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GRE I. Analysis of an Issue.

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: In this section you will have 45 minutes to analyze and explain your views on the topic presented below. Read the statement and directions carefully. Write only on the topic given. An essay on a topic other than the one assigned will automatically be assigned a grade of 0. Note: On the CAT version, you will keyboard your essay. For this exercise, allow yourself three sides of regular 8.5 x 11 inch paper for each essay response. Older faculty members long for the "good old days" when elementary schools emphasized the "three R's" of reading, writing and arithmetic. They maintain that school curriculums today are watered down and therefore less effective. Younger faculty members defend the curriculum of today's schools, pointing out that students must be exposed to a greater variety of more complex material. Which do you find more compelling, the joyous description of a traditional curriculum or the response to it? Explain your position using reasons and/or examples drawn from your personal experience, observations or readings.

II. Analysis of an Argument.

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: In this section you will have 30 minutes to write a critique of the argument presented below. Read the argument and directions carefully. Write only on the topic given. An essay on a topic other than the one assigned will automatically be assigned a grade of 0. Note: On the CAT version, you will keyboard your essay. For this exercise, allow yourself three sides of regular 8.5 x 11 inch paper for each essay response. The problem of poorly trained, overworked teachers that has plagued our public schools should become less serious in the near future. The state has initiated comprehensive guidelines that oblige teachers to complete a number of required credits at the graduate level before being licensed. Discuss how logically convincing you find this argument. In explaining your point of view, be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of evidence in the argument. Also discuss what, if anything, could make the argument more sound and persuasive or would help you to evaluate better its conclusion.

Section 1.

Time: 60 minutes

35 Questions

The questions in this section are based on a set of conditions. A diagram may be helpful in the answer selection process. Select the best answer to each question and mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

1. All Bahamians are gullible. No gullible people are deceptively charming. The premises above lead to which of the following conclusions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Bahamians are not deceptively charming Most people who are deceptively charming are gullible No gullible people are Bahamians Some deceptively charming people are Bahamians All Bahamians are deceptively charming

2. Everyone who attended all of the seminars is bound to know enough to pass the examination. This assertion logically expresses which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It was nearly impossible to pass the exam if a person did not attend the seminar regularly Seminar attendance was low, and the examination failure rate was high Everybody who passed the test attended the seminar regularly Attendees did not have to do work outside the seminars in order to pass the examinations The seminar presentations are consistently excellent

3. According to ferret lovers, the principal virtue of the ferret is its general friendliness to all humans. According to whippet lovers, the principal virtue of the whippet is its exclusive friendliness toward its provider. Which of the following is true of the claims of both whippet and ferret lover? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Pet friendliness toward a provider is unworthy They come from sources that apply to the same standard Animals cannot be judged to standards for human behavior Animal lovers are friendly Friendliness is a virtue

4. An author writing a book about left-handedness advertised in USA Today for people who were left-handed. One-hundred people consented to be interviewed and assessed for certain personality traits. As the writer suspected, the interview results and personality assessments showed that Southpaws were more emotional and accident-prone than random samples of the general public. These findings support the conclusion that people are affected by their natural handedness. Which one of the following selections, if true, points out the most critical weakness in the method used by the author to investigate left-handed characteristics? (A) Left-handed children are typically more emotional than their right-handed siblings. (B) The interviews and assessments were performed by an outside firm, not by the author. (C) People who saw the newspaper ad were not more likely to be left-handed than the number of Southpaws in the general population. (D) The author's subsequent contact with people who were right-handed tended to reinforce his initial impression of the character traits of people who were not left-handed. E) People who are not emotinoal and accident-prone were not as likely to respond to the author's newspaper ad nor were they as likely to agree to participate in the study.

5. Woody Allen: All of the directors from John Huston's class go to Hollywood. Martin Scorsese: I don't know. Some of the directors in Hollywood come from New York. Martin Scorsese's response shows that he has interpreted Woody Allen's remark to mean that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

most of the directors from New York eventually go to Hollywood none of the directors in Hollywood are from John Huston's class the only directors in Hollywood are from John Huston's class Hollywood is better than New York some of the graduates from John Huston's class do not go to Hollywood or New York

6. Even though medieval interpretive dance need not have an intellectual appeal, neither is it something that immediately can be appreciated without previous experiences that have deepened one's capacity for appreciation. So it follows that to get full enjoyment from medieval interpretive dance, people must commit considerable time and effort to developing their ability to observe and understand it. The point of this argument in the above paragraph is that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the enjoyment of medieval interpretive dance has little to do with the intellect viewing medieval interpretive dance does not always result in an increase in the person's appreciation medieval interpretive dance has a universal appeal the ability to enjoy medieval interpretive dance often requires preparation medieval interpretive dance that is enjoyed usually deepens a person's capacity for appreciation

