Kaplan Mcat

WELCOME TO KAPLAN! Today you begin your Kaplan MCAT preparation with a full “work-up” that includes a Personal Profile and two Diagnostic Tests to evaluate both your science knowledge and your critical thinking ability. Please note that in order to maintain your Higher Score Guarantee eligibility you must take the online (non PDF) version of the diagnostic found on your Kaptest.com student syllabus. From the information obtained here, we will prescribe a personalized study regimen designed to review and reinforce relevant science content as well as emphasize the “higher order” analytical thinking and problem-solving skills the MCAT is designed to test. The Science Diagnostic Test consists of 120 discrete science questions, 30 each in biology, general chemistry, organic chemistry, and physics. You will do this test first. The test is specifically designed to assess your raw knowledge in the science areas covered on the MCAT. The results of this test, in combination with the MCAT Diagnostic and the Personal Profile, will provide a more complete picture of your “MCAT health.” Please use the section of your Online Student Center labeled Science Diagnostic to complete this test. The Personal Profile contains questions about your academic background, study habits, perceived academic strengths and weaknesses, etc. Your responses to these questions will be integrated with your performance on the Diagnostic Tests, enabling us to tailor a study plan suited to your study habits and academic needs. PLEASE ANSWER EVERY QUESTION (UNLESS YOU ARE TOLD TO LEAVE IT BLANK), or incomplete feedback will be generated. You can input your Personal Profile answers into the last section of the Science Diagnostic input form,(see above for the location of this form) in a section labeled Personal Profile. The MCAT Diagnostic Test (half-length) simulates the actual MCAT experience. The test will indicate how well, at present, you can handle MCAT-style questions and passages that require critical thinking and problem-solving. Remember, the MCAT is not just a science exam. While it requires you to have a firm knowledge of fundamental science concepts, it also tests your ability to integrate new information presented in challenging science passages. As on the actual MCAT, there is no penalty for incorrect answers. Please use the input form labeled MCAT Diagnostic to input your responses to this test. Remember, your feedback from today’s “work-up” is only a baseline evaluation. The Kaplan MCAT Program is designed to help you master ALL the material and skills necessary for your success on the MCAT. Good luck! Team MCAT

Kaplan Science Diagnostic Test You have 75 minutes to complete this exam. This test is composed of 4 sections. Section 1: Section 2: Section 3: Section 4:

Subject Biology General Chemistry Organic Chemistry Physics

You must select an answer for every question. If you are uncertain of an answer, guess! (There is no penalty for wrong answers, just like on the actual MCAT.) Mark your responses in the input form found by navigating to your kaptest.com student homepage and choosing Science Diagnostic from the menu options. Use sections 1-4 for input responses from these sections. After completing this section please proceed to the Personal Profile.

Section 1: Biology 1.

Steroid hormones:

6.

A . bind to receptors on the surface of target cells. B . lower the activation energy of a specific reaction. C . bind to specific antigens during an immune response. D . bind to receptors in the cytoplasm of target cells.

A. B. C. D.

7. 2.

Which of the following processes utilizes ATP?

3.

II only III only II and III only I, II and III

8.

9.

A . ventilation is controlled by the medulla oblongata. B . gas exchange occurs across the alveolarcapillary membrane. C . the rate of breathing is increased by sympathetic stimulation. D . contraction of the diaphragm contracts the thoracic cavity and permits the lungs to fill.

4.

5.

Which of the following statements is NOT descriptive of enzymes?

1 0 . Which of the following molecules links glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

Eye Heart Lungs Liver

A. B. C. D.

Lactate Pyruvate Glucose-6-phosphate Glucose

1 1 . Which of the following cellular substituents is made within the nucleus?

Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? A. B. C. D.

ribosomes. transcription enzymes. genetic material. a polysaccharide coat.

A . Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by increasing the activation energy of that reaction. B . Enzyme activity varies with temperature and pH. C . A zymogen is inactive until it is cleaved under certain physiological conditions. D . The most scientifically accepted model for enzyme activity is the induced fit hypothesis.

Which of the following is derived from the mesoderm? A. B. C. D.

diluting the urine. concentrating the urine. increasing the rate of glomerular filtration. buffering urine pH.

A virus has: A. B. C. D.

All of the following occur in the human respiratory system EXCEPT:

Formation of bile salts Storage of glycogen Storage of bile pigments Detoxification of chemicals and drugs from bloodstream

In the nephron, increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to water has the effect of: A. B. C. D.

I. Diffusion II. Facilitated diffusion III. Active transport A. B. C. D.

Which is not a function of the liver?

