Final Exam MCQs[1]

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Final Exam Disease MCQ’s Multiple choice questions: Gonorrhea 1.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is what type of organism? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa Answer: C


Which of the following is not a symptom of gonorrhea? A. Conjunctivitis B. Skin discoloration C. Burning sensation while urinating D. Painful or swollen testicles Answer: B


What is the causative agent of gonorrhea?

A. Neisseria gonococcus B. Treponema pallidum C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: D 4.

What sexually transmitted infection can be transmitted to a newborn from the mother during the birthing process? A. Gonorrhea B. Herpes C. Chlamydia D. Syphilis Answer: A


What is the best method for treating gonorrhea? A. Exercise B. Antibiotics

C. Over-the-counter medication D. Surgery Answer: B 6.

Which of the following can contribute to acquiring gonorrhea? A. Shaking hands with someone B. Having multiple sexual partners C. Not using protection during intercourse D. Answers B and C Answer: D


Gonorrhea affects all body regions except for which of the following? A. Mouth B. Urethra C. Anus D. Nose Answer: D


What is the incubation period for the STI gonorrhea? A. 3-4 months B. 2-14 days C. 2- 3 months D. 1-5 days Answer: B

9. Which of the following sexually active individuals would be more likely to contract gonorrhea ? A. Michael: 19 year old Caucasian male B. Susan: 40 year old African American female C. Jennifer: 25 year old African American female D. David: 26 year old Asian male Answer: C 10. The bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be described as what? A. Gram-negative cocci

B. Gram-negative rods C. Gram-positive rods D. Gram-positive cocci Answer: A Syphilis 1.

Syphilis starts with a painless skin lesion called a(n) 


In its final stage, the damage may be serious enough to cause death. (please circle) 



If detected early on, a simple shot of ___________ can cure this dangerous STD. 




Syphilis is caused by the a spiral-shaped bacterium called

 Treponema pallidum


How many different stages of syphilis are there 


These lesions in the fourth stage are called ___________ and are very destructive. 



The surest way to avoid transmission of sexually transmitted diseases, including syphilis, is to 



Abstain from sexual contact

Who was responsible for conducting the “Tuskegee Experiment”? 

U.S. Public Health Service


How many men participated in the “Tuskegee Experiment”? 


10. Primary and Secondary Syphilis is higher among 

Men who have sex with Men

Meningococcal Meningitis


What is the causative agent of meningococcal Meningitis?

A. E. coli B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Chlamydia D. HIV 2.

How is Meningococcal Meningitis transmitted? A. B. C. D.


Sharing cigarettes Sharing a hairbrush Sharing food & drinks Both A & C

This disease can be fatal. True


What sample is taken to culture & diagnose meningococcal meningitis? A. B. C. D.



Saliva sample Urine sample Spinal tap Feces sample

Symptoms of this disease usually present in a specific order. True


What body system does meningococcal meningitis affect? A. B. C. D.



The The The The

digestive system endocrine system Reproductive system Nervous system

Once systems of this disease are noticed you should seek medical care when?

A. B. C. D. 8.

All are symptoms of meningococcal meningitis, except: A. B. C. D.


Give it another 48 hours to see if the symptoms go away on their own Immediately The next day Never

Sensitivity to bright lights Vomiting Rashes Sore genitals

Eating healthy can reduce your chances of becoming affected by this disease. True


10. Who is more at risk for contracting this disease? A. Those with a weak immune system B. College students C. Babies & young children D. All of the above

Q1: The first drug discovered to treat Malaria was called (a) Tylenol (b) Quinine (c) Ibuprofen The correct answer is (b). Q2: The cause of malaria disease is due to a parasite called (a) Plasmodium (b) mosquito (c)Insect The correct answer is (a). Q3: How many species of Malaria that potentially infect humans? (a) 4 species (b) 3 species (c)2 species The correct answer is (a). Q4: Malaria is spread by (a) Male Mosquito (b) Female Mosquito (c) Both a and b The correct answer is (b). Q5: What cells does malaria attacks? (a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells (c) T-Cells The correct answer is (a). Q6: What are the signs and symptoms of Malaria? (a)Constipation (b) Chills, fever, and sweating (c) Coughing and frequent urination The correct answer is (b). Q7: Why is Malaria not common in the United States? (a) U.S does not have Anopheles mosquitoes (b) U.S does not have Andes mosquitoes (c)U.S does not have West nile mosquitoes. The correct answer is (a). Q8: About 2 million worldwide are due to Malaria. Which half of that number are found in kids? (a)Under 7 yrs old (b)Under 8yrs. old (c) Under 5 yrs. old The correct answer is (c). Q9: The method used to diagnose Malaria is (a) Bood Test (b) Sputum Test (c) Stool Test The correct answer is (a).

