Neet Model Papers(Eenadu) (1)
April 17, 2017 | Author: Praveen Maram | Category: N/A
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NEET
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Instructions :
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MODEL PAPER
This question paper contains 180 questions in Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
*
Each objective question has four options, in which student has
*
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to select one best option.
Each correct option will be rewarded with four marks. However, if the attempt of answering a question is wrong there will be
Maximum time allowed to answer this paper is three hours
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1 mark.
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(180 min)
x-x-x
Page No.1
PHYSICS 1.
Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross section varying as shown in the figure. The variation of pressure P at points along the axis is represented by the graph :
P
1)
P
2)
3)
x
4)
A cubical block of side a and density ρ slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity V. There is a film of viscous fluid of thickness t between the plane and the block. Then the coefficient of viscosity of the film will be
1) η =
ρagt ϑ s in θ
3)
V ρagt sin θ
4) None of these
2) Green or yellow
3) Orange or red
4) White
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Water at 0°c, contained in a closed vessel, is abruptly opened in an evacuated chamber. If
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the specific heat of fusion and vaporization at 0°c be in the ratio λ :1 , the fraction of water evaporated will be 1− λ 1− λ λ λ 1) 2) 3) 4) 1 1+ λ 1 λ +1 Cp 4 γ = The value of is for an adiabatic process of an ideal gas for which internal enCv 3 ergy is U=K+xPV. The value of x will be 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
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5.
ρgta sin θ V
Wien's displacement law tells us that an extremely hot star looks. 1) Violet or indigo
4.
2)
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θ
3.
x
x
x
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2.
P
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P
A fixed U-sphaed smooth wire has a semicircular bending between A and B as shown in the figure. A bead of mass m moving with uniform speed V through the wire enters the semicircular bend at A and leaves at B. The average force exerted by the bead on the part AB of the wire is
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6.
A
d
m
d
B
1) 0
2)
4mv 2 πd
3)
2mv 2 πd
Page No.2
4) None
7.
A block on table shown in figure is just on the wedge of slipping. Find the coefficient of static friction between the block and table to T 30°
40N
1) 1.15 8.
2) 0.866
3) 0.707
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60N
4) 1.4
After perfectly inclastic collision between two identical particles moving with same speed
in different directions. The speed of the combined particle become half the initial speed of either particle. The angle between the velocities of the two before collision is 9.
2) 120°
3) 180°
4) 150°
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1) 60°
One end of a light spring of natural length d and spring constant k is fixed on a rigid wall
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and the other is attached to a smooth ring of mass m, which can slide with out friction on a vertical rod fixed at a distance d from the wall. Initially the spring makes an angle of 37° with the horizontal as shown in figure. If the system is released from rest, the speed of the ring when the spring becomes horizontal is [sin37°=3/5]
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A
37°
B
3g K + 2d 16m
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d 2
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d
1)
2) d
3g K + 2d 16m
V=0
3)
2d 3
3g K + 2d m
4)
d 2
3g K + 2 d 8m
10. Assertion(A):Position of centre of mass of a body is independent of coordinate system Reason (R) : Internal force do not effect the motion of centre of mass
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1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explain of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explain of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
11. The spin drier of a washing machine revolving at 15rps slows down to 5rps. While making 50 revolutions. Find the time interval in this 1) 10s
2) 6s
3) 5s Page No.3
4) 9s
12. Assertion (A) : The hard boiled egg and raw egg can be distinguished on the basis of spinning of both Reason (R) : The moment of inertia of hard boiled egg is more as compare to raw egg. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explain of A 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explain of A 3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
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13. Two satellites are going round the earth one at a distance 3000km and the other at 4000 km from the centre of earth. The ratio of their angular speeds is 1)
4 3
2)
16 9
3)
8 3 3
4)
64 27
14. Figure shows the variation of force acting on a particle of mass 400g executing simple harmonic motion. Find the frequency of oscillations of the particle in (s-1) is
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F(N) 2.0
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1.5
1 0.5
x(cm)
-15 -10 -5 -0.5 -1
5 10 15 20
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20
-1.5 2.0
1)
4π 5
2)
5 4π
3)
2π 5
4)
5 2π
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15. One end of a wire 1m long and radius 2mm is clamped and the other end is twisted by an angle of 45°. The angle of sheer is
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1) 0.9°
2) 0.09°
3) 9°
4) 4.5°
16. Radio waves are produced by 1) Klystron valve
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2) Rapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons 3) Vibration of atoms and molecules
4) Radio active decay of the nucles
17. The maximum distance upto while TV transmission from a TV tower of height 'h' can be received is proportional to 1) h1/2 2) h-1/2
3) h3/2
Page No.4
4) h-3/2
18. Pure Si at 300k has equal electron (ne) and hole (nn) concentration of 1.5 × 1016 m −3 . It is doped with 4.5 × 10 22 m −3 indium. Calculate ne in the doped silicon 1) 5 × 1010 m −3 2) 5 × 109 m −3 3) 3 × 106 m −3 4) 3 × 107 m −3 19. In a npn transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of electrons injected by the emitter are able to reach the collector, then. 2) The base current is 0.1 mA
3) Base current is 0.9 mA
4) The emitter current is 9 mA
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1) Emitter current is 11.11mA
20. A nucleus z x A at rest emits an α -particle with velocity V. The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is
A−4 4V V 2) 3) V 4) 4V A−4 4 21. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas at 300k is
1)
2 7
2)
1 7
3 5
3)
4)
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1)
6 5
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2π 22. If Y = A sin (Vt − x) represents a transverse wave travelling along x-axis, then the λ
particle velocity VP, the wave velocity V and the slope S of the wave are related as 1) VP = −
V S
2) VP=S2V
3) VP=-VS
4) VP=-V/S2
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23. Figure a tube structure in which signal is sent from one end and is received at the other end. The frequency of sound source can be varied electronically between 2000Hz to 5000Hz. The frequency at which maximum intensity is detected (The speed of sound in air is 343m/s) 20cm
B
C
A
D
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10cm
1) 4280Hz
Ear
10cm
E 2) 4950Hz
3) 4490Hz
4) 4000Hz
24. An object 2.4m infront of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12cm behind the lens. A gass plate 1cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its plane face parallel to film. To what distance ( from lens) should object shifted to be in sharp focus on film? 1) 7.2m
2) 2.4m
3) 3.2m Page No.5
4) 5.6m
25. If for a given pair of media CR, CY, CB are the critical angles for red, yellow and blue colours respectively, then
1) CR=CY=CB 2) CB>CY>CR 26. Primary rainbow is formed due to
3) CR>CY>CB
4) CR>CY T2 > T3
2) T3 > T2 > T1
3) T2 > T1 > T3 Page No.9
4) T1 > T3 > T2
49. i) P Q U A fast
m B slow B Q m S T fast
ii) A R iii)
are the elementary steps of the reactions, 2P Q 2R m S T
The rate law of the reaction is: 2
3
2) r = k [P] [Q] [R]
3) r k < P >1/2 < R >1/3 4) r k < R >
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1) r = k [P] [Q]
50. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nesslers reagent. The formula of brown compound is : 1) K2HgI4
2) H 2 N Hg O Hg I
3) Ca 3P2 CaC 2
4) NH 4 2 MoO 4
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51. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for 1) increasing hardness 2) decreasing setting time 3) increasing setting time 4) making is soft 52. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C). Calculate the entropy change in the condensation process. 3) 240 JK-1 mol-1 4) -240 JK-1 mol-1 1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1 53. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ? 1) 3 times dilution 2) 3 times concentration 3) 100 times concentration 4) 1000 times dilution 54. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The partial pressure of H2 is 1) 4.8 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 5 atm 4) 7.5 atm 55. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ? 1) 1s 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 5f 56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ? 2) BF4
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1) XeF4
3) SF4
4) SiF4
3) t 02g e 22 g
4) t12g e g21
57. If P %0 , the d4 is represented as
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0 1 ) t 211 2g e g
1 2) t111 2g e g
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58. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back to K as shown K
L
N
M V
P
The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is 1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K Page No.10
59. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ? 3) NO , C 22 , CN , N 2 4) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22 1) N 2 , O2 , NO , CO 2) C 22 , O2 , CO, NO 60. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then 1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y 4) uncertain
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61. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is 328kJ mol1. The energy of the third Bohr's orbit of H is 1) 583.11kJ mol1 2) 853.11kJ mol1 3) 145.78 kJ mol1 4) 511.83kJ mol1 62. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of the of the substance is 1) 24g 2) 53.78g 3) 50g 4) 100g 63. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of 1) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 and C6 H 5CH CH 2 2) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH CH CH 2 3) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH C CH 2
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| CH 3 Cl | 4) CH 2 CH C CH 2 and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
64. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a p-
type semiconductor? 2) P 1) As
4) Sb
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3) In
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65. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copper exists as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is : 2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light 1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light 3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red light takes place 4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place 66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expected from theory ? CH3
F
CH3
OH
2)
Cl
3)
4) All of these
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1)
Cl
67. The reaction , C6 H 6 (l )
15 O 2 g ¶¶ l 6CO 2 g 3H 2 O(l ) is spontaneous, then which of the following is 2
correct ? 1) %H T%S
2) %H T%S
3) %H T%S
Page No.11
4) %H 0 and %S 0
68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as ZZX 2AB2 g YZ Z 2AB g B2 g
The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is 1) 2K p / P
3) K p / P
2) 2K p / P
1/3
1/ 2
4) 2K p / P
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69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then 1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same 3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral 4) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral 70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Addition of 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of A and B in pure state are respectively 1) 100 and 100 mm Hg 2) 100 and 80 mm Hg 3) 60 and 140 mm Hg 4) 140 and 60 mm Hg 71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolveed is 1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 3.0 72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct? a) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E1
b) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 10.0M Cu; E 2
c) Zn Zn 2 10.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E3 2) E 3 E 2 E1
3) E 2 E1 E 3
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1) E1 E 2 E 3
4) E1 E 2 E3
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Conc.
2)
log[A]0 Intercept constant
3)
log [A]
Slope=k
Conc.
1)
Rate
73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?
Time
-k Slope=2.303 Time
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4) All represent 1st order reaction 74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards anode. The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solutions. Their coasgulating power should be 2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
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1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3
3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl
4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
75. Which is wrongly reported ? 1) Spelter : impure zinc 3) Sphalerite : ZnO
2) Pig iron : impure iron 4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper
76. 100 cm3 of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm3 of O2 at STP. The given sample is 1) 10 volume H2O2
2) 100 volume H2O2
3) 10% H2O2 (W/V)
Page No.12
4) 2.786N
77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of the following is correct ? 1) %hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO3 2) %hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3 3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high
4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low
78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ? 1) Me3SiCl
2) PhSiCl3
3) MeSiCl3
4) Me2SiCl2
1) 0.25, 0.25
2) 0.50, 0.50
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79. In PO34 , the bond order of P O bond and formal charge on O atom are, respectively 3) 1.25, 0.75
Na CO /air l Y .X and Y are 80. Chormite ore X ¶¶¶¶ fuse 2
3
4) 0.75, 1.25
1) Cr2O3 and Na 2 Cr2O7
2) FeO.Cr2O3 and Na 2 Cr2O7
3) FeO.Cr2O3 and Na 2 CrO 4
4) Cr2O3 and Na 2 CrO4
1) KMnO4
2) MnO2
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81. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is 3) Oxalic acid
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82. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ? 1) Br2 water
2) Benedict solution
3) Tollens'reagent
4) MnSO4 4) All of these
i O 2 / % AlCl3 Cl CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 ¶¶¶ l P ¶¶ ¶ ¶ l Q Phenol ii H O
83.
3
and CH3COCH3
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3)
and CH3-CH2-CHO
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1)
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The major product P and Q are
2)
and CH3-CH2-CHO
4)
and CH3-CH2-CHO
84. CH 3 CH OH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 andCH 3 CH 2 CHOH CH 2 CH 3 can be distinguished by 2) Br2 / CCl4
3) KMnO 4 / H
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1) HCl / ZnCl2
4) I 2 / NaOH
85. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed by polymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in 1) Orthopedic devices
2) Making capsules
3) Post operative stitches
4) Photo films
Page No.13
86. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following compounds? O
1)
2)
N
NH2 C
NH2
3)
4) All of these
NH2
87. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation 1) O2N
CH2
2)
3) CH3
CH2
4) CH3O
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CH2
CH2
88. How are the following related ? N
CH3
II)
H
CH3
CH2
CH2
CH2
CH3
N
CH3
CH3
NH2
1) I and II are position isomers 3) I, II and III are metamers
CH2
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III)
CH2
2) I and III are chain isomers 4) I, II and III are functional isomers
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I)
CH2
CH3
(using H2O/Zn) produces
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89. Ozonolysis is of
O ||
1) HCHO OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 2) HCHO OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO O ||
3) CO 2 H 2O OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 4) H 2 O CO 2 OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO
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90. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?
.
. hv 1) Cl Cl ¶¶ l2Cl
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.
.
2) CH 4 C l ¶¶ l C H3 HCl
.
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3) C H 3 Cl2 ¶¶ l CH 3Cl Cl
.
4) C H 3 C H 3 ¶¶ l CH 3 CH 3
BOTANY
91. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from 1) Synergids
2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3) Antipodal cells
4) Diploid egg
92. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in 1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber
2) Apple, cucumber, citrus
3) Tomato, grapes, guava
4) Guava, apple, cucumber Page No.14
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93. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively
1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal
2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal
3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile
4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal
94. A character not applicable to chinarose is 2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower
4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence
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3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower
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1) Alternate phyllotaxy
95. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is 1) Thalamus
2) Peduncle
3) Bracts
4) Ovary
96. Which of the following is not a tendril climber 1) Smilax
2) Pisum
4) Bean
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97. Find the correct match:
3) Grape vine
1) Mustard plant
: leaves are opposite
2) Guava plant
: leaves are alternate
3) Nerium plant
: leaves are whorled
4) Calotropis plant
: leaves are alternate
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98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called 1) Phyllode
2) Phylloclade
3) Bulbils
4) Cladode
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99. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is 1) Spine
2) Trichome
3) Thorn
4) Prickle
100. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus
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1) Vanda
2) Monstera
3) Banyan
4) Taeniophyllum
101. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda, Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera 1) Four
2) Two
3) Three
Page No.15
4) Five
102. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option. A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence 2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm 3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous 1) A and B are true but C is false
2) A and C are true but B is false
3) B and C are false but A is true
4) B and C are true but A is false
b)
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a)
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103. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D in that
1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore 2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
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3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore 4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore 104. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups 1) Fungi
2) Animalia
3) Monera
4) Plantae
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105. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in 1) Protista
2) Algae
3) Plantae
4) Monera
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106. Incorrect statement among the following 1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion 2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion
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3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion 4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion
107. Which of the following is wrongly matched: 1) Aloe - medicine
2) Sesbania - green manure
3) Thorn apple - fumigatory
4) Asparagus - vegetable
Page No.16
108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ? 1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane 2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms 3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule 4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule. 109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primary structure a hypothetical protein
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OH
C H 2C O O H CH 2
SH
C H 2O H
CH 2
CH 2
CH 2
− HN − CH − CO − NH − CH − CO − NH − CH − CO − NH − CH − CO − n
n-1
n+1
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n-2
1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid 110. What is true about ribosomes
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3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid 1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient 2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein 3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
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4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes
111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition is known as 1) S-Phase
2) G2-Phase
3) M-Phase
4) G0-Phase
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112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D
1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma 2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell 3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell 4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma Page No.17
113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession 1) It begins on a bare rock 2) It occurs on a deforested site 3) It follows primary succession 4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession
1) Increase
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114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is put in 0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solution the size will 2) Decrease
3) Remain same
4) Can't be said
3) mesophytes
4) halophytes
115. Stomata open at night in 1) hydrophytes
2) Succulents
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116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively
A C
B
D
1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source
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2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink
3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water 4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater 117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens 2) Non competitive inhibitors
3) Competitive inhibitors
4) Allosteric inhibitors
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1) Feed back inhibitors
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118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because 1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
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2) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products
4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of electrons to P700 is 1) Cyt f
2) PC
3) PQ Page No.18
4) Fd
120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B, C, D parts labelled in it H +
NADP+
B
C
A
NADPH
H2O H+ H+ H+
Lumen
Thylakoid membrane Stroma D ADP
A
ATP
B
C
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H+
D
Cytochrome b and f
Photosystem II
ATP synthase
2) PhotosystemII
cytochrome b and f
Photosystem I
CF0
3) Photosystem II
Cytochrome b and f
Photosystem I
ATP synthase
4) Photosystem II
ATP synthase
PhotosystemI
CFI
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1) Photosystem I
121. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are 1) Frame shift mutation 3) Both a and b
2) Base pair substitution
4) None of these
122. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
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1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase 3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase 4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
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123. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product 1) Yeast - statins 2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid 3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
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124. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein 1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry 2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin
w
3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest 4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it
125. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer 1) Nostoc
2) NPV
3) Rhizobium
4) Glomus
126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive 1) One pair of alleles 2) One quarter of the genes 3) One of the paired alleles 4) Any pair of alleles Page No.19
127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross 1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations 2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations 128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of 2) Biomonitoring
3) Bioinformatics
129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is
4) Biosystematics
ha .n et
1) Biotechnology 1) DNA modification
2) DNA amplification
3) DNA replication
4) DNA visualisation
130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answer Colum II
A. UUU
1. Serine
B. GGG
2. Methionine
C. UCU
3. Phenylalanine
D. CCC
4. Glycine
up ra t
ib
Colum I
E. AUG
5. Proline
1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2
2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-2
3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2
4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
en ad
131. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of one glucose molecule is 1) 30ATP, 12NADPH+H+
2) 12ATP, 6NADPH+H+
3) 18ATP, 12NADPH+H+
4) 30ATP, 18NADPH+H+
132. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substrate phosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm and matrix) 2) 32
3) 30
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1) 34 133.
w
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Glucose
A NAD+
NADH+H+
3 PGA NAD+
C
NADH+
D CO2+H2O
Pyruvic acid
NADH+H+ NAD+ B +CO2 Page No.20
4) 24
A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration are A
B
C
D
1)
PGAL
Lactic acid
Ethanol
Aerobic respiration
2)
1,3 bis PGA
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Krebs cycle
3)
G-3-P
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Aerobic respiration
4)
F, 1,6 bis P
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Aerobic respiration
134. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as 2) Monotrichous
3) Amphitrichous
4) Peritrichous
ha .n et
1) Lophotrichous
ib
135. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he concluded that 1) These is no independent assortment of traits 2) These is no dominance of any trait 3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait 4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
up ra t
ZOOLOGY
136. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the 1) mucosa lining of gut
2) lining of alveoli of lungs
3) umbilical chord of newly born infants
4) walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
en ad
137. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of 1) intercalated discs 2) branched muscle fibres and communication junctions 3) specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres
4) numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules 138. Identify the correct combination from the following Respiratory organs Excretory organs
1) Astacus
Dermal branchiae
Green glands
2) Aplysia
Ctenidia
Meta nephridia
3) Aphrodite
Parapodia
Protonephridia
4) Ascidian
Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland
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Scientific name
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139. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is 1) Gorgonocephalus 2) Thyone
3) Clypeaster
4) Antedon
140. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following 1) Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia 2) They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin 3) Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature 4) Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ Page No.21
141. Identify the correct match from the following 1) Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall
2) Corvus-Urinary bladder present
3) Cervus-Intra abdominal testes
4) Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae
142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in 1) Ladakh region
2) Himalayan region
3) Deccan plateau
4) Western ghats
143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as 2) photoperiodism
3) photokinesis
4) phototropism
ha .n et
1) phototaxis
144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the two kingdoms bacteria and archebacteria is 1) Fungi
2) Protista
3) Monera
145. Identify the correct match from the following 1) Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa
ib
2) Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers
4) Metaphyta
3) Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat
up ra t
4) Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation
146. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during night time because the
1) patients do not feel much pain
2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time
en ad
3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time 147. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it 1) acts as amphetamine
2) stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids
3) causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4) interferes with the transport of dopamine
.e
148. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria? 2) Hypertrophy of RBC
3) Cirrhosis of liver
4) Anaemia
w w
1) Splenomegaly
149. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are 2) pulvillus and bristles of podomeres
3) plantulae on tarsus
4) plantulae, claws
w
1) claws and arolium
150. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana from the following 1) Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid 2) Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore 3) Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores 4) Nourishes the sperms Page No.22
151. In a biological community Gauses principle explains 1) competition among different species under unlimited resources 2) competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources 3) coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning 4) intra specific competition due to limited natural resources 152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following 2) Land snail
3) Desert fox
153. Incorrect match from the following
4) Camel
ha .n et
1) Land leech
1) Paneth cells-lysozyme
2) Schawnn cells-myelin sheath
3) Dendritic cells-afferent neurons
4) Mast cells-inflammation
154. Which of the following is an exotic carp? 1) Tunas
2) Common carp
3) Cat fish
155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an
4) Oil sardine
2) holandric character
3) sexlinked dominant trait
4) autosomal recessive character
1) confirm the pregnancy
up ra t
156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to
ib
1) sex influenced trait
2) determin the sex of the foetus
3) detect the chromosomal abnormalities
4) findout the correct position of foetus
157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings? 1) Down syndrome
2) Turner's syndrome
en ad
3) Kline felter syndrome
4) Patau syndrome
158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only if the blood groups of the parents are 1) A and B
2) AB and AB
3) AB and O
4) O and A or B
159. Correct match from the following
2) Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer
3) Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace
4) Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel
.e
1) Mutation theory-Bateson
w w
160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objects was named
2) Homo neanderthalensis
3) Homo habilis
4) Homo erectus
w
1) Australopithecus
161. Incorrect match from the following 1) MRI-aneurysm
2) EEG-epilepsy
3) PSA test-cervical cancer
4) PCR-HIV detection
162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by 1) Edward Jenner
2) Alexander Fleming 3) Louis Pasteur Page No.23
4) Jonas Salk
163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of 1) common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2) common bile duct and pancreatic duct 3) cystic duct and common hepatic duct
4) infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube
164. Adenoids are present in 1) nasopharynx
2) oropharynx
3) below the tongue
4) laryngophrynx
165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of 2) 24 weeks
3) first trimester
166. Hensen's disc is 1) part of primitive streak
4) 8 weeks
ha .n et
1) first month
2) part of sarcomere made of only myosin
3) primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord 4) bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast 167. Autoimmune disease from the following
2) Osteo arthritis
3) Rheumatoid arthritis
4) Meningitis
ib
1) Glomerulo nephritis
1) depolarisation
up ra t
168. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phase of 2) repolarisation
3) hyperpolarisation 4) polarisation
169. In kidneys, renal columns are made of 1) renal calyces
2) medullary pyramids
3) renal cortex
4) renal papillae
ron
en ad
170. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part of neph1) Proximal convoluted tubule
2) Distal convoluted tubule
3) Henle's loop
4) Collecting duct
171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions? 2) Somatocrinin and somatostatin
3) Cortisol and Catecholamines
4) Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide
.e
1) Parathormone and calcitonin
w w
172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of 1) tryptophan
2) tyrosine
3) glycoproteins
4) eicosanoids
173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by 2) ampullae and cristae
3) maculae and vestibule
4) semicircular canals and otolith organ
w
1) saccule and utricle
174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the 1) atria and ventricles in heart
2) paracoels and diocoel in brain
3) 3rd and 4th ventricles of brain
4) right and left ventricles of heart
Page No.24
175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of 1) symphysis and synarthrosis
2) synchondrosis and syndesmosis
3) diarthrose and syndesmosis
4) symphysis and amphiarthrosis
176. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in tests are called 1) Kupffer cells
2) Leydig cells
3) Sertoli cells
4) Oxyntic cells
177. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the 1) true vocal folds and false vocal cords
2) true vocal cords and arytenoids
178. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the 1) bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae 2) inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles 3) release of vasodilator substances due to allergens 4) deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs
ha .n et
3) corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4) arytenoids and thyroid cartilages
ib
179. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneath endocardium are called
2) Papillary muscles 3) Purkinje fibres
up ra t
1) Chorde tendinae
4) Columnae carneae
180. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the opening of 1) coronary sinus
4) right atrioventricular aperture
w
w w
.e
en ad
3) inferior venacava
2) superior venacava
Page No.25
KEY PHYSICS 2) 1
3) 2
4) 2
5) 2
6) 2
7) 4
8) 1
9) 1
10) 1
11) 1
12) 2
13) 1
14) 3
15) 1
16) 2
17) 1
18) 2
19) 2
20) 3
21) 1
22) 4
23) 3
24) 3
25) 2
26) 2
27) 2
28) 4
29) 1
30) 4
31) 4
32) 4
33) 3
34) 1
35) 2
36) 4
37) 3
38) 2
39) 1
40) 3
41) 1
42) 3
43) 3
44) 4
45) 2
CHEMISTRY
ha .n et
1) 2
47) 4
48) 2
49) 4
50) 2
51) 3
52) 2
53) 4
54) 3
55) 1
56) 3
57) 2
58) 2
59) 3
60) 3
61) 3
62) 4
63) 2
64) 3
65) 4
66) 2
67) 1
68) 1
69) 4
70) 4
71) 2
76) 1
77) 1
78) 1
79) 3
80) 3
81) 4
86) 1
87) 1
88) 4
89) 2
ib
46) 2
73) 4
74) 3
75) 3
82) 4
83) 3
84) 4
85) 3
97) 3
98) 4
99) 3
100) 4
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72) 3
90) 1
BOTANY
92) 4
93) 2
94) 4
101) 2 102) 4
103) 3
104) 3
113) 2
111) 4 112) 2 121)3 122) 1
96) 4
105) 1
106) 4
107) 3 108) 1
109) 4
110) 2
114) 2
115) 2
116) 1
117) 3 118) 4
119) 2
120) 3
123) 3
124) 4
125) 4
126) 3
127) 4 128) 3
129) 2
130) 1
133) 3
134) 1
135) 4
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131) 3 132) 1
95) 1
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91) 2
138) 2
139) 2
140) 4
141) 4
142) 2 143) 3
144) 3
145) 4
146) 3 147) 4
148) 3
149) 3
150) 3
151) 2
152) 2 153) 3
154) 2
155) 3
156) 3 157) 2
158) 3
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160) 3
161) 3
162) 3 163) 2
164) 1
165) 3
166) 2 167) 3
168) 3
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171) 3
172) 4 173) 4
174) 2
175) 4
176) 3 177) 2
178) 4
179) 3
180) 3
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136) 3 137) 4
ZOOLOGY
This question paper prepared by
Varsity Education Management Limited Page No.26
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NEET MODEL PAPER INSTRUCTIONS: 1.
t e
This Question paper contains 180 questions in Physics, Chemistry and Biology
n . a
(Botany and Zoology). 2.
Each objective question has four options, in which student has to select one best option.
3.
Each corrrect option will be rewarded with four marks. However if the attempt of
h b i
answering a question is wrong there will be -1 mark. 4.
t a r
Maximum time allot to answer this paper is three hours (180 minutes).
BIOLOGY 1.
p u d
Read the following statements and answer the given question.
(a) Porin protein is found in all the bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplast.
a n
(b) Root pressure developed when the rate of transpiration decreases. (c) Transportation of sucrose from mesophyll cell to phloem is called phloem unloading.
e e . w w
(d) Xylem vessels explain apoplastic movement of water How many statements are correct (1) 3 2.
(2) 1
(3) 2
w
Read the following characters.
. a h
(a) Diadelphous condition (b) vaxillary aestivation
b i t
(c) Non-endospermic seed the above characters belongs to family (1) Solanaceae 3.
t e n
(4) 4
a r p
(2) Fabaceae
Read the following features. (i) Nerve chord is Dorsal, hollow & single
du
(iii) Notochord absent
a n
(3) Cruciferae
(4) Gramineae
(ii) Gill clefts are found in pharynx (iv) Ventral heart
Out of these which are the features shown by a typical chordate animal? (1) Only (i) & (iv)
e e . ww
(3) All (i) to (iv) 4.
6.
(4) Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
In addition to malpighian tubules which other structures also help in excretion in cockroach? (1) Nephrocytes
5.
(2) Only (ii) & (iii)
(2) Uricose gland
w
(3) Urate cells
(4) All
Polysome is
(1) Several ribosomes attached to a DNA
(2) Several ribosomes attached to a single m-RNA
(3) Several ribosomes attached to ER
(4) All of the above
Spleen contains cords of billoroth, these are (1) Red pulp
ONLINE-2016
(2) White pulp
(3) Muscle
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(4) Only nerve fiber
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8.
The blood disorder caused by following substitution mRNA GAG → GUG can be exhibited by which of the following pedigree chart? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
t e
n . a
Consider the following statements (A - D).
h b i
(A) When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are in a way looking back in time. (B) Stellar distance measured in light year.
t a r
(C) Stars emitted light started it's journey million of year back & from trillions of kilometres away & reaching our eyes now. (D) When we see stars in our immediate surrounding we see them instantly and hence in the present time.
p u d
Which of the above statement are correct?
a n
(1) A, B & C (3) A, C & D 9.
10.
e e . w w
(1) Stomach and intestine of mosquito
(2) Salivary gland and RBC of mosquito
(3) Liver and RBC of human host
(4) Only in RBC of human host
w
Which of the following will not suffer from minimata disease? (2) Seal
(2) Ramdev
b i t
(3) Ernst Mayr
t e n
. a h
(3) Fish
The Darwin of the 20th Century (1) Linnacus
12.
