giya joined as a manager on the first day. Beenu joined as a supervisor but neither on Wednesday nor Friday. Disha joined as a technician on Thursday. Charu joined on Wednesday. Esha joined as a clerk on Tuesday. Aman joined as a sales executive. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the posts and day of joining? A. C.

4.

D.

V W X Y

A D I

D I P

G N ?

If Saturday falls on fourth day after today which is 6th January, then on what day did 1st December of the previous year fall? A. C.

Sunday Tuesday

B. D.

Wednesday Monday

Find the mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Garima and Saurabh are children of Mr. Jindal. Garima marries Amit Goel and Sahil, Sameer and Sanchit are born to them. Sahil is married to the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Kaya is younger to Piya but older than Riya who are the daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Latika is Sahil’s daughter. How is Saurabh related to Sanchit? A. C.

9.

Brother-in-law Maternal uncle

B. D.

Uncle Brother

In the sequence given below, in some cases the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘3’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 3 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit ‘5’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 5. How many such 3’s and 5’s are there altogether?

17th NSO - SET A



2 5 2 4 A. C.

3

4 3 6 7 5 2 8 3 9 7 5 4 3 4 6 5 2 6 3 5 8 3 5 6 3 7 5 8 3 5 2 6 5 B. 6 7 D. 4

10. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 4 – 5 – 1 – 12. Following the same rule of coding, what should be the code for the word LADY? A. 12 – 4 – 1 – 25 B. 12 – 1 – 4 – 25 C. 10 – 1 – 4 – 23 D. 12 – 1 – 4 – 22 11. Group the given figures into three classes, using each figure only once.



Which bank has its branch in Kanpur and Meerut but not in Lucknow?



A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q T

13. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.

A. B. C. D.

33 37 35 None of these

14. If animals that live on land and the animals that live in water are represented by two big circles and animals that live in water and on land are represented by small circle, the combination of these three can be best represented as

A.



C.



B. D.



A. B. C. D.

1, 2, 1, 1,

4, 3, 5, 6,

9; 7; 9; 7;

2, 4, 2, 2,

3, 6, 3, 3,

8; 9; 8; 8;

5, 1, 4, 4,

6, 5, 6, 5,

7 8 7 9

15. Out of the five figures marked (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

12. P, Q, R, S and T are Banks. Banks P, Q and R have their branches in Meerut and Lucknow. P, Q and T have their branches in Meerut and Gorakhpur. Q, R and S have their branches in Kanpur and Lucknow. P, T and S have their branches in Gorakhpur and Varanasi while R, T and S have their branches at Kanpur and Varanasi.



A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q T

Science 16. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply brakes soon after he sees a need for it. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km h–1 and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0 m s–2 , then the distance travelled by the car, after he sees the need to apply the brakes is ______.

A. C.

21.75 m 10.55 m

B. D.

17. A block accelerates down a slope, as shown in the figure. The upper portion of the slope is smooth and lower portion is rough. On the lower portion,

(i)

42.50 m 16.25 m

th

oo

Sm h

ug

Ro

the speed of the block may increase, decrease or remain same.



(ii) the acceleration of block reduces. (iii) the mass of block reduces. Which of the following is/are correct? A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

18. An aeroplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines of his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and now hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do, to eliminate the beat?

A. B. C. D.

Increase the speed of the left engine Decrease the speed of the right engine Increase the speed of both engines Increase the speed of the right engine

17th NSO - SET A

19. A lump of ice floats in water as shown in the figure.

4

23. Converging lenses A and B have the same focal length, but B is only half the aperture of A. Both lenses are used to form images of distant objects on a screen. Which of the following statements is correct? A.

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The lump of ice floats because the area of its lower surface is larger than the area of its upper surface. B. The pressure difference between the lower and the upper surfaces of the lump of ice gives rise to an upthrust equal to its weight. C. The ice has a greater density than water. D. The mass of water displaced by ice is equal to the upthrust. 20. At a certain place, value of g is 1% less than its value on the surface of Earth. If the radius of Earth is given to be 6400 km, then the place is ______. A. 64 km below the surface of the Earth B. 64 km above the surface of the Earth C. 30 km above the surface of the Earth D. 32 km below the surface of the Earth. 21. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will ______. A. Fall onto the Earth B. Move in a direction tangential to its original orbit C. Escape horizontally D. None of these 22. A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps to reach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure. He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be A. 2.1 m B. 3.3 m C. 4.2 m D. 5.6 m

B. C. D.

For both lenses, the distance from the lens to the screen is same. For both lenses, the images are of the same brightness. For both lenses, the images are of the same size as the object. Lens B gives a smaller image than A.

24. A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with an acceleration, a. The acceleration of his image, as seen by the person, will be A. C.

a a/2

B. D.

2a 4a

25. Two objects, A and B are thrown upwards simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on the two bodies, then A. B. C. D.

A will go higher than B B will go higher than A The two bodies will reach the same height None of these.

26. Four students were given small pieces of materials P, Q, R and S respectively. They observed the reactions of these materials as follows : Reaction with Dilute Material Water hydrochloric acid No reaction but No reaction. P catches fire if exposed to air. Reacts slowly. Burns with a pop Q sound. Reacts vigorously Burns with a pop R with lots of heat. sound. No reaction. No reaction. S According to them, materials P, Q, R and S respectively are A. Fe, Cu, Na, P B. Na, Fe, P, Cu C. P, Fe, Na, Cu D. Cu, P, Na, Fe 27. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Food is a fuel for our body. Statement 2 : In our body, food is broken down by reaction with oxygen and heat is produced.

17th NSO - SET A

A. B. C. D.

5

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

28. Match the Column-I with Column‑II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (Mixture) (Separation technique) (i) Distillation a. An ink b. Liquid air (ii) Evaporation and crystallization c. Copper sulphate and (iii) Fractional distillation water d. Acetone and water (iv) Chromatography A. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) C. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) D. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) 29. Study the table carefully and select the correct statement. Element U V W X Y Z A. B. C. D.

Number of Number of Number of protons neutrons electrons 11 12 10 20 20 20 16 18 18 20 19 18

14 15 18 10 10 10 W is a noble gas. X and Y are cations. U and V are anions. Z is the lightest element while V is the heaviest.

30. Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. Rayon is a natural fibre as it is obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. II. Plastics which cannot be softened by heating are called thermoplastics. III. Nylon is semi-synthetic fibre. IV. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as thermosetting plastics. A. I and III B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. All of these 31. A compound, PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons : ××

Q

××



×



P





×

××

Q

××

××

××

The elements P and Q are respectively A. N, Cl B. Cl, S C. O, F D. Na, F 32. The calorific values of some fuels are given. Fuel Coal Diesel LPG CNG

Calorific value (kJ/kg) 25000 – 33000 45000 55000 50000

On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is A. LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal B. Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG C. Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG D. CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal 33. Three students Ankit, Dinesh and Manoj were given three unknown substances X, Y and Z respectively during the lab activity. Property Boiling point (°C) Solubility in Substance water 56 Soluble X 45 Insoluble Y 90 Soluble Z On the basis of these properties, which student has chosen the correct separation technique, to separate a substance from the substance‑water mixture? A. Ankit – Separating funnel B. Dinesh – Distillation C. Manoj – Fractional distillation D. All are correct. 34. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a diatomic molecule, X 2 . One molecule of X 2 contains 34 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom X? A. 17 B. 20 C. 21 D. 25 35. Ritu is studying about four epithelial tissues of the human body which primarily help in the following functions : I. Gas exchange II. Gamete formation III. Movement of mucus IV. Protection of underlying parts against abrasion The given epithelial tissues respectively are ____. A.

Simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue

17th NSO - SET A

B. C. D.

6

Simple ciliated epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium Stratified transitional epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue

38. A group of students would like to know how the effluent from a factory might influence water quality of a river. The given diagram shows seven potential sampling locations (1 to 7) along the factory and the river. In order to draw a valid conclusion about the river water pollution caused by the factory discharge, which locations (1 to 7) shall be included for the sampling?

36. Refer to the given key for the identification of the animal phyla from I to VIII and select the correct option.

A. B. C. D. I. III. V. VII. A. B. C. D.

Mammalia II. Aves Arthropoda IV. Echinodermata Annelida VI. Mollusca Reptilia VIII. Amphibia P Q R S T U V II I VI IV VII V VIII I II VIII VII III IV VI I II VIII VII IV V III II I VII VIII V III VI

2, 1, 2, 1,

3, 2, 5, 2,

4, 4, 6, 5,

6 7 7 7

39. The given diagram shows a cell placed in a concentrated solution. What would happen when the cell is taken out from the concentrated solution and is placed in freshwater for a long time? W III V VI IV

37. Following are some characteristics of the three divisions of Kingdom Plantae : Bryophyta, Thallophyta and Pteridophyta. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Locations Locations Locations Locations

Sex organs are multicellular Essentially terrestrial Non vascular Lack true leaves and roots Embryo formed after fertilization Photoautotrophs Examples are Lycopodium, Equisetum, Azolla, Marsilea 8. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte 9. Examples are U lv a, Fu c u s, S a r ga s s u m, Cladophora Select the option which shows the correct characteristics of the respective divisions. Bryophyta Thallophyta Pteridophyta A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 3, 4, 5, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 7 1, 2, 5, 6, 9 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7

I. II. III. IV.

The cell will recover its shape slowly. The cell will shrink first. The cell will burst eventually. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell by osmosis. Select the correct option. A. I and II B. IV only C. I, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

40. The list given below shows some diseases caused by microorganisms/infectious agents. How many of these diseases are caused by virus? Elephantiasis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Ringworm, Kala-azar, Influenza, Mumps, Typhoid, Dengue, Sleeping sickness A. C.

3 6

B. D.

4 5

41. Read the given statements. I. Bee wax obtained from beehive is a deposition of the excretory products of honeybee.

17th NSO - SET A

7

II.

Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field. III. Fish feed in different zones of the pond in order to make the most efficient use of the available food. IV. Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming. V. Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. Which of the given statements are incorrect? A. C.

I, II and III I and IV

B. D.

II, III and IV I and V

43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

a. b. c. d. e. f. g.

a I V I III

b IV I IV II

c III IV III I

d V III V VII

e VII II VII V

f II VII VI IV

Column-II (State) I. Karnataka II. Madhya Pradesh III. Uttarakhand IV. Jammu & Kashmir V. Uttar Pradesh VI. Assam VII. Gujarat

g VI VI II VI I

44. Q

P II

S R

42. Weeds are the unwanted plants, which grow along with the crops and share nutrients, water and sunlight with the crops. Removal of these weeds can be done either by handpicking or with the help of chemicals. Which one of the following chemicals given below is a weedicide? A. 2, 4-D B. CH4 C. BHC D. C2H4

Column-I (National Park) Bandipur National Park Dachigam National Park Corbett National Park Dudhwa National Park Gir National Park Kanha National Park Kaziranga National Park

A. B. C. D.

III

Figure Y Figure X Figure X shows the female reproductive system and figure Y shows the development of a fertilized egg cell. In which labelled parts of the female reproductive system will the stages I, II and III occur? I II III A. S P P B. S Q P C. S Q Q D. S Q R 45. Which of the following statements is the drawback of the green revolution? A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. resulted in air, soil and water pollution. B. More requirement of water by high-yielding crops resulted in the depletion of underground water resources. C. Use of agrochemicals was an expensive measure for Indian farmers. D. All of these

Achievers Section 46. The speed-time graph for the motion of a motorcycle is shown here. What is the average speed over 12 s interval? –1 v (m s )

A. B.

4.38 m s

–1

5.58 m s

–1

9

C.

1.75 m s–1

D.

3.17 m s–1

3 2 0

5

9

12

t(s)

47. When an ideal simple pendulum oscillates between the extreme points P and Q, there is continuous (i) of potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential energy depends on the choice of (ii) . Force acting on the bob of the pendulum is maximum at (iii) , and minimum at (iv) .

A. B. C. D.

(i) Dissipation Dissipation Exchange Exchange

(ii) reference level mass reference level velocity

(iii) mid point mid point extremes extremes

(iv) extremes extremes mid point mid point

48. Given figure shows the effects of pressure and temperature on the changes among three states of matter. 1 2

3 4

Select the correct statements.