Questions 7- 12 A group of senior citizens meets at a hotel for their annual meeting. The program coordinator must schedule exactly six of eight activities: Ballroom Dancing, Coin Collecting, Defensive Driving, Geneology, Money Makeovers, Retirement Planning, Synchronized Swimming and Watercolors - for three days: Friday, Saturday and Sunday. There will be two scheduled activities each day - 10 am and 3 pm. Scheduling is governed by the following conditions: Saturday is the only day when Money Makeovers can be scheduled Neither Synchronized Swimming nor Watercolors can be scheduled for 3 pm Neither Money Makeovers nor Retirement Planning can be scheduled for the same day as Defensive Driving If Retirement Planning is scheduled for Friday or Saturday, then the activity scheduled for the day immediately following Retirement Planning must be Ballroom Dancing and Coin Collecting, not necessarily in that order

7. If Money Makeovers and Defensive Driving are scheduled for 10 am on Saturday and Sunday, respectively, which one of the following cannot be scheduled for any day? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ballroom Dancing Coin Collecting Geneology Retirement Planning Synchronized Swimming

8. If Defensive Driving and Ballroom Dancing are scheduled for the 3 pm on Saturday and Sunday, respectively, which one of the following is an activity that could be scheduled for 3 pm on Friday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Coin Collecting Money Makeovers Retirement Planning Synchronized Swimming Watercolors

9. If the activities scheduled for 10 am are Ballroom Dancing, Coin Collecting and Defensive Driving, not necessarily in that order, which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ballroom Dancing is scheduled for the same day as Geneology Coin Collecting is scheduled for the same day as Geneology Coin Collecting is scheduled for the same day as Money Makeovers Defensive Driving is scheduled for Sunday Geneology is scheduled for Saturday

10. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule of activities for Friday, Saturday and Sunday? (A) 10 am: Defensive Driving, Coin Collecting, Synchronized Swimming 3 pm: Retirement Planning, Ballroom Dancing, Geneology (B) 10 am: Defensive Driving, Retirement Planning, Coin Collecting 3 pm: Retirement Planning, Ballroom Dancing, Defensive Driving (C) 10 am: Synchronized Swimming, Defensive Driving, Geneology 3 pm: Watercolors, Ballroom Dancing, Retirement Planning (D) 10 am: Geneology, Money Makeovers, Ballroom Dancing 3 pm: Defensive Driving, Retirement Planning, Coin Collecting (E) 10 am: Synchronized Swimming, Retirement Planning, Ballroom Dancing 3 pm: Defensive Driving, Coin Collecting, Geneology 11. If neither Ballroom Dancing nor Geneology is scheduled for any day, which one of the following must be scheduled for Friday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Coin Collecting Defensive Driving Money Makeovers Retirement Planning Synchronized Swimming

12. If Defensive Driving and Coin Collecting are scheduled for 10 am on Saturday and Sunday respectively, which one of the following activities could be scheduled for 10 am on Friday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ballroom Dancing Geneology Money Makeovers Retirement Planning Synchronized Swimming

13. Columbus and Akron cannot both be included in Carly Simon's tour route. The singer will make a stop in Columbus unless River Glen is included in the tour route. Unfortunately, a stop in River Glen is not possible. Clearly, then, a stop in Akron will not occur. The reasoning in the argument above most clearly parallels that in which of the following arguments? (A) In pest control, success can be attained by either using pesticides or by introducing natural enemies of the insect. But the methods, if used in combination, are ineffective. Of course, neither is required if pest-resistant crops are planted. So if farmers need pesticides, there are clearly no natural enemies of the insects. (B) The conductor never selects two numbers by Stevie Wonder in a single concert. But when he selects a number by Aretha Franklin, he does not select a number by Stevie Wonder at all. For this concert, the conductor has just selected a number by Stevie Wonder, so he will not select any number by Aretha Franklin. (C) The dessert chef never has both hot fudge sauce and whipped cream available at the same time. If she uses hot fudge sauce, she also used chopped walnuts. But currently, there are no chopped walnuts at hand. It can be inferred that the dessert chef will therefore not be using whipped cream.

