Mechanical
April 29, 2017 | Author: Jackey Alex | Category: N/A
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1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas (a) pressure (b) temperature (c) volume (d) all of the above (e) atomic mass. Ans: d 2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas (a) Boyle's law (b) Charles'law (c) Gay-Lussac law (d) all of the above (e) Joule's law. Ans: d 3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is (a) Centigrade (b) Celsius (c) Fahrenheit (d) Kelvin (e) Rankine. Ans: d 4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is (a) kilogram (b) gram (c) tonne (d) quintal (e) newton. Ans: a 5. The unit of time in S.I. units is (a) second (b) minute (c) hour (d) day (e) year. Ans: a 6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter (b) centimeter (c) kilometer (d) millimeter. Ans: a 7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is (a) watt (b) joule (c) joule/s (d) joule/m (e) joule m. Ans: b 8. According to Gay Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as (a) temperature (b) absolute (c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant (d) volume, if temperature is kept constant (e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant. Ans: c 9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies (a) more volume (b) less volume (c) same volume (d) unpredictable behavior (e) no such correlation. Ans: a 10. General gas equation is (a) PV=nRT (b) PV=mRT (d) PV = C (c) PV=KiRT (e) Cp-Cv = Wj Ans: b 11. According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal to (a) greater of the partial pressures of all (b) average of the partial pressures of all (c) sum of the partial pressures of all (d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight (e) atmospheric pressure. Ans: c
12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits. (a) 02, N2, steam, C02 (b) Oz, N2, water vapour (c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture (d) 02, N2, H2, air (e) steam vapours, H2, C02. Ans: d 13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is (a) kg/cm2 (b) mm of water column (c) pascal (d) dynes per square cm (e) bars Ans: c 14. A closed system is one in which (a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so (b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy (c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system (d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system (e) thermodynamic reactions take place. Ans: a 15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to (a) its heating value (b) kinetic energy of molecules (c) repulsion of molecules (d) attraction of molecules (e) surface tension of molecules. Ans: b 16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when (a) volume of the gas is zero (b) pressure of the gas is zero (c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero (d) specific heat of gas is zero (e) mass is zero. Ans: c 17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are (a) perfectly elastic (b) perfectly inelastic (c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic (e) partly elastic and partly inelastic. Ans: a 18. The pressure a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to (a) E/3 (b) E/2 (c) 3E/4 (d)2E/3 (e) 5E/4. Ans: d 19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to (a) T (b) j (c) J2 (d) Vr (e) 1/Vr. Ans: a 20. Superheated vapour behaves (a) exactly as gas (b) as steam (c) as ordinary vapour (d) approximately as a gas (e) as average of gas and vapour. Ans: d 21. Absolute zero pressure will occur (a) at sea level (b) at the center of the earth (c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero (d) under vacuum conditions (e) at a temperature of - 273 °K Ans: c 22. No liquid can exist as liquid at (a) - 273 °K (b) vacuum (c) zero pressure (d) centre of earth (e) in space. Ans: c 23. The unit of power in S.I. units is (a) newton
(b) pascal (c) erg (d) watt (e) joule. Ans: d 24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at (a) a temperature of - 273.16°C (b) a temperature of 0°C (c) a temperature of 273 °K (d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature (e) can't be attained. Ans: a 25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value (a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume (b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc. (c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state (d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state (e) remains constant. Ans: b 26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to (a) 0.17 (b) 0.21 (c) 0.24 (d) 1.0 (e) 1.41 Ans: c 27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to (a) C/Cv (b) Cv/Cp (c) Cp - Cv (d) Cp + Cv (e) Cp x Cv Ans: c 28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by (a) 1 law (b) 2 laws (c) 3 laws (d) 4 laws Ans: d 29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(a) 0.17 (b) 0.24 (c) 0.1 (d) 1.41 (e) 2.71. Ans: d 30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under (a) all ranges of pressures (b) only small range of pressures (c) high range of pressures (d) steady change of pressures (e) atmospheric conditions. Ans: b 31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature (a) Charles' law (b) Joule's law (c) Regnault's law (d) Boyle's law (e) there is no such law. Ans: b 32. The same volume of all gases would represent their (a) densities (b) specific weights (c) molecular weights (d) gas characteristic constants (e) specific gravities. Ans: c 33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures (a) Charles' Law (b) Joule's Law (c) Regnault's Law (d) Boyle's Law (e) there is no such law. Ans: c 34. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
An open system is one in which mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system mass crosses the boundary but not the energy thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: c 35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant (a) Joule's law (b) Boyle's law (c) Regnault's law (d) Gay-Lussac law (e) Charles' law. Ans: e 36. Gases have (a) only one value of specific heat (b) two values of specific heat (c) three values of specific heat (d) no value of specific heat (e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat. Ans: b 37. According to Avogadro Hypothesis (a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature (b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two (c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant (d) gases have two values of specific heat (e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems. Ans: a 38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value (a) depends on the mass of the system like volume (b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc. (c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state (d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state (e) is always constant. Ans: a 39. Work done in a free expansion process is (a) + ve (b) -ve (c) zero (d) maximum (e) minimum. Ans: c 40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as (a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law (c) Gas law (d) Law of thermodynamics (e) Joule's law. Ans: a 41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimeter analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases is (a) divided by its molecular weight (b) multiplied by its molecular weight (c) multiplied by its density (d) multiplied by its specific weight (e) divided by its specific weight. Ans: b 42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to (a) + v (b) - ve (c) zero (d) pressure x volume (e) any where between zero and infinity. Ans: c 43. An isolated system is one in which (a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so (b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system (c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system (d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy (e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur. Ans: b 44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are (a) path functions (b) point functions (c) cyclic functions (d) real functions (e) thermodynamic functions. Ans: b 45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system (a) pressure (b) temperature (c) specific volume (d) heat
(e) density. Ans: d 46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas (a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight (b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight (c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight (d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight (e) occupies same volume. Ans: e 47. Mixture of ice and water form a (a) closed system (b) open system (c) isolated system (d) heterogeneous system (e) thermodynamic system. Ans: d 48. Which of the following is the property of a system (a) pressure and temperature (b) internal energy (c) volume and density (d) enthalpy and entropy (e) all of the above. Ans: e 49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen (a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 25 (d) 73 (e) 79. Ans: b 50. Which of the following is not the intensive property (a) pressure (b) temperature (c) density (d) heat (e) specific volume. Ans: d 51. Which of the following items is not a path function (a) heat (b) work
(c) kinetic energy (d) vdp (e) thermal conductivity. Ans: e 52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on (a) the end states only (b) particular adiabatic process (c) the value of index n (d) the value of heat transferred (e) mass of the system. Ans: a 53. Heat and work are (a) point functions (b) system properties (c) path functions (d) intensive properties (e) extensive properties. Ans: c 54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and pressure (a) enthalpy (b) volume (c) mass (d) entropy (e) specific volume. Ans: b 55. The value of n = 1 in the poly tropic process indicates it to be (a) reversible process (b) isothermal process (c) adiabatic process (d) irreversible process (e) free expansion process. Ans: b 56. Solids and liquids have (a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat (c) three values of specific heat (d) no value of specific heat (e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions. Ans: a 57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
temperature is (a) 54°C (b) 327°C (c) 108°C (d) 654°C (e) 600°C Ans: b 58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion (a) pV"=C (b) isothermal (c) adiabatic (d) free expansion (e) throttling. Ans: b 59. If value of n is infinitely large in a poly tropic process pV" = C, then the process is known as constant (a) volume (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) enthalpy (e) entropy. Ans: a 60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when (a) flow is uniform and steady (b) process is isentropic (c) process is isothermal (d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature (e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature. Ans: d 61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at (a) constant pressure (b) constant temperature (c) constant volume (d) constant entropy (e) N.T.P. condition. Ans: a 62. The term N.T.P. stands for (a) nominal temperature and pressure (b) natural temperature and pressure (c) normal temperature and pressure (d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure. Ans: c 63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as (a) heat exchange process (b) throttling process (c) is entropic process (d) adiabatic process (e) hyperbolic process. Ans: e 64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas (e) shows unpredictable behavior. Ans: c 65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics (a) deals with conversion of mass and energy (b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process (c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other (d) deals with heat engines (e) does not exist. Ans: c 66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be (a) 80°C (b) 0°C (c) 40°C (d) 20°C (e) 60°C. Ans: b 67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by (a) zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) first law of thermodynamics (c) second law of thermodynamics (d) third law of thermodynamics (e) Avogadro's hypothesis. Ans: a
68. One watt is equal to (a) 1 Nm/s (b) 1 N/mt (c) 1 Nm/hr (d) 1 kNm/hr (e) 1 kNm/mt. Ans: a 69. Work done is zero for the following process (a) constant volume (b) free expansion (c) throttling (d) all Of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error (a) dry steam (b) wet steam (c) saturated steam (d) superheated steam (e) steam at atmospheric pressure. Ans: d 71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work done will be about (a) 100 xlOO5 joules (b) lxlO5 joules (c) 10 xlO5 joules (d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules (e) 10xl04ki\ojoules. Ans: c 72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is (a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K (b) 8314kgfm/mol°K (c) 848kgfm/mol°K (d) 427kgfm/mol°K (e) 735 kgfm/mol°K. Ans: c 73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen (a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 25
(d) 77 (e) 79. Ans: a 74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and (a) specific heat at constant pressure (b) specific heat at constant volume (c) ratio of two specific heats (d) gas constant (e) unity. Ans: d 75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is (a) 29.27 J/kmol°K (b) 83.14J/kmol°K (c) 848J/kmol°K (d) All J/kmol °K (e) 735 J/kmol °K. Ans: b 76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only (a) any gas (b) saturated steam (c) water (d) perfect gas (e) superheated steam. Ans: d 77. In a free expansion process (a) work done is zero (b) heat transfer is zero (c) both (a) and (b) above (d) work done is zero but heat increases (e) work done is zero but heat decreases. Ans: c 78. If a gas vapor is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as (a) free expansion (b) hyperbolic expansion (c) adiabatic expansion (d) parabolic expansion (e) throttling. Ans: e
79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in (a) temperature (b) pressure (c) both pressure and temperature (d) variation of its constituents (e) air flow Ans: a 80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called (a) free expansion (b) hyperbolic expansion (c) adiabatic expansion (d) parabolic expansion (e) throttling. Ans: a 81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible (a) throttling (b) free expansion (c) constant volume and constant pressure (d) hyperbolic and pV = C (e) isothermal and adiabatic. Ans: e 82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process (a) isothermal (b) adiabatic (c) throttling (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied (a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered (b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same (c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be same (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 84.
For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body
and working substance should be (a) zero (b) minimum (d) maximum (d) infinity (e) there is no such criterion. Ans: a 85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to (a) 0.75 (b) 1 (c) 1.27 (d) 1.35 (e) 2. Ans: b 86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be (a) 4.17m3/kgmol (b) 400 m3/kg mol (c) 0.15 m3/kg mol (d) 41.7 m3/kg mol (e) 417m3/kgmol. Ans: a 87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be (a) 300 Nm (b) 300,000 Nm (c) 30 Nm (d) 3000 Nm (e) 30,000 Nm. Ans: b 88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to (a) increase higher temperature (b) decrease higher temperature (c) increase lower temperature (d) decrease lower temperature (e) keep lower temperature constant. Ans: d 89. Entropy change depends on (a) heat transfer (b) mass transfer (c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state (e) change of pressure and volume. Ans: a 90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is (a) maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) unpredictable (e) negative. Ans: c 91. Isochoric process is one in which (a) free expansion takes place (b) very little mechanical work is done by the system (c) no mechanical work is done by the system (d) all parameters remain constant (e) mass and energy transfer do not take place. Ans: c 92. According to first law of thermodynamics (a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system (b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant (c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant (d) total energy of a system remains constant (e) entropy of a system remains constant. Ans: d 93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from (a) zeroth low of thermodynamic (b) first law of thermodynamics (c) second law to thermodynamics (d) basic law of thermodynamics (e) claussius statement. Ans: b 94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between (a) heat and work (b) heat, work and properties of the system (c) various properties of the system (d) various thermodynamic processes (e) heat and internal energy. Ans: b 95.
Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process
takes place at constant (a) pressure (b) temperature (c) volume (d) internal energy (e) entropy. Ans: a 96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) first increases and then decreases (e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: c 97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant (a) pressure (b) temperature (c) volume (d) internal energy (e) entropy. Ans: c 98. According to first law of thermodynamics (a) mass and energy are mutually convertible (b) Carnot engine is most efficient (c) heat and work are mutually convertible (d) mass and light are mutually convertible (e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance. Ans: c 99. Total heat of a substance is also known as (a) internal energy (b) entropy (c) thermal capacity (d) enthalpy (e) thermal conductance. Ans: d 100. (a) (b) (c) (d)
First law of thermodynamics enables to determine change in internal energy of the system does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change does not enable to determine change in entropy provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above. Ans: e 101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in (a) raising its temperature (b) raising its pressure (c) raising its volume (d) raising its temperature and doing external work (e) doing external work. Ans: d 102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for (a) reversible engine (b) irreversible engine (c) new engine (d) petrol engine (e) diesel engine. Ans: a 103. Measurement of temperature is based on (a) thermodynamic properties (b) zeroth law of thermodynamics (c) first law of thermodynamics (d) second law of thermodynamics (e) joule's law. Ans: b 104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon (a) properties of the medium/substance used (b) condition of engine (c) working condition (d) temperature range of operation (e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine. Ans: d 105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when (a) initial temperature is 0°K (b) final temperature is 0°K (c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K (d) final temperature is 0°C (e) initial temperature is minimum possible. Ans: b 106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be (a) 650°K
(b) 600°K (c) 625°K (d) 700°K (e) 750°K. Ans: a 107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance will change accordingly (a) temperature (b) enthalpy (c) internal energy (d) entropy (e) all of the above. Ans: d 108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then (a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium (b) process is executed in closed system cycle (c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility (d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero (e) no work will be done by the system. Ans: d 109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind (a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency (b) a fully reversible engine (c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high tempera¬ture source (d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy (e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels. Ans: 110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is (a) feasible (b) impossible (c) possible (d) possible, but with lot of sophistication (e) desirable. Ans: d 112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is (a) justified (b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistica-tions (d) cost will be very high (e) theroretically possible. Ans: b 113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at (a) constant pressure (b) constant volume (c) constant temperature (d) constant enthalpy (e) any one of the above. Ans: c 114. A diathermy wall is one which (a) prevents thermal interaction (b) permits thermal interaction (c) encourages thermal interaction (d) discourages thermal interaction (e) does not exist. Ans: b 115. An adiabatic wall is one which (a) prevents thermal interaction (b) permits thermal interaction (c) encourages thermal interaction (d) discourages thermal interaction (e) dos not exist. Ans: a 116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator. (b) The room will be cooled very slightly. (c) The room will be gradually warmed up. (d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected. (e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity. Ans: c 117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football (a) becomes hotter (b) becomes cooler1 (c) remains at the same temperature (d) may become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air (e) attains atmospheric temperature. Ans: b
118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it (a) at atmospheric pressure (b) at a pressure below the tropospheric pressure (c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure (d) any pressure (e) not possible. Ans: c 119. During throttling process (a) heat exchange does not take place (b) no work is done by expanding steam (c) there is no change of internal energy of steam (d) all of the above (e) entropy decreases. Ans: d 120. The energy of molecular motion appears as (a) heat (b) potential energy (c) surface tension (d) friction (e) increase in pressure. Ans: a 121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching (a) fine weather (b) rains (c) storm (d) cold wave (e) hot wave. Ans: c 122. The unit of universal gas constant is (a) watts/°K (b) dynes/°C (c) ergscm/°K (d) erg/°K (e) none of the above. Ans: d 123. Calorie is a measure of (a) specific heat (b) quantity of heat (c) thermal capacity (d)entropy
(e) work. Ans: b 124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to (a) 760 mm Hg (b) zero mm Hg (c) 735.6 mm Hg (d) 1 mm Hg (e) lOOmmHg. Ans: c 125. Barometric pressure is equal to (a) 760 mm Hg (b) zero mm Hg (c) 735.6 mm Hg (d) 1 mm Hg (e) 100mm Hg. Ans: a 126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to (a) 1 kgf/cnr2 (b) 1.033 kgf/cm2 (c) 0 kgf/cm2 (d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2 (e) 100 kgf/cm2. Ans: b 127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of (a) conservation of mass (b) conservation of energy (c) conservation of momentum (d) conservation of heat (e) conservation of temperature. Ans: b 128. A perpetual motion machine is (a) a thermodynamic machine (b) a non-thermodynamic machine (c) a hypothetical machine (d) a hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws of thermodynamics (e) an inefficient machine. Ans: d 129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with (a) conservation of heat (b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work (d) conversion fo work into heat (e) conservation of mass. Ans: c 130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics (a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high tempera¬ture source (b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle. (c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity (d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy (e) all of the above. Ans: d 131. Thermal power plant works on (a) Carnot cycle (b) Joule cycle (d) Rankine cycle (d) Otto cycle (e) Brayton cycle. Ans: c 132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle (a) carnot (b) Stirling (c) ericsson (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: e 133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes (a) two isothermals and two isentropics (b) two isentropics and two constant volumes (c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure (d) two isentropics and two constant pressures (e) none of the above. Ans: b 134. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on working substance design of engine size of engine type of fuel fired temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e 135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added (a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle (b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle (c) efficiency depends on other factors (d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equal¬ly efficient (e) none of the above. Ans: a 136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for (a) gas engine (b) well lubricated engine (c) petrol engine (d) steam engine (e) reversible engine. Ans: e 137. Carnot cycle is (a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle (c) a semi-reversible cycle (d) a quasi static cycle (e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle. Ans: a 138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes (a) two isothermals and two isentropics (b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes. (c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure (d) two isentropics and two constant pressures (e) none of the above. Ans: c 139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle (a) more (b) less (c) equal (d) depends on other factors (e) none of the above. Ans: c 140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are (a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles (c) quasi-static cycles (d) semi-reversible cycles (e) adiabatic irreversible cycles. Ans: a 141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as (a) Otto cycle (b) Ericsson cycle (c) Joule cycle (d) Stirling cycle (e) Atkinson cycle. Ans: c 142. Reversed joule cycle is called (a) Carnot cycle (b) Rankine cycle (c) Brayton cycle (d) Bell Coleman cycle (e) Dual cycle. Ans: c 143. Brayton cycle consists of following four processes (a) two isothermals and two isentropics (b) two isentropics and two constant volumes (c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure (d) two isentropics and two constant pressures (e) none of the above. Ans: d 144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle (a) Carnot (b) Ericsson (c) Stirling (d) Joule (e) none of the above. Ans: e 145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as (a) Dual combustion cycle (b) Diesel cycle (c) Atkinson cycle (d) Rankine cycle (e) Stirling cycle. Ans: c
146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains unaffected (d) first increases and then decreases (e) first decreases and then increases. Ans: a 147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency (a) Rankine (b) Stirling (c) Carnot (d) Brayton (e) Joule. Ans: c 148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unchanged (d) increase/decrease depending on application (e) unpredictable. Ans: a 149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unchanged (d) increase/decrease depending on application (e) unpredictable. Ans: b 150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration (a) Brayton cycle (b) Joule cycle (c) Carnot cycle (d) Bell-Coleman cycle (e) Reversed-Brayton cycle. Ans: e 151. Gas turbine cycle consists of (a) two isothermal and two isotropic (b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure (d) two isentropics and two constant pressures (e) none of the above. Ans: d 152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that (a) carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam (b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle (c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places (d) rankine cycle is hypothetical (e) none of the above. Ans: b 10.1. The unit of force in S.I. units is (a) kilogram (b) newton (c) watt (d) dyne (e) joule. Ans: b 10.2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is (a) newton (b) pascal (c) kilogram metre (d) watt (e) joule. Ans: e 10.3. The unit of power in S.I. units is (a) newton metre (b) watt (c) joule (d) kilogram metre/sec. (e) pascal per sec. Ans: b
10.4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in (a) one point (b) two points (c) plane (d) perpendicular planes (e) different planes. Ans: a 10.5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in (a) one point (b) one plane (c) different planes (d) perpendicular planes (e) different points. Ans: b 10.6. A force acting on a body may (a) introduce internal stresses (b) balance the other forces acting on it (c) retard its motion (d) change its motion (e) all of the above. Ans: e 10.7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ? (a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium (b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equi¬librium (c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium (d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon (a) magnitude (b) direction (c) position or line of action (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force (b) to replace them by a single force (c) to replace them by a single force through C.G. (d) to replace them by a couple (e) to replace them by a couple and a force. Ans: b 10.11. A force is completely defined when we specify (a) magnitude (b) direction (c) point of application (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be (a) P/2 cos 9/2 (b) IP sin 9/2 (c) 2P tan 9/2 (d) IP cos 9/2 (e) Psin 9/2. Ans: d 10.13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of (a) forces (b) independence of forces (c) dependence of forces (d) balance of force (e) resolution of forces. Ans: e 10.14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal to (a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction (b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction (c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9 (d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9 (e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9. Ans: a 10.15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ? (a) Momentum and impulse (b) Torque and energy (c) Torque and work (d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum. Ans: e 10.16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ? (a) angstrom (b) light year (c) micron (d) millimetre (e) milestone. Ans: e 10.17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ? (a) kW (kilowatt) (b) hp (horse power) (c) kcal/sec (d) kg m/sec (e) kcal/kg sec. Ans: e 10.18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ? (a) kcal (b) kg m (c) kWhr (d) hp (e) hp hr. Ans: d 10.19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ? (a) kg/cm (b) ata (c) atmosphere (d) mm of wcl (e) newton. Ans: e 10.20. The weight of a body is due to (a) centripetal force of earth (b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth (c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere (d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles (e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth. Ans: e 10.21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called (a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces (c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces (d) intersecting forces (e) none of the above. Ans: b 10.22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied (a) coplanar force (b) non-coplanar forces (c) lever (d) moment (e) couple. Ans: e 10.23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity (a) time (b) mass (c) volume (d) density (e) acceleration. Ans: e 10.24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is (a) maximum when it acts at the centre of gravity of a body (b) different at different points in its line of action (c) the same at every point in its line of action (d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body (e) none of the above. Ans: c 10.25. Which of the following is a vector quantity (a) energy (b) mass (c) momentum (d) angle (e) speed. Ans: c 10.26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are (a) 2 and V6 (b) 3 and 1 kg (c) V5andV5 (d) 2 and 5 (e) none of the above. Ans: c
10.27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if (a) their total sum is zero (b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal (c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero (d) all of them are inclined equally (e) none of the above. Ans: c 10.28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction (a) balance each other (b) constitute a moment (c) constitute a couple (d) constitute a moment of couple (e) constitute a resultant couple. Ans: c 10.29. According to principle of moments (a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero (b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero (c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of theiwesultant about the same point (d) positive and negative couples can be balanced (e) none of the above. Ans: b 10.30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity (a) weight (b) velocity (c) acceleration (d) force (e) moment. Ans: a 10.31. According to law of triangle of forces (a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium (b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force (c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equi¬librium (d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two (e) none of the above. Ans: c
1033. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then (a) these forces are equal (b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point (c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel (d) (b) and (c) above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 1036. D' Alembert's principle is used for (a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem (b) determining stresses in the truss (c) stability of floating bodies (d) designing safe structures (e) solving kinematic problems. Ans: a 1037. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if (a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough (b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth (c) the floor and wall both are smooth sur¬faces (d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces (e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions. Ans: c 1038. According to Lami's theorem (a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium (b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force (c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium (d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two (e) none of the above. Ans: d 1039. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments (a) balance each other (b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force (c) are equivalent (d) produce a moment of couple (e) can not balance each other. Ans: e 10.40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to (a) 2n-3 (b) n-l
(c) '2n-l (d) n - 2 (e) 3n-2. where n = number of joints in a frame Ans: a 10.42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called (a) resultant couple (b) moment of the forces (c) resulting couple (d) moment of the couple (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than (a) two members with unknown forces of the frame (b) three members with unknown forces of the frame (c) four members with unknown forces of the frame (d) three members with known forces of the frame (e) four members with two known forces. Ans: b 10.44. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at (a) the centre of heavy portion (b) the bottom surface (c) the mid point of its axis (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 10.45. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height (a) one-fourth of the total height above base (b) one-third of the total height above base (c) one-half of the total height above base (d) three-eighth of the total height above the base (e) none of the above. Ans: a 10.46. Centre of percussion is (a) the point of C.G. (b) the point of metacentre (c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a certain axis (d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of gravity. Ans: c 10.47. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of (a) one-fourth of the total height above base (b) one-third of the total height above base (c) one-half of the total height above base (d) three-eighth of the total height above the base (e) none of the above. Ans: b 10.48. The units of moment of inertia of an area are (a) kg m2 (b) m4 (c) kg/m2 (d) m3 (e) kg/m4. Ans: b 10.49. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be (a) L/2 (b) L/3 (c) 3L/4 (d) 2L/3 (e) 3L/8. Ans: d 10.50. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of (a) concurrence of the medians (b) intersection of its altitudes (c) intersection of bisector of angles (d) intersection of diagonals (e) all of the above. Ans: a 10.51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are (a) kg m2 (b) m4 (c) kg/m2 (d) kg/m (e) m2/kg. Ans: a 10.52. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are (a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear (c) shear or tension (d) all of the above (e) bending. Ans: a 10.53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small approaches the following curve (a) catenary (b) parabola (c) hyperbola (d) elliptical (e) circular arc. Ans: b 10.54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per metre length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20 metres apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span (a) 2.5 cm (b) 3.0 cm (c) 4.0 cm (d) 5.0 cm (e) 2.0 cm. Ans: c 10.55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate (a) 0.5 cm (b) 1.0 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm (e) 0.25 cm. Ans: a 10.58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following : (a) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre (b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the inter¬section of its medians (c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals (d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a dis¬tance of r/2 from the centre (e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its centre. Ans: d 10.59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be (a) r/2 (b) 2r/3 (c) r/A
(d) 3r/2 (e) 3r/A. Ans: d 10.62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected (a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact (b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping (c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-strained to turn (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing through the point of suspension will be (a) maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) infinity (e) same as the force applied. Ans: c 10.65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, - ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be (a) 20 kg, - ve sense (ft) 20 kg, + ve sense (c) 10 kg, + ve sense (d) 10 kg, - ve sense (e) 45 kg, + ve sense. Ans: a 10.68. Angle oT friction is the (a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction (b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction (ey the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to move (d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion (e) ratio of static and dynamic friction. Ans: a 10.69. The coefficient of friction depends on (a) area of contact (b) shape of surfaces (c) strength of surfaces (d) nature of surface (e) all of the above. Ans: d
10.70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in the direction (a) along the plane (b) horizontally (c) vertically (d) at an angle equal to the angle of fric¬tion to the inclined plane (e) unpredictable. Ans: d 10.71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as (a) coefficient of friction (b) angle of friction (c) angle of repose (d) sliding friction (e) friction resistance. Ans: a 10.72. Which one of the following statements is not correct (a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction (b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction (c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction (d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be (a) towards the wall at its upper end (b) away from the wall at its upper end (c) upwards at its upper end (d) downwards at its upper end (e) none of the above. Ans: c 10.74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will be (a) downwards at its upper end (b) upwards at its upper end (c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end (d) zero at its upper end (e) none of the above. Ans: d 10.76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called (a) post friction
(b) limiting friction (c) kinematic friction (d) frictional resistance (e) dynamic friction. Ans: e 10.77. Coefficient of friction is the (a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction (b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction (c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move (d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion (e) tangent of angle of repose. Ans: b 10.78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is (a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces (b) dependent on the materials of contact surface (c) proportional to velocity of sliding (d) independent of the area of contact sur-faces (e) none of the above is wrong statement. Ans: c 10.79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to (a) W (b) W sin (a + $) (c) Wtan(a + DAM (c) CAM = DAM (d) there is no such criterion (e) none of the above. (CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum) Ans: a 82. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of a job an individual employee a particular division in workshop machine overall quality. b
83. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Material handling and plant location is analyzed by Gnatt chart bin chart Emerson chart travel chart activity chart. d
84. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Works cost implies primary cost factory cost factory expenses primary cost + factory expenses none of the above. d
85. (a)
Motion study involves analysis of actions of operator
(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
layout of work place tooling and equipment all of the above none of the above. a
86. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Standard time as compared to normal time is greater smaller equal there is no such correlation none of the above. a
87. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling (a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays (b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer (c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming (d) no time measuring devices are generally needed (e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less. Ans: a 88. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced process layout product layout fixed position layout plant layout functional layout. b
89. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production process layout product layout fixed position layout plant layout functional layout. b
90. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Which of the following layouts is suited to job production process layout product layout fixed position layout plant layout functional layout. a
91. (a) (b) (c) (d)
The employees provident fund act is applicable to all industries all industries other than small and medium industries volunteers the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries. Ans: d 92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is (a) credited into reserves of company (b) deposited in nationalized bank (c) deposited in post office (d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India (e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner. Ans: e 93. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The deductions for, employees provident fund start immediately on joining the service after 60 days of joining the service after 100 days of joining the service after 240 days of joining the service after one year of joining the service. d
94. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Father of time study was F.W. Taylor H.L. Gantt F.B. Gilberfh R.M. Barnes H.B. Maynord. a
95. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Tick the odd man out Taylor Drucker McGregor Galileo Parkinson. d
96. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Current assets include manufacturing plant manufacturing plant and equipment inventories common stock held by the firm all of the above. a
97. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by fast worker average worker slow worker new entrant any one of the above. b
98. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Job enrichment technique is applied to reduce labour monotony overcome boring and demotivating work make people happy all of the above none of the above. d
99. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited process layout product layout fixed position layout plant layout functional layout. c
100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established (a) by time study (b) from previous production records (c) from one's judgement (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: b 101. Routing is essential in the following type of industry (a) assembly industry (b) process industry (c) job order industry (d) mass production industry (e) steel industry. Ans: a 102. An optimum project schedule implies (a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials (b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project (c) timely execution of project (d) to produce best results under given constraints (e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits. Ans: b 103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with (a) break-even analysis (b) value analysis (c) linear programming (d) queuing theory (e) material handling. Ans: c 104. In crash programe for a project (a) both direct and indirect costs, increase (b) indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease
(c) (d) (e) Ans:
direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease cost is no criterion none of the above. c
106. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ? (a) Scanlon Plan (b) Rowan Plan (c) Bedaux Plan (d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System (e) Halsey Premium Plan. Ans: a 107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more (a) past good workers (b) past poor workers (c) past average workers (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: b 108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is (a) paid as per efficiency (b) ensured of minimum wages (c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency 2 reaches 66 % (d) never a loser (e) induced to do more work. Ans: b 109. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as (a) purchase value (b) saleable value (c) depreciated value (d) present worth (e) function/cost. Ans: e 110. Break-even analysis can be used for (a) short run analysis (b) long run analysis (c) average of above two run analysis (d) there is no such criterion (e) none of the above. Ans: a 111. CPM has following time estimate (a) one time estimate (b) two time estimate (c) three time estimate (d) four time estimate (e) nil time estimate. Ans: a
112. PERT has following time estimate (a) one time estimate (b) two time estimate (c) three time estimate (d) four time estimate (e) nil time estimate. Ans: c 113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on : (a) a standard rating system (b) a merit rating system (c) a job evaluation system (d) his individual performance (e) all of the above. Ans: b 114. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer (a) Emerson efficiency plan (b) Taylor plan (c) Halsey premium plan (d) Piece rate system (e) Gilberth plan. Ans: c 115. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan (a) differential piece rate system (b) Rowan plan (c) Emerson plan (d) Taylor plan (e) Halsey plan. Ans: d 117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers (a) Halsey plan (b) Rowan plan (c) Haynes plan (d) Emerson's plan (e) Taylor's plan. Ans: c 118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as (a) Rowan Plan (b) Bedaux Plan (c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system (d) Halsey Premium plan (e) Day work plan.