A. B. C. D.

Memory Appetite Coordination of movement Control of heartbeat

36

Ribosome Lysosome Golgi apparatus Cell membrane

1 2 . During metaphase I of meiosis: A . chromatin shortens and thickens. B . homologous pairs of chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C . the cell’s complement of DNA is the same as in the non-dividing diploid cell. D . homologous chromosome pairs line up along the equatorial plate.

1 3 . Which of the following matings of ABO blood types CANNOT produce type O offspring? A. B. C. D.

AxO BxB AB x O AxB

Figure 1 1 6 . Figure 1 is an O2 -Hb dissociation curve for a human adult Hb at 38 o C and pH 7.4. An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels would cause the curve to: A. B. C. D.

1 4 . Bacteria have all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D.

ribosomes. a cell wall. a nucleus. a flagellum.

1 7 . Which of the following is a true statement concerning muscle? A . Cardiac muscle combines attributes of both smooth and skeletal muscle. B . Skeletal muscle lacks striations. C . Muscle tissue only carries out aerobic respiration. D . The presence of Ca2+ will inhibit muscular contractions.

1 5 . The epidermis can best be classified as: A. B. C. D.

shift to the left. shift to the right. remain the same. decrease to zero.

epithelial tissue. connective tissue. nervous tissue. muscle tissue.

1 8 . During an immune reaction: A . antibodies are produced by T-lymphocytes. B . cytotoxic B-lymphocytes destroy antigens directly. C . antigens recognize and bind to specific antibodies and trigger the immune system to remove them. D . helper T-lymphocytes activate other T-cells and B-cells via lymphokine secretion.

37

2 3 . Which of the following occurs during DNA replication?

1 9 . During which phase of the menstrual cycle is progesterone at the highest concentration? A. B. C. D.

A . An RNA primer is necessary for synthesis initiation. B . The leading strand is synthesized as a series of Okazaki fragments. C . Synthesis proceeds in the 3’ Æ 5’ direction. D . The enzyme DNA polymerase introduces negative supercoils into the unwinding DNA.

Follicular phase Ovulation Luteal phase Menstruation

2 4 . You have just sequenced a fragment of DNA that reads: 5’ ATGCCA 3’ If this strand is the template for RNA synthesis, what is the sequence of bases of the resulting RNA strand? A. B. C. D.

Figure 2 2 0 . Figure 2 is a pedigree for dentinogenesis imperfecta, a dentine formation disorder. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is transmitted as a(n): A. B. C. D.

3’ ATGCCA 5’ 3’ TACGGT 5’ 3’ AUGCCA 5’ 3’ UACGGU 5’

2 5 . Which of the following hormones elevates calcium blood concentration?

autosomal recessive trait. autosomal dominant trait. sex-linked recessive trait. sex-linked dominant trait.

A. B. C. D.

Parathyroid hormone Calcitonin Glucagon Aldosterone

2 1 . Which of the following is in a different chemical category than the others? A. B. C. D.

2 6 . When an action potential is generated, which of the following events occurs first?

Cytosine Thymine Arginine Uracil

A. B. C. D.

2 2 . According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection: A . organisms of the same generation can adapt to a dramatic shift in environment. B . an organism’s genotype mutates as a response to the environment C . well adapted individuals survive because they have traits that are selected by the environment. D . evolution and extinction are unrelated.

Increased permeability to K+ Increased permeability to Na+ Increased permeability to ClDecreased permeability to Ca2+

2 7 . Which of the following cannot cross the plasma membrane without assistance? A. B. C. D.

38

Calcium ions Oxygen Water Urea

2 8 . Which of the following digests proteins? A. B. C. D.

Maltase Cholecystokinin Amylase Chymotrypsin

2 9 . All arteries transport: A. B. C. D.

oxygenated blood. blood towards the heart. blood away from the heart. interstitial fluid.

3 0 . If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, and a cross between a female carrier and an affected male occurs, then in the progeny: A. B. C. D.

all offspring are hemophiliacs. all males are hemophiliacs. all females are hemophiliacs . half the males and half the females are hemophiliacs.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 2.

39

Section 2: General Chemistry 5. 1.

Which of the following will affect the speed of a gas particle?

A . Electrons will fill orbitals so that an atom has the highest possible energy. B . No two electrons can possess the same four quantum numbers. C . Electrons prefer to occupy degenerate orbitals and have parallel spins. D . The greater the principal quantum number, the greater the energy of the electron shell.

I. Temperature II. Molar mass III. Volume A. B. C. D.

I only III only I and II I, II, and III 6.

2.

What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 10–6 M? A. B. C. D.

3.

