hematology review

HEMATOLOGY

1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis

18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has

2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis

reticular chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast

3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with

19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to

______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN)

4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with 0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren

5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9

6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells:

failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors: Pernicious Anemia

20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults, 0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE

21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than 1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia

Polyploid megakaryocyte

22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4

7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop

23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe

shaped: Cabot rings

8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid recognizable precursor: pronormoblast

9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o

and small amount of basophilic cytoplasm: Megakaryoblast

24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms FDP: Plasmin

specific cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes

25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic

10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/

to parasite that neutralize heparin and release histamine: Major Basic Protein

irregular cell membrane with blunts and pseudopods: Megakaryoblasts

11. Common precursor for granulocytes,

26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: RapaportLuebering Shunt

monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem cells

27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute

12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of

28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed

hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area: Leptocytes

13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes 14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils

15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast

16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-

Basophil Count

plasma is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor

29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer, increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)

30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin 31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm

GEM expresses: CD34/CD33

32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either

17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of

(Differential spectrophotometer, gas chromatography)

megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin

33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC count

34. Young cells w/ residual RNA

51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal

polychromatophilic RBC in air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue and New Methylene Blue

segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet Anomaly

35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and bright red granules: Eosinophil

36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round

52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0 53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide chain: 2

nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell

54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during

37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47

55. Principle involved in automated counting:

38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease

oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb

Electric Impedance

hematopoietic cell lines resulting to low all blood levels: Aplastic Anemia

56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to

39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:

57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin:

fibrin stabilizing clot: PT

Thallasemia

mycosis fungoides

40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte

58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis:

macrophage CSF

template BT

41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium:

59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and

HbH

convert plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA

42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF

60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell

43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts

leukemia: ACP

cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical, ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis: Acute undifferentiated Leukemia

61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C,

44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 320%

with deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor: F8,9, 11, 12

45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and

63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients

normochromic: Anisochromia

46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7, CD2, CD17

47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass: absolute polycythemia vera

48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7% 49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid,

Protein S): warfarin

62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients

with deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7

64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by activated F8: F5

65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast: 1%NH4Oxalate

66. In phase contrast microscope, how many

Iron, Protein or Vitamin E

squares in platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small squares

50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue

67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell

inclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin Anomaly

counting chamber is used to measure: cytoplasmic granularity

68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this

81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has

blood cell is infected: B-lymphocyte

capacity to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin

69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the

82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium

activity of anti-thrombin as natural anticoagulant: Heparin

potassium ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes

70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen

71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules: Reticulocytes

83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A 84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC: MCHC

85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML

72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen destruction

86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer cell: IL-18

73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: thromboplastin

87. HgB constituent that may degraded and

74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic

88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of

return to amino acid pool: Globin

cell w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma cell leukemia

mitosis: Myelocyte

75. This altered of immune response against host

Promyelocyte

own immune system that produce Antibody against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia

90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and

89. Production of azurophilic granules:

76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait that elevated upto 7%: HbA2

91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5 days(in vitro)

77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized by triad findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow, splenomegaly and leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/ myeloid metaplasia

78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency. Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine suppression test

79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days 80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6 week of fetal th

life: Liver

protein: Ferritin

92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet plug

93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes: Polycythemia vera

94. General measure in intrinsic and common pathway: PTT

95. General measure in extrinsic and common pathway: PT

96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast cell: IL-4

MICROBIOLOGY

1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids:

18.

Mycobacterium

Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product of glucose fermentation: acetoin

2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease

19.

(-), non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella dysenteriae

3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S. epidermidis: Coagulase Test

pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5

20.

Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus, Providencia

21.

of gastric mucosa

Media used to isolate Brucella for blood and bone marrow as specimen: BiphasicCastaneda with Brucella broth

5. Campylobacter is associated with:

22.

4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer

gastroenteritis

Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye: Hemophilus influenzae biotype III

6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as:

23.

Woolsorter’s Disease

Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by capsular serotype: b

7. Eaton’s Agent is another name of what genus:

24.

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia burgdorferi

8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize

25.

peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form

9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum

10.

Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab: K antigen

11.

Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for: Streptococcus pneumoniae

12.

Species that is soluble to NaDesoxycholate: Streptococcus pneumonia

13.

Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia liquefaciens

14.

Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter aerogenes

Using Loeffler’s methylene blue, it shows various letter shapes and metachromatic granules, it is most likely: Corynebacterium sp.

26.

Which Clostridium sp. Can cause pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile

27.

Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes: Microtube broth dilution

28.

Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum complex

29.

Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of streptococcus: Group A

30.

Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase test from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30% H2O2

15.

Species that have buff(light brown) colony: Flavobacterium meningosepticum

31.

16.

32.

Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small colonies required urea and cholesterol for growth: T-strain

17.

Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera from stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water

Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat:

Leprosy

33.

Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility medium is significant when testing

the susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: Gentamicin

34.

Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition: Vancomycin

35.

Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis: Gentamicin

36.

Heat shocking of an original culture may be needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic sporeforming G(+) bacilli

50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida sp.

51.

Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin by what method: scrap tissue from the infected area

52. 53.

Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic fungi

37.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either toxigenic or non-toxigenic

54.

38.

55.

Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile, VP +, don’t produce acid from mannitol

39.

Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is essential to: demonstrate toxin production

40.

Pasteurization is process of in which: total bacterial count is lowered by heating at 62 degree Celsius for 30 mins.

41.

Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with: Lead acetate

42.

Flagellar staining technique: Leifson

Germ tube test +: Candida albicans

All genera are dermatophytes except: Sporothrix Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF: Cryptococcus neoformans

56.

Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix

57.

Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is: yeast cell with multipolar budding around the periphery

58.

Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus

59.

Human herpes Type6: Roseola

60.

When should pregnant women concern in Rubella infection: 1st trimester

Porphyrin test is for identification of: Haemophilus sp.

61.

44.

62.

Kopliks spot: Measles

63.

Quellung Reaction: Capsule

43.

Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite

broth

45.

Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red

Steps involved in replication of virus except: Mitosis

64.

46.

Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil Disease : leptospirosis

In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic products accumulated in: stationary phase

47.

Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body

65.

48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium: Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana

66.

49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes, Mucor, Microspores, Candida albicans

Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven: B. subtilis v. niger Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents

67.

Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated by: organic material

68.

Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus, Salmonella, Branhamella, Aeromonas

69.

Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella, Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter

70.

Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures: Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus

71.

Most common pathogen in throat cultures: Group A streptococcus

72.

Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum is used which of ff sero test in CSF: Coagglutination

73.

Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta hemolytic: Hemophilus

74.

UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus

75.

Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and Modified Thayer: Nystatin

Parainfluenza, human papilloma virus, respiratory syncitial virus

84.

Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically reactive of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella 85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric washings, midstream urine, stool, aspiration biopsy 86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillinstreptomycin, vancomycin-nystatin, cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatinstreptomycin 87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic disk is: container first open, once a week, once a month

Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram +

88. gram (–) anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence under UV light: veilonella, neisseria, fusobacterium, peptococcus

77.

Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA

89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus: EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella

78.

German measles: Rubeola

76. rods

79.

The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology culture: with swab and specimen with catheter

80.

Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton mentagrophytes

81.

Media for pigment development for T. rubrum: Cornmeal agar 82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea 83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection in children: Influenza,

90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of infants w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects, low birth rate: EBV infection, CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella virus 91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting ag, req’d of reverse transcriptase 92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus, microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei 93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of bleach, centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali, AOTA

94. bromide

+ toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen