FMGE (MCI Screening test) preparation material by Gankidi Raghavender Reddy

MEDICAL PG ENTRANCE TEST ,INDIA COLLECTED BY Gankidi Raghavender Reddy (MBBS) Student For more study materials contact : [email protected] May be this material is used for FMGE preparation also just practice it…….!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Question 1:

Which of the following stimulus does not induce visceral pain

1. Distension 2. Pressure 3. Cauterisation 4. Cutting 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 2: Lymphatics of ovary drains into 1. Paraaortic LN 2. Internal iliac LN 3. External iliac LN 4. Obturator LN 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 3: All the following are derivatives of the neural crest except 1. Melanocyte 2. Adrenal medulla 3. Sympathetic ganglia 4. Cauda equina 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 4: The term neuropraxia means 1. Complete division of nerves 2. Functional disruption 3. Division of nerve fibers with intact nerve sheath 4. Anatomical disruption of nerve sheath 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 5: All the following are true about dorsal root ganglia except 1. Occurs in the cranial nerves 2. Derivative of neural crest 3. Contains multipolar cells 4. Contains lipofuscin granules 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 6: Urethra of female 1. Has only connective tissue in its upper third 2. Has only smooth muscle in its wall 3. Is shorter than in male 4. Is longer than in male 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 7: Left renal vein crosses the Aorta: 1. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery 2. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery 3. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery 4. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 8: Superficial fatty fascia between umbilicus & pubis is 1. Camper's fascia

2. Scarpa's fascia 3. Colle's fascia 4. Cilli's fascia 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 9: What disorder is caused by having three copies of chromosome 21? 1. Phenylketonuria 2. Down syndrome 3. Sickle-cell anemia 4. Hemophilia 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 10: The first costochondral joint is a 1. Fibrous joint 2. Synovial joint 3. Syndesmosis 4. Synarthrosis 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 11: Clavicular part of deltoid is associated with 1. Lateral rotation 2. Medial rotation 3. Abduction 4. Adduction 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 12: The coracobrachialis assist in which movement of arm 1. Flexion 2. Extension 3. Rotation 4. Supination 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 13: Transpyloric plane passes through 1. T12- L1 2. L5- S1 3. T10 4. L1-L2 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 14: The transfer of body weight in vertebral column is through 1. Laminae 2. Pedicle 3. Vertebral body 4. Neural arch 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 15: Pancreatico splenic lymph nodes receive lymphatics from the part of the stomach which is supplied by 1. Left gastric artery 2. Short gastric arteries and left gastro epiploic artery 3. Right gastro epiploic artery 4. Right gastric artery 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 16: Nerve supply of pyramidalis muscle is 1. Ilioinguinal nerve 2. Subcostal nerve 3. Genitofemoral nerve 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 17: Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by 1. Aorta 2. Inferior vena cava 3. Portal vein 4. Liver 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 18: Perforators are not present at the 1. Ankle 2. Distal calf 3. Mid thigh 4. Below the inguinal ligament 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 19: Bunion is 1. Fluid filled enlarged bursa over the bony prominences 2. Tumor of sesamoid bone 3. Infected Bursa

4. Blood filled bursa 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 20: Regarding the vessels in the umbilical cord which of the following are true 1. There are two arteries and two veins 2. There are two arteries and the right vein 3. There are two arteries and left vein 4. There is only one artery and one vein 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 21: Urinary bladder and urethra are derived from the 1. primitive urogenital sinus (a ventral part of the cloaca) and adjacent splanchnic mesenchyme. 2. Metanephros 3. Paramesonephric duct 4. Mesonephric duct 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 22: Intrinsic muscles of tongue develops from ? 1. cervical somite 2. mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch 3. Occipital somite 4. None of these 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 23: The attachment of the mesentery of the small gut is 1. Left transverse process of L2 to Right sacroiliac joint 2. Right transverse process of L2 to Right sacroiliac joint 3. Left transverse process of T1 to Right sacroiliac joint 4. Right transverse process of T1 to Left sacroiliac joint 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 24: Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions except 1. Ureteropelvic junction 2. Ureterovesical junction 3. Crossing of iliac artery 4. Ischial spine 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 25: A patient of external piles has pain, which of the following nerves carry this pain sensation

1. Hypogastric nerves 2. Parasympathetic plexus 3. Sympathetic nerve 4. Pudendal nerve 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 26: All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except 1. Functional thyroid 2. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis 3. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells 4. Induction of thymic involution 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 27: All of the following ocular muscle are supplied by occulomotor nerve except 1. Inferior oblique 2. Medial Rectus 3. Laevator palpabrae superioris 4. Lateral rectus 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 28: Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove 1. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpiradialis longus 2. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle 3. Leves extension at elbow joint intact 4. Weakens pronation movement 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 29: The Ureter 1. Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament 2. Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots 3. Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction 4. Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 30: The principal factor causing the rupture of the graffian follicle is 1. Increase in the intra follicular pressure 2. Necrobiosis of the overlying tissue 3. Both

4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 31: All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney except 1. Arcuate artery is an end artery 2. It is a site for portal systemic anastomosis 3. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum 4. Left renal artery is a branch of internal iliac artery 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 32: Which muscle of the anterior compartment also flexes the hip ? Clinical correlations in the lower limb 1. Articularis genu 2. Vastus lateralis 3. Tensor fascia lata 4. Sartorius 5. Adductor longus Correct Answer: 4.

Question 33: The skin overlying the region where a “cut-down” is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by 1. Femoral Nerve 2. Sural Nerve 3. Tibial Nerve 4. Superficial Peroneal Nerve 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 34: Which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury in the arm? 1. claw hand 2. atrophy of hypothenar eminence 3. loss of sensation of medial one third of hand 4. adduction of thumb 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 35: A 48-year-old white female secretary presents with progressive difficulty typing over the past month. She also notes that her hands begin to feel numb and weak after typing for long periods of time. Upon testing, which of the following deficits would be predicted? A. B. C. D. E. Loss of sensation over the lateral half of the palm F. Loss of sensation over the medial half of the dorsum of the hand G. 1. Difficulty in abducting the fifth finger 2. Difficulty in adducting the thumb 3. Difficulty in flexing digits two and three at the metacarpophalangeal joints

4. Loss of sensation over the lateral half of the dorsum of the hand 5. Loss of sensation over the medial half of the palm Correct Answer: 3.

Question 36: All of the following are Somatic Efferent except 1. Facial nerve 2. Occulomotor nerve 3. Trigeminal nerve 4. Abducens nerve 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 37: Caudate lobe of liver is situated between 1. Gall bladder & groove for ligamentum teres 2. IVC and ligamentum venosum 3. Posterior part of left lobe 4. Anterior superior surface of liver 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 38: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by 1. Vagus nerve 2. Facial nerve 3. Trigeminal nerve 4. Glossopharyngeal nerve 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 39: Safety muscle of the tongue is 1. Hyoglossus 2. Genioglossus 3. Palatoglossus 4. Styloglossus 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 40: Fecal fistula at umbilicus is due to persistence of 1. Vitellointestinal duct 2. Patent urachus 3. Remnant of urachus 4. Ligamentum arteriosum 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 41: The following is true regarding spleen

1. Notch is on inferior border 2. Long axis parallel to 12th Rib 3. Developed form ventral mesogastrium 4. Nerve supply from coeliac plexus 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 42: All muscles of Pharynx are supplied by cranial accessory nerve except 1. Thyropharyngeus 2. Inferior constrictor 3. Stylopharyngeus 4. Superior constrictor 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 43: The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is 1. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk 2. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch 3. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk 4. Presence of retroesophageal subelavian artery 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 44: Blood vessel related to paraduodenal fossa is 1. Gonadal veins 2. Superior mesenteric artery 3. Portal vein 4. Inferior mesenteric vein 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 45: A patient develops a swollen and tender lymph node in his popliteal fossa. An infected skin lesion in which of the following sites would most likely induce lymphadenopathy in this region? 1. Lateral side of the dorsum of the foot 2. Lateral side of the thigh 3. Medial side of the leg below the knee 4. Medial side of the sole of the foot 5. Medial side of the thigh Correct Answer: 1.

Question 46: Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation 1. Leads to formation of the three germ layers 2. Occurs at the caudal end prior to the cranial end 3. Inner cell mass gives rise to the yolk sac

4. Usually occurs at 4 weeks 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 47: Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 1. Caesium 2. I-131 3. Gold 4. Iridium 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 48: The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of 1. Femoral artery 2. External iliac artery 3. Internal iliac artery 4. Aorta 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 49: In dividing cells, spindle is formed by 1. Ubiquitin 2. Tubulin 3. Laminin 4. Keratin 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 50: Buck’s fascia is related to 1. Ischiorectal fossa 2. Thigh 3. Neck 4. Penis 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 51: Which of the following is not a boundary of the Koch's triangle 1. Tendon of Todaro 2. Limbus fossa ovalis 3. Coronay sinus 4. Tricuspid valve ring 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 52: The least dilatable part of the urethra is

1. Prostatic 2. Membranous 3. Spongy 4. All are equally dilatable 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 53: Internal pudendal artery is a branch of 1. Anterior division of Internal iliac 2. Posterior division of Internal iliac 3. Obturator artery 4. Hypogastric 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 54: Deep inguinal ring is a defect in the 1. External oblique 2. Internal oblique 3. Transversus abdominis 4. Transversus fascia 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 55: All muscles of Tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT 1. Myoglossus 2. Palatoglossus 3. Genioglossus 4. Hyoglossus 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 56: Fecal fistula at umbilicus is due to persistence of: 1. Vitellointestinal duct 2. Patent urachus 3. Remnant of urachus 4. Ligamentum arteriosum 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 57: A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm? 1. Injury to suprascapular nerve 2. Damage to scalenus medius 3. Spread of infection to shoulder joint

4. Injury to spinal part of accessory nerve 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 58: The length of CBD is 1. 5 cm 2. 7.5 cm 3. 8.0 cm 4. 9 cm 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 59: If a missile enters the body just above the pubic ramus through the anterior abdominal wall, it will most likely pierce which of the following structures 1. Abdominal aorta 2. Left renal vein 3. Urinary bladder 4. Spinal cord 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 60: After fracture of the penis (injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at 1. The penis and scrotum 2. At the perineum in a butterfly shape 3. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall 4. Shaft of the penis only 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 61: Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the median nerve or one of its branches: 1. Flexor pollicis brevis 2. Opponens pollicis 3. Flexor pollicis longus 4. 1st and 2nd lumbricals 5. Adductor pollicis Correct Answer: 5.

Question 62: Taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of tongue is carried by 1. Hypoglossal nerve 2. Chorda tympani 3. Glossopharyngeal nerve 4. All of the above 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 63: A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by 1. Deep cardiac plexus 2. Superficial cardiac plexus 3. Phrenic nerve 4. Subcostal nerve 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 64: Elastic cartilage is found in 1. Auditory tube 2. Nasal septum 3. Articular cartilage 4. Costal cartilage 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 65: All are blood supply of stomach except 1. Left gastric artery 2. Short gastric artery 3. Splenic artery proper 4. Left gastroepiploic artery 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 66: Which is the Nucleus of Masseteric Reflex 1. Chief Sensory Nucleus 2. Nucleus of Spinal Tract of Trigeminal Nerve 3. Nucleus of Mesencephalic Tract of Spinal Nerve 4. Dorsal Vagal Nucleus 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 67: Fascia extension of lacunar ligament along iliopectineal line is 1. Poupart ligament 2. Thomson’s ligament 3. Cooper’s ligament 4. Lacunar ligament 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 68: Length of spermatozoa is 1. 50?m (micrometers) 2. 100?m

3. 120?m 4. 500?m 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 69: This organ is located in the Lower Digestive Tract. Its primary purpose is to break down the food in the Small Intestine. It is divided into four parts which are the Superior, Descending, Inferior, and Ascending. What organ is it? 1. Duodenum. 2. Ileum 3. Jejenum 4. Cecum 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 70: Lymphatic drainage of the anal canal is to 1. Inguinal nodes 2. External iliac nodes 3. Para - aortic nodes 4. Inferior mesenteric nodes 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 71: Joint at Knee is 1. Synarthrosis 2. Symphysis 3. Amphiarthrosis 4. Diarthrosis 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 72: The rectus sheath contains all of the following except 1. Pyramidalis muscle 2. Genitofemoral nerve 3. Inferior epigastric artery 4. Superior epigastric vessels 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 73: The boundaries of morison's pouch are formed by all except 1. Inferior surface of liver 2. Anterior abdominal wall 3. Falciform ligament 4. Coronary ligament 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 74: Facial Nucleus / Facial Colliculus seen in 1. Midbrain 2. Pons 3. Interpeduncular fossa 4. Medulla 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 75: Lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by 1. Femoral artery 2. Femoral vien 3. Sartorius 4. Lacunar ligament 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 76: The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by 1. Coracoclavicular ligament 2. Coracoacromial ligament 3. Costoclavicular ligament 4. Coracohumeral ligament 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 77: Lower border of scapula corresponds to 1. D7 2. D9 3. D12 4. D5 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 78: Spinal nerves are mixed because they contain 1. Sensory and motor nerves 2. Dorsal & ventral roots 3. Come through inter vertebral foramen 4. Constitute both craniosacral and the thoracolumbar out flow 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 79: Main supply of small gut is by 1. Superior mesenteric Artery 2. Inferior mesenteric artery 3. Middle colic artery

4. Celiac Axis 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 80: In unexplained hypotension, which part of the vertebra should be examined 1. Upper cervical 2. Lumbar 3. Thoracic 4. Lower cervical 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 81: 1. Which is the most superior structure at hilum of left lung? 1. pulmonary vein 2. pulmanary artery 3. bronchius 4. Bronchial artery 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 82: All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except 1. Mastoid process 2. Tubercles of Humerus 3. Trochanters of femur 4. Condyles of tibia 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 83: All the following are true about large intestine except 1. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in the formation of stools 2. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction 3. Its epithelium contains goblet cells in large numbers 4. Absorbs salt and water 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 84: The human heart is divided into four parts. The Left and Right Ventricles and the Left and Right Atriums. What is the purpose of the Right Ventricle? 1. To store blood temporarily 2. To manage the hearts rhythym 3. To pump blood to the lungs 4. To send blood to the Left Ventricle 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 85: Which activity will be difficult to perform for a patient with an anterior cruciate deficient joint 1. Walk downhill 2. Walk uphill 3. Sit Cross Leg 4. Getting up from sitting 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 86: Structures related to lesser omentum are all except 1. Vagus nerve 2. Hepatic artery 3. Hepatic vein 4. Portal vein 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 87: All are supports of uterus except 1. Uterosacral ligament 2. Round ligament of uterus 3. Mackenrodts ligament 4. Transverse cervical ligament 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 88: Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively 1. Uncondensed. 2. Condensed. 3. Overcondensed. 4. Partially condensed 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 89: Serratus anterior is supplied by 1. Thoracodorsal nerve 2. Nerve to subclavius 3. Long thoracic nerve 4. Axillary nerve 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 90: The sensory supply of the palate is through all the following except 1. Facial nerve 2. Hypoglossal nerve 3. Glossopharyngeal nerve

4. Maxillary division of trigeminal 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 91: All are true about urinary bladder in the male except 1. Posterior to the pubic symphysis 2. Anterior to the ampulla of the vas deferens 3. Superior to the prostate gland 4. Superior to the seminal vesicles 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 92: The kidney has_____ segments 1. 11 2. 9 3. 7 4. 5 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 93: In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at: 1. Lower border of L1 2. Lower border of L2 3. Lower border of L3 4. Lower border of L5 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 94: Which of the following about meckel’s diverticulum is false 1. Present in 2% of population 2. Occurs at 2 feet form the ileocaecal junction 3. Posses all 3 coats of intestinal wall 4. Arises from the mesenteric border of ileum 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 95: All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except : 1. Somatic. 2. Germinal 3. Haemopoetic 4. Tumor 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 96: In a patient with a tumor in Superior medistinum compressing the superior vena cava, all the following venis would serve as alternate pathways forthe blood to return to the right atrium, except 1. Lateral thoracic vein 2. Internal thoracic vein 3. Hemiazygos vein 4. Vertebral venous plexus 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 97: Joint at Knee is 1. Synarthrosis 2. Amphiarthrosis 3. Diarthrosis 4. Symphysis 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 98: The pancreatic bed does not include 1. Left kidney 2. Splenic artery 3. Left renal vein 4. Left crus of diaphragm 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 99: The branches of internal iliac artery include all of the following except 1. Uterine artery 2. Middle rectal artery 3. Obturator artery 4. Inferior epigastric artery 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 100: Urothelium lines all except: 1. minor calyces 2. ureter 3. urinary bladder 4. collecting duct 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 1: 1. Motif 2. Profile

