MCQs+for+5th+Grade+Students+Mehysen2

MCQs for 5th Grade Students 2102-2102

 MCQs for 5th grade students about “Cough & Hemoptysis” by Dr. Hala Kahla 1.

cough of bronchial origin is characterized by: a. Increases by laughing b. Increases by sudden change in temperature and humidity of c. inspired air d. Associated with wheeze

2.

The following are recognized causes of hemoptysis EXCEPT : a. Tuberculosis b. Chronic obstructive airway disease c. Bronchiectasis

3.

a. bronchial asthma b. amoebic lung abscess c. acute pulmonary oedema d. bronchial carcinoma e. bronchitis f. ruptured hydatid cyst.

The following statements about expectoration are true EXCEPT: a. Children may swallow their sputum and mother gives the complaint of vomiting b. Patient with Lt lung abscess can’t lie on his left side because of cough and increased expectoration c. Patient with bronchiectasis expels huge amount of sputum

9.

a. acute tracheitis b. reflux oesophagitis c. bronchial asthma d. acute laryngitis

Match the description of sputum in column (A ) with the possible disease in column ( B ) Column ( A ) Column ( B ) 1. Clear, frothy 2. muco-purulent 3. mucus pellet 4. watery- salty 5. anchovy-sauce 6. frank hemoptysis ( red currant jelly)

8.

d. Aggravated by dust and fumes e. None of the above

Match the description of cough in column (A ) with the possible disease in column ( B ) Column ( A ) Column ( B ) 1. Cough is harsh , associated with hoarseness of voice 2. Cough at night , with chocking 3. Cough is painful with midline soreness 4. Cough in paroxysms which aggravate Wheeze and breathlessness

7.

d. Order immediate CBC and PT , schedule the next follow up date e. refer to hematology clinic

The following statements about cough in bronchiectasis are true EXCEPT : a. Related to posture b. Offensive odor c. Viscid sputum and difficult to cough up

6.

d. rhinitis e. bronchiectasis

A known heavy smoker male patient with COPD on regular follow up visit complained of hemoptysis . What would you do ? a. Order immediate CXR b. Reassure the patient , as bronchitis is a common cause of hemoptysis c. Advise him to stop his low dose aspirin

5.

d. Goodpasture’s syndrome (vasculitic syndrome affecting the lung) e. Mitral stenosis

cough may be a symptom in the following diseases EXCEPT : a. laryngitis b. bronchitis c. reflux oesophagitis

4.

e. Paroxysms at night and on getting up in the morning f. a.& b. only g. all of the above

d. Hysterical patients may spit out large amount of saliva e. Rupture of hydatid cyst in a bronchus results in a spontaneous recovery

A -70 year old- bed bound patient coughs up blood, the most serious possibility to be sought or excluded is : a. Tuberculosis b. Bronchitis c. Bronchiectasis

d. Pulmonary thrombo-embolism e. Hypertension

10.

Hazards of cough include the following EXCEPT: a. Stress incontinence of urine b. Muscle pain in chest and abdomen c. Dissemination of droplet infection

 Answers : 1. g 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6 ::::::: 1-d 2-b 3-a 4-c 7 ::::::: 1-c 2-e 3-a 4-f 5-b 6-d ::::::: 8. B 9. D 10. D

d. Development of hypertension e. Spontaneous pneumothorax

Kumar MCQ .. for Our Topics 1.

GASTROENTEROLOGY Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1. 1 g / dl in all except a. Tuberculous peritonitis b. Congestive cardiac failure

2.

All of the following are associated with obstructive jaundice except a. Oral contraceptives b. Pregnancy

3.

c. Induction of vomiting d. Attacks of emotional stress

Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis a. carcinoma of the stomach b. Duodenal diverticula

GASTROENTEROLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

c. Black tarry semisolid stool d. Offensive In odour

Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by a. Consumption of food b. Change of posture

6.

c. The blood may not be mixed with stool d. Bleeding source Is proximal to ligament of Treitz

Regarding melaena which statement is false a. At 'least 60 mL of blood Is required b. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut

5.

c. Crigler-Najjar type II d. Secondary carcinoma of liver

Regarding haematochezla which one Is false a. Passage of bright red blood per rectum b. May be due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon

4.

c. Cirrhosis of liver d. Budd·Chiari syndrome

a c d b b d

c. Mallory-Weiss syndrome d. Stomatostatinoma

1.

