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ORAL SURGERY PART - I 1. a. b. c. d. 2. a. b. c. d. 3. a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. 5. a. b. c. d. 6. a. b. c. d. 7. a. b. c. d. 8. a. b. c. d. 9. a. b. c. d. 10. a.

local anesthesia is ___ in local area Loss of sensation of pain Loss of sensation of pressure Loss of sensation of heat/cold All the above ____ is not an ideal property of ideal local anesthetic Reversible action Low degree of toxicity Non-irritating to tissue Potent allergic reaction Difference between amides and esters amides - metabolized in liver esters in plasma through soluble in pseudocholinesterases Esters cause allergic reaction All of the above Chemical structure of L.A All are weak bases Amine group on right side Amine end is hydrophilic All of the above Factors affecting local reaction of L.A Lipid solubility PH influence Vasodilation All of the above PH of L.A 3.5-4.5 4.5-5.5 6.5-7.5 7.5-8.5 Only L.A that act as vasoconstrictor Lidocaine Bupivacaine Cocaine All the above ____ and ____ significantly influence rate of biotransformation of an amide Liver function & hepatic perfusion Kidney function & nephrotic perfusion Lung function & pleural perfusion None Synthetic hormone with vasoconstrictor property Atricaine Cocaine Felypressin Lidocaine How much of L.A should be given in PSA? 0.9-1.8 ml NEVER QUIT…..

b. c. d. 11.

2-3 ml 2.5-4 ml 0.2-0.3 ml Rotary movement is used for the extraction of the a) Mandibular canine. b) Maxillary 1st premolar. c) Mandibular molar. d) None of the above. 12. According to Geoffrey Howe in a T.E. case maxillary canine should be extracted a) Before anteriors and premolars. b) After anteriors and premolars. c) Simultaneously. d) Randomly 13. Dry socket is a) Alvelo osteitis. b) Osteomyelitis. c) Cellulitis d) None of the aabove. 14. A patient on aspirin therapy come for dental extraction… Extraction a) Can be done immediately. b) Done after 7 days. c) Done after 7 days of stoppage of the aspirin. d) Extraction contra indicated. 15. A pregnant patient indicated for extraction of teeth should be placed on dental chair a) In left lateral position. b) In right lateral position. c) In supine position. d) Extraction contraindicated 16. Which type of third molar impaction is most common a) Distoangular. b) Buccoangular. c) Mesioangular. d) linguoangular. 17. Which tooth is most commonly impacted? a) Maxillary 3rd molar. b) Mandibular third molar. c) Maxilary canine. d) mandibular premolar. 18. Most difficult disimpaction is a) Mesioangular b) Distoangular. c) Vertical. d) Horizontal.

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ORAL SURGERY PART - I 19. The bevel side of the chisel during bone removal should be facing a) Towards the bone. b) Away from the bone. c) Any direction. d) None of the above. 20. The relation of the mandibular molar to the inferior alveolar canal is best determined by a) Occlusal radiograph. b) IOPA c) Lateral oblique d) Dentascan. 21. Most common complication of inferior alveolar nerve block is a) Trismus b) Facial palsy c) Haematoma d) None of the above 22. Which of the following block anaesthesia procedure is most likely to result in hematoma a) mental nerve block b) infraorbital nerve block c) inferior alveolar nerve block d) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block 23. Paresthesia of the lip results in a) numbness in the area b) hypersensitivity in the area c) tingling sensation in the area d) all of the above 24. Initial toxic reaction to xylocaine injection is a) Twitching of the muscles b) shivering c) Talkativeness of patient d) sleepy feeling 25. Trismus after inferior alveolar nerve block is most likely due to a) Hematoma formation b) Damage to medial pterigoid c) Injection into parotid gland d) Injury to mandibular nerve 26. Adrenaline is added to local anesthetic agents because it a) Potentiate the action of all anesthetic agents b) Increases the rate of destruction of local anesthetic agent c) Decrease the rate of absorption of local anaesthetic at injection site d) Prevents deterioration of anaesthetic solution NEVER QUIT…..