Mathemtical representation of Conserved region known as

3. Pattern 4. Module 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 2: The generation of messenger RNA expression profiles is referred as 1. transcription 2. trasncriptomics 3. Genomics 4. RNAsyn 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 3: Which is the literature database of the following: 1. GEO 2. PubMed 3. EST 4. MMDB 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 4: All of the following are carbohydrates EXCEPT: 1. starch 2. glycogen 3. chitin 4. cholestrol 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 5: Books available in the following site 1. EMBL 2. NCBI 3. RCSB 4. PIR 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 6: Lipinskis rule states that the drug has not more than ________ hydrogen bond donors. 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 7: Which type of BLOSUM matrix mostly used 1. BLOSUM62 2. BLOSUM72 3. BLOSUM82 4. BLOSUM92 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 8: ________________ is 3D protein viewer. 1. Marvin space 2. Rasmol 3. Swiss PDB Viewer 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 9: Phylogenetic analysis tools include 1. Phylip 2. PAUP 3. Both 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 10: In how many centres clinical trials should be carried out 1. 1-2 2. 2-3 3. 3-4 4. 4-5 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 11: How many SNPs present in Human Genome reported by HGP? 1. 2.2 million 2. 2.1 million 3. 3.3 billion 4. 4.2 billion 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 12: tRNA genes are identified by using. 1. tRNAscan 2. Translate tool 3. Chime

4. Hex 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 13: The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is 1. Cytochrome P-450 2. Glutathione S-transferase 3. NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase 4. Glucuronyl transferase 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 14: Name the protein sequence database 1. Uniprot 2. PIR 3. Swiss-prot 4. all of the above 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 15: Which sequencing method efficiently helpful for Human Genome Project? 1. Sanger Method 2. Maxm-Gilbert method 3. Whole Genome Shotgun 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 16: Translate tool at ExPASy provides, how many numbers of frames of frames of translation 1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 17: Pyrite oxidation thesis on ground water pollution mainly describes about____ poisoning of ground water 1. mercury 2. arsenic 3. aluminum 4. copper 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 18: Leads means

1. Chemical 2. drug 3. Possible drug 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 19: Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink color with 1. Fouchet’s reagent 2. Benedict’s reagent 3. Sodium nitroprusside 4. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reagent 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 20: What is the database used in ensembl 1. Oracle 2. MS-Access 3. Mysql 4. all of the above 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 21: Which of the following aminoacids is associated with increased risk of Myocardial infarction 1. Methionine 2. Homocysteine 3. Ornithine 4. Valine 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 22: Which of the following is used in PET scans? 1. uranium 2. ions 3. isotopes 4. steroids 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 23: Macrophages in the walls of arteries have receptors for 1. Oxidised IDL 2. Oxidased LDL 3. LDL 4. IDL 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 24: A traditional chemist can synthesize _____________ compounds per year. 1. 100-200 2. 200-300 3. 300-400 4. 400-500 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 25: Clustalw used for 1. Structure prediction 2. Motif analysis 3. Multiple sequence alignment 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 26: When first completed report of Human Genome was released? 1. 2000 2. 2001 3. 2002 4. 2003 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 27: Name the software for Natural Language Processing 1. openNLP 2. SPSS 3. SAS 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 28: Which type of PAM matrix mostly used 1. PAM 100 2. PAM150 3. PAM200 4. PAM250 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 29: Large genome annotated database is 1. Genbank

2. Uniprot 3. Ensembl 4. MMDB 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 30: ____________ tool used for Pattern construction. 1. Pratt 2. Patcons 3. Both 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 31: What is the percentage of Human Genome sequenced properly? 1. 50% 2. 60% 3. 94% 4. 84% 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 32: Secondary structure predicted by 1. GOR 2. COILS 3. Nnpred 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 33: Server which predicts the presence and location of signal peptide cleavage sites is 1. Sigpred 2. SignalI 3. SignalP 4. Sigprepred 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 34: Pharmacophore term defined by 1. Pauling 2. Ehrlich 3. Koshland 4. Watson 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 35: _______ - is an interconnected group of artificial neurons and processes information using a connectionist approach to computation. 1. Neural network 2. Network 3. Internetwork 4. Intranetwork 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 36: In the following acts as secondary pollutant. 1. Br2 2. Cl2 3. NO2 4. HNO3 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 37: Which is the identifier in Genbank 1. Entry Name 2. Locus 3. both 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 38: When Human Genome Project formally proposed? 1. 1975 2. 1985 3. 1995 4. 2005 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 39: Characters are homologous with conserved function known as 1. Analogous 2. Orthologous 3. Paralogous 4. Xenologous 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 40: ________________ is a database that provides comprehensive information on mammalian microRNAs. 1. Argonaute 2. RDP