17th NSO - SET A

I. II. III. IV. A. C.

8

Change 1 is carried out under high temperature and low pressure. Change 4 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. Change 2 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. Change 3 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure. II and III B. I and II I, II and IV D. I, II and III

49. A scientist was studying the production of a protein, that was released by an animal cell into a culture medium. She found that the protein only appeared in the culture medium after she added a few drops of a hormone to the cell. Before adding the hormone, she labelled the protein inside the cell with a fluorescent dye and looked at the cell under the light microscope: the dye was seen in flattened sheets and tube-like structures throughout the cell, and in stacks of flattened sac-like structures. After adding the hormone, the dye was also seen as small dots clustered against the cell membrane. Which statement most likely explains these observations? A.

B.

The hormone stimulates protein synthesis in the cell vacuole; the protein is then passed to the Golgi apparatus, and eventually passes through the cell membrane by passive diffusion. The hormone triggers the synthesis of the protein in the endoplasmic reticulum which is then secreted outside the cell via channel proteins in the cell membrane.

C.

D.

The protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum, which is next passed to the Golgi apparatus, and then secreted through hormone-stimulated exocytosis. The protein is made in the Golgi apparatus, which is then passed to the endoplasmic reticulum, and finally secreted through hormone-stimulated pinocytosis.

50. The given diagram shows nitrogen cycle in the ecosystem. P, Q, R, S and T represent different chemical conversion steps in the cycle.

Which process (P–T) is correctly paired with the organismal group performing that step? I. P – Photoautotrophs II. Q – Bacteria symbiotic with plants III. R – Anaerobic bacteria living in conditions, such as wetland ecosystem IV. S – Nitrosomonas bacteria V. T – Nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium or cyanobacteria A. III, IV and V B. IV and V C. I, II and IV D. III and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Class 9 17th

Set B Year 2014

17th NSO - SET B

2

Logical reasoning 1.

A. C. 2.

375 435

165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ? B. 420 D. 390

INFORMA

T

Six men B, D, C, M, J and K are split in two groups of three each and are made to stand in two rows, such that a man in one row is exactly facing a man in the other row. II. M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right of J, who is facing C. K is to the left of D, who is facing M. Who is to the immediate left of B? A. M B. D C. J D. Data inadequate

IONS

In the given number series, how many 4s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 4?

8.

7 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 6 8 9 4 7 3 4 2 4 6 4 5 4 3 2 4 4 5 2 A. C. 4.

5.

B. D.

5 2

In an organisation of pollution control board, engineers are represented by a circle, legal experts by a square, environmentalists by a triangle and doctors by rectangle. Which number shows Environmentalists with engineering background who are not doctors? A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

7

2 1

4

6

3

7

5

If WORK is coded as 4 – 12 – 9 – 16, then how will you code WOMAN? A. B. C. D.

6.

4 6

Read the following information and answer the question that follows : I.

Find the water image of the given word. A. B. C. D.

3.

7.

Find the missing term in the given series.

4 – 12 – 14 – 26 – 13 4 – 12 – 13 – 26 – 14 4 – 12 – 11 – 26 – 13 23 – 15 – 13 – 1 – 14

A set of figures carrying certain characters, is given. Assuming that the characters in each figure follow the same pattern, find the missing character.

9.

A sheet of paper is folded in a particular manner as shown in X, Y and Z and a punch is made. Select a figure amongst the options, that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of paper.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures. Problem Figures

? A.

B.

C.

D.

10. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this month is Monday. If each even date on Monday and each Sunday is a holiday, then how many working days are there in the month? A. C.

210 70

B. D.

450 150

A. C.

23 24

B. D.

22 21

17th NSO - SET B

11.

3

Select a figure from the options, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

13. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A.

A.

40

B.

42

C.

45

D.

None of these

14. Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?

B.

A. C. B. D.

12. Study the information given below and answer the following question. Himani, Saurabh and Ritesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Aggarwal. Riya, Rajat and Samay are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bansal. Samay and Himani are married and Ashu and Jay are their children. Gauri and Raj are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain. Gauri is married to Ritesh and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju. How is Raj related to Rita? A. C.

Brother Grand father

B. D.

Cousin Maternal uncle

C.

D.

15. Abhijit's house is to the right of Baljit's house at a distance of 20 metres in the row facing North. Sanjay's house is in the North-East direction from Baljit's house at a distance of 25 m. Abhijit's house is in which direction with respect to Sanjay's house? A. C.

North West

B. D.

East Data inadequate

C.

The air particles apply a higher force on surface A than surface B. The air particles apply a higher force on surface B than surface A.

Science 16. A metal sphere of mass 12 kg has the same diameter as another sphere of mass 4 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 8 m above the ground, they have the same _____. (Neglect air resistance.) A. C.

Kinetic energy Momentum

B. D.

Potential energy Acceleration

Surface A 17. A sealed container is filled with air. The uniform cross-sectional area of the container is shown in Surface B the given figure. Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Air pressure acting on surface A is higher than the air pressure acting on surface B.

B.

Air pressure acting on surface B is higher than the air pressure acting on surface A.

D.

18. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : T  he value of dynamic friction is less than the limiting friction. Statement 2 : O nce the motion has started, the inertia of rest has been overcome. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

17th NSO - SET B

4

19. A stone is thrown upwards from a point at the edge of a cliff. After the stone has reached its maximum height, it falls past the cliff edge to the beach, as shown in the given figure. The initial vertical component of the velocity of the stone is 10 m s–1. The time taken between the stone passing the edge of the cliff on its way down and hitting the beach is 1.2 s. Ignoring air resistance, find the height of the cliff.

A. C.

5 m 12 m

B. D.

7m 19 m

20. Ultrasound is emitted from a ship directly downwards into water. The diagram below shows the time duration for ultrasound to return to the receiver on the ship as the ship travels from point X to point Y along the surface of the water. At which position is the water deepest?

A.

S



B.

R



C.

Q



D.

P rd

liquid in g cm–3 is ______.



4 3



A.



B.



C.



D.

B.

5 3

C.



6 3

D.



8 3

25. A body thrown vertically up with a velocity u reaches the maximum height h after T second. Which of the following statements is correct?







A.

B.

C.

D.

He will take a longer time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a longer time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a longer time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a shorter time to come down as compared to jumping on the Earth

At a height h/2 from the ground its velocity is u/2. At a time T its velocity is u. At a time 2T its velocity is –u. At a time 2T its velocity is – 6u.

A. B. C. D.

26. The freezing and boiling points of a substance ‘P’ are –220°C and –185°C respectively. At which of the following range of temperatures will ‘P’ exist as a liquid? A. Between –175°C and –210°C B. Between –190°C and –225°C C. Between –200°C and –160°C D. Between –195°C and –215°C 27. Observe the following diagrams carefully.

22. The acceleration due to gravity of the Earth and the Moon are 10 m s–2 and 1.7 m s–2 respectively. When an astronaut jumps on the Moon, then ______.

The image of a virtual object is called a virtual image. If the reflected rays are converging, we get a real image. If the incident rays are converging, we get a real object. If the image is virtual, the corresponding object is called a virtual object.

24. A box originally at rest, slides down from point S to point T as shown. Assuming that the S 1 slope is frictionless, at which point 2 does the box have 3 about 25% of its maximum kinetic 4 energy? T A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1



1 21. When a body floats in water  3  of its volume   th  3 remains outside, whereas   of its volume remains  4 outside when it floats in a liquid. The density of the

A.

23. Which of the following statements is true?

R

T



I



II

IV

Salt solution of P

Salt solution of S

III

K

Q



Salt solution of P

Q

V

Salt solution of T

Salt solution of S K

VI

Salt solution of R

If reaction occurs only in beakers I, III and VI, then which of the following statements is correct? A. S is less reactive than P but more reactive than T. B. R and S are more reactive than Q. C. T and R are less reactive than K. D. Q is more reactive than R but less reactive than P.

17th NSO - SET B

5

A. C.

28 72

B. D.

44 99

30. Read the following statements carefully and identify X, Y and Z. X : Hard as stones, used to cook food and to produce electricity in thermal power plants Y : A petroleum product, used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads Z : A pure form of carbon, used in the manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many metals X Y Z A. Coal Bitumen Coke Paraffin wax B. Coal tar Coal C. Coal tar Diesel Coke D. Coke Bitumen Coal 31. Mr. Verma while watching TV suddenly came across an accident as shown below.

Solvent front

×

×

×

×

×

×

Rakesh

Amit

Deepak

Tarun

Start line

Insulin

29. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of element M ? (Given : atomic masses of O = 16 u and Cl = 35.5 u)

32. Use of drugs like ephedrine and insulin by athletes is banned. Rakesh, Amit, Deepak and Tarun were asked by a trainer to give their urine samples for the tests. Chromatogram of their urine samples and drugs is shown below :

Ephedrine

28. Some statements about the Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment are given : I. As most of the a-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected, the positive charge of the atom occupies the entire space. II. As very few particles were deflected from their path, very little space inside the atom is empty. III. As a very small fraction of a-particles were deflected by 180°, all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom. Select the correct statement(s). A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III only

Study the given chromatogram carefully and choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Deepak used both the drugs. B. Rakesh and Deepak used insulin. C. Rakesh used ephedrine. D. Amit and Tarun did not use any of the given drugs. 33. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option using the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) A. B. C. D.

Column-I Column-II Terylene (i) Rayon Bakelite (ii) Thermoplastic PVC (iii) Polyester Artificial silk (iv) Thermosetting (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

34. Maximum number of molecules are present in ____. 4.9 × 10–3 mg of H2SO4 4 × 1023 molecules of SO2 10 g of N2 1.5 moles of NH3

A. B. C. D.

35. The diagram shows five different structures that can be observed in cells.

In the above situation, what should Mr. Verma do? A. He should pour water on the fire. B. He should use oil to cut off the supply of air. C. He should use CO2 extinguisher on fire. D. He should use LPG to control fire.

1

2

3

4

5

Which structures would be present in large quantities in lipid synthesizing cells? A. C.

1, 2, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 5

B. D.

1, 3 and 4 3, 4 and 5

17th NSO - SET B

6

36. Raman set up an experiment as shown here and kept it at 30° C. Normal water

Starch solution and amylase



A.

Site X has the highest content of dissolved oxygen while site Y has the lowest content of dissolved oxygen.



B.

There is a high concentration of nitrogen compounds at site Z.



C.

There are very few fishes found at site Z.



D.

All of these

40. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. a. b. c. d.

37. Select the correct option regarding the given organisms.

Column-I Bottom feeder (i) Cow breed (ii) Buffalo breed (iii) Surface feeder (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) a

Mice

Bees



D.

Bees

C.

B.

Mice





Cats

A.

Number

D.



Cats

C.

B.

Number





(v), (vii) (vii) (iii), (vii) (vii)

If male cats are removed from the given ecosystem, then which of these figures would show the new composition of the same ecosystem after a gap of 3 years? Plants

A.

(i), (iv) (iv) (iv) (i), (iv)



Plants



41. In an ecosystem, four major interdependent components were in the given proportions.

Bees

38. Which of these epithelia is chiefly involved in function like diffusion and thereby is found in the wall of blood vessels and air sacs of the lungs?

(ii) (iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (vi) (ii), (vi)

Bees

C. D.

(iii), (vi) (i), (ii), (v) (v) (iii), (v)

Cats



Organisms (i), (ii) and (v) show tissue level of body organisation. Organisms (i), (iv) and (v) are triploblastic animals. Organisms (iii), (iv) and (v) all are eucoelomates. Organisms (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) possess notochord in some stage of their life .

A. B. C. D.

Mice

B.

(v)

d

Cats



(iv)

Mice

A.

(iii)

c

Number



(ii)

b

Number

(i)

Column-II Surti Tharparkar Common carp Murrah Mrigal Red sindhi Catla

Plants





Plants



The water in the beaker contained reducing sugars. (ii) The reducing sugars passed into the beaker by diffusion. (iii) The water in the beaker contained no starch. (iv) The partially permeable membrane of visking tube prevented passage of starch into the beaker. (v) Reducing sugars were formed in the visking tube. Which of these observations is/are incorrect? A. (iv) and (v) B. (iii) only C. (v) only D. None of these

Plants

(i)

Which of these statements holds true regarding the given diagram?

Bees





Cats

After four hours, he wrote down his observations as follows :

Mice



Number

Visking tube



39. The diagram given below shows a river and its surrounding area.

17th NSO - SET B

7

42. Identify the given organisms shown in the figure.

Y X Which of the following statements is/are correct about X and Y? (i) X is Anopheles while Y is Culex. (ii) X spreads filariasis while Y spreads malaria. (iii) The female Y is the vector of malaria. (iv) The male Y is the vector of filariasis. (v) X is host for a protozoan and Y is a host for a nematode. A. (ii) and (iii) B. (ii) and (v) C. (ii) only D. (i), (iii) and (iv) 43. Mohit was asked to draw a diagram of sclerenchyma as seen in longitudinal section and label it. His figure is as shown. Find out the mistake he has made in the diagram. Simple pit pair Lignified thick wall

Lumen

A. B. C. D.

The pit pair is bordered not simple. The cell walls are not lignified in sclerenchyma. The nucleus and cytoplasm are not shown. It is a transverse section and not the longitudinal section.