Ans: d 119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that (a) a differential piece rate system should exist (b) minimum wages should be guaran¬teed (c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance (d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production (e) all standards should be based on time studies. Ans: e 120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches (a) 50% (b) 661% (c) 75% (d) 80% (e) 90%. Ans: b 121. Accordmg to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be (a) HA (b) HA + (S~A) HA (c) HA + ^^-H (d) HA + ^^-H (e) HA + ^^-HA. Ans: b 122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be (a) 2 HA (b) 1.33 HA (c) 1.5 HA (d) 1.15 HA (e) 2.5 HA. Ans: a 123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to (a) those items which consume money (b) those items which are not readily available (c) thosex items which are in more demand (d) those items which consume more money (e) proper quality assurance program-mes. Ans: d 124. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ? (a) Halsey Premium Plan (b) Bedaux Plan (c) Lincoln Plan (d) Rowan Plan (e) Taylor Plan. Ans: c
125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as (a) operation research (b) linear programming (c) network analysis (d) queuing theory (e) break-even analysis. Ans: b 126. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results (a) relations between factors must be linear (positive) (b) relations between factors must be linear (negative) (c) (a) or (b) (d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant (e) none of the above. Ans: c 127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like (a) iron and steel (b) food processing (c) oil and chemical (d) banking (e) all of the above. Ans: e 46.128. The simplex method is the basic method for (a) value analysis (b) operation research (c) linear programming (d) model analysis (e) none of the above. Ans: c 129. The two-bin system is concerned with (a) ordering procedure (b) forecasting sales (c) production planning (d) despatching and expediting (e) none of the above. Ans: a 130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as (a) Dry work Plan (b) Halsey Premium Plan (c) Taylor Plan (d) Bedaux Plan (e) Rowan Plan. Ans: e
131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis: (a) annual cost method (b) rate of return method (c) total life average method (d) present worth method (e) any one of the above. Ans: e 132. String diagram is used (a) for checking the relative values of various layouts (b) when a group of workers are working at a place (c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant (a) sinking fund method (b) straight line method (c) A-B-C charging method (d) annuity charging method (e) diminishing balance method. Ans: d 134. Bin card is used in (a) administrative wing (b) workshop (c) foundary shop (d) stores (e) assembly shop. Ans: d 135. Slack represents the difference between the (a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time (b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time (c) proposed allowable time and the ear-liest expected time (d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time (e) project initiation tune and actual starting time. Ans: b 136. PERT and CPM are (a) techniques to determine project status (b) decision making techniques (c) charts which increase aesthetic ap-pearance of rooms (d) aids to determine cost implications of project (e) aids to the decision maker. Ans: e 137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case (a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are clearly marked activity times are clear critical path can be easily determined inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown. e
138. CPM is the (a) time oriented technique (b) event oriented technique (c) activity oriented technique (d) target oriented technique (e) work oriented technique. Ans: c 139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include (a) MTM (method time measurement) (b) WFS (work factor systems) (c) BNTS (basic motion time study) (d) all of the above (e) none of the abbvev Ans: d 140. Work study comprises following main techniques (a) method study and work measurement (b) method study and time study (c) time study and work measurement (d) method study and job evaluation (e) value analysis and work measurement. Ans: a 141. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others (a) organisation performance x motivation = profits (b) knowledge x skill = ability (c) ability x motivation = performance (d) attitude x situation = motivation (e) performance x resources = organisation performance. Ans: a 142. PERT is the (a) time oriented technique (b) event oriented technique (c) activity oriented technique (d) target oriented technique (e) work oriented technique. Ans: b 143. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that PERT deals with events and CPM with activities critical path is determined in PERT only costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d 145. Queing theory is used for (a) inventory problems (b) traffic congestion studies (c) job-shop scheduling (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed mathematically if (a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known (b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model (c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation (d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the ar¬riving units are taken into source are known (e) all of the above. Ans: d 147. Queing theory is associated with (a) sales (b) inspection time (c) waiting time (d) production time (e) inventory. Ans: c 148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that (a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate (b) output rate is linearly proportional to input (c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems (a) that can't be analysed mathematically (b) involving multistage queuing (c) to verify mathematical results (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a
1. A device for determining die value or magnitude of a quantity or variable : (a) sensor (b) transducer (c) gauge (d) instrument
(e)
indicator.
Ans: d 2. Determining moisture in steam by measuring the temperature in a throttling calorimeter is an example of : (a) direct measurement (b) indirect measurement (c) measurement by comparison (d) measurement by calibration (e) automatic measurement. Ans: b 3. The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true value of the variable being measured is called : (a) accuracy (b) precision (c) sensitivity (d) resolution (e) discrimination. Ans: a 4. Errors due to assignable causes are called : (a) static errors (b) systematic errors (c) calibration errors (d) random errors (e) known errors. Ans: b 5. Pick up the appropriate word for A pointer moving over a scale : (a) instrument (b) indicator (c) transducer (d) gauge (e) recorder. Ans: b 6. Pick up the appropriate word for A reading obtained from the motion of a pointer on a scale : (a) analog (b) digital (c) display (d) indicator (e) instrument. Ans: a 7. Pick up the appropriate word for The reading displayed as a number, a series of holes on a punched card, or a sequence of pulses on magnetic tape :
(a) pulse train (b) digital (c) analog (d) numeral (e) recording. Ans: b 8. For studying detailed variations with time, one uses : (a) indicator (b) digital indicator (c) recorder (d) integrator (e) analog indicator. Ans: c 9. The condition of how much successive readings differ from one another for a fixed value of the variable is called : (a) accuracy (b) error (c) sensitivity (d) resolution (e) precision. Ans: e 10. The ratio of output signal or response of the instrument'" to a change in input or measured variable is called : (a) sensitivity (b) precision (c) resolution (d) threshold (e) accuracy. Ans: a 11. The smallest change in measured value to which the instrument will respond is called (a) accuracy (b) precision (c) amplification (d) resolution (e) sensitivity. Ans: d 12. It responds directly to the measured quantity, producing a related motion or signal : (a) sensing element (b) transducer (c) transmitter (d) indicator
(e) measuring device. Ans: a 13. Which of the following is used to count the number of brass items passing on a conveyor line, when no contact is permitted with the object: (a) event counter (b) mechanical counter (c) magnetic pick up (d) photoelectric cell (e) electronic counter. Ans: d 14. Which of the following does not pertain to timing device : (a) charging of a condenser (b) flow of oil through a dash pot (c) release of air through a nozzle (d) flow of sand through an opening (e) piezoelectric crystal. Ans: e 15. Motion of fast-moving systems may be timed and studied by means of a : (a) stroboscope (b) piezoelectric crystal (c) electronic timer (d) chronometer (e) photovoltaic cell. Ans: a 16. In which device the input motion changes the inductive coupling between primary and secondary coils : (a) potentiometer (b) synchro (c) collimator (d) protractor (e) dial gauge. Ans: b 17. Which effect is useful in measuring rapidly varying forces : (a) piezoelectric (b) strain gauge (c) photovoltaic (d) pneumatic gauging (e) change of capacitance. Ans: a 18.
Pressure measuring devices are not based on:
(a) measure of an equivalent height of liquid column (b) measure of the force exerted on a fixed area (c) measure of some change in electrical or physical characteristics of the fluid (d) area measurement by polar planimeter (e) all of the above. Ans: d 19. Which of the following may be measured by the deflection of an elastic element, by balancing against a known force, by the acceleration produced in an object of known mass : (a) force (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) level (e) displacement. Ans: a 20. The sensitivity of reading of manometer can be increased by : (a) inclining the manometer rube (b) using low specific gravity fluid (c) application of optical magnification (d) use of level sensing device (e) all of the above. Ans: a 21. Which of the following device is used as a standard for calibrating pressure gauges : (a) manometer (b) diaphragm (c) bellows (d) dead weight pressure tester (e) piezoelectric crystal. Ans: d 22. Which gauge can be used to measure pressure below 1 |xm : (a) dead weight tester (b) pirani gauge (c) ionization gauge (d) McLeod gauge (e) absolute pressure sensor. Ans: c 23. Which is not correct statement about selection of tube material for a Bourdon gauge: (a) Have high creep strength to withstand high temperature (b) Be stable enough to maintain its calibration indefinitely (c) Be immune to corrosion from the fluid inside the tube, and from the atmosphere outside it (d) Be hard enough to withstand the applied pressure without any part of it being stressed above the limit of proportionality
(e) Be easy to fabricate. Ans: a 24. Hysteresis error in Bourdon tube can be minimized by : (a) using proper tube material (b) using proper diameter and thickness of tube (c) avoiding temperature cycling (d) using it well within the designed pressure range (e) using separating diaphragm and avoid direct ingress of hot. fluid to tube Ans: d 25. Pick up false statement about pressure measurements : (a) low pressure is normally measured by manometers (b) medium pressure by diaphragms or bellows (c) medium and high pressure by Bourdon gauge (d) all pressures by transducers (e) absolute pressure by piezoelectric crystal. Ans: e 26. Pressure gauges are never connected directly to live steam because : (a) the tubes or bellows which operate them would be overheated, causing serious error and damage (b) steam if leaks, can cause serious injuries to operators (c) entry of steam would cause static head error (d) parts of pressure gauge can't withstand temperature of steam (e) pressure gauges are not calibrated to measure steam pressure directly. Ans: a 27. A siphon or loop in the connecting pipe is interposed as close as possible to the pressure gauge so that: (a) steam can condense to form a seal of water to fill the tube or bellows at the pressure being measured (b) air or vapour collection is avoided (c) moisture formed in pipe can be drained (d) static head errors are eliminated (e) it acts as dampener and does not pass on pressure variations to sensor. Ans: a 28. When the pressure medium to be measured is air or gas, the pipe is made to rise continuously to the gauge, so that: (a) no air or vapour can collect in pipe (b) any moisture can be drained ' (c) moisture does not come in contact with elements of sensor/gauge (d) moisture can condense to form seal of water (e) static head error due to moisture is eliminated. Ans: b
29. Ring balance gauge is used for measurement of: (a) absolute pressure (b) vacuum (c) differential pressure (d) temperature (e) gauge pressure. Ans: c 30. The deflection of center of capsule (formed by circumferential welding of two diaphragms) is proportional to : (a) active diameter of diaphragm (D) (b) D (c) D2 (d) D3 (e) D4 Ans: e 31. The development of following element has improved the reliability and the response action of low pressure gauges : (a) diaphragm (b) capsule (c) bourdon (d) ring balance (e) all of the above. Ans: b 32. Proving rings are used to measure : (a) displacement (b) force (c) velocity (d) acceleration (e) shock. Ans: b 33. Which is not correct about load cells used to measure weight/force : (a) accuracy of the order of 0.01 to 1% (b) rugged and compact construction (c) no moving parts and negligible deflection under load (d) low resistance to side load and low overload withstand (e) hermetically sealed and thermal compensation. Ans: d 34. Which type of device is suitable for dynamic force measurement: (a) lever balance (b) spring balance
(c) proving ring (d) piezo-electric transducer (e) all of the above. Ans: d 1935. Hysteresis errors in Bourdon tubes can be minimized by : (a) selecting proper material (b) proper design and fabrication (c) using them well within the designed pressure range (d) avoiding direct entry of steam into it (e) calibrating it from time to time. Ans: c 36. In case of strain gauge transducers, several strain cycles, and temperature cycles are carried out before making measurements, in order to : (a) increase life (b) enable high repeatable readings (c) eliminate premature failures (d) increase accuracy (e) avoid drift. Ans: b 37. Accuracy of standard pressure gauges, used for testing and calibration purposes is of the order of : (a) ± 1.5% (b) ± 1% (c) ± 0.5% (d) ± 0.25% (e) ±0.1%. Ans: d 38. Which gauge is based on the change of heat conductivity of a gas with pressure and the change of electrical resistance of a wire with temperature : (a) thermocouple gauge (b) Bourdon gauge (c) Ionization gauge (d) nuitating disk gauge (e) Pirani gauge. Ans: e 39. Which of the following have relatively large and negative temperature coefficients of resistance : (a) radiation pyrometers (b) optical pyrometers (c) thermistors (d) platinum resistance detectors
(e) thermocouples. Ans: c 40. Thermal expansion of a solid is employed in : (a) thermocouple (b) resistance thermometer (c) bulb thermometer (d) bimetal element (e) zener diode. Ans: d 41. Cold junction compensation is needed in ase of measurement of temperature by : (a) thermocouple (b) thermopile (c) thermistor (d) zener diode (e) resistance thermometer. Ans: a 42. Which of the following consists of a very thin strip of nickel or platinum foil which responds to temperature in the same manner as the resistance thermometer : (a) thermo pile (b) bolometer (c) radiation pyrometer (d) thermistor (e) optical pyrometer. Ans: b 43. For measuring temperature in the range of 20 to 600°C, following liquid is used in glass thermometer : (a) mercury (b) alcohol (c) toluene (d) pentane (e) creosote. Ans: a 44. For measuring temperature in the range of 200 to 30°C, following liquid is used in glass thermometer: (a) mercury (b) alcohol (c) toluene (d) pentane (e) creosote. Ans: d
