Fixed Prosthodontics Exam

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE FIXED PROSTHODONTICS COMPREHENSIVE EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter of the BEST answer. 1.

What kind of pontic design is usually used for anterior teeth? a. Ridge lap c. Sanitary b. Modified ridge lap d. Ovate

2. These are ideal properties of cements EXCEPT a. Solubility b. Adhesion to tooth structure c. Sufficient strength

d. Biologic compatibility e. Ease of manipulation

3. In patients with high caries index, where the prime consideration in choosing a cement is its capability to provide maximal resistance to caries at the marginal areas of the restoration, what will be the best choice of cement? a. Zinc phosphate cement d. Zinc polycarboxylate b. Zinc oxide eugenol cement cement c. Glass ionomer cement 4. The following are indications for the use of crowns EXCEPT a. Extensive caries d. Accidental causes of b. Marked discoloration of fracture teeth e. Malposition of teeth c. Malformation of teeth f. None of the above 5. The function of the pontic is as follows EXCEPT a. Replaces natural teeth b. Restores its function c. Prevents loss of space 6. The disadvantage of using sanitary pontic is a. Entrapment of food particles b. Easy cleaning

d. For esthetic reasons e. None of the above

c. Good esthetics d. Impaired oral hygiene

7. The following should be part of the dentist's checklist before sending an impression to the lab: a. Finish lines are distinct b. No blood or saliva are present in the impression c. No voids, tears, defects in the impression d. Absence of undercuts e. All of the above 8. The type of margin recommended for preparing a tooth for an all porcelain crown is a. Shoulder c. Shoulder with bevel b. Heavy chamfer d. Feather edge 9. What is an abutment? a. The portion of the bridge that unites the retainer with the pontic b. The suspended unit of a fixed bridge that replaces the lost natural tooth c. The tooth or root that retains or supports the bridge and is united with the bridge proper by means of the attachment d. The portion of the bridge that unites the abutment tooth with the suspended portion of the bridge 10. The following statements are true for ovate pontic design EXCEPT a. It is mainly used for esthetic reasons b. It is used for maxillary anteriors only c. There is maximum tissue contact d. Socket preservation techniques should be performed like ridge augmentation 11. During metal coping try-in, we check for the following EXCEPT a. Proper contacts c. Clearance b. Proper margin adaptation d. Accurate fit

1

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE 12. These are factors that affect tooth preparation design in fixed denture prosthodontics EXCEPT a. Crown length c. Periodontal health b. Ante's law d. None of the above 13. ___________________ is the straight line direction which a restoration follows as it is seated on its preparation. a. Resistance form c. Path of insertion b. Retention form d. Tooth reduction 14. In order to protect the pulp during restoration, the clinician should a. Conserve tooth structure b. Control the amount of tooth reduction c. There should be rapid continuous removal of tooth structure d. There should be use of coolants to alleviate the heat e. All of the above f. Only two of the above 15. The following are factors that would affect retention and resistance form of the tooth preparation EXCEPT a. Rounded line angles c. Taper of the preparation b. Axial wall height d. Surface area coverage 16. Ideal axial inclination for tooth reduction for fixed prosthodontics is a. 2 – 5o c. 0 – 2o o b. 5 – 7 d. 6 – 8o 17. The chief complaint is categorized according to the following EXCEPT a. Appearance c. Social reasons b. Comfort d. None of the above 18. Ideally where should a crown margin be placed in relation to the gingival crest? a. Supragingival c. Equigingival b. Subgingival d. In enamel 19. The finish line can be moved subgingivally because of the following reasons: a. Achieve a more esthetic result b. Removal of caries that extend to the gingival area c. Inadequate crown length d. All of the above 20. Which of the following features will not improve the retention and resistance of an extracoronal restoration? a. Grooves and boxes b. Parallelism c. Multiple paths of insertion d. Maximum surface area included in the preparation 21. What is the optimum crown:root ratio of a tooth that is being considered as an abutment for a fixed bridge? a. 1:1 c. 3:4 b. 2:1 d. 2:3 22. Which of the following is not something that can be seen in a periapical radiograph? a. Width of the periodontal ligament b. Number of roots of the tooth and their morphology c. Axial inclination of the tooth d. Occlusal relationship of the maxilla and mandible 23. In taking the medical history of the patient, the following should be noted: a. Allergy to any kind of drug b. Previous dental treatments c. Chief complaint d. Patient's expectations for the outcome of the treatment 24. Which of the following procedures should be the first priority in making a treatment plan for a patient? a. Fabricating a lower partial denture to replace missing molars

