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SET-B COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR GENERAL EDUCATION
INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. 2. Write the subject title “GENERAL EDUCATION” on the box provided. 3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test booklet is Set B. 4. After you have finished answering submit your Answer Sheet to your Room Watchers. MULTIPLE CHOICE: 1. Students should be taught to understand that misuses of alcohol include the person who: I. Takes a drink occasionally III. Always gets drunk at social events where alcohol is served. II. Get drunk once or twice a year IV. Always takes one drink before dinner. A. III only
B. I,II,III and IV
C. II,III and IV
D. III and IV
2. Which of the following content area in elementary science taken up first, especially in primary grades? A. Unit on earth and space B. Unit on processes-(comes first) C. Unit on matter, energy and motion D. all of the above 3. If the class has finished a unit in Mathematic, which of the following test should be prepared? A. Formative tests B. Diagnostic tests C. Summative tests D. All of the above 4. Which of the following is the most legitimate goal in teaching science? A. To develop an inquiring mind. B. To acquire the ability to observe C. to prepare children to become scientist D. to develop skill in making generalization. 5. The greatest weakness of the range as a measurement of variability is its: A. Ease computation B. extreme in stability C. Difficulty of interpretation
D. Intricate computation
6. In psychological measurement, a score of 50 is generally considered as: A. 49.5- 50.5 B. 49.9- 50.9 C. 49.25- 50.75
D. 49- 51
7. When plotting the frequency polygon, which part of the score class do we use: A. midpoint B. lower limit C. entire class interval
D. higher limit
8. A few drops of iodine on a slice of bread will turn the bread: A. blue- black B. brick- red C. red- orange
D. black
9. When an evaluation refers to norm- referencing tests, it is most likely reporting data from: A. Criterion- referenced tests B. teacher- made test C. Standardized achievement test D. Local, city- wide tests 10. What is the modern way of organizing the social studies curriculum? A. Broad files B. Separate unit approach C. Spiral curriculum approach D. Expanding environment approach 11. Who is considered the most outstanding among Filipino playwrights in English? A. Wilfredo Ma. Guerrero B. Severino Montano C. Leon Ma. Guerrero D. Carlos P. Romulo 12. Material culture refers to the tangible and concrete objects produced by man. Which are examples of material culture? A. Sinulog celebrations B. Morriones festivals C. Ceremonies of Ivatans D. Stone walls of Tasadays 13. Thomas Carlyle said “The man without a purpose is like a ship without rudder-a waif…” It could be interpreted as: A. One’s life doesn’t need to be controlled B. Direction can never come into one’s life. C. There is a strong driving force in one’s life. D. There should be sufficient energy in one’s life 14. “I die just when the dawn breaks to herald the day.” This is a famous quote from: A. Jose P. Rizal B. Benigno Aquino C. Manuel L. Quezon
D. Andres Bonifacio
15. Which among the following is considered the “raw materials of personality development? A. Heredity B. Culture C. Environment D. Training 16. Ito angmgaopisyalnawikamulasapanahonngRepublikahanggangsakasalukuyan. 1
SET-B A. Ingles at Kastila
B. Ingles at Tagalog
C. Filipino at Kastila
D. Ingles at Filipino
17. Anoangkaraniwangiisahingpantiglamang at walangkatuturangmaibibigaykung nag-iisa? A. Parirala B. Salita C. Kataga
D. Sugnay
18. To what biome does the Philippines belong? A. Tundra B. Tropical rainforest
D. Grassland
C. Dipterocarp forest
19. Who did the canvassing of votes for President and Vice President in the 2004 election? A. Senate and Congress B. Comelec and Chief Justice C. Supreme Court and Congress D. Joint Committee of Congress 20. What does the expression “love begets love” mean? A. Love is not freely expected from everyone. B. If you offer love, you will be loved in return. C. Love is offered, not waiting for love in return. D. Don’t expect love, even though you love others. 21. The hostages are free. They paid their way. What does this statement tell us? A. They escape after paying B. They negotiated peacefully. C. After ransom they were released D. They were freed without ransom. 22. Which gas is released by plants during photosynthesis? A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen
