Module 5
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Module 5 DIGITAL TECHNIQUES ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
2
Electronic Instrument Systems 1.
Typical displays on an EHSI are
*
VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude Engine indications
2.
EADI displays show pitch, roll and waypoints
*
pitch and roll attitudes heading and weather radar
3.
ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in green
*
magenta cyan
4.
The two sets of flight regulations that a pilot may fly by are
*
VFR and IFR VHF and IFR VFR and IFU
5. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an approach. The aircraft must At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the fly up EADI display until, at touch down, it touches the bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the Rising Runway start to move down again it * fly down means that the aircraft is climbing and should FLY DOWN hold descent path 6.
What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format? Airspeed, pitch and roll Direction, altitude and height
*
Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction
7.
An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured
*
magenta red cyan
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Module 5
3 8.
An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll
*
autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator
9.
On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on the EADI
*
the EHSI the FMC CDU
10.
An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude
*
decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude
11.
An electronic flight instrument display consists of;
*
Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI ADI, HSI and Symbol generator
12.
EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby
* one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the information being displayed one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display 13.
A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the following:
*
Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser
14.
What is the fixed feature of an ADI? The lateral deviation bar
*
The aircraft symbol The glideslope pointer
15.
What functions are available on the EHSI?
*
Full arc, Wx and Map Mode
Full arc and Wx only Raju Poulose
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Module 5
4 Full Arc only 16.
On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show
*
the required path with respect to the actual path the actual path with respect to the required path the path with respect to the horizon
17. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned below the glideslope *
above the glideslope
Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the pointer as the centre of the G/S beam
to the left of the localiser 18.
What does ECAM mean? Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System
*
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System
19.
What does EICAS mean? Electronic indicator and crew alerting system Electronic indicator and control alerting system
*
Engine indicating and Crew alerting system
20.
In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot all instrument information is displayed on the windshield
*
the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a transparent plate
21.
On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as
*
red areas with black surrounds orange areas with black or yellow surrounds blue areas with white background
22.
If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is
*
above the glideslope on the glideslope below the glideslope
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
5 23.
Engine parameters are displayed on EHSI FMSCDU
*
ECAM
24.
A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of right (captain) and left (co-pilot)
could be either, as most helicopters are the other way round when compared to aeroplanes
left (captain) and right (co-pilot) *
either left (captain) and right (co-pilot), or right (captain) and left (co-pilot)
25.
The EFIS system consists of
*
EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI
26.
With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs? ADF and VOR ADF and ILS
*
ILS and VOR
27.
During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT flight phase page synoptic display
*
secondary engine parameters
28.
What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display? Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers
*
Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude and autoland Compass heading, selected heading and VOR
29.
What does EFIS mean? Electronic Fire Indication Signal
*
Electronic Flight Instrument System Electronic Flight Information System
30.
On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed on
*
ECAM FMS
Raju Poulose
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Module 5
6 EFIS 31. In a basic 'T' configuration *
the ASI appears on the left and the Altimeter appears on the right the ADI appears on the left and the HSI appears on the right the ADI appears on the left and the ASI appears on the right
32. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway? *
EADI ECAM EHSI
33. In an EIS (Electronic Instrument System), what does EAD stand for? *
Engine and Alert Display Electronic Attitude Display Electronic Alert Display
34. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system *
on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator on the RMI on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator
35. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except *
plan arc nav rose
36. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels *
so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum
Numbering Systems 1. 101012 + 110012 = 468 462 *
4610
Raju Poulose
101012 + 110012 = 1011102 = 4610 Kuwait Airways
Module 5
7 2. The Binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number 19 *
21 35
3. The decimal number 37 is represented by the octal number 37 *
45 54
4. Convert 0111012 to octal 25 33 *
011=1x21 +1x20 =2+1=3 and 101=1x22 +1x20 =4+1=5. Ie 35.
35
5. F80 hexadecimal converts to binary 3968 101100000001 *
111110000000
F80, F=15, ie 15=1111, 8=1000, 0=0000
6. What is hex 110 in decimal? *
272
1x162 +1x161 +0x160 =256+16=272
282 32 7. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal 11 *
12
1x23 +1x22 +0x21 +0x20 =8+4=12
16 8. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is *
digital binary analogue
9. Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal *
14
1x23 +1x22 +1x21 +0x20 =8+4+2=12
15 Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
8 12 10. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal. 34 80 *
50
1x25 +1x24 +0x23 +0x22 +1x21 +0x20 =32+16+2=50
11. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal. 15 14 *
13
12. Convert decimal 15 into binary. 1110 1101 *
1111
1x23 +1x22 +1x21 +1x20 =8+4+2+1=15
13. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal. G *
F E
14. What is 345 in binary? *
101011001
1x28 +0x27+1x26+0x25 +1x24 +1x23 +0x22 +0x21 +1x20=256+64+16+8+1=345
100111001 110011001 15. A hexadecimal is a number to base 2 *
16 8
16. 1012 converted to decimal is 52 210 *
510
17. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is 1012 Raju Poulose
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Module 5
9 *
1112 72
18. Convert 011101 binary to octal. 25 *
35 33
19. Binary Number: 110010 is *
50 80 34
20. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is 107 53 *
215
21. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is 613 *
513 713
22. What is 0111000012 in Octal? *
3418 28110 2258
23. The binary number 10101000111001012 in hexadecimal is FFFF16 *
A8E516 22BC16
24. A computer message 3B4 is binary *
hexadecimal octa
25. 2D in decimal is Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
10 43 41 *
45
D=13, 2x161 +13x160 =45
26. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is *
54
84 binary=1010100 ie in hexadecimal, 101=5 and 0100=4 ie54.