2

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE b. Amalgam restorations for class I caries on upper 2 nd premolar c. Root canal treatment for a non-vital but painless tooth #21 d. Extraction of a badly broken down tooth #36 that is causing the patient some pain 25. The following are indications for doing an RPD rather than an FPD EXCEPT a. Bilateral missing lower 2nd premolars and 1st molars b. A distal abutment tooth is absent and support is needed from the edentulous ridge c. There is significant bone loss in the anterior ridge area where there is need to replace missing anterior teeth d. None of the above 26. When extending a margin subgingivally the following guideline should be followed: a. The subgingival margin should be at least 1.0 mm above the alveolar crest b. Extend the margin as far into the gingival sulcus to maximize the increase in crown length gained for increased retention c. Violating the biologic width will result in periodontal problems d. All of the above 27. Bevelling the functional cusps during a crown preparation for posterior tooth fulfills which principle of tooth preparation? a. Preservation of tooth c. Structural durability structure d. Marginal integrity b. Retention and resistance 28. The following are examples of extracoronal restorations EXCEPT a. Onlays c. Veneers b. ¾ crown d. Full metal crown 29. Least desirable of all the margins a. Shoulder with bevel b. Feather edge

c. Rounded shoulder d. Heavy chamfer

30. The following are true of a knife-edged margin EXCEPT a. May be used in teeth with very convex axial surfaces b. Can be used in the lingual surfaces of mandibular posterior teeth c. Can be used to prepare an abutment tooth that is tilted d. May be used in preparing for a PFM crown on a very short tooth 31. A 90o cavosurface angle is critical on the margins of an all porcelain crown preparation because a. It provides more space at the margin to create a more esthetic restoration b. It prevents fracture of the porcelain at the margins c. It facilitates easier impression taking of the preparation d. The margins are easier to detect and finish 32. Centrict contact on an all porcelain crown should ideally be found in the a. Middle third of the lingual wall b. Cervical third of the lingual wall c. Incisal third of the lingual wall d. No contact at all 33. The following are problems that may be encountered when the labial surface of an anterior tooth is prepared only in 1 plane instead of 2 planes EXCEPT a. The pulp may be perforated in the labial surface b. There may be an area in the PFM crown where the porcelain is thin c. The PFM crown may be overcontoured d. None of the above 34. Selection of an abutment tooth should be based upon the following EXCEPT a. Crown:root ratio b. Whether the tooth has been endodontically treated c. Number and shape of the roots of the tooth d. Alignment of the tooth 35. All other factors being equal, the most retention is provided by the a. Full crown preparation c. Onlay b. ¾ crown preparation d. Inlay

3

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE 36. Ante's law concerns the a. Degree of tipping allowable in an abutment tooth b. Amount of curvature acceptable in the plan of occlusion c. Amount of increase in retentive factors with a full crown versus a ¾ crown d. Crown:root ratio e. None of the above 37. Overcontoured crowns are most often the result of a. The need for added retention b. Overbuilding by dental technicians c. Insufficient tooth reduction d. Periodontal considerations 38. How much labial tooth reduction is needed for a PFM crown? a. 0.25 – 0.5 mm c. 1 – 1.5 mm b. 0.5 – 1 mm d. 1.5 – 1.75 mm 39. The PFM crown required what type of labial finish line on the preparation of anterior teeth? a. Knife edge c. Shoulder b. Chamfer d. Shoulder with bevel 40. Chemomechanical tissue retraction provides access primarily by a. Displacing the gingival tissue laterally away from the tooth b. Displacing the gingival tissue apically c. Tearing the gingival attachment slightly d. Chemically shrinking the gingival tissues 41. What is the chief contraindication for using epinephrine impregnated retraction cord? a. It is chemically irritating to the tissue, causing sloughing b. It produces systemic reactions affecting the cardiovascular system c. It produces inadequate retraction of the tissues d. Its size makes it difficult to use where the gingival sulcus is shallow and the tissues firm 42. Why is it advisable to use a custom tray when taking impressions with rubber based impression materials? a. The material is too fluid to be retained in a stock tray b. The material needs the additional support afforded by a custom tray c. A custom tray controls the thickness of the impression material and increases accuracy d. It is cheaper to use a custom tray than a stock tray 43. The chief disadvantage of hydrocolloid compared to the polyvinylsiloxane impression material is that it a. Requires a stock tray b. Is not as accurate c. Requires a dry field free of blood, saliva, etc d. Is dimensionally unstable so it must be poured immediately 44. A temporary crown should fulfill the same general requirements as the final restorations EXCEPT for a. Durability c. Occlusal contact b. Esthetics d. Marginal adaptation 45. Why should the dentist trim (ditch) the die before they are sent to a dental technician? a. The dentist should have better manual dexterity b. The dentist should have a better knowledge of the location of the finish line c. The dentist has the proper cutting instruments d. The technician is not trained to recognize finish lines 46. What is the chief advantage of the all porcelain crown over the PFM crown? a. It is generally more esthetic b. It is less expensive c. It is easier to adjust and repolish d. It usually achieves better marginal fit 47. What are the layers of porcelain that are fused over the metal coping of a PFM crown? a. Coping, incisal and body layers