23. The Organism that eat plants only are called: A. Ovipores B. Carnivores
D. Herbivores
C. Omnivore
24. An autocratic ruler who serves his people well is sometimes called a _____ dictator. A. Belligerent B. Beneficial C. Benevolent
D. Blatant
25. Two cars start from two places 180 km apart and travel each other on a super highway. The speeds of the two cars are 45 kph and 35 kph, respectively. If they drive without stopping in, how many hours will they meet? A. Four hours B. 2 ½ hours C. Six hours D. 2 ¼ hours 26. Which property of sound enables us to distinguish between a particular pitch produced by a piano and that by a violin. A. Quality B. Intensity C. Wavelength D. Frequency 27. What process is responsible for the transporting of broken pieces of rocks from where they are formed to other places? A. Gravitation B. Weathering C. Deposition D. Erosion 28. Forty people joined a picnic. If the ratio of adults to children is 5:3, how many children joined the picnic? A. Eight B. Fifteen C. Twenty five D. Five 29. During the investigation, we follow several steps. Arrange the following in the most logical manner. A. Draw a generalization B. Perform an experiment C. Formulate a hypothesis D. State the problem clearly 30. The bilingual project of the DepEd encourages our students to: A. Be proficient in English as well as Filipino. B. Use Filipino in Tagalog speaking regions. C. Be proficient in English and the dialect. D. Use English in teaching all subjects. 31. It may seem Frivolous to you, but its important to me. What does Frivolous means? A. Practical B. Vital C. Significant 32. Kailanginagamitangisangpananalitangpatulad? A. Sapaghahalintulad ng dalawangdiwa. C. Sapaghahambing ng magkatuladnabagay.
D. Worthless
B. Sapaghahalintulad ng dalawang kaisipan. D. Sapaghahambing ng dalawangmagkaibangbagay.
33. Mahusay “maglubidngbuhangin” angtaonggipit. Anoangibigsabihin? A. Magyabang B. Maghukay C. Magpaikot- ikot
D. Magsinungaling
34. Which of the following organisms transmit the malaria parasite? A. Flies B. Ants C. Anopheles mosquitoes
D. Culex mosquitoes
35. Which term refers to the act of the President to stay the execution of a convict? A. Reprieve B. Amnesty C. Commutation
D. Pardon
36. October 10 is “red letter day” for the Chinese. Classify this expression. 2
SET-B A. Simile
B. Idiom
37. Evaluate: (12 ÷ 3/5) x .45= A. 3.24 B. 9
C. Metaphor
D. Synonym
C. 5.4
D. 4.5
38. Who conducted extensive experiments on pea plants, formulated the laws of heredity and is considered “father of genetics”? A. J. Lamarck B. Charles Darwin C. Gregor Mendel D. C. Barr 39. How much bigger is 2 than 92? A. 175 B. 431
C. 47
40. Which organism receives the least amount of energy in the energy pyramid? A. Hawk B. Snake C. Corn plant
D. 73 D. Chicks
41. The line from the Koran, “Woe to every black biter,” talks of: A. Anguish for those who defend unrighteousness. B. Sorrow for those who oppose other’s opinion. C. Punishment for those who say good things. D. Misery for those who talk ill of others. 42. Who among the following is known for his “Filipino First Policy” and Austerity Program? A. Manuel Roxas B. Carlos P. Garcia C. DiosdadoMacapagal
D. Ramon Magsaysay
43. A rope made of three cords is hard to break: It stands for: A. Cooperation B. Temptation C. Hard- headedness
D. Unity
44. “Yumaniganggusalisakanyangmgayabag.” Ito’yisang: A. Metaphor B. Hyperbole C. Personifikasyon
D. Sinekdote
45. The Magsaysay Memorial features a ____ statue of the well-loved President. A. Drab B. Casual C. Collosal
D. Caustic
46. Why is Uranium classified as a radioactive element? A. It is a useful radio component B. It emits alpha particles C. It is artificially produced in the laboratory D. It is observed to be hyperactive 47. The astronauts could not communicate, with one another while on the moon’s surface? Why? A. There Is no atmosphere B. Air waves are irregular C. There is no weather that occurs D. Temperature shuts down soud 48. Which is a new X-ray technique used detect tumors and other minute abnormalities? A. bean scanner B. Radiation scanner C. Micro detector D. Laser 49. The tool for economic, social, political development of society are: A. Print media B. Mass Com C. Broadcast media D. All of the above 50. Which principle is most timely and proper, when our country is beset by formidable social and economic problems demanding priority? A. Borrow money from abroad B. Serve & protect the people C. Impose more taxes on the people D. Adhere to economic laws 51. The term that includes aliens as subject to regulation by the state for its defences is known as: A. Repatriates B. Immigrant C. Mercenaries D. Foreigner 52. The sector with an indispensable role in national economic development is the: A. NGO’s B. Public sector C. Private sector