(4) All of the above
During life cycle of malarial parasite it reproduces asexually in
(1) Rabbit
11.
(2) B, C & D
(4) All of these
(4) Santapau
Which one of the following statement about human sperm is correct?
a r p
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization. (2) The middle piece possesses numerous mitochondria, which provide energy for the movement of tail.
u d a
(3) The sperm head contains an elongated diploid nucleus. (4) Acrosome serves as sensory structure leading the sperm towards to ovum. 13.
n e e . ww
How many animals in the list given below are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and pseudocoelomate? Ascaris, Facsiola, Ancylostoma, Taenia, Neries, Wuchereria, Pheretima (1) Two
14.
(2) Three
(3) Four
w
(4) Five
Which statement is not correct? (1) Fluid mosaic model for membrane structure was given by S.J.Singer and G.L.Nicolson. (2) The middle lamella layer mainly consists of Ca-pectate.
(3) Golgi apparatus synthesise complex polysaccharides for cell wall. (4) Division of centromere occurs in anaphase first only.
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www.eenadupratibha.net 15.
16.
In cyclic photophosphorylation (1) Light energy not utilised
(2) Oxygen not released
(3) NADPH2 forms
(4) PS - II involved
t e
Volume of air that will remain in the lung after normal inspiration
n . a
(1) ERV + TV + RV (2) TV + ERV (3) FRC + TV
h b i
(4) One & three both correct 17.
The phenomenon of ....... was discovered by ....... in the organism .......... It prevents independent assortment of genes.
t a r
(1) Linkage, Morgan, Drosophila
p u d
(2) Segregation, Mendel, Garden pea
(3) Crossing over, Morgan, Drosophila
(4) Linkage, Sutton and Boveri, Drosophila 18.
a n
Universe is very old & vast where as earth itself is almost only a
e e . w w
(1) Clusters of galaxies
(2) Clouds of gas, dust and stars
t e n
(3) speck
w
(4) planet & Sattelite
19.
. a h
In human body, HIV infects (1) Macrophages & Neutrophils
b i t
(2) Macrophages & T-killer cells (3) T-killer cells & T-helper cells (4) T-helper cells & Macrophage 20.
(1) Non-biodegradable pollutants
u d a
(3) Qualitative pollutants 21.
a r p
DDT is categorised under
(2) Primary pollutants (4) All of these
Which of the following is correct for given diagram?
n e e . ww
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(1) Bulbils o wheat
(2) Leaf bud of Bryophyllum
(3) Leafs of Garlic
(4) Bulbils of Agave
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www.eenadupratibha.net 22.
23.
The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy? (1) Fifth month
(2) First month
(3) Fourth month
(4) Third month
t e
A drop of each of the following is placed separately on fours slides. Which of them will not caugulate?
n . a
(1) Blood taken from pulmonary vein (2) Blood plasma
h b i
(3) Blood serum (4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system 24.
(1) Ψw 25.
t a r
Which one is not exhibited by sucrose solution of 0.3 M concentration? (2) Ψp
(3) Ψs
(4) DPD
p u d
Three stages of Calvin cycle are described as
(1) Carboxylation, Nitrification, Regeneration (2) Carboxylation, Reduction, Oxidation
a n
(3) Carboxylation, Reduction, Regeneration
e e . w w
(4) Fixation, Reduction, Amination 26.
Which of the following statements are true/false?
t e n
(A) Calcitonin regulates the homeostasis of calcium along with PTH
w
(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth
. a h
(C) "Grave's disease" is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland
(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production
b i t
(1) A and C are true, B and D are false (2) A and B are true, C and D are false (3) A and D are false, B and C are true
a r p
(4) A, B, C are true, D only false 27.
Which one of the following option gives the correct match?
u d a
A (1)
C
Sunflower
Non-albuminous
Monocot seed
Pea
Non-albuminous
Dicot seed
Wheat
Albuminous
Monocot seed
Maize
Albuminous
Dicot seed
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(2) (3) (4) 28.
B
Which of the following are considered as solid evidences of organic evolution?
w
(1) Homologous and analogous organs (2) Analogous and vestigeal organs (3) Homologous organs and palaeontological evidences (4) Palaeontological and Taxonomic evidences
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www.eenadupratibha.net 29.
Which of the following shows hallucinogenic properties? CH3 N
O
CH3 O
t e
H H
(1)
n . a
O
H
(2)
h b i
(3)
t a r
(4) Both (2) and (3) 30.
p u d
Acids (H2SO4 & HNO3) constituent of acid rain are (1) Primary pollutants (3) Synergism
31.
32.
a n
What is scutellum?
e e . w w
(2) Secondary pollutants (4) 2 & 3
(1) Reduced cotyledon in monocots
(2) One Tigellum
(3) Endosperm
(4) One cotyledon in monocots
t e n
It is diagramatic presentation of the human foetus within the uterus, choose the correct option about C A, B and C.
w
. a h
A B
b i t
a r p
Plug of mucurs in cervix
A
33.
B
(1)
Cavity of Uterus
(2)
Yolk sac
(3)
Placental villi
(4)
Umblical cord
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en
u d a
C
Umblical cord
Embryo
Embryo
Placental villi
Embryo
Yolk sac
Cavity of uterus
Yolk sac
Read the following statements. (i) Ascending Limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water. (ii) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.
w
(iii) Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except the nitrogenous wastes. (iv) ADH helps in water elimination and making the urine hypotonic. Out of these how many statements are correct? (1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
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(4) All of these
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Read the following statements carefully. i) Causes the 25% loss of CO2 fixed by Calvin Benson cycle ii) Operates is chloroplasts, leaf peroxisomes and mitochondria
t e
iii) Absent in photosynthetic Bacteria
n . a
iv) ATP not produced What is this light dependent phenomenon?
35.
(1) Cyclic ETS
(2) Photolysis of water
(3) Photorespiration
(4) Pentose phosphate pathway
(1) Thigmonasty 36.
at
(2) Thigmotropism
(3) Chemotropism
(3) Peptide, thymosin, T
r p
u d
(2) Steroid, thymosin, T (4) Peptide, thymosin, B
a n
In the diagram given below synergid, male gametes, polar nuclei and filform apparatus are respectively. C
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t e n
D
w
. a h
B A
b i t
E (1) D, A, B, C 38.
(4) None
The thymus gland secretes the .... hormone called ..... which play a major role in the differentiation of .... lymphocytes. (1) Gylcoproteinaceous, thymosin, T
37.
h b i
Movement in tendril of cucurbits is
(2) D, A, C, B
(3) D, E, C, B
(4) C, A, E, B
a r p
Big Bang Theory attempts to explains all the following except (1) Origin of universe
u d a
(2) Singular huge explosion
(3) Temperature came down due to expanded universe
(4) Multiple huge explosions creates universe → stars → planet → sattellite 39.
n e e . ww
Read the following statements.
(a) Tissue matching and blood matching is essential before transplantation. (b) Symptoms of allergy are rapidly decreased with the use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids. (c) Pneumonia and common cold are spread to a halthy person through droplets of an infected person by cough and sneezing.
w
(d) Tumor cells don't show contact inhibition. How many of above sentences are true? (1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
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(4) One
www.eenadupratibha.net 40.
Which of the following are unburn hydrocarbon released from vehicle? (a) CH4 (b) C6H6 (Benzene)
t e
(c) 3 - 4 Benzapyrine
n . a
(d) Poly nuclear aeromatic hydrocarbon (1) a, b and c 41.
42.
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
Find the incorrect match. (1)
White rust of crucifer
Oomycetes
(2)
Red rust of Tea
Basidiomycetes
(3)
Leaf spot disease of rice
Deuteromycetes
(4)
Aspergelosis
Ascomycetes
(4) b, c and d
h b i
t a r
p u d
The given below diagram is of female reproductive system. Identify the structures which are marked as A, B, C and D
B
a n
Uterine cavity
e e . w w
C
w 43.
t e n
A D
A
B
C
(1)
Endometrium
Uterine cavity
isthmus
(2)
Myometrium
Uterine cavity
infundibilum
(3)
Endometrium
Uterine fundus
infundibilum
(4)
Perimetrium
Uterine fundus
Cartilageneous joint is found in
. a h
b i t D
ra
p u
Ampulla
Vagina Uterus
Cervix
Cervix
d a
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
n e e . ww
(2) Between cranial bones
(3) Between atlas and axis
(4) Between two adjacent vetebrae 44.
DCMU treated green plant synthesised ATP in sunlight by
w 45.
(1) Calvin-cycle
(2) C2-cycle
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Respiration
Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of t-RNA? (1) RNA replicase
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Amino acyl t-RNA synthetase
(4) Ribosomal enzyme
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www.eenadupratibha.net 46.
Given below is diagram showing of an eye. Which of the following option is correctly matched with statements and their labelling?
A
t e
D E
F
n . a
C
h b i
B (i) Visible coloured portion of the eye (ii) Non vascular, transparent portion
t a r
(iii) Photoreceptor cells are absent in this region
(iv) Portion of retina where only the cones are densely packed
up
(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E
d a
(3) i-C, ii-E, iii-A, iv-D 47.
Find the incorrect statement.
n e e . w w
(2) i-A, ii-F, iii-E, iv-C (4) i-C, ii-A, iii-E, iv-D
(1) Sewage treatment not only reduces pollution but also produces biogas (2) Trichoderma not only serves as biocontrol agent but also provides immunosuppressive agent
t e n
(3) Production of SCP not only provides alternative sources of protein but also reduces pollution (4) Mycorhiza not only absorbs phosphorus from soil fertility by performing nitrogen fixation
48.
w
To vacuum pump
. a h
Electrodes
b i t
Spark discharge (A)
CH4 NH3 H2O H2
a r p
Water out
Condenser
u d a
en
Boiling water
Water in
Water droplets
Water containing organic compounds
Liquid water in trap (B)
e . ww
Consider the following statements regarding the above diagrammatic representation. (A) Miller experiment at laboratory scale. (B) Proved theory of Oparin and Haldane that life originated from non-living organic molecules like R.N.A. and Proteins.
w
(C) Formation of amino-acids was observed. (D) Experiment demonstrated that life comes only from pre existing life. Which of the above statements are correct? (1) A & B
(2) A & C
(3) A, B & C
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(4) All of these
www.eenadupratibha.net 49.
Various stage of primary succession in a newly formed fresh water pond are given. (a) Scrub stage (b) Reed swamp stage
t e
(c) Submerged plant stage
n . a
(d) Phytoplanktons (e) Forest stage (f) Floating plant stage
h b i
(g) Marsh meadow stage Arrange these according to their sequence of occurrence.
t a r
(1) d, c, f, b, a, g, e
(2) d, b, c, f, g, a, e
(3) d, f, c, b, e, g, a
(4) d, c, f, b, g, a, e
p u d
50. CO
(a)
HC
a n (b)
e e . w w
NOx
w
(c)
t e n
Catalytic convertor
. a h
Labell a, b and c respectively
51.
(1) CO2, H2O + CO2, N2
(2) H2O + CO2, CO, NH3
(3) H2O + CO2, CO, N2
(4) All of these
a r p
I
Two unequal flagella
(a)
Rhodophyceae
II
2-8 flagella
(b)
Phaeophyceae
III
Agar-Agar
(c)
Chlorophyceae
IV
Phycobillins
(d)
(1)
du
Gracilaria
a n
I
II
III
IV
c
b
d
a
b
c
d
a
a
b
c
d
c
b
a
d
e e . ww
(2) (3) (4) 52.
b i t
Match the following column.
w
Birds differ from reptiles in which one of the following character? (1) Skin has scales (2) They ley eggs (3) 12 pair cranial nerve (4) There is regulation of body temperature
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www.eenadupratibha.net 53.
Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of Human skull. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them? D C
B
t e
n . a
h b i
A
54.
Option
Part A
Part B
Part C
(1)
Occipital Bone
Temporal Bone
Sphenoid Bone
Frontal Bone
(2)
Occipital condyle
Ethmoid Bone
Temporal Bone
Frontal Bone
(3)
Occipital Bone
Temporal Bone
Frontal Bone
Spphenoid Bone
(4)
Occipital condyle
Sphenoid Bone
Parental Bone
Frontal Bone
t a r
up
d a
Which pair is wrong?
Part D
(1) Term ''Phytochrome" → Butler
n e e . w w
(2) Allosteric Enzyme → Hexokinase
(3) Abscisic acid → Foolish seeding disease
t e n
(4) Aerobic Respiration in E coli → Mesosome and cytosol 55.
w
There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because
. a h
(1) there are 64 types of t-RNA found in the cell.
(2) there are 44 meaning less codons and 20 codons for amino acids.
b i t
(3) there are 64 amino acids to be coded. (4) genetic code is triplet. 56.
In the given figure, what is indicated by 'X'?
a r p
Hypothalamus
u d a
Release-inhibiting hormone
Releasing hormone
en
stimulates
e . ww
w 57.
Inhibits
X
Hormone
(1) Thyroid
(2) Parathyroid
(3) Anterior Pituitary
(4) Posterior pituitary
Distillation of fermented broth is required to produce (1) Wine and beer
(2) Wine and whysky
(3) Brandy and beer
(4) Brandy and rum
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www.eenadupratibha.net 58.
t e
[A] [C]
n . a
[B]
h b i
t a r
p u d
[D]
a n
Select the option with the correct identification of animals (A-D) in the above family tree of dinosaurs. A
e e . w w
61.
D
Pteranodon
Triceratops
Brachiosaurs
Stegosaurs
(2)
Triceratops
Pteranodon
Tyrannosaurs
Stegosaurs
(3)
Triceratops
Bat
Brachiosaurs
Stegosaurs
Tyrannosaurs
Archaeopteryx
Triceratops
Brachiosaurs
w
(2) Nitrogen
(4) Phosphorus
b i t
(1) 1st October 2001
(2) 1st April 2005
(3) 1st April 2010
(4) 1st April 2011
a r p
Reproduction is not a defining property of living organisms due to following exceptions.
du
(3) Mules
a n
Scales in cyclostomata are (1) Ctenoid
63.
(3) Carbon
When did Euro-IV (Bharat stage-IV) became applicable for 4 wheelers in 13 mega cities of India?
(1) Sterile human
62.
t e n
. a h
Guano is the rich source of (1) Sulphur
60.
C
(1)
(4)
59.
B
e e . ww
(2) Cycloid
(2) Worker hony bees
(4) All of the above
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Absent
Read the following four statements (A-D). (A) Tricuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle. (B) Bicuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle.
w
(C) Semilunar valves are present at the opening of pulmonary arch and carotid systemic arch. (D) All these valves are always be bidirectional. Out of these how many statements are incorrect? (1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None of these
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www.eenadupratibha.net 64.
What are the P, Q, R, S in given diagram. Centrosome
t e
S R
n . a
Cytoplasm Q Endoplasmic reticulum
h b i
t a r
P Ribosomes
65.
Q
R
S
(1)
Plastid
E.R.
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
(2)
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Golgibody
Cell-membrane
(3)
Plasma membrane
Golgibody
Nucleus
Mitochondria
(4)
Golgi body
E.R.
Plastid
Ribosome
a n
e e . w w
Sugar with 5 ring structure is called (1) Furanose
66.
67.
p u d
P
w
(2) Pyranose
(3) Dextrorotatory
In the match given below which of the following is incorrect?
t e n
(4) Laevorotatory
. a h
Blood group
Blood group
Possible ABO blood group antigen
of father
of mother
on erythrocyte of progeny
(1)
O
O
(2)
A
B
(3)
AB
O
(4)
A
O
b i t None
None
ra
p u
None
None
Observe the diagrams given below of pBR322 plasmid
d a
DNA
en
ampR tetR
e . ww A
ampR tetR
DNA
DNA ampR tetR
ampR tetR
B
DNA D
C
Presence of which of the following vector in the host will help in screening of transformants that can grow on ampicillin containing medium but not on that containing tetracycline?
w
(1) D
68.
(2) C
(3) B
Artificially acquired active immunity is induced by (1) Readymade antibodies
(2) Vaccination
(3) Colostrum
(4) Natural infection
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(4) A
www.eenadupratibha.net 69.
70.
All given are included among 34 biodiversity hot spots of world, except (1) Indo-Burma
(2) Western Ghats, and Sri Lanka
(3) Himalaya
(4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
n . a
(a) Clonal selection (b) Crossing of suitable plants (c) Species differentiation
71.
h b i
(1) Only b
(2) b and c Both
(3) a and c both
(4) Only c
t a r
Presence of xylem vessels and triploid endosperm is the property of (1) Gymnosperm
72.
t e
Hybrid vigour is induced by
(2) Angiosperm
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Pteridophyta
p u d
Petromyzon & myxine is not regarded as true fishes because (1) They lack unpaired fins
a n
(2) They have scales
(3) In them operculum is absent
e e . w w
(4) There is absence of paired fins & jaws 73.
Read the following features of blood vessels
t e n
(i) It carries blood from heart to organs
w
(ii) Mostly carries impure blood
. a h
(iii) It's walls are thin and soft (iv) Their lumen is wide
b i t
(v) It's walls contain unidirectional valves (vi) They don't collapse when they empty
(2) Five
a r p
a n
(3) 8C
(vii) They are deeply situated in the body (viii) Blood flows with a low pressure in it
Out of these how many features are correct with regards to veins?
du
(1) Four 74.
(4) Seven
The synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA replication takes place. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ..........
e e . ww
(1) 2C 75.
(3) Six
(2) 4C
(4) 16C
Match the following. (A)
Jaundice
(i)
Difficulty in breathing
(B)
Pernicious anemia
(ii)
Decreased absorption
(C)
Diarrohea
(iii)
Bile pigment
(D)
Asthma
(iv)
Vit B12
w
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
(4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
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www.eenadupratibha.net 76.
The diagram given here is showing a particular stage of cell divisions. It helps to prove which law of inheritance?
t e
A A
n . a
a a
h b i
t a r
(1) Law of dominance
(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment 77.
(2) RNAi
d a
n e e . w w
(2) Typhoid
82.
(b) Plant breeding
(c) Plant anatomy
(d) Cytology
(1) a, b and c
(2) Only b
(4) 0.9°C
t e n
. a h
(3) Only c
(4) Only d
b i t
Numerical taxonomy (1) is a modern taxonomy
(2) is a most widely used taxonomy
(3) is based on all the characters
(4) more than one option are correct
a r p
In which pair both characters are found without exception in all mammals
u d a
(2) Vivipary & internal fertilizatioin (4) Mammary glands & internal fertilization
Which of the following cells/organism shows 'Ameoboid movement'?
n e e . ww
(i) Hydra
(ii) Leucocytes
(iii) Erythrocytes
(iv) Macrophases
(v) Paramoecium
(vi) Amoeba
(1) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)
w
Besides nucleus the Eukaryotic cells have other membrane bound distinct structures called (1) Mesosome
85.
(3) 0.6°C
(a) Plant physiology
(3) Vivipary & Mammary gland
84.
(4) Amoebiasis
Selection is the method of?
(1) Hair & vivipary
83.
(3) Ascariasis
(2) 0.2°C
w 81.
(4) ELISA
During the past century, the mean temperature of the earth has increased by (1) 0.4°C
80.
(3) miRNA
Bacterial disease spread due to intake of contaminated food and water (1) Pneumonia
79.
up
Which of the following is a technique to provide pest resistance to crop plants? (1) ANDi
78.
(4) Law of linkage
(2) Organelles
(3) Chromatophore
(4) Inclusion bodies
Partial pressure of oxygen in tissue, atmospheric air, oxygenated blood, alveolar air are (1) 159, 40, 104, 95
(2) 159, 40, 95, 104
(3) 40, 159, 95, 104
(4) 95, 40, 159, 104
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www.eenadupratibha.net 86.
Read the following statements: (a) In both grasshopper and Drosophila males have only one X chromosome in their cells. (b) i gene of Lac operon is expressed only in presence of lactose.
t e
(c) Being repetitive, satellite DNA forms multiple copies of same polypeptide.
n . a
(d) Random arrangement of chromosomes at metaphasic plate of meiosis I is the basis of independent assortment of genes. The correct statements are (a) a, d 87.
(2) c, d
(4) b, c, d
i t
The second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill has been cleared to prevent? (1) Biopiracy
(2) Biowar
a r
(3) Biodiversity loss 88.
bh
(3) a, b, c
(4) Biomagnification
p u d
Number of chromosomes in a patient of Down's syndrome are (1) Autosome - 46, Sex chromosomes - 2 (2) Autosome - 45, Sex chromosomes - 2
a n
(3) Autosome - 44, Sex chromosomes - 3
e e . w w
(4) Autosome - 43, Sex chromosomes - 3 89.
The most Hazardous metal pollutant form automobile exhaust is (1) Lead
90.
(2) Mercury
(3) Copper
w
Breeding of crops having high level of minerals, Vitamins and proteins is called (2) Micropropagation
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(4) Biofortification
b i t
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons? (1) Mg2+
92.
(3) V3+
p u
(2) 134.2
d a
(3) 100
(4) 150
The ions having highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution is
n e e . ww
(2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+
(4) Ba2+
Which of the following does not give primary amine? LIAlH4
(1) CH3CN →
w
LIAlH4
(3) CH3CONH2 →
95.
(4) Fe2+
Phenol (mol. wt. 94) is dimerised to 60% in a solvent, the observed molecular weight of phenol will be
(1) Be2+ 94.
ra
(2) Ti3+
(1) Less than 94 93.
. a h
(1) Biomagnification
CHEMISTRY 91.
t e n
(4) Cadmium
LIAlH4
(2) CH3NC → Br2/NaOH
(4) CH3CONH2 →
Equivalent weight of As2S3 in the change As2S3 → AsO4-3 + S (M - molecular weight of As2S3)
M (1) 4
M (2) 6
M (3) 3
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M (4) 10
www.eenadupratibha.net 96.
A substance that will reduce Ag+ to Ag but will not reduce Ni2+ to Ni is? (1) Zn
97.
(2) Pb
(2) 100.08
t e
(3) 99.37
(4) None of these
n . a
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer the codes given below Code
List-I
Code
List-II
A
XeF4
i
Distorted octahedral
B
XeF6
ii
Tetrahedral
C
XeO3
iii
Square planar
D
XeO4
iv
Trigonal pyramidal
p u d
(3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv (4) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
a n
Biuret test is not given by (1) Urea
(2) Protein
e e . w w
(3) Carbohydrate
h b i
t a r
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii
99.
(4) Al
Pure water boils at 99.725°C at Shimla. If Kb for water is 0.51 K mol-1kg, the boiling point of 0.69 molal urea solution will be (1) 100.35
98.
(3) Mg
(4) Polypeptides
100. For a lyophilic sol
t e n
(1) Surface tension & Viscosity are less than that of the medium
w
(2) Surface tension & viscosity are more than that of medium
. a h
(3) Surface tension & viscosity are equal to that of medium (4) Surface tension is less but viscosity is more than that of medium
b i t
101. In the equation
SnCl2 + 2 HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4 The equivalent weight of stannous chloride (molecular weight - 190) will be? (1) 190
ra
(2) 95
(3) 47.5
p u
(4) 154.5
102. An exothermic reaction X - Y is spontaneous in the backward direction. What will be the sign of S for the forward reaction?
d a
(1) +ve
n e e . ww
(3) May be +ve or -ve
(2) -ve (4) S will be zero
103. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ are (1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively (3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively
w
(4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
104. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives (1) Acetone
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) n-Propyhl alcohol
(4) Isopropyl alcohol
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www.eenadupratibha.net 105. Select the incorrect order. 3+
3+
(1) [M(H2O)6]
< [M(NH3)6]
3+
(2) [Co(H2O)6]
3+
< [Cr(H2O)6]
3-
< [M(NO2)6]
Absorbed light 'λ' order
3+
< [Fe(H2O)6]
- Paramagnatism
t e
(3) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2] - No. of Geometrical isomer -
(4) [Mn(CO)5]
n . a
+
< [Co(CO)6] < [Co(CO)6] C - O bond order
106. Bredic arc method cannot be be used to prepare colloidal solution of? (1) Pt
(2) Fe
h b i
(3) Ag
(4) Au
107. The number of atoms is 270 g of an element present in bcc system with edge 300 pm and density 6 g cm-3 is (1) 3.33 × 1022
at
(2) 3.33 × 1024
(3) 3.33 × 1026
r p
108. Bond order of nitric oxide is (1) 1.0
(2) 2.5
u d
(4) 3.33 × 1020
(3) 2.0
(4) 1.5
(3) 8
(4) 16
109. Number of stereoisomers of the molecule is
a n
(CH3)2C = CHCH(Br)CH(OH)CH = CHCH3 (1) 4 (2) 6
e e . w w
110. The sum of no. of unpaired e- in following compounds
[Ni(CN)4]2- [NiCl4]2-, [CuCl4]2- [Cu(CN)4]2(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
t e n
(4) 4
w
111. A first order reaction is 20% completed in 10 minutes, calculate time taken for the reaction to go to 75% completion? (1) 62.18 minute
(2) 72.18 minute
. a h
(3) 90 minute
(4) 79 minute
ib
112. Largest jump between second and third ionisation energy is for (1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) Al
t a
(4) C
113. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 follows the sequence
r p
(1) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te (3) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te
(2) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O
u d a
(4) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2T
PCl3 114. CH3 - CH - CH2 - OH → A → B AlCl3 CH3
n e e . ww
Find product B. Ph
(1) CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH3
(2)
C(CH3)3
(3) CH3 - CH2 - CH
(4)
CH - CH3
w
CH3
CH3
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www.eenadupratibha.net 115. Select the incorrect matched. (1) Mond process - Purification of Ni (2) Zone-refining - refining of Si, Ge
t e
(3) Mac-arthur cyanide process - refining of Ag & Au
n . a
(4) Cupellation - refining of Ag
N 116. How much volume of water is required to dilute 500 ml, of HCl into decinormal? 2 (1) 2000 ml (2) 2500 ml (3) 3000 ml (4) 1000 ml
h b i
117. Which is not applicable to ozone? (1) It is a bent molecule with bond angle approx 117°
t a r
(2) The two O - O bond length are equal (3) It is an allotrope of oxygen
p u d
(4) It has four lone pair of electron on central atom
118. It is observed that chemistry of lanthaindes decided by their +3 oxidation states. Which statement is incorrect?
a n
(1) Size of Ln (III) decrease with increase in atomic number
e e . w w
(2) Compounds of Ln (III) are generally colourless (3) Hydroxides of Ln (III) are mainly basic in nature
t e n
(4) Compounds of Ln (III) are mainly contains ionic bond due to large size of Ln (III) 119. Which of the following is not aromatic?
w (1)
(2)
(4)
b i t
120. Leakage of which gas was responsible for Bhopal gas Tragedy in 1984? (1) CH3NCS
(2) CH3CNO
(3) CH3CNS
a r p
121. Minimum pH will be of (1) 0.1 M BaCl2
. a h
(3)
(2) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
(3) 0.1 M BeCl2
(4) CH3NCO (4) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2
u d a
122. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Stability of normal oxides of I A elements decreases down the group (2) Stability of superoxide of I A elements increases down the group
n e e . ww
(3) Stability of hydrides of I A elements increases down the group (4) Be and Mg does not give flame test 123. What will be the products of the reaction?