4

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE b. Opaque, body and incisal layers c. Devitrified layer and opaque layer d. Body layer and incisal layer 48. How thick must the metal coping be to resist deformation under occlusal stress? a. 0.1 – 0.3 mm c. 0.5 – 0.75 mm b. 0.3 – 0.5 mm d. 0.75 – 1 mm 49. Occlusal contact should never occur at the juncture of the porcelain and the metal because a. Prematurities are hard to detect in this area so adjustments are difficult b. Contact produces flow or burnishing of the metal leading to fracture of the porcelain c. Bonding in this area is usually weaker d. The metal layer is considerably stronger than the porcelain so stress distribution is uneven 50. The chief advantage of zinc phosphate is its a. Good compressive strength b. Lack of irritation to the pulp 51. The biggest advantage of polycarboxylate cement is its a. Good compressive strength b. Lack of irritation to the pulp c. Low film thickness

c. Film thickness d. Low solubility

d. Low solubility e. Ease of mixing and using

52. The patient complains of sensitivity a few days after cementation of a fixed partial denture with polycarboxylate cement. What is the most likely cause? a. Irritation from the cement d. An open margin b. A loose retainer e. None of the above c. Premature occlusion 53. The ideal treatment of choice for tilted teeth is a. Extraction b. Telescopic crowns

c. Full crowns d. Orthodontics

54. In the use of electrosurgery in the oral cavity, profound anesthesia is a. Usually needed b. Never needed c. Almost always needed d. Not needed for endodontically treated teeth 55. Electrosurgical preparation of the sulcus for impression taking a. Requires healthy gingival tissue b. Requires the use of coagulation current c. Eliminates the need for retraction cord d. Requires the need for retraction cord 56. Hemisection means a. The separation and removal of the roots of a tooth b. Separating the roots of a tooth c. Sectioning the roots of a tooth in half d. Sectioning both the root and the crown of a tooth 57. Ridge lap pontics cause pressure atrophy of the residual ridge resulting in a. Chronic inflammation of the ridge and papillae b. Ulceration of the ridge tissue c. Destruction of support of the abutment teeth d. All of the above 58. One of the chief disadvantages of using polyether impression material is its a. Poor dimensional stability b. Poor odor and taste c. Weak tear resistance d. Hydrophobicity 59. The characteristic of a tooth preparation which tends to prevent a seated restoration from tipping or rotating around the preparation by occlusal forces directed in an apical or oblique direction is a. Resistance c. Ante's law b. Retention d. Crown:root ratio