D. Ethnic Sector
53. Improvement of people’s life in all aspects----social, economic, etc. A. Service B. Industrial growth C. Social progress
D. Development
54. A student was given an algebraic expression and told to remove the parenthesis and combine like terms. He solved the problem in the steps indicated below: I. x (a+b) +ax II. ax+bxa=a+a+b III. (xa+xb)+ax D. 2ax+bx Which of the basic laws of arithmetic did he employ? A. Associative and distributive C. Commutative and distributive
B. Commutative only D. Associative, commutative and distributive 3
SET-B 55. The greatest common divisor of 3x2, 3xy, 6x2y and 9x2y2 is” A. 37 B. 3xy C. 3x2
D. 3
56. The associative law in the process of multiplication states that: A. (axb) x c=ax(bxc) B. a+bxa=a+a+b C. axb=bxa
D. ax(bxc)=(axb)+(axc)
57. The “3” in the upper right hand corner denotes: A. Ordinal meaning of the number C. Total collection at a particular point
B. Cardinal meaning of the number D. Fractional part of the total paper
58. In mathematics, counting is defined as the: A. First operation learned in arithmetic C. Ordered mapping of the object of a set
B. Decimal system of numeration D. Way to arouse part of the total paper
59. Gastric juice aids in the digestion of: A. Minerals B. Starch
C. Protein
D. Dextrose
60. The sun has a direct effect on the heating of: A. Deserts B. Air
C. Water
D. All of the above
61. Granite is a rock that resulted from the: A. Cooling of molten minerals C. Cementing of sand
B. Sedimentation D. Eruption of a volcano
62. Isotopes of the same elements has different numbers of: A. neutrons B. protons C. Electrons
D. Atoms
63. When 5 grams of water freeze at OoC, the amount of heat liberated is: A. 400 calories B. 80 calories C. 288 calories
D. no calories
64. The smallest possible number of atoms in a molecule is: A. Three B. Four C.Two
D. None
65. The boiling point of water in degrees Kelvin (absolute) is: A. 373 degrees B. 100 Degrees C. 273 degrees
D. 212 degrees
66. Rottenstone, rouge and whiting are used for: A. Sterilizing B. polishing
D. Cleaning
C. Coloring
67. The most famous of all portraits of Washington was painted by: A. Gilbert Stuart B. Benjamin West C. Edward Hopper
D. Thomas Sully
68. Of the following schools of painting, the one associated with the technique of ‘broken color” is: A. Surrealism B. Cointillism C. Color field D. purism 69. In using tap water to set up an aquarium, the water must: A. Be hard rather than soft water. B. Have calcium sulfate crystal added to prevent formation if algae. C. Be treated with chemicals to destroy the bacteria present in tap water. D. Be allowed to stand for a period of approximately 24 hours to dissolved chlorine to escape. 70. The statement that a buoyant force on a floating body is equal to the weight of fluid displaced is known as the principle or law of: A. Archimedes B. Galileo C. Bernoulli D. Newton 71. Bile is used in the human body in the digestion of: A. Protein B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Sugars
72. Potassium and sodium are necessary nutrients because they are used: A. Aid in tooth & bone development B. Form haemoglobin for red blood cells C. Maintain water balance in body fluids D. form hydrochloric acid in the stomach 73. Flower that have no fragrance are usually pollinated by: A. Insects B. Wind C. Small animals
D. Human beings
74. A steep walled basin in a mountainside at the head of a glacial valley is called a: A. Caldera B. Cirque C. Drumlin
D. Pothole 4
SET-B 75. One of the major breakthroughs in the development of gene splicing was the: A. Improvement in the resolution power of the electron microscope B. Discovery of the cancer fighting properties of SV 40 C. Use of plasmids to “transport” new genes. D. Isolation of the E. coli bacteria. 76. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the: A. Retina B. Iris C. Optic nerve