5f f4 27. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to 48 38 *
22
28. Decimal 10 converted to binary is 1001 1111 *
1010
29. What systems uses base 10? Octal Digital *
Decimal
30. What systems use base 16? BCD *
Hexadecimal Octal
31. What is used for the base of 10? Digital Octal *
Decimal
32. What is 44 in hexadecimal? *
2c
(2 x 16) + (12 x 1) = 44 (c = 12)
2d 2F Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
11 33. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be 110 111 101 011 *
111 111
34. In a computer, the address 3B8 is octal decimal *
hexadecimal
35. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary? 1011111 *
1011100 1110100
36. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is 12E *
315 205
37. What is the binary notation for 29? 0001 0110 0010 1001 *
0001 1101
Data Conversion 1.
In A/D conversion, a signals bandwidth represents
*
the maximum frequency range occupied by a signal the frequency of a signal the minimum frequency range occupied by a signal
2.
What does 1 represent in an analogue system? High frequency Switches open, unmagnetised
*
Switches closed, magnetised
3.
Analogue logic 1 is
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
12 *
closed circuit, Logic Q=1 closed switch, Logic Q=0 open circuit
4.
An A to D converter uses successive approximation to increase resolution
*
increase speed increase accuracy
5. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue input and then back down when this is reached is a *
a ramp type converter successive approximation counter flash type converter
6.
Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted from
*
analogue to digital digital to analogue position feedback to rate feedback
7.
The advantage of digital sound over analogue sound is greater selectivity
*
minimal error and noise the narrow bandwidth allows it to copy exactly
8. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading. This voltage can be converted to 'bits' by using a commutator digital to analogue converter *
analogue to digital converter
9.
An R-2R Converter has values of resistance whose precision are accurate
*
whose precision are not accurate whose relative precision are accurate
10.
Audio sounds recorded digitally
*
are superior quality and greater bandwidth are narrow bandwidth
Raju Poulose
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Module 5
13 are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors 11.
What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion? Single ramp method Voltage to frequency
*
Flash converter
12.
A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of rotation is
*
analogue maximum value digital
13.
An R-2R D to A converter uses resistors whose values are logarithmic
*
two values of resistors whose precision is not important two values of precision resistors
14.
An ADC uses successive approximation to increase resolution
*
increase speed increase accuracy
15.
Digital signals can be represented
*
by a series of integers only as a binary value by real numbers
16.
If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is digital synchronous This is the definition of an analogue signal
*
analogue
17.
In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors
*
do not need to be of precise values are precise only the first resistor need to be precise
18.
Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft are
*
analogue
Raju Poulose
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Module 5
14 digital binary
Data Buses 1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to transmit all at the same time *
to transmit one at a time so that one transmits and one receives
2. The maximum number of terminals connecting to a MIL-STD-1553B databus is 120 20 *
31
3. How is the data transmitted on an ARINC 429 bus? *
Asynchronous and serial Asynchronous and parallel Synchronous and parallel
4. What is a parity bit used for on an ARINC429 bus? Synchronization Data word *
Fault/self check
5. A bus which supports the transfer of data in both directions is referred to as Asynchronous *
Bidirectional Universal
6. The maximum data rate supported MIL-STD-1553 is 12.5 Kbps *
1 Mbps 100 Kbps
7. Manchester II encodes logic 1 with a voltage transition from *
a high to low state a specific voltage value
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Module 5
15 a low to high state 8. The maximum data rate supported by the FDDI bus is 1 Mbps *
100 Mbps 10 Mbps
9. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with ARINC 629 standard ARINC 429 standard *
ARINC 636 standard
10. The ARINC 429 data word is 16 bits long *
32 bits long 64 bits long
11. ARINC 629 databus is *
two cables, bi directional two cables, uni-directional one cable, bi-directional
12. The ARINC 429 standard uses *
odd parity checking no parity checking even parity checking
13. ARINC 629 runs at a baud rate of 50 kBaud 100 kBaud *
2000 kBaud
14. An ARINC 573 data bus is used to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI *
to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit
15. An ARINC 429 bus uses
The FDR can have different inputs depending upon the age of the system, modern systems use ARINC 573. The inputs to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet and ARINC 429. The interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429
a single twin wire cable for each transmitter Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
16 *
a twisted shielded pair of wires two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires
16. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use decimal numbering hexadecimal numbering *
binary coded decimal
17. ARINC 573 is related to what system? *
FDR Weather Radar INS
18. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are resistive *
inductive capacitive
19. ARINC 629 databus is *
one bus, bi-directional data flow two buses, bi-directional data flow two buses, unidirectional
20. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in order of shortest to largest TI *
power up shortest to largest TG
21. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the destination LRU address message *
monitored parameter
22. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for *
Digital Information Transfer System Flight Data Recorders Inertial Reference System
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
17 23. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation database loads *
normal operation
24. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus? *
By an inductive pickup By a capacitive pickup By a resistive pickup
25. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus? Through the bus controller *
SSIFU (sub-system interface unit) R1 (remote terminal)
26. The parity bit in digital information is used *
to check the validity of data information for BITE programs to check the status of the system
27. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits 1-8 *
9 - 10 32
28. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus? To delay the signal To act as a terminal gap in an emergency *
To check for corruption during transmission of a word
29. An ARINC 429 word label format is *
octal binary hexadecimal
30. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus? 120 *
20
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Kuwait Airways
Module 5
18 60 31. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is when all transmissions are quiet *
common to each terminal unique to each terminal
32. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses hexadecimal numbering decimal numbering *
binary coded decimal
33. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits *
11 - 29
Two versions of ARINC 429. BCD uses 11 - 29, Binary uses 11 - 28.