27. Toxic dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is a) 5 mg/kg body wt b) 10 mg/kg body wt c) 15 mg/kg body wt d) 20 mg/kg body wt 28. Of the following in which condition local anaesthesia is ineffective a) Edema b) Localized infection c) Hematoma d) Anemia 29. All of the following areas become anaesthetized by inferior alveolarar nerve block except a) Lower incisors b) Lower third molars c) Buccal gingiva of mandibular second molars d) Mandibular 2nd premolar 30. According to Mallampatir’s grading, which of the following presents maximum difficulty during intubation: a) Class I b) Class IV c) Class III d) Class V 31. All of the following are objectives of premedication except a) Amnesia b) Reduction of stomach acidity and volume c) Prophylaxis against allergies d) Hypnosis 32. N2O use should be avoided especially drring_____ trimester of pregnancy a) First b) Second c) Third d) All 33. All are the complications of dental anaesthesia except a) Hypoxia b) Cardiac dusarrythemias c) Angina pectoris d) Mouth breathing 34. ‘Finger sweep method is used for a) Unconscious patients b) Before inducing G A c) Mandibular # pt. d) None of the above 35. The sequence of events in hemostasis is

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ORAL SURGERY PART - I a) Clot formation, retraction of clot, constriction of vessel wall and platelet plug formation. b) Constriction of vessel wall, platelet plug formation, clot formation, retraction of clot. c) Constriction of the vessel wall, clot formation, platelet plug formation, retraction of clot. d) None of the above. 36. The contact phase and extrinsic pathway of coagulation respectively is screened by a) BT & PTT. b) BT & CT. c) CT & PTT. d) PTT &PT 37. The sequence of events in hemostasis is a) Clot formation, retraction of clot, constriction of vessel wall and platelet plug formation. b) Constriction of vessel wall, platelet plug formation, clot formation, retraction of clot. c) Constriction of the vessel wall, clot formation, platelet plug formation, retraction of clot. d) None of the above. 38. Management of patients of Haemophilia A having antibodies to factor VIII (Ig-G inhibitor) is done by all of the following except a) Systemic EACA and traneseamic acid. b) infusion of porcine factor VIII> c) Plasmapheresis. d) Desmopressin. 39. For patients on ora anticoagulants one of the following is a good test for hemostatic mechanism efficacy a) Stoppage of oral anticoagulants. b) Minor oral surgical procedures. c) Tooth extraction. d) Pt. shifted to heparin 40. Shock is depressed state of vital functions due to inadequate tissue perfusion of vital organs due to inefficient a) Arteriolar circulation. b) Capillary circulation. c) Venular circulation. d) All of the above. 41. Oligaemic shock proceeds in the following events if not treated early a) Renal conservation of blood volumereinforcement of total blood volume-adrenergic discharge- organ failure of shock- cardiac arrest. NEVER QUIT…..

b) Adrenergic discharge, renal conservation of blood volume, reinforcement of total blood volume, organ failure of shock, cardiac arrest. c) Adrenergic discharge, reinforcement of total blood volume, renal conservation of blood volume, organ failure of shock, cardiac arrest. d) none of the above. 42. In the management of haematogenic shock in replacement of blood loss, RBC’s serve important physiologic functions because a) Being the largest molecule in fluid. b) Provide high osmolarity c) Prevent extravascular escape of fluid which is transfused. d) All of the above. 43. Chances of gram negative shock are increased after the procedures or conditions like a) After tracheostomy. b) Monitoring catheter placed for prolonged time. c) Septic abortion. d) All of the above. 44. Le Fort III fracture is the same as A. Craniofacial dysjunction B. Guerrin's fracture C. Pyramidal fracture D. None of the above 45. Which of the following is not included in the Glassgow coma scale A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Pupil size 46. CSF rhinorrhea is found in : A. Frontal bone structure B. Zygomatico maxillary fracture C. Naso ethmoidal fracture D. Condylar fracture 47. After fracture of middle cranial foramen there is epiphora this is due to damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Greater palatine nerve C. Infraorbital nerve D. None of the above 48.The first step in management of head injury is : A. Secure airway B. I.V. mannitol