D. Cornea
77. Which lists the life cycle of the butterfly in correct order? A. Egg, larva, pupa, adult B. Egg, nymph, pupa, adult C. Larva, pupa, egg, adult D. Larva, egg, pupa, adult 78. An area on a weather map marked “high” means high: A. Temperature B. Relative humidity C. Air pressure 79. In most flowers pollen is produced in the: A. Pistil B. Corolla
C. Stamen
D. Wind speed D. Ovary
80. Of the planets below, which has the largest number of satellites? A. Neptune B. Jupiter C. Mercury
D. Earth
81. Which of the following statements best distinguishes electrolytes from non- electrolytes? A. Electrolytes and non- electrolytes are really both covalent compounds B. Electrolytes can be covalent or ionic compounds but must be ionic in solution. C. Electrolytes are always ionic compounds while non- electrolytes are always covalent. D. Non- electrolytes are usually insoluble in water while electrolytes are always soluble in water. 82. The time it takes for the earth to complete a sixty degrees rotation is: A. Six hours B. Four hours C. Twenty four hours
D. Twelve hours
83. The living material comprising the bulk of a cell is called the: A. Chloroplast B. Protoplasm C. Cytochrome
D. Genes
84. Of the following, the only safe blood transfusion would be: A. Group B blood into a group A person B. Group AB blood into a group B person C. Group O blood into a group AB person D. Group A blood into a group O person 85. Of the following, the lightest element known in earth is: A. pitchblende B. hydrogen C. Chalcopyrite 86. Physical education includes which of the following domains? I. Psychomotor II. Cognitive A. I and II
B. II and III
D. Helium
III. Affective
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
87. Which of the following statements is true about the referred food value of the 3 meals each day? A. The heaviest food value should be at dinner. B. the heaviest food value should be at breakfast C. They should all be the same or nearly the same in food value. D. It makes no difference as long there is one meal heavy in food value. 88. A sound program on tobacco use would include which of the following? I. Consideration of the effects of tobacco on the body. II. Role playing how to refuse cigarettes from a friend III. A test for knowledge of tobacco and smoking IV. Trying different cigarettes for taste. A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. I and II only
D. All of the above
89. Which of the following explains why it is often misleading to refer to a painting of Peter Paul Rubens as “genuine”? A. Only copies of his work by his pupils is now exist. B. “Rubens” was one of Rembrandt’s pseudonyms. C. Most were begun by Rubens but detailed or completed by others. D. He never actually paints anything but only managed a painting workshop. 90. Which of the following kinds of scenes id often associated with Paul Gezanne? A. Formal portrait B. Still life C. Informal portrait
D. Action Study 5
SET-B 91. An eye defect characterized by clear vision in one dimension but unfocused vision on the other is called: A. Astigmatism B. Hyperopia C. Presbyopia D. Myopia 92. Which of the following statement does not apply to adolescents? A. They desire the approval of their parents B. They seek dependence on their parents C. They have a marked sex development D. None of the above 93. Regarding the sexual maturation of boys and girls, teachers should bear in mind that: A. There are no marked differences in their time of maturity B. Girls mature at an earlier stage than boys. C. Girls mature at later stages than boys. D. Boys and girls mature at the same time. 94. Which of the following is true of abnormal Psychology? A. It concentrates on the scholastic performance of the individual. B. It investigates the educational background of the individual. C. It measures the accomplishment of the individual D. It studies the causes of personality defects. 95. The ratio obtained by dividing mental age by chronological age times 100 is called: A. Intelligence ratio B. Deviation C. Intelligence Quotient or IQ
D. Derived quotient