(D) In class elections, Annabelle will definitely vote for Anastasia if Alexis does not run. Annabelle will not vote for both Anastasia and Alexander. Since, as it turns out, Alexis will not run, Alexander will not get Annabelle's vote. (E) The city cannot afford to build both a new town hall and the highway that would be needed to get there. But neither of the projects is worth completing without the other. Since the city will not undertake projests that are not worthwhile, the new town hall building will not be built anytime soon. 14. I know that this is a valuable necklace because Tiffany's sells only priceless pieces of jewelry, and this piece was sold exclusively through Tiffany's in New York. Which of the following arguments is most nearly similar in its reasoning to the above argument? (A) This country is the most free nation on earth largely because the founding fathers had the foresight to include a Bill of Rights in the Constitution. (B) Required core courses are a good idea because students just entering college do not have as good an idea about what constitutes a good education as do the professional educators; therefore, students should not be left complete freedom to select coursework. (C) Pretzels and beer do not mix well; every evening that I have consumed both pretzels and beer together, the following morning I have had a hangover. (D) The Tax Code is unfair. It treats non-home owners as a special group when it denies them some rights other citizens have. This treatment is discriminatory, and we all know that discrimination is unfair. (E) Doing good is our highest duty under the moral law, and that duty is irrational unless we have the ability to discharge it; but since a finite, sensuous creature could never discharge that duty in his lifetime, we must conclude that if there is moral law, the soul is immortal. 15. Neurologists understand that effective migraine headache treatment must do more than relieve pain. So, the medicine that neurologists prescribe most has both anti-pain and anti-inflammation ingredients. These same ingredients are found in Pain-Ease. Use Pain-Ease to combat pain. The advertisement above does NOT assume which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Neurologists provide authoritative information on effective medication for migraines Pain-Ease only combats migraine pain Neurologists use Pain-Ease because it contains anti-inflammation medicine Neurologists prescribe Pain-Ease most A medicine containing ingredients prescribed for migraine headaches will be effective

16. The United States Wildlife Association (USWA) reports that there were 349 more bald eagle sightings in 1999 than there were in 1995. This proves that an increase in the bald eagle population has finally been realized. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The Society database about bald eagles improved in 1998 Bald eagles have been introduced into urban environments Development in bald eagle nesting areas is being restricted The Society intensified its bald eagle sighting program in 1998 Bald eagles regularly move from area to area in search of food

17. All high performance liquid chromatographs have electrophoretic capillary columns. Electrophoretic capillary columns are not a feature which is normally included in standard laboratory equipment. Ultraviolet refractometers are standard laboratory equipment. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these statements? (A) Ultraviolet refractometers do not usually have electrophoretic capillary columns. (B) Electrophoretic capillary columns are found only in high-powered chromatographs. (C) Manufacturers do not include electrophoretic capillary columns in ultraviolet refractometers because they are needed only for analyses with high precision. (D) Purchasers of ultraviolet refractometers do not normally purchase electrophoretic capillary columns because they are expensive.

(E) Some ultraviolet refractometers are high-powered laboratory equipment. 18. Geriatric drivers have caused some of the worst auto accidents; therefore, driving tests for elderly drivers should be more rigorous than for others The argument above is most similar to which of the following? (A) Exposure to loud music has been shown to be harmful to teenage hearing; therefore, teens should not be permitted to listen to loud music (B) The value of research is hard to determine; therefore, amounts spent for research should be reduced (C) The Suzuki Swift has been found to have a design defect; therefore, it should be replaced by the manufacturer (D) The drug succinyl choline caused unforseen birth defects in thousands of babies; therefore, thorough testing of the effects of all new drugs should be required before release to the public. (E) Generic drugs are less expensive than brand-name drugs; therefore, doctors should prescribe only generic drugs Questions 19 - 24 A nurse has six female athletes to care for in a rehab facility. Kristen, Mia and Lauren have broken bones; Teresa, Denise and Rachel are eating disorder patients. The nurse always feeds and collects urine samples from the patients with broken bones before those with eating disorders. Within the respective groups, the nurse feeds the patients that require more food before she feeds those who eat less. The nurse collects urine samples from patients in their respective groups in the opposite order of their medicating. Lauren eats more food than Teresa, and no patient eats less than Teresa and more than Lauren. Denise eats more food than Mia, and no patient eats less food than Denise and more than Mia. Only Rachel and Kristen eat the same amount of food. 19. If the nurse collects urine samples from Lauren first, which of the following could NOT be possible? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kristen is fed before Lauren Mia is fed before Kristen Teresa is fed before Rachel Denise is fed after Rachel Rachel is fed before Teresa