Q10: The two most commonly route used in treating Malaria are (a) Intravenous and Intradermal (b) Intravenous and Oral (c) Sublingual and Buccal The correct answer is (b).

African Trypanosomiasis Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the vector of African trypanosomiasis?

(A) Mosquito

(B) Mite (C) Tsetse-fly (D) Cockroach

2) Which of these causes East African sleeping sickness?

(A) T.b gambiense (B) T. b rhodesiense (C) T. b cruzi (D) None of the above. 3) Which of these causes West African sleeping sickness?

(A) T.b gambiense (B) T. b rhodesiense (C) T. b cruzi (D) None of the above. 4) What motility structure does Trypanosoma use?

(A) Cytoplasmic Streaming (B) Flegella (C) Apical Complex (D) Cilia 5) What kind of organism is Trypanosoma?

(A) Intracellular (B) Extracellular (C) Hemo-parasite (D) Option B & C 6) Trypanosoma belongs to which of the following?

(A) Helminths (B) Fungi (C) Protozoa (D) Bacteria 7) What is the shape of Trypanosomia?

(A) Cocci (B) Bacilli (C) Vibro (D) Spirullum 8) How does Trypanosomia replicate?

(A) Binary fusion (B) Snapping division (C) Budding (D) mitosis

9) Which of these does not cause African Trypanosomiasis?

(A) T.b gambiense (B) T. b rhodesiense (C) T. b cruzi (D) None of the above. 10) Which of the following is not a reservoir of African trypanosomiasis?

(A) Humans (B) Cattle (C) Antelops (D) Rabbit

Test Quiz for Genetically Modified Foods

1. What percentage of American growers produces GM foods: a) b) c) d)

23% 68% 1% 7%

2. How can you create genetically modified foods? a) b) c) d)

Inserting a plasmid Cross Breeding Both A and B are correct None of the above

3. Choose the organisms involved in creating GM modified foods? a) b) c) d) e)

B. Thuringieniensis Agrobacterium Fungi A and b are Correct All of the above

4. How are foods currently being genetically modified to improve the development? a) b) c) d)

Cold Tolerance Make them prettier Pest Resistant All of the above

5. What are the 2 most produce of the genetically modified foods? a) b) c) d)

Cantaloupes and Potatoes Tomatoes and Corn Corn and Soybeans Soybeans and Potatoes

6. Which reason most accurately describes genetically modified organisms? a) anything produced by using biotechnology b) an organism whose gene make-up has been altered in order by using genetic engineering c) using plasmids to create a great vegetable d) None of the above 7.) What are some examples of the criticism of GMO? a) b) c) d)

Pollen transfer creating risks for other animals Resistance to herbicides Gene transfer All of the above

8) Which of the following PLU codes states it’s a genetically modified food? a) b) c) d)

5 digit proceeding with a 8 4 digit 5 digit proceeding with a 9 None of the above Chicken Pox


What causes Chicken Pox? A. E.coli B. Varicella zoster C. Neisseria gonorrhea D. M. Tuberculosis


Chicken Pox is not contagious. A. False


B. True

Chicken Pox is transmitted via: A. Direct contact B. Coughing C. Sneezing D. All of the above


Varicella zoster virus is a DNA virus.

A. True


B. False

Chicken Pox is more common in: A. Men B. Women C. Children D. Animals


VZV remains dormant in the -------- of the infected person. A. Urinary system B. Digestive system C. Nervous system D. Respiratory system


VZV is closely related to the ---------A. Herpes Simplex Viruses B. Adeno Virus C. Influenza Virus D. Hepatitis Virus


VZV has an ability to establish latent infection.

A. True


B. False

What occurs when VZV that causes Chicken Pox starts up again in your body? A. Shingles B. HIV C. TB D. Cancer


The symptoms of Chicken Pox are the following, except: A. Itchy rash B. Red blisters C. Fever D. Ear pain Typhoid Fever

1. What is A. B. C. D.

the real name of Typhoid Mary? Mary Wilson Mary Mallon Mary Tyler Moore Mary Maxwell

2. What is A. B. C. D.

the name of the bacterium that causes Typhoid fever? E. Coli Salmonella Enterocolitis Salmonella Typhi H. Pylori

3. Which of these is not a commonly used antibiotic for treatment? A. Cipro B. Bactrim C. Gentamicin D. Ampicillin 4. What is the most serious complication related to Typhoid and requires immediate medical attention? A. Intestinal Bleeding B. Pneumonia C. Diarrhea D. Psychosis 5. The bacterium causing Typhoid is? A. Gram positive Bacillus B. Gram negative Cocci C. Gram negative Bacillus D. Gram positive Cocci 6. What is A. B. C. D.

another name for typhoid fever? Enteric fever Erickson fever Haverhill fever Scarlet fever