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ORAL SURGERY PART - I C. I.V. dexamethasone D. Blood transfusion 49.Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture : A. Enophthalmos B. Malocclusion C. Paraesthesia D. CSF rhinorrhea 50.Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through A. Temporal fossa B. Intra temporal fossa C. Infra orbital fossa D. All of the above 51.Guerin fracture is : A. Maxillary fracture B. Maxillary and zygomatic fracture C. Maxillary and nasal bone fracture D. Nasal bone fracture only 52. A fracture of eye by a ping pong boll is A. Blow out fracture B. Orbital fracture C. Blow in fracture D. Compound fracture 53. CSF rhinorrhea is not found in A. LEFORT I B. LEFORT II C. LEFORT III D. ethmoidal . 54."Panda facies" is commonly seen after A. Le fort I fractures B. Le fort II fractures C. Mandible fractures D. None of the above 55.Walsham's forceps are used to : A. Remove teeth B. Remove root C. Clamp blood vessels D. Reduce nasal bone fractures 56. A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture, immediate treatment is to give : A. Normal saline B. Ringer's lactate solution C. Whole blood D. Plasma expanders

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57. Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction A. Rowe's B. Bristows C. Ashs D. Walshams 58. Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures: A. Subcondylar B. Zygomatico maxillary C. Coronoid process D. Symphyseal 59. Diplopia is most common with : A. Mandibular fracture B. Craniofacial dysjunction C. Nasal fractures D. Zygomatico maxillary complex 60. Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done with in: A. 2 hours B. 6 hours C. 4 hours D. 8 hours 61. The "hanging drop appearance in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates : A. A nasal polyp B. A blow out # of the orbit C. A radiograph artifact D. An antrolith 62. Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by: A. Bleeding from the ear B. Bleeding from the antrum C. Angle class 2 skeletal relationship D. None of the above 63. Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries A. Bleeding B. Associated fracture spine C. infection D. respiratory obstruction. 64. The safest initial approach to open airway of patient with maxillofacial trauma is A. Head tilt-chin tilt B. Jaw thrust technique C. Head lift-neck lift D. Heimlich procedure 65.In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty Page 4

ORAL SURGERY PART - I in opening the mouth is caused by impingement of: A. Condyles B. Ramus C. Petrous temporal D. Coronoid process 66.True open bite is caused by : A. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla B. Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle C. Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible D. Fracture of mandibular symphysis 67.All of the following statements of nasal fractures are true except: A. Even if minor, they may be followed by bilateral ecchymosis and facial oedema B. They may need to be reduced for a few weeks C. They need not be complicated by traumatic telecanthus D. They may lead to the telescoping of the nasal complex into the frontal sinus 68.Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is A. To support comminuted fracture of the body of zygomatic complex B. To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital floor fracture C. To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus D. (A) and (B) are correct 69. Floating maxilla is typically found in : A. Le Fort I or guerin fractures B. Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures C. Craniomandibular dysjunction D. All of the above 70. In a patient of head njury which is more important to note first: A. Pupillary light reflex B. Pupillary size C. Corneal reflex D. Ability to open eye 71.Which of the following always indicates obstruction to the airway? A. Slow pounding pulse B. Stertoreous breathing C. Increase in pulse rate D. Decrease in blood pressure 72. Moon face is seen in NEVER QUIT…..