20. If Mia is fed first and Lauren third, which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The nurse collects urine samples from Rachel first The nurse collects urine samples from Denise second The nurse collects urine samples from Kristen second The nurse collects urine samples from Lauren third The nurse collects urine samples from Teresa third

21. If Kristen is fed first and Lauren third, which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Rachel is fed fifth Rachel is fed last Teresa is fed fifth Teresa is fed last Denise is fed fourth

22. Suppose the nurse does not collect urine samples from the patients with broken bones first but alternates by collecting urine from a eating disorder patient and then a patient with broken bones. If Mia is fed first, it would NOT be possible for which pair of patients to have their urine samples collected sequentially?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kristen immediately before Teresa Teresa immediately before Lauren Lauren immediately before Rachel Denise immediately before Mia Rachel immediately before Denise

23. Which of the following is NOT a possible order in which the patients have their urine samples collected? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kristen, Lauren, Mia, Rachel, Teresa, Denise Mia, Kristen, Lauren, Denise, Rachel, Teresa Mia, Lauren, Kristen, Denise, Teresa, Rachel Lauren, Kristen, Mia, Teresa, Rachel, Denise Lauren, Mia, Kristen, Rachel, Denise, Teresa

14. If the nurse feeds the patients with broken bones after the eating disorder patients on a day Lauren's urine is collected second and Denise's urine is collected fourth, the order of feeding must be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Teresa, Denise, Rachel, Lauren, Mia, Kristen Teresa, Rachel, Denise, Lauren, Kristen, Mia Rachel, Teresa, Denise, Kristen, Lauren, Mia Rachel, Denise, Teresa, Kristen, Mia, Lauren Denise, Teresa, Rachel, Mia, Lauren, Kristen

Questions 25- 30 The Massachusetts Tour Guide offers convenient directions for tourists who visit the many local attractions. According to the guide: Falmouth Beach is 5 miles along a straight line from point Historic Downtown Boston Salem is 20 miles along a straight line from point Cape Cod Historic Downtown Boston is 10 miles along a straight line from point Cape Cod 25. If Historic Downtown Boston is due south of Cape Cod and Falmouth Beach is due north of Historic Downtown Boston, all of the following must be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Falmouth Beach is farther from Salem than Cape Cod is from Salem Salem is farther from Cape Cod than Historic Downtown Boston is from Cape Cod Salem is farther from Historic Downtown Boston than Salem is from Cape Cod Cape Cod is farther from Falmouth Beach than Historic Downtown Boston is from Falmouth Beach Historic Downtown Boston is farther from Cape Cod than Falmouth Beach is from Cape Cod

26. If Cape Cod is 5 miles from Falmouth Beach, which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Falmouth Beach is closer to Salem than to Cape Cod Falmouth Beach is closer to Historic Downtown Boston than to Cape Cod Falmouth Beach is closer to Historic Downtown Boston than to Salem Falmouth Beach is closer to Salem than to Historic Downtown Boston Falmouth Beach is closer to Cape Cod than to Salem

27. Which of the following CANNOT be true? (A) Salem is closer to Historic Downtown Boston than to Cape Cod (B) Falmouth Beach is clsoer to Salem than to Cape Cod

(C) Cape Cod is closer to Salem than to Falmouth Beach (D) Cape Cod is closer to Falmouth Beach than to Historic Downtown Boston (E) Historic Downtown Boston is clsoer to Cape Cod than to Salem 28. If Historic Downtown Boston is due west of Cape Cod and Cape Cod is due east of Salem, all of the following must be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Historic Downtown Boston is due east of Salem Historic Downtown Boston is 10 miles from Salem Falmouth Beach is at most 15 miles from Cape Cod Falmouth Beach is at most 15 miles from Salem Falmouth Beach is due east of Salem

29. If Cape Cod is due west of Salem and Falmouth Beach is 5 miles from P, which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Cape Cod is farther from Historic Downtown Boston than from Falmouth Beach Falmouth Beach is farther from Salem than from Cape Cod Falmouth Beach is farther from Cape Cod than from Historic Downtown Boston Falmouth Beach is farther from Salem than from Historic Downtown Boston Historic Downtown Boston is farther from Falmouth Beach than from Salem

30. Which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

If Historic Downtown Boston is 10 miles from Salem, then Falmouth Beach is 5 miles from Salem If Falmouth Beach is 5 miles from Salem, then Historic Downtown Boston is 10 miles from Salem If Historic Downtown Boston is 15 miles from Salem, then Falmouth Beach is 20 miles from Salem If Cape Cod is 15 miles from Falmouth Beach, then Falmouth Beach is 35 miles from Salem If Falmouth Beach is 5 miles from Cape Cod, then Falmouth Beach is 25 miles from Salem