HEPATOBILIARY & PANCREATIC DISORDERS The best way to diagnose Gilbert's syndrome is a. Testing for red blood cell survival b. Liver biopsy

2.

Differential diagnosis of jaundice includes all except a. Argyria b. Carotenaemia

3.

c. Atabrine toxicity d. Diffuse xanthomatosis

Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in seen in all except a. Shunt hyperblllrublnaemia b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome

4.

c. Remains normal d. Episodic increase and decrease

All are causes of chylous ascites except a. Intra-abdominal malignancy b. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery

7.

c. 500-1000 mL d. More than 1 litre

Example of transudative ascites is a. Malignant peritonitis b. Budd-Chiari syndrome

9.

c. Pyloric Stenosis d. Acute myocardial Infarction

Normal portal venous pressure is a. < 5 mm Hg b. > 12 mm Hg

11.

c. 5-7 mm Hg d. 7-10 mm Hg

All of the following produce deep jaundice except a. G6PD deficiency b. Recurrent cholestasls of pregnancy

12.

c. Carcinoma of the head of pancreas d. Sclerosing cholangitis

Commonest cause of jaundice in pregnancy is a. Toxaemia of pregnancy b. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

13.

c. Cirrhosis of liver d. Chylous ascites

All of the following may present as latent jaundice except a. Pernicious anaemia b. Acute pa·ncreatltls

10.

c. Tuberculosis d. Filariasis

Minimal fluid required to have clas.sical shifting dullness In ascites Is a. 100-250 mL b. 250-500 mL

8.

c. High-coloured stool d. Xanthelasma

In complete biliary obstruction, urinary urobilinogen is a. Decreased b. Elevated

6.

c. Gilbert's syndrome d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Bedside diagnosis of obstructive jaundice includes all except a. Generalised pruritus b. Palpable gall bladder

5.

c. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test d. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/day

c. Acute viral hepatitis d. Use of hepatotoxic drugs

Which vitamin deficiency occurs in obstructive jaundice a. Folic acid b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin B12

HEPATOBILIARY & PANCREATIC DISORDERS Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d a b c a b c c c d

11. 12. 13.

A c b

1.

CARDIOLOGY Water-hammer pulse Is present when pulse pressure Is at least above a. 30 mm Hg b. 80 mm Hg

2.

All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except a. Water-hammer pulse b. Tapping apex

3.

c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Aortic stenosis

Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in a. Mid-systole b. Diastole

17.

c. Bornholm disease d. Unstable angina

Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except a. Myocarditis b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

16.

c. Ventricular rate is 100-150/mln d. Pulse deficit is > 10

Retrosternal chest pain classically occurs In all except a. Acute mediastinitis. b. Dissecting aneurysm

15.

c. Amiloride d. Hydralazine

Which one of the following Is false regarding atrial fibrillation a. 'f' waves In neck vein b. Atrial rate is 350-400/mln

14.

c. Early diastolic d. With· radiation towards left axilla

Which one of the following Is a centrally-acting andhypertensive drug a. Prazosln b. Methyldopa

13.

c. Renal artery Stenosis d. Phaeochromocytoma

The murmur of MS Is a. Increased by amyl nitrite Inhalation b. High-pitched

12.

c. Related to diastolic BP d. As a result of venous distension

Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in a. Coarctation of aorta b. Eclampsia

11.

c. MS d. MI

'Auscultatory gap' In BP measurement Is a. Present in all hypertensives b. Should be Ignored

10.

c. Sarcoidosis d. Cervical rib

Left ventricular hypertrophy Is not associated with a. AS b. AI

9.

c. Myocarditis d. Cardio-myopathy

All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except a. Tophaceous gout b. Trauma

8.

c. Coarctation of aorta d. Severe anaemia

Cardiac percussion Is Important In a. Acute myocardial Infarction b. Emphysema

7.

c. Right ventr.lcular hypertrophy d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in a. Ischaemlc heart disease b. Cardiomyopathy

6.

c. Right-to-left shunt d. Acute bacteriaLendocarditis

Left parasternal heave Is diagnostic of a. Left ventricular hypertrophy b. Right atrial hypertrophy

5.

c. Cardiomegaly d. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area

Clubbing in not a feature of a. Fallot's tetralogy b. Left atrial myxoma

4.

c. 40 mm Hg d. 60 mm Hg

c. Mid-diastole d. Systole

The drug contraindicated in pregnancy-Induced hypertension Is a. Hydralazine b. Enalaprll

c. Methyldopa d. Labetalol

18.