44. Refer to the given figure and identify the labelled connective tissues X and Y. A. B. C. D.

X X X X

X Muscle

Bone

- Cartilage; Y - Tendon - Tendon; Y - Ligament - Ligament ; Y - Tendon - Ligament; Y - Cartilage

Y

45. Read the following statements regarding female reproductive system and select the correct option. (i)

If the ovum released from the ovaries is not fertilized, then it is shed alongwith blood during menstruation. (ii) Menopause occurs in the females at an age of 45–50 years. (iii) Vagina of female reproductive system is primary sex organ. (iv) Development of breasts in females is the accessory sex character. A.

Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; while statement (iv) is false.

B.

Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true; while statement (iii) is false.

C.

Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true; while statement (i) is false.

D.

Statements (i) and (ii) are true; while statements (iii) and (iv) are false.

Achievers Section

3.5 4.5 5.3 6.2

m m m m

s–1 s–1 s–1 s–1

20 0

3

6

t(s)

47. Fill in the blanks : The (i) of a sound is determined by its (ii) . The (iii) of the sound wave depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. A sound of (iv) frequency is called a (v) . A. B. C. D.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Amplitude Loudness Loudness Double Note Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Single Tone Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Double Tone Amplitude Loudness Loudness Single Note

Increasing length

A. B. C. D.

48. Four strips of fresh potato P, Q, R and S were immersed in solutions of different concentrations. Osmosis occurred according to the concentration difference between cell sap and ambient solution. A graph was plotted between initial length of strips and the change in length after osmosis. 5 4 3 2 1

Initial length

Decreasing length

46. An object of mass 20 kg moves along a straight line on a smooth horizontal surface. A force F acts on the object in its direction of motion. A graph of force against time is shown here. What is the velocity of the object at t = 6 s if its velocity at t = 4 s is 4 m s–1? F(N)

–1 –2 –3 –4 –5

R 0

Q 60 P 65

70

75

S

80

Which of these strips was placed in the most diluted solution? A. C.

S R

B. D.

Q P

17th NSO - SET B

8

49. The solubility of two substances, X and Y at 35°C and 75°C is given in the table. Temperature (°C)

Maximum amount (g) that can dissolve in 100 g of water Substance X Substance Y

35 75

30 70

40 50

100 g of X Solution M

80 g of Y Solution N

X

Y

Aim is to minimise risk of Aim is to increase crop failure productivity per unit area Seeds of component crops Seeds of component are mixed before sowing crops are not mixed

Two solutions, M and N are shown below : 200 g of water at 75°C

50. A comparison between two cropping patterns X and Y is given below. What are X and Y?

Sowing is not done in Sowing is done in rows rows in a precise pattern

If the temperature of solutions M and N is dropped to 35°C, then amount of X and Y crystallized out will be ______. A. 40 g, 30 g B. 25 g, 80 g C. 40 g, 0 g D. 80 g, 55 g

A. B. C. D.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

X X X X

-

Mixed cropping; Y - Inter-cropping Inter-cropping; Y - Crop rotation Mixed cropping; Y - Crop rotation Inter-cropping; Y - Mixed cropping

Class 9 18th

Set 1 Year 2015

logical reasoning There are seven figures, the first and last of which are unnumbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

3

2

5 2 None of these

2.

The given numbers are to be coded with the following conditions : Digits Letters

4 7 M O

2 Q

3 R

B. D.

4

A. C.

1 N

5 P

8 U

9 T

6 S

(i)



(ii)



(iii)



(iv)



(v)



A. C.

3.

Find the number of triangles in the given figure.



A. B. C. D.

4.

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, then what will West becomes?



A. C.

5.

Which of the following figures satisfies the same condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

If the first and the last digits of the number are odd, then each of those odd digits is to be coded as X. If the first digit of a number is even, then it will be coded as Y. If the only first digit of a number is odd, then it will be coded as Z. If 5 or 8 is neither the first digit nor the last digit of the number, then each of them will be coded as W. If the first and the last digits of the numbers are even, then each of those even digits is to be coded as V. 51536079 XNWRSLOX B. XNPRSLOX WNWRSLOX D. XNPRSLOT 45 44 47 None of these

A.

B. D.

2





D.

Introducing a woman, Shashank said, “She is the mother of the daughter of my son”. How is the woman related to Shashank?



A. C.

7.

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures.

Daughter Wife

8

89

9

10

17

? 17

Sister-in-law Daughter-in-law

11

16

B. D.

137 147

147

8

19



A. C.

8.

J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden. They all are wearing clothes of different colours–black, blue, white, green, pink, yellow and brown. Out of the seven, three are girls. No girl is wearing either black, yellow or brown. M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing blue, while his sister K is not wearing green. N is wearing yellow, while his best friend P is a boy. What colour is P wearing? A. Black B. Blue C. White D. Green

9.

127 141

B. D.

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part? Fig. (X)

Fig. (X)



6.

0 L



North-East South-East

C.

B.



A.



B.



C.



D.

North-West South-West

10. Select the water-image of the given combination of numbers and letters. GR 98AP76 E S GR 98AP7 E S A. G 98AP7 E S B. GR 98AP76 E S C. GR98 P76ES A D. R

5 4

1





6 6

1.

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

Science 11. A boy moving with constant acceleration from A to B in the straight line AB has velocities vA and vB at A and B respectively. Time taken by the boy to move from A to C is twice of that from C to B, where C is the mid-point of AB. The ratio of vA to vB is A. C.

1 : 2 1 : 5

B. D.

1:3 1:7

12. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are dropped from heights h1 and h2 respectively. On reaching the ground, they acquire equal momenta. If h1 > h 2 , the ratio of kinetic energy of m1 to that of m 2 on reaching the ground will be A. C.

Equal to 1 Less than 1

B. D.

13. The diagram shows a jar with the dimensions as shown. It contains a liquid of mass 3 kg and density 600 kg m–3. The pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the jar is (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. C.

1.2 × 103 Pa 1.2 × 105 Pa

B. D.

Greater than 1 Data is insufficient

A. C.

800% decrease 200% decrease

B. D.

Base area = 0.01 m2

2.4 × 103 Pa 2.4 × 105 Pa

t (s)

A B C D Position of ship

Y



If the speed of sound in water is 1530 m s–1, then the difference in depths of the sea at B and D is



A. C.

153 m 612 m

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

B. D.



B.



C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

17. The diagram shows a car of 800 kg approaching the base of a hill.

It moves up the hill with a constant speed of 25 m s–1. Neglecting friction, what is the average power required for the car to reach the peak of the hill? (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. C.

10 kW 25 kW

306 m 765 m

B. D.

15 kW 30 kW

18. The given figure shows a ray of light directed onto a plane mirror at an angle of 45° initially. The mirror is then rotated by 12° about point O as shown in the figure.

225% increase 125% increase

15. When moving from X to Y, a ship sends pulses of ultrasonic waves continuously to the bottom of the sea. The variation of the time interval t between the emission of a pulse and the reception of its reflection with position is shown in the given graph. 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 X

A.

400 m

14. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 exert a force F on each other when placed a certain distance d apart. The percentage change in force when the separation between the bodies is decreased by d/3, is



Height = 20 cm



Statement 1 : Work done against friction in moving a body over a closed path is zero. Statement 2 : Work done by a constant force is always zero in a round trip of the point of application of force.

50 m



16. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

45°

12°

O

The new angle of reflection is

A. C.

12° 33°

B. D.

23° 57°

19. A scooterist moving with a speed of 36 km h–1 sees a child standing in the middle of the road. He applies the brakes and brings the scooter to rest in 5 s just in time to save child. If mass of the scooter and driver is 300 kg, the average retarding force on the scooter is

A. C.

6 × 107 g cm s–2 6 × 105 kg cm s–2

B. D.

6 × 104 g m s–2 6 × 103 kg m s–2

20. The tail of a comet points away from the Sun due to

A. B. C. D.

Centrifugal force Electrical repulsion Attraction of comet due to other planets Radiation pressure. 3

21. Which of the following statements are correct?

Direction of momentum of a body may or may not be same as the direction of the velocity of the body. (ii) The rate of change of momentum and the force have same units. (iii) Action and reaction act on two different bodies. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Fibres and Plastics

(i)



22. The weight of a rock on Jupiter is 500 N. The value of acceleration due to gravity (in N kg –1) on the surfaces of Moon, Earth and Jupiter is 1.7, 10 and 25 respectively. The difference between weight of rock on earth and that on Moon is

A. C.

0 N 166 N

B. D.

8.3 N 233 N

23. Boiling points of some gases are given in the table.



The A. B. C. D.

Gas

Boiling point (°C)

Helium

–269

Methane

–162

Neon

–246

Oxygen

–183

Xenon

–108

gases that are in the liquid state at –200°C are Methane, oxygen and xenon Helium, neon and xenon Helium and neon All the gases given in the table.

24. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u,C = 12 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u) Column I Column II 22 (a) 6.022 × 10 molecules (i) 2.65 g of CaCO3 (b) 0.5 mole of O2 (ii) 10 g (c) 1023 molecules of CH4 (iii) 60 g (d) 1.5 moles of Ca (iv) 16 g A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 25. Nimit prepared a flowchart to show classification of fibres and plastics. He left few columns blank. Fill in the blanks by choosing the option with correct words. 4

Plastics

Fibres Synthetic

Natural

P

Q

Silk, Wool

Cellulose, Cotton



A.



B.



C.



D.

R

S

Bakelite, Melamine

Polyvinyl chloride, Polystyrene

P - Plant fibres, Q - Animal fibres, R - Thermoplastics, S-Thermosetting P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres, R - Thermosetting, S - Thermoplastics P - Rayon, Q - Animal fibres, R - Biodegradable, S - Non-biodegradable P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres, R - Non-biodegradable, S - Biodegradable

26. Different samples of soft drinks are tested for additives by using chromatography. The chromatograms are compared with those of artificial additives, X and Y. The results are as follows :



Which soft drink does not contain any of these artificial additives? A. Cola B. Soda C. Banta D. Campa



27. Anurag has arranged the following set-ups to study the rusting of iron.

NaCl (aq.) Iron nail (1)



(2)

Iron A. B. C. D.

Water Iron nail Magnesium coil

Cotton wool Iron nail (3)

Anhydrous calcium (4) chloride

Water Iron nail Silver coil

nails will not rust in test tubes 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4

28. The nucleon number of an atom Q is 49. Atom Q exists as a tetraatomic molecule, Q4. One molecule of Q4 contains 68 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom Q?

A. C.

32 49

B. D.

68 57

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

29. The given diagram represents a fractionating column where petroleum is separated into various fractions. Arrange the fractions X, Y, Z in order of decreasing boiling point range and identify the fraction that condenses first.

X

Y

Crude oil vapours



A.

Z > Y > X; X



B.

Z > Y > X; Z



C.

X > Y > Z; Y



D.

Y > Z > X; Z

Which of the following graphs would correctly represent the result?

A.

Temperature



On the basis of this data, find out the correct order of efficiency of fuels.



A. B. C. D.

32. In an experiment, three metals X, Y and Z were placed into four separate solutions containing aqueous metal ions. The results are shown in the table.

Temperature

B.



A. C.

Temperature

C.

Temperature

D.

0°C

100°C

0°C

Yes

It is a simple permanent tissue comprising of only dead cells. No

Yes

P

Q

R

S



A.

100°C



B.

0°C



C.



D.

Time (min)

31. Calorific values of some fuels are given : Calorific value (kJ/kg)

Biogas

35,000 – 40,000

Petrol

45,000

CNG

It has the capability of active cell division. No

It is a conducting tissue which also provides mechanical strength. Yes

100°C

Hydrogen

X>W>Z>Y Y>Z>W>X

It is a conducting tissue in which Yes flow of nutrients is bidirectional. No

0°C

Fuel

B. D.

Plant tissue

100°C

Time (min)



X > W > Y > Z X > Z > W > Y

33. Study the given flow chart and select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R and S.

Time (min)



Aqueous metal ion W X 2+ Y 2+ Z 2+ 2+

X Y Z The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is

Time (min)



Biogas > Petrol > CNG > Hydrogen CNG > Hydrogen > Biogas > Petrol Hydrogen > CNG > Petrol > Biogas Petrol > CNG > Biogas > Hydrogen

Metal

30. Neha, a class IX student heated a beaker containing ice and water as demonstrated in the given figure. She measured the temperature of the content of the beaker as a function of time.

Z



1,50,000 50,000

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |

‘P’ can be the tissue which is present in root tips and shoot tips. Tissue ‘Q’ is primarily responsible for storage of food. Tissue ‘R’ is responsible for transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant body. Tissue ‘S’ is made up of four types of cells–vessels, tracheids, fibres and parenchyma.

34. While observing a stained mount of onion peel under high power compound microscope, the central part of the cell does not take stain. Which of the following options correctly identifies this central part of the cell?

A. C.

Nucleus Vacuole

B. D.

Cell wall Chloroplast 5

35. The given figure represents the structure of the causal organism of a disease, which is

A.



B.



C.



D.

An autoimmune disease, caused by a virus An immunodeficiency disease, caused by a virus An immunodeficiency disease, caused by a bacterium An autoimmune disease, caused by a bacterium.

36. Select the correct statement regarding the members of the phylum to which the given animal belongs?



B.



C.



D.

Net movement of sucrose molecules takes place from limb Q to limb P of the U-tube. Net movement of water molecules takes place from limb P to limb Q of the U-tube. Semi-permeable membrane allows only solute sucrose molecules to pass through it.

39. In a slide of animal tissue, Ridhima observed long, uninucleate, unbranched, narrow and spindle-shaped cells. This tissue could be

A. C.

Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle

B. D.

Smooth muscle Nervous tissue.

T hey possess t issue level of organisation. They are mostly fresh water organisms. Their body is bilaterally symmetrical. They possess a canal system that helps to circulate water throughout the body.

40. The practice in which green plants like sunn hemp, guar etc., are grown and then mulched by ploughing them into soil, results in the formation of (i) , which enriches the soil with (ii) . Select the correct option for (i) and (ii). (i) (ii) A. Compost Organic matter B. Fertilizer Potassium and magnesium C. Bio-fertilizer Blue green algae D. Green manure Nitrogen and phosphorus

37. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

41. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.



A.



B.



C. D.

Statement 1 : An increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere would cause more heat to be retained by the atmosphere leading to global warming. Statement 2 : Greenhouse gases, e.g., CO2 , CH4 etc., reflect back the infrared radiations reflected by the earth’s surface. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Statement 2 is true and statement 1 is false.



38. Study the given diagram representing the process of osmosis and select the correct statement regarding this. P 10% sucrose solution

Sucrose molecules Water molecules

5% sucrose solution

A. 6

Limb P of the U-tube functions like the root hair of a plant for the absorption of water.

Column I Column II Ribosomes (i) Jelly like substance Lysosomes (ii) Powerhouse of the cell Endoplasmic (iii) Site of protein reticulum synthesis Cytoplasm (iv) Synthesis of lipids Mitochondria (v) Suicide bags (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (v), (e) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i), (e) - (iii)

42. Study the following table and select the correct option for p, q, r, s and t. Disease

Q

Semi-permeable membrane



(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) A. B. C. D.



A.



B.



C.



D.

Measles

Causative organism p

Mode of transmission Air

q

Bacterium

Water/Food

Dengue

r

s

Malaria

t

Mosquito

p-Virus, q-Hepatitis A, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p-Bacterium, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p -Virus, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito, t-Protozoan p -Virus, q -Typhoid, r -Protozoan, s -Air, t-Bacterium | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

43. A simplified representation of nitrogen cycle is given here.

44. What is the function of the part labelled as 'X ' in the given figure? X

‘X’

‘Z’

N2 fixation N2 gas in atmosphere

Nitrification

Plant proteins

al im ns n A tei pro

‘Y’

Which of the following statements regarding ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is correct?

A.



B.



C.



D.

‘X’ represents proteins which are added into the soil by the process of nitrogen fixation. ‘Y ’ represents ammonia which is formed by decomposition of dead plant and animal remains. ‘Z’ represents the process of nitrogen assimilation, by which nitrates are converted back into atmospheric nitrogen. ‘Z’ represents the formation of nitrogen gas by putrefaction of plant and animal matter.



A.



B.



C. D.

It produces the ovum when a female reaches puberty. It transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. It serves as the site of implantation of the embryo. It is the place where development of embryo takes place.

45. Which of the following statements is false about a Biosphere Reserve?

A.



B.



C.



D.

It is meant for the conservation of biodiversity and culture of an area. It may contain other protected areas within its limits. Some economic activities are permitted in a Biosphere Reserve but in controlled manner. It is an artificially created area meant for the conservation of plants and animals.

Achievers Section A. B. C. D.

Speed (m s–1) 10 8 6 4 2

0

0

:4

:3

10

10

am

am

am 5

am 0

:1 10

:0

11 :0 11 0 am :0 5a m

Time

0 10

46. Nikita completed a journey from a place A to another place B by her car. The given graph shows the speed variations with time over the journey.

(i) Cochlea Ear drum Pinna Pinna

(ii) Ear drum Anvil Ear drum Ear drum

(iii) Pinna Cochlea Cochlea Anvil

(iv) Anvil Pinna Anvil Cochlea

48. The electronic structures of atoms L, M and K are shown in the given figures.

The average speed between 10:15 am to 11:05 am is

A. C.

6.00 m s–1 6.50 m s–1

B. D.

6.25 m s–1 6.75 m s–1

47. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. The external ear which we see is known as (i) . This part collects the sound and sends it to the auditory canal. The sound in the form of compressions and rarefactions reaches the (ii) , and it begins to vibrate. The vibrations are amplified several times by three bones : the hammer, (iii) and stirrup. The amplified vibrations are then transmitted to the (iv) , which converts them into electric signals. These electric signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound. 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 |



Atom L has an isotope with the same nucleon number as M. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does the isotope of L contain? What is the relationship between atom K and atom M?

Protons A. 19 B. 19 C. 19 D. 20

Neutrons 21 21 21 20

Electrons K and M are 19 Isotopes 19 Isobars 20 Isobars 20 Isotopes 7

49. Read the following statements carefully and identify which of them are true (T) and which of them are false (F). (i) Aphids, bugs, etc., are sucking insects whereas weevils, borers, etc. are internal feeders. (ii) Exotic breed which is very popular for egg laying but is not ideal for meat purposes is White Leghorn. (iii) Concentrates in cattle feed consist of mostly fibres which come from hay, green fodder, etc. (iv) Fertilizers contain much higher amount of nutrients in comparison to the manures. (v) Karan Swiss is a high yielding cross breed cattle variety while Jersey-Sindhi is an indigenous breed of India. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) F T F A. F T B. T T F T F C. T T T T F D. F F F T T

50. Read the given passage in which some words are italicised. Rainfall is a major source of ground water. When the rain falls, some water is lost as run off. The remaining water percolates into the ground through pore spaces of soil particles under the influence of gravity. Some water forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around soil particles and is termed capillary water. The down moving water called gravitational water finally reaches the underground water table. Plants can draw only gravitational water from the soil. Some of these italicised words are put incorrectly. Find out them and select the correct option.

A. B.



C. D.

Rainfall should be replaced by oceans. Run off should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned. Capillary should be replaced by gravitational. Gravitational should be replaced by hygroscopic.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1

Class 9 18th

Set 2 Year 2015

Logical reasoning 1.

Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures. 10

16 12 1728

64



A. C.

1331 1000

2.

Find the correct water-image of Fig. (X) from the given options.

9

20

5

5



11

B. D.



?

23

16

2744 1728

5

8

8



8

3.

Four people P, Q, R and S live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. (i) P lives in the red house. (ii) Q drinks tea. (iii) R lives in the first house on the left. (iv) In the second house from the right, milk is the favourite drink. (v) R lives adjacent to the blue house. (vi) S drinks fruit juice. (vii) Tea is the favourite drink in the blue house. (viii) The white house is to the right of the red house. Which of the following statements is not true ?

D.



A. B. C. D.

Milk is the favourite drink in the red house. Q lives in the blue house. S lives in a corner house. Q lives next to the S.

4.

The following digits are coded as follows : Digits Letters

0 K

1 L

2 H

3 4 5 D M N

6 P

7 S

8 V



2

VHPMRDK ZHPMRDK

B. ZHPMRDZ D. None of these

5.

In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?



A.



B.



C.



D.

6.

If the first digit of each number replaces the third digit of that number, third digit replaces the second digit and the second digit replaces the first digit, and then the numbers thus formed are arranged in the descending order, then which number will be the third? 382  473  568  728  847  629 A. 568 B. 382 C. 473 D. 847

7.

Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.



A. 26 B. 28 C. 24 D. None of these

8.

Which of the following figures satisfies the same condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

9 R

While coding the number, following conditions are also to be observed. (i) If 5 or 2 occurs in the just middle of the number, then it is to be coded as X. (ii) If the first digit of the number is a prime number, then it is to be coded as Y. (iii) If the first digit of the number is odd but not a prime number, then it is to be coded as A.



A. C.

B.

C.





Fig.(X)





(iv) If the first digit of the number is even and the last digit be zero, then each of the both is to be coded as Z. (v) If 6 or 9 is neither at the first place or last place, then it is to be coded as B. 8264930

8

Fig. (X)

8

A. 5

28



12

5

15

15



Fig. (X)



A.



B.



C.



D.

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

C.

A



B.



D.

A 6

3

A

F

3 6

6

3

A 3

6

6

10. Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the Problem Figures.

2

F

F 6

3

F

2

A

F



A.

A

F

B. One D. Three



1

A 6

A. None C. Two

6

1

Problem Figures

A

F

6



R TJL2$D=M#8C%B r2 > r3 C. r3 > r1 > r2 D. r1 < r3 < r2 15. A car of mass 1000 kg rests on a horizontal road initially. It is then pushed over 5 m to a speed of 1 m s–1 before the engine is started. If the average frictional force acting on the car is 500 N, the total work done in moving the car before the driver starts the engine, is 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |



A. C.

500 J 3000 J

B. D.

2500 J 3500 J

16. The image of an object O is being observed in a mirror. Which of the following is the correct ray diagram?

A.

C.

O

O



B.



D.

O

O

17. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Force of friction between two surfaces depends on the area of contact common to the two surfaces. Statement 2 : More the area of contact common to the two surfaces, more is the opposition to the motion. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 18. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II (a) A child running to (i) F o r c e c a n m a k e a catch the school bus stationary object move (b) A man blowing a (ii) Force can stop a moving balloon object (c) A woman pushing a (iii) Force can change the table shape of an object (d) A cricketer catching (iv) Force can make an a ball object move faster A. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) C. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) 3

19. Two spheres of the same size but different masses make head-on collisions. The black sphere is half the mass of the white sphere. In each collision, one of the masses is initially at rest and both masses move after the collision. Which of the situations shows a possible collision?

A.



B.

6m

s–1

6 m s–1

6m



s–1

W

After 8 m s–1

2 m s–1

4 m s–1



C.

6 m s–1



3 m s–1

6 m s–1



D.

6 m s–1



1 m s–1

5 m s–1

20. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground, its potential energy and kinetic energy at a point P are in the ratio 1:5. If same body is projected with half the previous velocity, then at the same point P, ratio of its potential energy and kinetic energy would be

A. C.

1 : 2 1 : 5

B. D.

2:1 2:5

21. A book of mass m is lying on a table. It is then placed on the top shelf of a book rack by three different persons. The paths followed by the book as it is carried by three different persons is shown in the given figure. 1 2 3

The work done by the gravitational force on the book is maximum for A. Path 1 B. Path 2 C. Path 3 D. It is same for all the three paths.



22. Planets in our solar system are classified as inner and outer planets. Which of the following is incorrect about them? A. Outer planets are large in size whereas inner planets are comparatively smaller. B. Outer planets have rings orbiting them while inner planets do not have. C. Outer planets do not have moons orbiting them while inner planets have. D. Outer planets spin quicker than inner planets. 4

X

Temperature

Before



23. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the particles of a substance are packed at different temperatures.



I

Y

II

III

IV

Time

The given graph shows changes in the state of a substance on heating. In which region of the graph would all the particles be packed as in Y? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. 1. Although p is obtained from a natural source (wood pulp), yet it is a man-made fibre. 2. q was prepared from coal, water and air, its thread is stronger than a steel wire. 3. r does not get wrinkled easily, remains crisp and is easy to wash. p q r A. Acrylic Bakelite Cotton B. Rayon Nylon Polyester C. Silk Rayon Terylene D. Melamine PVC Polycot 25. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. P. Q. R. S. T. A. B. C. D.