Questions 31 -35 Super-Teck employees with top-level security clearance use complicated passwords on their computers. Each password consists only of combinations of the following symbols ( #, $ , % ,& ,* ). Passwords must also meet the following requirements: A password must have at least three symbols but no more than five. Passwords do not need to use different symbols, unless otherwise specified below. All passwords must begin with the symbol #. The symbol & may not be the last symbol in a password. If * is the last symbol in a password, then the password must also contain at least one &. If $ is the second symbol in a password, then $ must also be the last symbol. The symbol # can only appear once in a password. 31. Which of the following is a possible password? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

#, %, %, $ #, &, #, & #, $, $, % #, %, *, * &, #, %, *

32. If a four-symbol password is created that contains only the symbols #, $ and &, which of the following must be true? (A) The password is #,$,&,$. (B) The password contains two $.

(C) The password contains two &. (D) The last symbol is $. (E) The second symbol is $. 33. How many different three-symbol passwords can be made using only the symbols #, $ and %? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2 3 4 5 6

34. If a password ends with the symbol *, which of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

& appears twice in the password. $ is not the second symbol. % is not the third symbol. The password must contain at least four symbols. # is the fourth symbol.

35. Which symbols may not be the only symbols used in a three-symbol password? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

#, $ and * #, $ and % # and $ # and * # and % STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check on your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section in the test.

Section 2.

Time: 60 minutes

35 Questions

The questions in this section are based on what is stated or implied in the passage. Select the best answer to each question and mark the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Questions 1 - 4 In his recent autobiography, Henry Kissinger made the distinction between what he called the Humanitarian method of developing economic policy, characteristic of Alexander Hamilton's approach to problems, and the scientific or analytical method, which is more familiar to modern economists. In the former, the center of attention lay in the economy as observed rather than in the idealized version of the economy considered as an abstraction. Hamilton also had an underlying model or paradigm for economic interactions, but his interest was in improving the existing underlying economic structure, in his own terms, rather than in evaluating the possible limitations of the structure as it might work ideally if organized on specific principles. Colin Powell suggested that critics of the free-enterprise system are seldom clear whether they object to the system because it does not work perfectly according to idealized principles or because it works in varying approximation to these

principles. There is no such uncertainty with respect to Alexander Hamilton. He was critical of the economic order of his time because it did not work in accordance with the principles of free enterprise. He was not, and need not have been, overly concerned with some ultimate evaluation of an idealized structure. Hamilton's methodology has been seriously challenged by many modern scientists. The post-Revolutionary theory of welfare economics has largely, if not entirely, consisted of a search for conceptual flaws in the working of an idealized competitive economic order, conceived independently of the flawed and imperfect order that may be observed to exist. Partial correctives are offered in both the theory of the second-best and in the still-emerging theory of public choice, but the perfect-competition paradigm continues to dominate applied economic policy discussions. This methodological distinction is important in the examination of Hamilton's concept of free enterprise. In one sense, Calvin Coolidge's efforts in defining and delineating " a theory of free enterprise" are akin to those of the preRevolutionary economists who first described the idealized competitive economy. By contrast, Alexander Hamilton saw no need for defining in great detail the idealized operation of a market system and for evaluating this system in terms of strict efficiency criteria. Similarly, he saw no need for elaborating in detail a complete theory of free enterprise for defining those principles that must operate in a economy that would be considered free. In comparing Hamilton with Powell, therefore, we must somehow bridge the contrasting methodologies. We can infer from Hamilton's applied discussion of real problems what his idealized free enterprise might have embodied, or we can infer from Calvin Coolidge's treatment of idealized principles what his particular application of these might be in an institutional context.

1. Which of the following is most likely to be the next sentence of the passage? (A) Neither Coolidge nor Hamilton was successful in dealing with real problems. (B) Coolidge's "theory of free enterprise" is difficult to apply to questions of efficiency. (C) In what follows, both of these routes will be explored. (D) Since Hamilton planned a book on economic principles, there is a reason to develop his theory of free enterprise (E) The practical application of theories is guided by principles of natural free enterprise. 2. From the passage, what can be inferred regarding Alexander Hamilton's thoughts on the operation of the economy? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

disinterested in achieving free enterprise concerned with making improvements eager to achieve perfection not focused on efficiency indifferent to economic constraints

3. The author of the passage is presenting which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a recitation of methods of approaching economic problems an exposition of various theories of free enterprise an argument supporting idealized versions of economic order an analysis of various economic systems a comparison of the theories of Powell, Coolidge and Hamilton