w
CH2 - O
OH HI
(1)
CH2 - OH Only
(3)
CH2 - OH + I
OH
(2)
CH2 - I + HO
OH
(4)
CH2 - OH + I
I
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www.eenadupratibha.net 124. IUPAC name of the following is OH
t e
CH3 (1) 5-Methyl hex-3-en -1-ol
(2) 2-Methyl pent-3-en-5-ol
(3) 2-Methyl hex-3-en-6-ol
(4) 4-Methyl pent-2-en-1-ol
n . a
125. Which of the following is a Homopolymer? (1) Acrilan
(2) PHBV
h b i
(3) Glyptal
126. Which of the following is not precipitated with H2S? (1) Pb+2
t a r
(2) Cu+2
(3) Ag+
(4) Dacron
(4) Sn+2
127. From amongst the following triatomic molecules the least bond angle is in (2) I3-
(1) O3
p u d
128. Methyl benzoate can be prepared by H+
-
(3) NO2
(4) H2S
(1) C6H5COOH + CH3OH →
a n ∆
Pyridine
e e . w w
(2) C6H5COCl + CH3OH → ∆
(3) C6H5COOH + CH2N2 →
t e n
(4) All of the above methods
w
129. Assume that during electrolysis of AgNO3, only H2O is electrolysed and O2 is formed as
. a h
2 H2O → 4 H+ + O2 + 4 e-
O2 formed at NTP due to passage 2 A of current for 965 s is (1) 0.112 L
(2) 0.224 L
b i t
(3) 11.2 L
130. Which one of the following is employed as a Antihistaminic drug?
a r p
(1) Brompheniramine
(4) 22.4 L
(2) Ranitidine
(3) Valium
(4) Chloramphenicol
131. 20% of PCl5 is not dissociated at 25°C (V = 1 ltr), KC = (1) 3.2
du
(2) 1.6
(3) (3.2)-1
a n
132. Boric acid is polymeric due to (1) Its acidic nature
e e . ww
(2) The presence of hydrogen bonds (3) Its monobasic nature (4) Its geometry
w
133. Among the following compounds most acidic is (1) p-nitrophenol
(2) p-hydroxy benzoic acid (3) m-hydroxy benzoic acid (4) p-methyl benzoic acid
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(4) 32
www.eenadupratibha.net 134. Consider the given data Half-cell reaction
E°
a. Cr2O72- + 14 H2 + 6 eb. Cr3 + 3 eCr c. Cu+ + e-
2 Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 133 V
Cu
d. Cu2+ + 2 e-
t e
- 0.74 V
Cu
+ 0.34 V
Eo for the reaction 2 Cr(s) + 3 Cu2+ (aq)
h b i
2 Cr3+ + 3 Cu is
(1) -1.08 V
(2) -0.70 V
t a r
(3) 1.08 V NaNH2
n . a
+ 0.52 V
(4) 2.50 V
CH3 - I
135. A → B → 2 - pentyne
p u d
What is A? (1) Propyne
a n
(3) Both (I) and (2)
e e . w w
(2) I - Butyne (4) None
PHYSICS
t e n
136. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the centre of the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is ω, then the difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is rω r2ω2 ω2 (1) (2) (3) √ 2grω (4) 2g 2g 2gr2
w
. a h
137. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Which of the diagram shown in figure correctly shows the displacement time curve for its motion? d
d (1)
b i t
a r p
(2)
d
d
(3)
u d a
t
t
(4) t
t
138. An ideal gas after going through a series of four thermodynamic states in order, reaches the initial state again (cyclic process). The amounts of heat (Q) and work (W) involved in the states are
n e e . ww
Q1 = 6000 J; Q2 = -5500 J; Q3 = -3000 J; Q4 = 3500 J
W1 = 2500 J; W2 = -1000 J;
w
W3 = - 1200 J; W4 = xJ
The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total heat absorbed by the gas in η. The value of x and η in percentage are nearly (1) 500 ; 7.5
(2) 700; 10.5
(3) 1000; 21
(4) 1500; 15
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www.eenadupratibha.net 139. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery of negligible resistance is X 6Ω
t e
n . a
G 40 cm
A
60 cm
B
h b i
5V (1) 6 Ω, 5 amp
(2) 10 Ω, 0.1 amp
t a r
(3) 4 Ω, 1.0 amp
(4) 4 Ω, 0.5 amp
140. Two lenses of power - 15 D and + 5 D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination is
p u d
(1) -20 cm
(2) -10 cm
a n
(3) +20 cm
(4) + 10 cm
141. A tube of semicircular cross section contains some liquid and is placed vertically. The angle of contact is zero. The ratio of forces due to surface tension for circular and plane portion of the tube is
e e . w w
(1) 1 : 1
(2) π : 2
(3) 2 : π
(4) None of these
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142. A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass making 600 revolution per minute, its kinetic energy would be
w
(1) 500 π2
(2) 200 π2
(3) 3600 π2
(4) 1000 π2
. a h
143. A uniform spring whose natural length is l has force constant K. The spring is cut into pieces of unstressed length l1 & l2. Where l1 = nl2 where n being an integer. Now a mass m is made to oscillate with first spring. The time period of its oscillation would be (1) T = 2π (3) T = 2π
b i t√
mn
√ √
K(n + 1)
m K(n + 1)
(2) T = 2π
ra
m nR
p u
(4) T = 2π
√
m(n + 1) nK
144. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A the value of the required shunt is (1) 0.09 Ω
d a
(2) 0.03 Ω
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(3) 0.3 Ω
(4) 0.9 Ω
145. When a ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface of an equilateral prism. (Refractive index of the material of the prism = 1.5) (1) emerging ray is deviated by 30° (2) emerging ray is deviated by 45°
w
(3) emerging ray just grazes the second refracting surface (4) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at the second refracting surface
146. The Young's modulus of a metal is 1.2 × 1011 N/m2 and the interatomic force constant is 3.6 × 10-9 N/Angstrom. The mean distance between the atoms of the metal is (1) 2 A°
(2) 3 A°
(3) 4.5 A°
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(4) 5 A°
www.eenadupratibha.net 147. A body of mass m kg collides elastically with another body at rest and then continuous to move in the original direction with half of its original speed, then mass of the second body is 2 (2) m kg 3
(1) m kg
m (3) kg 3
m (4) kg 2
148. In case of simple pendulum time period verses length is depicted by (l R, where r is the distance from the origin. 4 R
e (w.e) w
The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the origin is given by ρ0r (1) 4ε0
5 r - 4 R
4πρ0r (2) 3ε0
ρ0r (3) 4ε0
5 r - 3 R
4ρ0r (4) 3ε0
w
(
)
( (
5 r - 3 R 5 r - 4 R
) )
t e n
. a h
150. Light of wavelength 2 × 10-3 m falls on a slit of width 4 × 10-3 m. The approx angular dispersion of the central maximum will be (1) 30°
(2) 60°
ib
(3) 90°
151. A physical quantity P is given by P = C-4 D3/2
(4) 180°
t a
A3B1/2
r p
The quantity which brings is the maximum percentage error in P is (1) A
u d a
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
152. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops at the bottom because of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for different segment of the path. Work required to return the objection to its position along the same path by a tangential force is
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(1) mgh
(2) 2mgh
(3) -mgh
(4) Cannot be calculated
153. At the nodes of a longitudinal stationary wave
w
(1) The amplitude of oscillation is maximum (2) The density variation is zero (3) The pressure variation is maximum (4) The velocity amplitude is maximum
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www.eenadupratibha.net 154. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed at the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to 1 (1) x (2) x2 (3) x3 (4) x
t e
155. In an interference experiment using waves of same amplitude, path difference between the waves at a λ point on the screen is . The ratio of intensity at this point with that at the central bright fringe is 4 (1) 1
(2) 0.5
n . a
h b i
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.0
156. Which of the following is the graph between the horizontal velocity (vx) of a projectile & time (t) when it is projected from the ground
t a r
Vx
Vx
(1)
(2)
Vx
p u d t
t
(3)
Vx
(4) t
t
157. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The net torque produced by the forces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and 9 N at D at angles indicated is
a n
e e . w w
4N
B
A
90°° 30°°
20 cm
8N
w
t e n
90°° C 6N
(1) 5.4 N-m anticlockwise
D
(3) 2.0 N-m clockwise
9N
. a h
(2) 1.80 N-m clock wise
b i t
(4) 5.4 N-m clock wise
158. In the spectrum of light of a luminous heavenly body the wavelength of a spectral line is measured to be 4747 A° while actual wavelength of the line is 4700A°. The relative velocity of the heavenly body with respect to the earth will be
a r p
(1) 3 × 105 ms-1 (towards the earth) (3) 3 × 106 ms-1 (towards the earth)
u d a
(2) 3 × 105 ms-1 (away from the earth) (4) 3 × 106 ms-1 (away from the earth)
159. An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, enters a region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of the electron if the field (a) is transverse to its initial velocity, (b) makes an angle of 30° with the initial velocity.
n e e . ww
(1) (a) Straight line (b) Helix (3) (a) Helix (b) Helix
(2) (a) Circle (b) Circle (4) (a) Circle (b) Helix
160. An α-particle of 5 MeV energy strikes with a nucleus of uranium (stationary) at an scattering angle of 180°. The nearest distance upto which α-particle reaches the nucleus will be of the order of
w
(1) 1 A°
(2) 10-10 cm
(3) 10-12 cm
(4) 10-15 cm
161. By what percentage the energy of a satellite has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to 3r 2 (1) 15%
(2) 33.33%
(3) 66.7%
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(4) 20.3%
www.eenadupratibha.net 162. A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of particles motion is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, the angular momentum becomes (1) 2L
L (3) 2
(2) 4L
L (4) 4
t e
163. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tuning fork is struck and held over the tube. Strong resonances are observed at two successive lengths 0.5 m and 0.84 m above the surface of water. If the velocity of sound is 340 ms-1 then the frequency of the tuning fork is (1) 128 Hz
(2) 256 Hz
(3) 384 Hz
n . a
h b i
(4) 500 Hz
164. A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions is 60°, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10-2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field? (1) 4.4 × 10-3 T
at
(3) 2.2 × 10-3 T
(2) 4.4 T
r p
(4) 8 T
165. In a sample, ratio of P31 and P32 is 1 : 2, P31 is stable. But P32 is a radioactive and decay in S32 with half life T. After how long time ratio of P31 and P32 be equal to 2 : 1 (1) T
(2) 2T
u d
T (4) 2
(3) 4T
a n
166. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the following pairs of space and time varying fields would generate such a wave?
e e . w w
(1) Ez, Bx
(2) Ey, Bz
(3) Ex, By
(4) Ey, Bx
t e n
167. An anisotropic material has coefficients of linear thermal expansion α1, α2 and α3 along x, y and z-axis respectively. Coefficient of cubical expansion of its material will be equal to
w
(1) α1 + α2 + α3
(2) α1 + 2α2 + 3α3
α1 + α2 + α3 (4) 3
. a h
(3) 3α1 + 2α2 + α3
168. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between planet and star is proportional to
b i t
R-5/2, then T2 is proportional to (1) R3
a r p
(2) R7/2
(3) R5/2
(4) R3/2
169. Figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails B and positioned between the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three mutual perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.
u d a
n e e . ww
N
P
K
A
G
w
B Q
S What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed? (Velocity of rod = 12 cm/sec) (1) 5 N
(2) 75 × 10-6 N
(3) 75 × 10-3 N
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(4) 7.5 N
www.eenadupratibha.net 170. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (υ) for a metal used as cathode is photoelectric experiment. The work function of metal is K
t e
3
n . a
2 1 υ
0
h b i
-1 -2
t a r
-3
p u d
(1) 1 eV
(2) 1.5 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 3 eV
171. A particle of small mass m is joined to a very heavy body by a light string passing over a light pulley. Both bodies are free to move. The total downward force on the pulley is
a n
(1) >> mg
(2) 4 mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) mg
e e . w w
172. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal from the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at temperatures T and √ 2 T respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature of point C will be A
w
B
3T (1) √2+1
t e n
. a h
C
T (2) √2+1
T (3) √ 3( √ 2 - 1)
b i t
T (4) √2-1
173. A mass M is split into two parts, m and (M-m), which are then separated by a certain distance. What ratio of m/M maximises the gravitational force between the two parts? 1 (1) 3
1 (2) 2
ra
p u
1 (3) 2
1 (4) 5
174. Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80 µF, R = 40 Ω. R
d a
n e e . ww ε
w
C
L
Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency. (1) 40 Ω, 8.1 A
(2) 20 Ω, 8.1 A
(3) 60 Ω, 16 A
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(4) 60 Ω, 4 A
www.eenadupratibha.net 175. The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. We can then assert that
t e
n . a
Z
Y
X
h b i
(1) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group and a fifth group impurity respectively.
t a r
(2) Sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity. (3) Sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities while samples Y and Z are undoped.
p u d
(4) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group and a third group impurity respectively.
a n
176. A block of mass 5 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of net force exerted by the surface on the block will be (g = 10 m/s2)
e e . w w
(1) 25 N (2) 50
g
(3) 10 N
5k
t e n
60°°
(4) 30 N
w
. a h
177. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process I is isobaric process, process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ∆ U1, ∆ U2 and ∆ U3 be the change in internal energy of the gas in these three processes. Then P
b i t
1
P0
2
a r p
3
u d a
2V0
V0
V
(1) ∆ U1 > ∆ U2 > ∆ U3 (2) ∆ U1 < ∆ U2 < ∆ U3 (3) ∆ U2 < ∆ U1 < ∆ U3 (4) ∆ U2 < ∆ U3 < ∆ U1 178. In the Wheatstone bridge shown below, in order to balance the bridge, values of R1 and R2 will be
n e e . ww
w
10
Ω 30
R1 R2 Ω
(1) R1 = 3 Ω; R2 = 3 Ω (3) R1 = 1.5 Ω; R2 = any finite value
9Ω
(2) R1 = 6 Ω; R2 = 15 Ω (4) R1 = 3 Ω; R2 = any finite value
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www.eenadupratibha.net 179. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency supply. What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this maximum value. (1) 663 Hz, 14.1 A
(2) 663 Hz, 10 A
(3) 230 Hz, 14.1 A
(4) 663 Hz, 5 A
180. In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased? +5V R i) ii) +5V
v)
R
up
(1) i, ii iii
h b i
(2) ii, iv, v
R
-12V
d a
n e e . w w -10V
iv)
n . a
+10V
t a r
-10V
iii)
t e
-5V
(3) i, iii, iv
(4) ii, iii, iv
t e n
ANSWER KEY
w
. a h
1-3; 2-2; 3-4; 4-4; 5-2; 6-1; 7-2; 8-1; 9-3; 10-1; 11-3; 12-2; 13-2; 14-4; 15-2; 16-4; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-4; 21-4; 22-1; 23-3; 24-2; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-3; 29-4; 30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-3; 35-2; 36-3; 37-2; 38-4; 39-1; 40-4; 41-2; 42-3; 43-4; 44-4; 45-2; 46-4; 47-4; 48-3; 49-4; 50-1; 51-2; 52-4; 53-4; 54-3; 55-4; 56-3; 57-4; 58-2; 59-4; 60-3; 61-4; 62-4; 63-2; 64-2; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2; 68-2; 69-4; 70-1; 71-2; 72-4; 73-2; 74-2; 75-4; 76-2; 77-2; 78-2; 79-3; 80-2; 81-4; 82-4; 83-3; 84-2; 85-3; 86-1; 87-1; 88-2; 89-1; 90-4; 91-4; 92-2; 93-4; 94-2; 95-4; 96-2; 97-2; 98-4; 99-3; 100-4; 101-2; 102-2; 103-2; 104-4; 105-1; 106-2; 107-2; 108-2; 109-3; 110-4; 111-1; 112-2; 113-2; 114-2; 115-3; 116-1; 117-4; 118-2; 119-2; 120-4; 121-3; 122-3 123-2; 124-4; 125-1; 126-3; 127-4; 128-4; 129-1; 130-1; 131-1; 132-2; 133-3; 134-3; 135-2; 136-2; 137-2; 138-2; 139-3; 140-2; 141-2; 142-4; 143-1; 144-1; 145-4; 146-2; 147-3; 148-2; 149-3; 150-2; 151-3; 152-2; 153-3; 154-2; 155-2; 156-2; 157-2; 158-4; 159-4; 160-3; 161-2; 162-4; 163-4; 164-1; 165-2; 166-3; 167-1; 168-2; 169-3; 170-3; 171-2; 172-1; 173-2; 174-1; 175-4; 176-2; 177-1; 178-4; 179-1; 180-2.
b i t
a r p
u d a
(Prepared by Sri Gayatri Educational Institutions, Hyderabad)
n e e . ww
w
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www.eenadupratibha.net
NEET MODEL GRAND TEST No. of Questions: 180
Marks: 720
Time: 3 Hours
t e
PART - A: PHYSICS 1.
2.
h b i
Radius of sphere is measured to be (2.1 ± 0.5) cm. Calculate its surface area with error limits.
t a r
a) (50 ± 26.4) cm2
b) (55.4 ± 26.4) cm2
c) (55.4 ± 25.1) cm2 3.
n . a
An electric charge experience a force 'F' due to a short dipole in its axial position. If the distance of the charge is halved, then effective force will be F F F a) b) c) d) 8 F 2 8 4
p u d
d) (50 + 27.4) cm2
How should three charges q, 2q and 8q be arranged on 9 cm long line such that the potential energy of the system is minimum?
a n
a) q charge should at a distance of 3 cm from 2q charge b) q charge should at a distance of 5 cm from 2q charge
e e . w w
c) 2q charge should at a distance of 7 cm from q charge d) 2q charge should at a distance of 9 cm from q charge 4.
w 5.
√ √
√
. a h]
[ √b
i t
A parallel plate capacitor of capacity 5 µF and plate separation 6 cm is connected to a 4 volt battery and is charged. If a dielectric of dielectric constant 4 and thickness 4 cm is introduced into the capacitor, then additional charge that flows into the capacitor from battery is a) 20 µC
6.
t e n
A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed 'v' from a height 'h' meters above the ground. The time taken for the ball to hit ground v 1 − 2gh 1 + 2gh a) b) g 2 v v2 v 1 + 2gh v 2hg c) d) g g 1 + 1 + v2 v2
b) 10 µC
u d a
a r p
c) 5 µC
d) Zero
Which of the following statements is true for the planets orbiting around the sun? a) Their velocity increases when they are nearest to the sun in accordance with the conservation of angular momentum.
n e e . ww
b) Their velocity decreases when they are nearest to the sun in accordance with the conservation of angular momentum. c) Areal velocity of the planet with time to conserve the energy. d) Areal velocity of the planet is directly proportional to the distance of the planet from the sun.
7.
w
In the circuit shown in figure, each resistance is R. Net resistance between points A and B is 4 a) R 3 R c) 2
R-20,21,22-7-16
7R b) 2 5 d) R 3
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www.eenadupratibha.net 8.
A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decrease by a factor of: a) 100
9.
b) 1000
c) 10000
d) 10
Potential difference across the terminals of the battery shown in figure is (in volt)
t e
a) 8
n . a
b) Zero c) 4 d) 10 10.
h b i
The magnitude of displacement of a particle moving in a circle of radius a with constant angular speed 'ω' varies with time t as:
t a r
ωt b) 2a sin 2
a) 2a sin ωt
c) 2a cos ωt
ωt d) 2a cos 2
11.
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45° with magnetic field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is x. The radius of the helix will be x x √2x a) b) √ 2x c) d) 2π √ 2π π
12.
A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with same speed v. What is the maximum area on the ground on which these bullets will spread?
p u d
a n
e e . w w
v2 a) π g 13.
w
b) 11 km/sec
. a h
d) 15.5 km/sec
a r p
u d a
A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields which are parallel to each other. The particle will moved in a a) Straight line
e . ww
en
b) Circle
c) Helix
d) Cycloid
t3 A body of mass 3 kg is displaced by a force. Its displacement s = . Find the work done by the force 3 in first 2 seconds
w
a) 2 J
17.
t e n
b i t
d) 2 kg wt
16.
v2 d) π2 2 g
c) 5.5 km/sec
The value of T1 is 2 a) kg wt √3 √3 b) kg wt 2 c) 2 √ 3 kg wt
15.
v4 c) π2 g2
The escape velocity from the earth is about 11 km/second. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and the same mean density as the earth, is: a) 22 km/sec
14.
v4 b) π g2
b) 3.8 J
c) 5.2 J
d) 24 J
A material rod, when placed in a strong magnetic field aligns itself at right angles to the magnetic field. The nature of material is a) Diamagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Paramagnetic
d) Low ferromagnetic
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www.eenadupratibha.net 18.
19.
Rod of length 'L' and mass 'M' is bent to form a semicircular ring as shown. The moment of inertia about AB axis is ML2 a) 2π2
ML2 b) 2π
ML c) 2π2
2ML2 d) π2
t e
The magnetic flux linked with a coil is φ and emf induced in it is 'e', then
n . a
h b i
a) If φ = 0, e must be zero b) If φ ≠ 0, e must be zero
t a r
c) If e ≠ 0, φ may or may not be zero
d) Value of induced emf does not depend on change in flux 20.
p u d
For a given lens the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 m. The focal length of the lens is: a) 0.05 m
21.
E0 I0 L2 b) 2 C
e e . (ww) w( ) ( )
23.
a n () (
2a 2a a) , 3 3
a a b) , 3 3
a a c) , 2 2
d) (a, a)
E0 I0 I 2 c) 2 LC
( )
d) Zero
)
t e n
. a h
b i t
The electric potential varies in space according to the relation V = 3x + 4y. A particle of mass 0.1 kg starts from rest from point (2, 3.2) under the influence of this field. The charge on the particle is + 1 µC. Assume V and (x, y) are in SI units. The time taken to cross the X-axis is:
a r p
b) 40 s
c) 200 s
d) 400 s
A solid sphere is projected on rough horizontal surface with speed v0. The speed of its centre of mass when it starts pure rolling is 2v0 a) 7
25.
d) 0.20 m
Three rods of same mass are placed as shown. Find coordinate of CM of system
a) 20 s 24.
c) 0.15 m
The average power loss in L − C series combination of AC circuit will be E0 I0 L a) 2 C
22.
b) 0.10 m
2v0 b) 6
a n
du
5v0 c) 7
7v0 d) 5
The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x respectively are T2 and T1
e e . ww
A(T2 − T1)K (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is f, with f x equal to:
w
(
a) 1
1 b) 2
2 c) 3
1 d) 3
)
5v0
7v0
7
5
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www.eenadupratibha.net 26.
If an artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has total mechanical energy E0. Its potential energy is a) −2 E0
27.
b) 1.5 E0
d) E0
b) 10
d) 6
π Displacement equation in SHM is given as y = 6 sin 100 t + . If mass of body is 1 kg, then its 4
(
a) 6 J
b) 36 J
)
c) 20 J
h b i
t a r
N2 b) N1
up
d a
( )
N1 d) log N2
c) N2 log(N1)
Bernoulli's theorem is the consequence of
en
a) Conservation of mass
b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of linear momentum 31.
d) 18 J
N1 atoms of a radioactive element emit N2 beta particles per second. The decay constant of the ele-1 ment is (in s ) N1 a) N2
30.
n . a
c) 3
maximum kinetic energy is
29.
t e
In a Hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state. It comes down to first excited state by emitting ten different wavelengths. The value of n is a) 5
28.
c) 2 E0
d) Conservation of angular momentum
e . w w
Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by
t e n
a) The use of lead shielding
w
b) Passing them through heavy water
. a h
c) Elastic collisions with heavy nuclei d) Applying a strong electric field
32.
t a) 4 33.
b i t
There is a hole at the bottom of a cylindrical vessel. Water is filled upto height H and water flows out in t sec. If water is filled to height 4H, then it will flow out in time b) 2t
c) 4t
a r p
t d) 2
Which of the following is a correct statement? a) β − rays are same as cathode rays.
u d a
b) γ − rays are high energetic neutrons.
c) α − particles are singly ionized helium atoms.
n e e . ww
d) Protons and neutrons have exactly the same mass. 34.
The relation between isothermal elasticity (Eθ) and adiabatic elasticity (Eφ) is (γ = Cp/Cv): a) Eθ = γEφ
35.
b) Eφ = γEθ
c) Eθ = Eφ
d) Eθ . Eφ = γ
An equiconvex lens of glass (µg = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is silvered on one side. It will behave like a
w
a) Convex mirror of focal length 10 cm b) Concave mirror of focal length 2.5 cm c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm d) Convex mirror of focal length 7.5 cm
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www.eenadupratibha.net 36.
A refrigerator with coefficient of performance 1/3 releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir, then the work done on the working substance is: 100 a) Joule 3
37.
200 c) Joule 3
b) 100 Joule
d) 150 Joule
t e
Electronic configuration of germanium is 2, 8, 18 and 4. To make it extrinsic semiconductor small quantity of antimony is added:
n . a
a) The material obtained will be N-type germanium in which electrons and holes are equal in number.
h b i
b) The material obtained will be P-type germanium.
c) The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has more electrons than holes at room temperature.
t a r
d) The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has less electrons than holes at room temperature. 38.
p u d
If a body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes when the temperature of surrounding is 30°C. Then the temperature of body after next 10 minutes will be a) 50°C
39.
b) 10°C
a n
15 d) °C 2
c) 48°C
The main cause of zener breakdown is
e e . w w
a) Low doping
b) Avalanche of electrons
t e n
c) Production of electron hole pairs due to field emission
w
d) Collision of electrons
40.
k k a) and 1−α α 41.
. a h
In a spring - mass system, the length of the spring is 'L' and spring constant 'k' and it has a mass 'M' attached to it and oscillates with an angular frequency ω. The spring is then cut into two parts, one (a) with relaxed length αL and the other (b) with relaxed length (1 − α) L. The force constants of the two springs A and B are: k k b) and α 1−α
b i t
c) αk, (1 − α)k
a r p
d) k and k
The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be ↓ µ = 1.5 3 cm ↑ 8.0 cm ↓ µ = 1.5 6 cm ↑ . 10.0 cm P ↓
u d a
n e e . ww
w
a) 2.0 cm above P
42.
43.
b) 4.0 cm above P
c) 3.0 cm above P
d) 1.0 cm below P
The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double of its value at 27°C is
d) −123°C The deviation produced by a prism of angle 4° and refractive index of material √ 2 is a) 327°C
b) 127°C
c) 927°C
a) 2.210°
b) 0.627°
c) 1.414°
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d) 1.656°
www.eenadupratibha.net 44.
A string is hanging from rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is setup at the free end. The velocity of the pulse related to distance covered by it is a) v ∝ √ x
45.
1 c) v ∝ x
b) v ∝ x
1 d) v ∝ 2 x
a) 9 : 1
b) 3 : 1
n . a
c) 2 : 1
d) 81 : 1
h b i
PART - B: CHEMISTRY 46.
t e
Two light waves having displacement y1 = 18 sin (ωt − kx) and y2 = 9 sin (ωt − kx + φ) interfere. The ratio of maximum to the minimum intensity of light in the interference pattern is
In the following figure the Cr O Cr bond angle is of X°. What is the exact value of X°?
t a r
a) 126° 47.
a n
c) He
b) 0.50
c) 0.80
d) 106°
e e . w w
b) Mg
d) All of these
The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing a nonvolatile solute is 0.0125. The molality of the solution is a) 0.70
49.
c) 116°
Which of the following element has the +ve electron gain enthalpy? a) N
48.
p u d
b) 136°
t e n
w
d) 0.40
Which of the following is incorrect regarding H-bonding?
. a h
a) Intramolecular H-bonding gives more stability than intermolecular H-bond. b) In the absence of H-bonding boiling point of water should be very slow.
b i t
c) Strongest H-bond is found in KHCl2. d) H-bond of NH3 can exist in liquid state. 50.
Which of the following properties are same for hcp and ccp lattice?
a r p
a) Number of atoms per unit cell b) Coordination number
u d a
c) Packing fraction d) both (b) and (c) 51.
n e e . ww
Which of the following is correct regarding quantum mechanical model of atom? a) Schrodinger equation can be written only for those system, whose energy does not change with time. b) Out of four quantum numbers only three are derived from Schrodinger equation. c) It is based on Heisenberg uncertainty principle and wave nature of electron.
w
d) All of these
52.
Nickel crystallizes in a fcc unit cell with a cell edge length of 0.3524 nm. The radius of the nickel atoms a) 0.1824 nm
b) 0.1246 nm
c) 0.2164 nm
d) 0.426 nm
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www.eenadupratibha.net 53.
The reaction of anisole with HI gives phenol rather than iodobenzene because a) the bond between O − CH3 is weaker than O − C6H5 b) the carbon of phenyl group is sp2 hybridised and has a partial double bond character
t e
c) Both (a) and (b)
n . a
d) None of the above 54.
Peptization involves a) Precipitation of colloidal particles
h b i
b) Disintegration of precipitate particles c) Evaporation of dispersion medium
t a r
d) Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles 55.
Equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction
p u d
a) Tells about the maximum yield of product
b) Tells about the time taken to complete the reaction
a n
c) Tells about the relative thermodynamic stability of product and reactant d) both (a) and (c) 56.
e e . w w
The maximum power of coagulating Arsenious sol is, shown by a) Na2SO4
57.
c) AlCl3
d) Mg(NO3)2
t e n
Solubility of an electrolyte does not depend on
w 58.
b) Na3PO4
i) Temperature
ii) Nature of electrolyte
iii) Nature of solvent
iv) Presence of common ion
. a h
a) (ii) & (iii)
b) (iv) only
c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
d) It depends on all these factors
b i t
The rate law for the reaction
2 H2(g) + 2 NO(g) → N2(g) + 2 H2O(g) is rate = K[H2][NO]2 If volume of reactant becomes double by adding water then rate changes by a factor of 1 a) 8 59.
b) 8
n e e . ww 2 HI will be
1 a) 4
61.
c) 4
1 d) 4
If at equilibrium HI dissociates 50% then equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I2
60.
u d a
a r p
b) 4
1 c) 2
d) 2
In an exothermic reaction X → Y, the activation energy is 100 kJ mol−1 of X. The enthalpy of the reaction is −140 kJ mol−1. The activation energy of the reverse reaction Y → Z is 1 1 1 1 b) 340 kJ mol− c) 240 kJ mol− d) 100 kJ mol− a) 40 kJ mol− − In the ring test for NO3 ion, a brown ring is formed due to the formation of
w
a) FeSO4 . NO2
b) FeSO4 .HNO3
c) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+
d) [Fe(H2O)4 (NO)2]2+
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www.eenadupratibha.net 62.
On heating, which of the following nitrates gives O2 under normal condition? a) NH4NO3
63.
b) NH4NO2
c) NaNO3
d) All of these
Which of the following reaction is not possible according to electrode potential? ∆ a) 2 Ag2O → 4 Ag + O2
t e
∆ b) 2 Ag + Cu+2 → 2 Ag+ + Cu
n . a
∆ ∆ c) Cu + 2 H2SO4 → SO2 + CuSO4 + 2 H2O d) Na2O → No reaction (conc.)