What is the standard enthalpy change, DH°, of the reaction below? 2CO(g) + O2 (g) Æ 2CO2 (g)

4 6 7 8

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is true of a galvanic cell?

7.

A . Oxidation occurs at the cathode, reduction occurs at the anode, and the reaction is nonspontaneous. B . Oxidation occurs at the anode, reduction occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is nonspontaneous. C . Oxidation occurs at the cathode, reduction occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is spontaneous. D . Oxidation occurs at the anode, reduction occurs at the cathode, and the reaction is spontaneous.

4.

Which of the following is the correct definition of Hund’s Rule?

What is the molecular geometry of boron trifluoride (BF3 )? A. B. C. D.

8.

DH f(CO2) – [DH f(CO) + DH f(O2)] 2DHf(CO2) – 2DH f(CO) DH f(CO) – DH f(CO2) 2DHf(CO2) + 2DH f(CO)

Bent Trigonal planar Trigonal pyramidal Tetrahedral

Which of the processes below is accompanied by the greatest increase in entropy? A. B. C. D.

Freezing Condensation Evaporation Sublimation

The reaction below is an example of:

CaCl2 (aq) + 2AgNO3 (aq) Æ Ca(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2AgCl(s) A. B. C. D.

9.

a neutralization reaction. a decomposition reaction. a metathesis reaction. a single displacement reaction.

Which of the following elements is the most electronegative? A. B. C. D.

40

Br As Na Cr

1 0 . 100 mL of an ideal gas is placed in a sealed container at a pressure of 300 mmHg. If the pressure is increased to 450 mmHg, what is the final volume of the gas? A. B. C. D.

1 5 . What is the order of increasing intermolecular bond strength? A . Hydrogen bonding < Dipole-dipole interaction < Dispersion forces B . Dispersion forces < Dipole-dipole interaction < Hydrogen bonding C . Dipole-dipole interaction < Dispersion forces < Hydrogen bonding D . Dipole-dipole interaction < Hydrogen bonding < Dispersion forces

67 mL 75 mL 100 mL 134 mL

1 1 . Which of the following electrochemical conditions will result in the greatest amount of copper plated from a copper (II) sulfate solution? A. B. C. D.

A current of 10 amperes in 5 minutes A current of 10 amperes in 15 minutes A current of 5 amperes in 10 minutes A current of 5 amperes in 15 minutes

1 6 . The boiling-point elevation constant for water is approximately 0.5°C/m. What is the boiling point of a solution containing 0.5 moles of glucose dissolved in 500 g of water?

1 2 . Which of the following acids is the strongest? Acid A B C D A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

pKa 1.7 2.1 5.0 7.0

A B C D

1 7 . Which of the following is a Lewis acid? A. B. C. D.

1 3 . What is the concentration of Ag+ in a saturated solution of AgCl at 25°C? (Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 ¥ 10– 1 0) A. B. C. D.

1.34 ¥ 10–5 M 1.8 ¥ 10–10 M 3.2 ¥ 10–10 M 3.2 ¥ 10–20 M

OH– PH3 BF3 Cl–

1 8 . How much 1 M NaOH is needed to neutralize 75 mL of 2 M H2 SO4 ? A. B. C. D.

1 4 . Which of the following decreases from left to right across a period? A. B. C. D.

99.5°C 100°C 100.5°C 101°C

Electronegativity Atomic radius Electron affinity Ionization energy

41

75 mL 100 mL 150 mL 300 mL

Questions 19 and 20 refer to the table below: Trial

[X] (mol/L)

1 2 3

0.05 0.05 0.1

[Y] (mol/L) 0.02 0.04 0.02

2 3 . Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?

Initial rate of formation of Z (mol/L•sec) 0.06 0.24 0.12

A. B. C. D.

Freezing-point depression Osmotic pressure Electrical conductivity Vapor-pressure lowering

[Note: This data was obtained at a temperature of 298 K.] 1 9 . What is the correct rate law for this reaction? A. B. C. D.

2 4 . Which of the following factors can change the numerical value of an equilibrium constant Keq?

Rate of reaction = k[X] Rate of reaction = k[X][Y] Rate of reaction = k[X][Y]2 Rate of reaction = k

A. B. C. D.

Volume Concentration Temperature Pressure

2 0 . If the same experiment were carried out at 300 K, what would happen to the initial rate of formation of Z? A. B. C. D.

It would increase It would decrease It would remain the same Cannot be determined

2 5 . Boyle’s Law states that: A . at constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to temperature. B . at constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure. C . at constant temperature and pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional the number of moles of gas. D . the total pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each individual gas.