11 - 28 1-8 34. An ARINC 429 system uses a 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus *
32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
35. An ARINC 629 characteristic is *
data can transmit in both directions down the data bus all LRUs can transmit at the same time all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time
36. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus? *
The parallel input impedance The speed and size The weight
37. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by non return to zero bi-polar return to zero *
Manchester bi-phase
38. How are engine indications sent to the FDR? *
Via ARINC 573
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Module 5
19 Source isolated Via ARINC 629 39. What system uses base 8? ARINC 629 *
ARINC 429, in dataword labels only ARINC 573
40. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode couplers per data bus is *
120
120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46)
46 64 41. To connect an LRU to an ARINC 629 data bus a terminal controller and interface module only is required current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required *
a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is required
42. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to provide effective screening of the signal through the current-mode coupler *
couple the signal to the data bus enable easy access for monitoring of the signal
43. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is 100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second *
12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second 12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/second
44. What is the highest speed in ARINC 429? *
100 kbps 2 Mbps 100 bps
45. What is the slowest speed for ARINC 429? 10 kbps 100 kbps *
12.5 kbps
46. Where is the pass and fail of an ARINC 429 code indicated? Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
20 *
SSM field SDI field Label field
47. What is the encoding method used in ARINC 429? Bipolar NRZ *
Bipolar RZ Manchester coding
48. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with a 130 ohm resistor at one end *
a 130 ohm resistor at both ends a 230 ohm resistor at one end
49. How many voltage levels does ARINC 429 have? *
3 1 2
50. An ARINC 629 stub cable *
connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler connects bi-directional data between two LRUs connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler
51. Care must be taken when installing ARINC 629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables can cause arcing of high voltage signals standing waves *
corrosion of the conductor
52. An aircraft databus system cannot use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses. *
can use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal gateways can use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
53. ARINC 629 is used for a backup to ARINC 429 *
normal flight emergency only
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
21 54. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long before transmitting again? Until the start of the terminal gap *
Until the end of the transmit interval Until the end of the synchronization gap.
55. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429? *
Octal 01100001 Binary 11000110 Decimal 206
56. What is ARINC 561 used for? Fly by Wire systems Flight Data Recorder systems *
Inertial Navigation Systems
57. An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the following would be the LSB bit? 21 *
29 19
58. Fibreoptic databus links are simplex one way data buses *
bi-directional
59. ARINC 429 is *
simplex full duplex half duplex
60. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses a pair of wires per transmitter unit a single wire *
a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics
61. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using wave division multiplexing *
time division multiplexing
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Module 5
22 encoder 62. A terminal controller is repetitive transmitting transmits only when addressed *
will transmit only once during each transmit interval
63. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon size of S.D.I speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems *
parallel input impedance
64. One of the ARINC 429 formats is hexadecimal octal *
BCD
65. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is *
parallel data serial data a clock signal
66. The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer data? Non return to zero *
Bi-polar return to zero Harvard bi phase
67. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using *
Manchester bi-phase non return to zero bipolar return to zero
68. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes current mode coupler, databus cable only databus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler *
databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable
69. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using 100 ohms resistor Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
23 *
130 ohms resistor 25 ohms resistor
70. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be bit 11 *
bit 19 bit 28
71. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is contained within bits 1- 8 *
11- 29
Binary Word is 11 - 28. BCD Word is 11 - 29
11- 28 72. ARINC 629 is transmitted using SWG 28 wire *
fibre optics or twisted pair of wires single wire for each transmitter
73. A simplex system has 1 bus controller and multiple receivers *
1 transmitter and multiple receivers 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal
74. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system only one databus is required *
two databuses are required four databuses are required
75. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series? Takes less time More information can be sent *
Saves weight
76. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus? *
Yes No Only if paralleled
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
24 77. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit when signal gap is sensed when addressed *
when terminal gap is sensed
78. An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will be *
16 29 11
79. A simplex system has *
one transmitter, many receivers one transmitter, one receiver a bus controller and separate controller
80. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as 01011001 *
00001011
Octal 320 converted to binary, and reversed.
01101000 81. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of power up *
shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap
82. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used for normal operation for landing and approach operation *
for database loads
B777 MM 23-91-00 pg 41. Periodic mode is for normal operation. Aperiodic mode is for non-normal operation and large information transfer such as database loads and operating software loads.
83. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved? *
Using two data buses Via a twisted pair of shielded cables Via a current mode coupler
84. The data format used to transmit a signal to the flight data recorder Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
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25 *
Harvard bi-phase 12 bit
85. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is *
+10v to -10v -5v +5v
86. An ARINC 629 label word is 8 bits 10 bits *
12 bits
12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch pulse. 20 bit in total
87. The TX/RX of ARINC 629 is switching *
multiplex/demultiplex encoder/decoder
88. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is always the same period *
can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software flexible
89. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information? *
Inductive coupling Sockets and pins Optical coupling
90. What is ARINC 561 used for? To specify Flight Data Recorder data bus To specify LRU pin-outs *
To specify Inertial Nav data bus
91. What is the purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus? To indicate that the data is digital To indicate if the data is analogue *
To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid
92. ARINC 429 is Multiple Source Multiple Sink system Raju Poulose
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26 *
Single Source Multiple Sink System Single Source Single Sink system
93. What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or 629 Data cables? To allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification * To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two parts for easy removal and installation Cables are only manufactured 40 feet long 94. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word? Front *
End MSB Middle
95. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________ states? *
Three Two Eight
96. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in: *
one direction only both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing both directions on the same bus simultaneously
97. An ARINC 629 data word includes an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field *
has only 20 bits comprises up to 256 data bits
98. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for identifying word type terminating the data field *
checking parity
99. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus? Interconnect Cable *
Stub Cable Patch Cord
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 5
27
Logic Circuits 1.
Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a NAND gate OR gate NOR gate
2.
To get logic 1 using this gate
A and B = 1 A or B = 1 A and B = 0 3. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will have the logic states of A = 0, B = 0 A = 1, B = 0 A = 1, B = 1 4. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is negative positive either positive or negative 5.
ABS 000 011 101 110
What type of gate is this? E-OR
E-OR is another name for XOR
NAND NOT 6.
An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are
Raju Poulose
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28 both 0 1 and 0 both 1 7.
When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output? When both inputs are at 0 When the inputs are different When both inputs are at 1
8.
Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by inverting the input connecting two in series connecting the inputs
9.