7. What is the only way to accurately diagnose Typhoid fever?

A. B. C. D.

A chest X-ray Blood and Stool cultures If you have all of the symptoms you have the disease None of the above

8. How long after the symptoms disappear can you guarantee that the disease is gone? A. 3-4 wks B. 1-2 days C. 1-2 wks D. Not known until serial blood and stool cultures are obtained and come back negative 9. According to the CDC what percent of people are Typhoid carriers? A. 10% B. 5% C. 50% D. 75% 10. Best way to prevent contraction and he spread of Typhoid? A. Hand washing B. Vaccination before traveling internationally C. Only drink, wash and cook food with bottled water while international D. All of the above Meningococcal Meningitis Quiz

1.Who placed meningococcal meningitis in its category? a) Helen Keller b) Vieusseux c) Albert Ludwig Sigesmund

2. Nesserria Meningitidis is gram positive T


3. The following symptoms of the disease are a) headache b) high fever

c) nausea d) all of the above

4.Inubation period for meningococcal is a) 6 to 9 months b) 1 year c) 6 months d) 2 to 10 days

5.How is the disease transmitted? a) by car b) by animals c) by close living quarters of humans

6. Vaccination is a method for prevention of this disease T


7. Only infants need vaccination for this disease T


8. Is this bacteria potentially fatal T


9. Meningococcal meningitis is motile facultative anaerobe organism T


10. Meningococcal meningitis can be diagnosed from a bacterial culture of the patients cerebral spinal

fluid T


Lindsey McLaughlin Questions from PPT Presentation Richland College August 2011 Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever 1. What is the Ebola virus named after? A. the scientist who discovered it B. a country C. a river D. a rapper 2. What shape is the Ebola virus? A. helical B. round C. rod-shaped D. it has no shape 3. How many subtypes of the virus are there? A. 1 B. 5 C. 4 D. 198 4. How long is the incubation period of Ebola? A. 3 months B. 1 year C. 2-21 days D. 24 hours 5. How do they test for Ebola? A. Blood tests B. saliva tests

C. urine tests D. all of the above 6. Where was the first Ebola outbreak in the United States? A. Dallas, Texas B. Los Angeles, California C. Reston, Virginia D. Baton Rouge, Louisiana 7. How was the Ebola virus brought to the United States? A. lab monkeys B. infected persons C. birds D. santa brought it 8. How is the virus contained? A. Biosafety Level 4 B. strict isolation C. disinfecting D. all of the above 9. What is the treatment for Ebola? A. antibiotics B. anti fungal medications C. acupuncture D. there is no treatment 10. What is the mortality rate of Ebola? A. 5-10% B. 70-90% C. 40-50% D. 20-30%

Chlamydia 1. C. trachomatis is: a.

gram-positive, extra cellular

b. gram-negative, intra cellular c.

crystal violet



2. C. trachomatis is most commonly known as: a.








3. The symptoms of C. trachomatis are most commonly confused with ________ and therefore misdiagnosed. a.


b. Gonorrhea c.




4. Chlamydia is more common in: a.


b. women c.



TSA plates

5. Chlamydia often has no symptoms for weeks so the infected individual and continue to spread the disease without knowing. A. True B. False 6. Chlamydia is usually a genital disease but can cause problems with: A. The eyes B. the Throat C. Pregnancies D. All of the above 7. An infected mother can pass Chlamydia to her newborn through vaginal birth and render the baby blind. A. True B. False 8. Getting treated one time for Chlamydia means you have immunity forever.

A. True B. False 9. Chlamydia can be transmitted via: A. vaginal sex B. b. oral sex C. c. anal sex D. d. all of the above 10. C. trachomatis: a.

is a bacterium


is the cause of the most common STD world wide


survives by replication that results in death of the host cell

d. all of the above UTI Questions and Answers 1. Which of these is not used to test for UTI? a) Urinalysis (b) Urine test (c) Specimen culture (d) Burette test 2. Which of these methods could be the most efficient way to treat UTI? (a) Antibiotics (b) Running (c) Drinking of water (d) Relaxation 3. Which of the following is not a mode of contracting UTI? (a) Eating (b) Sexual intercourse (c) Cleaning from back to front of genital areas (d) Use of contaminated catheter 4. Some juice helps more than just water. True/False 5. E. coli causes 90% of UTI. True/False 6. What are the 2 types of UTI transmission? a) Direct and indirect contact (b) Eye to eye contact (c) Hand shaking (d) Kissing 7. Which one of these will not be affected by UTI? a) Stomach (b) Bladder (c) Kidney (d) Prostate gland 8. Who was the famous person that died of UTI?

a) Michael Jackson (b) Elizabeth Taylor (c) George Washington (d) Pope John Paul II 9. One of these is not tested by urinalysis. (a) Urine color (b) Urine odor (c) acidity (d) urine taste 10. One of these is not a symptom of cystitis. (a) Painful urination (b) frequent urination (c) coughing (d) Pressure in low pelvic. Chicken Pox

10. What causes Chicken Pox? E.



Varicella zoster

G. Neisseria gonorrhea H. M. Tuberculosis

11. Chicken Pox is not contagious. B. False

B. True

12. Chicken Pox is transmitted via: E.

Direct contact



G. Sneezing H. All of the above

13. Varicella zoster virus is a DNA virus. B. True

B. False

14. Chicken Pox is more common in: E.




G. Children H. Animals

15. VZV remains dormant in the -------- of the infected person. E.

Urinary system


Digestive system

G. Nervous system H. Respiratory system

16. VZV is closely related to the ---------E.

Herpes Simplex Viruses


Adeno Virus

G. Influenza Virus H. Hepatitis Virus

17. VZV has an ability to establish latent infection. B. True

B. False

18. What occurs when VZV that causes Chicken Pox starts up again in your body? E.




G. TB H. Cancer

19. The symptoms of Chicken Pox are the following, except: E.

Itchy rash


Red blisters

G. Fever H. Ear pain

Streptococcal pharyngitis 1. Streptococcal pharyngitis is caused by: a. E. coli b. S. bacillus c. S. pyogenes d. S. viridans 2. Streptococcal pyogenes is a. gram-positive, aerobe b. gram-negative, aerobe c. gram-postive, facultative anaerobe d. gram-negative, facultative anaerobe 3. Streptococcus is sub-grouped as: a. alpha-hemolytic and beta-hemolytic b. alpha-hemolytic, beta-hemolytic, and gamma-hemolytic c. gram-positive and gram-negative d. cocci and rod 4. Strep throat is caused when ------------- is infectected a. pharynx and/or larynx b. esophagus c. nasal cavity d. uvula 5. Which of the followings are not involved in the pathogenicity of Streptococcal pyogenes a. M protein b. Streptokinase c. pyrogenic toxins d. T antigen 6. Which of the followings is symptom of streptococcal pharyngitis a. Sore throat b. Fever of greater than (100 °F)

c. Tonsillar exudates (pus on the tonsils) d. all above 7. Streptococcal pyogenes are spread most commonly via: a. blood b. respiratory droplets c. seminal fluid d. non of above 8. Streptococcal pharyngitis is treated with : a. anti-fungal agent b. surgery c. anti-histamine agent d. antibiotics 9. Streptococcal pyogenes is a : a. bacterium b. algae c. fungus d. protozoa 10. Streptococcus was first identified in: a. early 18c b. late 18c c. early 19c d. late 19c Rabies



Which is not one of the symptoms of rabies? a. Itching b. Overactive jaw movement c. Stress/anxiety d. Hallucinations How many proteins are there that contribute to the replication and provision of the virulence factors of Rabies? a. 7 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5


Is Rabies a zoonotic disease? a. Yes b. No 4. What is the name of the more common virus in Rabies? a. Lyssavirus b. Vesiculovirus c. Ephomerovirus d. None of the above 5. Rabies genetic material inside the Enveloped Membrane is made of DNA. a. True b. False 6. Why don’t humans pass on Rabies? a. Rabies cannot survive in the human body b. Rabies cannot be passed to humnas c. Humans are usually dead-ends to a virus d. Humans die immediately after contracting rabies 7. What is the shape of Rabies? a. Coccus b. Bacillus c. Spirochete d. None of the above 8. Replication of the virus will eventually stop a. True b. False 9. Of the choices below which does rabies affect? a. Skeletal b. Respiratory c. Cardiovascular d. Digestive e. Nervous f. Two of these 10. What two famous movies feature Rabies? a. “Old Yeller” and “Cujo” b. “Hills have Eyes” and “Slingblade” c. “Homeward bound” and “Fight Club” d. None of these Pneumooccal Pneumonia 1.

Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by which bacteria? a) Streptococcus pneumonia b) E.coli c)

Staph aureus

d) Micrococcus luteus 2.

The age groups mostly affected are the following: a) 14-29 b) 5 years and under c)

65 years and older

d) B & C


Streptococcus pneumonia is : a) Gram negative b) Gram positive


It is true that children can carry the bacteria in their throats without being sick True



The following are signs and symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia (check all that apply) a)Lung disease B)Upper respiratory tract c)Lungs, middle ear, nervous system d)Children & adults over 65


Vaccines are available as a form of treatment and preventative measure True



Pneumonia is not diagnosed by a) Sputum b) Chest x-rays c)

Chest sounds

d) Eye exam 8.

A pneumococcal vaccine is available for some types of individuals True



What part of the lungs are mainly affected by pneumonia a) Left Lobe b) Right lobe c)


d) Right ventricle 10. Pneumonia can be caused by : a) Bacteria b) Mycoplasmas c)


d) All of the above

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