96. Every citizen has the right to select a profession or course he desires but he is subject to: A. Fair and reasonable selection B. Academic requirements C. Equitable admission requirements D. All of the above 97. Granting free education to the poor but deserving students provided they comply with the rules of the institution is known as: A. Incentive B. Scholarship C. Privilege D. Donation 98. All these are essential elements of national development, except this component: A. Education B. Technology C. Religion
D. Science
99. The path to economic, political, social development, except this component: A. dole out system B. Crab mentality C. Help people help themselves
D. Honoraria system
100. One of the following does not constitute the goal of national economy: A. Expanding productivity B. Reforestation C. Equitable distribution of income D. Increase in amount of goods 101. The distribution that is steep with a narrow range is called: A. Platycurtic B. kutosis C. Mesokurtic
D. Leptokurtic
102. Which of the following cannot illustrated two distributions together? A. Histogram B. Scattergram C. Cumulative frequency curve
D. Cumulative percentage curve
103. In a normal distribution, one standard deviation from the mean is approximately equal to: A. Fifty percent B. Twenty five percent C. Seventy Five percent D. Thirty four percent 104. A clear examples of a future oriented test is the: A. Personality Test C. National Achievement Test
B. National college entrance D. Otislemon mental ability test
105. Attitudes towards communism or socialism are best measured with: A. Forced triads B. Sociometry C. Checklist & multiple choice test D. Questionnaire & interviews 106. A class of 59 was given a test. The mean was 110 and the standard deviation was 12. The Z- score of a score of 120 is: A. 1 B. 1.5 C. -1.5 D. -1 107. Select from the following number statement the one statement in which the mathematical sign ≤ would be approximately placed with the circle. A. 64+36( ) 10+80 B. 5+16( ) 17+4 C. 51+40 ( ) 8+5 D. 20+40 ( ) 30+10 108. The area of a rectangle is 12.8cm2, what is its length if its width is 3.2cm? A. 3.8 cm B. 1.6 cm C. 4.5 cm
D. 4.0 cm
109. Find the area of a triangle whose base is 14 cm and whose height is 10 cm. A. 88 cm2 B. 10 cm2 C. 140 cm2
D. 114 cm2 6
SET-B 110. What is the expanded form of (2a – 1) 3? A. 6a3-10a2-6a-1 B. 4a3 – 4a2+1
C. 8a3– 12a2+6a-1
D. 8a3-6a2 +2a+1
Select the Answer that contains the correct version of the underlined word(s): 111. If the parents would have shown more interest, her daughter would have been in college today. A. if the parents would have showed more interest B. If the parents would have shown more interest. C. Should the parents have shown more interest. D. If the parents had shown more interest. 112. Being an intelligent person, the slur was disregarded by him. A. Being that he was an intelligent person, the slur was disregarded by him. B. Being that he was an intelligent person, he disregarded the slur. C. Being an intelligent person, the slur was disregarded by him. D. Being an intelligent person, he disregarded the slur. 113. Whoever the gods wish to destroy, they first make mad. A. Whomever B. Whosoever C. whomever
D. Whoever
114. The man spoke polite and sensible, belying his bizarre and menacing appearance. A. polite and sensitively B. politely and sensibly C. polite and made sense
D. polite and sensible
115. Her brother never has and never will be dependable. A. never had B. never has been C. not ever has
D. hardly never has
116. The reason Jack is going to Arabia is because he needs a dry climate. A. is because he needs B. is because he needed C. is on account of he needs
D. is that he needs
117. Now kick your feet into the water like Gerry just did. A. like Gerry just did B. like Gerry just done C. as Gerry just did
D. as Gerry just done
118. After he graduated high school, he went to Canada. A. After he graduated high school. B. When he graduated high school C. After he graduated from high school D. After he had graduated from high school. 119. The recurrence of identical sounds help to awaken the emotions. A. assist in awakening B. will help to have awakened C. helps to awaken D. help to wake up 120. As they drifted silently downstream, the paddles were hardly used. A. the paddles were hardly used. B. they hardly used the paddles C. the paddles were used hard D. they use the paddles hardly at all 121. An examples of a basic sentence of the Noun-Verb-Noun pattern is: A. The boy hit the ball B. Do you live here? C. The dog was killed yesterday