45. Which of the following glass is used for 00-600°C temperature measurement by mercuryin-glass thermometer : (a) lead glass (b) normal grade (c) borosilicate (d) supermax (e) any one of the above. Ans: d 46. Pick up false statement about liquid-in-metal thermometers : (a) remote indication of temperature can't be given (b) error is produced if capillary passes through hot zone (c) error also occurs if instrument base is at high ambient temperature (d) error can also creep in by the head of the liquid if the bulb is installed either above or below the Bourdon (e) these are used for industrial applica-tions where accuracy is not so impor-tant. Ans: a 47. Twisting the thermocouple wires together and heat welding them : (a) is the standard practice of making junction (b) would result in noise generation (c) cause small errors due to local e.m.f. which may arise if the junction is too long (d) would slow down the response (e) result in inaccuracies. Ans: c 48. Which of the following thermocouple generates highest e.m.f. for a given temperature : (a) copper-constantan (b) iron-constantan (c) chromel-alumel (d) platinum-rhodium platinum (e) silver-palladium. Ans: b 49. Protective coating by a suitable cover are applied over strain gauge in order to protect it against: (a) temperature rise (b) dust and dirt (c) moisture (d) ageing (e) shorting by conductive contact. Ans: c 50. The resistance of strain gauge grid used in pressure transducers is of the order of : (a) 0.1 to 1 ohm (b) 1 to 10 ohm
(c) 10 to 100 ohm (d) 100 to 2000 ohm (e) 2000 to 105 ohm Ans: d 51. During temperature changing conditions, quite appreciable difference, occurs be tween the -true-temperature and the measured temperature because of the time required for the transfer of heat through thermometer pockets (thermowells) to thermometer sensing element. This time lag is of the order of : (a) 0.1 to 1 sec (b) 1 to 2.5 sec (c) 2.5 to 10 or 20 sec (d) 25 to 100 sec (e) 100 to 500 sec. Ans: c 52. Pick up false statement: (a) copper-constantan thermocouple is a stable couple resistant to both oxidis¬ing and reducing atmosphere, but needs protection from acidic vapours (b) Iron-constantan thermocouple suffers from oxidation attack on iron wire, if exposed (c) iron-constantant couple can be made stable by using enamelled iron (d) Both wires of chromel-alumel ther-mocouples are prone to damage by sulphurous gases (e) copper-constantan thermocouple is used as a reference standard for calibration purposes. Ans: e 53. Automatic cold junction compensation in thermocouple is provided by : (a) connecting thermocouple wires, in op-position (b) a nickel wire resistance in series with a manganin resistance (c) maintaining cold junction temperature constant by a cooling unit (d) using a photovoltaic cell (e) connecting a dry battery cell in opposi¬tion. Ans: b 54. The material used for resistance temperature sensor is : (a) copper (b) nickel (c) platinum (d) any one of above (e) none of above. Ans: d 55. To prevent self-heating errors becoming too great, the current through platinum element (100 ohm) is kept at a very small value : (a) 0.1 raA (b) 1 mA (c) 5 mA
(d) 20 mA (e) 50 mA. Ans: c 56. In calibration of temperature sensors by fixed point method, the device is calibrated at: (a) ice point (0°C) (b) steam point (100°C) (c) sulphur point (444.6°C) (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 57. Pick up correct statement about calibration of temperature sensors by comparison method using liquid bath : (a) water is used for temperatures from 0 to I00°C (b) special grade of paraffin oil is used for temperatures between 100 and 200°C (c) For temperature between 200 and 600°C, a mixture of sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate is used (d) all of above are true (e) none of above is true. Ans: d 58. Local velocity is measured by a : (a) pitot tube (b) venturi tube (c) orifice plate (d) vena contracta device (e) nozzle. Ans: a 59. Flange taps in case of orifice plate are installed : (a) 25 mm from each side of the orfice plate (b) D (pipe diameter) upstream and D/2 downstream (c) just at surface of orifice plate (d) 2.5 D upstream and 8 D downstream (e) any one of the above. Ans: a 60. Vena-contracta taps are employed : (a) D upstream and D downstream from the plate (b) D upstream and at vena contracta (c) 2 D upstream and at vena contracta (d) just at surface of plate upstream and at vena contracta (e) any one of the above. Ans: b
61. For an orfice plate having ratio of inside and pipe diameter as 0.5, the pressure loss in comparison to differential pressure created is of the order of : (a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 35% (e) 50%. Ans: e 62. 15° taper venturi tube causes loss of following % of the differential pressure : (a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30% (e) 40%. Ans: b 63. Pick out false statement about advantages of orifice plates, used for flow measurement : (a) no moving parts (b) long-term reliability (c) highturn-down ratio (d) inexpensive (e) inherently simple in operation. Ans: c 64. Pick out false statement about disadvantages of orifice plates : (a) square root relationship (b) poor turn-down ratio (c) critical installation requirements (d) short-term reliability (e) high irrecoverable pressure loss. Ans: d 65. Dall tube is another variation of : (a) orifice plate (b) nozzle (c) venturi tube (d) rotameter (e) pitot-tube. Ans: c 66. Target meter is concerned with measure-ment of: (a) flow (b) pressure (c) viscosity (d) density
(e) level. Ans: a 67. The flow error in case of normal nozzles is of the order of : (a) 0.1% (b) 0.2% (c) 0.5% (d) 1% (e) 2%. Ans: d 68. Which of the following flow meter maintains a constant pressure differential but varies the orifice area with flow : (a) Ledoux bell (b) variable area (c) straightening vane (d) variable head (e) vane-type. Ans: b 69. Flow in open channels is measured by using : (a) nozzle (b) orifice plate (c) propeller (d) weir (e) vortex-shedding meter. Ans: d 70. For measuring air flow, following meter is often used : (a) vane-type or anemometer (b) electro magnetic flow meter (c) vortex-shedding meter (d) ultrasonic flow meter (e) pitot tube. Ans: a 71. Laser droppler anemometer is used to measure : (a) pressure (b) velocity (c) level (d) density (e) temperature. Ans: b 72. (a)
In which flow device the pressure loss is minimum : orifice plate
(b) nozzle (c) variable orifice meter (d) venturi tube (e) Dall tube. Ans: e 73. Pick out the odd flow measuring device among the following : (a) positive displacement type (b) nutating disc type (c) sliding vane type (d) turbine type (e) hydraulic flume. Ans: e 74. Dynamometers are : (a) force measuring devices (b) torque measuring devices (c) power measuring devices (d) energy measuring devices (e) displacement measuring devices. Ans: c 75. In some measurements, in order to increase the sensitivity, two measuring and two reference cells are often used. This arrange ment is usually referred to as : (a) wheatstone bridge (b) katharometer (c) attenuator (d) amplifier (e) Kelvin bridge. Ans: b 76. Paramagnetic analyser is used to measure following gas sample in air (a) oxygen (b) ozone (c) nitrogen (d) nitrogen oxides (e) hydrocarbons. Ans: a 77. Continuous analysers for measuring following are based on the chemiluminescent flameless reaction with ethylene : (a) oxygen (b) ozone (c) sulphur oxides (d) nitrogen oxides (e) pollutants.
Ans: b 78. In capillary viscometer, viscosity is proportional to : (a) flow (b) 1/flow (c) Vflow (d) 1/Vfl ow (e) 1/flow3/2. Ans: b 79. Industrial flow meters are based on : (a) rotational devices (b) flow through restrictions (c) flow around obstructions (d) all of above (e) none of above. Ans: d 80. Chromatographic analyser is used to measure the : (a) 02 content in flue gases (b) C02 content in flue gases (c) CO content in flue gases (d) amount of individual gases in a mix¬ture (e) amount of elements in an alloy. Ans: d 81. The Ringelmann chart is associated with measurement of: (a) smoke density (b) S02 and S03 (c) NO, (d) CO (e) dust concentration. Ans: a 82. The pH value is a measure of hydrogen ionin a solution. The letters pH stand for : (a) percentage of H2 in solution (b) power of the hydrogen ion concentra-tion (c) presence of hydrogen ions (d) purity of H20 (e) none of the above. Ans: b 83. The density can be measured using : (a) weight (b) buoyancy (c) hydrostatic head
(d) resonant elements (e) all of above. Ans: e 84. Electrode potential is concerned with measurement of: (a) density (b) viscosity (c) chemical analysis (d) PH (e) all of above. Ans: d 85. Almost all pH measurements are best made with a: (a) glass electrode (b) solid state electrode (c) liquid ion exchange electrode (d) redox electrode (e) heterogeneous membrane electrode. Ans: a 86. Pure water has pH value of 7. This means that pure water has : (a) 7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre (b) 10 g of ionized hydrogen in/m (c) 1CT7 % of ionized hydrogen (d) 10"7 g of ionized hydrogen per litre (e) none of the above. Ans: d 87. Which measurement is a good guide to the quality of the water : (a) conductivity (b) pH (c) dissolved 02 content (d) turbidity (e) all of the above. Ans: a 88. The commonly used unit of conductivity is: (a) mho (b) mho/m (c) n mho/cm (d) ohm/m (e) m mho/mm. Ans: c 89. Spectrophotometer is used to : (a) measure surface hardness
(b) measure surface characteristics (c) measure chemical composition of al-loys (d) analyse colour spectrum (e) analyse gas composition. Ans: d 90. The change in length of humidity sensitive elements is measured by : (a) hydrometer (b) hygrometer (c) psychrometer (d) photometer (e) all of the above. Ans: b 91. The orsat apparatus is used for measuring: (a) chemical analysis of flue gases (b) moisture in air (c) composition of alloys (d) colour spectrum (e) molecular configuration. Ans: a 92. The error caused in vibration measuring equipment due to non compliance (not stiff) of bond made between sensor and the surface it is mounted is called : (a) cross-coupling (b) coupling compliance (c) influence error (d) subject loading by sensor (e) spurious variation in capacitance. Ans: b 93. Machine health monitoring is mainly based on measurement of: (a) lub oil pressure (b) vibrations at strategic points (c) bearing temperature measurement (d) efficiency and losses of machine (e) all of above. Ans: b 94. Mass-spring seismic sensors measure directly the : (a) displacement (b) velocity (c) acceleration (d) shock (e) force. Ans: c
95. An operation which, in the presence of a disturbing influence, tends to reduce the difference between the actual state of a system and an arbitrarily varied desired state and which does so on the basis of this difference, is called : (a) automatic control (b) feedback control (c) open feed back control (d) closed feed back control (e) self regulation. Ans: d 96. An apparatus which measures the value of a quantity or condition which is subject to change with time, and operates to maintain within limits this measured value, is called (a) automatic regulator (b) self controller (c) feedback controller (d) two-position controller (e) floating regulator. Ans: a 97. The time required for the controlled variable to reach a specified value after the application of a step input is called : (a) rise time (b) settling time (c) response time (d) peak time (e) proportional time. Ans: c 98. The operating characteristic which inherently assists the establishment of equilibrium is called : (a) corrective action (b) self regulation (c) automatic regulation (d) proportional control action (e) floating controller action. Ans: b 99. The quantity or condition of the controlled system which is directly, measured or controlled : (a) set point (b) deviation (c) controlled variable (d) command signal (e) control agent. Ans: c
100. The range of values through which the variable must change to cause the final control element to move from one extreme position to the other : (a) throttling range (b) disturbance (c) proportional band (d) response (e) deviation. Ans: a 101. The range of scale values through which the controlled variable must pass in order that the final control element be moved through its entire range : (a) throttling (b) floating band (c) controller band (d) settling time (e) proportional band. Ans: e 102. A controller action in which there is a predetermined relation between the values of the controlled variable and the rate of motion of a final control element: (a) floating controller action (b) proportional-position controller action (c) proportional-speed floating control¬ler action (d) two-position controller action (e) self-regulation controller action. Ans: a 103. The controller action in which there is continuous linear relation between the position of the final control element and the value of the controlled variable : (a) floating controller action (b) proportional-position controller action (c) proportionrl-speed floating controller action (d) two-position controller action (e) self-regulation controller action. Ans: b 104. The stability, accuracy, and speed ofresponse of a control system are determined by analysing : (a) its mathematical model (b) closed-loop feedback control system (c) steady-state response (d) transient response (e) steady-state and transient response. Ans: e
105. The steady-state performance is evaluated in terms of the : (a) accuracy with which the output is controlled for a specified input (b) maximum overshoot (c) rise time (d) response time (e) all of the above. Ans: a 106. The transient performance, i.e. the behaviour of the output variable as the system changes, from one steady-state condition to another, is evaluated in terms of; (a) accuracy (b) settling time (c) response time (d) peak time (e) maximum overshoot, rise time, and response time. Ans: e 107. The immediately apparent feature of an observed transient performance is : (a) the existence and magnitude of the maximum overshoot (b) the frequency of the transient oscilla-tion (c) the response time (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 108. Following is the property of the system which opposes a change in the output variable : (a) load (b) power element (c) resistance (d) damping (e) all of the above. Ans: d 109. When an automatic control system is the output variable overshoots its desired steadystate condition and a transient oscillation occurs : (a) underdamped (b) over damped (c) critically damped (d) damped (e) without damping. Ans: a 110. The overshoot and the settling time are maximum with : (a) underdamped system (b) overdamped system
(c) critically damped system (d) damped system (e) non damped system. Ans: a 111. The steady state output of the system to input sinusoids of varying frequency is referred to as : (a) frequency response of a system (b) Nyquist plot (c) Bode plot (d) transient response (e) logarithmic plot. Ans: a 112. System function is expressed as : (a) Response function (b) lyccitation function (c) (a)/(b) (d) (b)/(a) (e) characteristic equation. Ans: c 113. The frequency response can be obtained analytically from the : (a) characteristic equation (b) transfer functions of the components (c) polar plot (d) Bode diagram (e) all of the above. Ans: b 114. The transient performance characteristics of the control are conveniently obtained from curve of the : (a) open-loop frequency response func-tion (b) transfer functions of system (c) closed loop frequency response (d) all of above (e) none of above. Ans: a 115. The % age of silica in water is measured by a : (a) colorimeter (b) photometer (c) electro chemical equipment (d) conductivity cell (e) Katharometer. Ans: a
1. Work study is concerned with (a) improving present method and finding standard time (b) motivation of workers (c) improving production capability (d) improving production planning and control (e) all of the above. Ans: a 2. Basic tool in work study is (a) graph paper (b) process chart (c) planning chart (d) stop watch (e) analytical mind. Ans: d 3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study (a) operation (b) inspection (c) transport (d) delay/temporary storage (e) none of the above. Ans: a 4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study (a) inspection (b) transport (c) delay/temporary storage (d) permanent storage (e) none of the above. Ans: c 5. What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study (a) operation (b) inspection (c) delay/ temporary Storage (d) permanent storage (e) none of the above. Ans: d 6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by (a) overhead crane (b) trolley (c) belt conveyor (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