4. Which of the following best describes the passage's objective? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

supporting Calvin Coolidge's theory of free enterprise analyzing the contrasting methodologies of Hamilton and Coolidge comparing Hamilton's and Coolidge's views of a free economy distinguishing between the Humanitarian and Revolutionary theories of free enterprise supporting Alexander Hamilton's concept of free enterprise

Questions 5 - 8

In the United Kingdom the per capita cost of preventive health care has risen dramatically since the end of the Gulf War. But increased expenditures by both health care provides and the government have shown steadily declining results. Medical expenses concentrated on those above fifty-five have tripled several times over a period of twenty years with a resulting two percent increase in the life expectancy of British men. The increase in medical expenditures for children has produced even odder results; otherwise Tony Blair could not have been moved last session to promise that every child shall soon have the "Right to Basic Immunizations" before entering primary school. In the United Kingdom it would take twenty billion dollars per year to provide what experts regard as "standard" preventive health care for every man, woman and child. This is well over twice the $6 billion now being spent. Independent cost projections prepared at the University of London Medical School indicate that by 2008 the comparable figures will be $43 billion as against the $16 billion now projected, and these figures wholly omit the enormous costs of what is called "lifestyle risk factors," including alcohol consumption, smoking and use of illegal drugs, which are increasingly blamed for many highly expensive illnesses and injuries. The United Kingdom, which spent nearly three billion dollars in 1990 for defense, including its deployment in the Gulf War, is obviously unable to provide comprehensive medical care to its citizens. The Prime Minister's committee for the study of public health should ask not how to support such increasing costs, but how they can be avoided. Free preventive health care for all British citizens must be recognized as economically unfeasible. In Sweden, the amount of public money spent on medical care for each child between 1,000 and 1,500 times the amount spent on the median citizen in London. In the United Kingdom, the discrepancy is smaller, but the discrimination is keener. The richest citizens can afford private medical care for their children and help them to benefit from the expertise of international specialists. In addition, they obtain twenty times the per capita amount of public funds if this is compared with the per capita expenditure made on the children of the five percent who are poorest. The principal reasons for this are that rich children have a lower rate of infant mortality and a greater likelihood of obtaining recommended immunizations and of surviving typical childhood diseases. Medical care for the treatment of an ongoing illness is disproportionately more expensive than preventive care for an inherently healthy child. Clearly a public concern, most public hospitals in the United Kingdom depend heavily on tax-derived finances. Free preventive health care inevitably polarizes a society and ranks the nation according to an international caste system. Countries are rated like castes whose attitude toward medical care for its poor, a rating which is closely related to per capita gross national product. 5. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) Defense spending is sapping funds which would be better spent in medical care. (B) Free preventive health care must be avoided if the goal of care equality is to be realized. (C) The health care shortcomings of the United Kingdom, in contrast to those of Sweden, are merely the result of poor allocation of available resources. (D) Both medical care and education care are severely underfunded. (E) Free preventive health care does not and cannot provide equal medical care. 6. By citing the amount of public money spent on medical care for Swedish children, the author implies that (A) equal medical care is possible in the United Kingdom but not in Sweden. (B) equal medical care for all children is an unrealistic ideal. (C) medical care is more expensive in Sweden than in the United Kingdom (D) underfunding of health care is a world-wide problem. (E) health care spending is more efficient in the United Kingdom. 7. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the author's attitude with respect to free preventive health care? (A) admiration (B) critical (C) resentful (D) neutral (E) ambivalent

8. According to the first paragraph in the passage, the problems of free preventive medical care in the United Kingdom include all of the following EXCEPT: (A) It has reached a point of diminishing returns, increased spending no longer results in significant improvement. (B) It has an inappropriate "more is better" philosophy. (C) It is unfairly distributed between rich and poor. (D) The amount of money being spent on children is increasing. (E) Its cost has increased nearly as fast. Directions: Each of the following questions consists of a pair of capitalized words followed by five pairs of words lettered A to E. The capitalized words bear some meaningful relationship to each other. Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair and mark its letter on your answer sheet Example: DAY : SUN :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

sunlight : daylight night : moon moon : star ray : sun heat : cold

Correct Answer: C 9. JURISPRUDENCE : LAW :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

autopsy : death syntax : grammer forensics : argumentation archeology : site etymology : dictionary

10. SURRENDER : DOGGED:: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

stability : permanent compromise : intransigent exercise : strenuous friendship : passion chaos : disorganized