A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. Orbital fractures 73. Whitehead's varnish in gauze is used to arrest bleeding from A. Gingival crest B. Bleeding from pulp C. Bleeding from bone D. Bleeding from capillaries 74. In blow out fractures which of the following is seen A. Enophthalmos B. Exophtholmos C. Bulbar hemorrhage D. None 75. Gillis approach is used in A. Open reduction of zygomatic fracture B. Mandible C. Closed reduction of zygomatic fracture D. None of the above 76. Le Fort II fracture is called A. Guerin B. Pyramidal C. Floating D. Cranial disjunction 77. Diplopia after fracture results fro entrapment of A. Inferior rectus B. Inferior oblique C. Lateral rectus D. Superior oblique 78. In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except A. Crack pot sound on tapping teeth B. CSF rhinorrhea C. Fracture at frontozygomatic suture D. Whole face is mobile E. None of the above 79. The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris D. None of the above 80. Hooding of eyes is seen in which fracture : A. Le Fort 1 Page 5

ORAL SURGERY PART - I B. Le Fort 2 C. Le Fort 3 D. Nasal bone 81. In the symphysis # medial displacement is due to a) Mylohyoid muscle. b) Muscles attached to the genial tubercles. c) Hyoglossus. d) Both a and b. 82. All are true except a) Presence of teeth on the proximal segment of # line reduces chances of displacement. b) Severe tear of musculature and overlying soft tissues permit wider displacement. c) There is more displacement of #ed segment in ramus # than in the # of the body of mandible. d) Direction of # line has effect on displacement.. 83. Closed reduction is not indicated in a) Nondisplaced favourable #. b) Soft tissue overlying the # site. c) Coronoid process #. d) Severely atrophic edentulous mandible. 84. Ideal treatment of # of angle of mandible is a) Transosseous wiring. b) Intermaxillary fixation. c) Plating on lateral side of body of mandible. d) Plating at the inferior border of mandible. 85. Displaced mandibular fracture in a child should be managed by a) Circum mandibular wiring. b) Early mobilization. c) Intermaxilary fixation. d) Transosseous wiring. 86. Deviation of the mandible to the right side may suggest a) # of left condyle. b) Hyperplasia of right condyle. c) Hyperplasia of left condyle. d) # of right condyle. 87. Anterior open bite is seen in a) Unilateral condylar #. b) Bilateral condylar # c) Maxillary # d) Coronoid # 88. Condition where healed # is malpositioned but functionally accept is called a) Dysarthrosis b) Meta arthrosis c) Pseudo arthrosis d) None of the above NEVER QUIT…..

89. Untrue of myofunction dysfunction syndrome is a) Common in females. b) Patient in middle age are affected more commonly. c) Radiographically and histologically detectable changes present d) More in early hours of day. 90. The Al-kayat and Bramely approach to the tmj is a modification of the a) Hemi-coronal approach. b) Preauricular approach. c) Retroauricular approach. d) Risdon’s approach. 91. Ankylosis of TMJ is best treated by a) Sclerosing solution. b) Actice mouth exercise c) Codylectomy d) Intra-articular injections of hydro cortisone. 92. Of the following which is not the structural element of tmj? a) Joint cavities. b) Sigmoid notch c) Condyloid process d) Articular disc 93. Following clinical disease process afftects tmj directly. a) Ankylosis. b) Dislocation. c) Arthritis d) All of the above. 94. Most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the tmj is a) Trigeminal neuralgia. b) Degenerative arthritis c) Traumatic arthritis d) MPDS> 95. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis a) Rheumatoid arthritis. b) Osteoarthritis c) Trauma d) Childhood disease. 96. Early movement of TMJ following surgery for tmj ankylosis a) Desirable b) Contra indicated c) Harmful d) Both band c. 97. Infracranial view for TMJ is also called as a) Water’sview Page 6

ORAL SURGERY PART - I b) Zimmer’s view c) Mequeen view d) Lateral view. 98. Which of the following is a psycho physiologic disorder a) Marfan’s syndrome. b) MPDS c) Marie Strumpbell disease d) Treacher Collins syndrome. 99. Which is incorrect of hemorrhagic shock? a. Approx blood volume in 90 kg man is 6.3 litres. b. Approx blood volume of 20 kg child is 1.6 litres. c. Blood loss up to 15% in an adult will show no signs.

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With a loss of 1500 mls of blood infusion of 3000 mls of crystalloid will be needed to normalize parameters. 100. Which facial view xray is the best for examining the orbits and midface? a) OPG b) Waters or occipitomental c) Caldwell or PA view d) Submental vertex

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