Ans: a 7. String diagram is used when (a) team of workers is working at a place (b) material handling is to be done (c) idle time is to be reduced (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 8. Work study is most useful (a) where production activities are involved (b) in judging the rating of machines (c) in improving industrial relations (d) in judging the output of a man and improving it (e) where men are biggest contributor to success of a project. Ans: a 9. Micromotion study is (a) enlarged view of motion study (b) analysis of one stage of motion study (c) minute and detailed motion study (d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis (e) motion study of small components upto microseconds. Ans: d 10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by (a) a symbol (b) an event (c) an activity (d) micro motions (e) standard symbol and colour. Ans: e 11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus (a) policy allowance (b) interference allowance (c) process allowance (d) learning allowance (e) unforeseen allowance. Ans: a 12. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions 8 12 16 20
(e) 24 Ans: c 13. The standard time for a job is (a) total work content (b) basic time + relaxation time (c) total work content + basic time (d) total work content + delay contingency allowance (e) total work content + relaxation time. Ans: d 14. Work study is done with the help of (a) process chart (b) material handling (c) stop watch (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 15. Scheduling gives information about (a) when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period (b) when work should complete (c) that how idle time can be minimised (d) prcper utilisation of machines (e) none of the above. Ans: a 16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on (a) operator's activity (b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble (c) minimising the delays (d) making efficient despatching (e) none of the above. Ans: b 17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to (a) determine overhead expenses (b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages (c) determine standard costs (d) determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines (e) compare alternative methods. Ans: a 18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the (a) relative worth of jobs (b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker (d) contribution of a job (e) effectiveness of various alternatives. Ans: a 19. Micro motion study is (a) analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view (b) motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals (c) motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically (d) study of man and machine conducted simultaneously (e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method. Ans: a 20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by (a) work sampling (b) time study (c) method study (d) work study (e) ABC analysis. Ans: a 21. TMU in method time measurement stands for (a) time motion unit (b) time measurement unit (c) time movement unit (d) technique measurement unit (e) time method unit. Ans: b 22. Time study is (a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort (b) machine setting time (c) time taken by workers to do a job (d) method of fixing time for workers (e) method of determining the personnel Requirement. Ans: a 23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of (a) detailed calculations (b) convenience (c) table of random numbers (d) past experience (e) fixed percentage of daily production. Ans: c
24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals (a) 0.0001 minute (b) 0.0006 minute (c) 0.006 minute (d) 0.001 minute (e) 0.06 minute. Ans: b 25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of (a) second (b) minute (c) hour (d) day (e) none of the above. Ans: b 26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for (a) improving a work method (b) improvising a work method (c) designing a work method (d) providing a schematic framework (e) reducing inventory costs. Ans: e 27. Gnatt chart provides information about the (a) material handling (b) proper utilization of manpower (c) production schedule (d) efficient working of machine (e) all of the above. Ans: c 28. ABC analysis deals with (a) analysis of process chart (b) flow of material (c) ordering schedule of job (d) controlling inventory costs money (e) all of the above. Ans: d 29. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Process layout is employed for batch production continuous type of product effective utilization of machines all of the above none of the above.
Ans: a 30. For a product layout the material handling equipment must (a) have full flexibility (b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc. (c) be a general purpose type (d) be designed as special purpose for a particular application (e) arranging shops according to specialization of duties. Ans: d 31. Travel charts provide (a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages (b) a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections (c) the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment (d) an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station (g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results. Ans: b 32. Product layout is employed for (a) batch production (b) continuous production1 (c) effective utilisation of machine (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: b 33. The most important objective behind plant layout is (a) overall simplification, safety of integration (b) economy in space (c) maximum travel time in plant (d) to provide conveniently located shops (e) to avoid any bottlenecks. Ans: a 34. The process layout is best suited where (a) specialization exists (b) machines are arranged according to sequence of operation (c) few number of non-standardised units are to be produced (d) mass production is envisaged (e) bought out items are more. Ans: c 35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following (a) product layout (b) functional layout (c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialisation of operation (e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout. Ans: a 36. Military organisation is known as (a) line organisation (b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is (a) top level executives have to do excessive work (b) structure is rigid (c) communication delays occur (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 38. The main advantage of line organisation is its (a) effective command and control (b) defined responsibilities at all levels (c) rigid discipline in the organisation (d) ability of quick decision at all levels (e) all of the above. Ans: e 39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as (a) line organisation (b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) effective organisation (e) none of the above. Ans: c 40. The salient feature of functional organization is (a) strict adherence to specification (b) separation of planning and design part (c) each individual maintains functional efficiency (d) work is properly planned and distributed (e) all of the above. Ans: e 41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is (a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation (c) functional organisation (d) effective organisation (e) none of the above. Ans: a 42. Templates are used for (a) a planning layout (b) flow of material (c) advancing a programmer in automatic machines (d) copying complicated profiles (e) none of the above. Ans: a 43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is (a) conveyors (b) cranes and hoists (c) trucks (d) locos (e) none of jhe above. Ans: d 44. Routing prescribes the (a) flow oftnaterial in the plant (b) proper utilization of man power (c) proper utilization of machines (d) inspection of final product (e) none of the above. Ans: a 45. Queuing theory deals with problems of (a) material handling (b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme (c) better utilization of man services (d) effective use of machines (e) none of the above. Ans: b 46. Standard time is defined as (a) normal time + allowances (b) normal time + idle time + allowances (c) normal time + idle time (d) only normal time for an operation (e) none of the above. Ans: a
47. Father of industrial engineering is (a) Jeck Gilberth (b) Gnatt (c) Taylor (d) Newton (e) none of the above. Ans: b 48. The grouping of activities into organizational units is called (a) corporate plans (b) higher level management (c) functional authority (d) departmentalization (e) company policy. Ans: d 49. Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry (a) functional organization (b) line organization (c) staff organization (d) line and staff organizations (e) scalar organization. Ans: d 50. Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants (a) functional organization (b) line organization (c) staff organization (d) line, staff and functional organizations (e) scalar organization. Ans: d 51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store (a) inflated system (b) primary cost method (c) current value method (d) fixed price method (e) variable price method. Ans: a 52. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Which of the following is independent of sales forecast productivity inventory control production planning production control
(e) capital budgeting. Ans: a 53. Gnatt charts are used for (a) forecasting sales (b) production schedule (c) scheduling and routing (d) linear programming (e) none of the above. Ans: b 54. Inventory management consists of (a) effective running of stores (b) state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc. (c) stock control system (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 55. Gnatt charts provide information about (a) break even point analysis (b) production schedule (c) material handling layout (d) determining selling price (e) value analysis. Ans: b 56. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at (a) achieving optimization (b) ensuring against market fluctuations (c) acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory (d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase (e) regulate supply and demand. Ans: c 57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the (a) optimum lot size (b) highest level of inventory (c) lot corresponding to break-even point (d) capability of a plant to produce (e) none of the above. Ans: a 58. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of (a) quality (b) statistics
(c) probability (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is (a) management (b) labour court (c) high court/supreme court (d) board of directors (e) president. Ans: c 60. Under the Apprenticeship Act (a) all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices (b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement (c) all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices (d) only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices (e) all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices. Ans: d 61. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to (a) all industries (b) all process industries and thermal power plants (c) only major industries (d) only key industries (e) all industries employing more than 100 workers. Ans: e 62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in (a) bacth production (b) job production (c) mass production (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: c 63. The technique of value analysis can be applied to (a) complicated items only (b) simple items only (c) crash-programme items only (d) cost consciousness items only (e) any item. Ans: e 64. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(a) total cost of the product (b) selling price of the product (c) utility of the product (d) manufactured cost of the product (e) depreciation value. Ans: c 65. Value engineering aims at finding out the (a) depreciation value of a product (b) resale value of a product (c) major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality (d) break even point when machine re-quires change (e) selling price of an item. Ans: c 66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its (a) minimum value (b) maximum value (c) average value (d) alarming value (e) original value. Ans: a 67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when (a) CAM < DAM (b) CAM > DAM (c) CAM = DAM (d) there is no such criterion (e) none of the above. (CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum) Ans: a 68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of (a) a job (b) an individual employee (c) a particular division in workshop (d) machine (e) overall quality. Ans: b 69. Material handling and plant location is analyzed by (a) Gnatt chart (b) bin chart (c) Emerson chart (d) travel chart
(e) activity chart. Ans: d 70. Works cost implies (a) primary cost (b) factory cost (c) factory expenses (d) primary cost + factory expenses (e) none of the above. Ans: d 71. Motion study involves analysis of (a) actions of operator (b) layout of work place (c) tooling and equipment (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 72. Standard time as compared to normal time is (a) greater (b) smaller (c) equal (d) there is no such correlation (e) none of the above. Ans: a 73. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling (a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays (b) simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer (c) calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming (d) no time measuring devices are generally needed (e) as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less. Ans: a 74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced (a) process layout (b) product layout (c) fixed position layout (d) plant layout (e) functional layout. Ans: b 75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production (a) process layout
(b) product layout (c) fixed position layout (d) plant layout (e) functional layout. Ans: b 76. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production (a) process layout (b) product layout (c) fixed position layout (d) plant layout (e) functional layout. Ans: a 77. The employees provident fund act is applicable to (a) all industries (b) all industries other than small and medium industries (c) volunteers (d) the industries notified by Government (e) all major industries. Ans: d 78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is (a) credited into reserves of company (b) deposited in nationalized bank (c) deposited in post office (d) deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India (e) deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner. Ans: e 79. The deductions for, employees provident fund start (a) immediately on joining the service (b) after 60 days of joining the service (c) after 100 days of joining the service (d) after 240 days of joining the service (e) after one year of joining the service. Ans: d 80. Father of time study was (a) F.W. Taylor (b) H.L. Gantt (c) F.B. Gilberfh (d) R.M. Barnes (e) H.B. Maynord. Ans: a
81. Tick the odd man out (a) Taylor (b) Drucker (c) McGregor (d) Galileo (e) Parkinson. Ans: d 82. Current assets include (a) manufacturing plant (b) manufacturing plant and equipment (c) inventories (d) common stock held by the firm (e) all of the above. Ans: a 83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by (a) fast worker (b) average worker (c) slow worker (d) new entrant (e) any one of the above. Ans: b 84. Job enrichment technique is applied to (a) reduce labour monotony (b) overcome boring and demotivating work (c) make people happy (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited (a) process layout (b) product layout (c) fixed position layout (d) plant layout (e) functional layout. Ans: c 86. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established by time study from previous production records from one's judgement all of the above none of the above.