11. CLARITY : LUCID :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

tactful : awkward conceited : reputation pardoned : blame staid : manner cogent : persuasiveness

12. COMPLIANCE : CAJOLE :: (A) trust : lull (B) fortitude : balk (C) loyalty : betray

(D) passion : soothe (E) satisfaction : hinder 13. SANCTIMONIOUS : HYPOCRISY :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

impressionable : naive natural : resourceful desirable : beauty audacious : boldness anonymous : identity

14. IGNORANT : ENLIGHTEN :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

filthy: sully pinioned : unfetter practice : recite mutter : vex unrecognized : herald

15. BUILDING : ORNATE :: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

opera : melodious screenplay : entertaining outline : detailed cliche : colorful prose : florid

Directions: Each of the sentences below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that a word or set of words has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. You are to choose the one word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, BEST fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. Psychologists insist that all people, even the most ------- and -------- , have varying degrees of extreme emotions. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

celestial -- civilized sylvan -- intellectual brackish --- mature defunct - healthy beneficent -- stable

17. Considering the ---------- community in which she was raised, her attitude and dress are amazingly ----------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

superstitious -- medieval enlightened -- disenchanted scholarly -- flashy permissive -- puritanical undistinguished -- commonplace

18. As his argument with his wife ------, the student was able to ------ his studies. (A) (B) (C) (D)

commenced --- augment intervened --- postone retreated --- delay intensified -- encroach

(E) abated --- resume 19. While most feared the bully's ------ manner, Jean knew it was entirely ------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

parsimonious --- contentious truculent --- affected strignent --- credulous supercilious --- blatant inperturbable --- vapid

20. The prosecutor will ------ the star witness's account by independent ------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

embellish --- scrutiny query --- situation endorse --- question verify --- investigation garnish --- sources

21. The astute detective quickly ------ his arguments, which were ------, rather than logical. (A) (C) (B) (D) (E)

repeated --- suspicious refuted --- specious supported --- incredulous reviewed --- prodigious elicited --- protracted

Directions: Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

22. ENLIST (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

heal advance discharge penalize delay

23. STOIC (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

descriptive sophisticated graceful tense mawkish

24. CAUTION (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

blandness temerity severity strength charm

25. SWAMP (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

evacuate bog steppe barren seepage

26. MERITORIOUS (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

uneven effulgent stationary narrow-minded unpraiseworthy

27. EXPEDITE (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

overshadow subvert hector falter purge

28. SLICK (A) (B) (C) (D) (D)

subtle faint viscid vicious difficult

29. UNDERSTATEMENT (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

intimidation vainglorious emphasized vascillation hyperbole

30. TRACTABLE (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

jaded inexorable surrepitious garish ionoclast STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check on your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section in the test.

Section 3

45 Minutes

28 Questions

Numbers: all numbers are real numbers Figures: The position of points, lines, angles, etc., may be assumed to be in the order shown; all lengths and angle measures may be assumed to be positive Lines shown as straight may be assumed to be straight. Figures lie in the plane of the paper unless otherwise stated. Figures that accompany questions are intended to provide useful information. However, unless a note states that a figure has been drawn to scale, you should solve the problems by using your knowledge of mathematics, and not by estimation or measurement. Reference Information: Circles: C = 2 (pi) r, A = (pi) (r) (r) The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. Rectangles: A = lw Rectangular solid: V = lwh Cylinder: V = (pi)(r)(r)h Triangle: The measure of degrees in a straight angle is 180 The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180 A = (0.5)bh

1. In Calculus class, Kiley takes eight tests, all of which count equally. When figuring out the final grade, the instructor drops the best and worst grade and averages the other six. Kiley calculates that his average for all eight tests is 84%. After dropping the best and the worst grade, Kiley averages 86%. What was the average of Kiley's best and the worst test? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

68 72 78 88 It cannot be determined from the information given

2. Jake is now three times Zoe's age. Four years from now Jake will be x years old. In terms of x, how old is Zoe now? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(x+4) / 3 3x x+4 x-4 (x-4) / 3

3. If ABCD is a rectangle with two sides 4m in length and the other two sides 3m in length, what is the area of the rectangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

21 42 84 108 216

4. Jasmine has walked m miles. After a rest she walks n miles. If Jasmine always walks s steps per mile, then how many steps did Jasmine take? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

s =+ m + n (sm) / n m / (sn) (s+m)n s(m+n)

5. For which values of x will x(x+2)(x-3)(x+4) be equal to 0? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

0 2, -3 and 4 0 and -2 -2, 3, and -4 0, -2, 3, and -4

6. If a cubic inch of metal weights 2 pounds, a cubic foot of the same metal weights how many pounds? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