Reversed splitting of S3 is found In a. LBBB b. RBBB

19.

c. Left ventricular pacing d. Aortic regurgitation

All of the following drugs may be used In congestive cardiac failure except a. Spironolactone b. Buclndolol

20.

c. Propranolol d. Digoxin

Pulsus bisferlens Is best perceived in a. Radial b. Brachial

21.

c. Femoral d. Any of the above

Which of the following cardioselectlve beta-blockers is used in heart failure a. Carvedilol b. Atenoiol

22.

c. Labefatol d. Pindolol

Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click a. Occurs Immediately after 51 b. Stenosis is severe

23.

c. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level d. Sharp and high-pitched dlcking sound

Propranolol can be used In all except a. Systemic hypertension b. Congestive cardiac failure

24.

c. Angina pectoris d. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmlas

Heart valve commonly affected in IV drug abusers is a. Pulmonary valve b. Mitral valve

25.

c. Tricuspid valve d. Aortic valve

Verapamll is Indicated In all except a. Atrial fibrillation b. Acute left ventricular failure

26.

c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. Angina pectoris

A2 in aortic stenosis Is characteristically a. Diminished b. Ringing in character

27.

c. Normal in character d. Accentuated

Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S 1 a. Ejection click b. Opening snap

c. Tumour plop In atrial myxoma d. Pericardlal knock

CARDIOLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d b d c c b d c d d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

a b a c a b b a c b

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

a b b c b a a

1.

PULMONOLOGY Clubbing is present In all except a. Fibrosing alveolitis b. Cystic fibrosis

2.

Worldwide commonest cause of haemoptysis is a. Pulmonary tuberculosis b. Bronchogenic carcinoma

3.

C. Increased pulp tissue D. Increase in antero-posterior diameter of nail

Monophonic rhonchi is classically found in a. Chronic bronchitis b. Foreign body in bronchus

17.

c. Acute lung injury d. Pulmonary thromboembolism

Earliest sign of clubbing is a. Schamroth's sign b. Increased fluctuation at nail-bed

16.

c. lung abscess d. Bronchiectasis

All of the following are complicated by cyanosis except a. Respiratory failure b. Lung abscess

15.

c. Pneumothorax (right) d. Pleural effusion (right)

Ciubblng occurs earliest with a. Mesothelioma of pleura b. Fallot's tetralogy

14.

c. Breathlessness d. Syncope

Upper border of liver dullness is elevated in all except a. Ascites b. Subdiaphragmatic abscess (right)

13.

c. Myasthenia gravis d. Obesity

The most reliable symptom of acute pulmonary thromboembolism Is a. Substernal chest pain b. Haemoptysis

12.

c. Left ventricular failure d. Emphysema

All of the following are restrictive lung diseases except a. Sarcoidosis b. Cystic fibrosis

11.

c. Viperide snake bite d. Diffuse Interstitial fibrosis

Reduced compliance of lung is seen In all except a. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis b. Alelectasis

10.

c. ca. of fundus of stomach d. Pericardial effusion

Restriction of bilateral chest movement is found In all except a. Myasthenia gravis b. Ankylosing spondylitis

9.

c. Pneumonia d. Selective paralysis of Intercostal muscles

Loss of Traube's space tympanlclty Is found in all except a. Splenic rupture b. Achalasia cardia

8.

c. Rhonchial fremitus d. Palpable coarse crepitations

Platypnoea may be found In a. COPD b. Acute severe asthma

7.

c. Consolidation d. Superficial, empty cavity

ln a patient of consolidation, which one of the following Is increased commonly a. Myotactic irritability b. Vocal fremitus

6.

c. Superficial, big, empty cavity with patent bronchus d. Bronchopleural fistula

Aegophony may be found in a. Pneumothorax b. Emphysema

5.

c. Chronic bronchitis d. Pneumonia

Bronchial breath sound is found in all except a. Collapse with patent bronchus b. Bronchial asthma

4.

c. Emphysema d. Lung abscess

c. Emphysema d. Bronchial asthma

Haemoptysis is characteristically seen in all except a. Goodpasture's syndrome b. Aspergilloma

c. Pulmonary vasculitis b. Byssinosis

18.