Column I Foam (i) Aerosol (ii) Gel (iii) Emulsion (iv) Sol (v) P Q R (ii) (iv) (i) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (ii) (iv) (iv) (v) (i)

Column II Butter Face cream Milk of magnesia Sponge Automobile exhaust S T (iii) (v) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

26. Reena has arranged the following experimental set-up to observe the reactivity of different metals. Zn



FeSO4 (I)

Cu

Hot, dilute HCl AgNO3 (III) (II)

Fe

Cu

Al2(SO4)3 (IV)

In which beaker(s) will there be no reaction? A. I and III B. II and IV C. IV only D. All of these

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

27. Ninhydrin having molecular formula C 9 H 6 O 4 , is commonly used by forensic scientists to detect and analyse fingerprints. The number of molecules in 7.4 g of ninhydrin is (Atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u) B. 2.5 × 1023 A. 1.5 × 1022 C. 2.5 × 1022 D. 4.2 × 1023 28. Mass spectrum of lead is given as 60

53.8%

% Abundance

50 40 30 20

23.6%

22.6%

206

207 Mass

10 0



208

The relative atomic mass of lead is A. 208 B. 207.567 C. 207.302 D. 209

29. The given diagram shows the fractional distillation of crude oil.

fraction X



The correct statements are A. II and IV C. I, II and IV

B. D.

I and III All of these

31. Substances which vapourise while burning give flame. To verify this fact, Rahul conducted an experiment and recorded his observations in the given table. S. No. Material Does not form flame 1. Candle  2. Magnesium  3. Camphor  4. Kerosene stove  5. Charcoal 

Find the incorrect observations. A. 2, 4 and 5 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 5 D. None of these

32.

Find A. B. C. D.

the incorrect match. Brass – Copper and Tin German silver – Copper, Zinc and Nickel Solder – Lead and Tin Stainless steel – Iron, Chromium and Nickel

33. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the organisms P, Q and R shown in the picture?

fraction Y heated petroleum



Mark the correct option.

Y condenses X has higher boiling before X point than Y A. Yes Yes B. Yes No C. No Yes D. No No 30. Four samples P, Q, R and S were analysed using paper chromatography to check the presence of three different additives X, Y and Z. The final chromatograms are shown as

P Q R



S

X

Y

Z

Read the following statements carefully. I. P contains three components out of which one is X. II. S contains only one component which is X. III. Q contains two components which are X and Z. IV. R contains two components out of which one is Y.

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |



P Q R A. Organism P is a protozoan which captures and eats its prey with the help of its flagella. B. Organisms P and R cannot manufacture their food as they do not possess chlorophyll. C. Organism R is multicellular and obtains its food from dead and decaying organic matter. D. Organism Q is an alga found in deep ocean water.

34. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column I Column II P. An Indian breed of (i) Increase in milk buffalo production Q. Blue revolution (ii) Murrah R. White revolution (iii) Brown Swiss S. An exotic breed of (iv) Increase in fish cattle production T. Indigenous breed of (v) Aseel poultry A. P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii), T-(v) B. P-(v), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii), T-(ii) C. P-(v), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iii) D. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(v), T-(ii) 5

35. Read the following statements. (i) Irrigation protects the crops from both frost and hot air currents. (ii) Plants can absorb nutrients mostly in dissolved form. (iii) Excessive use of chemical fertilisers disturbs the balance of nutrients in the soil. (iv) The process of loosening and turning the soil is called digging (or levelling). (v) Rabi crops, such as paddy, require a lot of water and therefore they are sown at the beginning of the south-west monsoon, during June or July. Select the incorrect combination of statements.

A. B. C. D.

(i), (ii) and (iii) only (iii), (iv) and (v) only (iv) and (v) only (iii) and (iv) only

36. Refer to the given figures, P and Q and answer the following question.

P Q How do reproductive cells of P differ from those of Q in terms of their production and modes of storage?

A.



B.



C.



D.

38. The materials commonly used for staining and mounting human cheek cells are respectively

40. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are present in fluid-filled spaces called _______. These fluid-filled spaces of the bone communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _______. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage. A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm 41. Refer to the given flow chart. These are prokaryotic organisms

Mature reproductive cells of P can get stored for longer periods in reproductive tract whereas in Q, only immature reproductive cells remain stored. P produces fewer reproductive cells than Q does. Reproductive cells produced by P do not show motility. Q produces reproductive cells for a longer period in an individual’s life span than P does.



B.



C.



D. 6

The cell organelle is formed by the joint activity of ER and Golgi apparatus. The cell organelle is present in almost all the animal cells except mature mammalian RBCs. The cell organelle is equally abundant in plant and animal cells. Both A and B

Yes

P

No These are unicellular eukaryotic organisms

Yes

Q

No These are multicellular eukaryotic organisms Yes These exhibit autotrophic mode of nutrition

No

R

Yes These possess vascular tissues

• It is single membrane bound cell organelle. • Enzymes of this cell organelle resorbed the tail of tadpole during metamorphosis. A.

Safranin and glycerine Methylene blue and glycerine Safranin and methylene blue Fast green and glycerine.

39. Conversion of fertile land into desert is called desertification. Which of the following is not a consequence of desertification? A. Decrease in the water holding capacity of soil B. Increased chances of floods C. Increase in the temperature of earth D. Decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in atmosphere

37. Based on the given features, identify the cell organelle and select the correct option regarding it.



A. B. C. D.

No

S

Yes T



Select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R, S and T. A. P can be Thiobacillus or Clostridium and Q can be Euglena or Paramecium. B. R can be Aspergillus or Claviceps. C. S can be Sphagnum or Salvinia. D. T can be Pinus or Azadirachta. | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

42. Study the given table carefully and select the option that correctly fills up the blanks P, Q, R and S. Disease

Causative Symptoms organism Hepatitis Virus P Elephantiasis Swelling of legs or Q other body parts. Protozoan Fever, fatigue, R enlargement of liver, spleen etc. Ringworm Scaly and itchy skin S

A.



B.



C.



D.

P-Acute inflammation of liver, Q-Worm, R-Kalaazar, S-Fungus. P-Ulcers in stomach and duodenum, Q-Protozoan, R-Malaria, S-Virus. P-Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest, Q-Bacterium, R-Sleeping sickness, S-Fungus. P-Reduction in natural immunity of body, Q-Fungus, R-Anthrax, S-Bacterium.

43. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Pesticides like DDT enter the food chains and their concentration goes on increasing from one trophic level to the next. Statement 2 : Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable organic compounds which are not metabolised within the organisms' body and get stored in their body tissues. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.



C. D.

Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

44. Read the following statements (a – c) and select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in these statements. (a) An organism that transmits a disease from an infected person to a healthy person is called (i) . (b) Poliomyelitis is a (ii) disease and anthrax is a (iii) disease. (c) Allergic diseases (e.g. asthma) are (iv) . diseases. A. (i)-Secondary host, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Communicable B. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Fungal, (iv)-Communicable C. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Non-communicable D. (i)-Parasite, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Protozoan, (iv)-Infectious 45. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. B.



C.



D.

Ozone layer occurs naturally in the stratosphere. Chlorofluorocarbons are the major ozone depleting substances which produce active chlorine radicals in the presence of UV radiations. Thinning of ozone layer allows more UV radiations to pass through it and cause harmful effects on humans, plants and animals. The region of the stratosphere that contains relatively high concentration of ozone is called troposphere.

Achievers section Direction : Refer to the given dichotomous key and answer the questions 46 and 47.

(a) Cellular level of body organisation is present – Go to V (a) (b) Tissue/organ level of body organisation is present – Go to II (II) (a) Radial symmetry is present – Go to V (b) (b) Bilateral symmetry is present – Go to III (a) (III) (a) It is acoelomate – Go to IV (a) (b) It is true coelomate – Go to IV (b)

(I)

(IV) (a) It is triploblastic and parasitic – P

(b) It is segmented and sanguivorous – Q (V) (a) It is found in deep sea waters and is a costly wedding gift in Japan – R

(b) It is a freshwater polyp – S

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 |

46. Identify organisms P, Q, R and S.

A. B. C. D.

P Q Fasciola Hirudinaria Euspongia Wuchereria Loligo Asterias Nereis Scolopendra

R S Euplectella Hydra Limax Palaemon Tubifex Ascaris Adamsia Sepia

47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the given dichotomous key?

A.



B.



C.



D.

The body of organism P is perforated by numerous pores called ostia. The excretory system of Q consists of characteristic flame cells or protonephridia. The body wall of S consists of special stinging cells called cnidoblasts. Body of R bears paired locomotory appendages called parapodia. 7

49. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 5 kg. The force acting on the particle for 0 < t < 4 s and 8 s < t < 12 s, respectively are

A.

5 N, 5 N

x(m)



B.

5 N, 7.5 N

8



C.

5 N, 10 N

4



D.

0 N, 0 N

0

4

8

12

50. Observe the given curve carefully and mark the correct statement. Temperature (°C)

48. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. A body sinks when its weight is (i) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body floats when its weight is (ii) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body sinks if the density of the body is (iii) than the density of liquid. A body floats if the density of the body is (iv) than the density of liquid. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. More Less Less More B. More Less More Less C. Less More Less More D. Less More More Less



A.



B.



C.



D.

t(s)

T1

t1

Time (min)

t2

T1 is the melting point and dry ice changes to CO2 gas from time t1 to t2. T1 is the boiling point and water vapours change to water from time t1 to t2. T1 is the freezing point and molten copper(II) sulphate changes to solid copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2. T1 is the melting point and solid copper(II) sulphate changes to molten copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1

Class 9 19th

Set A Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.



Select the correct mirror image of given combination of letters and numbers, if mirror is placed vertically to the left. 391DA5GM A. B. C. D.

2.

Select the figure from the options in which Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part.



A.



B.



C.



D.

3.

In a certain code, GIVE is written as 51@ © and FAIL is written as %219. How is LEAF written in that code? A. 5 © 2% B. 9 © 2% C. 9 @ 2% D. 9 © 1%

4.



A. C.

5.

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship amongst, "Red, Clothes and Roses"?



A.



C.

6.

Trishu starts from point P and walks towards West and stops at point Q. She now takes a right turn and then a left turn and stops at point R. She finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If she walks 5 km before taking each turn, towards which direction will Trishu have to walk from point S to reach point Q. A. North B. South C. West D. East

7.

2

B. D.



Rules : (i) If an odd number is followed by another odd number which is a perfect square, then they are to be added. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number or an odd number is followed by an even number, they are to be multiplied. (iii) If an even number is followed by another even number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. (iv) If an even number which is a multiple of 5 is followed by an odd number which is also a multiple of 5, then the second number is to be subtracted from the first number. 18 7 6 140 85 49 What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows? B. 55 A. 104 C. 121 D. 125 8.

In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Choose the correct option. b_ac_cc_cb_ab_ac cbaba abbbc



bbaac aabba

Three different positions of a dice are given below. 6

5

2

3

1

4

3

6

2

Which of the following is the net of the given dice?

A.

5

3



1 2

5



C.

4

B.

6

1 5

2

3

4 2



1 6

4 6

D.

5

2

3 4

3

6

1

9.

Select the figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X).



A.

B.

D.

Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right.



C.





B.

D.



10. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue. There are five persons between P and Q and eight other persons between Q and R. If there are only three persons ahead of R and 21 persons behind P, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue? A. 40 B. 43 C. 47 D. 482 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

Science 11. A body covers 26, 28, 30 and 32 metre in 10 th , 11th , 12th and 13th seconds respectively. The body starts A. From rest and moves with uniform velocity. B. From rest and moves with uniform acceleration. C. With an initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration. D. With an initial velocity and moves with non-uniform acceleration.

16. The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies of the sound waves produced by it in water and air will A. Be the same as that of the source B. Depend upon the velocity of the waves in these media C. Depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these media D. Depend upon the density of the media.