8 24 96 288 3,456

7. If a + b = 3 and ab = 4, then (1/a) + (1/b) = (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3/4 3/7 4/7 1/7 1/12

8. An inheritance of $120,000 is divided among 3 people in a ratio of 3:4:5. How much was the largest share? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$30,000 $40,000 $45,000 $45,000 $50,000

9. A pound of water is evaporated from 6 pounds of sea water containing 4% salt. The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is (A) 3.6%

(B) (C) (D) (E)

4% 4.8% 5.2% 6%

10. Three circles are tangent externally to each other and have radii of 2 inches, 3 inches and 4 inches, respectively. How many inches are in the perimeter of the triangle formed by joining the centers of the three circles? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9 12 15 18 21

11. A freight train left the station at 12 noon, going north at a rate of 50 miles per hour. At 1:00 pm, a passenger train left the same station, going south at a rate of 60 miles per hour. At what time were the trains 380 miles apart? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3:00 pm 4:00 pm 4:30 pm 5:00 pm 5:30 pm

12. How many of the numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20 40 100 110 180

13. A rectangle sign is cut down by 10% of its height and 30% of its width. What percent of the original area remains? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

30 37 57 63 70

14. If the arithmetic mean of a series of numbers is 20 and their sum is 160, how many numbers are in the series? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

8 16 32 48 80

Common Information: In a question, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered above the two columns. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in column A as it does in Column B. Example:

Column A

Column B

The average of 17,19,21,23

The average of 16,18,20,22

Correct answer: A

The arithmetic mean of seven positive integers is 90. 15. Column A The median of the 7 integers

Column B 90

A two-quart jar of Yummy peanut butter costs $7.88 A three-quart jar of Zippy peanut butter costs $11.79 16. Column A Cost per quart of Yummy peanut butter

Column B Cost per quart of Zippy peanut butter

3x + 4 = y x is a positive integer less than or equal to 7 17. Column A The number of values for y which are prime numbers

Column B 2

a - x = f - a = c - f = p - c = z - p 18. Column A (z - p) + (f - a)

Column B f-x

A*B = A/4 + 2B 19. Column A (1/4) * 2

Column B 5 * (1/2)

The financing for a computer requires 25% of the cost as an initial down payment and 12 monthly payments of $30 each. 20. Column A Total cost of the computer

$480

Column B

There are x GRE-test prep books in a library. After 1/8 of them were checked out, 10 additional test prep books were shipped in, bringing the total number of GRE-test prep books to 52. 21. Column A x

Column B 52

m = 10 x j j is a positive integer 22. Column A The sum of the digits of j

Column B The sum of the digits of m

a/b = 8/9

23. Column A ab

Column B 72

x>1 24. Column A The volume of a cube with a side of x

25. Column A Area of a square having a a perimeter of 32

Column B The volume of a rectangular solid with sides of x, x+1, and x-1.

Column B Area of a circle having a radius of 5

6a = 3b = 2c 26. Column A a

Column B c

27. Column A A single discount of 10%

Column B Two successive discounts of 5% and 5%

In triangle AFC, AF = 3, FC = 4, and AC = 6. 28. Column A The length of the altitude to base AF

Column B The length of the altitude to base AC

STOP

End of Test

GRE Answer Key

Section 1: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

A C C E C D D A

Section 2: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

C B A C E

Logic Section 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

C D B E D D A D

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

A D C C C E E C

25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

D C C E C B A D

33. B 34. B 35. D

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

E A D B E

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

E D E B D

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

C C E B C

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

A A C A C

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

B C D A B

26. D 27. A 28. A

Verbal Section 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B

E B C E B

Section 3: Quantitative / Math Section 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

C E D E E

6. E 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

B D D A D

Predicting Your Actual GRE Score To predict your actual overall GRE score from this test: 1) Count the number of correct answers for all sections 2) Determine your Raw Score using the following formula: Raw Score = (Number of Correct answers ) - (Number of incorrect answers) 4 3) Convert your Raw Score to an actual GRE score using the tables below Example: 79 correct, 14 incorrect

Raw Score = 79 - (14/4) = 75.5 = 75 From the tables, the Composite Score is 700 Conversion Table Raw Score 93 92 90 87 85 80 75 70 65 60 55 50 47 43 40 38 36 34 32 30 28 26 24 22 20 or below

Scaled Score 800 800 790 780 750 730 700 680 660 630 600 570 550 530 500 470 450 430 410 390 370 350 320 290 200