genpath-2

Chabilitaz |1 1. Congenital anomalies associated with amniotic bands which denotes rupture of amnion with resultant formation of bands that encircle or compress parts of the developing fetus a. Deformation b. Disruption c. Malformation d. Sequence e. Syndrome 2. An example is anencephaly or congenital heart defects and are usually associated with multifactorial geneti loci defect a. Deformation b. Disruption c. Malformation d. Sequence e. Syndrome 3. These are not heritable hence are not associated with risk of recurrence in the next pregnancy a. Deformation b. Disruption c. Malformation d. Sequence e. Syndrome 4. Extrinsic disturbance of development where uterine constraint is the most common cause a. Deformation b. Disruption c. Malformation d. Sequence e. Syndrome 5. An example is Potter or oligohydraminos a. Deformation b. Disruption c. Malformation d. Sequence e. Syndrome 6. True of syndrome except a. Caused by a single agent b. Constellation of anomalies that are independent of each other c. Cannot be explained on the basis of single localizing initiating effect d. Can be caused by viral infection or specific chromosomal abnormality e. None of the above 7. Absence of an organ due to failure of development of the primordium a. Hypoplasia b. Atresia c. Aplasia d. Agenesis 8. Port wine stains are lesions of a. Arterioles b. Venules c. Capillaries d. Lymphatics 9. Normal cells or tissue that are present in abnormal locations are referred as a. Heterotopia

Chabilitaz |2 b. Choristoma c. Hamartoma d. Both a and B e. Both b and c 10.Excessive, focal overgrowth of cells and tissue native to the to the organ in which it occurs a. Heterotopia b. Choristoma c. Hamartoma d. Both a and b e. Both b and c 11.The most common tumors of infancy a. Lymphatic tumors b. Fibrous tumor c. Teratoma d. Hemangioma 12.These tumors are characterized by cystic and cavernous spaces, more often encountered in the deeper regions of the neck, axilla, mediastinum, retroperitoneal tissue. a. Lymphatoma b. Lymphangiectasis c. Lymphangioma d. Hemingioma 13.The most common form of teratoma in childhood a. Immature b. Mature c. Sacrococcygeal d. Uterine 14.Tumors of childhood most frequently arise in the following a. Skin b. Kidney c. Bone d. Nervous tissue e. All of the above 15.The collective term referring to childhood tumors a. Small spindle blue cell b. Small round blue cell c. Big spindle blue cell d. Big round blue cell 16.The most frequently diagnosed tumor of infancy and the most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood a. Wilms tumor b. Medullablastoma c. Neuroblastoma d. ALL 17.The most common location of the above condition a. Adrenal medulla b. Paravertebral region of abdomen c. Anterior mediastinum d. Posterior mediastinum 18.True of neuroblastoma except a. 90% of neuroblastoma regardless of location produce catecholamine b. Affected child is called blueberry muffin baby c. Under age of 2 year they present with large abdominal mass fever and weight loss d. Metastasize through hematogenous and lymphatics

Chabilitaz |3 e. None of the above 19.Wilms tumor is the most common primary renal tumor of childhood. This tumor has 4 recognizable groups. Among the four which has higher risk for wilms a. Denys-drash syndrome b. Beckwith-wiedemann syndrome c. WAGR syndrome d. Sporadic 20.Antigen found on MHC class I molecules bind to a. CD4 b. CD8 c. CD3 d. CD2 21.Part of the cell receptor that are involved in the transduction of signals into the T cells after the TCR has bound the antigen a. Alpha beta b. CD3 complex and zeta chain c. Gamma delta TCR d. Delta and epsilon 22.How about those that recognizes peptides, lipids small molecules without display from MHC a. Alpha beta b. CD3 complex and zeta chain c. Gamma delta TCR d. Delta and epsilon 23.Signal will be stimulated in what T cell receptor a. CD28 b. CD80 c. CD86 d. CD4 24-36 a. b. c. d. e.