12. A solid cylinder of length l, cross sectional area A and density 5 × 103 kg m– 3 is immersed such 4 that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length l/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the figure. The lesser dense liquid is open to atmospheric pressure P0 . If the density of lesser dense liquid is 1.0 ×103 kg m–3 then the density of denser liquid will be A. 1.5 × 103 kg m–3 B. 2.0 × 103 kg m–3 3 –3 C. 2.5 × 10 kg m D. 3.0 × 103 kg m–3

17. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun in a circle of radius r. What is the work done by the gravitational force F in moving the planet over half the circumference of the circle? A. Zero B. F × 2pr C. F × pr D. F × 2r

13. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The forces of action and reaction always appear due to actual physical contact of two bodies. Statement 2 : A particle can move only under the action of a force. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 14. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. When it has fallen by 5 m from the top, another stone is dropped from a point 25 m below the top. If both stones reach the ground at the same moment, then height of the tower from ground is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 45 m B. 50 m C. 60 m D. 65 m Wave disturbance

15. Refer to the graph given here:



R P

Q

S

Time

Which of the following sound waves is high-pitched but soft? A. P B. Q C. R D. S

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

18. Two satellites of masses m1 and m 2 (m1 > m 2) are revolving around the earth in circular orbits of radii r 1 and r 2 (r 1 > r 2) respectively. Which of the following is true regarding their respective speeds v1 and v 2? A. v1 = v2 B. v1 > v2 C. v1 < v2 D. Cannot be predicted 19. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (i) Work and energy have different units. (ii) Two bodies of unequal masses have equal acceleration at any instant of time when they are dropped from a cliff. (iii) When an aeroplane takes off, the work done by its weight is positive. (iv) When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of its momentum and kinetic energy gets halved. A. (ii) only B. (i) and (iii) only C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 20. A bicycle is being pedalled on a horizontal road. The forces of friction between the road and the front and rear wheels are F1 and F2 respectively. Then A. Both F1 and F2 act in the forward direction. B. Both F1 and F2 act in the backward direction. C. F1 acts in the forward direction, F2 acts in the backward direction. D. F1 acts in the backward direction, F2 acts in the forward direction. 21. A girl whose eyes are 150 cm above the ground looks at her reflection in a vertical mirror 250 cm away. The top and bottom of the mirror are 200 cm and 120 cm above the ground respectively. What length below her eyes can she see, of herself in the mirror? A. 60 cm B. 75 cm C. 100 cm D. 120 cm 3

22. The given diagrams show four mercury barometers.





If the value of external pressure in cases (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) is represented by P I , P II , P II I and P IV respectively, then



A. C.

PI > PII = PIII > PIV PIII > PII > PIV > PI

B. D.

PIV > PII = PIII > PI PI = PII = PIII = PIV

23. The given diagram represents an activity to separate a mixture of two substances X and Y :



26. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. In an oil refinery, crude oil is heated to about 673 K and passed into the (i) . As the vapours rise towards the top, the different hydrocarbons (ii) at different heights and are withdrawn separately. Substance with (iii) boiling point is collected at the (iv) of the column.

Substances X and Y are respectively A. Sugar and common salt B. Acetone and water C. Ammonium chloride and naphthalene D. Ethyl alcohol and sodium chloride.



25. Which of the following statements are correct? (Given: At. wt. of Ca = 40 u, Mg = 24 u, N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u) I. 240 g of calcium and 240 g of magnesium elements have a molar ratio of 3 : 5. II. 100 g of N2 contains more atoms than 100 g of NH3. III. Total number of ions in 5.85 g of sodium chloride is 1.2 × 1022. 4

(iii)

(iv)

Distillation flask

Condense

Lowest

Top

B.

Chromato- graphic column

Melt

Highest

Top

C.

Fractionating Condense Highest column

Bottom

D.

Fractionating Condense column

Bottom

Lowest

27. The arrangement of particles of an unknown substance at the same pressure at two different temperatures is shown in the diagrams : Which of the following substances could the diagrams represent?

P.

I am extensively used in the healthcare industry but my one disadvantage is that I am nonbiodegradable. Q. I am very familiar form of polyester and used for making bottles, utensils, films, wires, etc. R. I am synthetic fibre, having wool-like feel and cheaper than wool. S. I am thermosetting plastic and poor conductor of heat and electricity. P, Q, R and S are respectively A. PET, Rayon, Petrochemical, Plastic B. Terylene, Acrylic, Rayon, Melamine C. PVC, PET, Nylon, Teflon D. Plastic, PET, Acrylic, Bakelite.

(ii)

A.

24. Read the following statements carefully.

(i)





IV. 1 gram molecule of hydrogen gas contains 12.046 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen. V. 5.6 g of nitrogen gas occupies 3.2 L of volume at STP. A. II and III only B. I, II and III only C. I and IV only D. IV and V only

Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C)

A. B. C. D.

P Q

–189 –132

–98 –163

R

–166

–103

S

–115

–86

28. The schematic atomic structures of three elements X, Y and Z are given as :



Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?



I. II. III. IV. V.



A. C.

Z can form ZCl3 and ZCl5. Y exists in monoatomic form. X and Z combine to form X3Z type compound. X and Y combine to form XY2 type compound. X will gain two electrons to form a stable compound. I and II only B. I, II and IV only II, IV and V only D. III, IV and V only | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

29. Observe the given diagram carefully.

.Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Both the metal strips will dissolve in beaker 2. II. Colour of the solution will change in beaker 1. III. Reaction will take place in beaker 3 but there will be no colour change. IV. Reaction will occur only in beakers 1 and 2. A. II and III only B. I and II only C. I and IV only D. All of these

30. In an experiment, 1.50 g of pure copper (II) oxide was reduced to pure metal by heating with pure carbon. In another experiment, 1.15 g of pure copper was treated with nitric acid and the product formed was heated strongly till no further change was observed. The mass of copper (II) oxide so formed was found to be 1.40 g. The mass of pure metal formed in the first experiment and the law followed are respectively

A. B. C. D.

1.15 g and law of conservation of mass 1.50 g and law of constant proportions 1.23 g and law of constant proportions 2.47 g and law of multiple proportions.

A.



B. C.



D.

Liquid wax is vaporised and the vapours of wax burn. Carbon from the wax vaporises to burn. Carbon from the wax combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide which burns. Hydrogen of the wax burns to form water.

32. The given table shows the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in atoms or ions. Which atom/ion in the table is an isotope of the atom with the composition of 11 p, 11 e and 14 n?



Atoms/ Ions

Number of protons (p)

Number of electrons (e)

Number of neutrons (n)

P

11

11

12

Q

18

18

22

R

15

18

16

S

11

10

14

A. C.

P R

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

B. D.

Q S

34. Refer to the diagrammatic representations of parts of two different tissues, X and Y.



31. Wax burns with a flame because

33. A strain of an animal exists in wild in which there is only one nucleolus in the nucleus of each cell instead of the usual two. When such animals are mated, approximately one quarter of the offspring have two nucleoli per nucleus, one half have one nucleolus per nucleus and one quarter have no nucleolus at all. Offspring without nucleoli die about four days after hatching. These offspring die because they do not possess A. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy B. Centrioles and are unable to undergo cell division C. Golgi apparatus and are unable to remove dead cells D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture proteins.



Now, read the following statements and select the correct ones regarding these tissues. (i) X is an animal tissue whereas Y is a plant tissue. (ii) X is the major water conducting tissue in vascular plants and gives mechanical strength to plant body. (iii) X is composed of all dead cells whereas Y is composed of all living cells. (iv) X conducts water in vascular plants in downward direction. (v) In animals, Y helps in conduction of nerve impulses from various organs to brain and spinal cord and vice versa. A. (i) and (ii) only B. (iv) only C. (v) only D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only

35. The given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. The river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________.

A. C.

P R



B. D.

Q S 5

36. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S and T.

39. Read the given sentences, each with one or two blanks and select the option that correctly fills any four of these.

P Q Funaria A. Pinus B. Spirogyra Funaria

C. D.



R

S

T



Ulothrix Brassica

Riccia

Dryop- teris

Cycas

Hibiscus



Ginkgo

Salvia

Marsilea

Adiantum

Pteridium



Tagetes

Marchantia

Volvox

Lycopodium Cycas

Direction : Read the given passage and answer the questions 37 and 38. Sukriti and Priya are good friends and study in I standard of a reputed school. On a hot summer day, while they both were playing in the school playground, Priya felt uncomfortable and sat down. After some time she developed acute headache and high fever. Her legs stopped moving and she also felt some stiffness in her neck. Soon she became unconscious.

P causes ulcers in stomach and duodenum. Q diseases last for only short period of time but are severe. (iii) R diseases are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present since birth, e.g., S . (iv) Malaria causing microbes are transmitted through bite of infected T and move to U and then red blood cells of humans. A. P-Salmonella typhi, R-Chronic, T-Sandfly, U-Brain cells B. Q-Acute, S-Kala azar, T-Tsetse fly, U-Pancreas C. P-Helicobacter pylori, R-Congenital, S-Cleft palate, U – Liver D. Q-Chronic, R-Acute, T-Aedes mosquito, U-Spleen (i) (ii)

40. The given diagrams show two different cropping patterns, X and Y. Identify these patterns and select the incorrect option regarding them.

37. Identify the disease which Priya has contracted, along with its causative agent and mode of transmission. Disease A. Malaria

Causative agent Protozoan

B. Tuberculosis Bacteria C. Polio Virus D. Diphtheria Fungus

Mode of transmission Bite of infected Anopheles Contaminated water Faecal oral route Sharing of clothes

38. What could be the probable reason for Sukriti not being affected by pathogen of this disease?

A.



B.



C.



D.

6

Sukriti's immune system has already encountered the weakened pathogens and developed memory cells, which produce antibodies whenever pathogen enters her body. Sukriti had actually contracted the disease few months back and recovered, hence her immune system has developed memory cells, which prevent any subsequent pathogen attack. Sukriti is taking antibiotics regularly, which kill the pathogens entering her body and prevent the actual disease. Sukriti has received antibodies against the pathogen from her mother via placenta so she is immune to the pathogen of this disease by birth.



A.



B.



C.



D.

In cropping pattern X, the crops should not have the same root pattern. Crops selected for cropping pattern Y should have different type of nutrient requirement. Crops selected for cropping pattern X must have different maturation time. In cropping pattern Y, only two crops can be grown simultaneously at a time.

41. G i v e n b e l o w i s the diagrammatic representation of an animal tissue, X. Identify the tissue and select the correct option regarding it.

A.



B.



C. D.

Tissue X forms a shock absorbing cushion around kidneys and eyeballs. Tissue X fills the spaces inside the organs and fastens the peritoneum to the body wall. Tissue X connects skeletal muscles with bones. Tissue X is commonly called packaging tissue of the body. | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

42. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P, Q and R.

Organised Cell wall Q nucleus present present R P Chlorophyll present Unicellular organisms



A. B. C. D.

P could be Chlamydomonas or Aspergillus. Q could be Volvox or Penicillium. R could be Lactobacillus or Rhizobium. All of these

Identify P and Q and select the correct option.

A. B. C. D.

P P P P

– Aldosterone, Q – Thyroxine – Adrenaline, Q – Aldosterone – Insulin, Q – Adrenaline – Thyroxine, Q – Adrenaline

44. Which of the following activities will lead to both air and water pollution? A. Use of manures and fertilisers in a crop field B. Use of cooling devices like air conditioners and refrigerators C. Burning of fossil fuels and use of fuel operated transport vehicles. D. All of these 45. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of a biosphere reserve.

43. Refer to the diagram showing organ X of the human body and read the following paragraph.

Organ X secretes two hormones P and Q. P prepares our body to function at maximum efficiency during emergency situations whereas Q maintains the correct salt balance in the blood.



Select the correct statement regarding this. A. Tourists can visit P and Q zones but are not allowed in the R zone. B. Human settlement and cultivation of crops is allowed in P and Q zones only. C. Human activities like research and environmental education are allowed in all P, Q and R zones. D. Cutting of trees is allowed in all the zones but hunting of wild animals is allowed only in Q zone.

Achievers section 46. Study the given graph carefully and select the correct statement(s).

47. Refer to the given graph and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. Velocity (m s–1) 8 6 4 2 0 –2 –4 –6



I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D.

When water is cooled to 4°C, the volume decreases. Ice and water co-exist at 0°C. Water has minimum density at point Q. The volume of ice is more than that of water. I only II and III only I, II and IV only All of these

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 |

5 10 15 20

25 30

Time(s)

The displacement of the particle from its initial position at the end of 15 s and 30 s is ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ respectively. The average velocity of the particle between 15 s and 25 s and 0 s to 30 s is ___(iii)___ and ___(iv)___ respectively. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A. 40 m 60 m 4 m s–1 2 m s–1 B. 40 m 100 m 2 m s–1 4 m s–1 –1 C. 20 m 60 m 4ms 4 m s–1 –1 D. 20 m 100 m 2ms 2 m s–1 7

48. A particle falls from rest under gravity. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of (i) its potential energy with respect to the ground against time and (ii) its kinetic energy against time? E



(i)

A.

E

(ii)



(i)

B.

(ii)

Time E



C.

(i)

E

(ii)

Time

D.

(i)

Time (ii)



A.



B.



C.



D.