64.
a) +2 and − 2 65.
h b i
In thiosulphuric acid (H2S2O3), the two sulphur atoms have the oxidation states b) +4 and −2
c) +6 and −2
d) +4 and +2
t a r
Which is correct? a) For H2, He, Z > 1
b) aH < aCl 2 2 c) TC(NH ) > TC(H ) (where TC = Critical temperature) 3 2 d) All of these 66.
p u d
a n
Fluorine reacts with water to produce
e e . w w
a) HF and H2O2 c) F−, O and H+ 2
67.
b) HF, O2 and F2O2 d) F2O and F2O2
If bond energy of N ≡ N, H − H, and N − H bond is x, y and z cal mol−1 respectively then
t e n
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
w
(
x + 3y b) ∆Hf(NH ) = 2 3
a) ∆Hr = 6z − (x + 3y)
68.
c) ∆Hf(NH ) = 6z + (x + 3y) d) Both (a) and (b) 3 On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
) − 3z
. a h
b i t
Information:
A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A − A and B − B type are nearly same as A − B type interactions.
a r p
B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A − A or B − B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A − B type interactions.
u d a
C) In chloroform and acetone mixture A − A or B − B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A − B type interactions.
n e e . ww
a) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult's law. b) Solution (A) will follow Raoult's law. c) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult's law. d) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult's law.
69.
w
Which of the following should be most volatile? CH3CH2
I. CH3CH2CH2NH2
II. (CH3)3N
III.
b) IV
c) I
Choose the correct option. a) II
NH CH3
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IV. CH3CH2CH3 d) III
www.eenadupratibha.net 70.
71.
72.
Which of the following is expected to be colourless? a) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
b) [Ti(NO3)4]
c) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
d) [Fe(CN)6]3
a) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
b) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
c) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In
d) B > In > Gn > Al >Tl
Co NH3
Co
Cl
NH3
Cl
d a and
Co
n e e . w w Cl
NH3
c)
NH3
Cl
Co
NH3
NH3
Cl
NH3
Cl NH3
. a h
NH3 Cl Co
and Cl
NH3
Cl
Cl
NH3 Co
NH3
b i t
Cl
NH3
a r p
Which of the following forms sesquioxides mainly? a) Group 1
b) Group 2
c) Group 13
u d a
d) Group 14
Catalytic activity of transition metal is due to a) High malleability
n e e . ww
b) High ductility
t e n
Co
Cl
d)
Cl
Cl
and
Cl
NH3
Cl
NH3
Cl
NH3
w
NH3
NH3
Co
Cl
Cl
Cl Cl
up
Cl NH3 NH3
t a r
and
NH3
b)
h b i
Cl NH3
Cl
a)
c) Variable oxidation state d) High charge/mass 75.
n . a
Which of the following pairs of structures represents facial and meridional isomers respectively? Cl
74.
t e
Correct sequence of ionization enthalpy of group 13 element is
NH3
73.
−
Which is incorrect regarding C60?
w
a) All the Cl are in sp2 state b) They are aromatic
c) There are 12 five membered and 20 six membered ring d) It has 60 vertices
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www.eenadupratibha.net 76.
Most reactive aryl halide towards nucleophilic substitution reaction Br Cl F a)
77.
b)
c)
c) about three times d) about six times According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant k is equal to A−Ea/RT. Which of the following options 1 represents the graph of ln k vs ? T
h b i
t a r b)
p u d
a n
c)
e e . w w
d)
w
b) CHCl3
c) NH3
d) All of these
. a h
Thermoplastic polymers are those a) That becomes soft on heating
b i t
b) That possess intermolecular forces stronger than elastomeres c) That possess intermolecular forces weaker than fibres d) All of these 81.
t e n
Methyl carbanion is isostructural with a) BCl3
80.
t e
n . a
b) about twice
a)
79.
d)
In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl2 solution is ................ a) the same
78.
I
a r p
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
u d a
a)
(+E Effect)
n e e . ww
b)
(σ - p conjugation)
w c)
d)
(n - p Conjugation)
(+R effect)
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www.eenadupratibha.net 82.
The number of HIO4 molecules required to react with one molecule of glucose is a) 5
83.
b) 6
d) 3
c) Azo-group
d) All of these
Kjeldahl method cannot be used for a) Pyridine
84.
c) 4
b) Nitro-group
→ III
h b i
basic, heat
a)
CH2CH2CH3
b)
CH - CH2 - CH3
O c)
a n
C - OCH2CH3
e e . w w O
d)
t a r
p u d
OH
C - CH2CH3
w
b) HCHO
. a h
c) Ozone
d) All of these
Arrange the following in order of decreasing acidic strength
b i t
I) p-nitrophenol II) p-cresol III) m-cresol
a r p
IV) phenol a) I > IV > III > II
du
c) I > III > I I > IV
b) IV > III > II > I d) III > II > I > IV
a n
+ + KMnO4 / H H + CH3 − CH = CH2 → A → B then B will be
87.
a)
88.
t e n
What are components of photochemical smog? a) PAN
86.
C6H6
The final product obtained in the reaction sequence is CH3CH2COOH → I → II AlCl3 NH2NH2
85.
t e
n . a
PCl3
e e . ww
w
b)
CHO
CH2COOH
COOH c)
The reducing agent used in the Stephen reduction is a) Sn/HCl
b) Zn/HCl
c) SnCl2/HCl
d) Na − Hg/Alcohol
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d)
www.eenadupratibha.net 89.
IUPAC name of the compound CH2 COOH
t e
CH COOH CH2 COOH
n . a
a) Propane 1, 2, 3 - tricarboxylic acid b) 2 - carboxy, pentane 1, 5 - dioic acid
h b i
c) 2 - Keto, pentane 1, 5 - dioic acid d) 2 - Carboxy, propane 1, 3 - dicarboxylic acid 90.
In this reaction, the product E is
H2O
p u d
a) o-nitrobenzoic acid b) Salicyclic acid
a n
c) Anthranilic acid
e e . w w
d) Crotonic acid
91.
t a r
∆ NH3 NaOH Br2/KOH HCl Phthalic acid → A → B → C → D → E
PART - C : BIOLOGY
w
Column - I
Column - II
(Vitamins)
(Deficiency disease)
A) B1
i) Scurvy
B) B12
ii) Nyctalopia
C) C
iii) Beri beri
D) A
iv) Pernicious Anaemia
u d a
en
3
e . ww
b) Sodium taurocholate d) Both (a) and (b)
In humans, sphincter of oddi is associated with opening of following a) Glottis
c) Ampulla of vater
w
b) Cardiac stomach d) Common hepatic duct
Absorption of water, simple sugar and alcohol etc take place in a) Mouth
95.
d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
Which component of bile is useful in digestion of fat? a) Sodium glycholate c) HCO −
94.
b i t
b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
93.
. a h
a r p
a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
92.
t e n
Match the Column - I and Column - II
b) Oesophagus
c) Colon
The human teeth are a) Heterodont
b) Diphyodont
c) Thecodont
d) All of these
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d) Stomach
www.eenadupratibha.net 96.
97.
The structure that covers the opening of internal nasal pores during ingestion of food is a) Vulva
b) Uvula
c) Velum palati
d) Both (b) and (c)
n . a
a) Mucosa, submucosa, peristalsis b) Serosa, circular muscle, secretion c) Longitudinal muscles, circular muscles, peristalsis
h b i
d) Circular muscles, submucosa, secretion 98.
Ciliated epithelium in human body is present in
t a r
a) Stomach and kidney b) Trachea and alveoli
p u d
c) Fallopian tube and cavity of brain d) Stomach and urinary bladder 99.
t e
The myenteric plexus are present between ................ and ..........., & it controls .............
a n
Blood is false connective tissue because a) Fibres are absent
e e . w w
b) Cells do not divide
c) Matrix is not secreted by cells
t e n
d) All of these
w
100. Which of the following is an example of dense connective tissue? A. Ligament
B. Tendon
C. Adipose tissue
D. Areolar tissue
a) A and B
b) A and C
. a h
b i t
c) A and D
d) B and D
101. Read the following statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only
a r p
A. Adipose tissue store fats B. Ligament joins bone to bone C. Tendon joins muscle to skin
u d a
D. Haversian system is absent in the femur of frog Options:
n e e . ww
a) Statements B, C and D
b) Statements A, B and D c) Statements C and D
d) Statements A and D only
w
102. In the following brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present a) Intestine
b) PCT
c) Stomach
d) Gall bladder
103. Junction which facilitates exchange of small and big molecules transportation is a) Tight junction
b) Interdigitation
c) Desmosomes
d) Gap junction
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www.eenadupratibha.net 104. Match the following correctly. i. Simple Tubular Gland
A. Sebaceous gland
ii. Compound Saccular glands
B. Parotid glands
iii. Heterocrine gland
C. Crypts of lieberkuhn
iv. Compound tubular alveolar glands
D. Pancreas
n . a
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D b) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
t e
h b i
c) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B d) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
t a r
105. In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Instead, the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called
up
a) Acoelom c) Pseudocoelom
d a
b) Schizocoelom
d) Enterocoelom
106. Find out correct match from the following table.
en
Column - I
i. Secretory cells secrete
Column - II
Column - III
Apocrine
Sebaceous gland
Merocrine
Mammary gland
Holocrine
Zeis gland
e . w w
substance by simple diffusion ii. Secretory products are
w
t e n
collected in apical part of
. a h
secretory cell
iii. Secretion is shed with cell
b i t
destruction a) i only
b) i and iii
c) iii only
d) ii and iii
a r p
107. Read the following statements (A-D) regard porifera. Select the option which includes all the correct ones only.
u d a
A. They are generally marine and symmetrical animals.
B. They are primitive multicellular animals and have tissue level of organisation. C. Central cavity is called spongocoel.
n e e . ww
D. They are hermaphrodite. Options:
a) Statements A and B
b) Statements B and C
w
c) Statements C and D
d) Statements A and D
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www.eenadupratibha.net 108. Consider the following diagram.
t e
n . a
h b i
It is commonly known as ..........., are exclusively ............., ............., ........... organisms. a) Comb jellies, Fresh H2O, Bilateral symmetrical, Diploblastic
t a r
b) Sea walnuts, Marine, Radially symmetrical, Diploblastic
c) Comb jelly, Terrestrial, Radially symmetrical, Triploblastic
p u d
d) Sea walnuts, Marine, Bilateral symmetrical, Triploblastic 109. Match the following.
a n
i. Nereis
A. Muscular pharynx
ii. Ascaris
e e . w w
B. Radula
iii. Cockroach iv. Pila
C. Parapodia D. Malpighian tubule
t e n
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
w
b) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B
. a h
c) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D d) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
b i t
110. Identify the correct match from the Column I, II, and III. Column - I
Column - II
Column - III
I. Exocoetus
A. Amphibia
II. Rana
B. Aves
III. Petomyzon
C. Osteichtnyes
IV. Columba
D. Cyclostomata
a r p
i. Circular mouth
ii. Air bladder
du
iii. Tympanum
iv. Air sacs
a n
a) I-C-ii, II-A-iii, III-B-i, IV-D-iv
b) I-A-ii, II-C-iii, III-D-i, IV-B-iv
e e . ww
c) I-C-ii, II-A-iii, III-D-i, IV-B-iv d) I-C-iii, II-A-ii, III-D-iv, IV-B-i
111. Axial skeleton comprises of 80 bones, it includes
w
a) Skull, vertebral, sternum, femur b) Pectoral girdle, skull, sternum, pelvic girdle c) Skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs d) Femur, humerus, radius, tibia
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www.eenadupratibha.net 112. Match the following. i. Skull bones
A. Gliding joint
ii. Adjacent vertebrae
B. Fibrous joint
iii. Between atlas and axis
C. Cartilaginous joints
iv. Between the the carpals
D. Pivot joint
a) i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A
b) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A
c) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C
d) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
t e
n . a
h b i
113. Age related disorder characterised by decreased bond mass and increased chances of fractures is a) Osteomalacia
b) Osteoarthritis
t a r
c) Osteoporosis
d) Gout
114. The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the 7th rib with the help of
up
a) Hayline cartilage
d a
c) Calcified cartilage
en
b) Elastin cartilage d) Fibrous cartilage
115. Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of following a) Ischium, Pubis, Sacrum
b) Ischium, Pelvis, Pubis
e . w w
c) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
d) Ilium, Ischium, Sacrum
t e n
116. The interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres, which are seen as ...... during cell division.
w
a) Chromatin
b) Chromosome
c) Nucleosome
d) Solenoid
. a h
117. (I) The Interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromosome.
b i t
(II) Perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the nucleolus.
a r p
(III) Always there is only one nucleolus per cell.
(IV) The nucleoli are spherical structures present in the cytoplasm.
(V) Larger and Less numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
u d a
(VI) Chromatin contains DNA and some acidic proteins called histone. How many above statements are not true for Nucleus?
n e e . ww
118. Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction on the sides of which disc shaped structures called: a) Kinetochore
b) Centromere
c) Telomere
d) Satellite
w
119. A = Binding DNA + B + C + H1 Histon a) A = Nucleosome, B = Octamer, C = Linker DNA b) A = Chromatid, B = Octamer, C = Linker Protein c) A = Chromosome, B = Centromere, C = Linker DNA d) A = Centromere, B = Kinetochore, C = Linker Protein
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www.eenadupratibha.net 120.
t e
a)
A
B
C
Perinuclear
Nucleolus
Euchromatin
Nucleolus
Euchromatin
space b)
Karyotheca
c)
d)
Nucleolus
Karyotheca
a n
121.
e e . w w
False
bh D
E
i t
a r
Heterochromatin
Karyotheca
Heterochromatin
Perinuclear
p u d
Karyotheca
n . a
space
Heterochromatin
Euchromatin
Perinuclear space
Heterochromatin
Euchromatin
Perinuclear
Nucleolus
space
t e n
w
. a h
b i t
Choose the correct answer for given diagram:
a r p
a) A has negative charge b) B is Linker DNA c) C - form by five types of Histone
u d a
d) A is a sealing Protein
122. DNA, RNA, Protein, Kinetochore, Centromere, Centriole, Polyamine, N2 - Base. How many components mentioned above are non related to Chromatide?
n e e . ww
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
123. Karyotype can be studied in which phase of cell division: a) Prophase
w
c) Metaphase
b) Anaphase d) S - phase
124. Which of the following is not a type of transmembrane protein but attached with transmembrane protein: a) Porins
b) Tunnel Protein
c) Pump Protein
c) Spectrin
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www.eenadupratibha.net 125. (A) Transport of substances (B) Synthesis of proteins (C) Lipoproteins synthesis
t e
(D) Glycogen synthesis
n . a
(E) Glycolipid synthesis (F) Helpful for lysosome formation (G) Glycoprotein synthesis
h b i
Choose the correct option for the function of ER: a) A, B, C, E, F
b) B, C, D, F, G
c) A, C, E, F
t a r
126. Which one is membrane bound structure? a) Nucleolus
b) Cilia
c) Centrosome
d) A, B, C, D, F
d) Ribosome
p u d
127. ........ contain genetic information and ........ to form constant number of ........ during cell division. Choose the correct option for blanks.
a) Chromatin fibers; condensed; chromosomes
a n
b) Chromosome; condensed; chromatid
e e . w w
c) Chromatin fibers; decondensed; chromosome d) Chromosome; decondensed; chromatin fibers
t e n
128. Photorespiration not present in which one cell organelle? a) Mitochondria
w
b) Peroxisome
c) Chloroplast
d) Glyoxisome
129. Which cell organelle contains the enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis and protein synthesis:
. a h
a) Ribosome
b) Matrix of mitochondria
c) Matrix of chloroplast
d) Lysosome
b i t
130. Major site of synthesis of lipid in cell ...... a) Golgibody
b) RER
c) SER
d) Nucleus
a r p
131. Which one of the statements is correct for chromosome? a) It is highly condense form of chromatin.
u d a
b) It is seen in Interphase of cell division.
c) It is decondensed in metaphase of cell division.
d) In metaphase the chromosome has one chromatid.
n e e . ww
132. Chlorophyll pigments are present in: a) Stroma
b) Thylakoid lumen
c) Thylakoid membrane
d) Cells membrane
133. (A) Cell growth
w
(B) Formation of inter cellular junctions
(C) Secretion
(D) Endocytosis
(E) Cell division
(F) Cell wall formation
(G) Exocytosis How many functions mentioned above are completed by cell membrane: a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
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d) 7
www.eenadupratibha.net 134. Amyloplast, Elaioplast and Aleurplasts stored food respectively: a) Starch, Fat, Protein
b) Starch, Protein, Fat
c) Fat, Starch, Protein
d) Protein, Starch, Fat
t e
135. Which one is incorrect for Nucleus?
n . a
a) Nucleus contains nucleoli and chromatin network. b) Only control the activities of organelles. c) Plays a major role in heredity.
h b i
d) Nuclear membrane form by RER in telophase.
136. Sertoli cells are found in seminiferous tubules, about which all statements are correct, except one:
t a r
a) They are long elongated and pyramidal cells attached to basement membrane of the tubules. b) Their apices carry depressions in which spermatozoa remain embedded till spermiation.
p u d
c) They function in response to FSH.
d) They undergo division to form 4 - 8 layers of spermatogenic cells. 137. Select incorrect matching of protozoan and the disease caused by it:
a n
a) Babesia − Tick fever in cattle
e e . w w
b) Trichomonas − Leucorrhoea
c) Trypanosoma − Sleeping sickness
t e n
d) Eimeria − Pebrine in silk worms 138. Gonads are usually ectodermal in origin and sex cells discharged externally in:
w
. a h
a) Hydrozoa
b) Scyphozoa
c) Anthozoa
d) Both Scyphozoa and Anthozoa
139. Process of parturition is an example of:
b i t
a) Reflex action
b) Neuroendocrine process
c) Sympathetic response
d) Hormonal mechanism
a r p
140. Pristis can be identified as a cartilaginous fish, as it does not possess: a) Ability to regulate body temperature
u d a
b) Ability to swim continuously c) Homocercal tail
d) Placoid scales over its body
n e e . ww
141. Separation of eyelids and formation of eyelashes occurs by the end of: a) Nine months of pregnancy b) 12 weeks of pregnancy c) 24 weeks of pregnancy
w
d) Fifth month
142. When under certain conditions, the P50 value of haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of combing with O2 will? a) Remain same
b) Fall
c) Rises
d) First rises than fall
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www.eenadupratibha.net 143. Methods of contraception that work only on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting are: a) IUDS
t e
b) Oral contraceptives c) Natural methods
n . a
d) Implants 144. Mark the statement that is incorrect for epithelial tissue:
h b i
a) Ciliated epithelium allows movement of material in a particular direction.
b) Adhering junctions in epithelium allow tight cementing of membranes of cells.
t a r
c) Neurosensory epithelium converts electrical stimuli to chemical or mechanical stimuli. d) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium lines buccal cavity.
p u d
145. Infertility due to impotency of male partner of due to very low sperm count in the ejaculate, could be supplemented by: a) GlFT
b) Al
a n
146. Red muscles are characterised by:
c) lUT
e e . w w
d) ZlFT
a) Presence of very little quantity of myoglobin b) Highly extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum
t e n
c) Fatigue resistance
d) Very high number of mitochondria
w
147. Read the following four statements (A-D):
. a h
(A) Energy 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
(B) Energy 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers about 50 ml of O2 to the tissues.
b i t
(C) Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by blood plasma as bicarbonate. (D) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood.
a r p
How many of the above statements are wrong? a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
u d a
d) One
148. Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula and value? Respiratory capacity
Formula
Value
a) Functional residual capacity
TV + ERV
−2100 ml
b) Total lungs capacity
VC + RV
−5800 ml
TV + RV
4600 ml
TV + IRV
2500 ml
e . ww
en
c) Vital capacity
d) Inspiratory capacity
149. Emergency contraception can be provided to a patient of sexual assault through:
w
a) Tubectomy
b) Oestrogen progesterone combination c) Insertion of spermicidal chemicals in blood d) Gossypol
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www.eenadupratibha.net 150. Identify the structure of molecule that provides stability to cell membranes: H
t e
a) NH2 − CH − COOH O
n . a
b) CH2 − O − C − R O CH − O − C − R O CH2 − O − P − O(CH2)2 N+ (CH3)3 OH
h b i
CH2OH c)
CH2OH
O
OH
H
t a r
p u d
a n
e e . w w
OH
H
w
t e n
H
OH
O
d)
HN O C
C
C - CH3
N
CH
. a h
b i t
H 151. Which of the following factors favours the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin?
a r p
(A) PO2↑, PCO2↓, Temp↑ (B) PO2↓, PCO2↑, Temp↑ + (C) PO2↓, PCO2↑, H conc.↑ + (D) PO2↓, PCO2↑, H conc.↑
u d a
en
a) A and B
e . ww
c) B and C
b) A and C d) B and D
152. Enzyme mediated reactions that are inhibited by inhibitors that have gross resemblance with normal substrate:
w
a) Show disobeyance of Km value of reaction
b) Show destruction of tertiary structure of enzyme on inhibition c) Show linking of inhibitors with active site of enzyme d) Show fall in Vmax
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www.eenadupratibha.net 153. During normal expiration, the contraction of following muscles take place: a) EICM
b) IICM
c) Diaphragm
d) None of these
154. Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III: Column - I
Column - II
t e
Column - III
n . a
I) DUP
A) 5 L/min
i) Closening of AV valves
II) LUB
B) 2nd Heart Sound
ii) Volume of blood pumped out by each
h b i
ventricle per minute III) Stroke
C) 70 ml
iii) During cardiac cycle blood pump out by each ventricle
t a r
D) 1st Heart sound
IV) Cardiac output
a) I-B-iv, II-D-i, III-C-ii, IV-A-iii
p u d
b) II-D-i, I-B-iv, IV-A-ii, III-C-iii c) II-D-i, I-B-iv, III-C-ii, IV-A-iii
iv) Closening of semilunar valves
a n
d) I-D-iv, II-B-i, III-A-iii, IV-C-ii
e e . w w
155. The black melanic form of peppered moth must have arose due to: a) Recurring random mutation
b) Industrial revolution
c) Disappearance of grey form
d) Predation pressure
t e n
156. Ductus botelli connects:
w
. a h
a) Systemic and carotid b) Two systemic arch
c) Pulmonary artery and systemic arch
b i t
d) Carotid and pulmonary artery
157. A violent, sudden super hypersensitive immune response to an allergen leads to:
a r p
a) Wheezing and difficult expiration b) Dilation of arteries / anaphylactic shock
u d a
c) Hypersecretion of mucus membrane of nose d) Eczema
n e e . ww
158. The mushroom gland in cockroach is:
a) Located between 2nd to 6th segment
b) Known for performing accessory excretion c) Responsible for furnishing oothecal material
w
d) Known for harbouring symbiotic micro organisms
159. A tetanus toxoid vaccine given to a pregnant female will provide .......... immunity to mother and ........... immunity to foetus. a) passive, passive
b) active, active
c) active, passive
d) passive, active
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www.eenadupratibha.net 160. In small intestine carrier mediated facilitated diffusion of amino acids becomes possible with the help of: − a) Na+ b) Cl − c) K+ d) HCO3
t e
161. A drug commonly called crack that has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy is: a) Opium
b) Cocaine
c) Mescaline
d) Benzodiazepines
n . a
h b i
162. Read the following four statements.
(A) The cardiac output of a person varies according to his physiological demand.
t a r
(B) Stroke volume of heart is almost equal to the amount of blood transferred from left auricle to left ventricle. (C) Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in the systemic aorta in one beat.
p u d
(D) End diastolic volume of auricles is about 120 ml. How many of the above statements are wrong?
a n
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
163. A patient shows symptoms of internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the intestinal passage. It seems that the patient must be suffering from:
e e . w w
a) Typhoid
b) Amoebiasis
c) Malaria
d) Ascariasis
w
t e n
164. Excretory structure present in crustacean is: a) Green gland
b) Antennary gland
c) Neural gland
d) Both a and b
. a h
1 165. Osmolarity increase towards the inner medulla interstitism i.e., from 300 m osml L− in the cortex to 1 about 1200 m osml L− in the inner medulla. This gradient is maintain by following:
b i t
a) NaCl
b) Urea
a r p
c) Glucose
d) Both a and b
166. Opening of bile duct in duct of wirsung is guarded by:
u d a
a) Sphincter of oddi c) Pyloric sphincter
en
b) Sphincter of boyden d) Myenteric plexus
167. Breeds of cattle that produce good working bullocks are known as: a) Milch breeds
e . ww
c) General utility breeds
b) Drought breeds d) Dual purpose breeds
168. Which of the following cartilage lies below thyroid cartilage in larynx?
w
a) Corniculate
b) Cuneiform
c) Cricoid
d) Arytenoid
169. Sublingual gland is associated with: a) Stensen's duct
b) Bartholin duct
c) Rivinus duct
d) Both b and c
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www.eenadupratibha.net 170. Choose the correct match. a) Marginal artery
- Diaphragm
b) Effective filling ensures effective emptying
- Starling's law
c) Joint diastole
- 30% filling of ventricles
d) Rheumatic heart disease
- Congenital disorder
n . a
171. One amongst the following is not a fresh water fish reared in lndia: a) Catla
b) Rohu
c) Salmon
h b i
172. Maximum reabsorption of substances in PCT is determined by: a) Availability of mitochondria in brush border cells
t e
d) Malli
t a r
b) Their threshold limit c) Their concentration in glomerular filtrate
p u d
d) Rate of filtration in PCT
173. Basic steps in genetic modification of an organism include all the following, except one:
a n
a) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
b) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
e e . w w
c) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny d) Assessment of the ability of vector to tolerate toxins in the environment
t e n
174. Small amounts of glucose and amino acid are absorbed by following.
w
a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Exosmosis
d) Both a and b
. a h
175. Coracoid process is characteristic of: a) Ulna
b) Humerus
b i t
c) Scapula
176. Identify the correctly matched pair.
a r p
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
- RNA interference gene
b) Cosmid
- Carries 300 - 350 kbp length of DNA
c) Sa ll
- Restriction endonuclease
u d a
d) Molecular glue
d) Fibula
- Alkaline phosphatase
177. Identify the pallindromic sequence recognised by Hae lll:
n e e . ww ↓
↓
a) 5′ − G − G − C − C − 3′
b) 5′ − C − C − C − G − G − G − 3′
3′ − C − C − G − G − 5′
3′ − G − G − G − C − C − C − 5′
↑
↑
w
↓
c) 5′ − C − G − A − T − C − G − 3′ 3′ − G − C − T − A − G − C − 5′ ↑
↓ d) 5′ − A − G − C − T − 3′ 3′ − T − C − G − A − 5′ ↑
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www.eenadupratibha.net 178. Aqueduct of sylvius is found between: a) Third and fourth ventricle b) Lateral ventricles
t e
c) Paracoel and diocoel
n . a
d) Rhinocoel and paracoel
179. At a crime site one hair was recovered along with hair follicle, believed to be belonging to the suspect of crime. For matching the DNA contained in the sample, a chain of suspects is present. The best way to achieve the objective is:
h b i
a) By hybridising the DNA with a DNA prode
t a r
b) By subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction c) By subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
d) By treating the DNA with restriction endonuclease
p u d
180. Which of the following is correct statement w.r.t. adrenaline function? a) Relaxation of urinary bladder
a n
b) Erection of hair
e e . w w
c) Dilation of visceral smooth muscle capillaries d) Constriction of pupils
t e n
KEY
1-d; 2-b; 3-a; 4-d; 5-a; 6-a; 7-c; 8-a; 9-b; 10-b; 11-a; 12-b; 13-a; 14-c; 15-a; 16-d; 17-a; 18-a; 19-c; 20-b; 21-d; 22-c; 23-d; 24-c; 25-d; 26-c; 27-a; 28-d; 29-b; 30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-a; 34-b; 35-b; 36-d; 37-c; 38-c; 39-c; 40-b; 41-c; 42-c; 43-d; 44-a; 45-a; 46-a; 47-d; 48-a; 49-c; 50-d; 51-d; 52-b; 53-c; 54-b; 55-d; 56-c; 57-d; 58-a; 59-b; 60-c; 61-c; 62-c; 63-b; 64-c; 65-d; 66-c; 67-b; 68-b; 69-b; 70-b; 71-a; 72-a; 73-c; 74-c; 75-c; 76-b; 77-c; 78-a; 79-c; 80-d; 81-a; 82-a; 83-d; 84-a; 85-d; 86-a; 87-b; 88-c; 89-a; 90-c; 91-c; 92-d; 93-c; 94-d; 95-d; 96-d; 97-c; 98-c; 99-d; 100-a; 101-b; 102-b; 103-d; 104-b; 105-c; 106-c; 107-c; 108-b; 109-a; 110-c; 111-c; 112-b; 113-c; 114-a; 115-c; 116-b; 117-d; 118-a; 119-a; 120-c; 121-a; 122-b; 123-c; 124-d; 125-d; 126-b; 127-a; 128-d; 129-c; 130-c; 131-a; 132-c; 133-d; 134-a; 135-b; 136-d; 137-d; 138-a; 139-b; 140-c; 141-c; 142-b; 143-c; 144-c; 145-b; 146-d; 147-c; 148-b; 149-b; 150-b; 151-d; 152-c; 153-d; 154-b; 155-a; 156-c; 157-b; 158-b; 159-c; 160-a; 161-b; 162-d; 163-d; 164-d; 165-d; 166-b; 167-b; 168-c; 169-d; 170-b; 171-c; 172-b; 173-d; 174-a; 175-c; 176-c; 177-a; 178-a; 179-b; 180-b.
w
. a h
b i t
a r p
u d a
(--vQ í¬-ߪ’-vA -N-ü∆uÆæçÆæn-©èπ◊ îÁç-C-† -E°æ¤-ù’-©’ Ñ -v°æ-¨¡o °æ-vû√-Eo ®Ω÷-§Òç-Cç-î√®Ω’.)
n e e . ww
w
www.eenadupratibha.net
. NEET Model Grand Test 2017 Instructions : This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics and 45 from Chemistry
2.
Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response. For each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score
3.
Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720
4.
To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use blue or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be evaluated.
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BIOLOGY :
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VARSITY EDUCATION MANAGEMENT LTD. Mumbai, Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Bangalore
.
NEET Model Grand Test - 2017 NEET Time: 3 Hours
Date: 00-00-2017 Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge
(c)
is fundamental unit) (a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2 (c) 2.
(b) ML2T-2Q-2
MLT-2Q-1
(d)
7.
ML2T-2Q-1
uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time
are equal, their angular momenta will be in
taken by the train to cross a bridge of
the ratio
(a) 56 sec
(b) 68 sec
(c) 80 sec
(d) 92 sec
8.
(a) MR : mr (c) R : r
satellite in the two cases are equal (c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
(d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are
(b) 2200 N (d) 1800 N
equal
9.
w w
velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is
w
energy will be
gravitational constant and g is acceleration
(b) U
due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the
(d) 25 U
particle does not return back to earth is
A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg – m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be (b)
N m 12
A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a
stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential
2 N m 15
Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are
(b) The potential energies of earth and
potential energy is U. If the spring is
(a)
1: 2
of S2
(d) 1 : 1
If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its
(c) 5 U
(d)
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that
(b) M : m
wooden block is
U 5
(c) 2 : 1
following statements is true ?
The average resistance exerted by the
(a)
2 :1
four times the mass of S2. Which one of the
m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block.
(c) 2000 N
(b)
moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is
A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120
(a) 2850 N
(a) 1 : 2
.e en ad up ra tib
Two particles of mass M and m are moving
of their linear velocities ?
6.
Two bodies have their moments of inertia I rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation
periods are the same, what will be the ratio
5.
N m 18
A 150 m long train is moving with a
in a circle of radii R and r. If their time
4.
(d)
and 2I respectively about their axis of
length 850 meters is
3.
N m 15
ha .n et
1.
10.
(a)
2GM R
(b)
2GM R2
(c)
2gR 2
(d)
4GM R2
The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressibility of water is 45.4×10 11
Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3.
ratio of its displacement and amplitude will
be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?
be
(a)
0.8 102
(b)
1.0 102
(c)
1.2 102
(d)
1.4 102
Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If
(c)
the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then
2
Which one of the following statements is of a particle executing simple harmonic
and then starts overflowing like a fountain
motion ?
(c) water rises up to the top of capillary
(a) When v is maximum, a is minimum
tube and stays there without overflowing
(b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the
(d) water rises up to a point a little below
value of v
the top and stays there
(c) When v is zero, a is zero
The temperature of the body is increased
(d) When v is maximum, a is zero
-73oC
to
357oC,
the ratio of energy
18.
An observer moves towards a stationary
emitted per second is
source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 81
speed
(d) 1 : 91
frequency of the source emitted are and f
of
sound.
The
wavelength
and
If the temperate of the sun (black body) is
respectively. The apparent frequency and
doubled, the rate of energy received on
wavelength recorded by the observer are
earth will be increased by a factor of
respectively
(a) 2
(b) 4
(a) 1.2 f,
(b) f, 1.2
(d) 16
(c) 0.8 f, 0.8
(d) 1.2 f, 1.2
An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a
temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of performance
of
the
engine
is
5.
19.
The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the
w w
rejected) will be (a) 325oC
(b) 325 K
(c) 39oC
(d) 320oC
Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
The
temperature of the air (to which heat is
phase difference between the oscillation of two points ?
w
A mono atomic gas is supplied with the
(a)
3
(b)
2 3
(c)
(d)
6
heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure constant. The work done by the gas will be (a)
2 Q 3
2 (c) Q 5 16.
(d)
(b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube
(c) 8
15.
3 2
true for the speed v and the acceleration a
(c) 1 : 27
14.
(b)
(a) water does not rise at all
from
13.
17.
1 2
.e en ad up ra tib
12.
1 2
(a)
ha .n et
11.
What fractional compression of water will
(b)
3 Q 5
20.
length 10 cm and having a charge of
1 (d) Q 5
500 C , at a point on the axis at a distance
The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing SHM are equal. The Page | 2
The electric intensity due to a dipole of
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20 cm from one of the charges in air, is (a)
6.25 107 N / C (b) 9.28 107 N / C
(c)
13.1 1111 N / C (d) 20.5 107 N / C 00-00-2017
Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q,
(a) the resistance will be doubled and the
are separated by a distance d. If F is the
specific resistance will be halved
force of repulsion between the ions, the
(b) the resistance will be halved and the
number of electrons mission from each ion
specific resistance will remain unchanged
will be ( e being the charge on an electron)
(c) the resistance will be halved and the
4 0 Fd 2 (a) e2 (c) 22.
(b)
4 0 Fd 2 e2
specific resistance will be doubled
4 0 Fe 2 d2
(d) 26.
the
specific
A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V
4 F are
The battery on discharge supplied a current
to be connected in such a way that the
of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage
6 F . This can be
during discharge is 14 V. The “watt-hour”
Three capacitors each of capacity
efficiency of the battery is :
(a) Connecting them in parallel (b) Connecting two in series and one in
(a) 82.5%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 87.5%
The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and
.e en ad up ra tib
27.
parallel
(c) Connecting two in parallel and one in
its scale is graduated for a current up to
series
100 A. After an additional shunt has been
(d) Connecting al of them in series
connected to this ammeter it becomes
A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a
possible to measure currents up to 750 A
potential
by this meter. The value of shunt resistance
difference
disconnecting
of
V
the charging
volts.
After
is
battery the
distance between the plates of the capacitor
(a)
20
(b)
2
is increased using an insulating handle. As
(c)
0.2
(d)
0.02
a result the potential difference between the plates (a) decreases A
steady
28.
field B at the centre of the circle. The
(d) increases
current
flows
in
a
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic
(b) does not change
w w
(c) becomes zero
radius of the circle is proportional to
metallic
(a)
conductor of non-uniform cross-section.
w
The quantity / quantities constant along the length of the conductor is / are
(c)
(a) Current, electric field and drift speed (b) Drift speed only
29.
(b)
v B
(d)
v B B v
Under the influence of a uniform magnetic of radius R with Constant speed v. The time
(d) Current only The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
Page | 3
B v
field a charged particle is moving in a circle
(c) Current and drift speed 25.
and
for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A.
done by
24.
resistance
resistance, will both remain unchanged
4 0 Fd 2 (d) q2
effective capacitance is
23.
the
ha .n et
21.
period of the motion (a) depends on v and not on R (b) depends on both R and v (c) is independent of both R and v
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00-00-2017
(d) depends on R and not on v Two
magnets
are
held
together
in
a
35.
the current is a maximum in a series LCR
oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with
circuit with (b) 1 mH
together only 4 oscillations per minute are executed.
The
ratio
of
their
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 4
(c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
magnetic
moments is
(d) 10 mH 36.
above which ferromagnetic paramagnetic
material
becomes
material
becomes
(c) 37.
ferromagnetic
material
becomes
materials
becomes
2 102 T acts at right
angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50
turns. The average emf induced in the coil
The
electric
(d) X-rays
and
the
magnetic
field,
38.
(a)
E E0 kˆ, B B0iˆ
(b)
E E0 ˆj , B B0iˆ
(c)
ˆ ˆ E E0 j , B B0i
(d)
E E0iˆ, B B0iˆ
An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm diameter
in time t. The value of t is
nearest to eye when looked along diameter.
(a) 0.1 sec
(b) 0.01 sec
If
(d) 20 sec
refracting surface is
a
appears
1
cm
from
(b) 3.2 cm
current of 2 A is passed through it, the
(c) 2.8 cm
(d) 1.6 cm
w w
(a) 1.2 cm
w
the turn of the solenoid is
39.
3
4 10 Wb . The
surface
g 1.5 , the distance of bubble from
A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a
resulting magnetic flux linked with each
34.
rays
is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field
(c) 1 sec 33.
not
represented by
diamagnetic material A magnetic field of
are
(b) Gamma rays
.e en ad up ra tib
paramagnetic
following
propagating along the +z – axis, can be
ferromagnetic material (d)
the
associated with an electromagnetic wave,
diamagnetic material (c)
of
(a) Cosmic rays
paramagnetic material (b)
Which
electromagnetic waves ?
Curie temperatures is the temperature (a)
C 10 F and 1000s 1 ?
(a) 100 mH
minute are made but for unlike poles
32.
What is the value of inductance L for which
vibration magnetometer and are allowed to like poles together, 12 oscillations per
31.
(d) 20 s
ha .n et
30.
(c) 40 s
A person who can see things most clearly at a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to
self-inductance of the solenoid is
enable to him to sec clearly things at a
(a) 2.5 H
(b) 2.0 H
distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal
(c) 1.0 H
(d) 4.0 H
length of the spectacles.
A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in
(a) 15 cm (Concave)
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
(b) 15 cm (Convex)
combination is joined to the terminals of a
(c) 10 cm
2V battery. The time constant of the circuit
(d) 0 40.
is (a) 5 s Page | 4
(b) 1/5 s
Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 and illuminated with light of
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6000 Ao . If
00-00-2017
the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance of the third bright image from the centre will be (b) 9 mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 3 mm 46.
5 A 10
(d)
5 A 20
Which
has
maximum
number
on this surface, the electrons come out with
(a) 7 gm N2
(b) 2 gm H2
(c) 16 gm NO2
(d) 16 gm O2
4 10 m/s. When 6
47.
possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l =
will be
2, m = +2 ?
(a)
2 106 m / s
(b)
2 107 m / s
(c)
8 105 m / s
(d)
8 106 m / s
In the phenomenon of electric discharge
48.
(c) 2
(d) 4
Identify the incorrect statements among the
.e en ad up ra tib
lanthanoid elements and their ions (b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
(c) collisions between the charged particles
elements have no similarities with the 5d
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
series of transition elements (c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite
(d) collision between different electrons of
weak
the atoms of the gas
(d) there is a decrease in the radii of the
The total energy of an electron in the first
atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to
excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is
Lu
49.
(b) -6.8 eV
H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because
w w
(c) 6.8 eV
(d) 3.4 eV
(a) The electro negativity of F is greater
Which of the following are suitable for the
than that of O
fusion process ?
w
(b) 3
(a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in
(b) collision between the atoms of the gas
(a) -3.4 eV
(a) 1
following :
(a) excitation of electrons in the atoms
the gas
(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
(a) Heavy nuclei
(b) Light nuclei
(c) Atom bomb
(d) Radioactive decay
BeF2 is a discrete molecule (c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular
Current in the circuit will be
(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear 50.
If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that (a) pressure of the gas increases (b) number of the molecules of gas increases
Page | 5
of
The following quantum numbers are
then maximum velocity of photoelectrons
glow in the tube appears as a result of
45.
(c)
molecules?
through gases at low pressure, the coloured
44.
5 A 50
function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall
the photon energy is increased to 5hv0,
43.
(b)
CHEMISTRY
A photosensitive metallic surface has work
a maximum velocity of
42.
5 A 40
ha .n et
41.
(a) 1.5 mm
(a)
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51.
(c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the
(c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above
same
hydrogen
(d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(d)
Considering entropy (S) as a
hydronium ion
thermodynamics parameter, the criterion
55.
for the spontaneity of any process is (a)
Ssystem Ssurroundingsbe ve 56.
(b) Ssystem Ssurroundings be ve (c)
(b) 109o28
(c) 120o
(d) 94.8o
The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by direct
synthesis
at
(d) Ssurroundings be zero
hydrides decreases in
Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the
Which of the following orders ?
following equilibria are related as
(a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH (c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
K2
(c)
K 2 K12
.e en ad up ra tib
1 K12
(a)
elevated
temperature. The thermal stability of these
2 NO g O2 g ; K 2 2 NO2 g (b)
K2
1 K1
(d)
K2
K1 2
57.
Which
oxidation
states
are
the
most
characteristic of lead and tin respectively ?
58.
(a) +2, +2
(b) +4, +4
(c) +2, +4
(d) +4, +2
In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL
cations containing HCl precipitates the
of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature
cations of second group in qualitative
and 715 mm pressure. The percentage
analysis but not those belonging to the
composition of nitrogen in the compound
fourth group. It is because
would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15
(a) the presence of HCl decreases the
mm)
sulphide ion concentration
(a) 14.45
(b) 15.45
(b) the presence of HCl increases the
(c) 16.45
(d) 17.45
w w
H2S gas when passed through a solution of
59.
sulphide ion concentration (c)
the
solubility
product
of
group
II
w
sulphides is more than that of group IV sulpides
(d) the sulphides of group IV cations are
Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ? (a)
CH 3CHO HCN CH 3CH OH CN
(b)
H CH 3 CH CH 2 H 2O
CH 3 CH CH 3
unstable in HCl 54.
(a) 106o
the
Ssystem be zero
1 NO2 g ; K1 NO g O2 g 2
53.
The O – O – H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is
ha .n et
52.
NO3 is reduced in preference to
Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but not with HNO3 because
| OH
(a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it reacts with HNO3 (b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and
R CH R (c) RCHO RMgX | OH
HCl Page | 6
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64.
CH 3 (d)
mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by
| CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 Br NH 3
(a) oxidation
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
| CH 3 CH 2CH CH 2 NH 2 A strong base can abstract an
65.
Green chemistry remains such reactions which
hydrogen
(a) produce colour during reactions
from
(b) reduce the use and production of
(a) amine
(b) ketone
hazardous chemical
(c) alkane
(d) alkene
(c) are related to the depletion of ozone
The chirality of the compound is
ha .n et
61.
(b) cracking
(c) hydrolysis
CH 3
60.
Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a
layer
(d) study the reactions in plants 66.
the radioisotope tritium
H 3 1
has a half-
life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of
.e en ad up ra tib
tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it
(a) R (c) Z 62.
(b) S
would remain after 49.2 years ?
(d) I
(a) 1 mg
(b) 2 mg
(c) 4 mg
(d) 8 mg
The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is
67.
AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is
68.
(a) 335 pm
(b) 250 pm
(c) 200 pm
(d) 300 pm
A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at 100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality
w w
respectively, the above solution will freeze
(b) II > I > III
(c) III > II > I
(d) II > III > I
w
63.
(a) III > I > II
at
Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which
one
of
the
following
reactions
69.
H 3C CH 2OH C6 H 6
(b)
CH 3 CH CH 2 C6 H 6
(c)
H 2C CH 2 C6 H 6
(d)
H 3C CH 3 C6 H 6
Page | 7
(b) 6.54oC
(c) -0.654oC
(d) 0.654oC
The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of
produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ? (a)
(a) -6.54oC
70.
(a) resistance
(b) potential
(c) concentration
(d) dissociation
Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and 8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g)
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(c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with
0 for the Ecell
respectively. The value of
H2SO4
pentane – oxygen fuel cell is (b) 1.0968 V
(c) 0.0968 V
(d) 1.968 V
The reaction A
B follows fist order
76.
(a) Oxidising property (b) Acidic property
kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to
(c) Basic property
produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B ?
72.
(a) 1 hr
(b) 0.5 hr
(c) 0.25 hr
(d) 2 hr
(d) Reducing propery 77.
different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015
78.
e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is
of
(d) 1000 K
the
(b) Urea
following
forms
cationic
80.
81.
(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
smell
of
burnt
sulphur
(b) Fluorine
(c) Neon
(d) Oxygen
When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and
w w
as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous
w
solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The
82.
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) SO3
(d) H2S of
(b) N2O
(c) NO
(d) N2O5
Which of the following pairs is coloured in (a) Sc3+, Co2+
(b) Ni2+, Zn2+
(c) Ni2+, Ti3+
(d) Sc3+, Ti3+
Atomic
numbers
of
Cr
and
Fe
are
(a)
Cr NH 3 6
(c)
Fe CN 6
3
4
(b)
Fe CO 5
(d)
Cr CO 6
Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond ?
gas X is
can
(a) NO2
the electron ?
and
causes great damage to respiratory organs
be
purified
oxides
of
from
the
nitrogen
and
ammonia by passing through (a) conc. HCl (b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol Page | 8
(a) Nitrogen
following is paramagnetic with the spin of
by product. This is a colourless gas with
impurities
Which of the following is monoatomic ?
respectively 24 and 26. Which of the
Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a
Nitrogen
(d) HI
aqueous solution ?
(c) Sodium acetate
75.
(c) HBr
shows the presence of
(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
chocking
(b) HCl
washed with water, it turns into yellow. It
micelles above certain concentrations ?
74.
(a) HF
.e en ad up ra tib
Which
79. (b) 2000 K
1000 (c) K 2.303 73.
Which has the highest molar heat of vaporization ?
The rate constants k1 and k2 for two
2000 (a) K 2.303
Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
ha .n et
71.
(d) a solution of KOH (aq)
(a) 0.0968 V
83.
(a)
K Pt C2 H 4 Cl3
(b)
Ni CO 4
(c)
Al OC2 H 5 3
(d)
C2 H 5 MgBr
Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to (a) O2
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(b) COCl2
00-00-2017
(c) O2, C2 84.
(d) none of these
Consider the following reaction: Phenol
(c)
CH 3Cl ( i ) Alkaline KMnO4 Zn dust X Y Z Anhydrous AlCl3 ( ii ) H
, the product Z is (b) toluene
(c) benzaldehyde
(d) benzene
(d) 89.
Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into
are
hydrocarbons using Zn – Hg + HCl (conc.)
(a) NH3, Cl
(b) NH3, H2O
is called
(c) Cl, H2O
(d) NO, Cl
90.
(a) Cope reaction
86.
large volume of water, the white precipitate
(c) Wolf-Kishner reaction
produced is
(d) Clemmensen reduction
(a) Bi(OH)3
(b) Bi2O3
(c) BiOCl
(d) Bi2OCl3
Method
by
which
Aniline
cannot
be
BIOLOGY
ethanol
91.
Biosystematics aims at
.e en ad up ra tib
(a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in
(a) The classification of organisms based on
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated
broad morphological characters
with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis
(b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and
with aqueous NaOH solution
establishing their relationships
(c)
hydrolysis
acidic solution
of
phenylisocyanide
(c) The classification of organisms based on
with
their evolutionary history and establishing
(d) degradation of benzamide with bromine
their phylogeny on the totality of various
in alkaline solution
parameters from all fields of studies
Methyl - -D-glucoside and methyl- -D
(d) Identification and arrangement of
glucoside are (a) epimers
w w
(b) anomers
organisms on the basis of cytological characteristics
92.
(d) conformational diastereomers
w
Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer ?
Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
(c) enatiomers 88.
When bismuth chloride is poured into a
(b) Dow reaction
prepared is
87.
The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin
ha .n et
85.
(a) benzoic acid
93.
(a) 300 × 10 nm
(b) 300 × 5 nm
(c) 300 × 20 nm
(d) 700 × 30 nm
Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses ? (a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA – dependent DNA polymerase
(a)
(b) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA (c) Retroviruses are causative agents for
(b)
Page | 9
certain kinds of cancer in man
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(d) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
elements and sieve tube elements is
In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam,
(a) Thick secondary walls
the antherozoids and eggs mature at
(b) Pores on lateral wall
different times
(c) Presence of p-protein
As a result
(d) Enucleate condition
(a) Self – fertilization is prevented
100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle
(b) There is no change in success rate of
on its outer surface without damaging its
fertilization
gut, the fluid that comes out is
(c) There is high degree of strerility
(a) Slimy mucus
(d) One can concude that the plant is
(c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph
apomictic
101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
Select one of the following pairs of
(a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
important features distinguishing Gneutum
(b) Polar layer is hydrophobic
form Cycas and Pinus and showing
(c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer
affinities with angiosperms
in middle part
(a) perianth and two integuments
(d) Proteins form a middle layer
(b) embryo development and apical meristem
96.
102. Vacuole in a plant cell (a) Lacks membrane and contains air
(c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(b) Lacks membrane and contains water
(d) presence of vessel elements and absence
and excretory substances
of Archegonia
(c) Is membrane – bound and contains
In Hydra, waste material of food digestion
storage proteins and lipids
and nitrogenous waste material removed
(d) Is membrane – bond and contains water
from
and excretory substances
(a) Mouth and mouth
103. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ?
(c) Mouth and body wall
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
(d) Mouth and tentacles
substrate competes with an enzyme for
One of the following is a very unique
binding to an inhibitor protein
feature of the mammalian body
(b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to
(a) Presence of diaphragm
the enzyme irreversibly
(b) Four chambered heart
(c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
(c) Rib cage
substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(d) Homeothermy
active site on the enzyme
Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,
(d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and
can be overcome by adding large amount of
frit a capsule or berry are characteristic
substrate
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(b) Body wall and body wall
w
97.
98.
(b) Excretory fluid
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95.
A common structural feature of vessel
ha .n et
94.
99.
features of
104. Which
(a) Asteraceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
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one
of
the
following
structural
formulae of two organic compounds is
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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correctly identified along with its related
(a) Blue and green (b) Green and red
function ?
(c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue 109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in (a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells (c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells 110. During
anaerobic
digestion
of
organic
waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left under graded (a) Lipids
ha .n et
(b) Lignin
(c) Hemi – cellulose (d) Cellulose
111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
membrane
(a) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(b) B: Adenine –a nucleotide that makes up
(b) Absicisic acid – Stomatal closure
nucleic acids
(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
.e en ad up ra tib
(a) A: Lecithin –a component of cell
(d) Cytokinin – Cell division
(c) A: Triglyceride – major source of energy
112. Which one of the following mammalian cells
(d) B: Uracil –a component of DNA
is not capable of metabolizing glucose to
105. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell
carbon dioxide aerobically ?
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each
(a) Red blood cells
cell
(b) White blood cells
(c) chromosome number is increased
(c) Unstraited muscle cell
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in
(d) Liver cells
each cell
113. If
due
to
some
injury
the
chordate
tendineae of the tricuspid value of the
106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture
human heart is partially non-functional,
(a) Rapid turgor pressure changes
what will be the immediate effect
(b) A passive process requiring no special
(a) the flow of blood into the arota will be
ability on the part of the plant
slowed down
(c) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(b) The pacemaker will stop working
(d) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the
w
w w
insects is due to
107. An
element
playing
important
role
left atrium
in
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
nitrogen fixation is (a) Molybdenum
(b) Copper
(c) Manganese
(d) Zinc
artery will be reduced 114. Uric
108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of
acid
is
the
chief
nitrogenous
component of the excretory products of
solar radiations are primarily absorbed by
(a) Frog
(b) man
carotenoids of the higher plants ?
(c) Earthworm
(d) Cockroach
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115. A person entering an empty room suddenly
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
finds a snake right in front on opening the
(c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
door. Which one of the following is likely to
(d) Primary follicle starts developing
happen
in
his
neurohormonal
control
120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the
system ? (a)
ovary is
Hypothalamus
activates
the
parasympathetic divison of brain (b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(a) Isthmus
(b) Infundibulum
(c) Cervix
(d) Ampulla
121. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of
from adrenal cortex
(a) Glucagon
(b) Androgens
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(c) Progesterone
(d) Intestinal mucus
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
ha .n et
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
122. The main function of mammalian corpus
from adrenal medulla
luteum is to produce
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across
(a) estrogen only
the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
(b) progesterone
116. Which one of the following statements is
(d) relaxin only
.e en ad up ra tib
correct ?
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa (b)
and
123. Which
of
associated
Endocrine
activity,
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin
glands
nervous
regulate
system
neural
the
following
with
events
ovulation
is
in
human
female?
regulates
(a) LH surge
endocrine glands
(b) Decrease in estadiol
(c) Neither hormones control neural activity
(c) Full development of Graafian follicle
nor the neurons control endocrine activity
(d) Release of secondary oocyte
(d)
Endocrine
glands
regulate
neural
124. Which of the following cannot be detected
activity, but not vice versa
in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
117. Top – shaped multiciliate male gametes,
(a) Klinefelter syndrome
and the mature seed which bears only one
(b) Sex of the foetus
embryo
(c) Down syndrome
two
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with
not
cotyledons,
are
characteristic features of
(d) Jaundice
(a) Gamopetalous angiosperms
125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to
(c) Polypetalous angiosperms
do so independently then it is called
(d) Cycads
(a) Epistasis
w
(b) Conifers
118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig
(b) Polygene
encloses a number of
(c) Non-complimentary gene
(a) berries
(b) mericarps
(d) Complimentary gene
(c) achenes
(d) smaras
126. A gene is said to be dominant if
119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely
(a)
It
expresses
its
effect
only
homozygous stage
(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases Page | 12
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in
(b) It is expressed only in heterozygous
often
condition
phenomenon is called
(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and
(a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis
in heterozygous condition
(c) Transformation (d) Sphcing
(d) It is never expressed in any condition
superior
to
both
parents.
134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
127. Two crosses between the same pair of
which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
genotypes or phenotypes In which the
what
sources of the gametes are reversed in one
resulting in an affected child ?
cross is known as
(a) no chance
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 100%
(b) Reciprocal cross
(c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross 128. A
male
human
is
are
the
chances
for
(a) Recessive epistasis
autosomal genes A and B and is also
(b) Dominant epistasis
hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What
(c) Complementary genes
proportion of his sperms will be abh ?
(d) Inhibitory genes
(c) ¼
(d) 1/8
129. G-6-P
136. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use
.e en ad up ra tib
(b) 1/16 dehydrogenase
deficiency
is
(a) Flower position (b) Seed colour
associated with haemolysis of (a) Leucocytes (c) Platelets
pregnancy
135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
heterozygous
(a) 1/32
of
ha .n et
(a) Test cross
This
(c) Pod length
(b) Lymphocytes
(d) Seed shape
137. In negative operon
(d) RBCs
(a) Inducer binds with repressor
130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated
(b) Corepressor binds with inducer
from the African population because
(c) Corepressor binds with inducer
(a) It is controlled by recessive genes
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(b) It is not a fatal disease
138. Which one of the following triplet codes is
(c) It provides immunity against malaria
correctly matched with its specificity for an
(d) It is controlled by dominant genes
amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon
the chromosomal linkage map of maize
(a) UCG – Start
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are
(c) UGU – Leucine (d) UAC – Tyrosine
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131. Two genes R and y are located very close on
hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow
(b) UUU – Stop
139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of
(b) Higher number of the recombinant types
(a) Cytosine rich repeats
(c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio
(b) Adenine rich repeats
(d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio
(c) Guanine rich repeats
132. Infectious proteins are present in
(d) Thymine rich repeats
w
(a) Higher number of the parental types
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions (c) Viroids
140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(d) Satellite viruses
more
133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
maternal
influence
among
offspring ? (a) Autosomal
(b) Cytoplasmic
(c) Y-linked
(d) X-linked
00-00-2017
the
141. Which one of the following pairs of codons
(a) Colour change in chameleon
is correctly matched with their function or
(b) Poison fangs in snakes
the signal for the particular amino acid ?
(c) Melanism in moths
(a) AUG, ACG – Start / Methionine
(d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing
(b) UUA, UCA – Leucine
air in puffer fish
(c) GUU, GCU – Alanine
149. Adaptive radiation refers to
(d) UAG, UGA – Stop
(a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a
142. The one aspect which is not a salient
variety of environments (b)
Adaptations
due
to
geographical
(a) Degenerate
(b) Ambiguous
isolation
(c) Universal
(d) Specific
(c) Evolution of different species from a
ha .n et
feature of genetic code is its being
143. Which one of the following is not a part of a
common ancestor
transcription unit in DNA ?
(d) Migration of members of a species to
(a) A promoter
(b) The structural gene
different geographical areas
(c) the inducer
(d) A terminator
150. Which one of the following statement is
144. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex
correct ?
(a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum
(b) Stem cells are specialized cells
(b) formation of abnormal sperms in the
(c) There is no evidence of the existence of
father
gills during embryogenesis of mammals
.e en ad up ra tib
chromosomes was born due to
(c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother (d) fusion of two ova and one sperm
(d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
151. Which
145. Which of the following biomolecules does
one
of
the
following
in
birds
indicates their reptilian ancestry ?
have a phosphodiester bond ?