Type I Type II Type III Type IV None of the above

24. IgG and IgM stimulates phagocytosis b 25.T lymphocytes d 26.Deposition of immune complexes c 27.Vasoactive amines, enzymes, proteoglycans a 28.Myasthenia gravis b 29.Contact dermatitis d 30.Type 1 DM d 31.Arthus reaction c 32.Graves’ disease b 33.Type 2 diabetes b 34.Polyarteritisnodosa c 35.Reactive arthritis c 36.Rheumatoid arthritis d

Chabilitaz |4 37.What is the hallmark of SLE a. Anti-phospholipid antibody b. Production of autoantibodies c. Renal disorder d. Homogenous nuclear staining 38.How many of the eleven criteria is at least needed to diagnose SLE a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 39.The following belong to group of ANA except a. Antibodies to histone b. Antibodies to nucleolar antigen c. Antibodies to DNA d. Antibodies to histone protein in RNA e. None of the above 40.Which of the following pattern is mismatched a. Homogenous-dsDNA, chromatin b. Rim or peripheral staining-dsDNA, histones c. Speckled-non-DNA constituents d. Nucleolar-RNA e. None of the above 41.Of the following pattern which is the most commonly observed pattern a. Homogenous b. Rim c. Speckled d. Nucleolar e. All are found together 42.Where are LE cells derived from a. Lymphocytes b. Eosinophils c. Basophil d. Neutrophils 43.Myeloid neoplasm associated with ineffective hematopoiesis which results to peripheral blood cytopenia a. Myelodysplastic b. Myeloproliferative c. Pancytosis d. AML 44.Most common chromosomal mutation that causes majority of WBC neoplasm a. Deletion b. Translocation c. Substitution d. Ring formation 45.Viruses that causes WBC tumor except a. EBV b. KSHV c. HHV8 d. HTLV1 e. None of the above 46.The clinical presentation of the various lymphoid neoplasma is most often determined by a. Lymph node metastasis b. Invasion

Chabilitaz |5 c. Anatomic distribution d. Size of the tumor e. Involvement of other organ 47.Majority of lymphoid neoplasms are of what origin a. T cell b. B cell c. NK cells d. Histiocytes 48.The most common cancer of children a. AML b. ALL c. CML d. CLL 49.Indication of worse prognosis except a. Peripheral blood blast >100k b. Translocation of Philadelphia chromosome c. Age under 2 d. Presentation in adolescence or adulthood e. None of the above 50.Clinical diagnostic requirement for CLL a. Presence of proliferation center b. Presence of smudge cell c. Relative count of >4000 cells d. Absolute count of >4000 cells 51.Pathognomonic of CLL a. Proliferation center b. Smudge cell c. Basket cell d. Whorled lymphocytosis 52.The most common form of indolent NHL in the US a. Diffuse Large-B-cell lymphoma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Follicular lymphoma d. Small lymphocytic lymphoma 53.The most common form of NHL a. Diffuse Large-B-cell lymphoma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Follicular lymphoma d. Small lymphocytic lymphoma 54.The bones most commonly affected by multiple myeloma a. Ribs b. Mandible c. Pelvis d. Vertebra 55.Most characteristic feature of apoptosis a. Cell shrinkage b. Chromatin condensation c. Blebbing and apoptotic bodies d. phagocytosis 56.nucleus undergoes fragmentation a. pyknosis b. karyolysis c. karyorrhexis

Chabilitaz |6 d. nuclear dissolution 57.the nomenclature used in organization of the different forms of Vasculitis a. Chapil Hill b. Knudson c. Clark Edison d. Bethesda 58.These are small vessel vasculitis a. Takayasu b. Kawasaki c. Polyarteritisnodosa d. Churg-Strauss syndrome 59.This type of vasculitis is associated with Hepatitis B infection a. Temporal arteritis b. Pulseless disease c. Allergic granulomatosis d. Polyarteritisnodosa 60.This condition spares the pulmonary circulation a. Temporal arteritis b. Pulseless disease c. Allergic granulomatosis d. Polyarteritisnodosa 61.Pulseless disease is otherwise called a. Kawasaki b. Takayasu c. Microscopic polyangitis d. Polyarteritisnodosa 62.. Which typically presents with headache and facial pain? a. Temporal arteritis b. Polyarteritisnodosa c. Kawasaki disease d. Takayasu arteritis 63.90% of patients will show necrotizing glomerulonephritis a. Kawasaki b. Takayasu c. Microscopic polyangitis d. Polyarteritisnodosa 64.the following risk factors for atherosclerosis are nonmodifiable except a. Increasing age b. Male gender c. Female gender d. Family histoy 65.This is the cornerstone in the response-to-injury hypothesis of atherosclerosis a. Accumulation of lipoprotein b. Endothelial injury c. Lipid accumulation d. Monocyte adhesion to endothelium 66.These are abnormal lipoprotein abnormalities associated with atherosclerosis except a. Decreased HDL cholesterol levels b. Increased LDL cholesterol levels c. Increased levels of abnormal lipoprotein d. None of the above 67.The receptor in macrophage responsible for the formation of foam cells a. Scavenger receptor