5

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE

60. The type of margin indicated for all surface margins of an all metal crown is a. Shoulder c. Knife edge b. Chamfer d. Shoulder with bevel 61. The amount of occlusal reduction needed for an all metal crown preparation on the lingual cusps of an upper 2nd molar is a. 1 mm c. 2 mm b. 1.5 mm d. 0.5 mm 62. Overtrimming a die will result in the production of what kind of restoration? a. Undercontoured restoration b. Bulky or overcontoured restoration c. Restoration with open margins d. Thin restoration 63. The following are functions of a provisional restoration EXCEPT a. Protect the prepared teeth b. Serve as a healing matrix for the surrounding gingival tissue c. Helps in planning for the final restorations especially if there is a need to change the axial contours of the teeth d. Do minor tooth movements to improve the axial inclination of a tilted abutment tooth 64. Leaving excess temporary cement in the gingival sulcus may result in a. Gingival inflammation c. Open margins b. Pulpal irritation d. None of the above 65. An endodontically treated tooth was restored with a cast post-and-core and a PFM crown. Three months later, the patient complains of pain, especially on biting. Radiographic findings and tooth mobility are normal. The most probable cause of pain is a. A loose crown b. Vertical root fracture c. Premature eccentric contact d. Psychosomatic 66. For an occlusal appliance used for muscle relaxation to be effective, the condyles must be located in their most stable position from a musculoskeletal perspective. This is a. Centric occlusion b. At the vertical dimension of rest c. Centric relation d. Maximum intercuspal position 67. Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning the evaluation of the occlusion of a crown? a. The crown is in proper occlusion if it holds the articulating paper (shim stock) b. The crown is in proper occlusion if the adjacent teeth hold the articulating paper c. The crown is in proper occlusion when the articulating paper marks multiple points of contact on the restoration d. All of the above 68. Which of the following is the single most important predictor of clinical success of a casted post-and-core? a. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure b. Post length c. Post diameter d. Positive horizontal stop 69. The impression material that is mainly composed of sodium or potassium salts of alginic acid is a. Polyether c. Polyvinylsiloxane b. Irreversible hydrocolloid d. Polysulfide

70. A diagnostic wax-up is indicated when a. Re-establishing anterior guidance b. A provisional restoration is to be fabricated

6

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE c. Uncertainty exists regarding esthetics d. All of the above 71. A patient is unhappy with the esthetics of an anterior PFM crown, complaining that it looks too opaque in the incisal third. The reason for this is most likely a. Using the incorrect opaque porcelain shade b. Inadequate vacuum during porcelain firing c. Not masking the metal well enough with the opaquer d. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane 72. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment for a FPD? a. Tooth with pulpal involvement b. Tooth with minimal coronal structure c. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line d. Tooth with short, tapered root with long clinical crown 73. A patient with high caries index, short clinical crowns and minimal horizontal overlap requires restoration of a broken-down maxillary central incisor. The restoration of choice is a. Veneers c. Pin ledge restoration b. All porcelain crown d. PFM crown 74. An all porcelain crown will most likely fracture when a. Used in an edge-to-edge occlusion b. Fabricated for a mandibular incisor c. Allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion d. Subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth 75. A permanent maxillary first molar has extruded 4 mm beyond the plane of occlusion into the space where the corresponding mandibular molar is missing. This situation should be corrected by a. Extracting the extruded maxillary molar and constructing fixed prostheses for both spaces b. Restoring the maxillary molar to a satisfactory plane of occlusion with a cast restoration then constructing a mandibular FPD c. Cutting the extruded maxillary molar to the new occlusal plane after the mandibular FPD is cemented d. Reshaping and repolishing the maxillary molar to an acceptable occlusal plane by selective grinding, then constructing a mandibular FPD. 76. In recording centric relation, the mandible can be retruded by having the patient a. Relax the jaw muscles while the dentist manually manipulates the chin up and down b. Turn the tongue backward toward the posterior border of the palate c. Protrude and retrude the mandible repeatedly d. Make repeated swallowing movements e. All of the above 77. Each of the following factors influences a patient's ability to clean a FPD EXCEPT a. Pontic design b. Openness of embrasures c. Occlusion of the prostheses d. Adaptation of the retainer to the finish line 78. The phenomenon where porcelain appears different under varying light conditions is a. Metamerism c. Opacification b. Transmittance d. Translucency 79. Porcelain is strongest when in a state of a. Tension b. Torsion

c. Neutrality d. Compression

80. Syneresis and imbibition are inherent properties that affect the dimensions of which impression material? a. Silicones c. Hydrocolloids b. Polysulfide rubber d. Polyether 81. The best means of extending the working time on an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is a. Extend spatulation