(a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard
(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
in their digestive tract
(b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(b) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(c) Homeothermy
(d) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(d) Four chambered heart
of
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146. There is no life on moon due to the absence
152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to
(b) Water
(a) Intraspecific competition
(c) Light
(d) Temperature
(b) Interspecific competition
w
(a) O2
147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on
(c)
Competition
within
closely
related
organic evolution while working on
species
(a) Oenothera lamarckiana
(d)
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
species due to the presence of interfering
(c) Pisum sativum
species
(d) Althaea rosea
Reduced
feeding
efficiency
in
one
153. Industrial melanism is an example of
148. Animals have the innate ability to escape
(a) Neo Lamarckism
(b) Neo Darwinism
from predation. Examples for the same are
(c) Natural selection
(d) Mutation
given below. Select the incorrect example. Page | 14
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154. Which one of the following conditions
(d) Chikungunya virus
though harmful in itself is also a potential
160. The most likely reason for the development
saviour from a mosquito borne infectious
of resistance against pesticides in insects
disease ?
damaging a crop is
(a) Thalassemia
(a) Genetic recombination
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Directed mutations
(c) Pernicius anaemia
(c) Acquired heritable changes
(d) Leukemia
(d) Random mutations
155. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from
161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(b) Methemoglobin
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Excess of dissolved oxygen
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley
(d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
ha .n et
(a) Excess of chloride
162. What is antisense technology ?
156. To which type of barriers under innate
(a)
When
a
piece
of
RNA
that
is
complementary in sequence is used to stop
the tears from the eyes, belong ?
expression
(a) Physiological barriers
(b) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(b) Physical barriers
(c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
(c) Cytokine barriers
for the synthesis of antigens
(d) Cellular barriers
(d) Production of somaclonal variants in
.e en ad up ra tib
immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and
157. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
tissue cultures
163. “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals
revolution in India are the varieties of
make them tell the truth
(a) Bajra
(b) Maize
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
have undergone surgery as a pain killer
164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure
matched ?
and heart rate
(a) Coliforms – Vinegar (b) Methanogens – Gobar gas
as it stimulates recovery
(c) Yeast – Ethanol
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(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery 158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ?
w
(a) Human RBCs
(d) Streptomycets – Antibiotic
(b) Human liver
(a) These antibodies obtained from one
(c) Gut of female Anopheles
parent and for one antigen
(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(b) These obtained from different parents
159. Which of the following viruses is not
and for one antigen
transferred through semen of an infected
(c) These obtained from one parent and for
male ?
many antigens
(a) Herpes simplex virus
(d) These obtained from many parents and
(b) Hepatitis B virus
for many antigen
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus Page | 15
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166. Transgenic plants are the ones (a)
Grown
in
artificial
(a) the population is large
medium
after
(b) individuals mate selectively
hybridization in the field
(c) there are no mutations
(b) Produced by a somatic embryo in
(d) thee is no migration
artificial medium
173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
(c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA
but can recover after some time if damaging
into a cell and regenerating a plant from
effect stops will be having
that cell
(a) High stability and low resilience
(d) Produced after protoplast fusion in
(b) Low stability and low resilience
artificial medium
(c) High stability and high resilience
fermentation is done to
(d) Low stability and high resilience
ha .n et
167. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’
174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
(a) degrade sewage
logs in nature is due to their
(b) produce methane
(a) anaerobic environment around them
(c) obtain antibiotics
(b) low cellulose content
(d) purify enzymes
(c) low moisture content
(d) poor nitrogen content
.e en ad up ra tib
168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria
175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of
(a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase
numbers.
What
could
be
one
of
the
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase
possibilities about certain organisms at
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
some of the different levels ?
(d) Decline, lag, log phase 169. Which
one
mismatched ?
of
the
following
pairs
is
(a) Savanna – acacia trees
(b) Coniferous forest – evergreen trees
(a) Level one PP is “papal trees” and the
(c) Tundra – permafrost
level SC is “sheep”
(d) Prairie – epiphytes
(b) Level PC is “rats” and level SC “cats”
170. Which one of the following is one of the
w w
(c) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”
(a) Stratification
(b) Natality
(d) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and
(c) Mortality
(d) Sex-ratio
“Whale” on top level TC
w
etheracteristics of a biological community ?
171. A biologist studied the population of rats in
176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
a barn. He found that the average natality
organic matter during photosynthesis is
was
termed as
250,
average
mortality
240,
immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net
(a) Net productivity
increase in population is
(b) Net primary productivity
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) Gross primary productivity
(c) 05
(d) zero
(d) Secondary productivity
172. A population will not exist in HardyWeinberg equilibrium if Page | 16
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177. Which of the following pairs of an animal and
a
plant
represents
180. Measuring
endangered
biochemical
oxygen
demand
(BOD) is a method used for
organism in India
(a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
cereviscae
(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey
commercial scale
(c) Cinchona and leopard
(b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs
(d) Banyan and blackbuck
about their capacity to carry oxygen
178. Which one of the following is an example of
in
producing
card
on
a
(c) Estimating the amount organic matter in sewage water
(a) Wild life sanctuary
(d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven
(b) Seed bank
automobile engines
(c) Sacred groves (d) National park 179. Step taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include (a)
Use
of
non-polluting
compressed
and trucks
.e en ad up ra tib
Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses
ha .n et
exsitu conservation ?
(b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (c)
Compulsory
Control)
PUC
certification
(Pollution
of
petrol
Under
driven
vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons
(d) Permission to use only pure diesel with
a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for
w
w w
vehicles
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Model Grand Test
KEY NEET Time: 3 Hours
Date: 00-00-2017 Max. Marks: 720
2. (c) 7. (d) 12. (b) 17. (a) 22. (b) 27. (b) 32. (a) 37. (d) 42. (c)
46. 51. 56. 61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86.
47. 52. 57. 62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87.
CHEMISTRY 48. (b) 53. (a) 58. (c) 63. (c) 68. (c) 73. (d) 78. (c) 83. (b) 88. (d)
92. (c) 97. (a) 102. (d) 107. (a) 112. (a) 117. (d) 122. (b) 127. (b) 132. (b) 137. (c,b) 142. (b) 147. (a) 152. (a) 157. (b) 162. (a) 167. (d) 172. (b) 177. (a)
BIOLOGY 93. (d) 98. (c) 103. (c) 108. (d) 113. (d) 118. (c) 123. (b) 128. (d) 133. (b) 138. (d) 143. (c) 148. (b) 153. (c) 158. (c) 163. (c) 168. (a) 173. (d) 178. (b)
w w
w
91. (c) 96. (c) 101. (c) 106. (a) 111. (c) 116. (b) 121. (b) 126. (c) 131. (a) 136. (c) 141. (d) 146. (b) 151. (b) 156. (a) 161. (a) 166. (c) 171. (d) 176. (c)
(a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b)
4. (d) 9. (a) 14. (c) 19. (b) 24. (d) 29. (c) 34. (a) 39. (a) 44. (b)
5. (d) 10. (c) 15. (c) 20. (a) 25. (b) 30. (d) 35. (a) 40. (b) 45. (b)
49. 54. 59. 64. 69. 74. 79. 84. 89.
50. 55. 60. 65. 70. 75. 80. 85. 90.
(d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (b) (a) (a) (a)
.e en ad up ra tib
(b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b)
3. (c) 8. (c) 13. (d) 18. (a) 23. (d) 28. (c) 33. (c) 38. (a) 43. (d)
ha .n et
1. (d) 6. (c) 11. (c) 16. (a) 21. (c) 26. (d) 31. (a) 36. (c) 41. (d)
PHYSICS
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94. (a) 99. (d) 104. (a) 109. (d) 114. (d) 119. (a) 124. (d) 129. (d) 134. (c) 139. (b) 144. (c) 149. (c) 154. (b) 159. (d) 164. (a) 169. (d) 174. (b) 179. (c)
(c) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c)
95. (d) 100. (c) 105. (a) 110. (b) 115. (c) 120. (b) 125. (a) 130. (c) 135. (b) 140. (b) 145. (a) 150. (a) 155. (b) 160. (d) 165. (a) 170. (a) 175. (d) 180. (c)
00-00-2017
HINTS
& SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1.
Total distance to be covered for crossing 8.
the bridge = length of train + length of
In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites
ha .n et
2.
remain same. When two satellites of earth
bridge
are moving in the same orbit, then time
= 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m
periods of both are equal From Kepler’s third law Linear velocity
T 2 r3
v r
.e en ad up ra tib
3.
Time period is independent of mass, hence
v1 r1 , v2 r2 [
is the same in both cases because
The potential energy and kinetic energy are
time period is the same]
mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of
v1 r1 R v2 r2 r
satellites are not equal But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit, then they have equal orbital speed
4.
w w
5.
6.
their time periods will be equal.
Given I = 2 kg – m2,
0
60 2 rad / s 60
9.
Escape velocity
10.
Bulk modulus
w
0, t 60 s
The torque required to stop the wheel’s rotation is
7.
AS said, (KE)rot remains same
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11.
Condition of insufficient length of capillary tube
h
18.
1 r and since the source is stationary, so wave
Q P T4 t
12.
Energy per second
13.
Amount of energy radiated
length remains unchanged for observer 19.
(Temperature)4 Coefficient of performance
ha .n et
14.
.e en ad up ra tib
15.
20.
16.
In
simple
harmonic
motion,
displacement equation is, y = A sin
the
t
21.
Two positive ions each carrying a charge q are kept at a distance d, then it is found
Where A is amplitude of the motion.
w w
that force of repulsion between them is
w
17.
22.
The given circuit can be drawn as follows
Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum, then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa Page | 20 NEET :: MODEL TEST
00-00-2017
23.
Charge remains constant after charging. If the battery is removed after charging, then the charge stored in the capacitor remains constant. q = constant
As
capacitance
decreases,
so
potential
difference increases 24.
If E is the electric field, then current
j E
density
27.
i Also we know that current density j A
.e en ad up ra tib
Let ia is the current. Flowing through ammeter and i the total current. So, a
cross section. When j is different, then E is
current i - ia will flow through shunt
also different. Thus E is not constant. The velocity
vd
The potential difference across ammeter and shunt is the same
Hence j is different for different area of
drift
ha .n et
26.
vd
is
given
resistance
by
j =different for different j value. ne
Hence only current i will be constant
The formula for resistance of the wire is
R
l A
=specific resistance of the wire
w w
Where
R
l A
l r2
w
25.
R
R1 l1 r22 R2 l2 r12
A r 2
(i) 28.
The time period of electron moving in a circular orbit
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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Electric
current
revolution
Magnet
corresponds
of
field
at
electron
centre
of
to
the
32.
is
circle 33.
Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to the emf induce din the coil when the current in the coil changes at the rate of 1 As-1.
Hence
If I is the current flowing in the circuit,
To move on circular path in a magnetic
then flux linked with the circuit is observed
field, a centripetal force is provide by the
ha .n et
29.
to be proportional to I, i.e.,
magnetic force. When magnetic field is
I
perpendicular to motion of charged particle,
LI
then
or
(i)
Centripetal force = magnetic force
Where L is called the self – inductance or
That is
coefficient
.e en ad up ra tib
of
self-inductance
or
simply
inductance of the coil. Net flux through solenoid,
Further, time period of the motion
34.
It is independent of both R and v. 30.
In the sum and difference method of vibration magnetometer
M 1 T22 T12 M 2 T22 T12
w
31.
In resonance condition, maximum current flows in the circuit
w w
Here
35.
Current in LCR series circuit
decreases with rise in
Where V is rms value of current, R is
temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic
resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC
substance, then at a definite temperature
is capacitive reactance
the ferromagnetic property of the substance
For current to be maximum, denominator
suddenly disappears and the substance
should be minimum which can be done, if
becomes paramagnetic. The temperature
XL = X C
above which a ferromagnetic substance
This happens in resonance state of the
becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie
circuit, i.e.,
Ferromagnetism
temperature of the substance Page | 22
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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L Or
41.
1 C
L
Given,
Einsein’s photoelectric equation can be written as
1 2C
….. (i)
1000 s 1 , C 10 F 10 10 6 F
Hence,
1
1000
2
10 106
0.1 H 100mH
36.
-rays are beams of fat electrons
37.
EB
The discharge of electricity through rarefied gases is an interesting phenomenon which
E0iˆ B0 ˆj E0 B0 kˆ
can be systematically studied with the help
E B points in the direction of wave
of a discharge tube. In discharge tube
propagation
collisions between the charge particles
v=1 cm, R = 2 cm
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
By using
the gas results to the coloured glow in the
2 1 2 1 v u R
.e en ad up ra tib
38.
42.
ha .n et
L
tube.
43.
Kinetic energy of electron
K
Ze 2 8 0 r
Potential energy of electron
U
1 Ze 2 4 0 r
Total energy
E K U
39.
w w
or
for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm
w
or 44.
Distance of the nth bright fringe from the centre
Ze 2 8 0 r
or E = - K
and v = can see = -10 cm
40.
E
Ze 2 Ze 2 8 0 r 4 0 r
K E 3.4 3.4eV
For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with low mass are suitable
45.
The diode in lower branch is forward biased and diode in upper branch is reverse biased
i
5 5 A 20 30 50 CHEMISTRY
46.
2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others
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NEET :: MODEL TEST
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have less than one mole, so have less no. of molecules. 47.
Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 represent an orbital with
48.
In
each
vertical
3d
xy
column
or 3d x2 y 2
of
transition
element, the elements of second and third transition series resemble each other more closely than the elements of first and lanthanoids
contraction.
Hence
the
properties of elements of 4d series of the transition
elements
resemble
with
55.
O – O – H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o
56.
The tendency to form their hydrides, basic character and stability decreases from Li to
the
Cs
properties of the elements of 5d series of the transition elements 50.
KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature
since
the
57.
the
tendency
character
to
form
+2
ionic
state
increases on moving down the group due to
.e en ad up ra tib
same).
electropositive
decreases from Cs to Li
the KE of gaseous molecules remains the 51.
ha .n et
second transition series on account of
inert
pair
effect.
Most
characteristic
oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and
For a spontaneous process
+4 respectively.
58.
52.
53.
In qualitative analysis of cations of second
w w
group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect,
59.
lower concentration of sulphide ions is which
w
obtained
is
sufficient
for
the
Nucleophile
(-NH3)
replaces
other
nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction 60.
precipitation of second group cations in the
Removal of H from ketone gives resonance stabilized carbanion
form of their sulphides due to lower value of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth group cations are not precipitated because they
require
exceeding
their
more ionic
sulpide product
ions to
for their
solubility products which is not obtained
61.
here due to common ion effect
wise, i.e., R. It’s Fisher projection
54. Page | 24
Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock
NEET :: MODEL TEST
00-00-2017
63.
71. HCl AlCl3
For the reaction
C6 H 6 CH 2 CH 2 C6 H 5CH 2CH 3
2 A B 3C D
64.
Rate constant of first – order reaction
Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to
ha .n et
gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C – C and C – H bonds 65.
Green chemistry may be defined as the programme of developing new chemical
(because 0.6 mole of B is formed)
products and chemical processes or making improvements
in
the
already
Suppose t1 hour is required for changing
existing
the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to
less
harmful
.e en ad up ra tib
compounds and processes so as to make to
human
health
0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9
and
– 0.675 – 0.225
environment. This means the same as to reduce
the
use
and
production
of
hazardous chemicals. 66.
72.
67.
For body – centered cubic (bcc) lattice, distance between two oppositely charged
w w
ions,
76.
w
68.
74.
SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its reducing property
SO2 2 H 2O H 2 SO4 2 H Coloured matter H Colourless matter 77.
In case of HI due to large size of iodine strong vander Waal forces are present.
69.
Because conductance is increased when
Hence, it has highest molar heat of
the dissociation is more
vaporization
70. Page | 25
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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78. 79.
Neon
Ne is monoatomic and others (N2,
88.
Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical
F2 and O2) are diatomic
changes when heated and set to hard mass
4 Zn 10 HNO3 4 Zn NO3 2 NH 4 NO3 3H 2O
when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite 89.
80.
Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cisplatin) is a widely used anticancer drug. Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl
aqueous solution due to the presence of unpaired electrons in d-subshell 82.
90.
Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and thus it does not have metal – carbon bond
83.
Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas,
.e en ad up ra tib
phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas
ha .n et
Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in
CHCl3 O COCl2 HCl
84.
85.
It is called Clemmensen reduction
w
w w
86.
due to resonance C – Cl bond acquires double bond character. 87.
Methyl- -D-glucoside and methyl- -Dglucoside differs at C-1, hence are called anomers.
SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS - INDIA Page | 26
NEET :: MODEL TEST
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NEET MODEL PAPER PHYSICS
Pattern of the Entrance Test:1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology) to be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only. The duration of paper would be 03 hours 2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score. 1.
Figure given hare shows the variation of velocity of a particle with time. Average velocity during the motion is _________
v ms-1
4 0
1) 2.
20 m/s 7
2)
2
4
18 m/s 7
3)
t 7
36 m/s 7
4)
12 m/s 7
The centre of mass of a system of three particles of masses 1g ; 2g and 3 g is taken as the origin of the coordinate system. The position vector of a fourth particle of mass 4g such that the centre of mass of the four particle system lies at the point (1, 2, 3) is
, where ' ' is a constant. The value of ' ' is i 2j 3k
1)
10 3
2)
5 2
3)
1 2
4)
2 5
3.
A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity 3 2 ' '. It reaches upto a maximum height of with respect to the initial position. 4g What is that object ? 1) Ring
4.
2) Solid sphere
3) Hollow sphere
4) Disc
A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the R1
projectile and the ground is e. The ratio of horizontal range R in first two 2 collisions with the ground is 2) 1/e2
1) 1/e 5.
Two constant horizontal forces F1 and F2 are acting on the blocks 'A' and 'B' as shown in the figure. At an instant acceleration of block 'B' is 4 m/s2 in the direction of F1, then the acceleration of block A with respect to block 'B' at this moment is 1) 1 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2 3) 5 m/s2
F2=70N
A
B
2 kg
5 kg
4) 9 m/s2 6.
4) e2
3) e
F1=100N
Smooth surface
A child with mass 'm' is standing at the edge of a merry-go-round with moment of inertia I, radius 'R' and initial angular velocity , as shown in figure. The child jumps off the edge of the merry-go-round with a velocity ' ' with respect to the ground in a direction tangent to periphery of the disc as shown. The new angular velocity of the merry-go-round is V 1)
I2 m 2 I
I mR 3) I
2)
I mR2 2 m2
I 4)
I mR 2 mR I
R
7.
8.
When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0, it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are respectively. 1)
2ma 0 ma 0 west ; upwards ev0 e
2)
2ma 0 ma 0 west ; downwards ev0 e
3)
3ma 0 ma 0 east ; upwards ev 0 e
4)
3ma 0 ma 0 east ; downwards ev 0 e
The adjoining figure represents a wavefront 'AB' which passes from air to another transparent medium and produces a new wavefront 'CD' after refraction. 'PQ' is the boundary between air and the medium. The refractive index of the transparent medium is cos 1 1) cos 3
cos 4 2) cos 1 B air
P
A
sin 1 3) sin 3
9.
4 3
1
2
C
D
Q
sin 2medium 4) sin 3
A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best about the image formed, whose object is of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ? 1) Virtual ; upright ; height = 0.5 cm
2) Real ; inverted ; height = 4 cm
3) Real ; inverted ; height = 1 cm
4) Virtual ; upright ; height = 1 cm
10. The half-life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 20 years. It decays to another element 'Y' which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be 1) 40 years
2) 60 years
3) 80 years
4) 100 years
11. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red, then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using 1) Stefan's law
2) Wein's displacement law
3) Kirchoff's law in thermal radiation
4) Newton's law of cooling
12. Assertion (A) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change in magnitude of potential energy of the particle first decreases and then increasing during motion. Reason (R) : In the case of projectile motion, the rate of change of linear momentum of a particle remains constant during motion. 1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, R is false. 4) A is false, R is true.
(current) I
13. A car of mass 'm' is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The power delivered to the car is constant and equal to 'P'. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then after travelling how much distance its velocity becomes double ? 7mv3 4mv3 mv3 18mv3 1) 2) 3) 4) 3P 3P P 7P 14. The current (I) in the inductor coil is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure. I0
O
T time (t)
T/2
Which of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the inductor coil V
V
1)
T O
T/2
V
V
2)
3) T/2
t
4)
T T/2
t
T/2 T
t
15. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ' ' is perfectly smooth, while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again came to rest at the bottom, the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is 1 2 1) 2) 3) 2 tan 4) tan tan tan 16. A uniform ring of mass m is lying at a distance 3 a from the centre of a sphere of mass 'M', where 'a' is the radius of the ring as well as that of sphere. Then magnitude of gravitational force between them is GMm 3 GMm GMm 3 GMm 1) 2) 3) 4) 3 a2 8a 2 8a 2 a2 17. By what percent the energy of a earth's satellite has to be increased to shift the satellite from an orbit of radius r to (3/2) r ? 1) 15%
2) 20.3%
3) 66.7%
4) 33.33%
18. A particle of mass 'm' is located in a one-dimensional conservative field, where the potential energy can be represented by U(x) = A(1 + cos Px) where A and P are constants. The period of small oscillations of the particle is m m m m 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2 2 AP A AP A2 P 19. If the length of seconds pendulum is increased by 2%, then in a day the pendulum 1) 2
1) Loses 764 s
2) Loses 924 s
3) Gains 432 s
4) Loses 864 s
20. PV versus T graph of equal masses of three different gases namely Hydrogen (H2) ; Helium (He) and Oxygen (O2) is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct alternative. PV
C B A
O
1) 2) 3) 4)
T
A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to He and C corresponds to H2 A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to O2 A corresponds to He ; B corresponds to O2 and C corresponds to H2 A corresponds to O2 ; B corresponds to H2 and C corresponds to He
21. Pressure versus density graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Choose the correct option. Pressure (P)
C
1) 2) 3) 4)
B D A Density ( )
During the process AB workdone by the gas is positive During the process AB workdone by the gas is negative During the process BC internal energy of the gas is increasing During the process DA internal energy of the gas remains constant
22. Three identical metallic uncharged spheres A, B and C of radius 'a' are kept at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side d(d >>> a). A fourth sphere of radius 'a' which has charge Q touches 'A' and then removed to a position faraway. 'B' is earthed and then the earth connection is removed. Now 'C' is earthed. The charge on the 'C' is 1)
Qa 2d a 2d 2d
2)
Qa 2d a 2d d
3)
Qa a d 2d d
4)
2Qa d a d 2d
23. From the diagram shown, area of each plate is 2m2 and d 2 103 m . A charge of 8.85108 C is given to the plate Q. Then the potential of Q becomes
1) 13V
P Q
2) 10V
d
2d R
3)
20 V 3
4) 8.85 V
24. Three conductors individually draw currents of 1A, 2A and 3A respectively, when connected across a battery. If they are joined in series and the combination is connected across the same battery, the current drawn will be 6 1 4 2 A 1) 2) A 3) 4) 11 6 7 7
25. For the circuit shown the charge on the capacitor will be CE R1 2) R1 r
1) CE
3)
CE R 2 R1 r
4)
CE R1 R2 r
R2
C R1 E
r
26. A beam of light is incident on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.54 in a direction as shown in the figure. The reflected light is analysed by a polaroid prism. On rotating the polaroid, (tan 570 = 1.54) B
A 330
330 O
GLASS SLAB
1) The intensity remains unchanged 2) The intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero 3) The intensity gradually reduced to zero and then again increases 4) The intensity increase gradually 27.
In feedback amplifier, feedback can be achieved by A) Inductive coupling
B) LC network
C) RC network
1) Only A is correct
2) Only B is correct
3) Only C is correct
4) A, B and C are correct
28. Pick out the correct statements from the following. I) Electron emission during – decay is always accompanied by neutrino II) Nuclear force is charge independent III) Fusion is cheif source of stellar energy 1) I, II are correct
2) I, III are correct
3) Only I is correct
4) II, III are correct
29. The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is 1) Space waves, sky waves, ground waves 3) Sky waves, ground waves, space waves
2) Space waves, ground waves, sky waves 4) Ground waves, sky waves, space waves
30. In the diagram shown, I1, I2 are the strength of the currents in the loop and straight conductors respectively. OA = AB = R. The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' is zero. Then, the ratio of the currents in the loop and the straight conductor is 1)
2) 2
1 3)
1 4) 2
O
I1
A B I2
31. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities 1 and
2 respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is 1)
L 3
2)
4L 3
3)
4L 1 3 2
4)
4L 2 3 1
32. Two similar rods are joined as shown in figure. Assume that no heat loss through lateral surface of rod and temperatures at the ends are shown in steady state. Then 500C temperature of the junction is 1) 500C 2) 750C 3) 66.60C 4) 33.30C 33.
500C
A tap supplies water at 100C and another tap at 1000C. taken so that we get 20 kg of water at 1)
40 kg 9
00C
1000C
2)
50 kg 9
How much hot water must be
350C. 3)
20 kg 9
4)
60 kg 9
34. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P
a 3b2 ; The cd
percentage error in 'P' is 1) 14%
2) 10%
3) 7%
4) 4%
35. A material has poission's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudnal strain of 2103 . Then the percentage change in the volume is 1) 0.6
2) 0.4
3) 0.2
4) Zero
36. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in figure and the frame is dipped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When 'A' is pricked Frame 1) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'A'
A
2) Thread will become concave on seeing from side 'B' 3) Thread will become straight
B Thread
4) Thread will remain as it is
37. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonating with the tunnnig fork is 15cm. The next resonating length will be 1) 31 cm
3) 45 cm
3) 46 cm
4) 47 cm
38. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecule at a certain absolute temperature is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic oxygen, then the rms speed would be 1) v
2)
2v
3) 2v
4) 2 2v
39. A body submerged in the sea. Which of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the pressure on the body with the depth?
1)
1 Atom pressure
1 Atom pressure
2) depth
depth
1 Atom pressure
1atom
3) pressure
4) depth
depth
40. The Davisson-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of 1) Particle nature of electrons
2) Wave nature of electrons
3) Wave nature of light
4) Particle nature of light
41. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be A B
X
1) X A.B
2) X A.B
4) X A B
3) X = A.B
42. The TV transmission tower in VIJAYAWADA has a height 150m. What is the total population covered by the TV tower, if the population density around the TV tower is 103(km)–2 ? (Radius of the earth is 6.4 106 m ) 1) 60.288 lakh
2) 40.192 lakh
3) 100 lakh
4) 20.22 lakh
43. In the circuit shown in the figure, what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key k ? 1)
5 A 7
3) 1A
2) 4)
6 I1
5 A 11
k
5 A 4
2mH I2 8
I3 8
10v
44. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is n and the angular momentum is Jn then 1) n J n
1
2) n J n
3) n J n2
4) n J n
45. In a spring - block system force constant of the spring is k = 16 N/m, mass of the block is 1kg. Maximum kinetic energy of the block is 8J. Then pickout the wrong statement 1) Amplitude of oscillation is 1m 2) At half the amplitude potential energy stored in the spring is 2J 3) At half the amplitude kinetic energy is 6J 4) Angular frequency of oscillation is 16 rad/s
46.
X and Y are two crystalline substances both having cubic unit cells. The ratio of molecular masses is 1 : 2. The ratio of 'a' parameters is 1 : 2. The ratio of number of formula units (Z) is 1 : 4. The ratio of their densities is 1) 4 : 1
47.
2) 1 : 1
3) 1 : 2
4) 1 : 4
3
3
The complex Co NH3 6 is an inner orbital complex whereas the CoF6 is an outer orbital complex. The number of unpaired electrons in these two complexes are respectively 1) Zero and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 6 and 2 4) 3 and 4
48. A hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H6 reacts with bromine readily and gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2. On treatment with dilute H2SO4 Containing HgSO4 gives 2- butanone. The hydrocarbon is 1) 2- Butyne 49.
2) 1 – Butene
2) a
2) 3
4) d
3) 2
4) 1
The standard potential for the electrode MnO4 MnO2 in solution is o Given E MnO
+2 4 Mn
1) - 1.70 V 52.
3) c
One molal solution of K x [Fe (CN) 6 ] is isotonic with 4 molal urea solution. The degree of dissociation of potassium Iron cyanide is one. Then the value of 'x' is
1) 4 51.
4) Cyclobutene
a In C C C b C C c C d C , the strongest C - C single bond is 1) b
50.
3) 1- butyne
1.51V and E o MnO 2 2) + 1.1 V
The limiting molar conductivities
Mn +2
1.23V 3) + 1.70 V
0
4) - 1.1V
for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150Scm2 mol–1
respectively. The 0 for NaBr is : 1) 278 S cm2 mol–1
2) 176 S cm2 mol–1
3) 128 S cm2 mol–1
ROUGH
4) 302 S cm2 mol–1
53.
54.
H 2SO4 NaCl NaCl NaHSO 4 Na 2SO 4 . Correct statement is T T 1
1) HCl is obtained in both steps
2) T1 T2
3) HCl is dried using conc H 2 SO4
4) All of these
Number of configurational isomers for CH 3 2 CH .CH .Cl .CH CHCl 1) 2
55.
2
2) 3
3) zero
4) 4
Emf of the cell Pt , H2 (1 atm) / H+ (0.01) // Cl2(1atm) / Cl- ( 0.1M) , Pt . Given E of
Cl2 Cl 1.36V 1) + 1.36V 56.
2) + 1.54V
3) + 1.48V
4) + 1.12V
The electron affinity values of 3rd period elements A, B, C and D are respectively -135, -60, 200 and 348KJ mole1 . The outer configuration of element 'B' is 1) 3s 2 3 p1
57.
60.
4) 3s 2 3 p 2
2) A2 B5
3) AB2
4) A2 B2
In the roasting of iron pyrites, equivalent weight of iron pyrites is 1)
59.
3) 3s 2 3 p 3
In a face centered cubic lattice, atom 'A' occupies the corner positions and atom 'B' occupies the face center positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centered points. The formula of the compound is 1) A2 B
58.
2) 3s 2 3 p 4
M 11
2)
11 M 10
3)
M 6
4)
6M 5
alc.KOH CH 2 CH CH Br CH3 X major . 'X' is
1) CH 2 C CH CH 3
2) CH 2 CH CH CH 2
3) CH 3 CH CH CH 3
4) CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3
Bond length and bond angle in ozone molecule is/are 1) 119, 121pm
2) 117, 148pm
3) 117, 128pm
ROUGH
4) 111, 128pm
61.