2 1 . For the reaction below, DH°298 K = –114 kJ/mol and DS° 2 9 8 K = –0.15 kJ/mol•K. At 298 K, would this reaction be spontaneous? 2NO(g) + O2 (g) Æ 2NO2 (g) A. B. C. D.

Yes, because DG° is positive Yes, because DG° is negative No, because DG° is positive No, because DG° is negative 2 6 . The mass number of a neutral element corresponds to the number of:

2 2 . Electron affinity is defined as:

A. B. C. D.

A . the amount of energy released when a gaseous atom or ion gains an electron. B . the amount of energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion. C . the energy required to convert a compound into its gaseous ions. D . the energy change when a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states.

42

protons. protons and electrons. neutrons. protons and neutrons.

2 7 . According to the following standard reduction potentials: Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Æ Zn(s) Ag+(aq) + e– Æ Ag(s)

E° = –0.76 V E° = +0.8 V

What is the cell potential of the reaction below? Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) Æ Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) A. B. C. D.

–1.56 V –0.04 V +0.04 V +1.56 V

2 8 . What is the oxidation state of manganese in KMnO4 ? A. B. C. D.

–2 +1 +4 +7

2 9 . Transition metal complexes are usually colored because: A . electrons escape from the valence shell of the metal. B . d electrons relax from a higher energy orbital to a lower energy orbital. C . the ionic radii of the transition metals is small. D . d electrons jump from a lower energy orbital to a higher energy orbital.

3 0 . What is the ground-state electron configuration of Fe (atomic number 26)? A. B. C. D.

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d7 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s3 3d5

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 3.

43

Section 3: Organic Chemistry 5. 1.

Which of the following carboxylic acid derivatives are most reactive towards nucleophilic acyl substitution? A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Esters Acid anhydrides Acyl halides Amides 6.

2.

Which of the compounds below cannot be oxidized to a carboxylic acid? An aldehyde A tertiary alcohol A primary alcohol A terminal alkene

What is the order of increasing boiling points in the following compounds?

The compound below is classed as a(n): O O H2N

CH2

C

CH3CH2COOH NH

CH3CH2C

CH2COOH I

A. B. C. D. 3.

amino acid. dipeptide. monoglyceride. carbohydrate.

A. B. C. D.

II

III

I < III < II II < III < I III < II < I I < II < III

Which compound(s) below is/are optically active? 7. CH3

CH3

A. B. C. D.

CH3

H H3C

C

Cl

H3C

C

Cl

I

4.

CH3CH2CHOH H

H II

H

C

OH

H

C

H

H

C

H

An IR peak in the region 1680–1750 cm– 1 is characteristic of what type of bond stretch? A. B. C. D.

H III

8.

II only III only I and III only I, II, and III

CH3

O–H C=O C–C C–H

What is the order of stability in the free radicals shown below?

C

CH3

CH3

CH

CH2

CH3

CH

What would happen if valine (pI = 6.0) and lysine (pI = 9.8) were subjected to electrophoresis at pH 6? A . Valine would migrate to the anode and would migrate to the cathode. B . Valine would not move and lysine migrate to the anode. C . Valine would not move and lysine migrate to the cathode. D . Lysine would not move and valine migrate to the cathode.

I

lysine

A. B. C. D.

would would would

44

II III > I > II II > III > I I > II > III I > III > II

III

CHCH3

9.

Which of the structures below accurately represents a zwitterion?

1 1 . Which of the structures below is NOT aromatic? A.

A.

H H2N

C

+

H

N COOH

R B.

H

B.

–

H H3N+

C

COOH

R C.

C.

H H2N

C

N

COO–

R D.

D.

N

H H3N+

C

H

COO–

R 1 2 . Why is the reaction below an inefficient method to synthesize primary amines? 1 0 . Which of the following is a false statement about the reaction below?

CH3CH2CH2Cl

NaOH DMSO

NH3 + CH3Cl

OH–

CH3NH2 + HCl

A . Hydroxide ions will hydrolyze the primary amine. B . Excess alkyl halide will react to form side products. C . Hydrochloric acid will hydrolyze the primary amine. D . Ammonia is a poor nucleophile and will not react with chloromethane.

CH3CH2CH2OH

A . The reaction proceeds via the formation of a carbocation. B . The rate of reaction is dependent upon the concentration of both substrate and nucleophile. C . The reaction proceeds via a concerted mechanism. D . The reaction intermediate is neutral.

1 3 . The reaction below results in the formation of: O

H3O+

MgBr + H A. B. C. D.

45

a secondary alcohol. a tertiary alcohol. an aldehyde. a carboxylic acid.

1 4 . The bond angle most associated with sp3 hybridized atoms is: A. B. C. D.