What sort of gate is this?
Or gate NOR gate NOT gate 10.
What does the logic circuit shown represent?
Analogue to Digital Converter Full Adder Circuit 3-way converter 11.
In Positive Logic representation
Raju Poulose
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29 both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current state 0 is more positive than state 1 state 1 is more positive than state 0 12.
The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is both logic 1 logic 0 logic 1
13.
What is this truth table?
AND gate NOT gate NOR gate 14.
What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate? XOR NOT
A negative input voltage has the same effect as an input of 0 volts. 2-inputs specified, so cannot be a NOT gate.
NAND 15.
Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of diodes relays BTB's
16. of
The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have the logic states A = 0, B = 0 A = 0, B = 1 A = 1, B = 0
17.
Which logic gate has both inputs 'high' to get an output? NAND gate XOR gate AND gate
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30 18.
This truth table is for a
NAND gate OR gate AND gate 19.
A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have inputs inverted inputs connected together outputs inverted
20.
What logic gate would this circuit represent?
NAND Gate NOR gate AND gate 21.
What input is required to activate the relay shown?
A=0 B=1 A=1 B=1 A=1 B=0 22.
Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from diodes
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31 transistors thin film resistors 23.
What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?
OR gate NOR gate AND gate 24.
A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop) positive / magnetised / Q switch closed / light off / Not Q switch open / light on / Q
25.
What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate? OR AND NOT
26.
What is this symbol?
Exclusive NOR gate Exclusive OR gate Exclusive AND gate 27.
An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to an AND gate a NOR gate an OR gate
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32 28.
Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit? OR gate Exclusive OR gate NAND gate
29.
A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was zero, what are the inputs? A=0 B=0 A=1 B=1 A=1 B=0
30.
The most appropriate logic family for use in a portable item of test equipment is Low-power Schottky TTL MOS TTL
31. What is the equivalent of this gate?
X = (NOT-A + NOT-B) X = (A + B)NOT X = (A.B)NOT 32. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a NAND gate AND gate OR gate 33. A CMOS logic gate is operated from a 12V supply. If a voltage of 3V is measured at the input to the gate, this would be considered equivalent to: Indeterminate logic 1 logic 0 34. Which logic gate has this truth table?
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33
Exclusive OR NAND NOT 35. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from thin film resistors diodes transistor 36. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and X =0110 indicates that the logic device is an AND gate a NOR gate an EXCLUSIVE OR gate
Basic Computer Structure 1.
A BYTE is usually a six bit word a 12 bit word an 8 bit word
2.
A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also WORM (Write Once Read Many) is a magnetic tape an IC a CD Rom
3.
In a volatile bi-stable memory circuit the memory is lost as soon as power is removed the memory is retained indefinably the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on
4.
Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because it is light it has low eddy current losses
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34 data is stored after the power is removed 5.
A computer using RAM would utilise an integrated circuit (chip) a compact disc magnetic tape
6.
What is EPROM? Erasable programming read only module Enhanced programmable read only memory Erasable programmable read only memory
7.
What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending? Only one pair of conductors Quicker More information sent
8.
In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest access time? 8mm video tape
8mm video tape is not (and never has been) a computer memory device
magnetic tape floppy disk 9.
Which would have the least components? LSI CPU ALU
10.
The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is has a larger storage capacity per chip area they operate slower are cheaper to manufacture
11.
A computer must have which of the following to operate? ROM/RAM, Buses, Monitor, CPU RAM, I/O devices, Buses, Printer RAM/ROM, I/O devices, OS, Buses, Clock
12.
A common used material in computer manufacturing is permeamag material
Raju Poulose
Ferromagnetic material is that which hard-drives and floppy drives are made from5 Kuwait Airways Module
35 ferrite material ferromagnetic material 13.
What is a baud? A block of data A byte of data A bit of data
14.
REAL TIME computers are ones that are up-to-date store data as soon as it is retrieved display data as soon as it is processed
15.
Magnetic materials are used in ROMs only EPROM some RAMs
16.
A typical example of a mass storage device is CD IC magnetic tape
17.
Data is usually stored in ROM RAM EEPROM
18.
What is the definition of baud rate? 1 word per second 1 bit per second 1 byte per second
19.
How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word? 2 bytes 8 bytes 4 bytes
Fibre Optics Raju Poulose
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36 1.
A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is shallow bend radius allowed end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid
2.
A fibreoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected using torque-loaded pliers hand tight only very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
3.
Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching. This is called lens connector end fire coupling end to end coupling
4.
Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so the connectors can not be over tightened the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft the receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment
5.
A fibre optic cable consists of a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index
6.
Fibreoptic cables use reflective outer shell refractive outer shell reflective inner shell
7.
The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core). Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted in two ways.
Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and higher security non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap
8.
What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics? Kinking and contamination of connectors Corrosion
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37 Earthing faults 9.
Fibreoptics relies on light reflecting off cladding fibre absorbing light light escaping cladding
10.
In fibreoptics the wavelength of the light is less than visible light more than visible light equal to that of visible light
11.
What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary wire? Small bend radius Not prone to damage Large bandwidth
12.
A fibreoptic light source is normally a filament lamp a laser or LED a strobe light
13.
Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to repeated internal reflection defraction of the light refraction of the light
14.
Star couplers are used in fibre optic systems for amplifying the low power optical signals splicing lengths of optical fibre together equally distributing signals to equipments
15.
What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems? Infrared Ultraviolet Visible
16.
What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics? Refractive index
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38 Poor termination Bends in the cable 17.
What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus? Expensive to install Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable
18.
Fibre optic cables are immune to EMI attenuate EMI are susceptible to EMI
19.
What does a fibreoptic star connection do? Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the central hub
20.
Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre is always the same no matter what material it is increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index is never greater then the speed of light in free space
11. Electronic Displays 1. A shadow masks CRT works by two layers of phosphor, the top layer is red, the bottom layer is green one layer of red, green and blue dot matrix excited by their own electrode guns three layers of phosphor coating, red, green and blue 2. The inside of a CRT consists of a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas iodine and rare mercury gas an oxide coating and rare mercury gas 3. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a square wave sawtooth wave sinusoidal wave Raju Poulose
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39 4. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the electron beam movement? No movement Horizontal Vertical 5. Primary colours of a CRT are red, blue and yellow red, green and blue red, green and yellow 6. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT? X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction 7. EADI sky and ground display is provided by synthetic TV signals raster scan stroke pulse 8. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT? 250Hz 400 Hz 50/60 Hz 9. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is sinusoidal trapezoidal sawtooth 10. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils in an electromagnetic controlled CRT? Sawtooth Trapezoid Rectangular 11. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by a sinusoidal voltage Raju Poulose
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40 a trapezoidal waveform a sawtooth waveform 12. The timebase in a CRT consists of an amplifier only an amplifier and an oscillator an oscillator only 13. What creates the raster effect on a CRT? Sawtooth frequency Trapezoidal frequency Sinusoidal frequency 14. The trace of an oscilloscope begins when the input level is approximately 10 volts but the peak values indicate 20 volts. What can be done to cause the trace to begin at zero volts? Adjust the trigger level to zero volts trigger. Adjust the volt per division to zero volts/cm Adjust the horizontal position to show the full trace on the screen 15. How are colours produced on an active matrix LCD (AMLCD)? By controlling the twist of the liquid crystal display immediately behind each of the three colour filters in each pixel By synchronizing the colour modulation of the back light with the twisting of the liquid crystal located behind each pixel By controlling the intensity of the tri-colour emitters in each pixel. 16. LCD screens are driven by fixed current DC voltage AC voltage variable current DC voltage 17. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that it displays more colours it requires less servicing it requires no cooling 18. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of a zener diode an LED Raju Poulose
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41 a photo diode 19. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move? Vertically Diagonally Horizontally 20. An LED display is monochrome only red and green high definition 21. An LCD display uses what type of power supply? Continuous AC DC voltage Variable level DC voltage 22. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are solid state electrostatic electromagnetic 23. The supply to an LCD is voltage restricted DC AC current restricted DC 24. An LED will emit light when it is reverse biased it is forward biased either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied 25. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a large viewing angle more energy efficient brighter clearer output 26. To display a circle on a CRT you use 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase Raju Poulose
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42 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase 27. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube one on the side, one at the bottom top and bottom each side 28. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in vertical axis horizontal axis circular motion 29. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is a combined system an electrostatic system an electromagnetic system 30. L.E.D.s can give high definition displays monochrome displays only red and green displays only 31. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen viewing angle becomes larger is slower to update as data changes loses contrast 32. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is 600 lines per scan 400 lines per square inch 84 triads 33. An LCD display is monochrome has infinite colours has three colours only 34. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data requires Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways
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43 at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals 35. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in IRU control display units. distance measuring indicators; digital counters weather radar indicators 36. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube? Layers of red, blue and green A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue 37. A colour LCD which is back lit has three colours an infinite amount of colours monochrome 38. A dot matrix/LED construction is 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display 39. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED? There are no advantages It uses less current It is brighter 40. A seven segment display is used to display octal and decimal numbers only display alpha-numeric characters display octal and binary numbers only 41. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT? by the use of X & Y EM Coils Raster scanning By Stroke pulse Raju Poulose
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44 42. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the Gate Anode Cathode 43. 'Submarining' is caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen
Electrostatic Sensitive Devices 1.
A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate? Remove power before connecting Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed Wrist straps should be worn
2.
A humid atmosphere reduces static charge has no effect on the level of charge eliminates static charge
3.
Electrostatic discharge occurs when materials are rubbed together or pulled apart the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other
4. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see? 12,000 volts 6,000 volts 35,000 volts 5.
When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken? Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft First earth with aircraft then to it
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45 Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur 6.
What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment? Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point No special precautions are required Keep one hand on the airframe
7.
Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage? ECL MOSFET SCR
8.
ESDS bags are sealed by twine (100% cotton)
Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label. However, it could be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.
ESDS labels zip locks 9.
When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current path between aircraft and ground you and the assembly you and the aircraft
10. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms 01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test) meter between the forefinger and the between the strap and the pin ground must be 1 megohms however seems to vary. 11. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure that there is minimum current flow between you and the assembly the assembly and the aircraft you and the aircraft 12.
A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator to dissipate static charge on the device
13.
Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the
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46 resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms 14.
The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be 20 megohm - 200 megohm 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm 0 - 200 ohm
15.
During an EFIS screen fit do not touch terminals use bonding strap no tooling is required
Software Management Control
1. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality category of major effect minor effect hazardous effect 2. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in crew workload, has a software level of C B D 3.
Requirements for software control can be found in JAR AWO AWN 43 JAR OPS
4.
What is the definition of level one software? Non-essential Essential Critical
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47 5. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due to a software error, may cause injuries to a large proportion of occupants no injuries to occupants injuries to some occupants 6. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a significant reduction in safety margins may also cause injuries to some occupants the loss of the aircraft no injuries to occupants 7.
As far as a software product is concerned the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase
8. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be significantly decreased slightly decreased slightly increased 9.
Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS? The pilot The engineer The manufacturer
10.
An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a Software Level of A C B
11.
Software changes come under the responsibility of the national aviation authority the aircraft constructor the engineer
12.
Software can be modified by
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48 using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware the manufacturer licensed avionics engineers 13. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of minor effect hazardous effect major effect 14.
What is the effect of a level 1 software failure? Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities Significant reduction in safety margins Large reduction in safety margins
15.
Who can sign for a software update? Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer Chief pilot Engineer
16.
Software documentation procedures are laid down in MOE AWN (45) JAA Ops
17.
Level 1 software failure is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft is defined as essential and may have a minor effect
18.