Body of organism P contains numerous small pores called ostia and a single large opening called osculum on top. Organism Q possesses gill slits at some stage of its life. The body of organism R is differentiated into head, visceral mass and ventral foot. Organism S possesses nematocysts.

50. Refer to the given diagram of an animal cell and select the option that correctly describes the functional relationship between organelles P and Q.

Time

49. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the incorrect option regarding organisms P, Q, R and S. I. (a) Animals with cellular level – P of body organisation. (b) Animals with tissue/organ/ – Go to II organ system level of body organisation. II. (a) Animals possessing – Go to III (a) bilateral symmetry. (b) Animals possessing – Go to III (b) radial symmetry. III. (a) True coelom is present. – Go to IV (a) (b) True coelom is absent. – Go to IV (b) IV. (a) Notochord is present. – Q (b) Notochord is absent. – Go to V V. (a) It forms symbiotic – R association with hermit crab. (b) It is commonly known as jelly fish. – S



A.



B.



C.



D.

Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are modified into functional proteins for secretion. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged into vesicles that move to Q for further modification. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged without modification and move to Q where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1

Class 9 19th

Set B Year 2016

logical reasoning 1.

2. 3.

Trishika and Sidak started walking from two different points 'A' and 'B' respectively. Trishika walks 5 km North and turns to the East and walks 6 km. She again turns to North and walks 4 km and finally she turns to East and walks 3 km to reach point 'C'. Similarly, Sidak walks 5 km North and turns to West and walks 6 km and finally turns to North, walks 4 km and meets Trishika at point 'C'. In which direction is point 'B' from point 'A'? A. East B. West C. South D. North Count the number of triangles formed in the given figure. A. 36 B. 32 C. 38 D. None of these There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the given options that would replace the (?) in fig. 4.

7.

A square transparent sheet with a pattern on it is given. If the sheet is folded along the dotted line, then which pattern would appear from the given options?



A.



B.



C.



D.

8.

Find the missing number, if same rule is followed in all the three figures.



A. C.

9.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. Input : wind packet 19 7 back 12 task 34

4 7

B. D.

12 14



A.



B.



C.



D.

4.

If in a certain code language, LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7«3$, then how will HAIL be coded in the same language? A. 7&8« B. &7«8 C. 7«&8 D. 7&«8

Step II : 34 back wind packet 19 7 12 task

Two positions of a dice are shown here. Find the number opposite to 3. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Step VII : 34 back 19 packet 12 task 7 wind and Step VII is the last step.

5. 6.

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship amongst, "Males, Females and Brothers"?



A.



C. 2



Step I : 34 wind packet 19 7 back 12 task Step III : 34 back 19 wind packet 7 12 task Step IV : 34 back 19 packet wind 7 12 task Step V : 34 back 19 packet 12 wind 7 task Step VI : 34 back 19 packet 12 task wind 7

As per the rules followed in the above steps, if Step II of an input is "37 desk 34 garden 5 father victory 17", then which of the following steps will be the last step?

A. C.

Step III Step IV

B. D.

Step V Step VI

B.

10. Select the correct water image of the given combination of letters and numbers from the given options. LosCi2016nSo

D.



A. C.



B. D.

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

SCIENCE 11. A particle starts from rest and travels a distance x with uniform acceleration, then it travels a distance 2x with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation and comes to rest. If the whole motion of the particle is a straight line, then the ratio of its average velocity to maximum velocity is

A. C.

6 : 7 2 : 3

B. D.

4:5 3:5

12. A student uses a spring balance of range 500 g wt. He records the weight of a small iron cube of mass 100 g in air, in tap water and in a concentrated solution of common salt in water. His three readings taken in the given order are W1, W2 and W3. His measurements could be

A. C.

W1 = W2 = W3 W1 < W2 < W3

B. D.

W1 > W2 > W3 W1 < W2 > W3

13. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A spaceship, while entering the Earth's atmosphere is likely to catch fire. Statement 2 : The temperature of the upper atmosphere is very high. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 14. Two particles, one with constant velocity of 50 m s–1 and the other start from rest with uniform acceleration of 10 m s–2 , start moving simultaneously from the same position in the same direction. They will be at a distance of 125 m from each other after

A. 5 s and 5(1 + 2 ) s B. 5 s and 10 s C. 5(1 + 2 ) s and 10 s D. 10 s and 10(1 + 2 ) s.

15. A signal generator is connected to a loud speaker. Keeping the amplitude of the wave constant, the frequency of the sound is increased from 0 Hz to 21 kHz. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the loudness of the sound with the frequency as heard by a normal healthy man? Loudness

Loudness



A.

0 Loudness



B. 0

Frequency 21 kHz

Loudness

C.

0

Frequency 21 kHz

Frequency 21 kHz

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

D. 0

Frequency 21 kHz

16. A body is projected vertically up. At certain height h above the ground, the ratio of its potential energy to the kinetic energy is 2 : 3. At what height above the ground, the ratio of its kinetic energy to the potential energy will be 2 : 3 ? 3 2 h h B. A. 2 5 9 4 h h C. D. 8 7 17. In an experiment to measure the speed of sound in air, a boy stands 40 m from a wall and bangs two pieces of wood together. At the instant he hears the echo, he bangs them together again. He does this activity 50 times. The time taken for 50 bangs is 12 s. Which calculation gives the speed (in m s-1) of sound in air? 10 40 × 50 A. B. 40 × 50 12 40 × 2 × 12 40 × 2 × 50 C. D. 50 12 18. Two vessels P and Q of equal volume and weight are immersed in water to depth h. The vessel P has an opening at the bottom through which water can enter. If the work done in immersing P and Q are WP and WQ respectively, then A. WP > WQ B. WP < WQ C. WP = WQ D. Cannot be predicted. 19. The density of a planet PL1 is thrice that of planet PL2. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface 1th of PL1 is of that at the surface of planet PL2. If the 9 radius of planet PL2 is R, then the radius of planet PL1 will be A. R/3 B. R/27 C. 27R D. 81R 20. A ball of mass 400 g is dropped from a height of 5 m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically upwards with a bat with an average force of 100 N, so that it attains a vertical height of 20 m. The time for which the ball remains in contact with the bat is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 0.08 s B. 0.12 s C. 2 s D. 5 s 21. Which of the following statements does explain how a positively charged object becomes neutral when someone touches it? A. Electrons flow from the object. B. Electrons flow on to the object. C. Protons flow from the object. D. Protons flow on to the object. 3

22. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(i) Pupil gives the eye its distinctive colour. (ii) Iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye. (iii) Cones are sensitive to dim light and rods to bright light. (iv) Near point for a normal eye is 25 m. (v) Far point for a normal eye is infinity. A. (ii) and (iii) only B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)



Temperature (°C)

23. Dhairya, a Class 9 student 120 heated a solid ‘X’ beyond 90 P Q its melting point. Then, he 60 allowed the hot liquid to R 30 cool slowly and recorded the 0 Time (min) temperature at regular time intervals until it cooled to 20°C. He obtained the given cooling curve. The parts of graph where ‘X’ exists in solid state, in liquid state and in both solid and liquid states are respectively A. Q, P and R B. P, Q and R C. R, P and Q D. R, Q and P. 24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. W is a very reactive metal, reacts vigorously with oxygen and water therefore, stored in (1) . X is a non-metal, soft and dull and forms (2) oxides with oxygen. Y is very reactive (3) , catches fire if exposed to air therefore, stored in water. Z does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid even on heating but it reacts with sulphuric acid. When it is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull (4) coating.

A.



B.



C.



D.

W-Na, 1-Water; X-S, 2-Basic; Y-P, 3-Metal; Z-Cu, 4-Reddish brown W-Mg, 1-Kerosene; X-P, 2-Acidic; Y-Si, 3-Metal; Z-Ag, 4-Reddish brown W- N a , 1 - K e r o s e n e ; X- S , 2 - A c i d i c ; Y- P, 3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green W-Al, 1-Water; X-Zn, 2-Amphoteric; Y-P, 3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green

25. Compounds formed by four different elements P, Q, R and S are PQ 3, P2 S 3, RS 2 and RQ4. The possible electronic configurations of elements P, Q, R and S are P A. 2, 8, 2 B. 2, 8, 3 C. 2, 8 D. 2, 8, 3 4

Q 2, 8 2, 8 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 7

R 2, 1 2, 1 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 4

S 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 2 2, 1 2, 6

26. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : During fractional distillation of petroleum, the temperature increases inside the fractionating column on going from bottom to the top. Statement 2 : The fraction with the lower boiling point condenses first. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 27. A group of class 9 students was given a paint fragment containing two dyes X and Y. Three different types of chromatograms were obtained using three different solvents as shown in the figure :



Which of the following statements is correct? A. Y is soluble in ethanol but X is not. B. X is soluble in ethanol as well as in petroleum ether. C. Y is insoluble in propanone as well as in petroleum ether. D. All of these

28. Cotton is used to make clothes as A. It is strong, heavy and absorbs water B. It has low tensile strength, absorbs dyes and is transparent C. It is light, soft, absorbs dyes and sweat D. It is good conductor of heat. 29. The composition of five particles P, Q, given in the table : Substance No. of No. of protons neutrons 25 30 P 13 13 Q 13 14 R 9 10 S 9 10 T Identify atoms, ions and isotopes. Atoms Ions A. P, Q, S R, T B. R, T P, Q, S C. P, Q, S R, T D. Q, R P, T

R, S and T is No. of electrons 25 13 10 9 10 Isotopes S and T Q and R Q and R S and T

30. Observe the given figures carefully : Chimney

(1)

Glass plate

(2)

(3)

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1



Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? I. Candle 1 burns freely due to presence of air. II. Smoke is produced in candle 2 due to less supply of air. III. Flame finally goes off in candle 3 as air is not available. A. II only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. None of these

31. Match the columns I, II and III and select the correct option using the given codes. Column I Column II (a) 4.25 g of NH3 (i) 2 moles (b) 4 g of H2 (ii) 0.25 mol (c) 10 moles of H2SO4 (d) 12 g of oxygen gas (e) 1 mole of nitrogen atom

(iii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms

Column III (p) 5.6 L at STP (q) 6.022 × 1023 × 0.75 atoms (r) 14 g

(iv) 0.375 mole (s) 12.046 × 1023 molecules (v) 980 g (t) 7× 10 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms



(Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u) a b c d e A. (iii), (q) (i), (p) (iv), (r) (ii), (s) (v), (t) B. (ii), (t) (iii), (p) (iv), (s) (i), (q) (v), (r) C. (i), (p) (ii), (q) (v), (r) (iii), (s) (iv), (t) D. (ii), (p) (i), (s) (v), (t) (iv), (q) (iii), (r)



18 p 22 n

20 p 20 n

I

II

III

18 p 20 n

18 p 18 n

19 p 21 n

35. Potato tuber strips measuring 5 cm were prepared and placed in Petri dishes filled with varying concentrations of sucrose solution (0.0M to 0.6M). After 20 minutes, their final lengths were recorded and their percentage change in length calculated. The graph below shows the percentage change in length of potato strips in increasing concentrations of sucrose solution. 20 15 10 5 0 –5 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 –10 –15 –20

V

VI





A. C.

IV

I and II only II and VI only

B. D.

II, III and VI only II, III, IV and V only

33. Shown below are the diagrammatic representations of two different types of tissues P and Q.

P



Q

Which of the following holds true regarding tissues P and Q ? A. Tissue P helps in gaseous exchange in multicellular animals. B. Tissue Q provides mechanical support, elasticity and tensile strength to the plant part where it is present. C. Tissue P is the most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body.

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

Cells of tissue Q have extremely thick walls, which possess thickenings of pectin and lignin at corners.

34. Refer to the given cross-section of Q P conducting tissue of a plant and select the correct option regarding P, Q and R. A. P and R are non-living cells R devoid of living protoplast at maturity. B. P is present in all vascular plants whereas Q is confined to angiosperms only. C. Both P and Q take part in conduction of water but P possesses perforations whereas Q is imperforated cell. D. None of these

32. Which of the following are isobars? 20 p 22 n

D.

Percentage change in length (%)





(M)

Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the given graph? A. 0.3 M sucrose solution is isotonic to cell sap of potato cells. B. Negative percentage change in potato strip length is due to endosmosis. C. Positive percentage change in potato strip length is due to exosmosis. D. 0.6 M sucrose solution is hypotonic and 0.2 M sucrose solution is hypertonic to cell sap of potato cells.