1 9 . What is the IUPAC name of the compound below?

104.5°. 120°. 109.5°. 180°.

OH

O OH

A. B. C. D.

1 5 . Which of following is an example of a chainpropagation step? A . CH3 CH2 CH2 • + CH3 CH2 CH2 • Æ CH3 (CH2 )4 CH3 B . CH3 CH2 CH3 + Cl• Æ CH3 CH2 CH2 • + HCl

b-Hydroxyhexanoic acid 5-hydroxyhexanoic acid 6-carboxy-2-hexanol 1-carboxy-5-hexanol

2 0 . A compound with the general formula RCOOCOR (where R = –H or any alkyl group) is classed as a(n):

hu

C . Cl2 ææÆ 2Cl• D . 2Cl• Æ Cl2

A. B. C. D.

ether. ester. acid anhydride. epoxide.

1 6 . Which of the following cannot be oxidized to form a carboxylic acid? A. B. C. D.

2 1 . In the reaction below, what is the function of AlCl3 ?

a primary alcohol an alkylbenzene a ketone an aldehyde

Cl2

Cl

AlCl3 1 7 . Epimers are specific types of carbohydrates that differ in the orientation of substituents about carbon 2. Therefore, epimers are specific types of: A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

conformational isomer. structural isomer. enantiomer. diastereomer.

2 2 . Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium salt? A. B. C. D.

1 8 . Which of the following carboxylic acids will be the most acidic? A. B. C. D.

It acts as a Lewis acid catalyst. It depolarizes the chlorine molecule. It withdraws electrons from the aromatic ring. It attacks and adds to the aromatic ring.

CCl3 CH2 COOH CHF2 CH2 COOH CH3 CFClCOOH CH3 CF2 COOH

(CH3 )4 N+Cl– (CH3 )3 NH+Cl– (CH3 )2 NH2 +Cl– NH4 +Cl–

2 3 . Which reagent would be most suitable in the extraction of phenol from CCl4 ? A. B. C. D.

46

Sodium bicarbonate Hydrochloric acid Sodium hydroxide Sodium chloride

2 4 . Which of the following represents the most stable form of cyclohexane?

2 7 . Which of the following is the correct structure of b-glucose?

A.

A.

CH2OH O

HO HO B.

B.

OH

OH

CH2OH O OH

H H C. C.

OH CH2OH O OCH3

HO HO

OH

D. D.

CH2OH O

HO HO

OH OH

2 5 . Which of the compounds below will NOT produce an IR spectrum? A. B. C. D.

2 8 . Which of the following does NOT directly contribute to the tertiary structure of a protein?

CO Cl2 HCl CO2

A. B. C. D.

Disulfide bonds Electrostatic interactions Hydrogen bonding Peptide bonds

2 6 . The reaction below is an example of: O +

OH

H+

O

2 9 . The reaction below is an example of:

OH O

CH3CH

CH2 + HBr

CH3CHBrCH3

+ H2O A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

saponification. nucleophilic substitution. esterification. acid-catalyzed hydrolysis.

47

Markovnikov addition. anti-Markovnikov addition. electrophilic substitution. free-radical addition.

3 0 . What is/are the product(s) of the reaction below? CH3

CH

O–Na+ + CH3CH2Cl

CH3 A. CH3

CH

OCH2CH3 + NaCl

CH3

B. CH3

CH

O–Na+ + CH2CH2 + HCl

CH3

C. CH3

CH

CH2CH3 + NaOCl

CH3

D. CH3

CH

– + – CH2 + CH3CH2O Na + Cl

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. BEGIN GRIDDING AT SECTION 4.

48

Section 4: Physics 5. 1.

A person drives, starting from rest, from the Boston area to the New York area where they again come to rest. The total distance traveled is 260 miles and the trip takes 4 hours to complete. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

A. B. C. D.

A . The person’s instantaneous velocity is always 65 miles per hour. B . The person’s instantaneous velocity is always less than 65 miles per hour. C . The person’s instantaneous velocity is sometimes less than 65 miles per hour. D . The person’s average velocity is always less than the instantaneous velocity.

2.

3.

6.

100 m/s 100 cos30° m/s 100 sin30° m/s 0 m/s

7.

An external force of 50 N is acting horizontally on an object that is on a horizontal surface. The force of friction on the object is 50 N. The object is: A. B. C. D.

stays the same increases decreases increases for inclinations below 45° and then decreases for inclinations above 45°

A horizontal steel bar of uniform mass density and mass 5 kg is supported by two vertical steel cables attached to the ends of the bar. When a 75 kg mass hangs from the center of the bar, the tension in each cable is: A . 75 N B . 375 N C . 400 N D . 800 N

accelerating. decelerating. motionless. Not enough information to determine the state of motion. 8.