D. I cannot go with you.
122. Content words which are usually stresses in sentences are: A. pronouns and articles B. articles, nouns, prepositions C. nouns, verbs, adjectives, adverbs D. interjections and conjunction 123. The core of all language teaching is still: A. writing composition B. spelling words aloud
C. active meaningful pattern drill
D. listening to stories and poem
124. Which of the following procedure would be expected to ensure the reliability of a test? Increasing the: A. length of the test B. heterogeneity of the test C. number of types of items in the test D. homogeneity of the test 125. Which of the following scores is meaningless: A. a stanine of 5 B. raw score of 45
C. a t –score of 60
126. The mind score or median of the following score: 20, 24, 25, 10, 15, 24, 20: is: A. ten B. twenty C. twenty four
D. a z –score of 1.5 D. fifteen
127. Which of these groups would be more likely to have a distribution of score very close to a normal curve? A. a very bright class of pupils B. a very large group of unselected pupils C. a very slow group of pupils D. a very small group of unselected pupils 128. The Rorschach test and Thematic association test are both referred to as_______ test. A. sociomatic B. analytic C. projective
D. psychometric 7
SET-B 129. Which of the following is considered as a serious with personality tests? A. usability B. reliability D. validity
D. scorability
130. If we multiply each score by2, what happens to the standard deviation? A. multiplied by 1.5 B. multiplied by 2 C. multiplied by 4
D. remains the same
131. What are the prime factors of 128? A. 2 x 2 x 2 x 4 x 4 B. 1 x 2 x 8
C. 2 x 3 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
D. 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
132. What is the least common multiple of 24 and 80? A. 80 B. 360
C. 480
D. 240
133. The exchange rate of US dollars to peso is S1=Php 47.90 what is the value of Php 1 in American cents? A. 02 B. 4.79 C. 479 D. 2 134. Our school has 8 male teachers who comprise 25% of all our teachers. How many teachers do we have? A. 28 B. 32 C. 24 D. 40 135. The contributory factors to acid rain are the use of: A. pesticides B. refrigerants
C. fossils fuels
136. The thinning down of the ozone layer is believed to cause: A. ulcer B. baldness C. skin cancer
D. nuclear energy D. heat stroke
137. If we experience greenhouse effect, we shall have: I. Warmer climate II. Increase in the level of CO2 in the atmosphere III. Cooler climate IV. Increase in the level of O2in the atmosphere 138. The force required to maintain an object at a constant speed in free space is equal to: A. the mass of the object B. the weight of the object C. zero
D. the force required to stop it
139. What type of eclipse occurs when the moon is directly between the sun and the earth? A. partial lunar B. lunar C. solar
D. stellar
140. The removal of broken pieces of rocks from the parent rock by the action of wind or water is termed: A. silting B. erosion C. deposition D. weathering 141. Which is right violated by wiretapping? A. freedom of expression C. the right to privacy of communication
B. the right to private property D. the right to information on matters of public concern
142. An effective and speedy remedy on the part of the people to remove official who is not performing his functions to the satisfaction of people is known as: A. recall B. election C. referendum D. initiative 143. What is the term of office of an elective local official? A. 6 years B. 2 years C. 3 years
D. 4 years
144. Which officials have their term of office determined by Local Code? A. Local judges B. Local COA C. Barangay Officials
D. Local municipal judiciary officials
145. What component in the local government unit shall have a sectorial representative as may be prescribed by law? A. Judiciary B. Executive C. Administrative D. Legislative 146. The following are stretched into the legislative agenda for the furtherance of the socio-economic growth of the autonomous regions through development: A. social B. economic C. tourism D. all of the above 147. Who has the control and supervision of all executive departments? A. The Vice President B. The Secretary of Interior C. The President D. The Executive Secretary 148. The standard territorial and political subdivision of the Philippines is into: A. municipalities and barangay B. The autonomous regions C. provinces and cities D. all of the above 149. The local official with the longest term of office is: 8
SET-B A. the provincial official
B. the municipal official
C. the city official
D. the barangay official
150. The official, under the 1987 Constitution, who has general supervision powers over all the local government is the: A. President B. Vice President C. Speaker of the House D. Senate President END OF GENERAL EDUCATION
1. SUBMIT YOUR ANSWER SHEET, TOGETHER WITH THE TEST BOOKLET TO YOUR ROOM WATCHERS. SIGN ON THE EXAMINEES RECORD OF ATTENDANCE. PRINT TIME OF SUBMISSION AND SET “A” or “B” OF TEST BOOKLET ASSIGNED TO YOU 2. DO NOT BRING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE ROOM; OTHERWISE YOUR EXAMINATION WILL BE
CANCELLED!
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