Ans: b 87. Routing is essential in the following type of industry (a) assembly industry (b) process industry (c) job order industry (d) mass production industry (e) steel industry. Ans: a 88. An optimum project schedule implies (a) optimum utilization of men, machines and materials (b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project (c) timely execution of project (d) to produce best results under given constraints (e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits. Ans: b 89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with (ay break-even analysis (b) value analysis (c) linear programming (d) queuing theory (e) material handling. Ans: c 90. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ? (a) Scanlon Plan (b) Rowan Plan (c) Bedaux Plan (d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System (e) Halsey Premium Plan. Ans: a 91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more (a) past good workers (b) past poor workers (c) past average workers (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: b 92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is (a) paid as per efficiency (b) ensured of minimum wages (c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser (e) induced to do more work. Ans: b 93. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as (a) purchase value (b) saleable value (c) depreciated value (d) present worth (e) function/cost. Ans: e 94. Break-even analysis can be used for (a) short run analysis (b) long run analysis (c) average of above two run analysis (d) there is no such criterion (e) none of the above. Ans: a 95. CPM has following time estimate (a) one time estimate (b) two time estimate (c) three time estimate (d) four time estimate (e) nil time estimate. Ans: a 96. PERT has following time estimate (a) one time estimate (b) two time estimate (c) three time estimate (d) four time estimate (e) nil time estimate. Ans: c 97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on : (a) a standard rating system (b) a merit rating system (c) a job evaluation system (d) his individual performance (e) all of the above. Ans: b 98. Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the
employer (a) Emerson efficiency plan (b) Taylor plan (c) Halsey premium plan (e) Gilberth plan. Ans: c 99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan (a) differential piece rate system (b) Rowan plan (c) Emerson plan (d) Taylor plan (e) Halsey plan. Ans: d 100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers (a) Halsey plan (b) Rowan plan (c) Haynes plan (d) Emerson's plan (e) Taylor's plan. Ans: c 101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as (a) Rowan Plan (b) Bedaux Plan (c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system (d) Halsey Premium plan (e) Day work plan. Ans: d 102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that (a) a differential piece rate system should exist (b) minimum wages should be guaranteed (c) provide incentive to group efficiency performance (d) all standards should be based on optimum standards of production (e) all standards should be based on time studies. Ans: e 103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches (a) 50% (b) 661% (c) 75%
(d) 80% (e) 90%. Ans: b 104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be (a) HA (b) HA + (S~A) HA (c) HA + ^^-H (d) HA + ^^-H (e) HA + ^^-HA. Ans: b 105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be (a) 2 HA (b) 1.33 HA (c) 1.5 HA (d) 1.15 HA (e) 2.5 HA. Ans: a 106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to (a) those items which consume money (b) those items which are not readily available (c) those items which are in more demand (d) those items which consume more money (e) proper quality assurance program-mes. Ans: d 107. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ? (a) Halsey Premium Plan (b) Bedaux Plan (c) Lincoln Plan (d) Rowan Plan (e) Taylor Plan. Ans: c 108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as (a) operation research (b) linear programming (c) network analysis (d) queuing theory (e) break-even analysis. Ans: b
109. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results (a) relations between factors must be linear (positive) (b) relations between factors must be linear (negative) (c) (a) or (b) (d) only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant (e) none of the above. Ans: c 110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like (a) iron and steel (b) food processing (c) oil and chemical (d) banking (e) all of the above. Ans: e 111. The simplex method is the basic method for (a) value analysis (b) operation research (c) linear programming (d) model analysis (e) none of the above. Ans: c 112. The two-bin system is concerned with (a) ordering procedure (b) forecasting sales (c) production planning (d) despatching and expediting (e) none of the above. Ans: a 113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as (a) Dry work Plan (b) Halsey Premium Plan (c) Taylor Plan (d) Bedaux Plan (e) Rowan Plan. Ans: e 114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis: (a) annual cost method (b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method (d) present worth method (e) any one of the above. Ans: e 115. String diagram is used (a) for checking the relative values of various layouts (b) when a group of workers are working at a place (c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant (a) sinking fund method (b) straight line method (c) A-B-C charging method (d) annuity charging method (e) diminishing balance method. Ans: d 117. Bin card is used in (a) administrative wing (b) workshop (c) foundry shop (d) stores (e) assembly shop. Ans: d 118. Slack represents the difference between the (a) latest allowable time and the normal expected time (b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected time (c) proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time (d) normal allowable time and the latest expected time (e) project initiation tune and actual starting time. Ans: b 119. PERT and CPM are (a) techniques to determine project status (b) decision making techniques (c) charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms (d) aids to determine cost implications of project (e) aids to the decision maker. Ans: e
120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case (a) activities and events are clearly shown (b) early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked (c) activity times are clear (d) critical path can be easily determined (e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown. Ans: e 121. CPM is the (a) time oriented technique (b) event oriented technique (c) activity oriented technique (d) target oriented technique (e) work oriented technique. Ans: c 122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include (a) MTM (method time measurement) (b) WFS (work factor systems) (c) BNTS (basic motion time study) (d) all of the above (e) none of the above Ans: d 123. Work study comprises following main techniques (a) method study and work measurement (b) method study and time study (c) time study and work measurement (d) method study and job evaluation (e) value analysis and work measurement. Ans: a 124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others (a) organization performance x motivation = profits (b) knowledge x skill = ability (c) ability x motivation = performance (d) attitude x situation = motivation (e) performance x resources Ans: a 125. PERT is the (a) time oriented technique (b) event oriented technique (c) activity oriented technique (d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique. Ans: b 126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that (a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities (b) critical path is determined in PERT only (c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT (d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM (e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants. Ans: d 127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique (b) project examination and review technique (c) project evaluation and reporting technique (d) process execution and reporting technology (e) project execution and results technique. Ans: a 128. Queing theory is used for (a) inventory problems (b) traffic congestion studies (c) job-shop scheduling (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed mathematically if (a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are known (b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model (c) all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation (d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source are known (e) all of the above. Ans: d 130. Queing theory is associated with (a) sales (b) inspection time (c) waiting time (d) production time (e) inventory. Ans: c 131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that (a) the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input (c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: d 132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems (a) that can't be analyzed mathematically (b) involving multistage queuing (c) to verify mathematical results (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its (a) minimum value (b) maximum value (c) average value (d) middle value (e) alarming value. Ans: a 134. A milestone chart (a) shows the interdependences of various jobs (b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any (c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: e 135. Bar charts are suitable for (a) minor works (b) major works (c) large projects (d) all of the above (e) none of the above. Ans: a 136. The first method invented for planning projects was (a) bar chart method (b) milestone chart (c) critical path method (CPM) (d) programmer evaluation and review technique (PERT) (e) none of the above. Ans: a
137. Pick up the correct statement from the following (a) programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented (b) programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented (c) critical path method is event oriented (d) critical.path method is not activity oriented (e) none of the above. Ans: e 138. Pick up the correct statement from the following (a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method (b) critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems (c) critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart (d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957 (e) all of the above. Ans: e 139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M. (a) a project is divided into various activities (b) required time for each activity is established (c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance (d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events (e) all of the above. Ans: e 140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity meeting at the final iodide (a) early finish (b) early start (c) late start (d) late finish (e) none of the above. Ans: a 141. The disadvantage of product layout is (a) high initial investment for the specialized facilities (b) skilled labour to operate machines (c) production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory (d) high cost of inspection (e) costly and complex production control. Ans: a 142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in (a) job production (b) automatic production (c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production (e) none of the above. Ans: d 143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance (a) the flow of material in the plant (b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower (c) the methods of proper utilization of machines (d) the layout of factory facilities (e) normal route of workers through the plant. Ans: c 144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as (a) dummy (b) event (c) activity (d) contract (e) none of the above. Ans: c 145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following (a) an activity of the project is denoted by an harrow on the net work (b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity (c) the head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
1. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have (a) Tow specific heat of liquid (b) high boiling point (c) high latent heat of vaporization (d) higher critical temperature (e) low specific volume of vapour. Ans: b 2. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of (a) water at 0°C (b) ice at - 4°C (c) solid and dry ice (d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions (e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions. Ans: e 3. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like (a) Carnot cycle (b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversed Camot cycle (d) reversed Rankine cycle (e) none of the above. Ans: e 4. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant (a) Ericsson (b) Stirling (c) Carnot (d) Bell coleman (e) none of the above. Ans: d 5. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires (a) very little work input (b) maximum work input (c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle (d) zero work input (e) none of the above. Ans: a 6. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is (a) noisy operation (b) quiet operation (c) cooling below 0°C (d) very little power consumption (e) its input only in the form of heating. Ans: b 7. The relative coefficient of performance is (a) actual COP/theoretical COP (b) theoretical COP/actual COP (c) actual COP x theoretical COP (d) 1-actual COP x theoretical COP (e) 1-actual COP/theoretical COP. Ans: a 8. Clapeyron equation is a relation between (a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy (b) specific volume and enthalpy (c) temperature and enthalpy (d) temperature, pressure, and specific volume (e) temperature, pressure, specific value and enthalpy. Ans: e 9. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at (a) saturation point of vapour (b) saturation point of liquid (c) sublimation temperature
(d) triple point (e) critical point. Ans: a 10. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid (a) after passing through the condenser (b) before passing through the condenser (c) (d) (e) Ans:
after passing through the expansion throttle valve before entering the expansion valve before entering the compressor. a
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour (a) after passing through the condenser (b) before passing through the condenser (c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve (d) before entering the expansion valve (e) before entering the compressor. Ans: e 12. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid (a) after passing through the condenser (b) before passing through the condenser (c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve (d) before entering the expansion valve (e) before entering the compressor. Ans: d 13. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour (a) after passing through the condenser (b) before passing through the condenser (c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve (d) before [entering the expansion valve (e) before entering the compressor. Ans: b 14. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour (a) after passing through the condenser (b) before passing through the condenser (c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve (d) before entering the expansion valve (e) before entering the compressor.. Ans: e 15. The boiling point of ammonia is (a) -100°C (b) -50°C (c) - 33.3°C (d) 0°C (e) 33.3°C. Ans: c
16. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice (a) in 1 hour (b) in 1 minute (c) in 24 hours (d) in 12 hours (e) in 10 hours. Ans: c 17. One ton refrigeration corresponds to (a) 50 kcal/min (b) 50 kcal/kr (c) 80 kcal/min (d) 80 kcal/hr (e) 1000 kcal/day. Ans: a 18. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to (a) 210 kJ/min (b) 21 kJ/min (c) 420 kJ/min (d) 840 kJ/min (e) 105 kJ/min. Ans: a 19. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle Rankine Carnot Reversed Rankine Brayton Reversed Carnot. e
20. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of (a) atmospheric pressure (b) slightly above atmospheric pressure (c) 2-4 bars (d) 5-6 bars (e) 7-10 bars. Ans: d 21. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 22.