4.

5000 N 0N –5000 N Cannot be determined from the information given.

A 10 kg object slides down an incline whose coefficient of friction is 0.3. As the angle of the incline increases, the frictional force: A. B. C. D.

A projectile is launched with an initial angle of 30° with respect to the horizontal and an initial speed of 100 m/s. The velocity of the projectile at its highest point is: A. B. C. D.

A spaceship is towing a satellite and exerts a force of 5000 N on the cable that joins the two. The reaction force of the satellite has a magnitude of 5000 N and is directed opposite to the force on the satellite. The magnitude of the net force on the satellite is:

An object is sliding down a frictionless incline whose angle of inclination is 20°. The normal force on the object is:

A satellite of mass m orbits the Earth in a circular orbit which is at distance of r from the center of the Earth. The speed of the satellite is constant and equal to v. Determine the amount of work done by gravity during one complete orbit of the satellite. A. B. C. D.

A . equal to the object’s weight. B . equal to the component of the object’s weight along the direction of the incline. C . less than the component of the object’s weight along the direction of the incline. D . greater than the component of the object’s weight along the direction of the incline.

49

0 2prm g 2pr GmMearth/r2 2prmv2 /r

9.

A projectile of mass 20 kg is shot at an angle of 60° to the horizontal at a speed of 100 m/s. What is the energy of the projectile at its highest point? A. B. C. D.

1 3 . A large aluminum stock pot is filled with 2 quarts of tap water at an initial temperature of 20°C. The water is then brought to a boil in a time of 5 minutes. An identical pot is filled with 3 quarts of tap water at an initial temperature of 20°C and placed over an identical heat source. Determine the amount of time required to bring the 3 quarts of water to a boil.

0 Joules 2.5 ¥ 104 Joules. 7.5 ¥ 104 Joules. 1 ¥ 105 Joules.

A. B. C. D.

1 0 . A lamp with a 100-Watt light bulb is turned on. How long does it take for the lamp to consume 3.6 ¥ 105 Joules? A. B. C. D.

3.6 ¥ 103 s 3.6 ¥ 107 s (1/3.6) ¥ 10– 3 s (1/3.6) ¥ 10–7 s

1 4 . 500 calories of heat are applied to a 10 g cube of ice which is at an initial temperature of 0˚C. What is the change in temperature of the ice due to this amount of heat? Note: the heat of fusion of water is 80 cal/g and the specific heat of water is 1 cal/gm°C. A. B. C. D.

1 1 . An 80 kg ice skater, standing on an essentially frictionless frozen pond, propels himself forward by throwing a 5 kg mass in the opposite direction with a speed of 1 m/s. The skater is then propelled forward at a speed of 1/16 m/s. The total momentum of the skater and mass when both are moving is: A. B. C. D.

0°C 5/8°C 42°C 50°C

1 5 . An ideal gas undergoes a process in which it does 20 Joules of work on a piston and ends up in a final state with an increase in internal energy of 10 Joules. The amount of heat gained or lost by the gas is:

10 kg m /s –10 kg m/s 0 kg m/s 5 kg m/s

A. B. C. D.

10 Joules lost 30 Joules gained 10 Joules gained 30 Joules lost

1 6 . A copper ball of density 8.9 ¥ 103 kg/m3 is dropped, first into a container filled with water, and then a container filled with oil. The density of the water is 1 ¥ 103 kg/m3 and the density of the oil is 700 kg/m3 . Ignoring frictional effects, which of the following best describes the results of this experiment?

1 2 . Suppose that the liquid used in a thermometer has a thermal expansion coefficient which is less than that of the thermometer tube itself. Which of the following best describes what happens with a change in temperature? A . The liquid level rises when rises. B . The liquid level falls when rises. C . The liquid level remains the temperature rises. D . The liquid level falls when falls.

3.33 minutes 5 minutes 7.5 minutes Not enough information to determine the required time.

the temperature the temperature

A . In each liquid, the ball falls with an acceleration equal to g. B . The acceleration of the ball is less than g in both liquids and the greatest in water. C . The acceleration of the ball is less than g in both liquids and the greatest in oil. D . The acceleration of the ball in both liquids is zero, i.e., the ball falls with a constant speed.

same when the the temperature

50

1 7 . A long piece of pipe of varying cross section is filled with a fluid of density 1.02 g/cm3 and fitted with movable pistons on each end. The piston on the left end has a cross sectional area of A1 and the piston on the right end has a cross sectional area of A2 . If a pressure of po is applied to the piston on the left end then the pressure experienced by the piston at the right end is: A. B. C. D.