Haemoptysis following acute pleuritic chest pain a nd dyspnoea is characteristic of a. Bronchogenic carcinoma b. Pulmonary thromboembolism

19.

Hysterical hyperventilation may be manifested by all except a. Circumoral numbness b. Loss of ankle jerk

20.

c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Chest wall tightness

Which of the following is false in rest rictive lung disease a. Decreased vital capacity b. Increased residual volume

PULMONOLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c. Pulmonary tuberculosis d. Arterio-venous malformations abscess

c c b c b d d c d b

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c c c b b b d b b b

c. Decreased functional residual capacity d. Decreased total lung capacity

1.

NEUROLOGY Which of the following is not included within 'motor functions' a. Nutrition of muscles b. Tone and power

2.

Which Is not a feature of 'stage of neural shock' In hemiplegia a. Retention of urine b. Coma

3.

c. Trochlear nerve d. Trigeminal nerve

Root value of 'plantar response' is a. L5 b. S1,S2

17.

c. Hypnotic poisoning d. Severe heart failure

Corneal reflex tests the integrity of a. Optic nerve b. Oculomotor nerve

16.

c. Alcoholism d. Wilson's disease

Flapping tremor is not found in a. Raised Intracranial tension b. Hepatocellular failure

15.

c. Flexor plantar response d. Increased deep reflexes

Fine tremor is found In a. Cerebellar disorder b. Parkinsonism

14.

c. Punch-drunk syndrome d. Idiopathic parkinsonism

Characteristics of 'rigidity' are all except A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract

13.

c. Normal reflexes d. Hyperkinesia

Pyramidal signs may be associated with A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism

12.

c. Apraxia d. Sensory ataxia

Which is not a feature of parkinsonism a. Tremor b. Rigidity

11.

c. Hysteria d. Lax abdominal wall

Romberg's sign is present in a. Cerebellar ataxia b. Labyrinthine ataxia

10.

c. Myotonia d. Chorea

Abdominal reflex is usually retained In a. Obesity b. Mutiparous woman

9.

c. Parkinsonism d. Cerebral diplegia

Hypertonia is a feature of all except a. Tetany b. Athetosis

8.

c. Stokes-Adams syndrome d. Arrhythmia

Abdominal reflex is lost early in a. Multiple sclerosis b. Motor neuron disease

7.

c. Vibration sensation d. Two point localisation

All of the following may produce syncope except a. Cardiac Tamponade b. Tight aortic stenosis

6.

c. Clonus d. Fasciculations

Which Is not a test for cortical sensory function a. Perceptual rivalry b. Graphaesthesia

5.

c. Absent deep jerks d. Hypertonia

Which is not a feature of UMN palsy a. Spasticity b. Babinski's sign

4.

c. Stereognosis d. Involuntary movements

c. S1 d. L5,S1

Babinski's sign is not found in a. Electroconvulsive therapy b. Peripheral neuropathy

c. Hypoglycaemic coma d. Marathon runner

18.

Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by a. Atenolol b. Phenytoin

19.

c. Verapamll d. Sumatriptan

Which Is false in cluster headache a. Male dominance b. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis

20.

c. Absence of hereditary predisposition d. Periorbital pain

Which is false regarding migraine a. Hereditary predisposition b. Common migraine has aura

21.

c. Common in women d. Hemicranial headache

Increased jaw jerk is seen In a. Syringomyelia b. Bulbar palsy

22.

c. Hyperthyroidism d. Chronic motor neuron disease

Migraine Is not associated with a. Dysphasia b. Diplopia

23.

c. Seizures d. Paraesthesia

Characteristic of LMN lesion is a. Weakness and Spasticity b. Absent superficial reflex

c. Equivocal plantar response d. Brisk deep reflexes

NEUROLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c d d c a a d c d d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

a d c a d c b c b b

21. 22. 23.

d c b

1.

CARDIOLOGY Commonest cause of jaundice In thalassaemla is a. Viral hepatitis C b. Iron deposition In liver

2.

Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly a. Chronic renal failure b. Aplastic anaemia

3.

c. Thalassaemia d. Pernicious anaemia

Commonest pathogen Involved In sickle-cell anaemia-Induced osteomyelitis is a. Salmonella b. Streptococcus

16.

c. Anti-Intrinsic factor antibody In 60% patients d.· Gastric polyp may develop

Macrocytic-hypochromic anaemia is found in a. Iron deficiency anaemia b. Pregnancy

15.

c. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemogloblnurla (PNH) d. Hereditary spherocytosis

Incorrect statement In pernicious anaemia is a. Hyperchlorhydria b. Premature greying of hair

14.

c. Flshmouth vertebrae d. Diastolic murmur over precordium

Presence of anaemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with Increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentratlon ( MCHC) is seen in a. Cirrhosis of liver b. Thalassaemia major

13.

c. High creatinine level d. Hypofibrinogenaemia

Sickle-cell anaemia Is assodated with a. Cerebral embolism b. High ESR

12.

c. Quinidine d. Methyldopa

Which is not seen In haemolytic-uraemic syndrome a. Positive Coombs test b. Thrombocytopenia

11.

c. Clubbing d. Post-cricoid web

Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by a. Penicillin b. Lithium

10.

c. Hb C disease d. Iron deficiency anaemia

Plummer-Vinson syndrome Is not associated with a. Angular Stomatitis b. Splenomegaly

9.

c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Disseminated malignancy

Red cell osmotic; fragility Is Increased in a. Thalassaemla major b. Hereditary spherocytosis

8.

c. Chronic lead poisoning d. Iron deficiency anaemia

 Fe and normal TIBC are found in a. Thalassaemla major b. Haemosiderosis

7.

c. Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia d. Refractory anaemia

Basophilic stippling Is classically seen In a. Chronic myeloid leukaemia b. Myelosclerosis

6.

c. Pernicious anaemia d. Lead poisoning

Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) a. Refractory anaemia with ring sideroblasts b. Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts

5.

c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Sickle-cell anaemia

All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except a. Sideroblastlc anaemia b. Thalassaemia

4.

c. Viral hepatitis B d. Haemolysls

c. Nocardia d. Staphylococcus

Sickle-cell anaemia is not complicated by a. Papillary necrosis b. Pancreatitis

c. Osteomyelitis d. Congestive cardiac failure

17.

Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is characteristic of a. Persons who are true vegetarians b. Munchausen's syndrome

18.

Features of sickle-cell anaemia do not include a. Nocturia b. Priapism

19.

c. Hypersplenism d. Leg ulcers

Pancytopenia may develop from all except a. Haemoslderosis b. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

20.

c. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Haemolysls In subjects with G6PD deficiency Is reported with all except a. Chloramphenicol b. Cipronoxacin

c. Carbamazepine d. Naphthalene (moth-balls)

CARDIOLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c. Pseudohypoparathyroldlsm d. Patterson-Kelly syndrome

d c c c c a b c b a

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c d a b a b d c a c

1.

ENDOCRINOLOGY Earliest changes observed by ophthalmoscope in background retinopathy of diabetes is a. Venous dilatation b. Microaneurysms

2.

Effect of diabetes on foetus includes all except a. Microsomia b. Hyperbllirubinaemia

3.

c. 100-125 mg/dL d. 116-130 mg/dL

Which Is not a feature of autonomic neuropathy in diabetes a. Retrograde ejaculation b. Gustatory sweating

ENDOCRINOLOGY Key Answers : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

c. Hippus d. Isolated IIIrd cranial nerve palsy

A patient of Impaired fasting glucose ranges blood glucose value in between a. 96-106 mg/dL b. 106-116 mg/dL

7.

c. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma d. Hypoglycaemla

Which Is not a feature of diabetes mellitus a. Rubeosls irldis b. Pseudo Argll Robertson pupil

6.

c. Dehydration d. Air hunger

Commonest cause of coma in a diabetic is a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. lactic acidosis

5.

c. Stillbirth d. Open neural tube defect

All are features of diabetic ketoacidosis except a. Hyperthennia b. Drowsiness

4.

c. Increase capillary permeability d. Arterio-venous shunts

b a a d c c c

c. Mononeuritis multiplex d. Hypoglycaemlc unresponsiveness