Chabilitaz |7 b. LDL receptor c. Foam receptor d. HDL receptor 68.Earliest lesion of a mature atheroma a. Foam cells b. Fatty streaks c. Atherosclerotic plaques d. Thrombosis 69.Which part of the cap do you see the necrotic core containing lipid, debris from dead cells and foam cells a. Beneath b. Deep to the cap c. Periphery d. Above 70.Fat soluble vitamin deficiency associated with spinocerebellar degeneration a. A b. D c. E d. K 71.Bleeding diathesis a. A b. D c. E d. K 72.Water soluble vitamins associated with pellagra a. Niacin b. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. Thiamine e. Folate 73.Three Ds: dementia, dermatitis diarrhea a. Niacin b. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. Thiamine e. Folate 74.Wernicke syndrome, Korsakoff syndrome a. Niacin b. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. Thiamine e. Folate 75.Coneal vascularization, cheillosis, stomatitis, glossitis a. Niacin b. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. Thiamine e. Folate 76.This transplant reaction occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation a. Acute b. Hyperacute c. chronic d. hyperchronic

Chabilitaz |8 77.May appear suddently months or even years later after immunosuppression has been used and terminated a. Acute b. Hyperacute c. Chronic d. Hyperchronic 78.Occurs when there is already preformed antibodies circulating in the recipient a. Acute b. Hyperacute c. Chronic d. Hyperchronic 79.The major antigenic differences between a donor and recipient that result in rejection of graft is mainly associated with a. MHC b. HLA c. T cell Receptor d. CTL 80.True of direct pathway except a. Dendritic cells are the most important APC b. T cell of the transplant recipient recognize allogenic donor MHC molecule c. CD8 t cells recognize MHC class 1 d. Recipient t lymphocytes recognize MHC antigen are presented by own APC e. None of the above 81.This is a strong indicator of humoral rejection a. Narrowing of arterioles b. Deposition of c4d products c. Lymphocytosis d. Bence jones protein 82.Frequent complication of bone marrow transplantation a. Pancytopenia b. Immunodeficiency c. Bleeding d. Bone pain 83.Refers to lack of differentiation a. Metaplasia b. Anaplasa c. Dysplasia d. Neoplasia 84.Hallmark of malignancy is a. metastasis b. Anaplasa c. Dysplasia d. Invasion 85.In the epithelia this is characterized by constellation of changes that include loss in the uniformity of the individual cells as well as loss in their architectural orientation. a. metastasis b. Anaplasa c. Dysplasia d. Invasion 86.True of the changes in a neoplasm except: a. Loss of polarity results to anarchic disorganized fashion

Chabilitaz |9 b. High mitotic index always indicates malignancy c. Hyper chromaticity with increase mitotic index d. Appearance of tumor giant cell e. None of the above 87.Smallest clinicaly detectable mass a. 1 gm b. 1mg c. 1 pg d. 1 kg 88.Rate of growth of tumor is determined by except a. Doubling time b. Fraction in replicative pool c. Fraction of oncogenic proteins d. Fraction that shed or die 89.Following metastasis what is next in differentiating benign from malignant a. Grade of tumor b. Invasion c. Lymph node d. Mitosis 90.All tumors metastasize except for a. Melanoma and glioma b. Meningioma ad squamous cell carcinoma c. Glioma and basal cell d. Basal cell and meningioma 91.Pathway of spread for carcinoma a. Lymhatic b. Hematogenous c. Both d. Neither 92.Pathway of spread for sarcoma a. Lymphatics b. Hematogenous c. Both d. Neither 93.Of the blood vessels which is more penetrated a. Capillaries b. Arteries c. Veins d. No variation 94.Where does RB bind to a. P53 b. E2F c. CDK d. APC b Catenin 95.P53 is considered to be the guardian of the genome, it activates temporary cell arrest which is referred as a. Quiescence b. Senescence c. Apoptosis d. Necrosis 96.True of RAS Oncogene except a. Sarcoma-KRAS b. CA-KRAS

C h a b i l i t a z | 10 c. Bladder tumor-HRAS d. NRAS-hematopoeitic e. None of the above 97.Grading would include except: a. Degree of differentiation b. Number of mitosis c. Presence of invasion d. Architectural feature e. None of the above 98.In Staging what classification do you use a. TMN b. TNM c. NTM d. MNT 99. Leading type of cancer in men: a. skin cancer b. prostate cancer c. lung cancer d. testicular cancer 100. Transplant rejection is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. type I b. type II c. type III d. type IV