3. tRNADB 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 41: ____is single largest source for carbon monoxide 1. Volcanoes eruptions 2. Dust storm 3. Cigarette smoke 4. Vehicular exhaust 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 42: In CATH, T represents: 1. Torsion 2. Topology 3. Target 4. TRNA 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 43: ___is the second layer of the atmosphere. 1. Stratosphere 2. thermosphere 3. Mesosphere 4. Troposphere 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 44: When Human genome sequencing initiated? 1. 1996 2. 1997 3. 1998 4. 1999 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 45: Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following except 1. Tyrosine 2. Epinephrine 3. Thyroxine 4. Melatonin 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 46: The protein rich inbasic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is 1. Histone 2. Collagen 3. Elastin 4. Hyaluronic acid binding protein 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 47: The gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation is 1. Ammonium 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Hydrocyanic acid 4. Sulfur dioxide 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 48: Competitive inhibition is characterized by 1. Increased Km and V Max is same 2. Increased Vmax and Km remains constant 3. Increased Km and increased Vmax 4. Decreased Km and increased Vmax 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 49: The primary role of chaperones is to help in 1. Protein synthesis 2. Protein degradation 3. Protein denaturation 4. Protein folding 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 50: BioEdit used for 1. Similarity studies 2. Structure Prediction 3. Profile search 4. Motif search 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 51: When Human Genome Project work was officially started? 1. 1970 2. 1980 3. 1990

4. 2000 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 52: How many species support provided by Ensembl as by 47th release on 2007 1. 55 2. 45 3. 35 4. 25 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 53: Entropy in a biological system does not increase because 1. It is an open system 2. It is a closed system 3. It is governed by vitalism 4. It is not related to thermodynamics 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 54: Consider the following statements: 1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic. 2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks. 3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth. 4. Citric acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in our nutrition. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. 1 and 2, only 2. 1, 2 and 3, only 3. 3 and , only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 55: The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as: 1. Polymerization 2. Stereoisomerization. 3. Racemization 4. Fractionation 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 56: Gene prediction tool at NCBI is 1. Genscan 2. Genefinder 3. ORF finder 4. All 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 57: The cohesion of water is caused by: 1. ionic bonds 2. hydrophobic compounds 3. hydrogen bonds 4. covalent bonds 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 58: Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of 1. Histidine 2. Cysteine 3. Keratin 4. Lysine 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 59: How many groups involved in HGP? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 30 4. 40 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 60: Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA 1. Splicing 2. 5' Capping 3. 3' polyadenylation 4. Glycosylation 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 61: The part of enzyme bound to the protein part by a covalent bond is called 1. Holoenzyme 2. Cofactor 3. Prosthetic group 4. Apoenzyme 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 62: How many ways Denovo designing might be used for drug designing? 1. 1

2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 63: Which pathway database based on reference pathway maps: 1. Metacyc 2. Ecocyc 3. KEGG pathway 4. UM-BBD 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 64: Soil with equal mixture of clay, sand. Silt and humus is called 1. Gloom 2. Loams 3. Lombs 4. Roam 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 65: Source of the nitrogen in urea cycle 1. aspartate and ammonia 2. glutamate and ammonia 3. argenase and ammonia 4. 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 66: Before analyzing sequence, it can be converted into different formats using 1. Formcon 2. Readseq 3. Readcon 4. Confor 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 67: 3DPSSM predicts tertiary structure through 1. Homology 2. Threading 3. Abinitio 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 68: Clinical trials for Vaccine contains _________ number of phases. 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 69: The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to 1. 0.5pKa 2. pKa 3. pKa+1 4. 2pKa 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 70: Tool used for Local alignment is 1. BLAST 2. ClustalW 3. ORF Finder 4. Genscan 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 71: Pair-wise alignment include 1. Local 2. Global 3. Both 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 72: Which produces the abinitio prediction of protein function from sequence. 1. ProtFun 2. PFP Server 3. Pratt 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 73: Which alignment might be useful for phylogenetic analysis 1. Pair-wise 2. Multiple 3. Both