Absolute configuration of CH3 H
Cl
Cl
H
C 2 H5
1) 2S, 3R 62.
2) - 3
3) - 1
4) + 1
2) 4, 2
3) 2, 3
4) 3, 2
1, 3 butadiene and styrene on polymerisation give 1) Bakelite
65.
4) 2S, 3S
The number of pπ dπ bonds present in XeO3 and XeO4 molecules respectively 1) 3, 4
64.
3) 2R, 3R
'X' along with liquid oxygen provide a tremendous thrust in rockets. Oxidation state of nitrogen in 'X' is 1) - 2
63.
2) 3R, 2S
2) Terylene
3) Buna - S
4) Teflon
To a 25ml H 2O2 solution, excess acidified solution of KI is added. The iodine liberated required 20ml of 0.3M Na2 S 2O3 solution. Strength of H 2O2 solution is 1) 1.344 gr litre
66.
4) 4.08 gr litre
2) N2
3) N2O
4) O2
When HNO3 oxidizes I 2 , the change in oxidation number of iodine is a) 0 to + 4
68.
3) 5.4 gr litre
The gas evolved on heating NH 4 2 Cr2O 7 is 1) NH3
67.
2) 3.244 gr litre
2) 0 to -5
3) 0 to +5
4) 0 to +3
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of a) Primary aromatic amine
2) Primary aliphatic amine
c) Secondary amine
4) Tertiary amine
ROUGH
69.
Name of the compound given below CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 CH 3
70.
1) 5 - ethyl - 6 - methyl octane
2) 4 - ethy l - 3 - methyl octane
3) 3 - methyl - 4 ethyl octane
4) 2, 3 diethyl heptane
An alkene on ozonolysis gives isobutyraldehyde only. The alkene is 1) 2, 5 dimethyl hex - 3 ene
2) 3, 4 dimethyl hex - 3 ene
3) 2, 3 dimethyl but - 2 ene
4) 3 methyl pent - 1 - ene
CH(CH3)2 O
OH +
H 2 A H O
71.
+ B . ‘B’ in the above sequence of reaction is
2
1) CH3CHO 72.
2) CH3COCH3
3) CH3COOH
4) CH3CHOHCH3
Which of the following is fast dehydro brominated Br
Br
Br
Br
1)
73.
2)
3)
4)
Grignard reagent + CdCl2 A + MgCl2 A + B Butanone + CdCl2 A and B are respectively 1) (CH3)2Cd & C2H5COCl
2) CH3MgCl & C2H5Cl
3) (C2H5)2Cd & CH3Cl
4) CH3COCl & (C2H5)2Cd
ROUGH
74.
A steel cylinder of 8 lit capacity contains H2 gas at 12 atm. At the same temperature, how many cycle tubes of 4l capacity at 2 atm pressure can be filled by this gas ? 1) 12
75.
2) 5
3) 10
4) 15
SOCl2 Benzene H2O HCN A C CH3COOH B D anhyd . AlCl3
In the following sequence of reactions, acetic acid yields D. The structure of ‘D’ is OH
1)
| C COOH |
2)
OH | CH 2 C COOH | CH 3
CH 3
3)
OH |
OH | C CH 3
4)
CH 2 C COOH |
| CN
76.
Which of the following cannot undergo disproportionation ? 1) ClO-
77.
CN
2) ClO 2
3) ClO3
4) ClO 4
Balance the following equation by oxidation number method
Cr s Pb NO3 2 aq Cr NO3 3 Pb s , the coefficients of species in balanced reaction : 1) 3, 2, 3, 2 78.
2) 2, 3, 2, 3
3) 2, 2, 3, 3
4) 3, 3, 2, 2
On passing H2S gas into a solution containing both Cu2+ and Zn2+ ions in acidic medium , only CuS gets precipitated. This is because
79.
1) CuS more stable than ZnS
2) Ksp of CuS = Ksp of Zns
3) Ksp of CuS < Ksp of ZnS
4) Ksp CuS > Ksp of ZnS
If the total energy of an electron in H - atom is - 3.4 eV then the kinetic energy and potential energy are respectively 1) 6.8eV, -3.4eV
2) 6.8eV, 3.4eV
3) 3.4eV, -6.8eV ROUGH
4) 3.4eV, -3.4eV
80.
The molecular formula of carbon compound ‘X’ is C4H10O. It liberates hydrogen gas with Na metal and gives turbidity immediately with Lucas Reagent. If the vapours of ‘X’ are passed over hot copper the product obtained is 1) CH 3 CH 2 O CH 2 CH 3 3)
2) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO
CH3 C CH 2 CH3
4) CH 3 C CH 2
O 81.
CH 3
The value of K P for the equillibrium of the reaction N 2O4 g 2 NO2 g is 2. Calculate the percentage dissociation of N 2O4 at a pressure of 0.5 atm 1) 71
82.
2) 50
4) 88
The pH of 1010 M Mg OH 2 solution will be 1) 10
83.
3) 25
2) 6
3) 4
4) 7.001
Consider the following reactions at 1000C
1
ZnO s ; G 360 KJ mole 1 1) Zn s O2 g 2 1
CO g ; G 460 KJ mole 1 2) C s O2 g 2 Choose the correct statement at 1000C
84.
1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO
2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by C
3) Zinc can be reduced by CO
4) Zinc can be reduced by C
Copper matte contains 1) Cu2 S and Cu2O
85.
2) Cu2O and FeS
3) Cu2 S and FeO
In an adsorption experiment a graph between log
4) Cu2 S and FeS
x vs log P is found to be linear with a slope m
of 45 . The Y - intercept was found to be 0.3010. What is
x if pressure is 6 bar (tan 45 1 m
and 0.3010 = log 2) 1) 0.6
2) 2.8
3) 6 ROUGH
4) 12
86.
0.303 grams of an organic compound was analysed for nitrogen by Kjeldahl's method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50ml of 0.1N H 2 SO4 . The excess acid required 25ml of 0.1N NaOH for neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound 1) 11.55%
87.
89.
4) 18.4%
2) 5
3) 2
4) 10
Which one of the following statements is correct 1) Chloroxylenol is a tranquilizer
2) Sucralose is an antiseptic
3) Prontosil is an antimicrobial
4) Seconal is an antipyretic
The number of unpaired electrons present in the first excited state of chlorine atom is 1) 1
90.
3) 44.6%
The Vanderwaal’s constant ‘b’ is………….times volume of the molecule 1) 4
88.
2) 23.3%
2) 3
3) 5
4) 2
The total number of antibonding electrons in N 2 and O2 molecules respectively is 1) 4, 8
2) 4, 6
3) 6, 8
ROUGH
4) 5, 8
91.
The following group of plants belong to how many families? Lupin, Ashwagandha, Tulip, Tobacco, Petunia, Trifolium, Brinjal, Gloriosa 1) 3
92.
93.
3) 2
4) 8
Choose the incorrect match regarding ETS of Respiration for one Glucose molecule 1) Cofactors oxidized NADH 2 and FADH 2
12
2) Number of water molecules produced in ETS
12
3) Complexes involved in transfer of electrons
4
4) Oxygen atoms utilized in ETS
6
A canary grass seedling is exposed to light. Which one of the diagram given below best describes the condition of the coleoptiles tip at the end of the experiment ?
1)
94.
2) 4
2)
3)
4)
Choose the correct set of statements about Lac operon 1) Operator lies upstream to ’structural genes’ 2) Lactose is the inducer 3) Repressor is a protein which binds to the ‘operator’ 4) All the above
95.
96.
Choose the mismatch 1) Single cell protein – Spirulina, Chlorella
2) Medicinal plants – Arnica, Cinchona
3) Food for astronauts – Chlorella
4) Petroplants – Datura, Digitalis
Immuno suppressive agent ‘cyclosporin A’ is produced by 1) Monascus purpureus
2) Streptococcus
3) Trichoderma polysporum
4) Propionibacterium sharmanii
97.
Given in the diagram shows at a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis maximum crossing over will occur between genes
1) A and a, D and d 98.
3) B and c, b and C
4) A and d, a and D
T.W. Engelmann’s experimental plant for his discovery of first action spectrum of photosynthesis is 1) Azatobacter
99.
2) C and d, c and D
2) Chlorella
3) Cladophora
4) Chlamydomonas
What is the ratio of total number of floral leaves in one flower of Pisum to one flower of Allium? 1) 5 : 6
2) 4 : 5
3) 7 : 5
4) 4 : 3
100. Radial, Collateral, and Bicollateral vascular bundles are present respectively in anatomy of 1) Dicot and Monocot roots, dicot and monocot stem, and cucurbita stems 2) Dicot and Monocot stem, dicot and monocot root and cucurbita stem 3) Dicot and Monocot Root, cucurbita stem , dicot and Monocot stem 4) Dicot and monocot stem, cucurbita stems and Dicot and monocot root 101. Osmosis in involved in 1) Ascent of sap in xylem vessels 2) Translocation of sucrose in sieve tube elements 3) Turgidity and flaccidity of guard cells 4) Loss of water vapour into atmosphere from sub stomatal cavity 102. Statement - I : The initial appearance of deficiency symptoms is related to mobility of elements in plant system Statement - II : Deficiency symptoms first appear in senescent leaves and young leaves for mobile and immobile elements respectively 1) Statement I and II both are correct 2) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong 3) Statement II is correct, statement I is wrong 4) Statement I and II both are wrong
103. First pair of enzymes catalysic the transfer of groups and second pair of enzyme catalyse breakdown/ removal of groups from substrate. What would be the correct options ? Transfer
Removal
1) Oxidoreductases and transferases
Hydrolases and Lyases
2) Oxidoreductases and transferases
Hydrolases and Ligases
3) Hydrolases and Ligases
Oxidoreductases and transferases
4) Oxidoreductases and transferases
Ligases and Lyases
104. A round and yellow plant is crossed to a round and green plant and progeny produced have all four phenotypes in 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 ratio (round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green) respectively. Predict the genotypes of parents and choose the correct option. 1) RrYY RRyy
2) RrYy Rryy
3) RRYy Rryy
4) RRyy RRyy
105. Two genera are given below. In the genus A, its aerial roots possess multilayered dead epidermis with chlorenchymatous cortex. In the genus B, a whorl of leaves at each node possess multilayered epidermis with well developed chlorenchymatous palisade tissue on both sides of leaf. The two genera A and B respectively 1) Pisum and Taeniophyllum
2) Nerium and Pisum
3) Ficus and Taeniophyllum
4) Taeniophyllum and Nerium
106. The common character observed in members of Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae in Bentham and Hookers classification is 1) Inferior ovary
2) Superior ovary
3) Free petals
4) Fused petals
107. A cell organelle "A" produce polysaccharides, glycoproteins and glycolipids. A cell organelle "B" oxidize carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids and help in release of energy. A & B cell organelles respectively are 1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum
2) Golgi complex and Mitochondria
3) E. R and Chloroplasts
4) E.R and Mitochondria
108. A vascular element "A" is dead, cylindrical, lignified and conduct substances due to a negative pressure created in it due to transpiratory pull. A vascular element "B" is living, cylindrical, non lignified, enucleated and conduct substances due to a positive pressure created in it. A & B conducting elements respectively are 1) Xylem parenchyma & Sieve tubes
2) Xylem vessels & Sieve tubes
3) Sieve tubes & Xylem tracheids
4) Sieve tubes & Xylem vessels
109. An enzymatic reaction format occurring in respiration is given below
A B C D A = six carbon aldose sugar B = Nucleotide called energy currency C = Hexose 6 phosphate With the information provided to you, what could be the enzyme catalysing the above reaction and its enzyme code 1) Malic dehydrogenase, 2.7.1.2
2) Fructose 1, 6 di kinase, 2.7.1.2
3) Glucose isomerase, 2.7.1.2
4) Hexokinase, 2.7.1.2
110. Linkage is exhibited by 1) Genes that are located on homologous chromosomes 2) Genes that are located on same chromosome 3) Alleles of the same gene located on homologous chromosomes 4) Genes that are located on non homologous chromosomes 111. Choose the correct match 1) Probiotics
-
Salmonella, Methanobacillus
2) Biofertilisers
-
Spirulina, Chlorella
3) Therapeutic chemicals
-
Clostridium, Aspergillus
4) Bio control
-
Trichoderma, NPV, Dragon fly
112. Pick the incorrect match 1) Oxalis, strawberry
Runner
Rooted at each node
2) Pistia, Eichhornia
Offsets
One internodal length branch with respiratory roots and leaves at a node
3) Nerium, Jasminium
Stolon
Axillary branch bending downwards
4) Chrysanthemum, Ananas
Suckers
Underground branch moving upwards
113. Pick the wrong match Placentation
Placenta
Example
1) Marginal
Margins of ventral suture
Pisum
2) Axial
Axis formed due to fusion of many ventral sutures
Hibiscus
3) Free central
Central axis with bilocular or multilocular condition
Dianthus
4) Parietal
Inner wall of the ovary
Argemone
114. Pick the incorrect match 1) Rhizopus
Asexual endogenous sporangiospores
Bread preparation
2) Chlamydomonas
Motile asexual zoospores
Biflagellated gametes
3) Penicillium
Asexual exogenous conidiospores
Roquefort cheese and antibiotic
4) Cladophora
Isogamy
Biflagellated gametes
115. Bacterial transformation is 1) Discovered by F. Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae 2) Absorption of DNA from surroundings to recipient cell 3) Artificially induced by changing the permeability of host cell 4) All the above are correct 116. Choose the palindromic sequence in the following 1) 5' ACGTAC 3'
2) 5' GACCAG 3'
3) 5' AACGTC 3'
4) 5' ATTACG 3'
3' TGCATG 5'
3' CTGGTC 5'
3' TTGCAG 5'
3' TAATGC 5'
117. Plant 'A' exhibit apocarpy with many free carpels on conical thalamus. Plant 'B' exhibit syncarpy and is without style. Plant C exhibit syncarpy with five free stigmas. A, B and C respectively are 1) Michelia, Papaver, Hibiscus
2) Papaver, Michelia, Hibiscus
3) Hibiscus, Papaver, Michelia
4) Michelia, Hibiscus, Papaver
118. Read the following four statements and pick the incorrect match 1) Herbarium - Preserve only plant specimens 2) Museum - Preserve both plant and animal specimens in preservative solutions or in dry conditions 3) Botanical gardens - Live plant specimens grown for the purpose of identification 4) Manual - Information about any one taxon 119. Choose the incorrect match Genus
Fruit
Edible part
1) Annona (Annonaceae)
Aggregate of berries
Mesocarp and endocarp of fruitlet
2) Ananas (Bromeliaceae)
Sorosis
Peduncle, fleshy bracts
3) Artocarpus (Moraceae)
Syconus
Fleshy perianth
4) Pyrus (Rosaceae)
Pome
Fleshy thalamus
120. A linear double stranded DNA and a circular double stranded DNA, each with 4 target sites for a particular restriction endonuclease were cleaved with that enzyme. The number of fragments generated from linear and circular DNA respectively 1) 5 & 5
2) 5 & 4
3) 4 & 4
4) 4 & 5
121. The ratio between the number of male gametes and that of female gametes produced due to one meiotic division occurring in their respective spore mother cells is 1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 2 : 7 122. One of the following is not a benefit of symbiotic association of fungus namely Glomus in plants. What is it ? 1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil 2) Resistance to root - borne pathogens 3) Tolerance to salinity and drought 4) Nitrogen fixation 123. Choose the correct matches from the following 1) Red colour of Red sea - Trichodesmium 2) Red tides in Mediterranean sea - Gonyaulax 3) Red colour of red algae - r. phycoerythrin 4) All the above 124. Choose the correct sequence of genera that are characterised by palmella stage, coenobium, kelp body and strobilus respectively 1) Spirulina, Volvox, Fucus, Pinus 2) Euglena, Volvox, Fucus, Equisetum 3) Amoeba, Slime mould, Porphyra, Annona 4) Chara, Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas 125. Assign the floral diagrams and floral formula to their respective families
C K 5C5 A5 G 2
1) A-Brassicaceae B- Fabaceae C- Liliaceae
2) A - Solanaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae
3) A- Liliaceae, B- Fabaceae, C- Solanaceae
4) A- Liliaceae, B - Fabaceae, C- Brassicaceae
126. N- terminal and C- terminal ends are present in macromolecule A, reducing end and non reducing end are found in B, and 5' end and 3' end are found in macromolecule C. What does A, B, C respectively represent? 1) Polysaccharides
Proteins
DNA
2) Collagen
Cellulose
RNA
3) Chitin
DNA
Haemoglobin
4) Triglycerides
Polysaccharides
Nucleic acids
127. Permanent tissues may undergo ______ while secondary meristem form secondary permanent tissues by ____ 1) Differentiation, Redifferentiation
2) Differentiation, Dedifferentiation
3) Dedifferentiation, Redifferentiation
4) Redifferentiation, Differentiation
128. Sexual reproduction method in bacteria that provides the basis for understanding DNA as genetic material 1) Binary fission
2) Transformation
3) Conjugation
4) Transduction
129. What would be the ratio of number of ATP molecules required for the production of two molecules of NH3 in biological nitrogen fixation, six RUBP in regeneration phase of Calvin cycle and one molecule of fructose 1, 6 diphosphate in glycolysis. 1) 4 : 3 : 1
2) 4 : 6 : 1
3) 8 : 9 : 1
4) 16 : 6 : 0
130. The ratio of megasporophylls of modified reproductive shoots of mustard, pea, makoi and onion plants is 1) 6 : 10 : 5 : 6
2) 4 : 5 : 5 : 3
3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3
4) 16 : 21 : 17 : 15
131. A four carbon dicarboxylic acid that is an intermediate of C 4 pathway, CAM pathway and Kreb's cycle is 1) Aspartic acid
2) Oxalosuccinic acid
3) Malic acid
4) Succinic acid
132. A free floating hydrophyte with subaerial stem modification and a succulent xerophyte with aerial stem modification respectively are 1) Musa, Bryophyllum
2) Chrysanthemum, Casuarina
3) Eichhornea, Opuntia
4) Dioscorea, Asparagus
133. Succession that starts on a bare rock is an example for 1) Primary succession
2) Lithosere
3) Xerosere
4) All the above
134. Plant physiologist among the following scientists is 1) Carolus Von Linnaeus
2) G..N. Ramachandran
3) Sir J.C. Bose
4) M.S. Swaminathan
135. A genus with woody unbranched stem, spadix inflorescence, single seeded drupe fruit and endospermic seed is 1) Mangifera
2) Colacasia
3) Ricinus
4) Cocos
136. Given below is a pie chart showing relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming. What gases to the four portions (A – D) represent respectively?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Methane
B CFCs Methane Methane Carbon dioxide
C Methane N2O CFCs CFCs
D N2O CFCs N2O N2O
137. Coat colour in mouse (albino, agouti and black) is an example for (1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis (3) Complementary genes (4) Inhibitory genes 138. An example of in situ conservation is (1) Seed bank (3) In vitro fertilization
(2) Zoological park (4) Sacred groove
139. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called (1) Vulnerable species (2) Critically endangered species (3) Endemic species (4) Extinct species 140. Which of the following is an extinct subspecies of plains zebra that lived in South Africa until the 19th century? (1) Quagga (2) Thylacine (3) Caspian (4) Dodo 141. Select the taxon mentioned that represents only marine species. (1) Porifera (2) Cnidaria (3) Ctenophora
(4) Arthropoda
142. Hypostome is present in (1) Planaria (2)
(4) Euspongia
Obelia
(3) Aplysia
143. A marine cartilaginous fish that possesses a poison sting is (1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Labeo
Rough Work
(4) Trygon
144. Mark the correct statement about ozone. (1) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the ionosphere. (2) Bad ozone is formed in the mesosphere whereas good ozone is found in the thermosphere. (3) Bad ozone is formed in the stratosphere whereas good ozone is found in the troposphere. (4) Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere whereas good ozone is found in the stratosphere. 145. Choose the correctly matched pair. (1) Specialised connective tissue – areolar tissue (2) Dense regular connective tissue – tendon (3) Loose connective tissue – cartilage (4) Fluid connective tissue – bone 146. The following oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curves explain the effect of pH on oxygenaffinity of haemoglobin. Find out option that gives the correct descending order of pH for X, Y and Z.
(1) Z>Y>X
(2)
X>Z>Y
(3) Y>X>Z
(4) X>Y>Z
147. Choose the correctly matched pair. (1) Columnar epithelium – proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (2) Cuboidal epithelium – mucosa of stomach and intestine (3) Squamous epithelium – alveoli of lungs (4) Compound epithelium – bronchioles 148. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called (1) Facilitated transport (2) Active transport (3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport
Rough Work
149. About seven percent of carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs (1) As carbamino compounds through RBC (2) In a dissolved state through the plasma (3) As bicarbonate ions through RBC (4) As bicarbonate ions through the plasma 150. A person with ‘O’ type blood is considered universal donor because he has (1) Both anti-Aand anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma and has Aand B antigens on his RBC (2) Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in his blood plasma (3) Neither A nor B antigens on his RBC (4) Both A and B antigens on his RBC 151. Which enzymes are likely to act on sweet potatoes eaten by a man, starting from mouth as it moves down the alimentary canal? (1) Maltase Amylase Lactase (2) Lipase Trypsin Aminopeptidase (3) Salivary amylase Trypsin Invertase (4) Salivary amylase Pancreatic amylase Maltase 152. Muscles that help in the blood circulation in cockroach are (1) Alary muscles (2) Dorsal longitudinal muscles (3) Dorsoventral muscles (4) Ventral longitudinal muscles 153. The following figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it along with its characteristic.
(1) (2) (3) (3)
Blood cell Basophil Neutrophil Lymphocyte Monocyte
Characteristic Involved in inflammatory reactions The most abundant cells of total WBC Responsible for immune responses of the body Phagocytic and destroy foreign organisms
154. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system: (1) Fibrous joint - between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column (2) Cartilaginous joint – sutures between the cranial bones (3) Pivot joint – between carpal bones in the wrist (4) Saddle joint – between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
Rough Work
155. Identify the correct matching of a hormone with its source and function. (1) PTH – Parathyroid glands; decreases calcium levels in the blood (2) Melatonin – Pituitary gland; maintains sleep-wake cycle (3) Cortisol – adrenal cortex; carbohydrate metabolism (4) Renin – JG cells of efferent arteriole; increases GFR 156. Hypoglycemia stimulates the secretion of (1) Glucagon from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (2) Glucagon from alpha cells – It stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (3) Insulin from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis (4) Insulin from beta cells – It stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis 157. Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches. (1) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the bellyside part of its body. (2) Males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal cerci which are absent in females. (3) The mesothoracic wings are transparent, membranous and are used in flight. (4) Malpighian tubules remove urea from the haemolymph and release it into the hindgut. 158. Hormones produced in women only during pregnancy are (1) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH and LH (2) hCG, oxytocin and prolactin (3) Relaxin, oxytocin and progesterone (4) Human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and relaxin 159. Which of the following is a contraceptive that contains progesterone? (1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Saheli (4) Lippes loop 160. Active sites are unmasked when calcium binds with a subunit of (1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (3) Actin
(4) Myosin
161. A localized injury to the hypothalamus is not likely to affect (1) Eating (2) Drinking (3) Breathing
(4) Body temperature
162. Assisted reproductive technology, GIFT involves transfer of (1) Ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman who cannot produce one. (2) The zygote into the fallopian tube. (3) The early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the uterus. (4) Sperm from husband or a donor into the cytoplasm of the ovum.
Rough Work
163. A colour-blind man whose father was normal, marries a normal woman whose father was colour-blind. What percentage of the children of this couple are likely to be colour-blind? (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75% 164. In a population of 10,000 individuals, 6,400 individuals are of the genotype ‘AA’, 3,200 individuals are of the genotype ‘Aa’ and the remaining individuals are of the genotype ‘aa’. Based on this data, the frequency of the allele ‘A’ in the population is (1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8 165. A human with Down’s syndrome (1) Has the karyotype 47,XXY (2) Has an additional copy of chromosome 21 (3) Lacks one X chromosome and has rudimentary ovaries (4) Lacks one chromosome in the 21st pair 166. The sequencing and annotation of chromosome 1, the largest chromosome in the human genome, was completed in the year (1) 2006 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 1990 167. Eyes of octopus and of mammals are an example of (1) Vestigial organs (2) Homologous organs (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogous organs 168. Which drug is extracted from the plant shown below?
(1) Marijuana
(2)
Morphine
(3) Cocaine
(4) LSD
169. It is imperative, for the physical and psychological well-being, that the HIV/AIDS infected persons are not isolated from family and society because (1) There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms. (2) HIV is not spread by mere touch; it spreads only through body fluids. (3) Anti-retroviral drugs are available to cure the disease effectively. (4) AIDS is only a congenital disease and cannot be acquired during the life of a person.
Rough Work
170. Which of the following is an example of ‘escape in time’ from stressful environmental conditions? (1) A person moving from Delhi to Shimla for the duration of summer. (2) Change of the osmotic concentration of the body fluids in aquatic animals when the ambient water osmotic concentration changes. (3) Siberian cranes migrating to Keolado National Park in Rajasthan every winter. (4) Many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds entering diapause under unvavourable conditions. 171. The random unidirectional change in allelic frequencies that occurs by chance, especially in small populations is called (1) Mutation (2) Genetic recombination (3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift 172. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about (1) 30% (2) 50% (3) 10% (4)
60%
173. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation? (1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (2) Presence of adhesive organs (3) Loss of reproductive capacity (4) Loss of digestive system 174. Which of the following are barrier methods of contraception? (1) Condoms and intrauterine devices (2) Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults (3) Lippes loop, multiload-375, vaults and cervical caps (4) Vasectomy, tubectomy and coitus interruptus 175. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (1) Scala media is filled with endolymph. (2) At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the oval window. (3) Ampulla contains a projecting ridge called macula. (4) Organ of Corti contains hair cells covered by a tectorial membrane. 176. The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of (1) Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary (2) Oxytocin from the foetal pituitary (3) hCG from the placenta (4) hPL from the placenta
Rough Work
177. Given below is a simplified model of nitrogen cycle in an ecosystem with three blanks labelled X, Y and Z. Identify the blanks.
Options: X
Y
Z
(1)
NH3
NO3–
NO2–
(2)
N2
NO2–
NO3–
(3)
NH3
NO2–
NO3–
(4)
NO3–
NO2–
NH3
178. The vehicular emission control device that converts carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide is (1) Scrubber (2) Catalytic converter (3) Electrostatic precipitator (4) Incinerator 179. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain? Plant Mice Snake Peacock (1) 2 J (2) 0.2 J (3) 0.02 J (4) 0.002 J 180. Renal pyramids contain (1) Proximal convoluted tubules (3) Distal convoluted tubules
Rough Work
(2) Malpighian corpuscles (4) Loops of Henle
NEET PAPER -1 KEY SHEET PHYSICS 1)
2
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2
26)
3
27)
4
28)
4
29)
4
30)
4
31)
3
32)
1
33)
2
34)
1
35)
4
36)
1
37)
4
38)
3
39)
1
40)
2
41)
3
42)
1
43)
1
44)
1
45)
4
CHEMISTRY 46)
2
47)
1
48)
3
49)
1
50)
2
51)
3
52)
3
53)
4
54)
4
55)
2
56)
3
57)
2
58)
1
59)
2
60)
3
61)
4
62)
1
63)
1
64)
3
65)
4
66)
2
67)
3
68)
2
69)
2
70)
1
71)
2
72)
2
73)
1
74)
3
75)
4
76)
4
77)
2
78)
3
79)
3
80)
4
81)
1
82)
4
83)
2
84)
4
85)
4
86)
1
87)
1
88)
3
89)
2
90)
2
92)
4
93)
2
94)
4
95)
4
96)
3
97)
4
98)
3
99)
3
100) 1
BOTANY 91)
1
101) 3
102) 1
103) 1
104) 2
105) 4
106) 4
107) 2
108) 2
109) 4
110) 2
111) 1
112) 2
113) 3
114) 1
115) 4
116) 3
117) 1
118) 4
119) 3
120) 2
121) 3
122) 4
123) 4
124) 2
125) 3
126) 2
127) 3
128) 2
129) 3
130) 3
131) 3
132) 3
133) 4
134) 3
135) 4
136) 3
137) 1
138) 4
139) 2
140) 1
141) 3
142) 2
143) 4
144) 4
145) 2
146) 4
147) 3
148) 1
149) 2
150) 3
151) 4
152) 1
153) 2
154) 4
155) 3
156) 2
157) 1
158) 4
159) 1
160) 1
161) 3
162) 1
163) 3
164) 4
165) 2
166) 1
167) 4
168) 2
169) 2
170) 4
171) 4
172) 1
173) 3
174) 2
175) 3
176) 1
177) 3
178) 2
179) 2
180) 4
ZOOLOGY
NEET MODEL PAPER PHYSICS
Pattern of the Entrance Test:1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology) to be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only. The duration of paper would be 03 hours 2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score. 1.
2.
The dimensions of
h are same as that of (where h = planck's constant and e = charge) e
1) Magnetic field induction
2) Magnetic flux
3) Electric field strength
4) Elctric flux
A block A is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane with a rope which moves with velocity
as shown in figure. The velocity of the block on the plane 'u' is v
smooth
1) cos ec
2) s in
u
3) cos
ROUGH
4) sec
3. 4.