36. Shown below are cross sectional diagrams of three animals P, Q and R.



P

Q

R

Which of the following is correct regarding organisms P, Q and R ? A. Organism P is always diploblastic whereas organisms Q and R are triploblastic. B. Organism Q could be a flatworm or a roundworm. C. Body cavity of organism Q arises from embryonic mesoderm. D. Organism R could be an annelid or an echinoderm. 5

37. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding P, Q, R and S. Communicable disease

No

Yes

Spreads through direct contact

Yes

Caused due to hypo or hypersecretion of hormones

Yes

P

Q

No

Spreads through contaminated food and water

Yes

R

No

Spreads through vectors



A.



B.



C. D.

Yes

S

Disease P is caused due to malfunctioning of exocrine glands while diseases Q, R and S are caused by pathogenic microbes. S is a contagious disease while Q and R are non contagious diseases. Q could be hepatitis B while R could be Kala azar. S could be sleeping sickness while R could be cholera.

38. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Particulate matter (i) Chemical water pollutants (b) Detergents (ii) Non-degradable soil pollutants (c) Plastics (iii) Degradable soil pollutants (d) Vegetable peels (iv) Air pollutants

A. B. C. D.

(a) (a) (a) (a)

-

(i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

39. Refer to the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct option regarding this. Animals used in agriculture and for transport are called milch animals whereas animals used for milk production are called draught animals. Production of good quality milk depends much on the type of breed e.g., exotic breeds of cattle like Red Sindhi and Jersey produce on an average 60L milk in a day. On the other hand, local breeds such as Sahiwal and Brown Swiss produce on an average only 6 – 8L of milk per day. Cattle suffer from several diseases which may reduce the milk production. E.g., anthrax is a fatal viral disease, whereas foot and mouth disease is a bacterial disease which broadly affect the health of cattle thereby, reducing milk production.

A.

6

The positions of Jersey and Sahiwal should be interchanged.



B.



C.



D.

The positions of Red Sindhi and Brown Swiss should be interchanged. Viral should be replaced with protozoan and bacterial should be replaced with fungal. Milch and draught should not be replaced as they are correctly mentioned.

40. X and Y are two systems of irrigation. X makes use of a simple machine, i.e., wheel and axle and is animal driven. Y, on the other hand, involves network of narrow pipes with small holes which run through the crop field that are supplied by water through electrical pumps. Identify X and Y systems of irrigation and select the correct option regarding them.

A.



B.



C.



D.

Y system of irrigation is a wasteful process as the crop field gets flooded with excess water which is not required by the crop plants. X irrigation system provides water to plants drop by drop so water is not wasted at all. Y irrigation system is very useful in those regions where availability of water is very poor. X irrigation system is best for watering fruit plants and trees.

41. Refer to the given figure of male reproductive system. Which of the following correctly describes difference between X and Y?

A. B.



C. D.

X

Y

X is a gland but Y is not. Both X and Y are glands but X is an endocrine gland while Y is an exocrine gland. Y secretes male sex hormones but X does not. X serves to produce sperms while Y serves to produce all other constituents of semen.

42. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S, T and U. Microorganisms with cell wall Prokaryotes

Functions Eukaryotes

P

1. Decomposition of detritus R 2. Association with roots of higher plants T 3. Production of antibiotic

Q S U

P Q R S T U A. Mycobac- Yeast Vibrio Asper- Lactoba- Rhizo

B. C.

terium

gillus

cillus

pus

Azotobac- Agari- Salmo- Pucci- Diploco- Mucor ter cus nella nia ccus Pseudo- monas

D. Vibrio

Physa- Rhizo- Glomus Strepto- rum bium coccus

Mucor Pseudo- Agari- Myco- monas cius bacter- ium

Penicillium Physa- rum

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

R 43. Study the given diagram of an P animal cell. Which of the following statements are correct regarding P, Q, R and S? S (i) S fuses with R to release its Q content into the extracellular space. (ii) Proteins formed in Q are modified into glycoproteins in P. (iii) If radioactively labelled amino acids are provided to the cell then radioactivity will first appear in S. (iv) Q is involved in the synthesis of R. (v) S buds off from cis face of Q. A. (i) and (iii) only B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i) and (iv) only Q

Population

44. The given graph shows changes in populations of three species, P, Q and R in an ecosystem over time. Which of the following could not be inferred from the given graph?

R

P

Time



A.



B.



C.



D.

Species R could be an alien species which may become invasive and drive away species P in near future. Species Q could be a parasite which is exclusively found on P. P and Q might undergo coextinction in near future. P and Q compete with each other for same available resources however the nutrient and resource requirements of P and R could be different.

45. Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched?

(i) To reduce harmful – gases emitted by vehicles (ii) To dispose off – radioactive waste (iii) To prevent – pollution of the sea (iv) To get rid of – human faeces A. (ii) only C. (ii) and (iv) only

Have the vehicles checked regularly to ensure that colourless and odourless gases are emitted Burn in an open area Educate the public not to throw litter or dump refuse into the sea Have pipes leading from homes to the river B. (iii) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Achievers Section

Direction : Read the given paragraph and answer questions 46 and 47. Raj contracted measles few days back and soon recovered from the infection. He got immune to any subsequent infection of measles virus for sometime. Raj's mother got him vaccinated for polio when he was young. So, he is immune to polio disease also. Raj's younger brother Rohan is just two days old and is mother fed. He has received some immunity from his mother via milk.



A.



B.



C.

46. Which of the following is correct regarding Raj's and Rohan's immunity? A. Raj's immune system developed its own antibodies when encountered the pathogen or antigen however, Rohan has received preformed antibodies from his mother. B. Rohan's immunity is long lasting but Raj's immunity is for a brief period only. C. Raj is immune to only few diseases like measles and polio however, Rohan is immune to most of the pathogenic diseases. D. Rohan's immunity may cause some side effects in his body however Raj's immunity has no side effects.



D.

47. How Raj got immune to polio virus even though he never contracted the disease ? 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 |

The vaccine given to Raj contained live attenuated pathogens which triggered production of antibodies and memory cells that will recognise any subsequent pathogenic attack and prevent the infection. The vaccine given to Raj contained preformed antibodies which will last throughout his life and prevent any further infection. The vaccine given to Raj contained live/active pathogen in a very small amount that can generate primary immune response but is insufficient to cause infection. None of these

48. A particle of mass 70 g, moving at 50 cm s–1, is acted upon by a variable force opposite to its direction of motion. The force F is shown as a function of time.



After the force stops acting, the particle moves with a speed of



A. B. C. D.

50 cm s–1 in reverse direction 100 cm s–1 in reverse direction 150 cm s–1 in original direction 100 cm s–1 in original direction. 7

49. A mixture of two liquids X and Y was placed in a flask as shown in the given figure. The mixture was heated using a Bunsen burner. The boiling point of X is 230 K and that of Y is 250 K.



C.



D.

Thermometer

50. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. On the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity at poles is (i) and that at equator is (ii) . The value of acceleration due to gravity (iii) with height above the centre of earth to its surface and (iv) with height above the surface of earth.

R Q Mixture of X and Y

P S

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The purpose of fractionating column is to decrease the surface area for cooling. B. As the vapour travel up from Q to R, the vapour of X condense more readily.



When the thermometer first shows a constant reading, point P will be richer in proportion of X vapours. The liquid ‘Y’ distills over first and is collected in beaker S.

(i) A. Maximum B. Maximum C. Minimum D. Minimum

(ii) Minimum Minimum Maximum Maximum

(iii) Increases Decreases Increases Increases

(iv) Decreases Decreases Decreases Increases

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8

| 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1

Answer Keys 15th nso 1. (B) 11. (B) 21. (A) 31. (C) 41. (D)

2. (C) 12. (B) 22. (D) 32. (C) 42. (C)

3. (D) 13. (B) 23. (B) 33. (C) 43. (B)

4. (D) 14. (D) 24. (A) 34. (B) 44. (A)

SET A 5. (B) 6. (B) 15. (B) 16. (B) 25. (A) 26. (A) 35. (A) 36. (B) 45. (D) 46. (A)

7. (B) 17. (B) 27. (B) 37. (A) 47. (B)

8. (C) 18. (A) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (C) (A) (D) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (D) (B) (D) (B)

7. (B) 17. (A) 27. (D) 37. (C) 47. (D)

8. (C) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (D) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (D) (B) (A) (A)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (A) (A) (B) (D)

7. (D) 17. (D) 27. (B) 37. (D) 47. (D)

8. (D) 18. (C) 28. (B) 38. (D) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (A) (C) (B) (B)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (C) (A) (C) (A)

7. (D) 17. (D) 27. (B) 37. (A) 47. (B)

8. (C) 18. (C) 28. (C) 38. (C) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(A) (A) (B) (D) (A)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (A) (B) (C) (A)

SET B 1. (D) 11. (B) 21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (B)

2. (C) 12. (A) 22. (C) 32. (A) 42. (B)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (B) 33. (D) 43. (D)

4. (C) 14. (B) 24. (C) 34. (B) 44. (C)

5. (C) 15. (B) 25. (C) 35. (A) 45. (D)

6. (D) 16. (C) 26. (A) 36. (A) 46. (B)

16th nso 1. (B) 11. (B) 21. (C) 31. (C) 41. (B)

2. (B) 12. (D) 22. (C) 32. (D) 42. (B)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (A) 33. (D) 43. (D)

4. (D) 14. (A) 24. (A) 34. (B) 44. (A)

1. (D) 11. (D) 21. (B) 31. (D) 41. (A)

2. (D) 12. (A) 22. (B) 32. (D) 42. (A)

3. (D) 13. (B) 23. (B) 33. (B) 43. (C)

4. (A) 14. (C) 24. (B) 34. (D) 44. (C)

SET A 5. (A) 6. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 35. (B) 36. (A) 45. (B) 46. (B) SET B 5. (C) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (A) 25. (C) 26. (C) 35. (A) 36. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C)

17th nso 1. (B) 11. (C) 21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (C)

2. (B) 12. (D) 22. (B) 32. (A) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (B) 23. (A) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (B) 14. (B) 24. (B) 34. (B) 44. (B)

SET A 5. (D) 6. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (D) 46. (D)

7. (D) 17. (B) 27. (A) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (C) 18. (D) 28. (D) 38. (D) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (B) (D) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(B) (A) (D) (B) (D)

1. (A) 11. (D) 21. (D) 31. (C) 41. (A)

2. (A) 12. (D) 22. (A) 32. (B) 42. (A)

3. (B) 13. (D) 23. (B) 33. (A) 43. (D)

4. (B) 14. (B) 24. (D) 34. (D) 44. (B)

SET B 5. (A) 6. (C) 15. (D) 16. (D) 25. (C) 26. (D) 35. (C) 36. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (D) 37. (C) 47. (B)

8. (D) 18. (A) 28. (D) 38. (D) 48. (C)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(B) (D) (C) (D) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (C) (A) (D) (A)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (C) 37. (A) 47. (D)

8. (A) 18. (C) 28. (A) 38. (A) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (A) (B) (B) (B)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(C) (D) (D) (D) (B)

18th nso 1. (D) 11. (D) 21. (B) 31. (C) 41. (A)

2. (B) 12. (B) 22. (C) 32. (B) 42. (C)

3. (D) 13. (A) 23. (A) 33. (B) 43. (B)

4. (C) 14. (D) 24. (B) 34. (C) 44. (B)

SET 1 5. (B) 6. (D) 15. (B) 16. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C)

1. (A) 11. (C) 21. (D) 31. (A) 41. (C)

2. (B) 12. (B) 22. (C) 32. (A) 42. (A)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (C) 43. (A)

4. (D) 14. (B) 24. (B) 34. (A) 44. (C)

SET 2 5. (C) 6. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 25. (D) 26. (B) 35. (C) 36. (A) 45. (D) 46. (A)

7. (A) 17. (D) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (C)

8. (D) 18. (A) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (C) (B) (D) (D)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(D) (B) (C) (B) (C)

7. (D) 17. (A) 27. (C) 37. (C) 47. (A)

8. (B) 18. (C) 28. (D) 38. (A) 48. (B)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(D) (B) (C) (C) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (D) (C) (D) (B)

7. (A) 17. (C) 27. (B) 37. (D) 47. (A)

8. (C) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (A)

9. 19. 29. 39. 49.

(C) (B) (C) (B) (C)

10. 20. 30. 40. 50.

(A) (B) (D) (C) (A)

19th nso SET A 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (C) 1. (A) 11. (D) 21. (B) 31. (D) 41. (C)

2. (D) 12. (B) 22. (B) 32. (B) 42. (C)

3. (D) 13. (C) 23. (C) 33. (B) 43. (D)

4. (D) 14. (A) 24. (C) 34. (C) 44. (D)

SET B 5. (C) 6. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 25. (D) 26. (D) 35. (A) 36. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A)