2 0 . A long straight wire carries a current directed towards the top of the page. A proton moves with velocity 2 ¥ 104 cm/s towards the bottom of the page and to the left of the wire. The magnetic force on the proton is: A. B. C. D.

po A2 (A2 /A1 )po (A1 /A2 )po po

towards the top of the page towards the left towards the right towards the bottom of the page

2 1 . A circuit consists of a 12 V battery and two resistors of resistance 3 W and 4 W in parallel with the battery. The ratio of the current in the 3 W resistor to that in the 4 W resistor is:

1 8 . An airplane wing is constructed so as to minimize turbulent flow over the wing and also ensure that the air flowing over the top surface of the wing travels a greater distance in a given amount of time than the air flowing over the bottom wing surface. Such a design will generate a lift force when air flows over the top and bottom wing surfaces because:

A. B. C. D.

A . The velocity of the air on the top surface is greater than the velocity of the air onthe bottom surface. B . The velocity of the air on the top surface is less than the velocity of the air on the bottom surface. C . The density of the air on the top surface is less than the density of the air on the bottom surface. D . The density of the air on the top surface is greater than the density of the air on the bottom surface.

1:1 3:4 4:3 12:7

2 2 . A circuit consists of a 6 V battery attached to a 12 mF parallel plate capacitor. While the capacitor is charging, the voltage across the capacitor is: A. B. C. D.

1 9 . An electron with a speed of 3 ¥ 105 cm/s moves in a northerly direction through a region of space containing a uniform electric field of strength 100 V/m which is directed toward the east. Which of the following best describes the result of the field on the motion of the electron?

increasing and less than 6 V decreasing and less than 6 V decreasing and greater than 6 V equal to 6 V

2 3 . The speed of sound in air is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air. An organ pipe of fixed length produces a tone of frequency 343 Hz and wavelength 1 meter at an air temperature of 20°C. At a temperature of 25°C, the same pipe produces a tone with:

A . The electron is deflected to the east with no change in velocity. B . The electron is deflected to the west and experiences an increase in velocity. C . The electron is deflected to the east and experiences an increase in velocity. D . The electron is deflected to the west with no change in velocity.

A . an increased frequency and a decreased wavelength B . an increased frequency and the same wavelength C . an increased wavelength and the same frequency D . the same frequency and the same wavelength

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2 4 . A mass attached to a horizontal spring rests on a frictionless horizontal surface, and will undergo simple harmonic motion with period 2 s when displaced from equilibrium and released. If the mass is released at t = 0, then determine the time or times at which the spring has its minimum potential energy. A. B. C. D.

2 7 . An object is placed in between the focal point and the surface of a thin converging lens. The image produced is: A. B. C. D.

0.5 s only 1 s only 0.5 s and 1.5 s only. 1 s and 2 s only.

2 8 . A plane mirror of height 1 m has the property that it reflects light rays that are perpendicular to its surface back in the same direction they came. The focal length of such a mirror is:

2 5 . A state trooper uses Doppler radar to track the speed of traffic that moves away from him. If the frequency of the outgoing radar, as measured by the trooper, is 101 0 Hz, then the frequency of the radar that bounces off the car and returns to the trooper is:

A. B. C. D.

2 6 . A light ray of wavelength 600 nm enters a piece of glass with index of refraction 1.5. Which of the following best describes the path of the emerging ray? air glass

B.

air glass

C.

D.

0 m. 0.5 m. 1 m. infinity.

2 9 . The first four energy levels of a hypothetical atom are listed below. What is the frequency of light emitted when the atom makes a transition from the n=4 to the n=2 level of this atom? (h = 4.1 ¥ 10– 1 5 eV s)

A . also equal to 101 0 Hz B . sometimes greater than 101 0 Hz depending on the way in which it reflects off of each particular car C . always greater than 101 0 Hz D . always less than 101 0 Hz

A.

real and upright. real and inverted. virtual and upright. virtual and inverted.

air glass

n=4

–2.6 eV

n=3

–3.1 eV

n=2

–4.2 eV

n=1

–6.4 eV

A. B. C. D.

air glass

3.9 6.3 1.0 1.7

¥ ¥ ¥ ¥

101 4 Hz 101 4 Hz 1015 Hz 101 5 Hz

3 0 . The radioactive isotope of lead, Pb, decays to the radioactive isotope of bismuth, Bi. The decay process responsible for this decay is: A. B. C. D.

A B C D

A. B. C. D.

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alpha decay. beta-minus decay. beta-plus decay. gamma decay.