Who can design new software? BCAR section A8 approved company BCAR section A1 approved company The CAA
19.
Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems AWN 43
JAR Ops (M) Raju Poulose
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49 20.
AWN 43 requires that the CAA be responsible for software assessment the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment
21.
Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software? JAR OPS AWN 43 The aircraft manufacturer
22.
Control of software is carried out by the aircraft manufacturers the National Aviation Authority a licensed engineer
Electromagnetic Environment
1. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a programme of HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than 50 milliohms 1 ohm 100 milliohms 2.
To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must shield it with a braided shield use an opto-isolator earth both transducer and couplings
3.
HIRF is acronym for Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies High Intensity Radiated Field High Intensity Radio Frequencies
4.
When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant
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50 5.
Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done coating in a conductive paint
6.
To reduce HIRF on radio equipment periodically check bonding leads for condition transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference ensure all static wicks are in place
7.
Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection
by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit 8.
Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by connecting all conductors to a common earth earthing each alternative conductor to separate point shielding each individual conductor
9.
To stop earth loops forming, you would earth both ends of the cable screen earth only one end of the cable screen leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit
10.
When incorporating an aerial cable it must be in the centre of the other wires outside the other wires for easy access positioned separately from the loom
11.
Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done at and during production and testing (initial certification) only after a report of radio interference by periodically listening for interference on all systems
12.
For braided cables, the amount of braiding is a trade-off design feature
must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the cable Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 5
51 keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit 13.
When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film the film is conductive so no preparations are required the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic film
14.
HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by bus terminal spark gap current mode coupler
15.
Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure? Unserviceable radio filters Corrosion on bonding leads Broken or missing static wicks
16.
HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by built in filters and overvoltage circuits internally shielded cables built in filters only
17.
An aircraft may have been HIRF affected. A static wick check is required Test all radio frequencies for interference A bonding load check is required
18. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed 0.05 ohm 1 ohm 1 megohm
Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems
1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides GPWS warnings dedicated status and warnings Raju Poulose
The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come from the GPWS Computer Kuwait Airways
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52 take-off and landing warnings 2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by ICAO CAA JAA 3. Testing of a CADC can be carried out in the air only on the ground only in the air and on the ground 4. EADI sky and ground display is provided by stroke pulse synthetic TV signals raster scan 5. What has the highest priority on an ECAM display? Engine page Failure Door page 6. SIDs data stored in the FMC performance database is Standard Input Data Standard Information Departure Services Standard Instrument Departures 7. A modern EHSI will display the following in MAP mode: waypoints, ILS frequency, ETA, magnetic heading, WXR display, distance to go waypoints, WXR display only waypoints, magnetic heading, WXR display 8. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is in view green out of view
Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is RED, indicating failure
9. MFD is the abbreviation for Master flight display Raju Poulose
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53 Multi function display Mandatory flight display 10. A level 'B' alert message in EICAS requires Timely Action Prompt Action Time Available Action 11. The FMS can reset the error that builds up in the IRS by using VOR, DME, GPS, LOC VOR and DME only DME and GPS only 12. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is 12.36 microsecond 6.18 microsecond 24.72 microsecond 13. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of 21 active and 3 spare 23 active and 5 spare 28 active and 7 spare 14. An IRS is only certifed for alignment up to +88.45 and -88.45 degrees +60 and -60 degrees +78.25 and -78.25 degrees 15. The command bars on an ADI relate to path being followed roll indications path required 16. ECAM has at its heart a multi function symbol generator a central maintenance computer ACARS 17. The glideslope in an ILS provides Raju Poulose
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54 horizontal directional references vertical references vertical references and horizontal directional references 18. The recording medium in an FDR is copper foil coated with ferrite magnetic tape coated with ferrite a high density floppy disc 19. An FMS databank memory is updated every 365 days every 28 days every 32 days 20. The frequency of glideslope transmitter is 328.6 to 335.4 MHz 328.6 to 335.4 Hz 328.6 to 335.4 KHz 21. A strapdown INS has a solid state accelerometer system both solid state and normal accelerometer system moving parts 22. What does the CADC feed? standby altimeter / machmeter cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar 23. Marker beacon receivers have no control unit as the unit typically turns on when the avionics master switch is activated two control units: one on captain side and the other on copilot side one control unit 24. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system through the Control and Display Unit Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel Data Acquisition Unit Raju Poulose
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55 25. The polled mode in an ACARS operates only when interrogated by the ground facility both operates when interrogated by the ground facility and allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate communication allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate communication 26. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is 2 3 4 27. ACARS system operates in the frequency range of 121.550 MHz 131.550 KHz 131.550 MHz 28. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a pseudo random code whisper shout method different channel frequency 29. In a MCDU, the flight deck effect is the sudden irregular reading causing to an instrument impact of irregular reading to the flight crew any EICAS display or discrete annunciator to inform the flight crew of an in-flight fault 30. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may cause clock errors range errors ephemeris errors 31. In an EICAS level C messages are memos and displayed in white advisories and displayed in amber or light blue caution and displayed in white 32. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated on the display by a flashing cursor Raju Poulose
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56 dashes boxes 33. The compact mode in a EICAS is used to show maintenance pages to show maintenance pages and when one display is inactive when one display is inactive 34. The four display modes used by the ECAM system are flight phase, advisory, failure-related, manual warnings, flightphase, advisories, memos warnings, cautions, advisories, memos 35. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments provided there is adequate isolation provided there is adequate damping by direct connection to the instruments 36. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out 37. EICAS provides the following: Engine parameters and system warnings only Engine parameters only Engine parameters and engine warnings only 38. A central maintenance computer provides ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel display of system warnings and cautions 39. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from radio altimeter vertical speed barometric height 40. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to? Raju Poulose
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57 The recording unit There are no outputs Flight instruments 41. FMS failure and warnings are engine warnings only displayed on EICAS EFIS warnings only 42. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by amplifier gain position feedback calibration 43. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation System? Heading and attitude Aircraft present position Aircraft present position and heading 44. IRS accelerometers are mounted 90° to each other 60° to each other 45° to each other 45. An FMS navigation database is updated at the operators request once a month every 28 days 46. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system will reduce operational heights and speeds will limit the flight profile has no effect on aircraft operation 47. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in spoilers moving symmetrically upwards ailerons moving symmetrically upwards ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards Raju Poulose
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58 48. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by spoilers spoilers and ailerons ailerons 49. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are both electrically controlled and electrically actuated hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated 50. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator? Comparison with No.1 symbol generator Parity function Standby 51. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording when power is applied to the aircraft on engine start-up on take-off 52. The FMS databases consist of two performance and one navigation database one navigation and one performance database one performance and two navigation databases
Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1 performance). (Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input data (additional waypoints etc.)
53. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either VOR and DME only DME and GPS only GPS, DME, LOC and VOR 54. The accepted error from INS/IRS is 1 mile/hour + 3 miles 2 miles per hour + 3 miles 3 miles / hour + 3 miles 55. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence the current present position must be entered the shutdown present position must be entered Raju Poulose
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59 either the last or current position must be entered 56. What warnings can an FMS provide? Ground faults only Spurious faults Discrete warnings
This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is providing incorrect data
57. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System performs in-flight BITE interrogation only give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE interrogation 58. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be controlled by rate or velocity feedback position feedback amplifier gain 59. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation either in the air or on the ground in the air only on the ground only 60. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated in an emergency with EICAS as a standby to the No1 and No2 system 61. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in the FMS EICAS Symbol Generators 62. What is the approximate earth rate? 5°/hour 15°/hour 10°/hour 63. An IRS has two or three accelerometers depending on the system Raju Poulose
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60 two accelerometers three accelerometers 64. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide rate of movement about an axis displacement about an axis both rate and displacement about an axis 65. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC? TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT TAS, MACH and Altitude TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT 66. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will Ref to B777 and A330 manuals, the term active one in active mode, one in damping mode mode will always be associated with fully operational of redundancy of all actuators or servo both be active controls. This means, each primary flight control both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs surfaces' actuators (either 2 or 3 actuators configuration designed to provide fully-powered 67. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim? controls that suit the size and purpose of surfaces) are actually active on all phases. If any failure occurs, SEC the failed actuator will then revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to remaining active actuators. ELAC ELAC and SEC 68. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is on commencing the takeoff roll once established in the en-route climb JAR Ops states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
on engine start-up
69. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to download aircraft status reports make telephone calls allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base 70. B-RNAV system must be capable of reversing the waypoints for return journey displaying distance and bearing to waypoint holding six waypoints 71. The basic principle of radar is based upon Raju Poulose
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61 ultrasonic wave propagation the time delay between outward and returning pulse the amount of power in the signal returned 72. What systems does the ADC feed? Standby altimeter/machmeter Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter 73. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to? Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems EICAS EFIS 74. Where do the outputs from a DADC go? IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel EHSI EADI 75. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning? 5 4 6 76. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is from engine start from beginning of take off roll from power on 77. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is prior to engine start prior to power on prior to beginning of take off roll 78. The difference between the right ADC (air data computer) and the left ADC is encoded in the label Field SDI field SSM field Raju Poulose
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62 79. In a typical EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) three symbol generators are used to supply the four displays with the correct signals two waveform generators are used to supply all displays with the appropriate signals four symbol generators are used to supply the display panels with information 80. If colour distortion appears around the edges of an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) display, the CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) has become magnetised CRT's degaussing circuits are operating continuously display panel's luminance circuits are at fault 81. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by two successive integrations a differentiation followed by an integration a simple integration 82. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS set the altitude to be fed into the INS insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS 83. An IRS has accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe 84. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from central Air Data Computer satellites Doppler System 85. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to update the FMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude 86. The FMS is updated by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc Raju Poulose
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63 automatically by update data from the ACARS 87. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by stabilizer and elevator elevators only stabilizer only 88. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller: there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure there is no control surface feedback to the side stick control surface feedback is fed to the side stick 89. A basic IRS platform has 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros 90. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved? Cruise height Present position Flight plan 91. The FMS Operational Database is needs no update information updated once a month is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off 92. Control surface feedback is fed back to the side stick controller only the Flight Control Computer only the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller 93. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is integrated once to give distance integrated twice to give velocity integrated twice to give distance 94. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides standby power only on the ground Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
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64 standby power when airborne and on the ground standby power only whilst in flight 95. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will remain rigid in the failure position remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure automatically move back to the neutral position 96. IRS alignment takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during alignment 97. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The correct action is select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the right alpha/numeric display refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system. immediately switch off and select the standby system 98. A FMS has a total of how many Databases 4 1 2 99. Fly by wire High Speed protection is to increase the pitch angle as speed increases to prevent high speed stall to prevent tuck under 100. An IRS Laser gyro provides detection of the earth's gravitational force to establish true north detection of the earth's rotation to establish true north detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis 101. The left and right cockpit displays are supplied from the same Symbol Generator are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators have failed 102. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways
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65 cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation not have any operational effect on the system 103. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for? Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder VOR, ILS and DME Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS 104. A full operation system BITE check will carry out an internal system test that ensures the system meets design requirements and is operational use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should exercise the hardware sufficiently to determine if it meets the performance but will not move the controls requirements but should not drive it against mechanical stops.' as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops 105. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of information. This is most likely to be the input sensor bus and display controller By elimination, since each display is supplied from a different SG, a fault with one SG would affect only one display. the symbol generator and display the display controller and symbol generator 106. A centralised monitoring computer system is used testing systems on the ground only to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit 107. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated by stroke pulse synoptic scan raster scan 108. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by raster scan trapezoidal input stroke pulse
'The special symbols, characters, letters, vectors and arcs are displayed using the stroke method. The EADI sky/ground ball or EHSI weather radar are displayed
109. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used to synchronise the signals on the control bus to provide a clock pulse for CRT Raju Poulose