Find the value of p so that 2iˆ ˆj kˆ , iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ and 3iˆ pjˆ 5kˆ may be coplanar 1) -8 2) -4 3) 2 4) 4 A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at at right angles to each other, one with a velocity 2iˆ ms–1 and the other with a velocity 3 ˆj ms–1. If the explosion takes plece in 10–5s, the average force acting on the third piece in newton is 5 1) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 10
5.
5 2) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 10
5 4) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 10
A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A on frictionless hemispherical bowl as shown in figure. The ratio of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reaciton on the particle at any point B is
A
O
B
6.
5 3) 3 ˆj 2iˆ 10
R
1) 2/3 2) 1/2 3) 2/3 4) 4/5 A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity u from the point A as shown in fig. The height of the inclined plane is 5.4m and the top of the inclind plane is connected to a well of diameter 3.6m. the body just manages to cross the well. The value of u is ( g= 10ms–2)
v u
5.4m
450 3.6m 1) 20ms–1
2) 12ms–1
3) 30ms–1 ROUGH
4)54ms –1
7.
Two blocks, A of mass 1kg and another B of mass 2kg are shown in figure. A force of 5N is applied on A. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and horizontal surface is zero. Find the time taken for the front face of A to coincide with that of B: 4cm
5N
A B 8cm
8 3 s s 3) 4) 0.2s 3 8 When a body is moving vertically up with constant velocity, then match the following Column-I Column -II 1) Work done by lifting force is A) Negative 2) Total work done byall the forces is B) Positive 3) Work done by gravity C) Zero 4) Work done by lifting force + work done by gravity D) Higher positive values 1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - C 2) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A 3) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D 4) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D A ladder of length 6m and mass 40kg rests with its upper end against a smooth wall and lower end on rough ground. Find the minimum coefficient of friction between the ground and the ladder so that the ladder does not slip if the ladder makes an angel of 600 with the horizontal ( take g =10ms–2)
1) 2s 8.
9.
1 1 3 3) 4) 2 3 3 2 2 10. During the vapourization of some amount of water at 373K at atmospheric pressure which of the following statements is correct ? a) Work is done by the steam – water system on the atmosphere b) Work is done on the steam – water system by the atmosphere c) The internal energy of the steam – water system increases d) The internal energy of the steam – water system decreases 1. a, c only 2. b, d only 3. b, c only 4. a, d only
1)
1
2)
2)
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11.
Which of the following is not correct about the centre of mass? 1) It depends on the frame of reference 2) The angular momentum of a system about the centre of mass is always zero 3) Internal forces do not affect the motion of centre of mass 4) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre of gravity 12. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r ) and same mass are in contact on a billiard table. A third ball also of the same size and mass strikes them symmetrically and remains at rest after the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the balls is 1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/4 13. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth) from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height. 3 4 3 3) 4) 2 3 4 14. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a weight W is hanged from its lower end, in air, the wire extends by 16cm. When the weigth is completely immersed in water, the extension reduces to 12cm. Then the relative density of the material of the weigth is 1) 5gcm–3 2) 8gcm–3 3) 4gcm–3 4) 6gcm–3 15. A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.4 is submerged at a depth of 1.6m in a con-
1) 2/3
2)
g . 3 Then the time taken by the block to reach the surface when released with zero initial velocity is 1) 0.4s 2) 0.5s 3) 0.1s 4) 0.2s 16. When a liquid is poured, it insists to runs down the side of the can instead of falling straight down from the tip as shown in fig. This can be explained by
tainer containing water. The container is accelerated upward with an aceleration
1) Viscosity 3) Bernoulli's principle
2) Surface tension 4) Newton's third law of motion
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17. A flask with open mouth contains air at 270C. Find the temperature at which
2 th mass of 5
the air escapes the flask. 1) 2270C 2) 3000C 3) 2460C 4) 2730C 18. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material and having the same cross-section have lengths 10cm, 20cm and 10cm respectively. Their ends are at temperatures 600C, 600C and 00C as shown. Then the temperature of the junction D is 600C A C 0 10cm 0C
10cm B
D
20cm
600C
1) 300C 2) 360C 3) 500C 4) 400C 19. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas perform on cycle as shown. The gas temperat ur es i n dif f er ent st at es ar e T 1= 400K, T2= 800K, T3= 2400K & T4=1200K. The work done by the gas during the cycles is approximately. P 2 1
O
3
4
T
1) 10kJ 2) 20kJ 3) 30kJ 4) 15kJ 20. Assertion (A): Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of the gas Reason (R): Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas. 1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is flase but R is true 21. A particle performs SHM with a period of 16s. At time t=2s, the particle passes through origin (MP), while at t=4s, its velocity is 4ms-1. Its amplitude is ______ 32 2 1)
16 3 2)
24 2 3) 2
ROUGH
16 4) 2
22. Speed of sound is 320m/s and frequency of sound wave entering at A is 500Hz. No sound is heard at B as shown in fig. Then the length of the curved path curved path CDE may be D C
E B
A
1) 16cm
2) 32cm
3) 48cm
4) 88cm
23. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 9 109 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the radar. If the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 3 103 Hz, the speed with which the aircraft is approaching the radar in ms–1 [ Velocity of the radio signal = 3X108ms–1] 1) 150 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25 24. Two similar charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle of 300 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc, the angle remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid ? Given density of material of the spheres =1.6gm/cc. 1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5 25. The equipotential lines and their positions in x –y plane are shown in figure. Find electric field internsity in this region y 4V
300
5cm
30 0
8V
12V
30 0
x
10cm 15cm
1) 140 V/m 2) 160 V/m 3) 120 V/m 4) 180 V/m 26. An electrical dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis At a point P, far away from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y- axis. OP makes an angle with the x- axis then 1) tan 3
2) tan 2
3) 450
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4) tan
1 2
27. The LED, i.e., light emitting diode a) is made from Ge or Si c) is forward biased 1) a and b are correct 3) a, b and c are correct
b) is made from Ga As P d) is reverse biased 2) b and c are correct 4) a, b and d are correct
28. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of 1 1) 10
1 2) 11
11 3) 10
1 4) 9
29. Assertion (A): Free electrons in conductors do not acquire infinite velocity even after eE . m Reason (R): The velocity acquired by them becomes zero after every collision with the lattice sites 1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is flase but R is true 30. Resistance of potentiometer wire AB is 10 . This is in series with a battery of 5V and a resistance R 40 . The length of the potentiometer wire is 5m. The null point is obtained at 2m from the end A . Find emf 'E'.
infinite time though acceleration is a
5V
R 40
D
B
A
E
1) 2V 2) 0.2V 3) 20mV 4) 0.4V 31. A tightly wound long solenoid of the radius r metre and number of turns per metre equal to n, carries a current of i amp. A paticle of mass m and charge q projected from a point on its axis in a direction at right angle to its axis. Find the maximum velocity of the particle so that it may not touch the solenoid 1)
0 nqri m
2)
0 nqri 4m
3) ROUGH
0 mnri 2
4)
0 riq 2mn
32. A galvanometer of 25 resistance can read a maximum currect of 6mA. It can be used as a voltmeter to measure maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer. Identify the correct choice in the given answers. 1) 1025 in series 2) 1025 in parallel 3) 975 in series 4) 975 in parallel 33. When a current is passed in a circular coil, neutral point is found to be at its centre and BH at that place is 0.32 104 T . What will be the resultant magnetic field at the centre when the plane of the coil is turned though 900 ? 1) 0.32 104 T
2) 0.64 104 T 3) 0.45 104 T 4) 0.16 104 T 34. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have: 1) High retentivity and high coercivity 2) Low retentivity and high coercivity 3) High retentivity and low coercivity 4) Low retentivity and low coercivity 35. The loop PQ, as shwon in figure moves with a velocity . Both loop and velocity are in the plane of paper and a magnetic field B exists in the region perpendicular to plane and directed inward. Find the emf induced between P and Q. x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x x x P a A x x x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Q C b x x x
v r
1) B 2r
2) B a b 2r
3) B a b r
4) B r
36. In ac a.c circuit, the current flowing is i 5sin 100t / 2 A and the potential difference is V 200sin 100t V . The power consumption is equal to 1) 100W
2) 40W
3) 20W
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4) 0W
37. In the given circuit each one of the diodes D1 and D2 has forward resistance of 40 ohm and infinite backward resistance. Each one of the ammeters A1, A2 and A3 has internal resistance 5ohm. The readings of A1A2 and A3 are respectively A3 50
D1
75
A2
D2 100
A1
12V 1) 0.06A, Zero, 0.04A 3) 0.06A, Zero, 0.06A
2) Zero, 0.08A, 0.03A 4) 0.03A, 0.08A, Zero
38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by Ex= 0, E y =2.5
V m
[cos 2 106 rads 1 t 10 2 m 1 x] , Ez = 0, The wave is
1) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m 2) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m 3) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m 4) Moving along y-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m 39. An object is placed at a distance of 60cm from the lens. A convex mirror is placed as shown. The image thus formed coincides with the object. The focal length of the lens and mirror are 20cm and 12cm respectively. Find the distance between the lens and the convex mirror f=12cm X
60cm
1) 6cm 2) 12cm 3) 24cm 4) 30cm 40. A driver uses a lens of power –1.25D for driving a car . The distance of far point of his eye is: 1) 125cm 2) 62.5cm 3) 80cm 4) 150cm ROUGH
41. Modulation is required to a) Distinguish different transmissions b) Ensure that the information may be transmitted over long distances c) Allow the information accessible for different people 1) a and b are true 2) b and c are true 3) c and a are true 4) a, b and c are true 42. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observer directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distance and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone. The resultant intensity will be 1) (1/4) fold 2) (3/4) fold 3) (5/4) fold 4) (9/4) fold 43. A particle of mass m at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non– 1 zero velocities. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of the particles is 2 m1 1) m 2
m2 2) m 1
3) 1
4)
m2 m1
44. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 1.4kWm–2, if it falls on a perfect absorber of radius 2 metre? 1) 5.88 105 N 2) 108 N 3) 8.35 10 4 N 4) 8.8 108 N 45. If the series limit of lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of Balmer series for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom is 1) 1
2) 2
3) 4
ROUGH
4) 8
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ? 1) 1s 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 5f 47. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The partial pressure of H2 is 1) 4.8 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 5 atm 4) 7.5 atm 48. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ? 1) 3 times dilution 2) 3 times concentration 3) 100 times concentration 4) 1000 times dilution 49. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C). Calculate the entropy change in the condensation process. 1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1 3) 240 JK-1 mol-1 4) -240 JK-1 mol-1 50. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for 1) increasing hardness 2) decreasing setting time 3) increasing setting time 4) making is soft 51. AlCl3 and FeCl3 can be separated from their mixture by using 1) NH4OH 2) NaOH 3) H2O 4) magnetic method 52. Which of the following are correct w.r.t D2O? 1) It can be used as moderator 2) Its m.p. is 3.820C 3) Its b.p. is 101.420C 4) All of these 53. 0.5 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 have boiling points T1, T2 and T3 respectively. Which of the following is correct ? 1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T3 > T2 > T1 3) T2 > T1 > T3 4) T1 > T3 > T2 54. i) P Q A fast ii) A R B slow iii) B Q S T fast are the elementary steps of the reactions, 2P Q 2R S T
The rate law of the reaction is: 1) r = k [P] [Q]
2
2) r = k [P] [Q] [R]
3
3) r k P 1/2 Q R 1/3 4) r k P Q R
55. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nessler’s reagent. The formula of brown compound is : 1) K2HgI4
2) H 2 N Hg O Hg I
3) Ca 3P2 CaC2
4) NH 4 2 MoO 4
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56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ? 1) XeF4
2) BF4
3) SF4
4) SiF4
3) t 02g e g22
4) t12g eg21
57. If P 0 , the d4 is represented as 0 1 ) t 211 2g e g
1 2) t111 2g e g
58. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copper exists as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is : 1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light 2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light 3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red light takes place 4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place 59. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a
p-type semiconductor? 1) As 2) P
3) In
4) Sb
60. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of 1) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 and C6 H 5CH CH 2 2) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH CH CH 2 3) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH C CH 2 | CH 3 Cl | 4) CH 2 CH C CH 2 and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
61. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of the of the substance is 1) 24g 2) 53.78g 3) 50g 4) 100g
ROUGH
62. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back to K as shown K
L
N
M V
P
The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is 1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K 63. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then 1) x > y
2) x < y
3) x = y
4) uncertain
64. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is – 328kJ mol–1. The energy of the third Bohr's orbit of H is 1) – 583.11kJ mol–1 2) – 853.11kJ mol–1 3) – 145.78 kJ mol–1 4) – 511.83kJ mol–1 65. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ? 1) N 2 , O2 , NO , CO 2) C 22 ,O2 , CO, NO 3) NO , C 22 , CN , N 2 4) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22 66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expected from theory ? CH3
F
Cl
CH3
1)
OH
2)
Cl
3)
4) All of these
67. The reaction , C 6 H 6 (l )
15 O 2 g 6CO 2 g 3H 2 O(l ) is spontaneous, then which of the following is 2
correct ? 1) H TS 2) H TS 3) H TS 4) H 0 and S 0 68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as 2AB g B2 g 2AB2 g
The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is 1) 2K p / P
1/3
2) 2K p / P
1/ 2
3) K p / P
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4) 2K p / P
69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then 1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same 3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral 3) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral 70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Addition of 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of A and B in pure state are respectively 1) 100 and 100 mm Hg 2) 100 and 80 mm Hg 3) 60 and 140 mm Hg 4) 140 and 60 mm Hg 71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolveed is 1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 3.0 72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct? a) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E1
b) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 10.0M Cu; E 2
c) Zn Zn 2 10.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E 3 1) E1 E 2 E3
2) E3 E 2 E1
3) E 2 E1 E3
4) E1 E 2 E 3
Slope=k
2)
Conc.
Conc.
1)
Rate
73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?
Time
3)
log [A]
log[A]0 Intercept constant -k Slope=2.303
4) All represent 1st order reaction
Time
74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards
anode. The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solutions. Their coasgulating power should be 1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3
2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl
4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
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75. Which is wrongly reported ? 1) Spelter : impure zinc 2) Pig iron : impure iron 3) Sphalerite : ZnO 4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper 3 3 76. 100 cm of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm of O2 at STP. The given sample is 1) 10 volume H2O2 2) 100 volume H2O2 3) 10% H2O2 (W/V) 4) 2.786N 77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of the following is correct ? 1) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO3 2) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3 3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high 4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low 78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ? 1) Me3SiCl 2) PhSiCl3 3) MeSiCl3 4) Me 2SiCl 2 3 79. In PO 4 , the bond order of P– O bond and formal charge on O – atom are, respectively 1) 0.25, – 0.25 2) 0.50, – 0.50 3) 1.25, – 0.75 4) 0.75, – 1.25 Na CO /air Y .X and Y aree 80. Chormite ore X fuse 1) Cr2O3 and Na 2Cr2 O 7 2) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 Cr2 O7 3) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 CrO 4 4) Cr2O3 and Na 2CrO 4 81. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following compounds? 2
3
O
1)
2)
N
NH2 C
NH2
3)
4) All of these
NH2
82. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation 1) O2N
CH2
2)
CH2
3) CH3
CH2
4) CH3O
CH2
83. How are the following related ? CH3
CH2
CH2
I) III)
N
CH3
CH3
II)
H
CH3
CH2
CH2
CH2
1) I and II are position isomers 3) I, II and III are metamers
CH2
N
CH3
CH3
NH2
2) I and III are chain isomers 4) I, II and III are functional isomers
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84. Ozonolysis is of
(using H2O/Zn) produces O ||
1) HCHO OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 2) HCHO OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO O ||
3) CO 2 H 2 O OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 4) H 2 O CO 2 OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO 85. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?
.
. hv 1) Cl Cl 2Cl
.
2) CH 4 C l C H 3 HCl
.
.
.
3) C H 3 Cl2 CH 3Cl Cl
.
4) C H3 C H 3 CH3 CH 3
86. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed by polymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in 1) Orthopedic devices
2) Making capsules
3) Post operative stitches
4) Photo films
87. CH 3 CH OH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 andCH 3 CH 2 CHOH CH 2 CH 3 can be distinguished by 1) HCl / ZnCl2
3) KMnO 4 / H
2) Br2 / CCl4
4) I2 / NaOH
AlCl3 2 Cl CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 P Q Phenol iiH O i O /
88.
3
The major product P and Q are
1)
3)
and CH3-CH2-CHO
and CH3COCH3
2)
4)
and CH3-CH2-CHO
and CH3-CH2-CHO
89. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ? 1) Br2 water 2) Benedict solution 3) Tollens'reagent 4) All of these 90. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is 1) KMnO4 2) MnO2 3) Oxalic acid 4) MnSO4 ROUGH
BOTANY
91. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in 1) Protista
2) Algae
3) Plantae
4) Monera
92. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups 1) Fungi
2) Animalia
3) Monera
4) Plantae
93. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D in that
a)
b)
1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore 2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore 3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore 4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore 94. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option. A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence 2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm 3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous 1) A and B are true but C is false
2) A and C are true but B is false
3) B and C are false but A is true
4) B and C are true but A is false
95. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda, Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera 1) Four
2) Two
3) Three
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4) Five
96. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus 1) Vanda
2) Monstera
3) Banyan
4) Taeniophyllum
97. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is 1) Spine
2) Trichome
3) Thorn
4) Prickle
98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called 1) Phyllode
2) Phylloclade
3) Bulbils
4) Cladode
99. Find the correct match: 1) Mustard plant
: leaves are opposite
2) Guava plant
: leaves are alternate
3) Nerium plant
: leaves are whorled
4) Calotropis plant
: leaves are alternate
100. Which of the following is not a tendril climber 1) Smilax
2) Pisum
3) Grape vine
4) Bean
101. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is 1) Thalamus
2) Peduncle
3) Bracts
4) Ovary
102. A character not applicable to chinarose is 1) Alternate phyllotaxy 2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower 3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower
4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence
103. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively
1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal
2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal
3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile
4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal ROUGH
104. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in 1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber
2) Apple, cucumber, citrus
3) Tomato, grapes, guava
4) Guava, apple, cucumber
105. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from 1) Synergids
2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3) Antipodal cells
4) Diploid egg
106. Incorrect statement among the following 1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion 2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion 3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion 4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion 107. Which of the following is wrongly matched: 1) Aloe - medicine
2) Sesbania - green manure
3) Thorn apple - fumigatory
4) Asparagus - vegetable
108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ? 1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane 2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms 3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule 4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule. 109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primary structure a hypothetical protein OH C H 2C O O H
CH 2
SH
C H 2O H
CH 2
CH 2
CH 2
HN CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO n-2
n-1
n
n+ 1
1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid 3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid ROUGH
110. What is true about ribosomes 1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient 2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein 3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells 4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes 111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition is known as 1) S-Phase
2) G2-Phase
3) M-Phase
4) G0-Phase
112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D
1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma 2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell 3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell 4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma 113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession 1) It begins on a bare rock
2) It occurs on a deforested site
3) It follows primary succession 4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession 114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is put in 0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solution the size will 1) Increase
2) Decrease
3) Remain same
4) Can't be said
3) mesophytes
4) halophytes
115. Stomata open at night in 1) hydrophytes
2) Succulents
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116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively
A
B
C
D
1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source 2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink 3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water 4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater 117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens 1) Feed back inhibitors
2) Non competitive inhibitors
3) Competitive inhibitors
4) Allosteric inhibitors
118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because 1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells 2) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2 3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products 4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase 119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of electrons to P700 is 1) Cyt f
2) PC
3) PQ
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4) Fd
120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B, C, D parts labelled in it H+ NADP+
B
C
A
NADPH
H 2O H+ +
H
H+ H+
Lumen
Thylakoid membrane Stroma D ADP
A
ATP
B
C
D
1) Photosystem –I
Cytochrome b and f
Photosystem –II
ATP synthase
2) Photosystem–II
cytochrome b and f
Photosystem –I
CF0
3) Photosystem –II
Cytochrome b and f
Photosystem –I
ATP synthase
4) Photosystem –II
ATP synthase
Photosystem–I
CFI
121. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of one glucose molecule is 1) 30ATP, 12NADPH+H+
2) 12ATP, 6NADPH+H+
3) 18ATP, 12NADPH+H+
4) 30ATP, 18NADPH+H+
122. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substrate phosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm and matrix) 1) 34
2) 32
3) 30
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4) 24
123.
G lucose
A NA D +
N A D H + H+
3 PG A NA D +
C
NADH+
D C O 2 +H 2 O
Pyruvic acid
N AD H +H + NAD+ B +CO 2
A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration are A
B
C
D
1)
PGAL
Lactic acid
Ethanol
Aerobic respiration
2)
1,3 bis PGA
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Krebs cycle
3)
G-3-P
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Aerobic respiration
4)
F, 1,6 bis P
Ethanol
Lactic acid
Aerobic respiration
124. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as 1) Lophotrichous
2) Monotrichous
3) Amphitrichous
4) Peritrichous
125. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he concluded that 1) These is no independent assortment of traits 2) These is no dominance of any trait 3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait 4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
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126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive 1) One pair of alleles
2) One quarter of the genes
3) One of the paired alleles
4) Any pair of alleles
127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross 1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations 2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations 128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of 1) Biotechnology
2) Biomonitoring
3) Bioinformatics
4) Biosystematics
129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is 1) DNA modification
2) DNA amplification
3) DNA replication
4) DNA visualisation
130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answer Colum –I
Colum –II
A. UUU
1. Serine
B. GGG
2. Methionine
C. UCU
3. Phenylalanine
D. CCC
4. Glycine
E. AUG
5. Proline
1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2
2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-2
3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2
4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
131. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are 1) Frame shift mutation
2) Base pair substitution
3) Both a and b
4) None of these
132. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which 1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule 2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase 3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase 4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule ROUGH
133. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product 1) Yeast - statins 2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid 3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
134. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein 1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry 2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin 3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest 4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it 135. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer 1) Nostoc
2) NPV
3) Rhizobium
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4) Glomus
ZOOLOGY
136. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during night time because the 1) patients do not feel much pain 2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time 3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity 4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time 137. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it 1)acts as amphetamine
2)stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids
3)causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4)interferes with the transport of dopamine 138. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria? 1)Splenomegaly
2)Hypertrophy of RBC
3)Cirrhosis of liver
4)Anaemia
139. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are 1)claws and arolium
2)pulvillus and bristles of podomeres
3)plantulae on tarsus
4)plantulae, claws
140. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana from the following 1)Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid 2)Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore 3)Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores 4)Nourishes the sperms 141. In a biological community Gauses principle explains 1)competition among different species under unlimited resources 2)competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources 3)coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning 4)intra specific competition due to limited natural resources 142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in 1)Ladakh region
2)Himalayan region
3)Deccan plateau
4)Western ghats
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143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as 1)phototaxis
2)photoperiodism
3)photokinesis
4)phototropism
144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the two kingdoms bacteria and archebacteria is 1)Fungi
2)Protista
3)Monera
4)Metaphyta
145. Identify the correct match from the following 1)Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa 2)Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers 3)Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat 4)Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation 146. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the 1)mucosa lining of gut
2)lining of alveoli of lungs
3)umbilical chord of newly born infants 4)walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles 147. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of 1)intercalated discs
2)branched muscle fibres and communication junctions
3)specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres 4)numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules 148. Identify the correct combination from the following Scientific name
Respiratory organs Excretory organs
1)Astacus
Dermal branchiae
Green glands
2)Aplysia
Ctenidia
Meta nephridia
3)Aphrodite
Parapodia
Protonephridia
4)Ascidian
Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland
149. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is 1)Gorgonocephalus 2)Thyone
3)Clypeaster
4)Antedon
150. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following 1)Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia 2)They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin 3)Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature 4)Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ ROUGH
151. Identify the correct match from the following 1)Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall
2)Corvus-Urinary bladder present
3)Cervus-Intra abdominal testes
4)Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae
152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following 1)Land leech
2)Land snail
3)Desert fox
4)Camel
153. Incorrect match from the following 1)Paneth cells-lysozyme
2)Schawnn cells-myelin sheath
3)Dendritic cells-afferent neurons
4)Mast cells-inflammation
154. Which of the following is an exotic carp? 1)Tunas
2)Common carp
3)Cat fish
4)Oil sardine
155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an 1)sex influenced trait
2)holandric character
3)sexlinked dominant trait
4)autosomal recessive character
156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to 1)confirm the pregnancy
2)determin the sex of the foetus
3)detect the chromosomal abnormalities
4)findout the correct position of foetus
157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings? 1)Down syndrome
2)Turner's syndrome
3)Kline felter syndrome
4)Patau syndrome
158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only if the blood groups of the parents are 1)A and B
2)AB and AB
3)AB and O
4)O and A or B
159. Correct match from the following 1)Mutation theory-Bateson
2)Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer
3)Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace
4)Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel
160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objects was named 1)Australopithecus
2)Homo neanderthalensis
3)Homo habilis
4)Homo erectus
ROUGH
161. Incorrect match from the following 1)MRI-aneurysm
2)EEG-epilepsy
3)PSA test-cervical cancer
4)PCR-HIV detection
162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by 1)Edward Jenner
2)Alexander Fleming 3)Louis Pasteur
4)Jonas Salk
163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of 1)common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2)common bile duct and pancreatic duct 3)cystic duct and common hepatic duct
4)infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube
164. Adenoids are present in 1)nasopharynx
2)oropharynx
3)below the tongue
4)laryngophrynx
165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of 1)first month
2)24 weeks
3)first trimester
4)8 weeks
166. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in testes are called 1)Kupffer cells
2)Leydig cells
3)Sertoli cells
4)Oxyntic cells
167. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the 1)true vocal folds and false vocal cords
2)true vocal cords and arytenoids
3)corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4)arytenoids and thyroid cartilages 168. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the 1)bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae 2)inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles 3)release of vasodilator substances due to allergens 4)deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs 169. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneath endocardium are called 1)Chorde tendinae
2)Papillary muscles 3)Purkinje fibres
4)Columnae carneae
170. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the opening of 1)coronary sinus
2)superior venacava
3)inferior venacava
4)right atrioventricular aperture ROUGH
171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions? 1)Parathormone and calcitonin
2)Somatocrinin and somatostatin
3)Cortisol and Catecholamines
4)Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide
172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of 1)tryptophan
2)tyrosine
3)glycoproteins
4)eicosanoids
173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by 1)saccule and utricle
2)ampullae and cristae
3)maculae and vestibule
4)semicircular canals and otolith organ
174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the 1)atria and ventricles in heart
2)paracoels and diocoel in brain
3)3rd and 4th ventricles of brain
4)right and left ventricles of heart
175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of 1)symphysis and synarthrosis
2)synchondrosis and syndesmosis
3)diarthrose and syndesmosis
4)symphysis and amphiarthrosis
176. Hensen's disc is 1)part of primitive streak
2)part of sarcomere made of only myosin
3)primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord 4)bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast 177. Autoimmune disease from the following 1)Glomerulo nephritis
2)Osteo arthritis
3)Rheumatoid arthritis
4)Meningitis
178. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phase of 1)depolarisation
2)repolarisation
3)hyperpolarisation
4)polarisation
179. In kidneys, renal columns are made of 1)renal calyces
2)medullary pyramids
3)renal cortex
4)renal papillae
180. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part of nephron 1)Proximal convoluted tubule
2)Distal convoluted tubule
3)Henle's loop
4)Collecting duct ROUGH
NEET PAPER – 2 KEY SHEET PHYSICS
1)
2
2)
1
3)
2
4)
2
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3
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2
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4
8)
1
9)
1
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18) 2
19) 2
20) 2
21) 1
22) 4
23) 3
24) 3
25) 2
26) 2
27) 2
28) 4
29) 1
30) 4
31) 1
32) 3
33) 3
34) 4
35) 2
36) 4
37) 3
38) 2
39) 1
40) 3
41) 4
42) 4
43) 3
44) 1
45) 2
CHEMISTRY
46) 1
47) 3
48) 4
49) 2
50) 3
51) 2
52) 4
53) 2
54) 4
55) 2
56) 3
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58) 4
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73) 4
74) 3
75) 3
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90) 4
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94) 4
95) 2
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97) 3
98) 4
99) 3
100) 4
BOTANY
91) 1
101) 1 102) 4
103) 2 104) 4
105) 2 106) 4
107) 3 108) 1
109) 4 110) 2
111) 4 112) 2
113) 2 114) 2
115) 2 116) 1
117) 3 118) 4
119) 2 120) 3
121) 3 122) 1
123) 3 124) 1
125) 4 126) 3
127) 4 128) 3
129) 2 130) 1
131) 3 132) 1
133) 3 134) 4
135) 4
137) 4
138) 3 139) 3
140) 3 141) 2
142) 2 143) 3
144) 3 145) 4
146) 3 147) 4
148) 2 149) 2
150) 4 151) 4
152) 2 153) 3
154) 2 155) 3
156) 3 157) 2
158) 3 159) 2
160) 3 161) 3
162) 3 163) 2
164) 1 165) 3
166) 3 167) 2
168) 4 169) 3
170) 3 171) 3
172) 4 173) 4
174) 2 175) 4
176) 2 177) 3
178) 3 179) 3
180) 3
ZOOLOGY
136) 3
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