7

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE b. Add more water to the mix c. Use cold water in making the mix d. Add small amount of borax to the mix 82. When making a polyether impression for a crown, custom trays are usually preferred over stock trays for the following reasons EXCEPT a. Custom trays require less impression material b. Custom trays facilitate uniform contraction of the impression material c. Stock trays may be short in the flange areas d. Impressions made in custom trays are easier to remove from the mouth 83. It is advisable not to wear latex gloves when manipulating what kind of impression material? a. Polyether c. Condensation silicone b. Polysulfide d. Addition silicone 84. When luting a fixed prosthesis, which of these cements will produce the smallest post cementation marginal opening? a. Polycarboxylate c. Resin b. Zinc phosphate d. Glass ionomer cement 85. The most ideal cement to be used on porcelain laminates or veneers is a. Resin c. Zinc phosphate b. Glass ionomer d. Zinc polycarboxylate 86. This material that is used for taking interocclusal records. Its disadvantage is great deal of resistance upon closure so it can alter closing pattern of the mandible. a. Polyether material c. Plastics b. Waxes d. Zinc oxide eugenol pastes 87. It is the embracing or hugging effect to protect the whole tooth circumference to prevent fracture. a. Resistance c. Ferrule effect b. Mutually protected d. Canine guided occlusion occlusion 88. Centric relation is a a. Tooth-to-tooth relationship b. Mandible-to-skull relationship

c. Maxilla-to-skull relationship d. None of the above

89. In constructing a full metal crown, future inflammation of the gingival tissues can be most effectively prevented by a. Narrowing the occlusal table by 1/6 b. Accurately reproducing the tooth form in the gingival 1/5 c. Slightly overcontouring the tooth form in the gingival 1/5 d. Extending the margins of the crown 1 mm into the gingival sulcus 90. In esthetics, the value of a tooth depends upon the a. Density of the hue b. Intensity of the color c. Metamerism of the basic color d. Relative whiteness or blackness of its colors 91. The greatest potential for wear exists between a. Tooth and metal b. Tooth and tooth

c. Porcelain and tooth d. Porcelain and porcelain

92. A crown with a chamfer margin fits the die. In the mouth, the crown is open approximately 0.3 mm. A satisfactory fit and an accurate physiologic contour of the gingival area of the crown can best be achieved by a. Hand burnishing b. Making a new impression and remaking the crown c. Using finishing burs to remove the enamel margins on the tooth d. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the crown to allow further seating 93. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD. 1. Check margins 2. Check centric contacts

8

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE 3. Adjust functional contacts (excursive movements) 4. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips a. b. c. d.

1, 2, 4, 3 1, 4, 2, 3 2, 1, 3, 4 4, 1, 2, 3

94. Which of the following describes primary occlusal trauma? a. It is the first incidence of trauma that a tooth experiences b. It is a trauma that produces irreversible damage to the periodontium c. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a normal periodontium d. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a reduced periodontium 95. Secondary trauma from occlusion is seen in cases where a. Healthy gingival and osseous tissues are present b. Traumatic changes are occurring in periodontal tissues of teeth with normal supporting tissues c. Normal occlusal forces causes trauma to the attachment apparatus of teeth with inadequate bone support d. None of the above 96. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion includes the following EXCEPT a. Root resorption b. Bone loss c. Widening of the PDL space d. Thickening of the bone trabeculae 97. Each of the following is a reason for restoring an endodontically treated posterior tooth with a dowel or post EXCEPT a. To strengthen the root b. To enhance retention of the core c. To enhance the lateral force resistance d. None of the above 98. Porcelain failure in an all porcelain crown can best be avoided if the a. Occlusal forces are minimal b. Ceramic material is not over ½ mm in thickness c. Ceramic material is 1 ½ mm in thickness d. Angles of preparation are rounded 99. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as soon as possible? a. The degree of polymerization of the condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases with time b. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material c. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expand as they absorb water from air d. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause distortion 100.

When seating a crown, the dentist usually finds the initial interferences on the a. Margins c. Proximal contacts b. Axial walls d. Lingual

ANSWER KEY

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

B E C F E A

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

E A C B C D

13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 9

C E A B D A

*DO NOT DISTRIBUTE PLEASE 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

D C D D A D A C C A B D B A D B A E C D C A B C D A B A

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74.

B B B A B C D C A D D B A B C B D A B C D A B D D D D A

75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

10

B E C A D C C D D B A B C B B D C B B C C D A D B C