The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by evaporator safety relief valve dehumidifier driers expansion valve d The condensing pressure due to the presence of non condemnable gases, as
compared to that actually required for condensing temperatures without non condemnable gases, (a) will be higher (b) will be lower (c) will remain unaffected (d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non condemnable gases (e) unpredictable. Ans: a 23. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure above which liquid will remain liquid above which liquid becomes gas above which liquid becomes vapour above which liquid becomes solid at which all the three phases exist together. a
24. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Critical temperature is' the temperature above which a gas will never liquefy a gas will immediately liquefy water will evaporate water will never evaporate none of the above. a
25. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have high sensible heat high total heat high latent heat low latent heat low sensible heat c
26. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of 0.1 ton 5 tons 10 tons 40 tons 100 tons. a
27. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The COP of a domestic refrigerator is less than 1 is more than 1 is equal to 1 depends upon the make depends upon the weather conditions. b
28. (a) (b)
The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor centrifugal axial
(c) (d) (e) Ans:
miniature sealed unit piston type reciprocating none of the above. d
29. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of compressor condenser evaparator expansion valve. heat transfer. d
30. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant C02 Freon-11 Freon-22 Air none of the above. d
31. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of expansion device (a) electrically operated throttling valve (b) manually operated valve (c) thermostatic valve (d) capillary tube (e) expansion valve. Ans: d 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Air refrigeration operates on Carnot cycle Reversed Carnot cycle Rankine cycle Erricson cycle Brayton cycle. e
33. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Air refrigeration cycle is used in domestic refrigerators commercial refrigerators air conditioning gas liquefaction such a cycle does not exist. d
34. is (a) (b) (c) (d)
In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve liquid sub-cooled liquid saturated liquid wet vapour
(e) dry vapour. Ans: d 35. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be lower than atmospheric pressure higher than atmospheric pressure equal to atmospheric pressure could be anything none of the above. b
36. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in evaporator and condenser must be (a) small (b) high (c) euqal (d) anything (e) under some conditions small and under some conditions high. Ans: a 37. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator are condenser tubes evaporator tubes refrigerant cooling tubes capillary tubes throttling device. a
38. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at receiver expansion valve evaporator condenser discharge compressor discharge. e
39. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be near critical temperature of refrigerant above critical temperature at critica. temperature much below critical temperature could be anywhere. d
40. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is (a) less than 2 kg (b) more than or equal to 3.65 kg (c) more than 10 kg (d) there is no such consideration (e) pone of the above. Ans: b
41. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant (a) Freon-11 (b) Freon-22 (c) C02 (d) S02 (e) ammonia. Ans: e 42. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to (a) reduce compressor overheating (b) reduce compressor discharge tempera-ture (c) increase cooling effect (d) ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve (e) none of the above. Ans: d 43. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The value of COP in vapour compression cycle is usually always less than unity always more than unity equal to unity any one of the above none of the above. b
44. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is (a) more (b) less (c) same (d) more for small capacity and less for high capacity (e) less for small capacity and more for high capacity. Ans: b 45. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature (a) of cooling medium (b) of freezing zone (c) of evaporator (d) at which refrigerant gas becomes liquid (e) condensing temperature of ice. Ans: d 46. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator (a) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer (b) increases heat transfer rate (c) is immaterial (d) can be avoided by proper design (e) decreases compressor power. Ans: a 47. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the medium being cooled should be (a) high, of the order of 25°
(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
as low as possible (3 to 11°C) zero any value none of the above. b
48. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is used to (a) collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor (b) detect liquid in vapour (c) superheat the vapour (d) collect vapours (e) increase refrigeration effect. Ans: a 49. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least 10% 25% 50% 75% 100%. c
50. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant (a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) depends on other factors (e) none of the above. Ans: b 51. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator temperature of- 23°C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be (a) 0.2 (b) 1.2 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 10. Ans: c 52. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant high triiscibility with oil low boiling point good electrical conductor large latent heat non-inflammable. c
53. (a) (b)
In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between condenser and expansion valve compressor and evaporator
(c) (d) (e) Ans:
expansion valve and evaporator compressor and condenser none of the above. c
54. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in ammonia absorption system (a) strong solution to weak solution (b) weak solution to strong solution (c) strong solution to ammonia vapour (d) ammonia vapour to weak solution (e) ammonia vapour to strong solution. Ans: b 55. Efficiency of a Cornot engine is given as 80%. If the- cycle direction be reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot cycle (a) 1.25 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25 (e) none of the above. Ans: d 56. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be critical pressure of refrigerant much below critical pressure much above critical pressure near critical pressure there is no such restriction. b
57. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator temperature of - 23°C, then the Carnot COP will be (a) 0.2 (b) 1.2 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 10. Ans: d 58. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is (a) Ammonia (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Freon (d) Brine (e) Hydrocarbon refrigerant. Ans: b 59. (a) (b)
Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system compression direct
(c) (d) (e) Ans:
indirect absorption none of the above. d
60. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be (a) same (b) more (c) less (d) more/less depending on rating (e) unpredictable. Ans: b 61. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by compressor condenser evaporator expansion valve all of the above. d
62. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ? condenser evaporator compressor expansion valve receiver. b
63. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke using reagents smelling sensing reduction in pressure. a
64. rick up the incorrect statement (a) lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is nonvolatile (b) lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C (c) a separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by condensing (d) concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to that entering the generator (e) weak solution in liquid heat exchanger gives up heat to the strong solution. Ans: c 65. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpydiagram represents (a) condensation of the refrigerant vapour (b) evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(c) (d) (e) Ans:
compression of the refrigerant vapour metering of the refrigerant liquid none of the above. b
66. Mass flow ratio of NH3 in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same temperature limits is of the order of (a) 1:1 (b) 1:9 (c) 9:1 (d) 1:3 (e) 3:1 Ans: b 67. (a) (d) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Freon group of refrigerants are inflammable toxic non-inflammable and toxic non-toxic and inflammable non-toxic and non-inflammable. e
68 Ammonia is (a) non-toxic (b) non-inflammable (c) toxic and non-inflammable (d) highly toxic and inflammable (e) none of the above. Ans: d 69. In vapour compression cycle using NH3 as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at (a) suction of compressor (b) delivery of compressor (c) high pressure side colse to receiver (d) low pressure side near receiver (e) anywhere in the cycle. Ans: c 70. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant pressure lines constant temperature lines constant total heat lines constant entropy lines constant volume lines. a
71. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is represented by a horizontal line because the process (a) involves no change in volume (b) takes place at constant temperature (c) takes place at constant entropy (d) takes place at constant enthalpy
(e) takes place at constant pressure. Ans: e 72. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
One ton of the refrigeration is the standard unit used in refrigeration problems the cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice the refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions the refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice in 1 hour time. c
73. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Super heating in a refrigeration cycle increases COP decreases COP COP remains unaltered other factors decide COP unpredictable. b
74. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then (a) bigger cabinet should be used (b) smaller cabinet should be used (c) perfectly tight vapour seal should be used (d) refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used (e) refrigerant with high boiling point must be used. Ans: c 75. Choose the correct statement (a) A refrigerant should have low latent heat (b) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should be used (c) Precooling and subcooling bf refrigerant are same (d) Superheat and sensible heat of a. refrigerant are same (e) Refrigerant is inside the lubes in case of a direct-expansion chiller. Ans: b 76. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery side is (a) bigger (b) smaller (c) equal (d) smaller/bigger depending on capacity (e) unpredictable. Ans: a 77. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Moisture in freon refrigeration system causes ineffective refrigeration high power consumption freezing automatic regulating valve corrosion of whole system breakdown of refrigerant.
Ans: c 78. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The advantage of dry compression is that it permits higher speeds to be used it permits complete evaporation in the evaporator it results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency all of the above none of the above. d
79. Choose the wrong statement (a) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator (b) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid (c) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent operation (d) frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer (e) refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat. Ans: a 80. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Under-cooling in a refrigeration cycle increases COP decreases COF COP remains unaltered other factors decide COP unperdictable. a
81. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be high low optimum any value there is no such criterion. b
82. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the heat of compression work done by compressor enthalpy increase in compressor all of the above none of the above. d
83. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping condenser temperature constant, will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unaffected (d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used (e) unpredictable. Ans: a
84. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant pressure lines temperature lines total heat lines entropy lines volume lines. c
85. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system vapour compression vapour absorption carnot cycle electrolux refrigerator dual cycle. a
86. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for C02 system) is to approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration (a) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration (b) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration (c) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration (d) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration (e) 5 to 10 h.p. per ton refrigeration. Ans: c 87. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle lowers evaporation temperature increases power required per ton of refrigeration lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter reduces weight displaced by piston all of the above. e
88. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant condenser evaporator absorber condenser and absorber condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier). e
89. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a similar plant is (a) same (b) more (c) less (d) more or less depending on ambient conditions (e) unpredictable. Ans: c 90.
The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,
keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) may increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used (d) remain unaffected (e) unpredictable. Ans: a 91. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 92. is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point Freon-12 NH3 C02 Freon-22 S02. d The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant more less same more/less depending on size of plant unpredictable. a
93. be (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in comparison to domestic air conditioner will same more less dependent on weather conditions unpredictable. c
94. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:
The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when ammonia vapour goes into solution ammonia vapour is driven out of solution lithium bromide mixes with ammonia weak solution mixes with strong solution lithium bromide is driven out of solution. a
95. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P. (a) more (b) less (c) equally. (d) unpredictable (e) none of the above. Ans: a
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