Personal Profile

Personal Profile Questions Directions:

Please answer these questions on the Science Diagnostic Input Form in the Personal Profile section.

ITEM 1

ITEM 10

No Input

1.

Please indicate your undergraduate major(s). You may check more than one, if necessary. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H)

ITEM 2 No Input ITEM 3 No Input 2.

ITEM 4 No Input

When you were in school, what was the most effective way for you to study for exams? (You may check more than one.) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F)

ITEM 5 No Input

Biology Chemistry Physics Mathematics / Computer Science Psychology History / Sociology / Social Science English / Liberal Arts Other

Listening to a lecture by a good teacher Working in a small study group Studying heavily from books Studying heavily from lecture notes Working with computer programs No preference

ITEM 6 3.

No Input

Which of the following concerns you about the MCAT? (You may check more than one.) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H)

ITEM 7 On which test date do you plan to take the MCAT? (You must put a valid date here.) ITEM 8 No Input

4.

ITEM 9

Which of the following online services do you use regularly (once a week or more)? (You may check more than one.) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G)

Please fill in your approximate undergraduate GPA on a 4.0 scale. If you have taken graduate or post-baccalaureate courses, you may include them in your GPA estimate.

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Weakness in basic science knowledge Trouble understanding MCAT passages Trouble with reading and Verbal Reasoning Trouble with essay writing Test anxiety Test stamina I'm just not good at standardized tests I’m not concerned

I don't use an online service America Online Compuserve Prodigy Internet (newsgroups, e-mail, etc.) World Wide Web Other

5.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) 6.

ITEM 14

In school, how did you prefer to study? Check all that apply.

No Input

Alone in dorm room Alone in Library Reading Room (large table) Alone in Library book stacks (private desk) Small group (4 or less people) Large group (5 or more people) Other

ITEM 15–17 No Input ITEM 18 1.

What are your perceived MCAT strengths? Check all that apply. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H)

Solid biology knowledge Solid organic chemistry knowledge Solid general chemistry knowledge Solid physics knowledge Strong analytical skills Strong reading comprehension skills Strong standardized testing skills Familiarity with MCAT question style

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2.

7.

What are your perceived MCAT weaknesses? Check all that apply. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G) (H)

Leave Blank

9.

Leave Blank

3.

If you have taken the MCAT before, please indicate your best total score (3-45). Please mark your score in the last two slots (e.g.: __24). If you have never taken the MCAT previously, leave this item blank.

4.

As realistically as you can, please tell us your total target MCAT score (e.g., 30 (10s in each numerical section)). You must indicate a target score here. ITEM 13 No Input

iv

more than 3 years ago 3 years ago 2 years ago 1 year ago less than 1 year ago currently studying it will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

When was the last time you studied any form of organic chemistry (basic or advanced)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G)

ITEM 12

more than 3 years ago 3 years ago 2 years ago 1 year ago less than 1 year ago currently studying it will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

When was the last time you studied any form of inorganic chemistry (basic or advanced)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G)

ITEM 11

Fewer than 2 hours 2-5 hours 5-10 hours 10-15 hours more than 15 hours

When was the last time you studied any form of biology (basic or advanced)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G)

Weak biology knowledge Weak organic chemistry knowledge Weak general chemistry knowledge Weak physics knowledge Weak analytical skills Weak reading comprehension skills Weak standardized testing skills Little familiarity with MCAT question style

8.

In light of the fact that Kaplan MCAT preparation is a serious commitment, what is your most realistic estimate of how many hours per week you plan to spend on MCAT practice? (including homework assignments)

more than 3 years ago 3 years ago 2 years ago 1 year ago less than 1 year ago currently studying it will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

5.

When was the last time you studied any form of physics (basic or advanced)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (G)

6.

more than 3 years ago 3 years ago 2 years ago 1 year ago less than 1 year ago currently studying it will study it in the near future (e.g., next semester)

Is English your native language? (A) Yes (B) No

7.

How would you rate your proficiency in English writing? (A) (B) (C) (D)

8.

How would you rate your proficiency in English reading? (A) (B) (C) (D)

9.

poor fair good excellent

How long has it been since you last wrote brief, organized essays on a regular basis, whether in school or in another context? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

10.

poor fair good excellent

I currently do so on a regular basis It's been less than one year It's been one to two years It's been two to three years It's been more than three years

How close do you live to your nearest Kaplan Center? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Fewer than 5 miles 5-10 miles 10-15 miles 15-25 miles more than 25 miles

11–96. Leave these questions blank. ITEM 19 No Input ITEM 20 No Input

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