4. none 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 74: Designing a drug molecule atom by atom against a receptor or target known as 1. Denovo 2. QSAR 3. Pharmacophore mapping 4. Docking 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 75: It is a freely accessible database of protein and genetic interactions 1. GOD 2. MOTIF 3. BIOGRID 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 76: An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is 1. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Dehydrogenase 2. Phosphoglucomutase 3. Lactate-dehydrogenase 4. Glucokinase 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 77: Apo B 48 and Apo B 100 differ due to 1. RNA splicing 2. Apo B gene 3. Chromosomal loci 4. Gene rearrangement 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 78: One of the following not comes under classification of databases on the basis of type of data: 1. Nucleotide sequence 2. Protein sequence 3. Primary db 4. Metabolic pathway 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 79: In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by

1. Chemical methods 2. Physical methods 3. Chemiosmotic methods 4. Conformational changes 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 80: The collagen triple helix structure is not found in 1. Cytoplasm 2. Golgi apparatus 3. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum 4. Intracellular vesicles 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 81: In Collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is converted to 1. Proline 2. Lysine 3. Hydroxy lysine 4. None of the above 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 82: The study of the effects of drugs on tissues and organs is called as 1. Pharmacodynamcis 2. Pharmacokinetics 3. Pharmacophore 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 83: KEGG is an structural database 1. True 2. False 3. its a scheduling database 4. numerical database 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 84: Homology Modelling server is 1. SWISS-MODEL 2. 3DPSSM 3. Phyre 4. Rosetta 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 85: B-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces 1. Succinyl CoA 2. Propionyl CoA 3. Acetyl CoA 4. Malonyl CoA 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 86: Which of the following elements is the LEAST abundant in living organisms? 1. oxygen 2. nitrogen 3. phosphorous 4. sodium 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 87: Which of the following is true regarding hydroxyl ethyl starch 1. It is an anesthetic agent 2. It is a plasma expander 3. It is a crystalloid 4. Used as a nutritional agent 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 88: What is the type of Recombination vector generally recommended for HGP? 1. Plasmid 2. Cosmid 3. BAC 4. YAC 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 89: Fatty acids that are unsaturated have: 1. an amino group 2. a double bond 3. an excess of protons 4. a carboxyl group 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 90: ExPASY used for 1. Nucleic acid analysis

2. Protein sequence and structure analysis 3. chemical analysis 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 91: Basic amino acids are 1. aspartate and glutamate 2. serine and glycine 3. lysine and arginie 4. 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 92: Which components of Marvin Beans used for structure drawing 1. Marvin Sketch 2. Marvin View 3. Marvin space 4. All 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 93: Artificial Intelligence term is coined by. 1. John McCarthy 2. Watson 3. Meselson 4. George Mitchel 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 94: Transition temperature of lipid bilayers of cell membranes is increased by 1. Cholesterol 2. Saturated fatty acids 3. Unsaturated fatty acids 4. Hydrocarbons 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 95: How the fasta format file starts: 1. begin 2. > 3. start 4. entry 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 96: The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is 1. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin 2. Replacement of glutamate by valine in B-chain of HbA 3. A nonsense mutation in the B-chain of HbA 4. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of HbA 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 97: Pathway prediction system of UM-BBD predicts pathway from 1. SMILES 2. structures 3. Both 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 98: Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in conversion of 1. Acetoacetate to alpha keto glutarate 2. Succinyl CoA to Succinate 3. Fumarate to malate 4. Succinate to fumarate 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 99: PDB stands for 1. Public DNA Bank 2. Protein Data Bank 3. Protein DNA Bank 4. All of the above 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 100: Handerson Hasselbach equation is for 1. Electrolytes 2. Acid base balance 3. Fluid 4. Enzymatic reaction 5.

An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is Question 1:

1. 45 db 2. 65 db

3. 85 db 4. 105 db 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 2: A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 Kg. respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is? 1. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital 2. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotic and advise to report after 2 days 3. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently 4. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 3: In leprosy nerve involved is 1. Ulnar Nerve 2. Median nerve 3. Radial Nerve 4. Axillary nerve 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 4: Point of control in tuberculosis is when Prevalence is 1. < 1 in 0-14 group of children 2. > 1% is all children 3.