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66 to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems 110. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording? After take off when airborne On first engine start From the start of the aircraft take off run 111. The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in flight automatically by the DADC by the pilot It cannot be modified in flight 112. CADC outputs are altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT 113. If one EICAS CRT fails the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data the standby CRT will automatically take over the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data 114. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual 115. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring ground station is ACARS TAWS TCAS II 116. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested in the air and on the ground in the air only on the ground only 117. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system Raju Poulose
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67 can be displayed on each individual display can not be interchanged only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1 118. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during forward motion gear retraction take-off 119. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on which system? EADI Flight management system Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM) 120. The Flight data recorder starts recording on aircraft roll out from stand after take off after the first engine has started 121. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if source isolation has been considered the power is within flight data recorder limits it goes directly to it 122. A central fault display system should be available through an easily accessible multifunction control display unit a central bite test box with clear LED indications a bite test 123. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording the last 25 hours of aircraft flight the last 25 hours of operation the last 25 hours with engines running 124. BITE for ground use only is switched off when undercarriage up when brakes are released on take-off Raju Poulose
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68 125. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning display comes from the ECAM channel of DMC3 EFIS channel of DMC3 ECAM channel of DMC1 126. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies course directed by ground station great circle route rhumb line 127. Aircraft heading (HDG) is the angle between True North and the actual track the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft the angle between True North and the desired track 128. For an IRS System to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last power down the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered 129. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track distance perpendicular from the selected track difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track 130. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available? In flight Lower screen only - only available on the ground On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground 131. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out? Only when BITE selected Continuously when system is in use After engine shut down 132. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to stop the gyros from toppling provide attitude reference Raju Poulose
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69 prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers 133. An IN system requires data from the satellites Doppler system air data computer 134. XTK (cross track) is the angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track perpendicular distance from the desired track actual track across the earth's surface 135. The output of an INS can be fed to the attitude indicators vertical speed indicators altimeters 136. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted 120° apart parallel to each other 90° to each other 137. Gyro-compassing is the term used for self-alignment in the vertical use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform self-alignment in azimuth 138. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status perform in-flight BITE only 139. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation either ground or air in the air only on the ground only 140. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to an inoperative symbol generator or control panel Raju Poulose
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70 an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor loss of power to the CRT 141. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM during power up during flight via MCDU 142. How does the symbol generator detect a program error? By check sum bites for error detect By looking at the odd parity without error By looking at the even parity without error 143. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system. CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data. 144. An IRU interface test is carried out in the air only on the ground on the ground or in the air 145. FMS system gives warning indications for take off and landings only cruise any flight phase 146. FMS CDU warnings are MSG, fail and OFST fail and MSG OFST and Fail 147. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status perform in-flight bite only perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE 148. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs Raju Poulose
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71 validation of the information of the LRU a test of the LRU a performance test of the system 149. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when? For in-flight monitoring To check the performance of the LRU Power-up self test 150. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouvre? RA TA either RA or TA 151. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display? White circles, red diamonds and amber squares White squares, red diamonds and amber circles White diamonds, red squares and amber circle 152. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to Symbol Generator failure Altimeter failure CRT failure 153. ACARS is an acronym for Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System 154. When does the flight data recorder start recording ? Parking brake released Undercarriage up When the first engine starts 155. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has a master warning light same colour throughout different colour for different temperatures Raju Poulose
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72 156. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally tested displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE 157. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment sequence comes from FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices Magnetic compass installed on the airplane Earths Rotation 158. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane? Both GPS and IRS Inch precise GPS Only IRS 159. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected? Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error Instrument feedback Pilot input 160. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite 161. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI 162. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates power is ON and DFDR is recording data power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault power is ON but DFDR is not recording data 163. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following: engine parameters and engine warnings only engine warnings only Raju Poulose
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73 engine parameters and system warnings only 164. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate? BEFORE engine start BEFORE take-off at any time the manufacturer decides 165. ECAM system was adopted for both Boeing and Airbus aircraft Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft Airbus A310 166. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could use: a plastic tape coated in ferrite a copper tape coated in ferrite a High Density floppy disk 167. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording? When parking brake is released When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power On commencement of flight 168. As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording? Before engine start Once airborne after take off Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power Unverified 1.
ARINC 429 slow speed transmission is 80 microseconds 10 microseconds 10 miliseconds
2. at
In an ARINC 429 digital data word, the source/destination identifier is made up of two bits positioned bits 1-2 bits 9-10 bits 30-31
3. When testing a diode with a test set, what voltage drop would be typical? Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways
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74 0.3 - 0.7 1.5 - 2.0 2.5 - 3.0 4.
ARINC 429 NULL state is represented by a voltage of +10V 0V -5V
5.
26 octal, represented in decimal, is 19 22 010110
6.
What is the data stored on within bubble memory? A disk drive Ferrite material Magnetic loops
7.
The Flight Management Computer System is updated periodically during flight by the maintenance monitoring computer the pilot pre-loaded hard data
8.
The aircraft clocks send signals to aircraft systems to display/record Greenwich Mean Time set computer clock speed coordinate system operation
Type
Distinctive shape
Rectangular shape
AND
Raju Poulose
Boolean algebra between A&B
A.B
Kuwait Airways
Truth table INPUT OUTPUT A B A AND B 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 Module 5
75
1
OR
A+B
NOT
_ A
NAND
___ A.B
NOR
___ A+B
XOR
1
INPUT OUTPUT A B A OR B 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 INPUT OUTPUT A NOT A 0 1 1 0 INPUT OUTPUT A NAND A B B 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 INPUT OUTPUT A B A NOR B 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 INPUT OUTPUT A B A XOR B 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0
XNOR
Raju Poulose
1
INPUT OUTPUT A XNOR A B B 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1
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